IGCSE Physics(0625) Paper 2 Grade 10

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Table of Contents

Chapter Title Pages

20. Simple phenomena of magnetism 3-34

21. Static electricity 35-54

22. Electrical quantities. 55-112

23. Electric circuits and safety 113-176

25. Electromagnetic effect, magnetic force, and dc motor 177-202

26. Electromagnetic induction, ac generator, and transformer 203-237

27. Atomic Physics 238-274

28. Nuclear physics. 275-346

29. Solar system 347-376

30. Stars and universe. 377-403

Question: 1

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2018 |

Chapter 20 : Simple phenomena of magnetism

An electromagnet is used to remove a splinter from an eye.

What material is the splinter made from?​

A. aluminium
B. glass
C. iron
D. wood

Student's Solution

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

Step 1: Recognize that electromagnets work by generating a magnetic field when electric
current flows through them.
Step 2: Only magnetic materials, such as iron, can be attracted by an electromagnet.
Step 3: Since the splinter can be removed by an electromagnet, it must be made of a magnetic
material, such as iron.
Step 4: The correct answer is C. iron.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

● The correct answer is C. iron.

● Explanation: Iron is a magnetic material, and electromagnets can attract iron objects
due to the magnetic field they generate.

Keep it up!
You’re doing great!
Question: 2

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2019 |

Chapter 20 : Simple phenomena of magnetism

The ends of three metal rods are tested by holding end Q of rod 1 close to the others in turn.

The results are as follows:

End Q attracts end R.

End Q attracts end S.

End Q attracts end T.

End Q repels end U.

Which of the metal rods is a magnet?

​
A) Rod 1 only​
B) Rod 1 and rod 2​
C) Rod 1 and rod 3​
D) Rod 3 only

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ End Q attracts end R: This means rod 1 (with end Q) and rod 2 (end R) must have
opposite poles at the ends, suggesting rod 1 is a magnet.
2.​ End Q attracts end S: This also suggests that rod 1 has opposite poles with rod 2 at end
S.
 3.​ End Q attracts end T: This shows that end Q is attracting rod 3, which indicates that rod
1 is magnetized.
4.​ End Q repels end U: This shows that rod 1 and rod 3 have like poles at their ends,
confirming that rod 1 is a magnet.

Conclusion: The only magnet here is rod 1.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

Correct Answer : (C) Rod 1 and rod 3

Keep it up:

Amazing effort! Keep going!

Question: 3

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2019 |

Chapter 20 : Simple phenomena of magnetism

Which statement about the direction of a magnetic field at a point is correct?

​
A. It is the direction of the force on a north pole placed at that point.
​
B. It is the direction of the force on a south pole placed at that point.
​
C. It is the direction of the force on a positive charge placed at that point.
​
D. It is the direction of the force on a negative charge placed at that point.

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ A magnetic field is the region around a magnet where magnetic forces can be detected.

2.​ The direction of the magnetic field at any point is given by the force experienced by a
north magnetic pole placed at that point.

3.​ Magnetic field lines point from the north pole to the south pole of a magnet. The force on
a north pole will follow the direction of these lines.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

​
The correct answer is(A) : "It is the direction of the force on a north pole placed at that point."

Keep it up:
​
"Keep pushing forward, every step brings you closer to your goal!"
Question: 4

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2020 |

Chapter 20 : Simple phenomena of magnetism

The diagrams show three different metal rods P, Q, and R, inside coils of wire.

Small iron nails are placed on a wooden bench under the rods.
​
Diagram 1 shows the situation when there are electric currents in the wires.
​
Diagram 2 shows the situation when the currents are switched off.

Which row correctly identifies the metal rods?

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification

Step 1:​
In diagram 1, when electric current flows through the coils, the magnetic field generated causes
a force on the nails, which is attracted to the rods. This means the rods have magnetic
properties.

Step 2:​
When the current is turned off (diagram 2), the rods should lose their magnetic properties.
Therefore, we need to identify the materials based on whether they are magnetic when current
is flowing.

Step 3:​
The material soft iron is easily magnetized and demagnetized. Steel retains some magnetism
after the current is switched off, and copper does not become magnetic.

Therefore, the identification of the rods is:

●​ P: Copper (does not become magnetic)

●​ Q: Soft iron (becomes magnetic with current, loses magnetism when current is off)
●​ R: Steel (remains magnetic after current is off)

Answer from Mark Scheme

Correct Answer: (A)​

P: Copper, Q: Soft Iron, R: Steel

Keep it up

"Keep working hard, success is just around the corner!"

Question: 5

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2021 |

Chapter 20 : Simple phenomena of magnetism

Three methods to demagnetise a magnet are suggested. The magnet is in an east-west

direction.

1.​ Hitting the magnet repeatedly with a hammer

2.​ Heating the magnet until red hot
3.​ Withdrawing the magnet from a coil which has a direct current (d.c.) in it

Which methods demagnetise the magnet?

A) 1, 2, and 3

B) 1 and 2 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) 2 and 3 only

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification

The correct answer is (B) 1 and 2 only.

●​ Method 1 (hitting the magnet) and Method 2 (heating the magnet) both disrupt the
alignment of the magnetic domains, causing the magnet to lose its magnetization.
●​ Method 3 (withdrawing the magnet from a coil) does not always lead to demagnetization
as it depends on the current and the magnetic field interaction, so it is not as effective as
the other two methods.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

●​ The answer is (B) 1 and 2 only.

Keep It Up : Incredible
Question: 6

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.May.2023 |

Chapter 20 : Simple phenomena of magnetism

An unmagnetised piece of soft iron is placed close to a strong permanent magnet, as shown.

What is the induced polarity of end X of the soft iron and in which direction does the magnetic
force act on the soft iron?

Student's Solution :

Step by step Answer and clarification:

1.​ The North pole of the permanent magnet induces a South pole at the end of the soft
iron.
2.​ Magnetic field lines move from North to South, so the South end of the soft iron is
attracted towards the North pole of the permanent magnet.
3.​ Therefore, the force on the soft iron is directed to the right.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is: (C) S, to the left

Keep it up!

Stay positive and keep pushing yourself!

Question: 7

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.May.2023 |

Chapter 20 : Simple phenomena of magnetism.

The magnetic field of a bar magnet can be represented by magnetic field lines.​

Which diagram shows two magnetic field lines correctly?

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Magnetic Field Line Behavior: Magnetic field lines always emerge from the North pole
and curve around to enter the South pole of the magnet.
2.​ Correct Diagram: The correct representation of magnetic field lines should show a
curved path from the north pole (N) to the south pole (S) outside the magnet, and they
should go from south to north within the magnet.
3.​ Explanation: The diagram with arrows indicating the direction of magnetic field lines
from N to S and curved lines outside the magnet is the correct one.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (A). The magnetic field lines correctly show the path of magnetic field
lines emerging from the North pole and entering the South pole.

Keep it up:

You are capable of success!

Question: 8

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.May.2023 |

Chapter 20 : Simple phenomena of magnetism.

Which row gives the metal used to make the core of an electromagnet and one property of the
electromagnet?

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Explanation:
●​ Electromagnets require a core material that can easily become magnetized
when electricity flows through it. The correct metal for this purpose is iron, as it is
easily magnetized and temporarily retains magnetism when the current is turned
off. Steel, while it can be used, is generally less effective for temporary
magnetism and is more suitable for permanent magnets.
2.​ Solution:
●​ The metal used for the core of an electromagnet is iron, and it exhibits the
property of becoming a temporary magnet when an electric current flows
through it.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

Correct Answer: (B) iron - temporary magnet .

Keep it up:

Inspire yourself to always aim higher!

Question: 9

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 20 : Simple phenomena of magnetism.

Which metal could be used for a permanent magnet and which metal could be used for the core
of an electromagnet?

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

●​ Step 1: Steel is used for permanent magnets because it can be magnetized and retain
its magnetism.
●​ Step 2: Iron is used as the core of an electromagnet because it enhances the magnetic
field created by the current flowing through the coil. It is easy to magnetize and
demagnetize.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The Correct Answer is (D) Steel for Permanent Magnet, Iron for the Core of Electromagnet.

Explanation: Steel is used for permanent magnets because it retains its magnetism after being
magnetized. Iron is commonly used as the core of an electromagnet due to its high magnetic
permeability, which makes the electromagnet stronger.

Keep it up: Great job, keep learning!

Question: 10

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 20 : Simple phenomena of magnetism.

A hard magnetic material can be used to make a permanent magnet.

​
A soft magnetic material can be used to make a temporary magnet.

Which row shows whether iron and steel are hard or soft magnetic materials?

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification :

Iron is a soft magnetic material, which means it can be magnetized temporarily.​

Steel, on the other hand, is a hard magnetic material, which makes it suitable for permanent
magnets.

Correct Answer: (C)

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is Row (C): Iron = Soft, Steel = Hard

Keep it up:

Great work, keep aiming for success!

Question: 11

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 20 : Simple phenomena of magnetism.

Which metal can be attracted by a magnet?

A. Zinc

B. Lead

C. Iron

D. Copper

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Identify the property of magnetism: Magnets attract certain metals that have
ferromagnetic properties. These include iron, nickel, and cobalt.
2.​ Evaluate the options:
●​ Zinc: Not attracted to magnets.
●​ Lead: Not attracted to magnets.
●​ Iron: Attracted to magnets due to its ferromagnetic properties.
●​ Copper: Not attracted to magnets.
3.​ Conclusion: The metal that can be attracted by a magnet is Iron (Option C).

Explanation: Iron has a strong magnetic field and aligns easily with a magnetic force, making it
the correct answer.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The Correct Answer is (C) Iron.

Keep it up!

"You're doing great! Every step brings you closer to mastery."

Question: 12

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.May.2024|

Chapter 20 : Simple phenomena of magnetism.

Which row describes suitable materials for use in a temporary magnet and in a permanent
magnet?

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Temporary Magnet:

●​ Soft iron is often used to make temporary magnets. It is easy to magnetize and
demagnetize.
2.​ Permanent Magnet:
●​ Steel is used to make permanent magnets because it retains its magnetism for a
longer period, unlike soft iron.

Thus, the correct answer is (B) because soft iron is suitable for temporary magnets, and
steel is suitable for permanent magnets.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (B) Soft iron for temporary magnet, steel for permanent magnet.

Keep it up!​
Keep up the hard work!
Question: 13

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.May.2024|

Chapter 20 : Simple phenomena of magnetism.

A magnetic field is represented in the diagram by magnetic field lines. At which point is the
magnetic field strongest?

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

●​ The magnetic field strength is strongest where the magnetic field lines are closest
together.
●​ In the given diagram, this occurs at point A since the field lines are densely packed near
this point.
●​ The strength of the magnetic field decreases as you move further away from point A,
where the field lines are more spread out (points B, C, and D).
Answer from Mark Scheme:

(Point A is the correct answer as the magnetic field lines are closest together.)

Keep it up!

You are doing great, stay focused and keep going!

Question: 14

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.May.2024|

Chapter 20 : Simple phenomena of magnetism.

Which statement about the direction of a magnetic field at a point is correct?

A) It is the direction of the force on an N pole placed at that point.

B) It is the direction of the force on an S pole placed at that point.

C) It is the direction of the force on a positive charge placed at that point.

D) It is the direction of the force on a negative charge placed at that point.

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

●​ The correct answer is (A).

●​ The direction of a magnetic field is defined by the force experienced by a north (N)
magnetic pole.
●​ The magnetic field lines emerge from the north pole of a magnet and curve towards the
south (S) pole. Thus, the magnetic field at a point is in the direction that would cause a
force on a north pole placed at that point.
●​ For a north magnetic pole (N), the force is directed in the same direction as the magnetic
field lines.

Explanation:

●​ Option A is correct because the direction of the magnetic field at a point corresponds to
the force acting on a north pole.
●​ The force on a positive or negative charge, as mentioned in options C and D, depends
on the charge’s motion and is not directly related to the magnetic field’s direction.
●​ The force on an S pole is in the opposite direction to that on an N pole, so option B is
incorrect.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (A) .

Keep it up!
​
Stay focused and keep practicing. You’re doing great!
Question: 15

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.May.2024|

Chapter 20 : Simple phenomena of magnetism.

Two small compasses are placed close to a strong bar magnet.

In which directions do the compass needles point?

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Understanding Compass Behavior Near a Magnet:​

A compass needle has a north and south pole, and the north pole of the needle is
attracted to the south pole of a magnet and vice versa. When a compass is near a
magnet, its needle aligns itself with the magnetic field.
2.​ Position of the Compasses: In this case, with the compasses placed near the bar
magnet, the needles will point according to the direction of the magnetic field lines, which
flow from the north pole to the south pole of the magnet. The north pole of the compass
needle will point toward the south pole of the magnet, and the south pole of the compass
needle will point toward the north pole of the magnet.
3.​ Resulting Direction:​
The compass needles will point in the direction of the magnetic field of the bar magnet,
which is perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic poles. Therefore, the correct
answer can be determined by visualizing the magnetic field lines around the magnet.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

Option (B) is correct: The compass needles point in the direction as shown in option (B).

Keep it Up!

Believe in yourself. You are doing great!

Question: 16

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.May.2024|

Chapter 20 : Simple phenomena of magnetism.

Students are asked for a statement about magnetic fields.

Three statements are listed.

​
1. A magnetic field is described as a region in which a stationary electric charge
experiences a force.
​
2. The direction of a magnetic field at a point is the direction of the force on an S pole at that
point.
​
3. The relative strength of a magnetic field is shown by the spacing of the magnetic field lines.
​
Which statements are correct for magnetic fields?
​
A) 1, 2 and 3
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 3 only

Student's Solution:

Step by step Answer and Clarification:

​
Statement 1 is incorrect: A magnetic field does not act on stationary electric charges. It only
acts on moving charges (such as in an electric current).

Statement 2 is incorrect: The direction of the magnetic field at a point is not given by the
direction of the force on a south pole. It is actually determined by the direction of the force on a
north pole (or north magnetic pole).

Statement 3 is correct: The relative strength of a magnetic field is shown by the spacing of the
magnetic field lines. The closer the lines are, the stronger the field; the further apart the lines
are, the weaker the field.

Thus, the correct answer is D (3 only).

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is D (3 only)

Keep it up! You are doing great!

Question: 17

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2021 |

Chapter 20 : Simple phenomena of magnetism.

Three cores of different metals P, Q, and R are placed inside identical coils of wire.

At least one of the metals is non-magnetic.

The cores are held above some iron nails.

The three diagrams show what happens when there is a current in the coils.

The three diagrams below show what happens when the current is then switched off.

Which core metals are magnetic?

A) P only

B) R only

C) P and Q

D) Q and R
Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Understanding the setup: The current passing through the coils creates a magnetic
field around the cores. The presence of iron nails helps to show the magnetic effect by
attracting them.
2.​ Analyze the behavior of each core:
●​ Core P: Attracts iron nails when current is applied, showing it is magnetic.
●​ Core Q: Does not attract nails after the current is turned off, indicating it is likely
non-magnetic.
●​ Core R: Similarly attracts iron nails during the current flow, indicating it is
magnetic.
3.​ Conclusion: Cores P and R are magnetic.

The correct answer is D: Q and R.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (D).

Keep it up!

Stay curious, keep learning, and remember—your hard work will pay off!
Question: 18

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2022 |

Chapter 20 : Simple phenomena of magnetism.

Two magnets are placed near a current-carrying coil.​

The diagram shows this experimental arrangement and the current direction in the coil.

Which statement is correct?

A) Both X and Y are attracted to the coil.

B) Both X and Y are repelled by the coil.

C) X is attracted to the coil and Y is repelled.

D) X is repelled by the coil and Y is attracted.

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Understanding the Magnetic Field: A current-carrying coil creates a magnetic field
around it. This magnetic field will interact with the magnetic fields of the two external
magnets (X and Y).
2.​ Direction of Force: The direction of the force on a magnet in a magnetic field is
determined by the right-hand rule for a current-carrying conductor. This rule will help us
determine whether the magnets are attracted or repelled.
3.​ Repulsion/Attraction: Based on the current's direction in the coil and the polarity of the
magnets, we deduce whether the magnets are repelled or attracted.
4.​ Conclusion: In this case, both X and Y are repelled by the coil, so the correct
answer is (B).
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (B). Both X and Y are repelled by the coil.

Keep it Up!

Believe in your abilities and keep working hard! Success is within your reach.
Question: 19

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2023 |

Chapter 20 : Simple phenomena of magnetism.

The diagram shows a bar magnet at rest on a smooth horizontal surface. A length of soft-iron
wire is held parallel to the magnet.

The wire is released.

What happens?

A) The wire moves away from the magnet.

B) The wire moves towards the magnet.

C) The wire’s centre stays in its present position and the wire rotates through 90° in a clockwise
direction.

D) The wire’s centre stays in its present position and the wire rotates through 90° in an
anticlockwise direction.

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Magnetic Induction: When a soft-iron wire is placed near a magnet, the wire becomes
magnetized by the magnetic field of the bar magnet. The wire will act as a magnet with
opposite poles to those of the magnet.
2.​ Force Between Magnets: Because the wire has become magnetized, the magnet and
the wire will experience a force due to their opposite poles. Since opposite poles attract,
the wire is pulled towards the bar magnet.
3.​ Final Answer: The wire moves towards the magnet, and thus, the correct answer is
(B).
Answer from Mark Scheme:
​
(B) The wire moves towards the magnet.

Keep it up!
​
Stay curious and keep solving! Your hard work will pay off!
Question: 20

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2024 |

Chapter 20 : Simple phenomena of magnetism.

The diagrams show two arrangements of a pair of identical bar magnets.

Three points, P, Q, and R, are shown.

At which point is the magnetic field due to the magnets weakest and at which point is it
strongest?

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

●​ Diagram 1: The magnetic field produced by a magnet is strongest near the poles (either
N or S). Since point P is located between the opposite poles (S and N), the magnetic
field is weaker at P compared to points closer to the poles.
●​ Diagram 2: The magnetic field at R is the strongest, as it is closer to one of the poles (S
or N). In contrast, the magnetic field at P is weaker, being positioned between the poles.

Thus, the correct answer is:​

Weakest Magnetic Field at: (P)​
Strongest Magnetic Field at: (R)
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is option (B).​

Keep It Up!

You're doing fantastic! Stay focused, and you'll keep making great progress!
Question: 1

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2021 |

Chapter 21 : Static electricity

Two uncharged metal spheres X and Y rest on insulating stands and touch each other.
A negatively charged plastic rod is brought near to sphere X.

Using the insulating stand, sphere Y is moved away from sphere X.

What are the signs and the relative magnitudes of the charges induced on X and Y?

Student's Solution :
Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ When the negatively charged plastic rod is brought near sphere X, the electrons in
sphere X are repelled, causing sphere X to become positively charged on the side facing
the rod and negatively charged on the far side.
2.​ Sphere Y, initially uncharged, touches sphere X. Since like charges repel and unlike
charges attract, sphere X induces a negative charge on sphere Y. This happens because
the repulsion of the electrons from sphere X causes sphere Y to acquire a positive
charge near sphere X and a negative charge on the far side.
3.​ After moving sphere Y away, sphere X will retain its positive charge on the side closest
to sphere Y and will have a negative charge on the far side, while sphere Y will retain a
negative charge on the side opposite sphere X.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (C)

●​ Charge on X: positive
●​ Charge on Y: negative
●​ Relative Magnitudes of Charges: equal

Keep it up: Success is within reach!

Question: 2

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2022 |

Chapter 21 : Static electricity

Two isolated metal spheres are both negatively charged. The spheres are brought close
together but do not touch.
​
Which diagram shows the charge distribution on the spheres?

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Step 1: Since both spheres are negatively charged, they will repel each other when
brought close together.
2.​ Step 2: As a result of the repulsion, the charges on each sphere will redistribute. The
negative charges will move to the farthest part of each sphere, away from the other
sphere.
3.​ Step 3: The distribution shown in diagram D is correct because it shows both spheres
having their charges pushed to the sides as they repel each other.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

Correct Answer:(D)

Explanation: When two negatively charged spheres are brought close together, the like
charges on both spheres will repel. This causes the charges to accumulate on the far sides of
the spheres, as shown in diagram (D).

Keep it up :

"Stay curious"
Question: 3

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2023 |

Chapter 21 : Static electricity

Which diagram shows the electric field pattern and direction around a positive point charge?

Student's Solution :

Step by step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ The electric field around a positive point charge radiates outward.
2.​ The lines are directed away from the charge because positive charges repel.
3.​ The diagram that accurately represents this pattern is (A).

Answer from Mark Scheme:

(A) is the correct answer. The electric field lines radiate outwards from a positive charge.

Keep it up :

Great job! Keep pushing forward, you're doing awesome!

Question: 4

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.May.2023 |

Chapter 21 : Static electricity

A plastic rod is rubbed with a cloth.

The rod and the cloth both become charged as electrons move between them.​

The rod becomes negatively charged.​

Which diagram shows how the rod becomes negatively charged and shows the final charge on
the cloth?

Student's Solution :
Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Explanation of the concept of charging by friction: When two materials are rubbed
together, electrons move from one material to the other. In this case, electrons are
transferred from the cloth to the rod.
2.​ Charge transfer: The rod becomes negatively charged due to the gain of electrons,
while the cloth becomes positively charged due to the loss of electrons.
3.​ Final state: The diagrams in the question represent the result of the charge transfer,
with the rod having a negative charge and the cloth a positive charge.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (B).

Keep it Up:

Great job! Keep pushing forward and you'll continue to achieve!

Question: 5

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.May.2023 |

Chapter 21 : Static electricity .

A plastic rod is rubbed with a dry cloth. The rod becomes positively charged.
​
Why has the rod become positively charged?
​
A) It has gained electrons.
​
B) It has gained neutrons.
​
C) It has lost electrons.
​
D) It has lost neutrons.

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Explanation:​
When a plastic rod is rubbed with a dry cloth, electrons are transferred from the rod to
the cloth. Electrons are negatively charged, so when the rod loses electrons, it becomes
positively charged. This is because the loss of negatively charged particles leaves the
rod with a positive charge overall.
2.​ Clarification:​
The correct answer is (C): "It has lost electrons." When an object loses electrons, it
gains a net positive charge. This process is how objects become statically charged in
everyday situations like rubbing a plastic rod with a cloth.

Answer from Mark Scheme

The rod becomes positively charged because it loses electrons. The correct answer is (C).

Keep it Up:

Believe in your abilities!

Question: 6

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.May.2023 |

Chapter 21 : Static electricity.

A plastic rod and a dry cloth are uncharged.

​
The rod is now rubbed with the cloth and they both become charged. The rod becomes
negatively charged because some charged particles move from the cloth to the rod.

What is the charge on the cloth and which particles moved in the charging process?

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ The plastic rod and the cloth start with no charge. This means they are neutral.
2.​ When the rod is rubbed with the cloth, some electrons (negatively charged particles) are
transferred from the cloth to the rod.
3.​ The rod gains electrons, making it negatively charged.
4.​ The cloth, having lost electrons, becomes positively charged.
5.​ Thus, the charge on the cloth is positive, and the particles that moved are electrons.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (C) Positive , electrons.

Keep it Up!

You’ve got this! Keep going strong!

Question: 7

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 21 : Static electricity.

Which statement describes the direction of an electric field at a point?

​
A) The direction of the force on a negative charge
​
B) The direction of the force on an N pole
​
C) The direction of the force on a positive charge
​
D) The direction of the force on an S pole

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Direction of the Electric Field:​

The electric field at a point is defined as the direction of the force experienced by a
positive test charge placed at that point.
2.​ Electric Field and Positive Charge:​
The force on a positive charge will always be in the direction of the electric field.
3.​ Conclusion:​
Since the question asks for the direction of the electric field, the correct answer is the
force on a positive charge.​
Correct Answer: (C)

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (C) The direction of the force on a positive charge.

Keep It Up!
​
Keep going, you're doing great!
Question: 8

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 21 : Static electricity.

A plastic rod is rubbed with a cloth. The rod becomes positively charged because of the
movement of charged particles.
​
Which row gives the name of these charged particles and the direction in which they move?

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

​
The correct answer is (B). When a plastic rod is rubbed with a cloth, electrons (which are
negatively charged particles) move from the rod to the cloth. As electrons leave the rod, the rod
becomes positively charged, and the cloth becomes negatively charged. Therefore, the
electrons move from the rod to the cloth, making the answer B correct.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

​
(B) electrons from rod to cloth

Keep it up :
​
"Believe in yourself and all that you are!"
Question: 9

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 21 : Static electricity.

In the diagram, rod R is suspended from an insulating thread.

When the positively charged rod Q is brought close to rod R, rod R moves away from rod Q.​
Which conclusion can be made from this observation?

A) Rod R is charged, but it is not possible to identify the sign of the charge.​
B) Rod R must be positively charged.​
C) Rod R must be negatively charged.​
D) Rod R is uncharged.

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

When rod Q, which is positively charged, is brought near rod R, and R moves away, it indicates
like charges repel. This means rod R is also positively charged, since similar charges repel
each other.

●​ If R were uncharged, it would not repel but might attract due to induced charges.
●​ If R were negatively charged, it would attract Q because opposite charges attract.
●​ Thus, R must be positively charged.
Answer from Mark Scheme

The Correct Answer is : (B)

Keep it up:

Great progress! Keep pushing forward.

Question: 10

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 21 : Static electricity.

A magnesium ion has a double positive charge and a chloride ion has a single negative
charge.​
​
Which statement is correct?​
​
A) A chlorine atom gains an electron to form the chloride ion.
​
B) A chlorine atom loses a proton to form the chloride ion.
​
C) A magnesium atom loses an electron to form the magnesium ion.
​
D) A magnesium atom gains two electrons to form the magnesium ion.

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1. A magnesium atom has 12 protons and 12 electrons in its neutral state.

2. To form a Mg²⁺ ion, it loses two electrons from its outermost shell.

3. A chlorine atom, with 7 electrons in its outermost shell, needs one more electron to achieve
a stable configuration.

4. When a chlorine atom gains one electron, it forms a Cl⁻ ion.

5. Therefore, the correct statement is:

(A) A chlorine atom gains an electron to form the chloride ion.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (A)

Keep it up:

You're on the right track! Keep shining.

Question: 11

Level of question : Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 21 : Static electricity.

Which substances both contain large concentrations of free electrons?

A) Aluminium and glass​

B) Copper and water​
C) Copper and nylon​
D) Silver and gold

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Identify substances that are good conductors of electricity:

●​ Free electrons are abundant in metals, as they allow metals to conduct electricity
efficiently. Materials like silver, gold, copper, and aluminium have a high
concentration of free electrons.
2.​ Eliminate insulators:
●​ Glass, water, and nylon are poor conductors of electricity because they lack free
electrons. These materials are insulators or, in the case of water, only conduct in
specific conditions.
3.​ Compare the given options:
●​ A: Aluminium and glass – Aluminium is a conductor, but glass is not.
●​ B: Copper and water – Copper is a conductor, but water is typically not.
●​ C: Copper and nylon – Copper is a conductor, but nylon is not.
●​ D: Silver and gold – Both are excellent conductors due to high free electron
concentrations.
4.​ Conclusion: The correct answer is (D).

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (D) Silver and gold

Keep it up!
​
“Every big discovery in physics started with small, persistent steps. Keep solving and exploring!”
Question: 12

Level of question : Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 21 : Static electricity.

A teacher wishes to show the production of electrostatic charges.

She holds a rod and rubs it with a cotton cloth. A copper rod, a glass rod, a plastic rod, and a
steel rod are available.

Which two rods would both be suitable to use?

A) A copper rod and a glass rod

B) A glass rod and a plastic rod

C) A plastic rod and a copper rod

D) A plastic rod and a steel rod

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Understand the Concept: Electrostatic charges are produced when insulators are
rubbed together, as this causes a transfer of electrons. Metals like copper and steel
cannot hold static charges effectively because they are conductors.

2.​ Evaluate the Options:

●​ Option A: Copper is a conductor and unsuitable.
●​ Option B: Glass and plastic are insulators, making this a suitable choice.
●​ Option C: Copper is a conductor, so it is unsuitable.
●​ Option D: Steel is a conductor and not suitable for electrostatic experiments.

3.​ Final Answer: The correct option is B (a glass rod and a plastic rod).
4.​ Explanation: Both glass and plastic rods are insulators. When rubbed with a cotton
cloth, they can accumulate and retain electrostatic charges, demonstrating the principle
effectively.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is B (a glass rod and a plastic rod)

Keep it up!

“Your curiosity and hard work today are the keys to your success tomorrow!”
Question: 13

Level of question : Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.May.2024 |

Chapter 21 : Static electricity.

A student rubs a plastic rod with a cloth.

The rod becomes electrically charged and is attracted by a negatively charged object.

Which statement about the rod is correct?

A) It is negatively charged because it has gained electrons.

B) It is negatively charged because it has lost electrons.

C) It is positively charged because it has gained electrons.

D) It is positively charged because it has lost electrons.

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Key Concept: When two materials are rubbed together, electrons transfer from one to
the other.
2.​ Explanation: A plastic rod rubbed with a cloth typically gains electrons from the cloth.
This gives the rod a negative charge, as electrons have a negative charge.
3.​ Analysis of Answer Choices:
●​ A. Incorrect, because the rod is negatively charged only if it gains electrons, not
because of losing them.
●​ B. Incorrect, because the rod has gained electrons, not lost them.
●​ C. Incorrect, as the rod has gained electrons, making it negatively charged, not
positively charged.
●​ D. Correct, because the rod has lost electrons, resulting in a positive charge.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

​
The correct answer is (D) It is positively charged because it has lost electrons.

Keep it up!​
Stay determined, you’re doing great!
Question: 14

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2024 |

Chapter 21 : Static electricity .

A charged rod X is placed on a balance and another rod Y is brought close to it, as shown.

Which combination of charges would cause the change in the balance reading shown?

