Unit 3 Genetics

Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles

1. The Role of Meiosis in Sexual Life Cycles
1.1 Which of the following is a key function of meiosis in sexual reproduction?
A. Producing genetically identical cells
B. Maintaining chromosome number across generations
C. Repairing DNA damage in somatic cells
D. Producing diploid gametes

1.2 In a sexual life cycle, fertilization directly results in:

A. The formation of a zygote
B. The production of gametes
C. The halving of chromosome number
D. DNA replication

2. Chromosome Basics
2.1 A diploid cell contains:
A. Only one set of chromosomes
B. Two sets of chromosomes, one from each parent
C. Three sets of chromosomes
D. No homologous chromosomes

2.2 If an organism's somatic cells contain 40 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will be
present in its gametes?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 40
D. 80

3. Types of Sexual Life Cycles

3.1 Which type of life cycle is found in most animals?
A. Haplontic life cycle
B. Diplontic life cycle
C. Alternation of generations
D. Binary fission

3.2 Which of the following correctly describes alternation of generations?

A. It involves both haploid and diploid multicellular stages
B. It is found only in animals
C. The gametophyte is diploid
D. The sporophyte produces gametes directly
4. Overview of Meiosis
1 / 22
4.1 Which of the following statements about meiosis is true?
A. It occurs only in asexual organisms
B. It consists of two consecutive cell divisions
C. It produces diploid daughter cells
D. It results in genetically identical cells

4.2 Meiosis results in:

A. Four genetically identical daughter cells
B. Four genetically distinct haploid cells
C. Two diploid cells
D. Two haploid cells

5. Stages of Meiosis
5.1 At which stage of meiosis do homologous chromosomes pair up?
A. Metaphase I
B. Prophase I
C. Anaphase II
D. Telophase I

5.2 When do homologous chromosomes separate?

A. Anaphase I
B. Anaphase II
C. Metaphase I
D. Prophase II

5.3 When do sister chromatids separate?

A. Prophase I
B. Anaphase I
C. Anaphase II
D. Telophase I

6. Sources of Genetic Variation

6.1 Which of the following contributes to genetic variation in meiosis?
A. Independent assortment
B. Crossing over
C. Random fertilization
D. All of the above

6.2 If an organism has a diploid number of 8 (2n = 8), how many different chromosome
combinations can occur due to independent assortment alone?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 64
2 / 22
7. Comparison of Mitosis and Meiosis
7.1 Which of the following correctly differentiates meiosis from mitosis?
A. Meiosis produces diploid cells; mitosis produces haploid cells
B. Meiosis results in genetically unique cells; mitosis produces genetically identical cells
C. Mitosis involves two rounds of division; meiosis only has one
D. Mitosis occurs in reproductive cells, whereas meiosis occurs in somatic cells

7.2 In what way is meiosis II similar to mitosis?

A. Both involve the separation of homologous chromosomes
B. Both result in diploid daughter cells
C. Both involve the separation of sister chromatids
D. Both require DNA replication before division

7.3 What is the key difference between mitosis and meiosis?

A. Mitosis occurs only in reproductive organs
B. Meiosis involves two rounds of division, while mitosis involves one
C. Mitosis produces haploid cells, while meiosis produces diploid cells
D. Meiosis occurs in somatic cells

Mendel and the Gene Idea

1. Mendel’s Experiments and the Laws of Inheritance
1.1 Why did Mendel use pea plants (Pisum sativum) for his experiments?
A. Pea plants have a long generation time
B. Pea plants produce few offspring per cross
C. Pea plants exhibit only incomplete dominance
D. Pea plants have distinct, heritable traits and can be easily controlled for cross-pollination

1.2 What was the most significant conclusion that Mendel drew from his experiments?
A. DNA is the genetic material
B. Traits are blended in offspring
C. Traits are inherited as discrete units
D. All genes assort independently

2. The Law of Segregation (Mendel’s First Law)

2.1 Mendel’s Law of Segregation states that:
A. Alleles for a gene separate during gamete formation
B. Two alleles for a trait remain together in gametes
C. Genes are inherited in pairs
D. Only dominant alleles are passed to offspring

3 / 22
2.2 What phenotypic ratio did Mendel observe in the F2 generation of a monohybrid cross?
A. 1:2:1
B. 9:3:3:1
C. 3:1
D. 1:1