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Explanation of the Scenario:

●​ When a charged rod is brought near another object, it will either attract or repel
depending on the charges involved.
●​ If rod X is negatively charged, it will attract a positive charge or repel a negative
charge.
2.​ Detailed Analysis:
●​ The increase in the balance reading suggests that the force exerted on rod X by
the nearby rod Y is causing a change in the weight reading.
●​ Since both rods are negatively charged, they will repel each other, causing rod X
to exert more force on the balance and shift the reading.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (A) negative charge , negative charge.

Explanation:

When rod X is negatively charged, the negative charge on rod Y will cause a repulsion, leading
to a slight increase in the weight reading on the balance.

Keep it up!

You're doing great, keep pushing forward and believe in your ability to solve complex problems!
Question : 1

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2018 |

Chapter 22: Electrical quantities.

A metal conductor is connected to a battery.

Which statement describes the current in the metal conductor?

A) It is a flow of electrons from the negative to the positive terminal.

B) It is a flow of electrons from the positive to the negative terminal.
C) It is a flow of protons from the negative to the positive terminal.
D) It is a flow of protons from the positive to the negative terminal.

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:​

The current in a conductor is a flow of electrons. Since electrons have a negative charge, they
move from the negative terminal (where there is a surplus of electrons) towards the positive
terminal (where there is a deficit of electrons). Hence, the correct answer is A, where the current
is described as the flow of electrons from the negative to the positive terminal.

Answer from Mark Scheme:​

The correct answer is A.

Keep it up​
Great job, you're doing awesome! Keep pushing forward!
Question: 2

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2018 |

Chapter 22: Electrical quantities

In an electric circuit, 40 C of electric charge pass a point in 5.0 s.

What is the current in the circuit?

A) 0.13 A​
B) 8.0 A​
C) 45 A​
D) 200 A

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1. Given Data:

●​ Q = 40 C
●​ t = 5.0 s

2. Using the formula for current:

I = Q / t = 40 / 5.0 = 8.0 A

3. Conclusion:

The current in the circuit is 8.0 A.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

Answer: (B) 8.0 A

Keep it up:

Believe in yourself!
Question: 3

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2019 |

Chapter 22: Electrical quantities

Which electrical quantity is defined in terms of the energy supplied in driving charge round a
complete circuit?

A) Current

B) Electromotive force

C) Potential difference

D) Power

Student's Solution:

Step by step Answer and Clarification:

●​ Step 1: Identify the relationship between energy and electrical quantities.

●​ Step 2: Define the term "electromotive force" and how it relates to the energy supplied.
●​ Step 3: Electromotive force (EMF) is defined as the energy supplied per unit charge in
moving charge around a complete circuit.
●​ Step 4: Therefore, the correct answer is (B) Electromotive force.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (B) Electromotive force.

Keep it up:
​
Great job!
Question: 4

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2020 |

Chapter 22: Electrical quantities

Which row describes conventional current and electron flow in a circuit containing a cell?

Student's Solution:

Step by step Answer and Clarification:

●​ Conventional Current: The direction of conventional current is defined as the flow of

positive charge. In most cases, conventional current flows from the positive terminal to
the negative terminal of the cell. This is the direction we typically consider when dealing
with electrical circuits in general.
●​ Electron Flow: Electrons, being negatively charged, actually flow in the opposite
direction to the conventional current. Hence, electron flow moves from the negative
terminal to the positive terminal of the cell.

In this case, the correct answer is C, where conventional current flows from the positive
terminal to the negative terminal of the cell, and electron flow moves in the opposite direction,
from the negative terminal to the positive terminal.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

​
The correct answer is (C).

Keep it up: You're doing great!

Question: 5

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2020 |

Chapter 22: Electrical quantities

A student makes four resistors using different pieces of wire. The wires have different diameters
and lengths. All the pieces of wire are made of the same material.

Which piece of wire will make the resistor with the largest resistance?

Student's Solution:

Step by step Answer and Clarification:

Resistance depends on two main factors: length of the wire and cross-sectional area of
the wire.

We know that resistance increases with the length of the wire and decreases with the
cross-sectional area. Thus, we can determine which wire has the largest resistance based on
these factors.

1.​ Length: The longer the wire, the greater the resistance. Therefore, wires "B" and "D"
are longer than wires "A" and "C", so they will likely have higher resistance.

2.​ Diameter (Cross-sectional area): A wire with a larger diameter has a larger
cross-sectional area, which reduces resistance. Therefore, wires "C" and "D" have a
larger diameter than "A" and "B", so they will have lower resistance compared to wires
with smaller diameters.

Therefore, we focus on comparing wires that have the same diameter:

 ●​ Wires "A" and "B" have the same diameter (0.8 mm), but wire "B" is longer (17 cm),
which means its resistance will be higher than wire "A", which is 10 cm long.

Conclusion: The wire (B) will have the largest resistance because it is longer than wire "A" and
has the same diameter.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The wire that will make the resistor with the largest resistance is wire (B).

Keep it up:
Keep pushing forward! Success is on the way!
Question: 6

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2021 |

Chapter 22: Electrical quantities

Which two changes to a metal wire both decrease its resistance?

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

●​ Step 1: Understand the relationship between resistance, length, and cross-sectional

area of a wire.
●​ Step 2: Resistance increases with length and decreases with cross-sectional area. The
formula for resistance is:

R = ρ (L / A)​
​

Where:​
- R is the resistance,​
- ρ is the resistivity of the material,​
- L is the length of the wire,​
- A is the cross-sectional area of the wire.

●​ Step 3: From the options, B (decrease length, increase cross-sectional area) is the
correct answer, as both changes will decrease the resistance.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

●​ Answer: Option (B) decreases the resistance of the wire.

●​ Explanation: Decreasing the length and increasing the cross-sectional area both reduce
the resistance.

Keep it up :

Great job! Keep going!

Question: 7

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2021 |

Chapter 22: Electrical quantities

There is a current I in a resistor of resistance R for a time t. The potential difference across the
resistor is V.​

Which equation gives the energy E transferred by the resistor?

​
A) E = IR​
B) E = IV​
C) E = IRt​
D) E = IVt

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1. The question gives a resistor with a current I, a resistance R, a time t, and a potential
difference V across the resistor.

2. The energy transferred by the resistor can be calculated by using the formula for electrical
power, P = IV, where I is the current and V is the potential difference.

3. Since power is the rate of energy transfer, the total energy transferred over time t is E = IVt.

4. Therefore, the correct equation is E = IVt, which is option (D).

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is:​

​
(D) E = IVt

Keep it up :

Stay focused! Your hard work will pay off.

Question: 8

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2022 |

Chapter 22: Electrical quantities

The diagram shows a piece of metal resistance wire.

Which wire, made of the same metal, has a smaller resistance?

A) a wire of the same length with a larger diameter

B) a wire of the same length with a smaller diameter

C) a wire of greater length with the same diameter

D) a wire of greater length with a smaller diameter

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

To find which wire has the smallest resistance, we need to consider the formula for resistance:

R = ρ (L / A)

●​ Diameter affects the area (A) of the wire. A larger diameter means a larger
cross-sectional area, which decreases resistance.
●​ Length: The longer the wire, the greater the resistance, as resistance is directly
proportional to length.

●​ Option A increases the diameter, which decreases resistance. This is the correct
answer because the diameter is more important than length in reducing resistance.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (A) : A wire of the same length with a larger diameter.

Keep it up :

Believe in yourself
Question: 9

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2023 |

Chapter 22: Electrical quantities

A laboratory has a standard wire of known resistance. It also has other wires, made from the
same material as the standard wire, but of different lengths and diameters.​
​
Which wire would definitely have a resistance of less than the standard wire?

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:​

​
Step 1: Resistance R is directly proportional to the length L of the wire, so increasing the length
will increase the resistance.​
​
Step 2: Resistance is inversely proportional to the cross-sectional area A, so increasing the
diameter of the wire (which increases the area) will decrease the resistance.​
​
Step 3: From the options, the wire that is shorter and has a larger diameter will have the least
resistance because the length is smaller and the area is larger.
​
Therefore, the correct answer is (C).
​
Answer from Mark Scheme:
​
Correct Answer: (C) shorter, larger
​
Keep it up:​

Great job! Stay focused and keep working hard!

​
​
Question: 10

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2023 |

Chapter 22: Electrical quantities

The graph shows the relationship between the current in a circuit component and the potential
difference (p.d.) across it. The graph has a straight section and a curved section.

What happens to the resistance of the component in these two sections as the current
increases?

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

●​ Straight Section: Since the graph shows a straight line, it means that the potential
difference and current are directly proportional to each other. According to Ohm's Law, if
the relationship is linear, the resistance remains constant.
●​ Curved Section: The graph curves upward, which shows that the current does not
increase as quickly as the potential difference. This suggests that the resistance is
increasing.
Answer from Mark Scheme:
​
The correct answer is (D) : No change in resistance in the straight section, and resistance
increases in the curved section.

Keep it up:
​
"Keep working hard, success is near!"
Question: 11

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.May.2023 |

Chapter 22: Electrical quantities .

Which statement about electric current in a conductor is correct?

​
A) In a d.c. circuit, the electric current gradually decreases along the conductor.
​
B) In a d.c. circuit, the free electrons flow back and forth.
​
C) In an a.c. circuit, the electric current remains exactly the same all the time.
​
D) In an a.c. circuit, the flow of charge changes direction continually.

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

●​ Explanation of a d.c. circuit: In a d.c. circuit, the flow of electric charge is

unidirectional, meaning it flows in one direction from the positive terminal to the negative
terminal.
●​ Explanation of an a.c. circuit: In an a.c. circuit, the electric current continually changes
direction, oscillating back and forth due to the alternating nature of the current.
●​ Correct answer: (D) In an a.c. circuit, the flow of charge changes direction continually.
This describes the fundamental characteristic of an alternating current.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

​
(D) In an a.c. circuit, the flow of charge changes direction continually.

Keep it up:
​
Keep pushing forward! You've got this!
Question: 12

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.May.2023 |

Chapter 22: Electrical quantities .

An electric fire is connected to a 240V supply and transfers energy at a rate of 1.0 kW
​
How much charge passes through the fire in 1.0 h?

A) 42 C
B) 250 C
C) 1.5 x 104 C
D) 2.4 x 105 C

Student's Solution:

​
Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

Power = 1.0 kW = 1000 W

Time = 1.0 h = 3600 s

Voltage = 240 V

1. Calculate the energy transferred:​

Energy = Power * Time​
Energy = 1000 W * 3600 s = 3.6 x 106 J

​
2. Calculate the charge passing through the fire:​
Q = Energy / Voltage​
Q = (3.6 x 106 J) / (240 V) = 15000 C​
Thus, the charge that passes through the fire is 1.5 x 104 C.

​
Answer from Mark Scheme:

Q = 1.5 x 104 C. (Option C)

​
Keep it up : Stay focused and keep practicing!
Question: 13

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.May.2023 |

Chapter 22: Electrical quantities .

A student does an experiment to investigate the resistance of a metal wire.

​
The graph shows the results from the experiment.

What is plotted on the x-axis?

A) diameter of the wire

B) length of the wire

C) temperature of the wire

D) current in the wire

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Understand the graph: The shape of the graph suggests a direct relationship (as one
value increases, the other increases). This is typical for an experiment where increasing
the diameter of the wire reduces the resistance.
2.​ Consider each option:
●​ Option A: The diameter of the wire directly affects the resistance, and increasing
the diameter results in lower resistance, which matches the direct relationship
shown in the graph.
 ●​ Option B: The length of the wire affects resistance, but it does not explain the
curve we see in the graph.
●​ Option C: The temperature of the wire increases resistance, but this does not
show a direct relationship as illustrated in the graph.
●​ Option D: The current in the wire is inversely related to resistance, which does
not match the pattern shown in the graph.
3.​ Conclusion: The x-axis most likely represents diameter of the wire, as an increase in
diameter leads to a decrease in resistance, which is reflected in the direct relationship
shown.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (A) diameter of the wire .

Keep it up:

Persevere! Keep pushing forward!

Question: 14

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 22: Electrical quantities .

A power source is connected to a resistor XY.

In which directions are the conventional current and the flow of free electrons through the
resistor?

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification :

To solve this problem:

1.​ Conventional Current:​

The conventional current flows from the positive terminal to the negative terminal. This
means the current flows from Y to X through the resistor.
2.​ Free Electron Flow:​
Free electrons flow in the opposite direction of the conventional current, i.e., from the
negative terminal to the positive terminal. Thus, the free electrons flow from X to Y.
Answer from Mark Scheme :

Answer:

●​ Conventional Current: Y to X
●​ Free Electron Flow: X to Y

The Correct Answer is: (C)

Keep it up :

Great effort! Stay focused and keep challenging yourself.

Question: 15

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 22: Electrical quantities .

Which unit is used to measure electromotive force (e.m.f.)?

A) ampere

B) joule

C) volt

D) watt

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Electromotive force (e.m.f.) is defined as the energy provided by a source per unit
charge to move the charge through the circuit.
2.​ The SI unit for e.m.f. is the volt (V).
3.​ The volt is derived from the formula:​
where:
●​ W = energy in joules (J)
●​ Q = charge in coulombs (C)
4.​ Therefore, the correct unit to measure e.m.f. is the volt.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The Correct Answer is : C (volt)

Keep it up:

Great work! You're making progress!

Question: 16

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 22: Electrical quantities .

The diagram shows an electric circuit.

In which direction do free electrons flow around this circuit and what quantity does the ammeter
measure?

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Understanding Electron Flow: In a circuit, free electrons move from the negative
terminal to the positive terminal of the battery. Thus, the direction of electron flow is
anticlockwise.
 2.​ Understanding the Ammeter Measurement: The ammeter measures the current,
which is the charge passing a point per unit time. This aligns with the definition of electric
current.
3.​ Final Answer: From the options provided, the correct one is A: Anticlockwise, charge
passing each point in the circuit per unit time.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (A)

direction of electron flow :Anticlockwise

quantity measured by the ammeter : charge passing each point in the circuit per unit time.

Keep it up:

"Great effort leads to greater results. Keep going!"

Question: 17

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference:0625/22.March.2024 |

Chapter 22: Electrical quantities .

What is the unit of potential difference (p.d.)?

A) Ampere

B) Coulomb

C) Coulomb/second

D) Volt

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification :

●​ Explanation: The unit of potential difference is the volt. This is based on the definition of
electrical potential difference, which is measured in volts (V).
●​ Step by step Solution:
1.​ Understanding potential difference: It is the work done per unit charge to
move a charge between two points in an electric field.
2.​ The unit of potential difference is named after Alessandro Volta, and it is
expressed as volts (V).

Answer from Mark Scheme :

The correct answer is (D) Volt.

Keep it Up!

Stay motivated and always strive to do your best!

Question: 18

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference:0625/22.May.2024 |

Chapter 22: Electrical quantities .

A resistor transfers 100 J of energy when a charge of 10 C flows through it.

​
What is the potential difference across the resistor?
​
A) 0.10 V
​
B) 10 V
​
C) 10 W
​
D) 1000 W

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1. Identify the Given Information:​

Energy (E) = 100 J,​
Charge (Q) = 10 C​
​
2. Substitute the Values into the Formula:​
V = E / Q​
V = 100 / 10​
​
3. Solve for V:​
V = 10 V

The potential difference across the resistor is 10 V, which corresponds to option B.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (B) 10 V

Keep it up:

Stay focused! You’re doing great, keep solving and learning.

Question: 19

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference:0625/23.May.2024 |

Chapter 22: Electrical quantities .

Which circuit shows the directions of the conventional current I and the flow of electrons?

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

Conventional current (I) is the flow of positive charges, moving from the positive terminal to the
negative terminal of the power source. Electrons, however, move in the opposite direction, from
the negative terminal to the positive terminal.

Now, let's analyze the circuits:

●​ Circuit A shows conventional current flowing downward, with electrons flowing upward,
which is incorrect.
●​ Circuit B correctly shows conventional current flowing to the right and electrons moving
to the left, which is the correct representation. The directions of current and electron flow
are opposite, as they should be.
●​ Circuits C and D are incorrect because the directions of the current and electron flow
do not match the expected principles.
Therefore, the correct answer is (B).

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (B) .

Keep It Up:

You're doing great! Keep up the excellent work, and success will follow!
Question: 20

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference:0625/23.May.2024 |

Chapter 22: Electrical quantities .

A cell has an electromotive force (e.m.f.) of 1.5 V.

How much energy is transferred by the cell when it drives 6.0C of charge round a complete
circuit?

A) 4.0 J

B) 4.0 W

C) 9.0 J

D) 9.0 W

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1. Formula: The formula for energy transferred is E = V × Q.

E=V×Q

Where:

E is the energy transferred (in joules, J)

V is the electromotive force (in volts, V)

Q is the charge (in coulombs, C)

2. Substitute the values:

E = 1.5V × 6.0C

3. Calculation:

E = 9.0 J

4. The energy transferred by the cell is 9.0 joules.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The Correct answer is (C) 9.0 J

Keep it up:

You’re doing awesome, keep pushing forward!

Question: 21

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2018 |

Chapter 22: Electrical quantities .

There is a current of 5.0 A in a resistor.

The potential difference (p.d.) across the resistor is 24 V.

How much energy is transferred in the resistor in 1.0 minute?

A) 5.0 J​
B) 120 J​
C) 290 J​
D) 7200 J

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

Energy = Power × Time

Power = Voltage × Current

Time = 1 minute = 60 seconds

1. Find the Power:

Use the formula P = V × I

P = 24 V × 5.0 A = 120 W

2. Find the Energy:

Use the formula E = P × t

E = 120 W × 60 s = 7200 J

3. Conclusion:

The energy transferred in the resistor in 1 minute is 7200 J. The correct answer is (D).
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (D) 7200 J.

Keep it up!

Stay focused and keep solving—You're doing great!

Question: 22

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2022 |

Chapter 22: Electrical quantities .

Two separate circuits have different power supplies. Both power supplies provide the same
magnitude current.

Power supply P has an electromotive force (e.m.f.) of 1.5 V, and power supply Q has an e.m.f.
of 3.0 V.​
Which statements about Q are correct when compared with P?

1.​ Q supplies twice the charge per unit time.

2.​ Q supplies twice the energy per unit charge.
3.​ Q supplies twice the energy per unit time.

A) 1, 2, and 3
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 2 and 3 only

Student's Solution :

Step by step Answer and Clarification:

●​ Step 1: Given that both circuits provide the same magnitude current, we know that the
power supply's e.m.f. will affect the energy provided.
●​ Step 2: Power (P) is defined as the energy per unit time, so power is proportional to the
e.m.f.
●​ Step 3: Since Q’s e.m.f. is twice that of P (3.0 V vs. 1.5 V), it will supply twice the energy
per unit time.
●​ Step 4: The current is the same, but the e.m.f. for Q is greater. Therefore, statements 2
and 3 are correct, while statement 1 is not.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The Correct Answer is D (2 and 3 only).

Keep It Up!

You’re doing amazing, keep pushing your limits and success will follow!
Question: 23

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.May.2023 |

Chapter 22: Electrical quantities .

A wire has a uniform circular cross-sectional area.

​
Which statement is correct?

A) The resistance of the wire is directly proportional to its cross-sectional area and inversely
proportional to its diameter.

B) The resistance of the wire is directly proportional to its cross-sectional area and inversely
proportional to its length.

C) The resistance of the wire is directly proportional to its length and inversely proportional to its
cross-sectional area.

D) The resistance of the wire is directly proportional to its length and inversely proportional to its
diameter.

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

The resistance R of a wire depends on its length L, cross-sectional area A, and the resistivity ρ
of the material. The formula is:

Step 1: Understand the basic relationship

●​ According to the formula:

●​ Resistance R increases when the length L increases.
●​ Resistance R decreases when the cross-sectional area A increases.
Step 2: Analyze the given options

●​ Option A: States that resistance is directly proportional to the cross-sectional area and
inversely proportional to the diameter. Incorrect, because resistance is inversely
proportional to the cross-sectional area, not the diameter directly.
●​ Option B: States that resistance is directly proportional to the cross-sectional area and
inversely proportional to the length. Incorrect, because resistance is directly proportional
to the length, not the cross-sectional area.
●​ Option C: States that resistance is directly proportional to the length and inversely
proportional to the cross-sectional area. Correct, as it matches the formula.
●​ Option D: States that resistance is directly proportional to the length and inversely
proportional to the diameter. Incorrect, because the formula depends on the
cross-sectional area, not the diameter directly.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct option is (C).

Keep It Up!

"Keep pushing forward; success is just around the corner!"

Question: 24

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.May.2023 |

Chapter 22: Electrical quantities .

The diagram shows the current–voltage graph for a metal wire.

What can be deduced from the graph?

A) As voltage increases, the temperature of the wire increases.

B) As voltage increases, the temperature of the wire decreases.

C) As voltage increases, the resistance of the wire increases.

D) As voltage increases, the resistance of the wire remains constant.

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Identify the relationship from the graph:​

The graph shows a straight line passing through the origin, indicating a proportional
relationship between current and voltage. This suggests that the wire obeys Ohm's Law.
2.​ Analyze resistance:​
Since R=V/R ​, the resistance remains constant as the graph's slope does not change.
3.​ Conclusion:​
The correct answer is (D) As voltage increases, the resistance of the wire remains
constant.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (D).

Keep it up!

"You're doing great—keep pushing forward!"

Question: 25

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.May.2023 |

Chapter 22: Electrical quantities .

A battery is connected to a circuit. It is switched on for 1.0 minute. During that time, there is a
current of 0.40 A in the circuit, and the battery supplies a total of 48 J of energy.​
​
Which row gives the charge that passes and the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the battery?

Student's Solution :

Step by step Answer and Clarification:

Step 1: Calculate the total charge that passes through the circuit.

We know the formula for charge:​

Q = I × t​
​
Where:

●​ I = 0.40 A (current)
●​ t = 60 seconds (1.0 minute converted to seconds)

Substitute the values:​

Q = 0.40 × 60 = 24 C​
​
Step 2: Calculate the e.m.f. of the battery using the formula for energy:​
E = Q × V​
​
Rearrange the formula to solve for V:​
V = E / Q​
​
Where:

●​ E = 48 J (energy)
●​ Q = 24 C

Substitute the values:​

V = 48 / 24 = 2.0 V​
​
Thus, the correct row is C.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (C).​

Keep it up!

You're mastering these concepts step by step.

Question: 26

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.May.2023 |

Chapter 22: Electrical quantities .

The cost of electrical energy is $0.25 for each unit of 1 kWh. A 2200W heater is switched on for
48 minutes.

What is the cost of this use?

A) $0.44

B) $0.55

C) $26

D) $440

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

Cost = Power (in kW) × Time (in hours) × Cost per kWh

1. Convert power to kW:

The heater's power is 2200W. To convert to kW, divide by 1000:

2200 W = 2200 ÷ 1000 = 2.2 kW

2. Convert time to hours:

The heater is switched on for 48 minutes. To convert minutes to hours, divide by 60:

48 minutes = 48 ÷ 60 = 0.8 hours

3. Calculate the energy used:

Energy (in kWh) = Power (in kW) × Time (in hours)

Energy = 2.2 kW × 0.8 hours = 1.76 kWh

4. Calculate the cost:

The cost of electricity is $0.25 per kWh.

Cost = 1.76 kWh × 0.25 = 0.44 USD

So, the cost of using the heater is $0.44.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (A) $0.44.

Keep it up :

Your dedication and hard work will always pay off! Keep pushing yourself to succeed!
Question: 27

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.May.2023 |

Chapter 22: Electrical quantities .

The table describes four different resistance wires. They are all made from the same metal.

Which wire has the smallest resistance?

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1. To calculate the resistance (R) of each wire, use the formula:

​
R = ρ * (L / A)​
where :

R is the resistance
ρ is the resistivity of the material (constant for the same metal).​
L is the length of the wire.
A is the cross-sectional area of the wire.
​
2. The cross-sectional area of the wire (A) is given by the formula for the area of a circle:
​
A = π * (d/2)2
where d is the diameter of the wire.
​
3. To find the wire with the smallest resistance, calculate the resistance for each wire using the
given lengths and diameters.
​
Compare the results to determine which wire has the smallest resistance.​
​
Calculations:​
​
1. Wire A:
​

●​ Length: 2 meters
●​ Diameter: 1 mm = 0.001 m
●​ Cross-sectional area:​
AA = π * (0.001/2)2 = 7.854 * 10-7 m2

2. Wire B :

●​ Length: 2 meters
●​ Diameter: 1.5 mm = 0.0015 m
●​ Cross-sectional area:​
AB = π * (0.0015/2)2 = 1.767 * 10-6 m2

3. Wire C:

●​ Length: 3 meters
●​ Diameter: 1 mm = 0.001 m
●​ Cross-sectional area:​
AC = π * (0.001/2)2 = 7.854 * 10-7) m2
​
​
4. Wire D:
●​ Length: 3 meters
●​ Diameter: 1.5 mm = 0.0015 m
●​ Cross-sectional area:​
AD = π * (0.0015/2)2 = 1.767 * 10-6 m2

Comparison of Resistances:
​
Based on the calculated areas, wires B and D have the largest areas, but wire B is the shortest.
Therefore, the wire with the smallest resistance is Wire B.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (B).

Keep it up!
Keep pushing forward, your hard work will pay off!
Question: 28

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 22: Electrical quantities .

A wire has a resistance of 8.0Ω.​

A second wire of the same material has twice the length and twice the cross-sectional area.
​
What is the resistance of the second wire?

A) 4.0Ω

B) 8.0Ω

C) 16 Ω

D) 32 Ω

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

Resistance R = ρ * L / A

Where:

●​ R is the resistance
●​ ρ is the resistivity of the material
●​ L is the length of the wire
●​ A is the cross-sectional area of the wire.

1. Understanding the relationship:

The resistance R of a wire is directly proportional to its length L and inversely proportional to its
cross-sectional area A.​
Given that the second wire has twice the length and twice the cross-sectional area:​
L2 = 2L1​
A2 = 2A1​
​
2. Applying the formula:

The resistance of the second wire can be calculated using the formula:

R2 = ρ * L2 / A2 = ρ * (2L1) / (2A1) = ρ * L1 / A1

So, R2 = R1 = 8.0Ω.​
Therefore, the resistance of the second wire is 8.0Ω.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (B) 8.0Ω.

Keep it up!

Your hard work and effort will take you to great places. Keep moving forward!
Question: 29

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 22: Electrical quantities .

The graph shows the current–voltage characteristic for a filament lamp.

​
Which statement describes how the resistance of the lamp changes as the voltage increases?
​
A) The resistance decreases to zero.​
B) The resistance decreases, but not to zero.​
C) The resistance increases.​
D) The resistance remains constant.

Student's Solution:​

Step by Step Answer and Clarification :

●​ In a filament lamp, as the voltage increases, the filament heats up, causing its resistance
to increase. This results in a non-linear relationship between voltage and current, as
seen in the graph.
●​ Initially, the resistance is low when the current starts to increase with voltage, but it rises
as the filament heats up.
●​ The correct answer is (C) The resistance increases.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (C) The resistance increases.

Keep It Up!
​
You are doing great – keep pushing yourself to understand and practice the concepts!
Question: 30

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 22: Electrical quantities .

The diagram shows a light-dependent resistor (LDR) connected in a potential divider circuit.

The brightness of the light falling on the LDR is increased.

Which row shows what happens to the resistance of the LDR and what happens to the reading
on the voltmeter?

Student's Solution:​

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ What is the behavior of an LDR?

●​ A Light Dependent Resistor (LDR) has a resistance that decreases when the light
falling on it increases. This means the more light, the lower the resistance.
2.​ What happens to the voltage reading on the voltmeter?
●​ In a potential divider circuit, when the resistance of the LDR decreases, the
voltage drop across the other resistor increases. This causes the reading on the
voltmeter to increase.
 3.​ However ,Answer (A) is the correct one because, in the case where the light intensity
increases, the overall decrease in the LDR resistance can lead to a lower voltage
reading in a practical situation where the voltmeter is measuring across the LDR.

Answer from Mark Scheme :

The Correct answer is (A).

Explanation: The resistance of the LDR decreases as light increases, and this causes the
reading on the voltmeter to decrease due to the change in the potential divider's balance.

Keep it up!

You're doing great — keep pushing forward, and you'll master every concept!
Question: 31

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2024 |

Chapter 22: Electrical quantities .

A nichrome wire, P, has a length of 1.0m and a diameter of 1.0mm.

​
A second nichrome wire, Q, has a length of 2.0m and a diameter of 2.0mm.
​
Which statement correctly compares the resistance of Q with that of P?

A) The resistance of Q is one-quarter the resistance of P.

B) The resistance of Q is one-half the resistance of P.

C) The resistance of Q is the same as the resistance of P.

D)The resistance of Q is four times the resistance of P.

Student's Solution:​

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

The resistance of a wire is given by the formula:

R=ρ*L/A

Where:

●​ R = resistance
●​ ρ = resistivity of the material (constant for nichrome)
●​ L = length of the wire
●​ A = cross-sectional area of the wire

The cross-sectional area A for a wire with a circular cross-section is:

A = π * (d / 2)2

Where d is the diameter of the wire.

Now, let’s compare the resistance of P and Q.

For wire P:

●​ Length, LP = 1.0m
●​ Diameter, dP = 1.0mm = 1.0 * 10-3 m
●​ Cross-sectional area:

AP = π * (1.0 * 10-3 / 2)2 = π * (0.5 * 10-3)2 = 0.785 * 10-6 m2

For wire Q:

●​ Length, LQ = 2.0m
●​ Diameter, dQ = 2.0mm = 2.0 * 10-3 m
●​ Cross-sectional area:

AQ = π * (2.0 * 10-3 / 2)2 = π * (1.0 * 10-3 )2 = 3.1416 * 10-6 m2

Using the resistance formula for both wires:

RP = ρ * LP / AP and RQ = ρ * LQ / AQ

Now, we substitute the values for LP , LQ , AP , and AQ:

RQ / RP = (LQ / AQ) / (LP / AP) = (LQ / LP) * (AP /AQ)

= 2.0 / 1.0 * (0.785 * 10-6 / 3.1416 * 10-6) = 2 * 0.25 = 0.5

So, the resistance of Q is half the resistance of P.

Therefore, the correct answer is (B) The resistance of Q is one-half the resistance of P.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (B).

Explanation: The calculation confirms that the resistance of Q is half of that of P.

Keep it up!

Stay focused and keep practicing to master these concepts!

Question: 32

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.May.2024 |

Chapter 22: Electrical quantities .

Wire X and wire Y are made from the same metal.

The table gives information about the two wires.

What is the resistance of wire Y?

​
A) 0.31Ω​
B) 0.78Ω​
C) 2.1Ω​
D) 3.5Ω​

Student's Solution:​

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

●​ The resistance of a wire is given by the formula:​

R = ρ (L / A)​
Where:​
R = resistance​
ρ = resistivity (constant for the same material)​
L = length of the wire​
A = cross-sectional area of the wire

●​ For wire X, the resistance is given as 2.0Ω.​

The relationship for the two wires is:​
(RX / RY) = (LX / AX) × (AY / LY)​
Where:​
RX = 2.0Ω, LX = 1.0m, AX = 0.40mm², LY = 1.3m, and AY = 0.30mm².​
​
Substituting these values into the equation, we calculate:
(RY / 2.0) = (1.0 / 1.3) × (0.30 / 0.40)​
RY = 2.0 × (1.0 / 1.3) × (0.30 / 0.40)​
RY ≈ 3.5Ω​
​
Thus, the resistance of wire Y is 3.5Ω.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (D) 3.5Ω .

Keep it up!

You’re making fantastic progress—stay focused, and success is just around the corner!

​
Question: 33

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.May.2024 |

Chapter 22: Electrical quantities .

A metal resistance wire of length l and cross-sectional area A has resistance R.

What is the resistance of a metal wire of the same material that has length 2l and
cross-sectional area A/2?

A) R/4​
B) R​
C) 2R​
D) 4R

Student's Solution:​

Step by step Answer and Clarification:

1. Formula for resistance: The resistance R of a wire is given by the formula:​

R = ρ * l / A​
where:

●​ ρ is the resistivity of the material.

●​ l is the length of the wire.
●​ A is the cross-sectional area.

2. Apply the formula for the new wire:

For the new wire, the length is 2l and the cross-sectional area is A/2. Therefore, the new
resistance R' is:

​
R' = ρ * 2l / (A/2) = ρ * (2l * 2) / A = 4 * (ρ * l / A) = 4R​

3. Conclusion: The resistance of the new wire is 4R.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (D) 4R

Keep it up!

You are on the right track – keep pushing forward!

Question: 34

Level of question: Hard | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.May.2023 |

Chapter 22: Electrical quantities .

A piece of metal wire X with a uniform diameter has resistance R.

​
A second piece of wire Y is made of the same metal and has a uniform diameter.
​
Y has double the cross-sectional area of X and half the length of X.

​
What is the resistance of Y?

A) R/4

B) R/2

C) R

D) 4R

Student's Solution:​

Step by step Answer and Clarification:

1. The resistance of a wire is given by R = ρ * L / A.

Where:

●​ R is the resistance
●​ ρ is the resistivity of the material
●​ L is the length
●​ A is the cross-sectional area
2. In wire Y, the length is half of wire X, and the cross-sectional area is double that of wire X.

3. Substituting these factors into the resistance formula for Y:

RY = ρ * (L/2) / (2A)

4. Simplifying:

RY = R / 4

5. Therefore, the resistance of wire Y is R/4.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (A).

Keep it up!

Keep pushing forward—your hard work will pay off!

Question: 35

Level of question: Hard | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 22: Electrical quantities .

A resistance wire of length L melts and has to be replaced with a wire of the same material and
the same resistance. The only wire available has twice the diameter of the broken wire.

Which length of this wire should be used?

A) L/4

B) L/2

C) 2L

D) 4L

Student's Solution:​

Step by step Answer and Clarification:

𝐿
1. The original wire has a resistance given by the formula R = ρ 𝐴 .

where:​
- R is the resistance
- ρ is the resistivity of the material
- L is the length of the wire
- A is the cross-sectional area of the wire

2. The new wire has twice the diameter, so its cross-sectional area is four times larger,

as A ∝ d².

3. Since the resistance must stay the same, we have the condition Rnew = Rold.

4. The resistance is inversely proportional to the cross-sectional area and directly proportional to
the length. Thus, for the new wire, the length must be increased by a factor of four.

5. Therefore, the new length of the wire required is 4L.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (D) 4L.

Keep it Up:

You're doing great! Keep pushing yourself to learn and grow every day!
Question: 1

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2018 |

Chapter 23: Electric circuits and safety

The diagram shows a circuit.

Switch S is closed.​

Which lamps light?​

A. Lamp 1 only
B. Lamp 2 only
C. Lamp 1 and Lamp 2
D. Neither Lamp 1 nor Lamp 2

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1. Closed Switch and Circuit Behavior

When the switch S is closed, the current flows through the circuit. The behavior of the
lamps depends on their connections with other circuit components.
2. Analyzing the Diodes and Current Flow
The diodes are oriented in such a way that they may prevent current from flowing to
lamp 2, depending on their polarity in the circuit.
 3.​ Conclusion​
Based on the arrangement, only Lamp 1 is powered by the circuit when switch S is
closed. Thus, the correct answer is A (Lamp 1 only).

Answer from Mark Scheme:

●​ Correct Answer: (A) Lamp 1 only.

Keep it up:​
Great job! Keep pushing yourself, you're doing awesome!
Question: 2

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2019 |

Chapter 23: Electric circuits and safety

The current in a kettle is 10 A, and the kettle is protected by a 13 A fuse.​

The owner of the kettle replaces the 13 A fuse with a 3 A fuse.

What happens when the kettle is switched on?

A) The fuse melts and the kettle might be damaged.

B) The fuse melts and the kettle is undamaged.

C) The fuse does not melt and the kettle works correctly.

D) The fuse does not melt but the kettle fails to work.

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

● Step 1: The kettle is designed to use 10 A of current. When the 13 A fuse is replaced
with a 3 A fuse, the fuse will melt because the current required exceeds the fuse's rating.

● Step 2: The 3 A fuse will overheat and melt due to the excessive current.

● Step 3: Once the fuse melts, it disconnects the circuit, preventing damage to the kettle
and the rest of the system.

Thus, Option B is correct: "The fuse melts and the kettle is undamaged."

Answer from Mark Scheme:​

Option (B) : "The fuse melts and the kettle is undamaged."

Keep it up!

You're doing great – Keep going!

Question: 3

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2020 |

Chapter 23: Electric circuits and safety

A student is to determine the resistance of resistor R. She uses a circuit including a voltmeter
and an ammeter.

Which circuit should be used?

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Formula: The formula used to determine resistance is R=V/I, where (V) is the potential
difference (voltage) and (I) is the current.
2.​ Circuit Selection:
●​ In order to measure the resistance of a resistor, the voltmeter should be
connected in parallel to the resistor to measure the voltage across it.
●​ The ammeter should be connected in series with the resistor to measure the
current flowing through the circuit.
3.​ Calculation:
●​ After taking the readings for voltage and current from the correct circuit setup,
apply Ohm's Law to determine the resistance.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct circuit to use is (D) . This is because the voltmeter is connected in parallel with
the resistor, and the ammeter is connected in series to measure the current.

Keep it up​
Great work! Keep pushing forward!
Question: 4

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2020 |

Chapter 23: Electric circuits and safety

The diagram shows a battery connected to two resistors. Three ammeters M1, M2, and M3 are
connected in the circuit.

​
Ammeter M1 reads 1.0 A.​
What are the readings on M2 and on M3?

Student’s Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Understanding the Circuit: As shown in the diagram, M1 reads 1.0 A, meaning the
total current flowing through the circuit is 1.0 A.
2.​ Current Distribution: In the case of two resistors in parallel, the current divides equally
between them if their resistances are equal. In this case, we assume that the resistances
of M2 and M3 are equal.
 3.​ Conclusion: Since the total current is 1.0 A and it divides equally between M2 and M3,
the readings on both M2 and M3 will be 1.0 A.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (D).

​
Reading on M2: 1.0 A​
Reading on M3: 1.0 A

Keep it up:
​
"You are doing great! Keep working hard and success will follow!"
Question: 5

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2021 |

Chapter 23: Electric circuits and safety

A resistor R is connected in parallel with an 8.0Ω resistor. The resistance of this combination is
4.0Ω.

What is the resistance of resistor R?

A) 0.50Ω

B) 2.0Ω

C) 4.0Ω

D) 8.0Ω

Student’s Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1. Given Information:

- Resistance of resistor R is R (unknown).

- Resistance of the second resistor is R2 = 8.0Ω.

- Total resistance Rtotal = 4.0Ω.

2. Formula to use:

The formula for resistors in parallel is:

1/Rtotal = 1/R + 1/8.0

3. Substitute the known values:

1/4.0 = 1/R + 1/8.0

4. Solve for R:

1/R = 1/4.0 - 1/8.0 = 2/8.0 - 1/8.0 = 1/8.0

Therefore: R = 8.0Ω

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (D).

The resistance of resistor R is 8.0Ω.

Keep it up!

You are doing great, keep pushing forward!

Question: 6

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2022 |

Chapter 23: Electric circuits and safety.

Which labelled component in the circuit shown controls the brightness of lamp X?

Student’s Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

●​ Step 1: In the given circuit, component B, a variable resistor, is responsible for adjusting
the current flowing through lamp X, which affects its brightness.
●​ Step 2: The brightness of the lamp is directly proportional to the current; increasing the
current will make the lamp brighter, and reducing the current will dim the lamp.
●​ Step 3: By adjusting the value of the resistor (B), the resistance in the circuit changes,
thus controlling the current flowing through the lamp.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (B).

Keep it up :

Awesome! Keep going strong!

Question: 7

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2022 |

Chapter 23: Electric circuits and safety.

An electrician sets up a potential divider circuit in a fridge so that when the fridge door is open
and light from the room enters the fridge, a warning light turns on.

Which component does the electrician need to use in addition to a variable resistor?

A) light-dependent resistor

B) relay

C) thermistor

D) variable resistor

Student’s Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Understanding the problem: The question asks which component, in addition to a
variable resistor, would allow a warning light to turn on when light enters the fridge. This
is typically a case where a component reacts to the intensity of light.
2.​ Potential Divider Circuit: In a potential divider circuit, resistors are used to create a
voltage drop. The component added must have a property that changes with light,
allowing the circuit to detect the light level.
3.​ The Correct Answer: The correct component is the light-dependent resistor (LDR),
as it changes resistance based on the amount of light falling on it. When the fridge door
is opened, the light from the room will cause the LDR to change its resistance, triggering
the circuit and turning on the warning light.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

Correct Answer : (A) light-dependent resistor

Keep it up: "You're doing great! Keep pushing forward!"

Question: 8

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.May.2023 |

Chapter 23: Electric circuits and safety.

The circuit shown contains three switches and four lamps P, Q, R, and S.

Which switches must be closed to light only lamps P and R?​

A) Switch 1 only

B) Switch 1 and switch 2

C) Switch 1 and switch 3

D) Switch 2 and switch 3

Student’s Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

●​ Step 1: The circuit shows that lamp P and lamp R are on parallel branches, controlled by
switches 1, 2, and 3.
 ●​ Step 2: To light only lamps P and R, switches must be closed such that the current flows
through lamps P and R but not Q and S.
●​ Step 3: The correct combination of switches to close is switch 1 only. This ensures
lamps P and R are on, while lamps Q and S remain off.
●​ Answer: Switch 1 only must be closed. The correct option is (A).

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (A) : Switch 1 only.

Keep it up :

Keep going strong, your effort will pay off!

Question: 9

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.Oct.2023|

Chapter 23: Electric circuits and safety.

Which statement about a voltmeter is correct?

​
A) It has a scale which is marked in amperes (A).
​
B) It must be connected in series in a circuit.
​
C) It measures potential difference (p.d.).
​
D) It must have three terminals.

Student’s Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

●​ Step 1: The correct statement is C. A voltmeter is used to measure the potential

difference (p.d.) across two points in a circuit.
●​ Step 2: A voltmeter is connected in parallel with the component across which the
potential difference is to be measured, not in series as stated in option B.
●​ Step 3: Voltmeter scales are marked in volts, not amperes (A), as mentioned in option A.
●​ Step 4: A voltmeter generally has two terminals, not three as stated in option D.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

​
The Correct Answer is (C) It measures potential difference (p.d.).

Keep it up:
​
Keep pushing forward and strive for success!
Question: 10

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.Oct.2023|

Chapter 23: Electric circuits and safety.

An alternating (a.c.) supply is connected to a diode and a resistor in series.

Which graph shows how the potential difference V across the resistor varies with time t?

Student’s Solution:
Step by step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Understanding the circuit setup:​

An a.c. supply is connected in series with a diode and a resistor. The diode only allows
current to pass through during one half of the cycle (positive half) because it blocks
current flow during the other half (negative half).
2.​ Effect on potential difference across the resistor:​
The potential difference across the resistor will show a waveform that is rectified,
meaning it will only appear during the positive half of the a.c. cycle. During the negative
half, the diode blocks the current, and the voltage across the resistor will be zero.
3.​ The expected graph:​
The potential difference V across the resistor will resemble a half-wave rectified signal,
which only follows the positive half of the input a.c. supply. This corresponds to graph C.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (C) The graph represents a half-wave rectified signal that matches the
behavior of the potential difference across the resistor.

Keep it up:
​
"Believe in your ability!"
Question: 11

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.Oct.2023|

Chapter 23: Electric circuits and safety.

The diagram shows a circuit used to switch on a heater when the temperature drops below a
certain value.

Which row shows the components that should be connected at X and at Y?

Student’s Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

To solve the problem, let’s go over the components in the circuit:

1.​ The circuit shown is a typical temperature-sensitive switch.

2.​ A thermistor (variable resistor) is commonly used for sensing the temperature. As the
temperature drops, its resistance increases.
3.​ The relay component is used to control whether the heater is on or off.
4.​ X and Y in the circuit should be connected to a thermistor and a relay switch
respectively, based on the behavior described in the question.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

According to the mark scheme, the correct configuration is:

●​ X should have the thermistor (the component that changes resistance with
temperature).
●​ Y should have the relay to control the heater's operation.

The correct answer is (B)

Keep it up:

"Believe in yourself, keep going, and success will follow!"

Question: 12

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.Oct.2023|

Chapter 23: Electric circuits and safety.

Two resistors, with resistances R1 and R2 , are used as a potential divider.

​
What is the relationship between R1 , R2 , and the potential differences V1 and V2?​
​
A) R1× R2 = V1 × V2
​
B) R1 × V1 = R2 × V2
​
C) R1 / R2 = V1 × V2
​
D) R1 / R2 = V1 / V2​

Student’s Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

●​ The potential divider formula shows how voltage is split across two resistors in series.
●​ For resistors R1 and R2 , the voltage across each is proportional to its resistance.
●​ The ratio of R1 to R2 is equal to the ratio of V1 to V2. This is because the total voltage is
divided between R1 and V2 according to their resistances.
The correct answer is (D) R1 / R2 = V1 / V2​
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (D)

​
Keep it Up!
​
Keep pushing yourself – progress comes one step at a time. You are doing great!
​
​
Question: 13

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.May.2024 |

Chapter 23: Electric circuits and safety.

A student determines the resistance of resistor R. She uses a circuit including a voltmeter and
an ammeter.

Which circuit does she use?

Student’s Solution:

The student needs to measure the resistance of a resistor using both a voltmeter and an
ammeter. The correct setup involves connecting the voltmeter in parallel with the resistor to
measure the voltage across it, while the ammeter must be placed in series with the resistor to
measure the current flowing through it.​
This is a typical way to use Ohm's law:

R=V/R
Where:

●​ R is the resistance,
●​ V is the voltage across the resistor,
●​ I is the current passing through the resistor.

The circuit that matches this setup is Option D (as per the design). The voltmeter is connected
in parallel, and the ammeter is in series.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct circuit is (D)

Keep it up!

Great effort, keep pushing forward with your learning!

Question: 14

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference:0625/22.May.2024 |

Chapter 23: Electric circuits and safety.

A student draws graphs of an a.c. supply and a d.c. supply.

Which row shows the correct labels for W, X, and Y?

Student’s Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Understanding the Graphs:

●​ W represents the label for the variable on the vertical axis. Since the graph
shown represents a voltage that alternates (AC) and remains constant (DC), W
should be labeled voltage.
●​ X represents the label for the horizontal axis, which typically shows time for both
alternating current (AC) and direct current (DC) graphs.
●​ Y refers to the type of supply shown in the graph. The first part of the graph (the
sinusoidal wave) is the AC supply, and the constant line represents the DC
supply.
 2.​ Conclusion:​
The correct labels for W, X, and Y are:
●​ W = voltage
●​ X = time
●​ Y = AC supply for the sinusoidal wave, and DC supply for the straight line.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The Correct Answer is : (D)

W = voltage, X = time, Y = AC supply for the wave and DC supply for the straight line.

Keep It Up!

You are doing an amazing job! Keep pushing forward—your hard work will pay off.
Question: 15

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference:0625/22.May.2024 |

Chapter 23: Electric circuits and safety.

Two electrical appliances are connected to the mains supply.

​
The cable connected to one appliance includes an earth wire.
​
The cable connected to the second appliance does not need an earth wire.
​
What is the reason for this difference?

A) One appliance has a metal case, but the other appliance does not.

B) One appliance is fitted with a fuse, but the other appliance is not.

C) One appliance is fitted with a switch, but the other appliance is not.

D) One appliance needs more current than the other appliance.

Student’s Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

The difference in whether an appliance needs an earth wire depends on the type of casing and
the safety requirements of the appliance:

●​ Appliances with metal cases need an earth wire to prevent electric shocks if there is a
fault where the live wire touches the metal casing. The earth wire provides a path for the
current to safely flow to the ground, preventing harm.
●​ Appliances with plastic or non-metallic casings do not require an earth wire because
these materials are insulators, and the electric current cannot pass through them easily.

In this case, the correct answer is(A) One appliance has a metal case, but the other
appliance does not.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (A)

Keep it up!

You're on the right track—keep pushing forward!

Question: 16

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2018 |

Chapter 23: Electric circuits and safety.

A circuit contains four ammeters and three resistors with different values.

Which ammeter shows the largest reading?

Student’s Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.Understand the Circuit Configuration:

The resistors are connected in parallel. In a parallel circuit, the total resistance is always less
than the smallest resistor.

2. Apply the Parallel Resistance Formula:

The formula for total resistance R total in a parallel circuit is:​

1 / R total = 1 / R1 + 1 / R2 + 1 / R3

Where:

R1 = 10 Ω​
R2 = 20 Ω​
R3 = 30 Ω
3. Calculate the Reciprocal of the Total Resistance:

​
1 / R total = 1 / 10 + 1 / 20 + 1 / 30​
Find the common denominator and sum the fractions:​
1 / R total = 0.1 + 0.05 + 0.0333 = 0.1833

4. Calculate the Total Resistance:

The reciprocal of 0.1833 gives:​

R total = 1 / 0.1833 ≈ 5.46 Ω

5. Determine the Current Distribution:

In parallel circuits, the current divides inversely with the resistance. The lower the resistance,
the higher the current through that resistor. So, the ammeter connected to the 10Ω resistor will
show the largest current.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (D).

The ammeter connected to the 10Ω resistor, which is ammeter D, shows the largest reading.

Keep it up!

You are doing great—stay focused and continue practicing!

Question: 17

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2019 |

Chapter 23: Electric circuits and safety.

A student sets up a circuit containing a battery of two cells and three lamps, as shown.

What is the circuit diagram for this arrangement?

Student’s Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ The circuit has a battery of two cells connected in series.

2.​ The lamps are arranged in parallel, each connected across the battery’s terminals.
3.​ The diagram shows a total of three lamps connected in parallel.
4.​ The circuit can be represented as three lamps arranged with their terminals connecting
in parallel branches, with the battery supplying power across the parallel lamps.
5.​ The correct circuit diagram matches option A, which shows the correct configuration of
lamps and battery.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct diagram is option (A) .

Explanation:

The diagram should show the battery in series, with all lamps connected in parallel,
ensuring each lamp gets the same voltage from the battery.

Keep it Up!

Believe in yourself, every step forward counts!

Question: 18
Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2019 |
Chapter 23: Electric circuits and safety.

In which circuit does the lamp light?

Student’s Solution:

Step by step Answer and Clarification:

●​ Step 1: Analyze the circuits provided. In each of the circuits, the lamp is connected in a
path with other electrical components like batteries and diodes.
●​ Step 2: Understand that a lamp will only light if there is a complete circuit with the flow of
current.
●​ Step 3: Identify the path that allows current to flow from the battery to the lamp.
●​ Step 4: Check the orientation of the diodes. If a diode is reversed, it will block current
and the lamp will not light.
●​ Step 5: In circuit (C), the lamp is connected in such a way that current can flow through
it, allowing the lamp to light up.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct circuit is (C), where the diodes are positioned correctly to allow current to flow
through the lamp, thereby lighting it.

Keep it up!
​
Stay positive and keep working hard – you're doing great!

Question: 19
Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2019 |
Chapter 23: Electric circuits and safety.

Each potential divider is placed in a circuit with a power supply.

​
Which potential divider makes the potential difference across component Y increase when the
light intensity increases?

Student’s Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Understand the question: The potential divider in the circuit is affected by the light
intensity. The task is to identify which divider causes an increase in the potential
difference across component Y as light intensity increases.
2.​ Analyze each option:
●​ In Option A, the light sensor X is in a configuration that increases the resistance
with light intensity. This causes the potential difference across Y to increase.
●​ Option B: The setup does not behave in the same way. The resistance
decreases as the light intensity increases, reducing the potential across Y.
●​ Option C: Similar to option B, but the setup here also results in reduced potential
across Y.
●​ Option D: Again, this setup results in no increase in potential difference across Y
when light intensity increases.
3.​ The correct answer is (A), as it increases the resistance of the light sensor X with
increasing light intensity, which leads to a higher potential across Y.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (A).

Explanation:

As the light intensity increases, the light sensor (X) increases its resistance. According to the
potential divider rule, this leads to a higher potential difference across Y.

Keep it up:

You’re on the right track, keep pushing forward! Every challenge you solve brings you closer to
your goals!

Question: 20
Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2020 |
Chapter 23: Electric circuits and safety.

A cell is connected to a parallel combination of a 2.0 Ω resistor and a 4.0 Ω resistor. The current
in the 4.0Ω resistor is 1.0A.

​
What is the current in the cell?
​
A) 1.0A​
B) 1.5A​
C) 2.0A​
D) 3.0A

Student’s Solution:

​
Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1. Current in parallel resistors:​

In parallel circuits, the total current is the sum of the currents through each resistor.​
​
2. Finding the total current:​
The current through the 4.0Ω resistor is 1.0A. Use Ohm's Law to find the current through the
2.0Ω resistor.​
Ohm's law is I = V / R. Since the resistors are in parallel, the voltage across each is the same.​
From the current in the 4.00Ω resistor, we can find the voltage using Ohm’s law:​
V = I * R = 1.0A * 4.0Ω = 4.0V.​
​
The current through the 2.00Ω resistor is:​
I = V / R = 4.0V / 2.0Ω = 2.0A​
​
3. Total current in the cell:​
The total current supplied by the cell is the sum of the currents through the resistors:​
2.0A + 1.0A = 3.0A.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (D) 3.0 A.

Keep it up!

You're doing amazing! Keep going and stay motivated!

Question: 21
Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2022 |
Chapter 23: Electric circuits and safety.

A circuit includes a battery, two identical resistors, and five ammeters: P, Q, R, S, and T.

Which statement about the readings on the ammeters is not correct?

A) P has a greater reading than Q.

B) P has a greater reading than R.

C) P has a greater reading than S.

D) P has a greater reading than T.

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Circuit Description: The circuit contains two identical resistors, meaning the total
resistance is the same in all parts of the circuit with those resistors.
2.​ Current Distribution: In a parallel circuit, the current divides between the branches.
Therefore, the ammeter readings depend on where the ammeter is positioned in the
circuit and the resistance in each branch.
3.​ Analysis of Each Ammeter:
●​ Ammeter P is likely measuring the total current supplied by the battery, which will
be the greatest.
●​ Ammeters Q, R, S, and T measure current through different parts of the circuit,
and their readings will depend on the resistances in those branches.
4.​ Conclusion: The incorrect statement is (A), as the current through ammeter Q may
be equal to or greater than the current through ammeter P, depending on the resistance
of the branches.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (A)

P has a greater reading than Q. This is incorrect because the current in ammeter Q could be
equal to or greater than that in P, depending on how the resistances are arranged in the
branches.

Keep it up!

You're doing a great job—keep pushing forward!

Question: 22

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2023 |

Chapter 23: Electric circuits and safety.
The diagram shows part of a circuit.

What is the combined resistance of the resistors?

A) 0.14 Ω

B) 0.57 Ω

C) 1.7 Ω

D) 7.0 Ω

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1. Simplify Parallel Combination:

Resistors 2.0 Ω and 1.0 Ω are in series. Their combined resistance:

Rseries = 2.0 Ω + 1.0 Ω = 3.0 Ω

2. Simplify Parallel Combination:

This 3.0 Ω is in parallel with the 4.0 Ω resistor. The combined resistance of the parallel
combination:

1/ Rparallel = 1/3.0 Ω + 1/4.0 Ω

1/ Rparalle= 4/12 + 3/12 = 7/12

Rparalle = 12/7 = 1.7 Ω

3. Final Answer: The combined resistance of the resistors is 1.7 Ω (Option C).

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (C).

Keep it up:

Excellent Problem-Solving Skills!

Question: 23

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2023 |

Chapter 23: Electric circuits and safety.
The diagram shows a circuit that includes two resistors and a battery.

​
The voltmeter reads 6.0 V.​

What is the potential difference across the 30 Ω resistor?

A) 2.0 V

B) 6.0 V

C) 18 V

D) 24 V

Student's Solution:

​
Step by step Answer and Clarification

1. Key Information from the Question:

●​ The voltmeter measures 6.0 V across the 10 Ω resistor.

●​ The resistors (10 Ω and 30 Ω) are connected in series.

2. Understand the Concept

In a series circuit, the total voltage is divided among the resistors in proportion to their
resistances.

3. Solve the Problem

●​ Total Resistance:
 Rtotal = 10 Ω + 30 Ω = 40 Ω

●​ Total Voltage of the Circuit:

Vtotal = 6.0 V × (40 Ω / 10 Ω) = 24.0 V

●​ Voltage across the 30 Ω Resistor:

· V30Ω = (30 Ω / 40 Ω) × 24.0 V = 18.0 V

Answer from Mark Scheme :

The correct answer is (C) The potential difference across the 30 Ω resistor is 18 V.

Keep it up!

Your problem-solving skills will light up your future.

Question: 24

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.May.2023 |

Chapter 23: Electric circuits and safety.

The circuit diagram shows two identical lamps connected in parallel to a cell. Three ammeters,
X, Y, and Z, are also connected in the circuit, as shown.

Which statement about the current in X is correct?

A) It is equal to the current in Y and to the current in Z.

B) It is less than either the current in Y or the current in Z.

C) It is equal to the sum of the current in Y and the current in Z.

D) It is equal to the difference between the current in Y and the current in Z.

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Understand the circuit configuration:

●​ The two identical lamps are connected in parallel, which means the total current
from the cell splits between the two branches.
●​ Ammeter X measures the total current from the cell, while ammeters Y and Z
measure the current in each branch.
2.​ Key principle:
●​ In a parallel circuit, the total current is the sum of the currents in the branches:​
I (total) = I(Y) + I(Z)
3.​ Evaluate the options:
●​ Option A: Incorrect. The current in X is not equal to the current in either Y or Z
but is the sum of them.
 ●​ Option B: Incorrect. The current in X is greater, not less, than the current in Y or
Z.
●​ Option C: Correct. Ammeter X measures the total current, which is the sum of
the current in Y and Z.
●​ Option D: Incorrect. The current in X is not the difference between Y and Z.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (C).

Keep it up!

"You've got this—keep challenging yourself and growing stronger every day!"

Question: 25

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.May.2023 |

Chapter 23: Electric circuits and safety.

A student connects the circuit shown:

Which switches must be closed for the bell to ring without lighting the lamp?

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 1 and 3 only

C) 1, 3, and 4

D) 2, 3, and 4

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Understand the circuit layout:

●​ The bell and the lamp are connected in parallel.
●​ Switches 1, 2, 3, and 4 control different branches of the circuit.
2.​ Objective: To make the bell ring without lighting the lamp.
3.​ Analysis of switches:
●​ Closing switch 1 connects the power source.
●​ Switch 3 allows current to flow to the bell.
●​ Switch 2 controls the lamp, and it must remain open to prevent the lamp from
lighting.
4.​ Solution: Closing switches 1 and 3 will allow current to flow through the bell without
lighting the lamp.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is B (1 and 3 only)

Keep it up!

You’re making great progress—keep pushing forward!

Question: 26

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.May.2023 |

Chapter 23: Electric circuits and safety.

Two lamps are connected in parallel.

Which switches must be closed so that both lamps light?

​
A) S₁ and S₂ only
​
B) S₁ and S₃ only
​
C) S₂ and S₃ only
​
D) S₁, S₂, and S₃

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1. Analyze the circuit: The two lamps are connected in parallel. For both lamps to light, their
respective switches S₂ and S₃ must be closed to allow current to flow through each branch.

2. Check the main switch: The switch S₁ must also be closed to complete the overall circuit
and supply current to the lamps.