3. The Law of Independent Assortment (Mendel’s Second Law)

3.1 Which of the following describes Mendel’s Law of Independent Assortment?
A. Alleles of different genes assort independently during gamete formation
B. Alleles remain together during meiosis
C. All genes are linked and do not assort independently
D. Dominant alleles are always inherited together

3.2 What was the expected phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation of a dihybrid cross?
A. 3:1
B. 9:3:3:1
C. 1:2:1
D. 1:1

4. Probability and Inheritance

4.1 If a heterozygous tall pea plant (Tt) is crossed with another heterozygous tall pea plant
(Tt), what is the probability of getting a homozygous recessive (tt) offspring?
A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%

4.2 What rule of probability is used to determine the likelihood of independent events
occurring together?
A. Rule of addition
B. Rule of multiplication
C. Hardy-Weinberg equation
D. Law of segregation

5. Extensions of Mendelian Genetics

5.1 Which of the following is an example of incomplete dominance?
A. Red and white flower alleles producing pink flowers in heterozygotes
B. Blood type inheritance in humans
C. A single gene affecting multiple traits
D. The presence of multiple alleles for a gene

5.2 Which of the following describes pleiotropy?

A. One gene affects multiple traits
B. Multiple genes influence a single trait
4 / 22
C. One gene masks the effect of another
D. A gene is located on the X chromosome

6. Nature vs. Nurture: The Environmental Influence on Phenotype

6.1 Which of the following is an example of environmental influence on phenotype?
A. Mendelian inheritance of pea color
B. Temperature affecting fur color in Himalayan rabbits
C. Blood type inheritance in humans
D. Independent assortment of genes

7. Pedigree Analysis
7.1 A pedigree showing a trait that skips generations is most likely displaying:
A. Autosomal dominant inheritance
B. Autosomal recessive inheritance
C. X-linked dominant inheritance
D. Y-linked inheritance

8. Genetic Disorders in Humans

8.1 Which of the following is an autosomal dominant disorder?
A. Sickle cell disease
B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Huntington’s disease
D. Hemophilia

8.2 Which of the following disorders is X-linked recessive?

A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Huntington’s disease
C. Hemophilia
D. Down syndrome

8.3 What is the chromosomal abnormality in Down syndrome?

A. Monosomy X
B. Trisomy 21
C. XXY syndrome
D. Deletion of chromosome 5

The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance

1. The Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance
1.1 The Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance states that:
A. Genes are located on chromosomes and assort independently during meiosis
B. DNA is the genetic material
C. Proteins determine inheritance
D. Traits are inherited as discrete units
5 / 22
1.2 Which cellular process provides the physical basis for Mendel’s Law of Segregation?
A. DNA replication
B. Mitosis
C. Meiosis I
D. Translation

2. Thomas Hunt Morgan’s Experiments with Drosophila

2.1 What was Thomas Hunt Morgan’s key discovery using fruit flies (Drosophila
melanogaster)?
A. DNA is the genetic material
B. Genes are located on chromosomes
C. Genes are inherited as a single unit
D. RNA carries genetic information

2.2 Morgan’s work with fruit flies provided evidence for:

A. The blending theory of inheritance
B. The inheritance of acquired traits
C. The chromosomal basis of sex-linked traits
D. DNA being the genetic material

3. Linked Genes and Genetic Recombination

3.1 Why do linked genes tend to be inherited together?
A. They are located on different chromosomes
B. They assort independently during meiosis
C. They are located close to each other on the same chromosome
D. They undergo high recombination rates

3.2 When two genes are completely linked, the expected phenotypic ratio in a dihybrid test
cross is:
A. 9:3:3:1
B. 1:1:1:1
C. 3:1
D. 1:1

4. Linkage Maps & Recombination Frequencies

4.1 The recombination frequency between two genes on the same chromosome is
proportional to:
A. The number of chromatids in a cell
B. The distance between the genes
C. The chromosome number
D. The size of the genome

4.2 A recombination frequency of 50% between two genes indicates that:

6 / 22
A. The genes are tightly linked
B. The genes are on separate chromosomes or very far apart
C. The genes are inherited as a single unit
D. There is no genetic variation

5. Sex Determination & Sex-Linked Inheritance

5.1 In humans, what determines the sex of an offspring?
A. The mother’s genotype
B. The father’s gamete (sperm)
C. The number of chromosomes
D. The presence of autosomes

5.2 Which of the following is an example of an X-linked recessive disorder?

A. Huntington’s disease
B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Hemophilia
D. Down syndrome

6. Chromosomal Abnormalities
6.1 Nondisjunction occurs when:
A. DNA replication fails
B. Homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis
C. Genes are deleted from chromosomes
D. Independent assortment does not occur

6.2 Which of the following chromosomal abnormalities results in Turner syndrome?

A. Trisomy 21
B. XO monosomy
C. XXY (Klinefelter syndrome)
D. XYY syndrome

7. Human Genetic Disorders Caused by Chromosomal Alterations

7.1 Which of the following disorders is caused by trisomy 21?
A. Klinefelter syndrome
B. Turner syndrome
C. Down syndrome
D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy

7.2 What is a common characteristic of XYY syndrome?

A. Sterility and small testes
B. Reduced fertility and intellectual disabilities
C. Tall stature and normal fertility
D. Short stature and webbed neck

7 / 22
8. Genomic Imprinting & Extranuclear Inheritance
8.1 What is genomic imprinting?
A. Random X-chromosome inactivation
B. Gene expression that depends on the parent from whom the gene was inherited
C. The process of removing DNA methylation
D. The failure of chromosomes to segregate

8.2 Extranuclear genes are primarily inherited from:

A. The father’s nuclear DNA
B. The mother’s mitochondria
C. The Y chromosome
D. Autosomes

The Molecular Basis of Inheritance

1. DNA as the Genetic Material
1.1 Which experiment provided the first evidence that DNA is the genetic material?
A. Griffith’s transformation experiment
B. Hershey and Chase’s bacteriophage experiment
C. Watson and Crick’s X-ray diffraction study
D. Meselson and Stahl’s experiment

1.2 How did Hershey and Chase confirm that DNA, not protein, is the genetic material?
A. By demonstrating that protein carries genetic information
B. By using isotopes to label DNA and protein in bacteriophages
C. By showing that DNA lacks sulfur
D. By proving that RNA is a hereditary molecule

2. Structure of DNA
2.1 What is the primary structure of DNA?
A. A double helix composed of amino acids
B. A single-stranded RNA molecule
C. A double-stranded helix with complementary base pairing
D. A lipid bilayer with embedded proteins

2.2 Which of the following correctly describes the complementary base pairing in DNA?
A. A pairs with G, and C pairs with T
B. A pairs with C, and G pairs with T
C. A pairs with T, and G pairs with C
D. A pairs with U, and G pairs with C

3. DNA Replication
8 / 22
3.1 What model of DNA replication was confirmed by Meselson and Stahl’s experiment?
A. Conservative model
B. Semiconservative model
C. Dispersive model
D. Random model

3.2 What is the role of DNA polymerase in replication?

A. Unzipping the DNA strands
B. Adding new nucleotides to a growing DNA strand
C. Sealing the gaps between Okazaki fragments
D. Preventing supercoiling of DNA

4. The Process of DNA Replication

4.1 Which enzyme unwinds the DNA double helix at the replication fork?
A. DNA ligase
B. DNA helicase
C. DNA polymerase
D. Topoisomerase

4.2 What is the function of primase in DNA replication?

A. To unwind the DNA double helix
B. To synthesize an RNA primer
C. To remove supercoils in DNA
D. To seal Okazaki fragments

4.3 The lagging strand is synthesized in short DNA fragments known as:
A. Okazaki fragments
B. Nucleosomes
C. Exons
D. Introns

4.4 Which enzyme joins Okazaki fragments during DNA replication?

A. Helicase
B. Ligase
C. Primase
D. Topoisomerase

5. DNA Repair & Telomeres

5.1 Which of the following DNA repair mechanisms corrects errors made during replication?
A. Base excision repair
B. Nucleotide excision repair
C. Mismatch repair
D. Non-homologous end joining

9 / 22
5.2 What is the function of telomeres?
A. To initiate DNA replication
B. To prevent loss of essential genes during cell division
C. To synthesize ribosomal RNA
D. To attach DNA strands together

5.3 What enzyme extends telomeres in germ cells?

A. DNA polymerase
B. Telomerase
C. Helicase
D. Ligase

Gene Expression: From Gene to Protein

1. The Central Dogma of Molecular Biology
1.1 The central dogma of molecular biology describes the flow of genetic information as:
A. RNA → DNA → Protein
B. DNA → RNA → Protein
C. Protein → RNA → DNA
D. RNA → Protein → DNA