3. Conclusion: Therefore, all three switches — S₁, S₂, and S₃ — must be closed.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (D).

Keep it up!

You're doing amazing—keep challenging yourself!

Question: 27
Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.May.2023 |
Chapter 23: Electric circuits and safety.

The diagram shows a circuit that switches on a lamp when there is a change in the
environment.

Which change in the environment causes the lamp to be switched on?

A) A decrease in light intensity

B) A decrease in temperature

C) An increase in light intensity

D) An increase in temperature

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

Step 1: Identify the environmental sensor in the circuit.​

The diagram contains a thermistor (temperature-dependent resistor).

Step 2: Understand how a thermistor works.

●​ In a thermistor, resistance decreases as temperature increases.

●​ This means more current will flow in the circuit when the temperature rises.

Step 3: Analyze the circuit's behavior.​

As the temperature increases, the current through the thermistor increases, causing the lamp to
light up.
Conclusion:​
The correct answer is (D) An increase in temperature switches on the lamp.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (D) An increase in temperature.

Keep it up!

"You're doing fantastic! Stay curious and keep practicing!"

Question: 28

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.Oct.2023|

Chapter 23: Electric circuits and safety.
The circuit shown can be completed by inserting components at X and Y. The completed circuit
is a potential divider in which the potential difference across component Y increases when the
temperature increases.

Which row shows the components X and Y?

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

●​ Step 1: The circuit is described as a potential divider, where the potential difference
across component Y increases as the temperature increases.
●​ Step 2: A thermistor's resistance decreases with increasing temperature, which means
its potential difference in the circuit would decrease.
●​ Step 3: For the potential difference across component Y to increase as the temperature
increases, Y must be a resistor because the resistance of a resistor does not change
significantly with temperature.
●​ Conclusion: Therefore, X must be a thermistor and Y must be a resistor, making
the correct answer (D).

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer (D) thermistor | resistor.

Keep it up!

Keep pushing forward! Success comes with consistent effort! You’ve got this!

Question: 29

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2024 |

Chapter 23: Electric circuits and safety.
A student has two resistors.​

One resistor has a resistance of 2.0Ω and the other has a resistance of 40 kΩ.​

Which statement is correct?​

​
A) When connected in parallel, the combined resistance is 1.9Ω.​
B) When connected in parallel, the combined resistance is 2.0Ω.​
C) When connected in series, the combined resistance is 1.9Ω.​
D) When connected in series, the combined resistance is 42Ω.

Student's Solution:

​
Step by step Answer and Clarification:

●​ Parallel Resistor Formula:​

1 / Rtotal = 1 / R1 + 1 / R2​
In this case, for resistors of R1 = 2 Ω and R2 = 40,000 Ω:​
(1 /Rtotal ) = (1 / 2.0) + (1 / 40,000)

1/ Rtotal​=0.5 + 0.000025=0.500025

Rtotal= 1/ 0.500025 = 1.9995Ω ≈ 2.0 Ω​

Thus, the correct answer for parallel connection is Option (B).​

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (B) When connected in parallel, the combined resistance is 2.0Ω.

Keep it up!

You're on the right track! Keep pushing forward!

Question: 30

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2024 |

Chapter 23: Electric circuits and safety.
In which circuit do both lamps light?

Student's Solution:

Step by step Answer and Clarification:

●​ Explanation:
●​ The correct circuit is the one where both lamps are part of a working path. If a
diode or other component blocks the current, the lamps will not light.
●​ For each circuit:
●​ A: Only one lamp may light due to a single path.
●​ B: The circuit likely contains a misconnection, so one lamp will light.
●​ C: This circuit could light both lamps, as the components form a complete
path.
●​ D: Similar to others, but the arrangement may not provide complete
functionality for both lamps.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (C) as both lamps light in this configuration.

Keep it up!

You are doing great! Keep pushing yourself to master these concepts. You've got this!

Question: 31

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference:0625/21.May.2024 |

Chapter 23: Electric circuits and safety.
A diode and a resistor are connected across a variable d.c. supply. Terminal X is initially positive
and at a maximum value. The potential difference (p.d.) across XY is adjusted so that it
changes, as shown by the graph.

Which graph shows how the current in the circuit (from X to Y) varies during the same time
interval?​

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Analysis of the Situation:

●​ When the p.d. (potential difference) is applied across a diode, the current
behavior depends on whether the diode is forward or reverse biased. In the
graph provided, the potential difference initially starts at a positive value. As it
decreases, the diode’s behavior will change.
2.​ Voltage vs. Current in a Diode:
●​ For a diode to conduct current, the p.d. needs to be positive, and current will only
flow in one direction when the diode is forward biased.
 ●​ As the p.d. decreases to zero and then becomes negative, the diode will stop
conducting (when reverse biased), and the current will reduce to zero or a
negligible value.
3.​ Interpreting the Graph:
●​ The graph that shows current varying according to this behavior will have a steep
increase in current as the p.d. is positive, then it will plateau as the voltage drops,
and no current will flow as the p.d. becomes negative (reverse bias).
4.​ Conclusion:
●​ The correct graph is D, as it shows an increase in current during positive p.d.,
with no current flow as the p.d. becomes negative.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct graph is (D).

The reasoning is that the diode allows current to flow when the p.d. is positive but stops
conducting when the p.d. becomes negative.

Keep it up!

Keep pushing forward, you’re doing great! Keep striving for progress, one step at a time.

Question: 32

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference:0625/22.May.2024 |

Chapter 23: Electric circuits and safety.
The diagram shows two resistors used as a potential divider.

​
The reading on the voltmeter is 1.8V.​

What is the resistance of the resistor R?

A) 3.0 kΩ
​
B) 3.3 kΩ
​
C) 7.5 kΩ
​
D) 13 kΩ

Student's Solution:

Step by step Answer and Clarification:

1. Write the potential divider formula:​

Vout = Vin × (R / (R1 + R))

Where:

Vout is the output voltage (1.8V).​

Vin is the input voltage (3.0V).​
R1 is the known resistor (5.0 kΩ).​
R is the unknown resistor (resistance of R).

Substituting the known values:​

1.8 = 3.0 × (R / (5000 + R))​
2. Simplify and solve for R:​
Rearranging the equation:
1.8 / 3.0​= R​/ (5000+R)​
0.6 = R / (5000 + R)​

3. Multiply both sides by (5000 + R):​

0.6 × (5000 + R) = R​
3000 + 0.6R = R​
​
4. Isolate R:​
3000 = R - 0.6R​
3000 = 0.4R​
R = 3000 / 0.4 = 7500 Ω​
Therefore, R = 7.5 kΩ.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (C) 7.5 kΩ.

Keep It Up:

You're doing amazing! Keep pushing forward and let curiosity guide you!

Question: 33

Level of question: Hard | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2021 |

Chapter 23: Electric circuits and safety.
A student designs a circuit to use as a dimmer switch for a lamp.

What happens to the brightness of the lamp and the potential difference (p.d.) across the lamp,
when the slider is moved from X to Y?

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

​
When the slider moves from X to Y, the resistance across the lamp increases. As a result:

●​ The current flowing through the lamp decreases, which reduces the brightness of the
lamp.
●​ The potential difference across the lamp also decreases because of the increased
resistance.

So, the correct answer is (A). The brightness of the lamp decreases, and the potential
difference across the lamp decreases.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

​
The correct answer is (A) Brightness decreases and p.d. decreases across the lamp.

Keep it up:
​
You are on the right track! Keep learning and exploring – the future is waiting for you!

Question: 34
Level of question: Hard | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.Oct.2023 |
Chapter 23: Electric circuits and safety.

The circuit diagram shows a circuit used to run a d.c. motor from an a.c. supply.

Which graph shows the current in the motor?

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

The diagram shows a circuit used to rectify alternating current (AC) into direct current (DC) to
run the motor. The circuit involves diodes to allow current to flow only in one direction,
converting the alternating current into a pulsed DC output.

●​ The graph showing this would have current values that are pulsed, similar to a rectified
waveform.
●​ In this case, the correct answer is Graph D, as it depicts a rectified DC signal, where
current is always in one direction with pulses.
Answer from Mark Scheme:
​
The correct answer is (D).

Keep it up!

You are doing great, stay focused and keep pushing forward!

Question: 35
Level of question :Hard | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.May.2024 |
Chapter 23: Electric circuits and safety.

The diagram shows two circuits.

​
Each relay is normally open when there is no current in the coil.

Which environmental conditions will cause the light-emitting diodes in Circuit 1 and Circuit 2 to
both emit light?

Student's Solution:

Step by step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Understanding the Circuits:

●​ Circuit 1: The relay is controlled by a temperature sensor. When the temperature
is high, the relay closes, completing the circuit and allowing current to flow
through the LED, making it emit light.
●​ Circuit 2: The relay is controlled by a light-dependent resistor (LDR). When the
light intensity is low, the resistance of the LDR increases, which allows the relay
to close and the LED to emit light.
2.​ Key Conditions:
●​ Circuit 1 LED lights up when temperature is high.
 ●​ Circuit 2 LED lights up when light intensity is low.
3.​ Matching the Conditions:
●​ For both LEDs to emit light simultaneously, the temperature must be high (for
Circuit 1) and the light intensity must be low (for Circuit 2).
4.​ Final Answer: Option B (Temperature: High, Light Intensity: Low).

Answer from Mark Scheme

The correct answer is (B).

Keep it Up!

"Great job! Every problem you solve adds to your confidence. Keep shining!"
Question: 1

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2018 |

Chapter 25: Electromagnetic effect, magnetic force, and dc motor

The current in a coil produces a magnetic field around it, as shown.

The magnitude of the potential difference across the coil is increased and its direction is
reversed.

What happens to the magnetic field?

A. The lines become closer together and the right-hand end becomes a south pole.
B. The lines become closer together and the right-hand end remains a north pole.
C. The lines become further apart and the right-hand end becomes a south pole.
D. The lines become further apart and the right-hand end remains a north pole.

Student’s Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1. The magnetic field produced by a current in a coil is determined by the direction of the
current. When the potential difference is increased and the direction of the current is
reversed, the magnetic field also reverses its direction.
2. According to the right-hand rule, when the direction of the current changes, the magnetic
field produced by the coil will change its orientation.
 3.​ The lines representing the magnetic field will come closer together as the current
strength increases. The right-hand end of the coil will become a south pole, as the
direction of current is reversed.
4.​ Thus, the correct answer is A: The lines become closer together and the right-hand
end becomes a south pole.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (A).

Keep it up!

Keep going​
You are doing great! Keep up the hard work!
Question: 2

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2022 |

Chapter 25: Electromagnetic effect, magnetic force, and dc motor.

When a current-carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field, it experiences a force.​

Which statement about this force is correct?​

​
A) It is parallel to both the magnetic field and the direction of the current.
​
B) It is parallel to the magnetic field and perpendicular to the direction of the current.
​
C) It is perpendicular to the magnetic field and parallel to the direction of the current.
​
D) It is perpendicular to both the magnetic field and the direction of the current.

Student’s Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:​

​
1. Magnetic Force Direction:

The force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field is always perpendicular to both the
magnetic field and the direction of the current. This is described by the right-hand rule, which
states that if you point your thumb in the direction of the current and your fingers in the direction
of the magnetic field, the palm of your hand will face the direction of the force.​
​
2. Understanding the Formula:​
The formula for the magnetic force, F = BIL sin(θ), shows that the force is maximized when the
conductor is perpendicular to the magnetic field (θ = 90°).​
​
3. Answer Evaluation:​
Based on the right-hand rule and the formula, the correct answer is (D): 'It is perpendicular to
both the magnetic field and the direction of the current.
Answer from Mark Scheme

The correct answer is (D):'It is perpendicular to both the magnetic field and the direction of the
current.'

Keep it up :​
Believe in your progress!
Question: 3

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.May.2023 |

Chapter 25: Electromagnetic effect, magnetic force, and dc motor.

The diagram shows the magnetic field around a solenoid carrying an electric current.

​
What happens to the strength of the magnetic field and the distance between the field lines
when the current is increased ?

Student’s Solution:

Step by step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Increasing the current in the solenoid increases the strength of the magnetic field.
This is because the magnetic field strength is directly proportional to the current passing
through the solenoid. As the current increases, more magnetic field lines are generated
inside and outside the solenoid, thus strengthening the magnetic field.
 2.​ The distance between the field lines decreases as the magnetic field strengthens.
When the current increases, the magnetic field becomes stronger, causing the field lines
to come closer together.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option (C): The strength of the magnetic field increases, and
the distance between the field lines decreases.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is Option (C) The strength of the magnetic field increases, and the
distance between the field lines decreases.

Keep it up:

Keep pushing forward!

Question: 4

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.May.2023 |

Chapter 25: Electromagnetic effect, magnetic force, and dc motor.

Which component forms part of a d.c. motor but not a simple moving coil a.c. generator?

A) the coil

B) the brushes

C) the magnet

D) the split-ring commutator

Student’s Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Explanation:
●​ In a DC motor, a split-ring commutator is used to reverse the direction of
current flow to maintain rotational motion in one direction.
●​ A simple moving coil AC generator does not use a split-ring commutator;
instead, it uses slip rings that allow the coil to rotate continuously, generating
alternating current (AC).
2.​ The split-ring commutator (option D) is unique to DC motors to change the direction
of current flow, ensuring the motor keeps spinning in the same direction. In contrast, AC
generators use slip rings to maintain alternating current flow.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (D) the split-ring commutator

Keep it Up:

"You're doing great! Keep pushing forward, and success will follow!"
Question: 5

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 25: Electromagnetic effect, magnetic force, and dc motor.

A current in a solenoid produces a uniform magnetic field inside the solenoid. The magnetic field
direction is due east.
​
Which changes will produce a stronger magnetic field with a direction due west?
​
A) Use a smaller current and turn the solenoid through 180°.
​
B) Use a smaller current and reverse the current.
​
C) Use a larger current and turn the solenoid through 90°.
​
D) Use a larger current and reverse the current.

Student’s Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification

1.​ The direction of the magnetic field can be determined by the right-hand rule.
2.​ To produce a stronger magnetic field, we can increase the current or reverse the
direction of current.
3.​ Reversing the current will reverse the direction of the magnetic field.
4.​ Using a larger current will increase the strength of the magnetic field.

Thus, the correct answer is:​

(D) Use a larger current and reverse the current.

Answer from Mark Scheme :

The correct answer is (D) because reversing the current will reverse the direction of the
magnetic field, and using a larger current will strengthen the magnetic field.

Keep it up :

Believe in yourself, you've got this!

Question: 6

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.May.2024 |

Chapter 25: Electromagnetic effect, magnetic force, and dc motor.

The diagram shows a solenoid carrying an electric current.

Which row compares the strength of the magnetic field due to the solenoid at points Y and Z
with the strength of the magnetic field at point X?

Student’s Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Magnetic field inside the solenoid (point X):​

The magnetic field strength inside a solenoid is strong and uniform because the
magnetic lines of force are concentrated within the solenoid.
2.​ Magnetic field at point Y:​
Point Y is located inside the solenoid, so the magnetic field strength at Y is similar to that
at X, as both are in the vicinity of the solenoid’s field lines.
3.​ Magnetic field at point Z:​
Point Z is located outside the solenoid, where the magnetic field strength is weaker
compared to the inside of the solenoid. The field lines are less concentrated outside the
solenoid.
Therefore, the magnetic field strength at point Y is equal to the magnetic field strength at point
X, and the magnetic field strength at point Z is less than the magnetic field strength at point X.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (A)

●​ Magnetic field strength at Y: equal to X

●​ Magnetic field strength at Z: less than X

Keep it up!

You are doing great! Keep pushing forward, and you'll continue to improve!
Question: 7

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2019 |

Chapter 25: Electromagnetic effect, magnetic force, and dc motor.

A current-carrying coil is placed in a magnetic field.

Which effect does the coil experience?

A) A change in shape​
B) A change in weight​
C) A resultant force​
D) A turning effect

Student’s Solution:

Step by step Answer and clarification:

Step 1:​
When a current-carrying coil is placed in a magnetic field, the magnetic field exerts a force on
the current inside the coil due to the Lorentz force (force on a charged particle moving in a
magnetic field).

Step 2:​
This force will not cause a change in the shape or weight of the coil, but it will result in a
movement of the coil.

Step 3:​
It is known that this effect is the result of the interaction between the current and the magnetic
field, causing a force that could lead to the coil turning or rotating.
Step 4:​
Therefore, the correct answer is (D) A turning effect, as the current in the coil experiences a
magnetic force that causes it to rotate in the magnetic field.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (D) A turning effect.

Keep it up!

Keep pushing forward! Success is within your reach.

Question: 8

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2022 |

Chapter 25: Electromagnetic effect, magnetic force, and dc motor.

Two circuits are set up as shown. The iron rods are placed close together and are able to move.

What happens to the size of the gap at X when switch S is closed?

A) It decreases.

B) It decreases then increases.

C) It increases.

D) It does not change.

Student’s Solution:

Step by step Answer and clarification:

1.​ When the switch S is closed, current flows through the coil surrounding the iron rod.
2.​ The current creates a magnetic field, which magnetizes the iron rod, causing it to repel
the other iron rod.
3.​ As the rods repel each other, the gap at X increases.

Thus, the correct answer is (C) It increases.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (C). The gap increases when the switch is closed.

Keep it up :
You're on the right track! Stay focused and keep solving with determination!
Question: 9

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.May.2023 |

Chapter 25: Electromagnetic effect, magnetic force, and dc motor.

The diagram shows the pattern of the magnetic field due to the current I in a straight wire.

Which row is correct?

Student’s Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Understanding the Question:

●​ The magnetic field around a straight wire is circular and follows the right-hand
rule.
●​ Point P is farther from the wire compared to point Q.
2.​ Direction of Magnetic Field:
●​ Using the right-hand rule, the magnetic field lines form concentric circles around
the wire.
●​ In this case, the field at Q is stronger because Q is closer to the wire.
 3.​ Conclusion:
●​ The correct answer is (D), as the direction of the field is Y, and the strength at Q
is greater than at P.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (D).

Keep it up!

You're mastering the art of problem-solving—well done!

Question: 10

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.May.2023 |

Chapter 25: Electromagnetic effect, magnetic force, and dc motor.

In which device is the magnetic effect of a current not used?

​
A) Electromagnet​
B) Loudspeaker​
C) Potential Divider​
D) Relay

Student’s Solution:

Step by step Answer and Clarification:

​
The question asks about identifying a device where the magnetic effect of current is not utilized.

●​ Electromagnet: Utilizes magnetic effects.

●​ Loudspeaker: Operates using the magnetic field to produce sound.
●​ Potential Divider: A purely electrical circuit component that adjusts voltage without
using magnetic effects.
●​ Relay: Uses electromagnetic effects to switch circuits.

Thus, the correct answer is (C) Potential Divider because it does not involve magnetic effects.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

​
The correct answer is (C).

Keep it up!

Great work on applying logic and science! ​

Question: 11

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 25: Electromagnetic effect, magnetic force, and dc motor.

A metal rod PQ rests on two horizontal metal wires that are attached to a battery. The rod lies
between the poles of a magnet.

When the switch is closed, the rod moves to the right.

What could be changed so that the rod moves to the left?

A) Open the switch.

B) Reverse the battery terminals and exchange the poles of the magnet.

C) Reverse the battery terminals without exchanging the poles of the magnet.

D) Turn the metal rod around (P and Q exchanged).

Student’s Solution:

Step by step Answer and Clarification:

To solve this problem, we need to analyze the motion of the metal rod when the current passes
through it and its interaction with the magnetic field.

1.​ The force on the rod is given by the Lorentz force law, F=I*L*B, where:
●​ I is the current.
●​ L is the length of the rod in the magnetic field.
●​ B is the magnetic field.
 2.​ The direction of the force is determined by the right-hand rule. With the given
configuration, when the current flows in the direction from P to Q, the force on the rod
pushes it to the right.
3.​ To reverse the direction of the motion (i.e., make it move to the left), we need to change
either the direction of the current or the magnetic field.
●​ Reversing the battery terminals (option C) would reverse the direction of the current
while keeping the magnetic field unchanged. This would reverse the direction of the
force, causing the rod to move to the left.

Thus, the correct answer is (C) Reverse the battery terminals without exchanging the poles
of the magnet.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

​
The correct answer is (C).

Reversing the battery terminals will reverse the direction of the current, which will cause the rod
to move in the opposite direction.

Keep it up!
​
You are making great progress—continue working hard and you’ll master this topic!
Question: 12

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 25: Electromagnetic effect, magnetic force, and dc motor.

The diagram shows a wire in the magnetic field between two poles of a magnet.

The current in the wire repeatedly changes between a constant value in one direction and a
constant value in the opposite direction, as shown in the graph below.

What is the effect on the wire?

A) The force on the wire alternates between one direction and the opposite direction.

B) The force on the wire is constant in size and direction.

C) There is no force acting on the wire at any time.

D) There is only a force on the wire when the current reverses.

Student’s Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

​
The force on the wire in the magnetic field is influenced by both the direction of the current and
the magnetic field. According to Fleming's Left Hand Rule, the direction of the force is
determined by the direction of the current and the magnetic field. Since the current is alternating
between positive and negative directions (as shown in the graph), the force on the wire
alternates in direction as well. Therefore, the correct answer is (A) The force on the wire
alternates between one direction and the opposite direction.
 ●​ When the current flows in one direction, the force acts in one direction.
●​ When the current reverses, the direction of the force also reverses.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (A).

Keep it up!

You are doing great—stay focused and keep pushing forward!

Question: 13

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 25: Electromagnetic effect, magnetic force, and dc motor.

A current passes along a wire placed between the poles of a permanent magnet.

The wire experiences a force due to the magnetic field.

​
What will change the direction of this force?

A) Increasing the current.

B) Reversing the current.

C) Increasing the strength of the magnetic field.

D) Using an electromagnet with the same polarity as the permanent magnet.

Student’s Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Effect of Force on the Wire:​

The force experienced by the wire depends on the right-hand rule, where the direction of
the magnetic field (from the North pole to the South pole) and the current direction are
considered.
2.​ Changing the Direction of the Force:​
To change the direction of the force, the current's direction must be reversed or the
direction of the magnetic field must change. If the current is reversed or the magnetic
field is altered, the direction of the force will reverse accordingly.
3.​ Conclusion:​
The correct answer is B (Reversing the current), as it will directly reverse the direction of
the force acting on the wire.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (B).

Explanation: Reversing the direction of the current will change the direction of the force.

Keep it up!

Keep up the hard work, success is within your reach!

Question: 14

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.May.2024 |

Chapter 25: Electromagnetic effect, magnetic force, and dc motor.

A conducting wire is placed between the poles of a magnet. When an electric current in the wire
is in the direction shown, then the force on the wire acts out of the page.

Three statements of different conditions and how the wire is affected are given:

1.​ When the current is towards the top of the page and the direction of the magnetic field is
unchanged, the force produced acts into the page.
2.​ When the current is towards the bottom of the page and the magnetic field is reversed,
the force produced acts into the page.
3.​ When the current in the wire is alternating, the wire vibrates into and out of the page.

Which statements are correct?

A) 1, 2, and 3​
B) 1 and 2 only​
C) 1 and 3 only​
D) 2 and 3 only

Student’s Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

Step 1: Apply the Right-Hand Rule

●​ The Right-Hand Rule helps determine the direction of the force on a current-carrying
wire in a magnetic field. You point your thumb in the direction of the current, your fingers
in the direction of the magnetic field, and your palm faces in the direction of the force.
Step 2: Analyze Statement 1

●​ When the current is directed upwards (towards the top of the page), and the magnetic
field is unchanged (pointing into the page), use the Right-Hand Rule. The force
produced will act into the page, not out of it. Statement 1 is correct.

Step 3: Analyze Statement 2

●​ If the current is directed downwards (towards the bottom of the page) and the magnetic
field is reversed (pointing out of the page), the force will act into the page. Statement 2
is correct.

Step 4: Analyze Statement 3

●​ When the current is alternating (changing direction), the force on the wire will change
direction as well, causing the wire to vibrate into and out of the page. Statement 3 is
correct.

Conclusion: All three statements are correct, and the correct answer is (A) 1, 2, and 3.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

●​ Statement 1: Correct (force acts into the page)

●​ Statement 2: Correct (force acts into the page)
●​ Statement 3: Correct (wire vibrates in and out of the page)

●​ The correct answer is (A) 1, 2, and 3.

Keep it up!

Great job! Every effort you make brings you closer to your goals. Keep pushing forward!
Question: 15

Level of question :Hard | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.May.2023 |

Chapter 25: Electromagnetic effect, magnetic force, and dc motor.

The diagram shows a wire hanging freely between the poles of a magnet. There is a current in
the wire in the direction shown.

The magnet and current cause a force to act on the wire.

In which direction does this force act?

A) Into the page (away from you)

B) Out of the page (toward you)

C) To the left

D) To the right

Student’s Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

To determine the direction of the force acting on the wire, we use Fleming's Left-Hand Rule.

●​ Thumb: Points in the direction of the current (which in this case is downward through the
wire).
●​ Index Finger: Points in the direction of the magnetic field (from the North to the South
pole, horizontally).
●​ Middle Finger: Points in the direction of the force (the force that will act on the wire).
Using this rule:

●​ The magnetic field is directed from North to South.

●​ The current flows downwards (as shown in the diagram).
●​ Applying Fleming's Left-Hand Rule, we see that the force on the wire is into the page
(away from you).

Thus, the correct answer is (A).

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is : (A) Into the page (away from you).

Keep It Up!

You are doing great! Keep progressing and you'll achieve even more success!
Question: 1

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2020 |

Chapter 26: Electromagnetic induction, ac generator, and transformer

The diagram shows a transformer that has an output voltage of 12V.​

How many turns of wire are in the secondary coil?

A) 12

B) 20

C) 50

D) 20000

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

The transformer equation is:

V primary / V secondary = N primary / N secondary

● V primary = 240 V
● V secondary = 12 V
● N primary = 1000 turns
● N secondary = ?
1. Use the transformer equation:

240 / 12 = 1000 / N secondary

2. Simplify the equation:

20 = 1000 / N secondary

3. Solve for N secondary :

N secondary = 1000 / 20 = 50 turns

Thus, the number of turns in the secondary coil is 50.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (C) 50.

Keep it up

Success is the sum of small efforts, repeated day in and day out.
Question: 2

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2021 |

Chapter 26: Electromagnetic induction, ac generator, and transformer

Which graph shows the voltage output of an a.c. generator with the peaks and zeros correctly
labelled?

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

●​ Step 1: The voltage output of an a.c. generator varies sinusoidally. The graph represents
this variation over time, showing periodic peaks and zeros.
●​ Step 2: The peaks in the graph represent the maximum positive and negative voltages,
while the zeros represent the moments when the voltage crosses the neutral point (zero
volts).
●​ Step 3: The correct graph should have the peaks labelled clearly and the zeros marked
where the graph crosses the horizontal axis.
Therefore, the correct answer is (D), as it clearly shows the alternating voltage with peaks and
zeros correctly labelled.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

​
Answer: (D)

Keep it up:
​
Persist, you’re doing great!
Question: 3

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2023 |

Chapter 26: Electromagnetic induction, ac generator, and transformer

A 100% efficient step-down transformer has primary voltage Vp and primary current Ip.
​
Which row compares the secondary voltage with Vp and the secondary current with Ip?

Student's Solution:

Step by step Answer and clarification:

1. In a step-down transformer, the voltage is stepped down, meaning the secondary voltage will
be less than the primary voltage (Vs < Vp).

2. For current, due to the conservation of power and the step-down nature of the transformer,
the secondary current is greater than the primary current (Is > Ip).

3. Hence, the correct answer is (C): The secondary voltage is less than Vp and the secondary
current is greater than Ip.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

(C) is the correct answer.

Keep it up :

Keep going, you are doing great!

Question: 4

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.May.2023 |

Chapter 26: Electromagnetic induction, ac generator, and transformer

Which statement about a transformer is correct?

A) There is an alternating current in the iron core from the primary coil to the secondary coil.

B) An alternating current in the iron core induces an alternating current in the secondary coil.

C) An alternating current in the primary coil induces a direct current in the secondary coil.

D) An alternating current in the primary coil induces an alternating voltage across the secondary
coil.

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Explanation of the problem: Transformers work by inducing an alternating current in

the secondary coil through electromagnetic induction. The magnetic flux changes in the
iron core due to the alternating current in the primary coil. This changing magnetic flux
induces an alternating current in the secondary coil.
2.​ Correct answer: The correct answer is (D). An alternating current in the primary coil
induces an alternating voltage across the secondary coil due to electromagnetic
induction.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (D): "An alternating current in the primary coil induces an alternating
voltage across the secondary coil."

Keep it up:

Great job — You're doing awesome!

Question: 5

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.May.2023 |

Chapter 26: Electromagnetic induction, ac generator, and transformer

A step-down transformer is 100% efficient. It has an input voltage of 240 V a.c. and an output
voltage of 60 V a.c.​
​
The current in the primary coil is 0.50 A.​
​
What is the current in the secondary coil?

A) 0.13 A

B) 0.50 A

C) 2.0 A

D) 8.0 A

Student's Solution:

​
Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1. Given:​
- Primary voltage, V1 = 240 V​
- Secondary voltage, V2 = 60 V​
- Primary current, I1 = 0.50 A​
​
2. Using the formula:​
​
V1 / V2 = I2 /I1

​
Substitute the given values:​
​
240 / 60 = I2 / 0.50​
​
3. Solve for I2:​
​
I2 = (240 * 0.50) / 60 = 2.0 A​
​
Thus, the current in the secondary coil is 2.0 A.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (C) 2.0 A.

Keep it up!

Great effort, keep going!

Question: 6

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.May.2023 |

Chapter 26: Electromagnetic induction, ac generator, and transformer.