1.2 Which enzyme is responsible for transcription?

A. DNA polymerase
B. RNA polymerase
C. Helicase
D. Ligase

2. Transcription: DNA to RNA

2.1 In eukaryotes, where does transcription occur?
A. Cytoplasm
B. Nucleus
C. Ribosome
D. Endoplasmic reticulum

2.2 Which of the following occurs first in transcription?

A. RNA polymerase binds to the promoter
B. mRNA is translated into protein
C. RNA polymerase synthesizes the RNA strand
D. The ribosome assembles

2.3 What is the function of the 5’ cap and poly-A tail in mRNA processing?
A. To assist in transcription termination
10 / 22
B. To prevent translation from occurring
C. To protect mRNA from degradation and facilitate translation
D. To initiate DNA replication

2.4 Introns are:

A. Coding sequences within a gene
B. Noncoding regions that are removed during RNA processing
C. Translated into protein
D. Found only in prokaryotic mRNA

3. Translation: RNA to Protein

3.1 Translation occurs in the:
A. Nucleus
B. Ribosome
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Endoplasmic reticulum

3.2 What type of RNA carries amino acids to the ribosome?

A. mRNA
B. tRNA
C. rRNA
D. siRNA

3.3 Which site in the ribosome does the growing polypeptide chain occupy?
A. A site
B. P site
C. E site
D. T site

3.4 What type of bond forms between amino acids during translation?
A. Hydrogen bond
B. Phosphodiester bond
C. Peptide bond
D. Ionic bond

4. The Genetic Code

4.1 The genetic code is described as “universal” because:
A. All living organisms use the same codons for amino acids
B. Each species has its own unique code
C. It was discovered by Watson and Crick
D. It does not contain redundancy

4.2 Which mRNA codon serves as the start codon for translation?
A. UAA
11 / 22
B. UGA
C. AUG
D. UAG

4.3 How many codons exist in the genetic code?

A. 20
B. 64
C. 32
D. 16

4.4 The redundancy in the genetic code means that:

A. Some codons code for more than one amino acid
B. Some amino acids are specified by multiple codons
C. The same codon can be read in different frames
D. All codons are used equally in translation

5. Mutations & Gene Expression Regulation

5.1 A mutation that changes one nucleotide without affecting the amino acid sequence is
called:
A. Nonsense mutation
B. Silent mutation
C. Missense mutation
D. Frameshift mutation

5.2 A mutation that results in an early stop codon is called:

A. Silent mutation
B. Missense mutation
C. Nonsense mutation
D. Frameshift mutation

5.3 A frameshift mutation is caused by:

A. A single base substitution
B. The insertion or deletion of nucleotides
C. The replacement of a purine with a pyrimidine
D. The conversion of a codon into a stop codon

5.4 Which of the following is an example of a gene expression regulation mechanism in

eukaryotes?
A. Operon model
B. DNA methylation
C. Ribosome assembly
D. Phosphodiester bond formation

12 / 22
 Regulation of Gene Expression
1. Why is Gene Regulation Important?
1.1 Why is gene regulation essential for cells?
A. To produce all proteins at all times
B. To allow cells to adapt to environmental changes and conserve energy
C. To ensure all genes are expressed equally in all tissues
D. To eliminate mutations

2. Prokaryotic Gene Regulation (Operon Model)

2.1 In prokaryotes, genes are often organized into:
A. Introns
B. Operons
C. Exons
D. Telomeres

2.2 Which of the following correctly describes an inducible operon?

A. It is normally turned off but can be activated
B. It is normally turned on and must be repressed
C. It is regulated by enhancers
D. It is always active

2.3 What is the function of the repressor in the lac operon?

A. It promotes transcription of lactose-metabolizing genes
B. It binds to the operator and prevents transcription
C. It breaks down lactose into glucose and galactose
D. It enhances the binding of RNA polymerase

2.4 How does the trp operon function?

A. It is activated when tryptophan levels are low
B. It is activated when tryptophan levels are high
C. It requires lactose to function
D. It only operates in eukaryotic cells

3. Eukaryotic Gene Regulation

3.1 Which of the following is a key difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic gene
regulation?
A. Prokaryotic genes are controlled individually, while eukaryotic genes are in operons
B. Eukaryotic genes are often regulated at multiple levels
C. Prokaryotes use histones to regulate gene expression
D. Eukaryotic gene expression occurs only at the transcriptional level

4. Transcriptional Regulation in Eukaryotes

13 / 22
4.1 Which of the following is a key transcriptional control mechanism in eukaryotes?
A. DNA methylation
B. Operon repression
C. CRISPR interference
D. Splicing

4.2 Transcription factors in eukaryotic gene regulation function by:

A. Directly modifying DNA sequences
B. Assisting RNA polymerase in binding to the promoter
C. Cutting out introns from mRNA
D. Changing the structure of ribosomes

4.3 What is the role of enhancers in transcription?

A. They bind directly to RNA polymerase
B. They increase the likelihood of transcription when bound by activators
C. They block transcription factor binding
D. They function only in prokaryotes

5. Post-Transcriptional Regulation
5.1 Alternative splicing allows:
A. Multiple proteins to be produced from one gene
B. RNA polymerase to bind more effectively
C. Ribosomes to function without mRNA
D. DNA to be replicated at higher speeds

5.2 What is the function of the poly-A tail in mRNA?

A. It stabilizes mRNA and prevents degradation
B. It acts as a binding site for DNA polymerase
C. It enhances ribosome assembly
D. It functions as a stop codon

6. Translational & Post-Translational Regulation

6.1 Which mechanism regulates gene expression at the translational level?
A. Enhancer activation
B. Initiation factor availability
C. RNA splicing
D. Exon shuffling

6.2 What is a common method of post-translational regulation?

A. mRNA capping
B. Protein phosphorylation
C. DNA methylation
D. Alternative splicing

14 / 22
7. Noncoding RNAs & Gene Regulation
7.1 Which noncoding RNA is involved in gene silencing?
A. rRNA
B. tRNA
C. miRNA
D. mRNA

7.2 RNA interference (RNAi) is a process in which:

A. rRNA enhances translation efficiency
B. mRNA degrades rapidly due to small RNAs
C. tRNA carries amino acids to ribosomes
D. Enhancers increase transcription rates

7.3 What is the function of long noncoding RNAs (lncRNAs) in gene regulation?
A. They help transcribe operons
B. They assist ribosomes in translation
C. They regulate chromatin structure and gene expression
D. They directly encode proteins

Viruses
1. What Are Viruses?
1.1 Which of the following is a key characteristic of viruses?
A. They are made of cells
B. They can replicate independently outside a host
C. They contain genetic material enclosed in a protein coat
D. They produce their own metabolic energy

1.2 Why are viruses considered obligate intracellular parasites?

A. They only infect animals
B. They must use a host cell’s machinery for replication
C. They contain both DNA and RNA
D. They produce their own enzymes for metabolism

2. Viral Structure
2.1 What is the function of the capsid in a virus?
A. It serves as the genetic material of the virus
B. It helps the virus generate ATP
C. It encloses and protects the viral genome
D. It acts as a host cell receptor

2.2 Which of the following is a characteristic of an enveloped virus?

A. It has a lipid membrane derived from the host cell
15 / 22
B. It replicates only in prokaryotic cells
C. It lacks proteins on its surface
D. It has a capsid made of peptidoglycan

3. Viral Reproductive Cycles

3.1 Which of the following correctly describes the lytic cycle of a bacteriophage?
A. The phage integrates into the host genome and remains dormant
B. The host cell is lysed, releasing new viral particles
C. The virus forms a stable relationship with the host without replication
D. The phage reproduces only in response to environmental stress

3.2 How does the lysogenic cycle differ from the lytic cycle?
A. The virus immediately kills the host cell in the lysogenic cycle
B. The viral genome integrates into the host DNA and remains dormant
C. The lysogenic cycle produces more viral particles than the lytic cycle
D. The lysogenic cycle only occurs in animal viruses

4. Animal Virus Reproduction

4.1 Which of the following best describes how an enveloped virus enters a host cell?
A. It injects its genetic material like a bacteriophage
B. It fuses with the host membrane or enters via endocytosis
C. It breaks down the host cell membrane
D. It directly produces viral proteins outside the host cell

4.2 What role do viral glycoproteins play in infection?

A. They help viruses generate ATP
B. They allow viruses to attach to host cell receptors
C. They produce enzymes for viral metabolism
D. They serve as the viral genome