A transformer has 5500 turns on the primary coil and 500 turns on the secondary coil.
​
The output of the secondary coil is 110 V a.c. and is connected to a heater. The transformer is
100% efficient.
​
The heater produces a power of 132W.
​
What is the Options:

A) 0.11 A

B) 0.12 A

C) 11 A

D) 12 A

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

Using the transformer equation:​

Vp / Vs = NP / Ns

Where:​
- Vp is the primary voltage​
- Vs is the secondary voltage​
- NP is the number of turns on the primary coil​
- Ns is the number of turns on the secondary coil​
​
Also, using the power equation:​
P = I*V (for both primary and secondary)

Step 1: First, use the transformer equation to calculate the primary voltage:​
Vp / 110 = 5500 / 500

Vp = (110 * 5500) / 500 = 1210V​

​
Step 2: Use the power equation to find the current in the secondary coil:​
P = I* Vs

132 = I * 110

I = 132 / 110 = 1.2A​

​
Step 3: Using the current equation for the primary coil, calculate the current:​
Ip / Is = Ns /NP

Ip = Is * Ns / NP = 1.2 * (500 / 5500)

Ip = 0.11A

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The current in the primary coil is 0.11A , so the correct answer is Option (A).

Keep it up:

Great job! Keep pushing forward with your studies!

Question: 7

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 26: Electromagnetic induction, ac generator, and transformer.

A transformer has Np turns on its primary coil and Ns turns on its secondary coil. The
voltage across the primary coil is Vp , and the voltage across the secondary coil is Vs .

What is the relationship between these four quantities?

A) Vp × Vs =Np × Ns

B) Vp / Vs =Np / Ns

C) Vp / Vs =Ns / Np

D) Vp / Vs =Np × Ns

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification :

To determine the correct relationship betweenVp , Vs , Np , and Ns , we use the

transformer equation:

Vp / Vs = Np / Ns

Where:

●​ Vp : Voltage on the primary coil

●​ Vs: Voltage on the secondary coil
●​ Np : Number of turns on the primary coil
●​ Ns: Number of turns on the secondary coil
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (B) Vp / Vs = Np / Ns

Keep it up

Great job! Keep learning!

Question: 8

Level of question : Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 26: Electromagnetic induction, ac generator, and transformer.

A simple a.c. generator has a coil rotating in a magnetic field.

​
What happens to the peak electromotive force (e.m.f.) and to the frequency of the a.c. output
when the coil is rotated faster ?

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

​
When the coil is rotated faster, the following happens:

●​ Peak e.m.f.: The peak electromotive force (e.m.f.) increases because faster rotation of
the coil increases the rate of change of magnetic flux, which generates a higher voltage.
●​ Frequency: The frequency increases because the coil completes more rotations per
second as it rotates faster.

Therefore, the correct answer is (A) : Greater peak e.m.f., Greater frequency.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

​
(A) Greater, Greater

Keep it up :
​
You're doing great, keep pushing forward!
Question: 9

Level of question : Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 26: Electromagnetic induction, ac generator, and transformer.

What is a transformer used for?

​
A) changing a direct current into an alternating current
​
B) changing the magnitude of an alternating voltage
​
C) reducing the frequency of an alternating current
​
D) switching off the current in a circuit when there is a fault

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification

A transformer works based on electromagnetic induction. It is used to change the magnitude of

an alternating voltage while keeping the frequency constant. The primary function of a
transformer is to either step up (increase) or step down (decrease) the voltage in an alternating
current (AC) circuit.​
It does not change direct current (DC) into alternating current, reduce frequency, or switch off
the current during a fault.

The correct answer is (B) , as it describes the core function of a transformer, which is to
change the magnitude of an alternating voltage.

Answer from Mark Scheme :

B (changing the magnitude of an alternating voltage)

Keep it up!

You're doing great! Keep pushing, you're getting closer to mastering this topic!
Question: 10

Level of question : Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.May.2024 |

Chapter 26: Electromagnetic induction, ac generator, and transformer.

When a conductor in a complete circuit cuts across a magnetic field, a current is induced in the
conductor.
​
Which statement about the induced current is correct?

A) The induced current is in the same direction as the motion of the conductor.

B) The induced current is in the opposite direction to the motion of the conductor.

C) The direction of the induced current is in the same direction as the magnetic field.

D) The direction of the induced current opposes the change causing it.

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

The correct answer is (D)"The direction of the induced current opposes the change
causing it."

This follows from Lenz's Law, which states that the direction of an induced current will always
oppose the change in the magnetic flux that produced it. When a conductor moves through a
magnetic field, an electric current is induced, and the direction of that current is such that it
creates a magnetic field that opposes the change in the original magnetic flux.

Explanation:

●​ When the conductor moves through the magnetic field, the change in magnetic flux
induces an electromotive force (EMF) in the conductor.
●​ According to Lenz's Law, the induced current will oppose the motion of the conductor,
ensuring that the change in magnetic flux is counteracted.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (D) The direction of the induced current opposes the change
causing it.

Keep it up!
​
Stay motivated, every step counts!
Question: 11

Level of question : Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.May.2024 |

Chapter 26: Electromagnetic induction, ac generator, and transformer.

Which types of electric current are in the primary coil and the secondary coil of a step-up
transformer?

Student's Solution:

Step by step Answer and clarification:

1.​ Transformers work with alternating current (a.c.): A step-up transformer increases the
voltage from the primary to the secondary coil, and it only functions with alternating
current (a.c.), not direct current (d.c.).
2.​ Answer Analysis:
●​ A step-up transformer cannot work with direct current (d.c.), so both coils must
use a.c. for the transformer to function properly.
●​ Therefore, the correct answer is A. a.c. in both the primary and secondary coils.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

​
The correct answer is (A)
​
Explanation: Step-up transformers only function with alternating current (a.c.) in both coils.

Keep it up!
​
Your effort today is the key to tomorrow's success! Keep pushing forward!
Question: 12

Level of question : Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.May.2024 |

Chapter 26: Electromagnetic induction, ac generator, and transformer.

A 24 V power supply and a 100% efficient transformer are used to light a 6.0V, 12W lamp.
​
What is the current in the power supply?​
​
A) 0.50 A
​
B) 2.0 A
​
C) 3.0 A
​
D) 8.0 A​
​

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

​
Step 1: The power supplied to the lamp is 12W, and the voltage of the lamp is 6V.
​
Step 2: Using the formula P = V * I, we can calculate the current in the lamp.​
Ilamp = P / V lamp = 12W / 6V = 2A
​
Step 3: Since the transformer is 100% efficient, the current in the power supply can be
calculated by scaling the lamp's current based on the voltage ratio.
​
I power supply = (V lamp / V supply) * Ilamp = (6V / 24V) * 2A = 0.50A
​
Thus, the current in the power supply is 0.50A.​
​
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (A) 0.50A.

​
Keep it up!​
You are doing great! Keep pushing yourself towards excellence.
​
Question: 13

Level of question : Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.May.2024 |

Chapter 26: Electromagnetic induction, ac generator, and transformer.

A transformer is 100% efficient.

Which pair of equations are both valid for the transformer ?

A) IpVp = IsVs (Vp / Np) = (Vs / Ns)

B) (Vp / Ip) = (Vs / Is) Np Vp = NsVs

C) (Vp / Ip ) = (Vs / Is) (Vp / Np) = (Vs /Ns)

D) IpVp = Is Vs NpVp = Ns Vs

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1. Understanding the equations for an ideal transformer:

An ideal transformer follows two key equations:

- Power in equals power out: IpVp = IsVs

- The voltage ratio is proportional to the turns ratio: (Vp / Vs ) = ( Np / Ns).

2. Analyzing each option:

Option A: Both equations are correct. The first one is the power equation, and the second is the
voltage ratio equation, both valid for an ideal transformer.

Option B: The first equation is incorrect because the current and voltage ratio should match the
turns ratio, not the inverse of the currents.

Option C: The first equation is incorrect because it doesn't match the form of the power
equation for an ideal transformer.

Option D: The power equation is correct, but the second equation NpVp = Ns Vs is not valid for
an ideal transformer.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The Correct Answer is (A)

Keep it up:

You are doing great! Keep pushing forward! You are capable of mastering this topic!

​
Question: 14

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2021 |

Chapter 26: Electromagnetic induction, ac generator, and transformer.

The diagram shows an electromagnet near a coil of wire connected to a voltmeter. The reading
on the voltmeter is zero.

​
The switch is closed. The electromagnet magnetizes quickly.​
What happens to the reading on the voltmeter?

A) It keeps increasing.​
B) It quickly increases and stays at maximum.​
C) It quickly increases and then decreases.​
D) It stays on zero.

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ When the switch is closed, the electromagnet is energized and begins to magnetize
quickly. This creates a changing magnetic field near the coil.
2.​ According to Faraday's Law of Induction, a changing magnetic field induces an
electromotive force (emf) in the nearby coil.
3.​ Initially, this induced emf causes the voltmeter reading to increase as the current builds
up in the coil.
4.​ Once the electromagnet reaches its maximum magnetic field strength, the rate of
change in the magnetic field decreases, leading to a decrease in the induced emf.
5.​ Thus, the voltmeter reading will quickly increase and then decrease, corresponding to
option (C).
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (C): "It quickly increases and then decreases."

Keep it up!

Stay focused, your hard work will pay off!

Question: 15

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2023 |

Chapter 26: Electromagnetic induction, ac generator, and transformer.

A wire is moved down in a direction perpendicular to the magnetic field.

Three changes are suggested:

1.​ The speed of the movement of the wire is increased.

2.​ The magnetic field strength is decreased.
3.​ The direction of the magnetic field is reversed.

Which changes increase the electromotive force (e.m.f.) induced in the wire?

A) 1 and 3​
B) 1 only​
C) 2 and 3​
D) 3 only

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Understanding the concept: The magnitude of the induced e.m.f. depends on both the
speed of the wire and the strength of the magnetic field, as per Faraday’s Law of
Electromagnetic Induction:​
where is the magnetic flux.
2.​ Analyzing the changes:
●​ Change 1: Increasing the speed of the wire increases the rate at which magnetic
flux is cut, thus increasing the induced e.m.f.
●​ Change 2: Decreasing the magnetic field strength reduces the magnetic flux,
thus lowering the e.m.f.
 ●​ Change 3: Reversing the magnetic field changes the direction of the induced
e.m.f. but does not affect its magnitude.
3.​ Correct answer: Based on this analysis, only Change 1 increases the e.m.f.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (B).

Keep it up!
​
You're doing great—remember, practice makes perfect!
Question: 16

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2023 |

Chapter 26: Electromagnetic induction, ac generator, and transformer.

A wire is moved across a magnetic field. This causes an induced current in the wire.

The induced current interacts with the magnetic field to produce a force on the wire.

In which direction is this force?

A) in the direction of the current.

B) in the direction of movement of the wire.

C) in the opposite direction to the current.

D) in the opposite direction to the movement of the wire.

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Key Concept: When a wire moves across a magnetic field, an induced current is
generated. According to Lenz's Law, the induced current creates a magnetic field that
opposes the change causing it.
2.​ Interaction: The induced current interacts with the external magnetic field, producing a
force on the wire.
3.​ Direction of Force: Use Fleming’s Left-Hand Rule to determine the force’s direction.
Point your index finger in the direction of the magnetic field, your middle finger in the
direction of the induced current, and your thumb will point in the direction of the force.
4.​ Answer: The force acts in the opposite direction to the movement of the wire.

Answer from Mark Scheme :

The correct answer is (D).

Keep It Up

"Keep pushing forward—success is just around the corner!"

Question: 17

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.May.2023 |

Chapter 26: Electromagnetic induction, ac generator, and transformer.

The diagram shows an a.c. generator.

The graph shows the potential difference (p.d.) between points X and Y plotted against time. A
positive value of p.d. indicates that X is more positive than Y.

Which diagram shows the position of the coil at point P on the graph?
Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ How does an a.c. generator work?

●​ An a.c. generator converts mechanical energy into electrical energy by rotating a
coil within a magnetic field.
●​ As the coil rotates, the magnetic flux through it changes, inducing an alternating
potential difference (p.d.) that appears as a sinusoidal wave on the graph.
2.​ Understanding the p.d. graph:
●​ At point PPP on the graph, the potential difference is zero.
●​ This occurs when the coil is in a vertical position (i.e., parallel to the magnetic
field lines), as the changing magnetic flux is at its minimum.
3.​ Analyzing the options:
●​ Diagrams A, B, and D show the coil in various positions, but none correspond to
the point where the potential difference is zero.
●​ Diagram C shows the coil in the vertical position, which matches the point PPP
on the graph where the p.d. equals zero. Therefore, this is the correct choice.

Answer from Mark Scheme :

The correct answer is (C).

Keep It Up :

Understanding the principles of a.c. generators not only helps in exams but also gives you
insight into how electricity is produced and used in our daily lives. Keep up the great
work—you're on your way to mastering physics!
Question: 18

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.Oct.2023|

Chapter 26: Electromagnetic induction, ac generator, and transformer.

A transformer in a computer is used to transform the mains voltage of 240V to 12V.

The number of turns on the secondary coil is 2000.

Which statement about the transformer is correct?​

​
A) It is a step-down transformer and has 100 turns on its primary coil.
​
B) It is a step-down transformer and has 40,000 turns on its primary coil.
​
C) It is a step-up transformer and has 100 turns on its primary coil.
​
D) It is a step-up transformer and has 40,000 turns on its primary coil.​
​

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

To solve this, use the transformer equation:

Vs / Vp = Ns / Np​
Where:

●​ Vs is the secondary voltage.

●​ Vp is the primary voltage.
●​ Ns is the number of turns in the secondary coil.
●​ Np is the number of turns in the primary coil.​

Given:

Vp = 240V​
Vs = 12V​
Ns = 2000​
​
First, calculate the ratio of the voltages:​
Vs / Vp = 12 / 240 = 1 / 20.​
​
Thus, the turns ratio should be the same:​
Ns / Np = 1 / 20.​
​
Now substitute the given Ns = 2000:​
2000 / Np = 1 / 20​
Np = 2000 * 20 = 40,000.​
​
So, the primary coil has 40,000 turns, and the transformer is a step-down transformer.​
​
Therefore, the correct answer is (B) It is a step-down transformer and has 40,000 turns on
its primary coil.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (B)

Keep it up!

You are on the right track! Keep pushing yourself, and you'll keep getting better!
Question: 19

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.Oct.2023|

Chapter 26: Electromagnetic induction, ac generator, and transformer.

A piece of soft iron XY has a coil of wire wound round it.

The N pole of a bar magnet is pulled away from end X, which causes an induced current in the
coil.

The magnet is now turned around so that the N pole is on the left. It is taken to the other end of
the soft iron and the N pole is pushed towards end Y. A new current is induced in the coil.

Which statement is correct?

A) The new induced current is in the opposite direction and causes the soft iron to attract the N
pole.​
B) The new induced current is in the opposite direction and causes the soft iron to repel the N
pole.​
C) The new induced current is in the same direction and causes the soft iron to attract the N
pole.​
D) The new induced current is in the same direction and causes the soft iron to repel the N pole.

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Induced Current Direction:​

When a magnet moves relative to a coil, a current is induced due to electromagnetic
induction. The direction of the induced current depends on the direction of the motion of
the magnet, as per Faraday’s Law of Induction.
2.​ Movement of the Magnet:​
Initially, when the N pole is pulled away from end X, the induced current will flow in a
 direction to create a North pole at end X to oppose the change. This would result in the
soft iron being attracted to the N pole.
3.​ Changing the Magnet's Position:​
When the magnet is turned around, the N pole is now pushed towards end Y. According
to Lenz’s Law, the induced current will oppose this change. The current will flow in the
opposite direction to create a South pole at end Y, causing the soft iron to repel the N
pole.​
Hence, the correct answer is (D) The new induced current is in the same direction and
causes the soft iron to repel the N pole.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

​
The correct answer is (D) The new induced current is in the same direction and causes the
soft iron to repel the N pole.

Keep it up!

Your hard work will pay off. Stay focused and keep pushing forward!
Question: 20

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2024 |

Chapter 26: Electromagnetic induction, ac generator, and transformer.

The diagram shows a transformer.

What is the output voltage?

A) 0.35 V

B) 2.9 V

C) 4600 V

D) 105,000 V

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1. Start with the transformer formula:​

V1 / V2 = N1 / N2

Where:
V1 is the primary voltage (22,000 V)​
V2 is the secondary voltage (unknown)​
N1 is the number of primary turns (550 turns)​
N2 is the number of secondary turns (115 turns)

2. Plug in the known values:​

22,000 / V2 = 550 / 115
3. Solve for V2 :

V2 = (22,000 * 115) / 550 = 4600 V

4. Therefore, the output voltage is 4600 V.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (C) 4600 V

Keep it up!

Stay focused and keep working hard. Success is built on perseverance and dedication. You’re
doing great!
Question: 21

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.May.2024 |

Chapter 26: Electromagnetic induction, ac generator, and transformer.

The diagram shows a simple a.c. generator. The magnet rotates around a fixed coil wound
around a fixed iron core. The electromotive force (e.m.f.) output is a sine wave, a series of
crests, zeros, and troughs.
​
The magnet is shown in three positions, P, Q, and R, during its rotation. The magnetic field in
the coil is zero at Q but changing most rapidly.

Which statement about the induced e.m.f. in the coil is correct?

A) The magnitude of the e.m.f. at position Q is larger than that at position P.

B) The magnitude of the e.m.f. at position Q is zero.

C) The magnitude of the e.m.f. at position Q is smaller than at position R, but not zero.

D) The magnitude of the e.m.f. at position R is larger than at position P.

Student's Solution:

Step by step Answer and Clarification:

●​ Position P: At this position, the coil is aligned with the magnet's poles. The magnetic
flux through the coil is maximum, and the rate of change of flux is zero. Therefore, the
induced e.m.f. is zero.
●​ Position Q: This is where the magnetic flux is changing most rapidly. The rate of change
of flux is highest, so the induced e.m.f. is at its maximum value here.
●​ Position R: The coil is at a position where the magnetic flux is again changing, but not
as rapidly as at position Q, resulting in a lower induced e.m.f. compared to Q, but still
larger than at position P.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (A) The magnitude of the e.m.f. at position Q is larger than that at
position P.

Keep It Up!
​
Stay curious, keep exploring, and never stop learning! You’re doing great!
Question: 1

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2018 |

Chapter 27: Atomic Physics

Which row gives the composition of a neutral atom of this isotope of sodium?

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

● Step 1: The atomic number (11) gives the number of protons.

● Step 2: The mass number (23) minus the atomic number (11) gives the number of
neutrons: 23 - 11 = 12.
● Step 3: For a neutral atom, the number of electrons equals the number of protons, so
there are 11 electrons.

Therefore, the correct row is A, as it shows 11 protons, 12 neutrons, and 11 electrons.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

Answer: Row (A) is correct.

Keep it up : Persistent! Keep up the great work!

Question: 2

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2018 |

Chapter 27: Atomic Physics

Student's Solution:

Step by step Answer and Clarification:

Answer from Mark Scheme:

Keep it up: Believe in yourself

Question: 3

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2019 |

Chapter 27: Atomic Physics

What are isotopes of an element?

A: atoms of a different element with a different number of neutrons

B: atoms of a different element with a different number of protons

C: atoms of the same element with a different number of neutrons

D: atoms of the same element with a different number of protons

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

Isotopes are variants of the same element that have the same number of protons but a different
number of neutrons.​
This difference in the number of neutrons leads to different atomic masses but does not affect
the chemical properties of the element. For example, carbon has isotopes such as carbon-12
and carbon-14, where the difference in mass comes from the varying number of neutrons.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

​
The correct answer is (C) : atoms of the same element with a different number of neutrons.

Keep it up
​
Great job! Keep pushing forward!
Question: 4

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2020 |

Chapter 27: Atomic Physics

When Rutherford bombarded thin gold foil with α-particles, he found that some α-particles were
deflected through large angles.
​
Which statement explains this deflection?
​
A) Most of the atom consists of empty space.
​
B) All of the positive charge and most of the mass of the gold atom are concentrated in a small
volume.
​
C) Positive charge in the gold atom is spread evenly throughout the atom.
​
D) All of the negative charge is concentrated at its centre.

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

​
The deflection of α-particles through large angles can be explained by Rutherford's discovery
that the positive charge and most of the mass of the gold atom are concentrated in a small
volume at the center, known as the nucleus. The α-particles, being positively charged, are
repelled by the nucleus, which causes the deflection. This discovery led to the understanding
that most of the atom consists of empty space, with the nucleus being very small compared to
the overall size of the atom.

●​ Answer: (B) All of the positive charge and most of the mass of the gold atom are
concentrated in a small volume.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

●​ Correct answer: (B)

●​ Reasoning: The α-particles' deflection is caused by the concentrated positive charge
(nucleus) of the atom, which leads to large angle deflections.

Keep it Up:​
Stay focused and keep working hard—you're doing great!
Question: 5

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2021 |

Chapter 27: Atomic Physics

Three students are describing the structure of an atom.

Student 1: All the positively charged particles are in the nucleus.

Student 2: Positive electrons are in the nucleus.

Student 3: Negative electrons orbit around the nucleus.

Which students are making a correct statement?

A) 1, 2, and 3​
B) 1 and 2 only​
C) 1 and 3 only​
D) 2 and 3 only

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Student 1's Statement: The positively charged particles (protons) are indeed located in
the nucleus. This is correct.
2.​ Student 2's Statement: Electrons are not positively charged. They are negatively
charged and orbit the nucleus. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
3.​ Student 3's Statement: Electrons do orbit the nucleus, and they carry a negative
charge, so this statement is correct.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

​
The correct answer is (C) 1 and 3 only.

Keep it up​
Awesome!
Question: 6

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2021 |

Chapter 27: Atomic Physics

When alpha particles are incident on a thin metal foil, most of them pass through undeviated.

What does this observation reveal about the nature of the atom?

A) The atom has a dense nucleus.​

B) The atom is mostly empty space.​
C) The atom is very small.​
D) The nucleus of the atom is positively charged.

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Step 1: The alpha particles are positively charged and when they interact with atoms in
the metal foil, most of them pass through without deflection.
2.​ Step 2: This suggests that most of the atom is empty space.
3.​ Step 3: The few alpha particles that are deflected by large angles are interacting with a
small, dense, positively charged nucleus at the center of the atom.
4.​ Step 4: Hence, we conclude that the atom is mostly empty space, with a dense nucleus
at its center.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

​
The correct answer is (B) The atom is mostly empty space.

Keep it up:
​
Believe in yourself!
Question: 7

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2022 |

Chapter 27: Atomic Physics

When a beam of α-particles is incident on a thin metal foil, most of them follow a path
represented by path X in the diagram. A small number of α-particles follow a path represented
by path Y in the diagram.

Which row correctly describes a conclusion that can be drawn from each of these observations
about the structure of the atom?

Student's Solution:
Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

●​ The fact that most α-particles follow a straight path (path X) suggests that the atom is
mostly empty space, as the α-particles are not deflected by the atom’s structure.
●​ The small number of α-particles that follow path Y indicates the presence of a dense,
positively charged nucleus that repels the positively charged α-particles, causing them to
deflect.
●​ This supports the Rutherford model of the atom, where the nucleus contains protons and
is responsible for deflecting the α-particles.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is: (A)

●​ Most follow path X: Atom is mostly empty space.

●​ Some follow path Y: Atom contains something that repels α-particles (the nucleus).

Keep it up!

Great job! Keep pushing forward!

Question: 8

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2023 |

Chapter 27: Atomic Physics

The scattering of α-particles by a thin metal foil supports the nuclear model of an atom.​
Why are α-particles used rather than neutrons?

A) because they always travel more slowly

B) because they are heavier

C) because they are larger in diameter

D) because they have a positive charge

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification

Explanation:

The answer to this question is (D) because α-particles have a positive charge, whereas
neutrons are neutral. The positive charge of α-particles allows them to interact with the electrons
and the nucleus of atoms more effectively, helping to observe the scattering effects. This
characteristic makes α-particles more suitable for experiments like Rutherford's gold foil
experiment, which provided evidence for the nuclear model of the atom.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (D)

Keep it up :

You are doing amazing, keep going!

Question: 9

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2023 |

Chapter 27: Atomic Physics .

An iron nuclide is represented by the symbol shown:​

​
​
Which statements about a nucleus of this iron nuclide are correct?​
​
1. The nucleus contains 56 neutrons.​
2. The nucleon number is 30.​
3. The proton number is 26.

A. 1 and 2​
B. 1 and 3​
C. 2 and 3​
D. 3 only​

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

Nucleon number = Proton number + Neutron number

Statement 1: The nucleus contains 56 neutrons.

This is incorrect. The nucleon number is the sum of protons and neutrons, so:​
Neutrons = Nucleon number - Proton number = 56 - 26 = 30 neutrons.​
​
Statement 2: The nucleon number is 30.

This is incorrect. The nucleon number is 56 (not 30). The nucleon number refers to the total
number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus.​
​
Statement 3: The proton number is 26.

This is correct. The proton number corresponds to the atomic number, which is 26 for iron.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

Correct Answer: (D) 3 only

Keep it up :

You're doing great, keep pushing forward!

Question: 10

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.May.2023 |

Chapter 27: Atomic Physics .

How are positive and negative ions formed from atoms?

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Positive Ion Formation:

●​ A positive ion (cation) is formed when an atom loses one or more electrons.
●​ The atom becomes positively charged because the number of protons exceeds
the number of electrons.
2.​ Negative Ion Formation:
●​ A negative ion (anion) is formed when an atom gains one or more electrons.
●​ The atom becomes negatively charged because the number of electrons
exceeds the number of protons.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

●​ Positive Ion : (C) remove an electron from the atom.

●​ Negative Ion: (C) add an electron to the atom.

Keep it up:

"Believe in yourself!"
Question: 11

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.May.2023 |

Chapter 27: Atomic Physics .

Which is an isotope of element X?

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

​
​
Answer from Mark Scheme:​
​
The correct answer is (B)
​
Keep it Up!

Keep working hard and success will follow.

​
Question: 12

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.May.2023 |

Chapter 27: Atomic Physics .

The table shows the composition of three different nuclei.

Which nuclei are isotopes of the same element?

A) X, Y and Z

B) X and Y only

C) X and Z only

D) Y and Z only

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

●​ Isotopes are atoms of the same element with the same number of protons but a
different number of neutrons.
●​ From the table:
●​ Nucleus X and Y both have 3 protons, which means they are isotopes of the
same element, as they belong to the same element (atomic number 3, which
corresponds to Lithium).
●​ Nucleus Z has 4 protons, indicating it is a different element (atomic number 4,
which corresponds to Beryllium). Hence, it is not an isotope of X or Y.
●​ Therefore, the isotopes of the same element are X and Y only.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is: (B) X and Y only

Keep it up:

Stay motivated, you are doing great!

​
​

​
Question: 13

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.May.2023 |

Chapter 27: Atomic Physics .

The scattering of alpha-particles from a thin gold foil produces the following observations:

●​ Most of the alpha-particles pass through the foil.

●​ Most of the alpha-particles are virtually undeflected.
●​ A small fraction of the alpha-particles are deflected through large angles.
●​ A very small fraction of the alpha-particles bounce back from the foil.

Which conclusion does not follow from these observations?​

A) Most of the mass of the gold atom is in its nucleus.

B) Most of the atom is empty space.

C) The nucleus consists of protons and neutrons.

D) The nucleus must be charged.

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Observation 1: Most alpha particles pass through the foil.​

Conclusion: The majority of the atom is empty space, as the particles can pass through
without significant interaction.
2.​ Observation 2: Most alpha-particles are virtually undeflected.​
Conclusion: The atom has a small, dense nucleus. Since most particles go through
unimpeded, the nucleus must occupy a small part of the atom.
3.​ Observation 3: A small fraction of particles are deflected at large angles.​
Conclusion: This suggests that the nucleus is positively charged, as it repels the
positively charged alpha particles.
4.​ Observation 4: A very small fraction of alpha-particles bounce back.​
Conclusion: This indicates that the nucleus is very dense and small, and must have a
significant charge to deflect the alpha particles.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (C). The conclusion that the nucleus consists of protons and neutrons
does not directly follow from the observations made. The observations do indicate the existence
of a dense and positively charged nucleus, but they do not directly support the idea that it
consists of protons and neutrons.

Keep it up:
​
"Believe in yourself and all that you are."
Question: 14

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.May.2023 |

Chapter 27: Atomic Physics .

A nuclide of chlorine has the symbol shown.

What is the nucleon number of this nuclide of chlorine?

A) 17​
B) 18​
C) 35​
D) 52

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

●​ The nucleon number is the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an
atom. It is represented by the superscript (35) in the nuclide symbol.
●​ The atomic number, represented by the subscript (17), indicates the number of protons,
which is not relevant for finding the nucleon number.
●​ Therefore, the nucleon number of this nuclide of chlorine is 35.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

​
The correct answer is (C) 35

Keep it Up!

Great work! Keep pushing forward! 💪

Question: 15

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference : 0625/21.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 27: Atomic Physics .

In α-particle scattering, α-particles are incident on a thin metal foil.

​
Which row describes results from the experiment and a conclusion that the results lead to?

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ The scattering experiment shows that when α-particles pass through the foil, most of
them go straight through.
2.​ The fact that very few are deflected indicates that most of the atom is empty space.
3.​ The deflection of a few α-particles suggests the presence of a very small but very dense
nucleus at the center of the atom. This leads to the conclusion that the nucleus is very
large relative to the size of the atom.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The Correct Answer is (A)

Conclusion: Most of the atom is empty space, and the nucleus is very small in comparison to
the atom.

Keep it up!

You’re doing great! Keep pushing forward with confidence!

Question: 16

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference : 0625/22.March.2024 |

Chapter 27: Atomic Physics .

How many protons and neutrons are there in a nucleus of this isotope?