5. Retroviruses & HIV

5.1 What is unique about the replication process of retroviruses like HIV?
A. They directly transcribe their RNA into viral proteins
B. They replicate entirely in the host’s cytoplasm
C. They use reverse transcriptase to convert RNA into DNA
D. They infect only bacterial cells

5.2 How does HIV affect the immune system?

A. It stimulates excessive antibody production
B. It integrates into red blood cells, reducing oxygen transport
C. It targets and destroys CD4+ T cells, weakening immunity
D. It enhances the activity of natural killer cells

6. Viral Evolution & Emerging Viruses

16 / 22
6.1 Why do RNA viruses evolve more rapidly than DNA viruses?
A. They have a lower mutation rate
B. They lack proofreading mechanisms during replication
C. They only infect non-human hosts
D. They use host polymerases for replication

6.2 Which of the following is an example of an emerging virus?

A. Smallpox
B. HIV
C. Influenza A (H1N1)
D. All of the above

7. Defenses Against Viruses

7.1 What is the function of CRISPR-Cas in bacterial defense against viruses?
A. It integrates viral DNA into the bacterial genome for later recognition
B. It blocks ribosomal translation
C. It produces antibiotics against viruses
D. It prevents viruses from entering the cell

7.2 Which immune response is responsible for long-term immunity to a virus?

A. Innate immune response
B. Fever and inflammation
C. Memory B and T cells
D. Phagocytosis by neutrophils

7.3 Why are some viruses, such as influenza, difficult to vaccinate against?
A. They infect only bacteria
B. They have low mutation rates
C. They frequently undergo antigenic drift and shift
D. They lack a capsid

DNA Tools and Biotechnology

1. DNA Cloning and Recombinant DNA Technology
1.1 What is the purpose of DNA cloning?
A. To create identical copies of an organism
B. To amplify specific DNA sequences for study or use
C. To produce antibodies against viral infections
D. To directly edit an organism’s genome

1.2 Which of the following enzymes is used to cut DNA at specific sequences during
recombinant DNA technology?
17 / 22
A. DNA polymerase
B. Reverse transcriptase
C. Restriction endonuclease
D. RNA ligase

1.3 What is a plasmid in the context of DNA cloning?

A. A viral protein coat
B. A circular DNA molecule used as a cloning vector
C. A segment of mRNA used for gene expression
D. A DNA polymerase enzyme

2. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

2.1 What is the role of Taq polymerase in PCR?
A. It synthesizes RNA primers
B. It denatures DNA strands
C. It extends DNA strands at high temperatures
D. It breaks down nucleotides

2.2 What are the three main steps in a PCR cycle?

A. Transcription, translation, replication
B. Denaturation, annealing, extension
C. Initiation, elongation, termination
D. Replication, division, transcription

3. Gel Electrophoresis & DNA Analysis

3.1 How does gel electrophoresis separate DNA fragments?
A. By DNA sequence similarity
B. By charge and size
C. By base pair composition
D. By polymerase activity

3.2 What is the purpose of a DNA ladder in gel electrophoresis?

A. To create a template for DNA replication
B. To act as a reference for fragment size
C. To stain DNA for visualization
D. To catalyze the movement of DNA in the gel

4. DNA Sequencing Techniques

4.1 What is the key feature of the Sanger sequencing method?
A. It uses next-generation sequencing platforms
B. It incorporates dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPs) to terminate DNA synthesis
C. It sequences entire genomes at once
D. It amplifies DNA using restriction enzymes

18 / 22
4.2 What is an advantage of next-generation sequencing (NGS) over Sanger sequencing?
A. NGS can sequence DNA much faster and at a lower cost
B. NGS does not require DNA polymerase
C. NGS is more accurate for sequencing short DNA fragments
D. NGS only works for prokaryotic DNA

5. Gene Expression Studies

5.1 Which of the following techniques is used to measure gene expression levels?
A. PCR
B. Western blotting
C. RNA sequencing (RNA-Seq)
D. DNA electrophoresis

5.2 What is a DNA microarray used for?

A. Editing genes using CRISPR-Cas9
B. Measuring the expression levels of thousands of genes at once
C. Amplifying specific DNA sequences
D. Separating proteins based on charge

6. CRISPR-Cas9 Genome Editing

6.1 What is the natural function of CRISPR-Cas9 in bacteria?
A. To transcribe RNA from DNA
B. To cut and edit viral DNA as part of an immune defense
C. To replicate bacterial chromosomes
D. To translate viral proteins