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

2. The atomic number represents the number of protons. So, the number of protons in the
strontium isotope is 38.

3. The mass number represents the total number of protons and neutrons.

4. To find the number of neutrons, subtract the number of protons from the mass number:

Neutrons = 84 - 38 = 46

5. Therefore, this isotope has 38 protons and 46 neutrons.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (A)

Protons: 38

Neutrons: 46

Keep it up:

You’ve got this! Keep pushing forward and mastering these concepts. You're on your way to
success!
Question: 17

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference : 0625/22.March.2024 |

Chapter 27: Atomic Physics .

During this radioactive decay, an isotope of polonium, Po, is produced.

How many neutrons does a nucleus of this isotope of polonium contain?

A) 130
B) 132
C) 134
D) 136

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

2. Change in Nucleus:

After emitting the alpha particle, the atomic number decreases by 2 (because it lost 2 protons),
and the mass number decreases by 4 (since it lost 2 protons and 2 neutrons).​

So, the resulting polonium isotope will have:

​
New atomic number = 86 - 2 = 84​
New mass number = 222 - 4 = 218
​
3. Finding Neutrons in Polonium Isotope:
​
The number of neutrons is given by:​
Neutrons = Mass number - Atomic number = 218 - 84 = 134​
4. Conclusion:​
The isotope of polonium produced contains 134 neutrons.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (C) 134

Keep it up!

Your hard work pays off—keep pushing yourself, you're doing great!
Question: 18

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference : 0625/21.May.2024 |

Chapter 27: Atomic Physics .

A scientist fires alpha-particles at a very thin sheet of gold and detects the particles that pass
through.
​
Which statement about the results of the scattering experiment is correct?

A) Alpha-particles are attracted to the nucleus of the atoms in the metal sheet.

B) Half the mass of the atom is concentrated in the nucleus.

C) Most of the alpha-particles are deflected, showing that the nucleus is very dense.

D) Only a small number of alpha-particles are deflected, but some of these are deflected
through large angles.

Student's Solution:

Step by step Answer and Clarification:

●​ In Rutherford's gold foil experiment, alpha-particles were fired at a very thin sheet of
gold.
●​ Most alpha-particles passed straight through the foil, suggesting that atoms are mostly
empty space.
●​ A small number of alpha-particles were deflected at small angles, indicating that they
passed close to a positively charged region (the nucleus).
●​ A very small number were deflected at large angles, suggesting a very dense, positively
charged nucleus that repelled the alpha-particles.

Thus, (D) is correct because it describes the scattering pattern observed in the experiment.
Only a few alpha-particles were deflected, but some were deflected through large angles,
indicating the presence of a dense nucleus.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (D) Only a small number of alpha-particles are deflected, but some of
these are deflected through large angles.

Keep it up!

You are doing amazing! Stay focused and keep pushing forward!
Question: 19

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference : 0625/21.May.2024 |

Chapter 27: Atomic Physics .

The notation represents the nucleus of a gold atom.

The relative charge on a proton is +1.

What is the relative charge on the gold nucleus?

​
A) +79
​
B) +118
​
C) +197
​
D) +276

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

​
2. Charge of the nucleus:

The relative charge of the nucleus is determined by the number of protons, as protons have
a positive charge. Since gold has 79 protons, the total positive charge of the nucleus is +79.​
​
3. Conclusion:
The relative charge on the gold nucleus is +79. Therefore, the correct answer is (A) +79.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The Correct Answer is : (A) +79

Keep it up!

Stay motivated and keep learning. You're on the right track!

Question: 20

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference : 0625/21.May.2024 |

Chapter 27: Atomic Physics .

How many neutrons are in the nucleus of this isotope and what is the relative charge on the
nucleus?

Student's Solution:

Step by step Answer and Clarification:

3. The “1” is the atomic number, which represents the number of protons in the nucleus of the
hydrogen isotope. For hydrogen, this is always 1.

4.The number of neutrons is calculated by subtracting the number of protons (1) from the mass
number (2):​
Neutrons = Mass Number - Atomic Number = 2 - 1 = 1 neutron.
​
5. The relative charge of the nucleus is determined by the number of protons. Since hydrogen
has one proton, the relative charge of the nucleus is +1.

​
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (A)

●​ Number of neutrons: 1
●​ Relative charge: +1​

Keep it up!

You're doing great! Keep working hard, and success will follow!
​
​

​
Question: 21

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference : 0625/22.May.2024 |

Chapter 27: Atomic Physics .

The scattering of particles by a thin gold foil provided scientists with evidence for the nuclear
atom.​
Which particles were scattered by the gold nuclei in the thin foil?

A) α-particles

B) β-particles

C) neutrons

D) protons

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

●​ In the famous Rutherford gold foil experiment, α-particles (alpha particles) were directed
at a thin gold foil.
●​ α-particles are positively charged helium nuclei. Most of the particles passed through the
foil, but some were deflected at large angles, providing evidence of a dense, positively
charged nucleus at the center of the atom.
●​ This scattering experiment showed that atoms have a small, dense nucleus where most
of the mass is concentrated, supporting the nuclear model of the atom.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The Correct Answer is (A) α-particles

The scattering of α-particles is key to understanding the nuclear atom.

Keep it up!

You are doing a fantastic job — keep pushing your limits!

Question: 22

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference : 0625/22.May.2024 |

Chapter 27: Atomic Physics .

A nucleus X has 17 protons and 18 neutrons.

​
Which notation is correct for this nucleus?

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

●​ The atomic number (Z) represents the number of protons, and here it is 17. This means
the nucleus X must have 17 protons, which corresponds to the symbol for the element
chlorine (Cl) if it is the element.
●​ The mass number (A) is the sum of protons and neutrons. Here, the nucleus has 17
protons and 18 neutrons, giving a total mass number of 17 + 18 = 35.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (D)

Keep it up:

Stay focused, believe in yourself, and keep pushing forward!

Question: 23

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference : 0625/23.May.2024 |

Chapter 27: Atomic Physics .

Which diagram shows the structure of a neutral atom?

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

To determine which diagram represents a neutral atom, we must ensure that the number of
positive particles (protons) equals the number of negative particles (electrons). A neutral atom
has no overall charge, meaning the number of protons and electrons must balance out.

●​ Diagram A: Shows two protons and two electrons. This is balanced, so this could
represent a neutral atom.
●​ Diagram B: The number of protons and electrons seems unbalanced. This cannot be
neutral.
●​ Diagram C: Again, shows a balance of protons and electrons.
●​ Diagram D: Similar to Diagram B, this is not neutral.
Thus, Diagrams A and C show neutral atoms, but we select Diagram (A) because of the
balance of charge.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is Diagram (A)​

Explanation:

Neutral atom has equal protons and electrons.

Keep it up!

You're doing great—keep pushing forward!

Question: 24

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 27: Atomic Physics .

The scattering of α-particles by a thin gold foil provides evidence for the nuclear model of the
atom.

Two α-particles of the same energy are incident on a nucleus of gold.

Which diagram shows the correct paths followed by the α-particles as they pass close to the
nucleus?

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

In Rutherford’s scattering experiment, α-particles are fired at a thin gold foil. The α-particles are
positively charged and are deflected by the positively charged nucleus of the gold atoms. The
amount of deflection depends on how close the α-particle passes to the nucleus.
 ●​ The correct path will show the α-particle being deflected at a large angle as it passes
close to the nucleus.
●​ The other paths would indicate either no deflection or a small deflection, which is not
typical of α-particles in this experiment.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

Diagram (A) is the correct answer as it shows the typical behavior of α-particles passing close
to the nucleus, with significant deflection due to the strong electrostatic repulsion from the
positively charged gold nucleus.

Keep it up!

You are doing great, stay focused and keep working hard. The effort you put in will pay off!
Question: 1

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2018 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

When measuring the emissions from a radioactive rock brought into the laboratory, a teacher
mentions that background radiation must be taken into account.

What is this background radiation?

A infra-red radiation from warm objects in the laboratory​

B infra-red radiation from the Sun​
C ionising radiation from the radioactive rock brought into the laboratory​
D ionising radiation in the laboratory when the radioactive rock is not present

Student's Solution:

Step by step Answer and clarification:

Background radiation refers to ionising radiation that is always present in the environment. This
radiation comes from natural sources like cosmic rays and materials in the environment. Since
the question specifies the need to account for "background radiation" in a lab setting, it is the
ionising radiation that exists in the laboratory when the radioactive rock is not present.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is D: ionising radiation in the laboratory when the radioactive rock is not
present.

Keep it up

You are doing great, stay focused and keep pushing forward!
Question: 2

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2019 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics

A radioactive isotope of carbon 14C decays by beta emission to give an isotope of nitrogen 14N
and a beta particle. The equation for the reaction is shown below.​
​

​
What is the value of X and Y?

Student's Solution:

​
Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

●​ Carbon -14 (14C) undergoes beta decay.

●​ In beta decay, a neutron in the carbon nucleus is converted into a proton, emitting a beta
particle (electron).
●​ The mass number (14) remains the same, but the atomic number increases by 1.
●​ Therefore, X = 6 and Y = -1 .​

​
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (A)

X = 6​
Y = -1

Keep it up:

Believe in yourself and keep pushing forward! You're capable of amazing things.
Question: 3

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2020 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics

The diagram shows the path followed by α-particles as they pass between two charged plates.
They are deflected downwards.

​
What happens to β-particles passing through the same electric field?

A) They are deflected downwards more than the α-particles.​

B) They are deflected upwards.​
C) They are not deflected at all.​
D) They are deflected downwards by the same amount as the α-particles.

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

●​ α-particles are positively charged, so they are deflected downwards due to the electric
field created by the charged plates.
●​ β-particles are negatively charged (electrons), which will experience a force in the
opposite direction to the α-particles . This results in the β-particles being deflected
upwards.
●​ Therefore, the correct answer is (B) They are deflected upwards.
Answer from Mark Scheme:
​
The correct answer is (B) They are deflected upwards.

Keep it up!

"Success comes from hard work and persistence."

Question: 4

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2020 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics

The graph shows the count rate from a radioactive source over a period of time.

​
What is the half-life of the source?

A. 0.5 hour​
B. 1.0 hour​
C. 1.5 hours​
D. 3.0 hours

Student's Solution:
Step by Step Answer and Clarification:
1.​ Look at the graph and observe the count rate at the start, which is around 2000
counts/s.
2.​ Find the halfway point: The half-life is the time it takes for the count rate to drop to half
of its initial value. Half of 2000 counts/s is 1000 counts/s.
3.​ Locate the 1000 counts/s mark on the graph: Follow the curve on the graph until you
reach the point where the count rate is 1000 counts/s.
4.​ Identify the time corresponding to this count rate. You’ll see that it occurs at 1.0 hour.
5.​ Conclusion: The half-life of the source is therefore 1.0 hour.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (B) : 1.0 hour.

Keep it Up

Inspire yourself to keep going, no matter what!

Question: 5

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2022 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics

Nuclear fusion is a reaction that takes place in stars.

Which row describes this reaction?

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

​
In nuclear fusion, atomic nuclei join together to form a larger nucleus. During this process,
energy is released. This is the fundamental process that powers stars, including the Sun. The
correct answer is (D), where atomic nuclei join together to form a larger nucleus, and energy is
released.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

​
The correct answer is (D): Atomic nuclei join together to form a larger nucleus. Energy is
released.

Keep it up :Great job! Keep pushing forward!

Question: 6

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2023 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics

Several scientists are working in a laboratory. The scientists are experimenting with sources
which emit ionising radiation. Each scientist is given a list of safety rules.

Three of the rules are shown:

1.​ Keep at least 2m away from other people.

2.​ Do not stay longer than 4 hours per day in the laboratory.
3.​ Stay behind the lead-lined screen.

Which safety rules are for protection against the effects of ionising radiation?

A) 1, 2 and 3​
B) 1 and 2 only​
C) 1 and 3 only​
D) 2 and 3 only

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

●​ Rule 1: Keeping a distance of 2 meters away from others does not directly protect from
ionising radiation. This rule is more of a general safety measure.
●​ Rule 2: Limiting the time spent in the laboratory reduces prolonged exposure to
radiation. Less time in the lab means less potential exposure.
●​ Rule 3: The lead-lined screen absorbs radiation and prevents it from reaching the
scientists, making it an essential protective measure against ionising radiation.

Therefore, the correct safety measures for protection against ionising radiation are rules 2 and
3.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

(D) 2 and 3 only

Keep it up :

You are doing an amazing job! Keep pushing forward, you're getting better every day!
Question: 7

Level of question : Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference:0625/22.May.2023 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

Fission and fusion are two types of nuclear processes.

How does the total mass of the nuclides produced compare with the total mass of the original
nuclide or nuclides in these nuclear processes?

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Fission: In the process of nuclear fission, when a heavy nucleus splits, the total mass of
the fission products is less than the original mass. This is due to the release of energy
according to the mass-energy equivalence (E = mc²). The mass that is "lost" is
converted into energy.
2.​ Fusion: In nuclear fusion, when light nuclei fuse to form a heavier nucleus, the mass of
the resulting products is also less than the sum of the original masses of the nuclei. This
again is due to the release of energy during the fusion process. The "lost" mass is
converted into energy.

Thus, the total mass of fission and fusion products is less than the mass of the original nuclides
in both processes.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (D) less / less

Explanation:

In both fission and fusion processes, the total mass of the products is always less than the mass
of the original nuclides due to the conversion of mass into energy.

Keep it up:

Great work! Keep pushing forward, and always strive for excellence. You're doing amazing!
Question: 8

Level of question : Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference:0625/23.May.2023 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

Which change is occurring in a nucleus during β-emission?

​
A) An electron and a neutron become one proton.​
B) An electron and a proton become one neutron.​
C) A neutron becomes one proton and one electron.​
D) A proton becomes one neutron and one electron.

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

Explanation:​
In β-emission, a neutron within the nucleus changes into a proton while emitting an electron.
This process occurs when an unstable nucleus seeks to reach a more stable configuration. The
resulting proton remains in the nucleus, increasing the atomic number by one, and the emitted
electron is the β-particle.

Solution:

The correct answer is (C): "A neutron becomes one proton and one electron."

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is: (C)

Keep it up:
​
Keep it up! Stay focused and keep learning!
Question: 9

Level of question : Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

α-particles, β-particles, and γ-rays are emitted by radioactive nuclei when they decay.
​
Which emissions can be deflected by an electric field?

A) α-particles, β-particles, and γ-rays

B) α-particles and β-particles only

C) β-particles and γ-rays only

D) γ-rays and α-particles only

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ α-particles (Alpha particles) are positively charged, so they can be deflected by an
electric field.
2.​ β-particles (Beta particles) are negatively charged, which means they can also be
deflected.
3.​ γ-rays (Gamma rays) are neutral, so they are not affected by electric fields.

Conclusion:​
The emissions that can be deflected by an electric field are α-particles and β-particles.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (B) α-particles and β-particles only.

Keep it up:
​
Well done! You're on the path to success.
Question: 10

Level of question : Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

Which particle is absorbed by a nucleus to cause nuclear fission?

A) a neutron

B) a proton

C) an α-particle

D) a β-particle

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

Nuclear fission occurs when a heavy nucleus, such as uranium (-235), absorbs a neutron. This
absorption destabilizes the nucleus, causing it to split into two smaller nuclei and release a
significant amount of energy, along with additional neutrons.

Step by Step Solution:

1.​ What is nuclear fission?

●​ Nuclear fission is the splitting of a large, unstable nucleus into two smaller nuclei.
2.​ What triggers nuclear fission?
●​ The absorption of a neutron triggers nuclear fission in elements like uranium-235.
3.​ Why does it work with neutrons?
●​ Neutrons are neutral particles, so they are not repelled by the positively charged
nucleus.
4.​ Correct Answer:
●​ The correct answer is (A) a neutron.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (A) a neutron.

Keep it up: You're doing great! Stay focused and aim for success!
Question: 11

Level of question : Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

Which row correctly describes an example of radioactive decay?

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification :

In radioactive decay:

1.​ Alpha emission (α):​

Alpha particles are emitted when an unstable nucleus loses 2 protons and 2 neutrons.
This causes the original element to change into a different element.
2.​ Beta emission (β):​
Beta particles (electrons) are emitted when a neutron turns into a proton. This does not
cause the element to change significantly in terms of atomic mass.
3.​ Gamma emission (γ):​
Gamma rays release energy without changing the number of protons or neutrons,
meaning there is no change to the element.

The correct answer is Row B because:

●​ The nucleus is unstable.

●​ Alpha (α) emission causes a change of element due to loss of protons.
Answer from Mark Scheme

The correct answer is (B)

Keep it up :

Brilliant effort! Keep striving for excellence!

Question: 12

Level of question : Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

What happens in the process of nuclear fission?

A) Electrons are added to a nucleus.

B) Electrons are removed from a nucleus.

C) The nucleus of an atom splits.

D) Two atomic nuclei join together.

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

Nuclear fission is the process where the nucleus of an atom splits into two smaller nuclei. This
occurs when a large nucleus, like (uranium-235), absorbs a neutron and becomes unstable. The
splitting releases a significant amount of energy.

●​ Step 1: A neutron hits the nucleus of a large atom (e.g., uranium).

●​ Step 2: The nucleus absorbs the neutron and becomes unstable.
●​ Step 3: The nucleus splits into two smaller nuclei, releasing energy and more neutrons.

This energy release is harnessed in nuclear reactors for electricity production.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (C): The nucleus of an atom splits.

Keep it up :

"Great effort leads to great achievements!"

Question: 13

Level of question : Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

Why are beta-particles deflected more strongly than alpha-particles when they enter an electric
field?

A) Beta-particles have less mass than alpha-particles.

B) Beta-particles are negatively charged.

C) Beta-particles have lower velocities than alpha-particles.

D) Beta-particles have more ionising power than alpha-particles.

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

Step 1: Understanding the Behavior of Particles in an Electric Field​

When charged particles, like beta-particles and alpha-particles, enter an electric field, they
experience a force due to their charge. The magnitude of this force depends on the charge and
the velocity of the particles.

Step 2: Beta-Particles are More Deflected than Alpha-Particles​

Beta-particles are negatively charged and much lighter than alpha-particles. Because
beta-particles have less mass, they are deflected more easily in an electric field than the
heavier, positively charged alpha-particles. This leads to a stronger deflection for beta-particles.

Step 3: Conclusion​
Therefore, the correct answer is (A) Beta-particles have less mass than alpha-particles.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

(A) Beta-particles have less mass than alpha-particles.

Keep It Up :

Stay focused and keep pushing forward. Your hard work will pay off!
Question: 14

Level of question : Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

Which statement describes how nuclear energy is released by fission in a nuclear power
station?
​
A) Atoms join together to make molecules.
​
B) Heavy nuclei split into lighter nuclei.
​
C) Light nuclei join together to form heavier nuclei.
​
D) Molecules break down into atoms.

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ The process of nuclear fission involves the splitting of heavy atomic nuclei, such as
Uranium-235, into smaller, lighter nuclei. This process releases a large amount of
energy.
2.​ Option B ("Heavy nuclei split into lighter nuclei") correctly describes nuclear fission,
as energy is released when large nuclei are split.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The Correct Answer is (B)​

Explanation: During fission, a heavy nucleus splits into lighter nuclei, releasing energy in the
process.

Keep it up:

You're doing great! Keep up the effort and keep pushing forward!
Question: 15

Level of question : Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2024 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

A student is investigating the count rate of a radioactive substance.

​
How must he adjust his reading for the background count?
​
A) Add the background count to his reading.
​
B) Ignore the background count as it will not affect his reading.
​
C) Subtract the background count from his reading.
​
D) Take repeat readings to eliminate the background count.

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Understanding the background count: The background count is the natural radiation
present in the environment that can interfere with the measurement of a radioactive
substance.
2.​ Why subtract the background count? When measuring the radiation from a
substance, it is important to account for the background count so that the student can
get an accurate reading. The background count adds noise to the measurement, so it
must be subtracted from the total count.
3.​ Conclusion: The correct answer is (C) Subtract the background count from his
reading.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

​
The correct answer is (C) Subtract the background count from his reading.

Keep it up!
​
You are doing a great job—stay focused!
Question: 16

Level of question : Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2024 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

What occurs during nuclear fusion?

A) Two light atomic nuclei join together and emit energy.

B) Two light atomic nuclei join together and absorb energy.

C) A heavy atomic nucleus splits and emits energy.

D) A heavy atomic nucleus splits and absorbs energy.

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

Explanation of Nuclear Fusion: Nuclear fusion occurs when two light atomic nuclei, such as
hydrogen atoms, combine to form a heavier nucleus. This process releases a large amount of
energy. The key aspect of fusion is that it emits energy, not absorbs it. This is the reaction that
powers stars, including our Sun.

Correct Answer:

The correct answer is (A) Two light atomic nuclei join together and emit energy.

Step by Step Breakdown:

1.​ The process begins with two light nuclei, like hydrogen isotopes, coming together due to
the high temperature and pressure.
2.​ The nuclei overcome their electrostatic repulsion and fuse together.
3.​ During fusion, energy is released due to the difference in mass between the reactants
and products, as per Einstein’s equation E= mc2.

This release of energy is what makes fusion different from nuclear fission, where a heavy
nucleus splits and releases energy.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The Correct answer is (A).

Keep It Up! You’re doing amazing! Keep pushing your limits!

Question: 17

Level of question : Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference : 0625/22.March.2024 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

Which statement gives two safety precautions to take when a person is working with ionising
radiation?
​
A) Decrease exposure time and decrease distance between the person and the source
​
B) Decrease exposure time and increase distance between the person and the source
​
C) Increase exposure time and decrease distance between the person and the source
​
D) Increase exposure time and increase distance between the person and the source

Student's Solution :

Step by step Answer and Clarification:

●​ The key to ensuring safety when working with ionising radiation is to reduce the
exposure of the person handling the radiation.
●​ The two important factors to consider are:
●​ Exposure time: The less time spent in proximity to ionising radiation, the less
the exposure.
●​ Distance: Increasing the distance from the source of radiation reduces the
exposure due to the inverse square law, which states that radiation intensity
decreases with the square of the distance.

From this, option B (Decrease exposure time and increase distance between the person
and the source) is the correct answer.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

​
(B) Decrease exposure time and increase distance between the person and the source

Keep it up!
​
You're doing great! Keep pushing forward with your studies, and success will follow.
Question: 18

Level of question : Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference : 0625/22.May.2024 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

Which type of radioactive source is suitable for use in measuring and controlling the thickness of
paper in a paper-manufacturing factory?

Student's Solution :

Step by step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Type of Radiation: To measure the thickness of paper, the type of radiation used should
be able to penetrate through the paper.
●​ Alpha Radiation: Alpha particles are heavy and highly charged, making them
unable to pass through materials like paper. Therefore, alpha radiation is not
suitable for this purpose.
●​ Beta Radiation: Beta particles are lighter and have more penetrating power than
alpha particles. This makes beta radiation more suitable for measuring thickness
in materials like paper.
2.​ Half-life: The half-life of the radioactive source is important because it determines how
long the material remains radioactive. A source with a long half-life is ideal for
continuous monitoring over time.
●​ Beta Radiation with a Long Half-life: This is the best choice because it can
measure thickness reliably without needing to be replaced frequently.
3.​ Conclusion: Option C (beta with long half-life) is the most suitable choice for this
application.
Answer from Mark Scheme :

The Correct Answer is (C) Beta , Long Half-life

Keep it up!

You are on the right track! Keep going and stay focused, your effort will pay off!
Question: 19

Level of question : Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference : 0625/22.May.2024 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

A medical tracer is used to investigate a tumour in a patient.

​
The graph shows the corrected count rate from the tracer against time.

​
What is the half-life of the source?

A) 2 minutes
B) 10 minutes
C) 5000 minutes
D) 10,000 minutes

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

​
To find the half-life of the source from the graph, we need to identify the point at which the
corrected count rate reduces to half of its initial value.

1.​ From the graph, the initial count rate is approximately 9,000 counts per second.
2.​ Find the point on the graph where the count rate drops to half of this value.​
Half of 9,000 is 4,500 counts per second.
3.​ Read the time value corresponding to the 4,500 counts per second. The time
corresponding to this point on the graph is approximately 2 minutes.
4.​ Therefore, the half-life of the source is 2 minutes.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (A) 2 minutes.

Keep it up!
​
Keep pushing forward and mastering those skills! You’re doing great!
Question: 20

Level of question : Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference : 0625/23.May.2024 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

What is nuclear fission?

​
A) the merging of two nuclei to create a heavier nucleus
​
B) the process by which electrons are removed from an atom
​
C) the process by which stars generate energy
​
D) the splitting of a nucleus to create two smaller nuclei

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

●​ Nuclear fission is the process in which a heavy nucleus splits into two smaller nuclei,
releasing energy in the process.
●​ The correct answer is (D) "the splitting of a nucleus to create two smaller nuclei."
●​ Fission is different from fusion, where two smaller nuclei merge to form a heavier one.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

​
The correct answer is (D) "the splitting of a nucleus to create two smaller nuclei."

Explanation:

Fission occurs when a heavy nucleus, such as uranium, absorbs a neutron and becomes
unstable, splitting into two smaller nuclei, releasing energy.

Keep it up!

You're doing great – stay focused and keep going! You've got this!
Question: 21

Level of question : Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference : 0625/23.May.2024 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

The diagram represents the paths of three types of ionising radiation, X, Y, and Z, through a
magnetic field.

The three types of radiation are alpha, beta, and gamma.

Which statement about the ionising radiation is correct?

A) X is positively charged.

B) Y is negatively charged.

C) Z is the most strongly ionising.

D) X has a smaller mass than Y.

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Understanding the Types of Radiation:

●​ Alpha radiation (X) consists of heavy, positively charged particles.
●​ Beta radiation (Y) consists of high-speed electrons (negatively charged).
●​ Gamma radiation (Z) is electromagnetic radiation (no charge, high energy, and
minimal ionising power).
2.​ Magnetic Field Effects:
●​ When ionising radiation passes through a magnetic field, the charged particles
experience a force perpendicular to their motion and the magnetic field, causing
them to curve.
 ●​ Alpha particles (X) are heavy and positively charged, so they curve less than
beta particles.
●​ Beta particles (Y) are lighter and negatively charged, so they curve more than
alpha particles.
●​ Gamma radiation (Z) does not curve as it has no charge.
3.​ Answer Explanation:​
The key observation here is that Z (gamma radiation) is the most ionising, as it has the
highest energy and can penetrate deeper into materials compared to alpha and beta
radiation. Therefore, the correct answer is (C) Z is the most strongly ionising.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The Correct answer is : (C) Z is the most strongly ionising.

Keep it up!
​
You're on the right track! Stay focused, and your hard work will pay off.
Question: 22

Level of question : Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference : 0625/23.May.2024 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

Which row correctly matches three radioactive sources to their uses?

Student's Solution :

Step by step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Alpha-particles and long half-life:​

Alpha-particles, which have a long half-life, are used in smoke alarms. Alpha radiation
is sensitive to smoke particles, and the alarm is triggered when the smoke interacts with
the radiation, causing the signal to be disrupted.
2.​ Beta-particles and long half-life:​
Beta-particles are used for monitoring the thickness of aluminium foil. These
particles are emitted by a radioactive source and are detected after passing through the
foil. Any change in the thickness of the foil alters the amount of beta radiation passing
through, which helps in precise monitoring.
3.​ Gamma radiation and short half-life:​
Gamma radiation, with a short half-life, is commonly used as a tracer to be injected to
detect cancer. Gamma rays can penetrate through the body tissues and help detect
abnormalities or cancerous growths. The short half-life ensures that the radiation is
quickly cleared from the body after its use.

Correct answer based on the table:

●​ The correct row is Row (C), where:

●​ Alpha-particles and long half-life are used in Smoke alarms.
 ●​ Beta-particles and long half-life are used for Monitoring the thickness of
aluminium foil.
●​ Gamma radiation and short half-life are used as Tracers to detect cancer.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The Correct answer is (C)

Justification:

This row correctly matches each radioactive source with its appropriate use based on
their properties.

Keep it up!

Great work! Keep studying, and success will follow. You're doing amazing!
Question: 23

Level of question : Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference : 0625/23.May.2024 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

Why are some radioactive sources stored in boxes made from lead?
​
A) Lead absorbs emissions from the radioactive sources.

B) Lead decreases the half-life of radioactive sources.

C) Lead increases the half-life of radioactive sources.

D) Lead repels all radioactive emissions.

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

The correct answer is(A) Lead absorbs emissions from the radioactive sources.

Explanation:

●​ Radioactive materials emit different types of radiation, such as alpha, beta, and gamma
rays.
●​ Lead is commonly used to shield against these emissions because it has high density
and can absorb or block radiation, especially gamma rays.
●​ This is why radioactive materials are stored in lead containers to protect individuals and
the environment from harmful radiation exposure.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (A) Lead absorbs emissions from the radioactive sources.

Keep It Up!

You are on the right track—keep working hard and stay curious!
Question: 24

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2018 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

Solid caesium-137 decays by the emission of a β-particle to form solid barium-137, which emits
a γ-ray.​
The barium-137 undergoes no further decay. The half-life of caesium-137 is 33 years.
​
A block of pure caesium-137 has a mass of 2.0 µg.
​
The diagram shows a radiation detector a distance of 5 cm from the block. The detector
registers a count rate of 2000 counts/second.

Which statement is not correct?

A) After 33 years, the mass of the block is 1.0 µg.

B) After 66 years, the sample contains 1.5 µg of barium.

C) With 5 cm of lead between the block and the detector, the count rate is just above
background level.

D) With 2 mm of aluminium between the block and the detector, the count rate is reduced
significantly.

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

●​ Step 1: Understand the question. The question is about the radioactive decay of
caesium-137 into barium-137, and we are asked to identify the incorrect statement
based on the decay process and the setup with the detector.
●​ Step 2: The half-life of caesium-137 is 33 years. After one half-life (33 years), the mass
of caesium-137 will be halved.
 ●​ After 33 years, the mass will be 1.0 µg (2.0 µg / 2).
●​ After 66 years, the mass will be halved again, leaving 0.5 µg of caesium-137.
The remaining 1.5 µg would then be barium-137, which is produced during the
decay.
●​ Step 3: Consider the effect of lead and aluminium on the radiation:
●​ Lead, being dense, would reduce the gamma radiation passing through it, but
some radiation still reaches the detector. The count rate with 5 cm of lead should
be above background, but reduced compared to no shielding.
●​ Aluminium, while less dense, will still reduce radiation; 2 mm would be expected
to reduce the count rate more significantly than lead.
●​ Step 4: Identifying the incorrect statement:
●​ Statement A: After 33 years, the mass of the block is 1.0 µg is incorrect.
This is the correct answer because, after 33 years, the mass of caesium-137 will
be halved to 1.0 µg, not 1.5 µg as the statement suggests.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

​
Answer: (A) After 33 years, the mass of the block is 1.0 µg. (This statement is incorrect
because after 33 years, the mass of caesium-137 will be 1.0 µg, not 1.5 µg.)

Keep It Up!
​
Your determination and focus will lead you to success! Keep pushing forward, and don’t stop
believing in yourself!
Question: 25

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2019 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

A beta particle is a fast-moving electron.

​
Which statement explains how beta particles are emitted from an atom?

A) An electron is emitted as a beta particle from an inner electron shell of the atom.

B) An electron is emitted as a beta particle from an outer electron shell of the atom.

C) A neutron changes into a proton and a beta particle is emitted from the nucleus.

D) A proton changes into a neutron and a beta particle is emitted from the nucleus.

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

To understand how beta particles are emitted, we need to know the process of beta decay.

●​ A beta particle is an electron (with a negative charge) emitted from the nucleus.
●​ In the case of beta-minus decay, a neutron in the nucleus converts into a proton, and
an electron (the beta particle) is emitted. This changes the atom into a new element
because the number of protons in the nucleus has increased by one.
●​ Answer (C) is correct because it accurately describes this process.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (C) A neutron changes into a proton, and a beta particle is emitted from
the nucleus.

Keep it up!

You’re doing great! Keep pushing forward and mastering these concepts!
Question: 26

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2020 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

The diagrams show different particles moving through a magnetic field.

​
Which particle experiences a magnetic force acting up out of the plane of the paper?

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Understanding the Magnetic Force:​

The magnetic force on a charged particle is given by the formula:​
F=qvB sin⁡(θ)

where q is the charge, v is the velocity of the particle, B is the magnetic field strength,
and θ is the angle between the velocity and magnetic field.
 2.​ Direction of the Force:​
Using the right-hand rule, we can determine the direction of the force on charged
particles:
●​ For protons (positive charge) and electrons (negative charge), the force will
depend on their motion and the direction of the magnetic field.
●​ In this case, the magnetic force acting on the proton in diagram (C) is directed
out of the plane of the paper.
3.​ Conclusion:​
The particle experiencing the magnetic force acting out of the plane of the paper is the
proton (as shown in diagram C).

Answer from Mark Scheme:

​
The correct answer is (C). The proton in diagram (C) experiences a force acting up out of the
plane of the paper.

Keep it up!
​
You’re doing great—keep moving forward!
Question: 27

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2022 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

When a radioactive isotope is set up close to a counter, a count rate of 38,000 counts/s is
obtained. The table shows the count rate from the isotope over a three-year period.

What is the half-life of the isotope?

A) Less than 1 year​

B) More than 1 year but less than 2 years​
C) More than 2 years but less than 3 years​
D) More than 3 years

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Identify the initial count rate: The initial count rate at time = 0 years is 38,000 counts/s.
2.​ Understand the half-life concept: The half-life of a radioactive isotope is the time taken
for the count rate to reduce to half its initial value.
3.​ Determine the count rate after one year: After 1 year, the count rate is 26,000
counts/s. This is less than half of the initial count rate of 38,000 counts/s, so the half-life
is greater than 1 year.
4.​ Determine the count rate after two years: After 2 years, the count rate is 17,000
counts/s, which is still greater than half of the initial count rate.
5.​ Determine the count rate after three years: After 3 years, the count rate is 12,000
counts/s. It has significantly reduced, but is still not yet half of the initial count rate.
6.​ Conclusion: Based on the information provided, the count rate takes more than 1 year
but less than 2 years to reach half of its initial value.
Answer: The half-life of the isotope is more than 1 year but less than 2 years. The correct
answer is (B).

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (B).

Keep it Up:

Great job, you're on the right track! Keep pushing forward!

Question: 28

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2023 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

A sample of a radioactive isotope has an initial rate of emission of 128 counts per minute and a
half-life of 4 days.

How long will it take for the rate of emission to fall to 32 counts per minute?

A) 2 days

B) 4 days

C) 8 days

D) 12 days

Student's Solution :

Step by step Answer and Clarification :

1.​ Understand the concept of half-life: The half-life of a radioactive substance is the time
it takes for half of the material to decay.
2.​ Initial and target emission rates:
●​ Initial rate: 128 counts per minute.
●​ Target rate: 32 counts per minute.
3.​ Determine how many half-lives are needed:
●​ After 1 half-life (4 days), the emission rate is halved: 128 ÷ 2 = 64 counts/min.
●​ After a second half-life (another 4 days, total 8 days): 64 ÷ 2 = 32 counts/min.
4.​ Conclusion: It takes 8 days (2 half-lives) for the rate of emission to fall to 32 counts per
minute.

Answer from Mark Scheme :

The correct answer is (C).

Keep it up!
You’re making great progress—keep pushing forward!
Question: 29

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.May.2023 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

An electron moves into a uniform magnetic field.

The arrow shows the initial direction of motion of the electron.

​
The direction of the magnetic field is into the plane of the page.

In which direction does a force act on the electron when it enters the magnetic field?

A) into the page

B) out of the page

C) towards the bottom of the page

D) towards the top of the page

Student's Solution:​

Step by step Answer and clarification:

When a charged particle, like an electron, moves through a magnetic field, it experiences a
force known as the Lorentz force. This force is perpendicular to both the direction of the
magnetic field and the direction of the electron's velocity.

1.​ Identify the direction of the magnetic field:​

The magnetic field is into the plane of the page, represented by the cross marks (×).
2.​ Determine the direction of the electron’s motion:​
The electron is moving horizontally to the right.
3.​ Use the right-hand rule for negative charges:​
For a negative charge like the electron, reverse the usual right-hand rule:
 ●​ Point your thumb in the direction of the electron’s velocity (rightward).
●​ Point your fingers into the plane of the page (magnetic field direction).
●​ The force will act in the opposite direction of your palm’s outward push.
4.​ Therefore, the force acts towards the bottom of the page.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

​
The correct answer is (C).

Keep it up:

You're doing great! Stay curious and keep learning.

Question: 30

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.May.2023 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

A radioactive source is placed near a detector connected to a counter.

​
210 counts are recorded by the counter in 3 minutes.
​
The background count rate is 20 counts per minute (cpm).
​
What is the corrected count rate for the radioactive source?

A) 50 cpm

B) 70 cpm

C) 190 cpm

D) 270 cpm

Student's Solution:​

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1. Determine the total count rate recorded by the counter:​

The total counts recorded in 3 minutes = 210 counts.​
Therefore, the count rate = 210 counts / 3 minutes = 70 cpm.

2. Account for the background count rate:​

Background count rate = 20 cpm.

3. Calculate the corrected count rate:​

Corrected count rate = Total count rate - Background count rate​
70 cpm - 20 cpm = 50 cpm.

Thus, the corrected count rate for the radioactive source is 50 cpm.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is A (50 cpm).

Keep it up!

"Your effort today shapes your success tomorrow!"

Question: 31

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.May.2023 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

Which change occurs in the nucleus of a radioactive atom during β-emission?

A) A neutron transforms into a proton and an electron.

B) A neutron transforms into a proton only.

C) A proton transforms into a neutron and an electron.

D) A proton transforms into a neutron only.

Student's Solution:​

Step by step Answer and Clarification:

Concept:​
During β-emission (beta decay), a neutron in the nucleus is converted into a proton, and an
electron (beta particle) is emitted. This process increases the atomic number by one while
keeping the mass number the same.

Step 1: Identify the key change:​

A neutron turns into a proton, and a beta particle (electron) is ejected.

Step 2: Analyze the options:

●​ Option A: Correct, as it matches the process of β-emission.

●​ Option B: Incorrect; the proton is accompanied by an electron (beta particle).
●​ Option C: Incorrect; no proton-to-neutron transformation occurs during β-emission.
●​ Option D: Incorrect; a proton does not turn into a neutron during this decay.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (A).

Keep it up!
Every step forward takes you closer to success.
Question: 32

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.May.2023 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

A radioactive isotope has a half-life of 8 days.

A detector close to a sample of this isotope gives a count rate of 200 counts per minute.

Without the source, the background count is 20 counts per minute.

What is the count rate due to the source after 8 days?​

​
A) 80 counts per minute
​
B) 90 counts per minute
​
C) 100 counts per minute
​
D) 110 counts per minute

Student's Solution:​

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1. Determine the Net Count Rate at Start:

The total detected count rate is 200 counts per minute. Subtract the background count (20
counts per minute):

Net count rate = 200 - 20 = 180 counts per minute

2. Apply Half-Life Formula:

After one half-life (8 days), the count rate of the source will halve:

New count rate = 180 / 2 = 90 counts per minute .

​
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (B) 90 counts per minute.

Keep it up!

You're mastering scientific concepts step by step.

Question: 33

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.May.2023 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

Research is being carried out to produce electrical energy from the fusion of hydrogen nuclei.

Which row shows two of the problems in designing a fusion reactor?

Student's Solution:​

Step by step Answer and Clarification:

●​ Fusion reactions involve the merging of hydrogen nuclei (protons).

●​ The difficulty in achieving this fusion arises because the nuclei are positively charged,
causing them to repel each other due to the electrostatic force.
●​ A high temperature is required to overcome this repulsion.
●​ At very high temperatures, the nuclei move fast enough to collide with one another,
allowing for fusion to occur.

The correct answer is (D):

●​ Temperature needed: very high

●​ The nuclei are positively charged and repel each other.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The Correct Answer is (D).

●​ Reasoning: At very high temperatures, the hydrogen nuclei will have sufficient kinetic
energy to overcome their electrostatic repulsion, making fusion possible.

Keep it Up!

You are doing great! Keep up the hard work, and don't give up. You are closer than you think!
Question: 34

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

The half-life of carbon-14 is 5700 years.

​
An object containing carbon-14 has a count rate of 100 counts/minute when it is first formed.
The graph shows how the count rate decreases over time.
​
Which point on the graph corresponds to a time 11400 years after the formation of the object?

Student's Solution:​

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Understanding the Graph:​

The half-life of carbon-14 is given as 5700 years. This means the count rate will halve
every 5700 years.
2.​ Finding 11400 years:​
11400 years is 2 half-lives of carbon-14 (since 11400 ÷ 5700 = 2). After 2 half-lives, the
count rate will be reduced to 25 counts/minute from the original 100 counts/minute.
3.​ Interpreting the Graph:​
The point on the graph that corresponds to a count rate of about 25 counts/minute and a
time of 11400 years is point D.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (D).

Keep it up!

You’re doing great! Keep pushing forward!

Question: 35

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.May.2024 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

A radioactive source is placed near a detector.

The radiation arriving at the detector from the source is measured for 10 minutes with different
materials placed between the source and the detector.

Which types of radiation are emitted by the source?

A) α-particles and γ-rays​

B) α-particles only​
C) β-particles and γ-rays​
D) β-particles only

Student's Solution:​

Step by step Answer and Clarification:

●​ The radiation counts are measured with different materials between the source and the
detector.
●​ Sheet of paper: The radiation detected is almost the same as when no material is
placed. This suggests that α-particles are not absorbed by paper, as α-particles are
stopped by thin materials.
●​ Thick sheet of aluminium: The reduction in counts suggests that β-particles are being
blocked by the aluminium, as β-particles are less penetrating than γ-rays but can pass
through paper.
 ●​ Thick sheet of lead: A large reduction in counts indicates that γ-rays are being
absorbed by the lead. This is consistent with γ-rays being highly penetrating but still
absorbable by thick lead.

Conclusion: Based on the observations, the source emits both α-particles (absorbed by
paper) and γ-rays (absorbed by lead).

Answer from Mark Scheme:

​
The correct answer is (C) β-particles and γ-rays.

Keep it up!
​
Stay focused, stay curious, and never stop learning!
Question: 36

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.May.2024 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

The reading on a detector placed near a radioactive material is 536 counts per second.​

The background count rate is 44 counts per second.

​
The half-life of the radioactive material is 34 hours.​

What is the reading on the detector after 68 hours?

A) 44 counts per second

B) 123 counts per second

C) 134 counts per second

D) 167 counts per second

Student's Solution:​

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

The equation for radioactive decay is:​

Where:

●​ N(t) = Final reading

●​ N0 = Initial reading (after background is subtracted)
●​ t = Time passed
●​ T(½) = Half-life of the material
1. Identify the initial values:

●​ Initial count rate (before decay): 536 counts/second.

●​ Background count rate: 44 counts/second.
●​ The initial count due to the material is:​
N0 = 536 - 44 = 492 counts/second

2. Apply the decay formula:

​
N(t) = 492 * (1/2)(68/34)​
Since the half-life T(½) is 34 hours, and the time passed t = 68 hours, the decay factor is:

​
N(t) = 492 * (1/2)2 = 492 * 1/4 = 123 counts/second​
​
3. Add the background count rate:

The final reading on the detector is:​

N(t) + background = 123 + 44 = 167 counts/second

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (D).

The correct reading on the detector after 68 hours is 167 counts per second.

Keep it up:

You are doing great! Keep pushing and continue to explore new concepts in physics!
Question: 37

Level of question: Hard | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2021 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

A laboratory worker measures the count rate from a radioactive source. He records his results in
a table.

The average background radiation in the laboratory is 8 counts per second.

What is the half-life of the source?

A) 1.5 minutes

B) 2.0 minutes

C) 3.0 minutes

D) 4.0 minutes

Student's Solution:​

Step by step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Subtract the background radiation (8 counts/s) from each count rate:
●​ At time 0 minutes: 100 - 8 = 92 counts/s
●​ At time 1 minute: 73 - 8 = 65 counts/s
●​ At time 2 minutes: 54 - 8 = 46 counts/s
●​ At time 3 minutes: 41 - 8 = 33 counts/s
●​ At time 4 minutes: 31 - 8 = 23 counts/s
2.​ Half-life determination:
●​ Observe the rate of decrease in counts.
 ●​ From time 0 to time 1, the count rate decreases by approximately 27 counts/s,
indicating a significant change.
●​ The source's count rate at 50% of its original value (approximately 92 counts/s)
happens between 1 and 2 minutes, so the half-life is about 2.0 minutes.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (B) 2.0 minutes.

Keep It Up!

You're doing great – keep pushing through!

Question: 38

Level of question: Hard | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.May.2023 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

The background count rate measured by a radiation counter is 40 counts per minute (cpm).

With the counter close to a radioactive source, the counter reading is 960 cpm.

The half-life of the source is 20 minutes.

What is the counter reading one hour later?

A) 115 cpm
B) 120 cpm
C) 155 cpm
D) 160 cpm

Student's Solution:​

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ The initial count rate is 960 cpm.

2.​ The background count rate is 40 cpm, so the net count rate is:​
Net Count Rate = 960 - 40 = 920 cpm.
3.​ The half-life is 20 minutes. After one hour (which is 60 minutes), the number of half-lives
that have passed is:​
Number of Half-lives = 60 minutes ÷ 20 minutes = 3.
4.​ The count rate will reduce by half every half-life.​
After 1 half-life (20 minutes), the count rate = 920 ÷ 2 = 460 cpm.​
After 2 half-lives (40 minutes), the count rate = 460 ÷ 2 = 230 cpm.​
After 3 half-lives (60 minutes), the count rate = 230 ÷ 2 = 115 cpm.

5. Adding the Background Count Rate:

●​ To find the total count rate the counter will read after one hour, we must add the
background count rate (40 cpm) to the net count rate from the radioactive source:

Total Count Rate=115 cpm+40 cpm=155cpm

 6. Final Result:

●​ Based on these calculations, the correct answer is 155 cpm, which is why the
answer is (C) 155 cpm.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (C) 155 cpm

Keep It Up!

You're on the right track—keep up the hard work and you'll succeed!
Question: 39

Level of question: Hard | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.May.2023 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

The graph shows how the count rate registered by a counter near to a sample of a radioactive
isotope changes over a period of a few days. The background count rate is 5 counts per minute.

​
What is the half-life of the isotope?
​
A) 2.0 days​
B) 2.5 days​
C) 3.0 days​
D) 4.0 days

Student's Solution:

Step by step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Identify the initial count rate: The initial count rate is around 45 counts per minute.
2.​ Determine when the count rate halves: Half of 45 counts is approximately 22.5 counts
per minute. From the graph, we can see that it takes roughly 2.0 days for the count rate
to decrease to this value.
3.​ Calculate the half-life: The time it takes for the count rate to reduce by half is the
half-life of the isotope, which in this case is 2.0 days.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

​
The correct answer is (A) 2.0 days

Keep it up!
​
You're doing amazing, keep pushing forward and stay motivated!
Question: 40

Level of question: Hard | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

Radioisotope X decays to the stable isotope Y. The graph shows how the mass of Y present in a
sample varies with time.

​
Which time interval gives the half-life of X?
​
A) t₂ - t₁
​
B) t₃ - t₂
​
C) t₂
​
1
D) 2
t₃

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ The half-life of a radioactive isotope is the time it takes for half of the original material to
decay.
2.​ From the graph, we can see that at time t₂, the mass of Y has reached half of its
maximum value.
3.​ Therefore, the time t₂ represents the half-life, as it corresponds to the point at which the
mass of Y is half of its final value.
4.​ Thus, the correct answer is (C) t₂.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (C) t₂.

Keep it up!

You’re on the right track towards achieving your goals!

Question: 41

Level of question: Hard | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

A radioactive isotope of sodium has a half-life of 15 hours.

The table gives data from an experiment to show how the rate of decay of the isotope varies
with time.
​
The background count rate has not been subtracted from these data.

What is the background radiation count rate?

​
A) 12 counts/s
​
B) 15 counts/s
​
C) 20 counts/s
​
D) 30 counts/s

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Understand the Question:​

The given data shows how the count rate decreases over time due to the decay of the
sodium isotope. The question asks us to calculate the "background count rate," which is
the rate that remains constant and is not affected by the radioactive decay.
2.​ Examine the Data:
●​ At time = 0 hours, the count rate is 400 counts/s.
●​ At time = 10 hours, the count rate is 260 counts/s.
●​ At time = 20 hours, the count rate is 170 counts/s.
●​ At time = 30 hours, the count rate is 115 counts/s.
 3.​ Analysis:​
It's clear that the count rate decreases with time due to the decay of the sodium isotope.
As time passes, the decay slows down, and the count rate decreases at a lesser rate.
4.​ Estimating the Background Radiation:​
At 30 hours, the decay has almost stopped, and the count rate starts to stabilize. At this
point, we can assume that the remaining count rate represents the background radiation,
which remains constant throughout the experiment and is not affected by the decay.
●​ At 30 hours, the count rate is 115 counts/s.
●​ This 115 counts/s is the sum of the decay count rate and the background count
rate.
●​ We estimate that the background count rate is approximately 20 counts/s, as
this value is consistent with the remaining count after most of the decay has
occurred.
5.​ Conclusion:​
Based on the analysis, the background radiation count rate is 20 counts/s.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (C) 20 counts/s.

Keep it up!

You're doing a great job. Keep pushing forward, you're almost there!
Question: 42

Level of question: Hard | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2024|

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

A beta-particle enters a uniform magnetic field directed into the page and deflects downwards,
as shown.

​
Which direction of electric field would also deflect an electron downwards?

A) into the page

B) out of the page

C) down the page

D) up the page

Student's Solution:

Step by step Answer and Clarification:

Step 1: Identify the direction of the beta-particle and the magnetic field. The beta-particle is a
negatively charged particle moving through the magnetic field.

Step 2: Use the left-hand rule (for negative charges) to find the direction of the force exerted by
the magnetic field on the beta-particle. The force on a beta-particle is downward as it enters the
magnetic field.

Step 3: To deflect an electron downward in a uniform electric field, the electric field must be
directed in such a way as to exert a downward force on the electron, which is opposite to the
magnetic force direction on a positive charge.

Conclusion: The electric field that deflects the electron downward must be directed "up the
page" as this will exert the correct force on a negatively charged electron.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (D) up the page.

Keep it Up:

Keep learning and pushing forward—you're on the right track! Stay motivated and always give
your best effort at every step.
Question: 43

Level of question :Hard | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.May.2024 |

Chapter 28: Nuclear physics.

The dashed line on the graph shows the decay curve recorded from a sample of a particular
radioactive isotope. The count rate includes background radiation.

Which curve shows the corrected count rate for the decay?

Student's Solution:
Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

To solve this question, consider that the count rate recorded from the radioactive sample
includes background radiation. The decay curve recorded will appear higher than the actual
decay rate, as background radiation is always present.

The corrected count rate curve is obtained by subtracting the background radiation from the
total measured count rate.

●​ In the provided options, Curve B best represents the corrected count rate since it shows
a decay curve with a consistent reduction in counts per minute, which aligns with the
behavior expected after subtracting background radiation from the total measured count.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct curve is (B).

Keep it up!

You’re doing great! Keep pushing forward!

Question: 1

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2023 |

Chapter 29: Solar system

Which data is needed to calculate the average orbital speed of a satellite around a planet?

key
✓= needed
X= not needed

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1. Formula for Orbital Speed: The average orbital speed of a satellite is determined using the
formula v = (2 * pi * r) / T, where r is the distance from the planet’s center and T is the orbital
period.

2. Necessary Data: To calculate the orbital speed, you need to know the distance from the
planet's center and the time it takes for the satellite to complete one orbit (i.e., the orbital
period). The radius of the planet is not directly needed, and the period of rotation is also
irrelevant for this calculation.

3. Interpretation of Data: Based on the options, the correct data to calculate the average
orbital speed of the satellite are:

● The distance of the satellite from the center of the planet.

● The time for the satellite to orbit the planet once.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

Correct Answer: (B)

Explanation: The key data required to calculate orbital speed are the distance of the satellite
from the center of the planet and the time it takes for one orbit. The radius of the planet and the
period of rotation are not necessary.

Keep it up:

Your hard work is paying off, keep pushing forward!

You can do it!

Question: 2

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2023 |

Chapter 29: Solar system

Approximately how long does it take for the Moon to make one complete orbit of the Earth?​
A) 24 hours​
B) 1 month​
C) 1 season​
D) 1 year

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

●​ The Moon takes approximately 27.3 days to complete an orbit around the Earth.
●​ This is known as a sidereal month. However, because the Earth is also moving around
the Sun, the time between the Moon's full phases (new moon to new moon) is about
29.5 days.
●​ Therefore, the correct answer is (B) 1 month.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

(B) 1 month

Keep it up!
​
Stay focused!
Question: 3

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.May.2023 |

Chapter 29: Solar system

Which planet in our Solar System is nearest to the Sun and what is the nature of the planet?

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ The nearest planet to the Sun is Mercury.

2.​ Mercury is a rocky planet, meaning it has a solid, rocky surface and is classified as a
terrestrial planet.
3.​ The other options, Venus and Mercury with gaseous compositions, are incorrect based
on the properties of Mercury.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

Correct Answer: (A) Mercury is the closest planet to the Sun and is rocky in nature.

Keep it up:

Great job! Keep pushing forward. You're on the right track!

Question: 4

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.May.2023 |

Chapter 29: Solar system.

Which statement about the Solar System is correct?

A) All the planets are rocky.

B) Only the Earth has a moon.

C) Pluto is a dwarf planet.

D) There are many stars in the Solar System.

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

●​ Statement A is incorrect. Not all planets are rocky; some are gas giants like Jupiter and
Saturn.
●​ Statement B is also incorrect. Several planets have moons, not just Earth.
●​ Statement C is correct. Pluto is indeed classified as a dwarf planet by the International
Astronomical Union (IAU).
●​ Statement D is incorrect. There is only one star in the Solar System, the Sun.

Answer from Mark Scheme :

The correct answer is (C)

Keep it up!

You are doing great! Keep pushing yourself.

Question: 5

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.May.2023 |

Chapter 29: Solar system.

Comets are bodies which orbit the Sun in the Solar System.
​
What is the shape of the orbit and how is the Sun positioned within the orbit?

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

●​ The orbit of comets is generally elliptical, not circular. This means that the Sun is not
located at the exact centre of the orbit but at one of the foci of the ellipse.
●​ The correct answer is (D), as the Sun is positioned at one of the foci of the elliptical
orbit, not at the centre.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

​
The correct answer is (D): Elliptical, Not at centre of orbit.

Keep it up!
​
Believe in yourself!
Question: 6

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.May.2023 |

Chapter 29: Solar system.

Which row about the orbits of the Earth and the Moon is correct?

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Understanding the Orbit of the Earth:

●​ The Earth orbits the Sun in a roughly elliptical orbit, completing one revolution
every 365 days.
●​ This is based on the orbital mechanics that govern the Earth's movement in the
Solar System.
2.​ Understanding the Moon's Orbit:
●​ The Moon orbits the Earth in about 30 days. This is consistent with the Moon's
phases and the time it takes to complete a full cycle (new moon to new moon).
3.​ Comparison of Options:
●​ Option A is incorrect as the Earth takes much longer than 1 day to orbit the Sun.
●​ Option B is incorrect as the Moon's orbital period is not just 1 day.
●​ Option C is incorrect as the Earth takes 365 days to orbit the Sun, not 1 day.
●​ Option D is correct because the Earth takes 365 days to orbit the Sun, and the
Moon takes approximately 30 days to orbit the Earth.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is: (D)

Reasoning: The Moon's orbit around the Earth takes about 30 days, and the Earth's orbit
around the Sun takes 365 days.

Keep it up:

"Keep up the hard work, success is on the way!"

Question: 7

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.May.2023 |

Chapter 29: Solar system.

Which statement about the orbits of comets is correct?

A) Comets have elliptical orbits, and the Sun is at the centre of the orbit.

B) Comets have elliptical orbits, and the Sun is not at the centre of the orbit.

C) Comets have circular orbits, and the Sun is at the centre of the orbit.

D) Comets have circular orbits, and the Sun is not at the centre of the orbit.

Student's Solution:

Step by step Answer and clarification:

The correct answer is (B) : Comets have elliptical orbits, and the Sun is not at the centre of
the orbit.

Explanation: Comets move in elliptical orbits, which means their paths are oval-shaped. The
Sun is located at one of the foci of the ellipse, not at the centre. This means the distance
between the Sun and the comet changes as it moves along its orbit.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

​
The correct answer is (B)

Keep it up:

"You are capable of amazing things"

Question: 8

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 29: Solar system.

It is summer in the northern hemisphere of the Earth in June.

​
Which statement explains why?

A) The Earth is closer to the Sun in June.

B) The Earth spins on its axis in the opposite direction to that in which it rotates around the Sun.

C) The Moon is full in June.

D) The north pole of the axis of the Earth’s rotation is tilted towards the Sun in June.

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

The Earth’s tilt causes the change in seasons. In June, the Earth’s north pole is tilted towards
the Sun. This tilt means that sunlight strikes the northern hemisphere at a more direct angle,
providing more energy and longer days, which results in summer.

Answer from Mark Scheme :

The correct answer is (D) The north pole of the axis of the Earth’s rotation is tilted towards
the Sun in June.

Keep it up :

You are doing great!

Question: 9

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 29: Solar system.

The Sun transfers energy to the Earth through electromagnetic radiation.​

What are two of the parts of the electromagnetic spectrum to which most of the energy belongs?

A) Gamma rays and X-rays​

B) Infrared radiation and visible light​
C) Microwaves and visible light​
D) Radio waves and microwaves

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

The Sun emits energy in the form of electromagnetic radiation, and most of this energy belongs
to infrared radiation and visible light.

1.​ Infrared radiation: The Sun releases a significant portion of its energy as infrared
radiation, which we feel as heat.
2.​ Visible light: This is the part of the spectrum that is visible to the human eye, providing
the light we see daily.

Therefore, the correct answer is:​

(B) Infrared radiation and visible light.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

​
(B) Infrared radiation and visible light

Keep it up:
​
Great job, you're on the right track!
Question: 10

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 29: Solar system.

A planet orbits the Sun with orbital period T. The average radius of the orbit is r.

What is the average orbital speed of the planet?

A) 2πrT

B) (2πr) / T

C) T / (2πr)

D) (πr) / (2T)

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification :

1. The orbital speed of the planet is given by the formula:

v = (2πr) / T

2. Here, r is the average radius of the orbit, and T is the orbital period.

3. The formula for orbital speed comes from the fact that the planet moves along a circular orbit.
The distance it travels in one complete orbit is the circumference of the orbit, 2πr, and the time
taken to complete the orbit is T.

4. Therefore, the average speed is the total distance divided by the time, leading to the formula
v = (2πr) / T.

5. Thus, the correct answer is B (2πr) / T.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

the correct answer is B (2πr) / T

Keep it up!

Your effort today is a stepping stone to mastering the subject! Keep pushing forward!
Question: 11

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2024 |

Chapter 29: Solar system .

Which list correctly shows the planets in decreasing order of distance from the Sun?
​
A) Jupiter → Saturn → Neptune → Uranus​
B) Jupiter → Saturn → Uranus → Neptune​
C) Neptune → Uranus → Saturn → Jupiter​
D) Uranus → Neptune → Saturn → Jupiter

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ The planets in our solar system can be ordered by their distance from the Sun.
2.​ The correct order of planets from the Sun to the outermost is: Mercury, Venus, Earth,
Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune.
3.​ To arrange the planets in the question from farthest to closest to the Sun:
●​ Jupiter is farther from the Sun than Saturn.
●​ Saturn is farther from the Sun than Uranus.
●​ Uranus is farther from the Sun than Neptune.
4.​ Therefore, the correct order of planets is: Neptune → Uranus → Saturn → Jupiter
(option C).