6.2 What is the role of guide RNA (gRNA) in CRISPR-Cas9?

A. It acts as a template for DNA synthesis
B. It binds to a specific DNA sequence, directing Cas9 to cut at that location
C. It encodes a restriction enzyme
D. It prevents the degradation of Cas9

7. Applications of Biotechnology
7.1 Which of the following is NOT a common application of biotechnology?
A. Production of genetically modified crops
B. Synthesis of recombinant insulin
C. Natural selection of antibiotic-resistant bacteria
D. Gene therapy for genetic disorders

7.2 What is the purpose of gene therapy?

A. To identify genetic disorders
B. To replace or repair defective genes in individuals
C. To sequence the entire human genome
19 / 22
D. To amplify DNA using PCR
7.3 What is the primary ethical concern regarding gene editing in humans?
A. It cannot be performed in any cells
B. It is only applicable to bacteria
C. It may lead to unintended genetic modifications
D. It is completely reversible

Genomes and Their Evolution

1. Genome Sequencing and Comparative Genomics
1.1 What was the main goal of the Human Genome Project?
A. To determine the complete sequence of nucleotides in human DNA
B. To develop a method for editing human genes
C. To compare the genomes of different primates
D. To study epigenetic modifications

1.2 Which sequencing approach is commonly used in whole-genome sequencing?

A. Sanger sequencing
B. Shotgun sequencing
C. Southern blotting
D. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

1.3 Comparative genomics is useful for which of the following?

A. Identifying evolutionary relationships between species
B. Modifying genes in bacteria
C. Synthesizing proteins from mRNA
D. Observing mitosis in eukaryotic cells

2. Genome Organization
2.1 What percentage of the human genome directly codes for proteins?
A. 98%
B. 50%
C. 25%
D. 1.5%

2.2 What are introns?

A. Coding sequences of DNA
B. Noncoding regions of genes that are spliced out before translation
C. Proteins involved in DNA repair
D. Regulatory sequences found upstream of genes

2.3 What is the function of highly repetitive DNA sequences in the genome?
A. They serve as templates for protein synthesis
20 / 22
B. They play structural roles in centromeres and telomeres
C. They encode transcription factors
D. They are translated into ribosomal proteins

3. Evolution of Genomes
3.1 Which of the following is the primary source of new genes in a genome over evolutionary
time?
A. Mutations in regulatory sequences
B. Gene duplications followed by divergence
C. Loss of introns from existing genes
D. Recombination between nonhomologous chromosomes

3.2 How do gene families arise?

A. Through horizontal gene transfer
B. By the accumulation of point mutations in a single gene
C. Through duplication and divergence of ancestral genes
D. By inserting introns into existing genes

3.3 Which of the following best describes polyploidy?

A. A mutation that affects a single nucleotide
B. The presence of extra sets of chromosomes in an organism
C. The loss of regulatory elements in a genome
D. The fusion of two different species’ genomes

4. Transposable Elements and Genome Evolution

4.1 Who discovered transposable elements (jumping genes)?
A. James Watson
B. Barbara McClintock
C. Gregor Mendel
D. Rosalind Franklin

4.2 What is the main mechanism by which transposable elements can move in a genome?
A. RNA polymerase-mediated transcription
B. DNA replication errors
C. Cut-and-paste or copy-and-paste mechanisms
D. RNA splicing

4.3 Which type of transposable element moves via an RNA intermediate?

A. DNA transposons
B. Retrotransposons
C. Introns
D. Promoters

5. The Human Genome and Genetic Variation

21 / 22
5.1 What is the most common type of genetic variation among individuals?
A. Inversions
B. Single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs)
C. Chromosomal translocations
D. Gene duplications

5.2 Which term describes a genetic variant that is present in more than 1% of the
population?
A. Mutation
B. Polymorphism
C. Silent mutation
D. Frameshift mutation

5.3 How can copy number variations (CNVs) contribute to genetic diversity?
A. By altering the number of copies of a gene
B. By changing individual nucleotides
C. By inactivating transposable elements
D. By increasing telomere length

5.4 What is the role of genome-wide association studies (GWAS)?

A. To identify specific genes that cause complex diseases
B. To sequence entire genomes of individuals
C. To compare the epigenetic modifications of different species
D. To study protein-protein interactions

22 / 22