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (C) Neptune → Uranus → Saturn → Jupiter

Keep it up!
​
You're on the right track. Keep working hard and success will follow!
Question: 12

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2024 |

Chapter 29: Solar system .

The Sun radiates most of its energy in three regions of the electromagnetic spectrum.​
In the pie chart, region 1 is infrared radiation and region 2 is visible radiation.

What is region 3?

A) Microwave

B) Radio

C) Ultraviolet

D) X-ray

Student's Solution :

Step by step Answer and Clarification:

The Sun radiates energy in several regions of the electromagnetic spectrum. The three major
regions in the pie chart include infrared, visible radiation, and a third region which we need to
identify.

●​ Region 1 represents infrared radiation.

●​ Region 2 represents visible radiation.
●​ The remaining region, Region 3, must correspond to another part of the spectrum.
Based on the given options, ultraviolet radiation (C) is most likely the correct answer ,
as it is a well-known part of the Sun’s emitted energy.
Thus, the answer is (C) Ultraviolet.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (C) Ultraviolet

Keep it up!

Stay motivated and keep pushing towards your goals!

Question: 13

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2024 |

Chapter 29: Solar system .

The diagram shows a comet moving in an elliptical orbit around the Sun.

At which position is the comet moving with the greatest speed?

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

The comet moves in an elliptical orbit around the Sun. According to Kepler's second law, the line
joining the Sun and the comet sweeps out equal areas in equal times. This implies that the
comet moves fastest when it is closest to the Sun.

●​ Explanation: In an elliptical orbit, the gravitational attraction of the Sun is stronger when
the comet is closer to the Sun. As a result, the comet speeds up when it is near the Sun
and slows down when it is farther away.
●​ Answer: The comet moves with the greatest speed at position A, the point closest to
the Sun.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The Correct Answer is (A)

Keep It Up!

You’re doing great – Keep pushing and the stars will be within your reach!
Question: 14

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.May.2024 |

Chapter 29: Solar system .

A planet in the Solar System is at the point in its orbit where it is closest to the Sun.

Which row is correct?

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

When a planet is closest to the Sun (at perihelion), it moves at its maximum orbital speed due to
the stronger gravitational attraction. At this point, the energy in the gravitational potential store is
at its minimum since it is closest to the Sun.

Thus, the correct answer is:

(B) Orbital speed is at its maximum, energy in gravitational potential store is at its
minimum.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is:

(B) Orbital speed is at its maximum, energy in gravitational potential store is at its
minimum.

Keep it Up: You're doing great! Keep pushing forward, and you’ll achieve great results!
Question: 15

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.May.2023 |

Chapter 29: Solar system .

A space station orbits the Earth at a distance of 7000 km from the Earth's center. It makes 15
orbits in every 24-hour period.
​
What is the speed of the space station in its orbit?

A) 2900 km/h

B) 4400 km/h

C) 8800 km/h

D) 27,000 km/h

Student's Solution :

​
Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1. Calculate the total distance traveled in one orbit:

The radius of the orbit is 7000 km.

The circumference of the orbit is given by the formula: C = 2πr

C = 2 × π × 7000 = 44,000 km

2. Determine the total distance for 15 orbits:

Total Distance = 44,000 km × 15 = 660,000 km

3. Calculate the speed of the space station:

Speed = Distance / Time

Speed = 660,000 km / 24 h = 27,500 km/h

Closest answer: (D) 27,000 km/h.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (D) 27,000 km/h

Keep it Up:

Keep striving for excellence—you’re doing great!

Question: 16

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 29: Solar system .

The time taken for the Earth to orbit the Sun is approximately 365 days.
​
The average radius of the Earth’s orbit around the Sun is 1.5 × 108 km.
​
What is the average orbital speed of the Earth?​
​
A) 30 m/s
​
B) 4.8 × 103 m/s
​
C) 3.0 × 104 m/s
​
D)4.1 × 1010 m/s

Student's Solution :

​
Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

Orbital speed formula:​

v = 2πr / T​
Where:​
- v is the orbital speed​
- r is the radius of the orbit​
- T is the period of the orbit (time for one complete revolution)

1. Convert the radius to meters:

The average radius of the Earth's orbit is given as 1.5 × 108 km.​
Convert to meters:​
1.5 × 108 km = 1.5 × 1011 m​
​
2. Calculate the orbital period (T):

​
The time taken for the Earth to orbit the Sun is 365 days, so we need to convert this to seconds:​
T = 365 days × 24 hours/day × 60 minutes/hour × 60 seconds/minute​
T = 31,536,000 seconds​
​
3. Apply the formula for orbital speed:​
v = 2πr / T​
Substitute the values of r and T:​
v = (2π × 1.5 × 1011 ) / 31,536,000​
v = 3.0 × 104 m/s

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (C) 3.0 × 104 m/s

Keep it up!

Stay motivated, you're making great progress! Keep pushing forward!

Question: 17

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2024 |

Chapter 29: Solar system .

The table below gives data about four planets in our Solar System.

What are planets X and Y?

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

​
To identify planets X and Y, we need to match the temperature data with known planetary
characteristics.

●​ Uranus has a very cold surface temperature of -195°C.

●​ Earth's temperature is around 15°C, which is suitable for life.
●​ Planet X has a surface temperature of -65°C, which matches Mars.
●​ Planet Y has a temperature of -140°C, which matches Saturn.

Therefore, Planet X is Mars, and Planet Y is Saturn.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The Correct answer is (A) Mars and Saturn

​

Keep it Up!
​
You're on the right track! Keep up the hard work, and success will follow!
Question: 18

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.May.2024 |

Chapter 29: Solar system .

The Earth orbits the Sun once in approximately 365 days.​

The average radius of the orbit is 1.5 × 10¹¹ m.

​
What is the average orbital speed of the Earth?​
​
A) 3.0 × 10⁴ m/s
​
B) 1.1 × 10⁸ m/s
​
C) 2.6 × 10⁹ m/s
​
D) 1.3 × 10¹⁵ m/s​

Student's Solution :

​
Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

Step 1: Use the formula for orbital speed

The orbital speed is calculated using the formula:​

v = (2 * π * r) / T

●​ v is the orbital speed

●​ r is the radius of the orbit
●​ T is the period of revolution (1 year = 365 days.

Where r = 1.5 × 10¹¹ m and T = 365 days.​

Step 2: Convert the period to seconds​

T = 365 days * 24 hours/day * 3600 seconds/hour = 31,536,000 seconds​

Step 3: Plug values into the formula​

v = (2 * π * 1.5 × 10¹¹) / 31,536,000​
v ≈ 2.98 × 10⁴ m/s​
Step 4: Final Answer

The average orbital speed of the Earth is approximately 3.0 × 10⁴ m/s.​

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (A) 3.0 × 10⁴ m/s.

Keep it up!

Remember, consistent effort leads to great results. Keep pushing forward!

Question: 19

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.May.2024 |

Chapter 29: Solar system .

The average distance from the Earth to the Sun is 1.5 × 10¹¹ m.

What is the orbital speed of the Earth?

A) 4.0 × 10⁵ km/day

B) 1.3 × 10⁶ km/day

C) 2.6 × 10⁶ km/day

D) 1.9 × 10¹⁴ km/day

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

The orbital speed of Earth can be calculated using the formula for orbital velocity:

v = (2πr) / T

Where:

●​ 𝑟 is the average distance from Earth to the Sun (1.5 × 10¹¹ m) .

●​ 𝑇 is the time for one full orbit (365 days or 31,536,000 seconds) .

1. Calculate the Circumference of Earth's Orbit:

Using the formula for the circumference of a circle, C = 2πr, we calculate the distance the Earth
travels in one complete orbit.

C = 2π(1.5 × 10¹¹ m) = 9.42 × 10¹¹ m

2. Convert Orbital Period to Seconds:

One year = 365 days = 31,536,000 seconds.

3. Calculate Orbital Speed:

Orbital speed is the circumference divided by the orbital period.

v = (9.42 × 10¹¹ m) / (31,536,000 s) ≈ 2.98 × 10⁴ m/s

Converting this to kilometers per day:

v ≈ 2.98 × 10⁴ m/s × (86400 seconds/day / 1000) ≈ 2.6 × 10⁶ km/day

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (C) 2.6 × 10⁶ km/day.

Keep it up!

You are doing amazing! Keep pushing forward, and the results will follow.
Question: 20

Level of question: Hard | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 29: Solar system .

The diagram shows a star S and the initial arrangement of three planets, X, Y, and Z.

Each planet orbits clockwise in a circle about S.

The time for one orbit of Y is three times the time taken for one orbit of X.

The time for one orbit of Z is twice the time taken for one orbit of Y.

Starting from the initial arrangement, which diagram shows the positions of the planets after X
has made one complete orbit?

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Initial Conditions:

●​ X completes its orbit in 1 unit of time.
●​ Y takes 3 times longer than X to complete one orbit (3 units of time).
●​ Z takes 2 times longer than Y (6 units of time).
2.​ After X completes one orbit:
●​ The positions of the planets will change as follows:
 ■​ X will have completed one full orbit and return to its starting position.
■​ Y will have completed 1/3 of its orbit (since it takes 3 units of time).
■​ Z will have completed 1/6 of its orbit (since it takes 6 units of time).
3.​ Matching to diagrams:
●​ We need to find which diagram shows X back in its original position, Y about 1/3
around its orbit, and Z about 1/6 around its orbit.
4.​ Answer: The correct diagram is (B).

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (B).

Keep it up!

You’re doing great! Keep pushing through, and remember that learning is a journey.
Question: 1

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2023 |

Chapter 30: Stars and universe.

The energy generated in stable stars comes from nuclear reactions.​

Which type of reaction occurs in the Sun?

A) Helium nuclei break up to give hydrogen nuclei.

B) Helium nuclei join together to form hydrogen nuclei.
C) Hydrogen nuclei break up to give helium nuclei.
D) Hydrogen nuclei join together to form helium nuclei.

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

In the Sun, the process of nuclear fusion takes place. During this process, hydrogen nuclei
(protons) combine to form helium nuclei, releasing energy. This process is known as hydrogen
fusion. The correct reaction in the Sun involves the joining of hydrogen nuclei to form helium
nuclei, as described in option D. This is the core of the Sun's energy production.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is(D) : Hydrogen nuclei join together to form helium nuclei.

Keep it Up:

Believe in yourself, and you can achieve anything!

Question: 2

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2023 |

Chapter 30: Stars and universe

Two quantities define the Hubble constant H₀.

●​ The speed at which the galaxy is moving away from the Earth v
●​ The distance of the galaxy from the Earth d

What is the relationship between v and d, and what is the current estimate for H₀?

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

Step 1: The relationship between the speed of the galaxy v and its distance d is defined by the
formula v = H₀ × d, where H₀ is the Hubble constant.​
​
Step 2: The Hubble constant can be expressed in units of s⁻¹, and the current estimate for H₀ is
2.2 × 10⁻¹⁸ s⁻¹, according to the given data.​
​
Step 3: The current estimate for H₀ is therefore used in the formula to calculate the velocity of
the galaxy based on its distance from Earth.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is: (A) v is proportional to d, and the current estimate for H₀ is

2.2 × 10⁻¹⁸ s⁻¹.

Keep it up:

Great job! Keep pushing forward!

Question: 3

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference:0625/21.May.2023 |

Chapter 30: Stars and universe

Which nuclear reaction powers a stable star?

​
A) nuclear fission of nuclei producing hydrogen​
B) nuclear fission of a uranium nucleus into a krypton nucleus and a barium nucleus​
C) nuclear fusion of a krypton nucleus and a barium nucleus into a uranium nucleus​
D) nuclear fusion of hydrogen nuclei producing helium

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ The correct answer is (D). Stable stars, including our Sun, primarily undergo nuclear
fusion, where hydrogen nuclei combine to form helium, releasing massive amounts of
energy in the process.
2.​ Nuclear fusion is the process in which two hydrogen atoms fuse to form helium. This
reaction is responsible for the energy produced in stars, including the Sun.
3.​ Fission, on the other hand, is the splitting of heavy nuclei, which is not the process that
powers stable stars.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

​
The correct answer is (D): nuclear fusion of hydrogen nuclei producing helium.

Keep it up:

💪
​
Stay motivated, and keep pushing forward!
Question: 4

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference:0625/21.May.2023 |

Chapter 30: Stars and universe

Which stages in the life cycle of a star are listed in the order they occur?
​
A) interstellar dust cloud → stable star → protostar​
B) protostar → red giant → stable star​
C) red giant → white dwarf → protostar​
D) stable star → red giant → white dwarf

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ Interstellar Dust Cloud: A star begins as a nebula (cloud of gas and dust).
2.​ Protostar: The dust and gas clump together under gravity to form a protostar.
3.​ Stable Star: Eventually, the temperature and pressure are high enough for nuclear
fusion to begin, creating a stable star.
4.​ Red Giant: After hydrogen runs out in the core, the star expands into a red giant.
5.​ White Dwarf: The outer layers of the red giant are shed, leaving behind a dense, hot
core called a white dwarf.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (D) Stable star → red giant → white dwarf.

Keep it up:

Great effort! Keep pushing forward, and remember, each step you take brings you closer to
mastering the subject.
Question: 5

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference:0625/22.May.2023 |

Chapter 30: Stars and universe.

Which nuclear reaction produces the release of energy to power a star?

A) nuclear fission of helium into hydrogen

B) nuclear fission of hydrogen into helium

C) nuclear fusion of helium into hydrogen

D) nuclear fusion of hydrogen into helium

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ The process that powers stars is nuclear fusion, not fission.
2.​ In nuclear fusion, two light atomic nuclei (like hydrogen) combine to form a heavier
nucleus (like helium).
3.​ The energy is released as a result of the mass defect and the conversion of mass to
energy, as per Einstein’s equation E=mc2
4.​ Therefore, the correct answer is (D) nuclear fusion of hydrogen into helium.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Stars primarily use nuclear fusion, where hydrogen atoms fuse together to form
helium, releasing vast amounts of energy.

Keep it Up!

Believe in yourself, you're doing great!

Question: 6

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference:0625/22.May.2023 |

Chapter 30: Stars and universe.

What is the definition of the Hubble constant?

​
A) the ratio of the speed at which a galaxy is receding from the Earth to its distance from the
Earth
​
B) the value of the change in wavelength of the galaxy’s starlight due to redshift
​
C) the constant used to represent the rate of expansion of the Universe in all directions
​
D) the estimated constant equal to the age of the Universe

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

●​ The Hubble constant H0 is used to express the rate at which the Universe is expanding.
●​ It is the ratio of the speed at which a galaxy is receding from the Earth (due to the
expansion of the Universe) to its distance from Earth.
●​ This constant is crucial for measuring the size and age of the Universe.

Answer from Mark Scheme :

​
The correct answer is (A) : "The ratio of the speed at which a galaxy is receding from the
Earth to its distance from the Earth."

Keep it up:
​
You're on the right track, keep going!
Question: 7

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference:0625/23.May.2023 |

Chapter 30: Stars and universe.

Which row describes the power source for a stable star?

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification

1.​ Understanding the Question: The question asks which nuclear reaction and fuel
source is used in stable stars, specifically asking about hydrogen as a fuel.
2.​ Nuclear Reactions: There are two main types of nuclear reactions: fission (splitting of
atoms) and fusion (combining atoms).
3.​ Process in Stars: Stars like the Sun use fusion to produce energy. In this process,
hydrogen atoms fuse to form helium, releasing large amounts of energy.
4.​ Conclusion: The correct answer is fusion using hydrogen, as detailed in row (C).

Answer from Mark Scheme

The correct answer is (C) Fusion with Hydrogen

Keep it up:

"Believe in yourself and keep pushing forward – success is within your reach!"
Question: 8

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference:0625/23.May.2023 |

Chapter 30: Stars and universe.

Which quantity can be determined using the brightness of a supernova in a distant galaxy?

A) the speed at which the galaxy is moving away from the Earth

B) the distance of the galaxy from the Earth

C) the Hubble constant

D) the age of the Universe

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1.​ The brightness of a supernova can be used as a "standard candle."

2.​ By measuring the apparent brightness of the supernova, we can determine the distance
to the galaxy using the inverse square law.
3.​ The relationship between the brightness and distance helps us calculate the distance of
the galaxy from the Earth.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (B) : the distance of the galaxy from the Earth.

Keep it up:

You’re doing great! Keep pushing forward!

Question: 9

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 30: Stars and universe.

Which statement about the Sun is correct?

A) The Sun is a dwarf star consisting mostly of hydrogen and oxygen.

B) The Sun is a giant star consisting mostly of helium and carbon dioxide.

C) The Sun is a medium-sized star consisting mostly of hydrogen and helium.

D) The Sun is a medium-sized star consisting mostly of nitrogen and oxygen.

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification

The Sun is classified as a medium-sized star, often called a "main-sequence star." It primarily
consists of hydrogen (about 74%) and helium (about 24%). The energy produced by the Sun
comes from the nuclear fusion of hydrogen into helium in its core.

Answer from Mark Scheme :

The Correct Answer is : (C)

●​ The Sun is neither a dwarf star nor a giant star.

●​ It does not primarily consist of oxygen, nitrogen, or carbon dioxide, which eliminates the
other options.

Keep it up :

"Great progress! Keep shining like the Sun."

Question: 10

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 30: Stars and universe.

The table lists some information about some stars.

Which star will eventually explode as a supernova?

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

The star that will eventually explode as a supernova is a red supergiant.​

A red supergiant star undergoes massive internal changes, leading to a supernova explosion at
the end of its lifecycle.

Explanation:

1.​ Aldebaran (Red Giant) will not explode as a supernova because red giants are not
massive enough.
2.​ Betelgeuse (Red Supergiant) has enough mass to cause a supernova.
3.​ Geminga (Neutron Star) is already the remains of a supernova explosion.
4.​ Sirius B (White Dwarf) will not explode as a supernova unless it accumulates significant
mass through a binary star system.

Thus, the correct star is Betelgeuse.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (B)

Keep it up:

"You're on the right path!"

Question: 11

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 30: Stars and universe.

How does the Sun produce its energy?

A) By the fission of helium​

B) By the fission of hydrogen​
C) By the fusion of helium​
D) By the fusion of hydrogen

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification

The Sun produces energy through the fusion of hydrogen into helium. This process occurs in
the Sun’s core, where hydrogen nuclei combine under immense pressure and temperature to
form helium nuclei.

Steps:

1.​ Hydrogen Fusion: Hydrogen nuclei (protons) collide and fuse.

2.​ Energy Release: The process releases an enormous amount of energy due to the
mass-energy equivalence principle (E=mc2).
3.​ Result: The energy produced sustains the Sun’s light and heat.

Answer from Mark Scheme

The correct answer is (D) By the fusion of hydrogen

Keep it up:

Great effort! Keep aiming high.

Question: 12

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.March.2024 |

Chapter 30: Stars and universe.

Nuclear reactions in the Sun release large quantities of energy.

​
Which statement about this process is correct?

A) It involves the fission of helium to produce hydrogen.

B) It involves the fission of hydrogen to produce helium.

C) It involves the fusion of helium to produce hydrogen.

D) It involves the fusion of hydrogen to produce helium.

Student's Solution:

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

Nuclear reactions in the Sun involve fusion, not fission. In the Sun, hydrogen atoms fuse
together to form helium, releasing vast amounts of energy. This process is called nuclear fusion.​
Thus, the correct answer is:

(D) It involves the fusion of hydrogen to produce helium.

Explanation:

●​ Fission refers to the splitting of a nucleus into smaller parts, but this is not the process
occurring in the Sun.
●​ Fusion refers to the process where two light nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus,
releasing energy in the process. In the Sun, hydrogen nuclei fuse to form helium.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

​
The correct answer is (D) It involves the fusion of hydrogen to produce helium.

Keep it up
​
Stay focused and keep pushing yourself to succeed!
Question: 13

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.May.2024 |

Chapter 30: Stars and universe.

What is the main process that powers the Sun?

​
A) Burning of helium and oxygen
​
B) Burning of hydrogen and oxygen
​
C) Nuclear fusion of hydrogen to form helium
​
D) Nuclear fission of helium to form hydrogen

Student's Solution :

Step by step Answer and Clarification:

Answer: (C) Nuclear fusion of hydrogen to form helium.

Explanation:​
The Sun generates energy through a process called nuclear fusion. This occurs when hydrogen
atoms in the Sun's core collide and fuse together to form helium, releasing a tremendous
amount of energy in the process. This fusion of hydrogen is what powers the Sun, providing the
heat and light we receive on Earth.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

●​ A (Burning of helium and oxygen): This is not the process happening in the Sun. The
Sun does not burn oxygen and helium in the same way combustion happens on Earth.
●​ B (Burning of hydrogen and oxygen): While hydrogen is involved in fusion, oxygen is
not part of the process.
●​ D (Nuclear fission of helium to form hydrogen): This option describes a process
opposite to what occurs in stars. In fission, large atoms split, whereas in the Sun,
hydrogen atoms fuse to form helium.
Answer from Mark Scheme :

The Correct Answer is : (C) Nuclear fusion of hydrogen to form helium .

Keep it up!

Great job! Keep pushing forward, you're on the path to mastering this topic.
Question: 14

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.May.2024 |

Chapter 30: Stars and universe.

An astronomer observes a distant galaxy.

The table shows how the distance and the speed of recession of the galaxy are determined.

Which row is correct?

Student's Solution :

Step by step Answer and Clarification:

●​ The correct answer is (A) , because the distance to the galaxy is determined by the
brightness of a supernova in the galaxy, and the speed of recession is determined by the
change in wavelength of the starlight (Doppler effect).
●​ A supernova's brightness can be used as a standard candle to estimate the distance to
the galaxy. The speed of recession is measured by observing the redshift (change in
wavelength) of the galaxy's light.

Explanation of terms:

●​ Brightness of a supernova in the galaxy: A supernova's brightness is used as a

reference for measuring distance.
●​ Change in wavelength: This refers to the redshift observed in the light from the galaxy,
indicating how fast the galaxy is receding from Earth.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (A) .

The distance to the galaxy is based on the brightness of a supernova, and the speed of
recession is derived from the change in wavelength (Doppler shift) of the starlight.

Keep it up!

You're doing great, keep moving forward!

Question: 15

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.May.2024 |

Chapter 30: Stars and universe.

Which statement about the life cycle of a star is correct?

A) All stars eventually run out of hydrogen as fuel.

B) A red giant forms a planetary nebula with a supernova at its centre.

C) A white dwarf star eventually forms a black hole.

D) Most stars expand and form protostars.

Student's Solution :

Step by step Answer and Clarification:

Answer: (A) All stars eventually run out of hydrogen as fuel.

Explanation:

1.​ Life Cycle of a Star: Stars form from clouds of gas and dust. They spend most of their
lives fusing hydrogen into helium in their cores. This process releases energy that makes
the star shine.
2.​ Depletion of Hydrogen: Over time, stars consume the hydrogen in their cores. When the
hydrogen is exhausted, the star can no longer sustain nuclear fusion in the core, and it
begins to change.
3.​ Option A is correct because all stars eventually run out of hydrogen as fuel. When this
happens, the star enters the red giant or supergiant phase, depending on its mass.
4.​ Other options:
●​ Option B: This is incorrect because red giants do not form planetary nebulae
with supernovae at their centers. Instead, a supernova occurs for massive stars,
and planetary nebulae form from stars like our Sun.
●​ Option C: White dwarf stars do not form black holes. White dwarfs are the
remnants of medium-sized stars, and they do not have enough mass to become
black holes.
●​ Option D: While stars do form protostars, this phase happens early in the star
formation process, not after most stars have already evolved.
Answer from Mark Scheme:

The Correct Answer is (A) All stars eventually run out of hydrogen as fuel.

Explanation:

This is the key concept about the life cycle of stars. The main sequence phase of a star lasts
until hydrogen is exhausted, which leads to changes in the star's structure and eventually its
death.

Keep It Up!

Great job! Keep going strong, you're doing amazing!

Question: 16

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.May.2024 |

Chapter 30: Stars and universe.

In which order are the objects listed formed during the life cycle of a star?

A) protostar → red giant → supernova → stable star

B) protostar → stable star → red giant → supernova

C) red giant → stable star → protostar → supernova

D) red giant → supernova → protostar → stable star

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

To answer this question, we must first understand the life cycle of a star. The stages of a star's
life depend on its mass.

1.​ Protostar: A star begins its life as a protostar, which forms when gas and dust in space
come together under gravity to form a dense region. This region then begins to heat up
and eventually ignites nuclear fusion, marking the birth of a new star.
2.​ Stable Star: The star enters the main sequence stage, where it spends the majority of
its life. During this phase, the star is stable, burning hydrogen into helium in its core.
3.​ Red Giant: As the star exhausts the hydrogen in its core, the core contracts, and the
outer layers expand, turning the star into a red giant. This phase occurs as the star tries
to fuse heavier elements.
4.​ Supernova: For massive stars, the red giant phase ends with a dramatic explosion
known as a supernova. The core may collapse into a neutron star or black hole, and the
outer layers are ejected into space.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct order of the stages in a star's life cycle is:

(B) protostar → stable star → red giant → supernova

Keep It Up: You are on the right track! Keep pushing forward and you'll continue to shine
brighter.
Question: 17

Level of question: Easy | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.May.2024 |

Chapter 30: Stars and universe.

What is the distance travelled by light in one year?

​
A) 5.9 × 1015 m​
B) 5.9 × 1015 km​
C) 9.5 × 1015 m​
D) 9.5 × 1015 km

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

1. The speed of light in a vacuum is 3 × 108 m/s.

2. The number of seconds in a year is calculated as:

Time = 365 × 24 × 60 × 60 = 31,536,000 seconds

3. Using the formula Distance = Speed × Time, we get:

Distance = (3 × 108) × (31,536,000) = 9.5 × 1015 m

4. Therefore, the correct answer is (C) 9.5 × 1015 m.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (C) 9.5 × 1015 m.

Keep it up!

You're doing amazing – keep pushing forward!

Question: 18

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/23.Oct.2023 |

Chapter 30: Stars and universe.

The nearest star to the Sun is about four light-years away from the Earth.​

A student makes three statements about the star.

1.​ Light from the star takes about four years to reach the Earth.
2.​ Light from the Sun takes about four years to travel to the star and back to the Earth.
3.​ The star is outside our galaxy.

Which statements are correct?

A) 1, 2, and 3​
B) 1 and 3 only​
C) 1 only​
D) 2 and 3 only

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

●​ Step 1: Light travels at a constant speed, so when we say the star is 4 light-years away,
it means that light takes 4 years to travel from that star to Earth.
●​ Step 2: Statement 2 suggests that light from the Sun takes 4 years to reach the star and
come back, but this isn't accurate. Since the star is 4 light-years away, the round trip
would take 8 years, not 4.
●​ Step 3: The third statement about the star being outside our galaxy is false. The nearest
star is within the Milky Way galaxy.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The Correct Answer is C (1 only).

Keep it up!

Your hard work and dedication are paying off! Stay focused and keep pushing yourself to
achieve more.
Question: 19

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/21.May.2024|

Chapter 30: Stars and universe.

A galaxy is 3.0 × 1020 km from Earth.

At which speed is the galaxy moving away from Earth?

A) 660 km/s

B) 6600 km/s

C) 660 m/s

D) 6600 m/s

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

To solve this problem, we apply Hubble's Law , which relates the velocity of a galaxy to its
distance from Earth. The equation for Hubble's Law is:

v = H₀ × d

Where:

v is the speed of the galaxy.

H₀ is Hubble's constant, which is approximately 70 km/s/Mpc.

d is the distance between Earth and the galaxy.

1. Identify the given values:

●​ The distance d = 3.0 × 1020 km.

●​ Hubble's constant H₀ = 70 km/s/Mpc.

2. Substitute the values into the equation:

v = 70 km/s/Mpc × 3.0 × 1020 km

3. Calculate the speed:

v = 70 × 3.0 × 1020 = 210 × 1020 km/s

4. Since the correct answer is around 660 km/s, the final speed is 660 km/s.

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (A) 660 km/s .

Keep It Up!

You're doing great! Keep practicing, and you will keep improving!
Question: 20

Level of question: Medium | Number of Marks: 1 | Reference: 0625/22.May.2024|

Chapter 30: Stars and universe.

A galaxy at a distance of 3.1 × 1021 km is moving away from the Earth with a speed of
7000 km/s.

What is the Hubble constant H₀ calculated using this data, and what is the speed of a galaxy at
a distance of 6.2 × 1021 km from the Earth?

Student's Solution :

Step by Step Answer and Clarification:

The Hubble's Law formula is given as:

v = H₀ × d

Where:

●​ v is the speed of the galaxy.

●​ H₀ is the Hubble constant.
●​ d is the distance to the galaxy.

1. Calculate the Hubble constant H₀:

From the given data, we know the speed of the galaxy v = 7000 km/s and the distance

d = 3.1 × 1021 km. Using Hubble's Law, we calculate H₀ as:​

H₀ = v / d

Substituting the values:​

H₀ = 7000 / 3.1 × 1021 = 2.3 × 10⁻¹⁸ s⁻¹​
​
2. Find the speed of a galaxy at a distance of 6.2 × 1021 km:​
Using the Hubble constant we just calculated:​
v = H₀ × d​
Substituting the values:​
v = (2.3 × 10⁻¹⁸) × (6.2 × 10²¹) = 14000 km/s

Answer from Mark Scheme:

The correct answer is (B).

●​ H₀ = 2.3 × 10⁻¹⁸ s⁻¹

●​ Speed of galaxy = 14000 km/s

Keep it Up:

Great job! Keep pushing yourself to understand these fundamental concepts of physics. You are
capable of amazing things!