30-03-2025

1016CMD303031240054 MD

BIOLOGY

1) Statement I :- Chlorophyll 'a' show bright or blue green colour in chromatogram.

Statement II :- Colour that we see in leaves is due to single pigment.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

2) Given below are two statements: One is labelled as assertion A and the other is labelled as reason
R.
Assertion (A) :- Bacterial photosynthesis is non oxygenic.
Reason (R) :- In bacterial photosynthesis H2S is hydrogen donor not H2O.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

3) Other thylakoid pigment like chlorophyll b, Xanthophylls and carotenoids are called -

(1) Chief pigment

(2) Photosynthesis
(3) Accessory pigment
(4) Normal pigment

4) Which of the following option is incorrect regarding photosystem.

(1) PS I and PS II have their absorption peaks respectively at 700 & 680 nm wavelength.
(2) Efficiency of photosystem depends on antennae molecules.
(3) P.S. I was discovered earlier than P.S. II.
(4) ATP and NADPH are used.

5) Which of the following option represent the products of light reaction ?

(1) ATP and NADH2

(2) Only ATP
(3) ATP and NADPH
(4) Only NADPH
6) What goes in the calvin cycle to make, one molecule of glucose.

(1) 6CO2, 18 ATP, 12 NADPH

(2) 1 glucose, 18 ADP, 12 NADP
(3) 6 CO2, 12 ATP, 18 NADPH
(4) 1 CO2, 3ATP, 2 NADPH

7) Assertion (A) : During C4 pathway the CO2 released in the bundle sheath cells enters the C3 or
the Calvin pathway, a pathway common to all plants.
Reason (R) : In C4 plants the bundle sheath cells lack enzyme RuBisCO. Thus the basic pathway
C3 is common to the C3 and C4 plants.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

8) In glycolysis, during oxidation electrons are removed by

(1) NAD+
(2) Molecular oxygen
(3) ATP
(4) 3-Phosphoglyceric acid

9) In glycolysis, fructose 1,6-bisphosphate splits into :

(1) 2X Triose bisphosphate

(2) 2X Triose phosphate
(3) Triose Phosphate + Triose phosphoglycerate
(4) Phosphoenolpyruvate + Triose phosphate

10) "The passing on of the electrons removed as part of the hydrogen atoms to molecular O2 with
simultaneous synthesis of ATP".
What is the name and where this process is located respectively ?

(1) Electron transport system & outer membrane of mitochondria.

(2) Tricarboxylic acid cycle & Inner membrane of chloroplast.
(3) Electron transport system & Inner membrane of mitochondria.
(4) Tricarboxylic acid cycle & outer membrane of chloroplast.

11)
During this conversion which of the following is formed.
(1) Only CO2
(2) Only NADH + H+
+
(3) CO2, NADH + H
(4) FADH2

12) How many A.T.Ps are directly produced during single T.C.A cycle ? [From 1 mol. of acetyl CoA]

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 6

13) Match the column-I with column-II :

Column-I Column-II

(i) Complex-I of ETS (a) FAD, Fe-S

(ii) Complex-II of ETS (b) FMN, Fe-S

Cytb-cytc1, Fe-
(iii) Complex-III of ETS (c)
S

Cyt a & Cyta3,

(iv) Complex-IV of ETS (d)
2 Cu centres
(1) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
(2) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(3) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
(4) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d

14) Respiration is a :

(1) Catabolic process.

(2) Anabolic process.
(3) Amphibolic process.
(4) Endergonic process.

15) Development is sum total of two processes, which are -

(1) Growth and reproduction

(2) Reproduction and differentiation
(3) Growth and differentiation
(4) Seed germination and growth

16) Select the incorrect statement :

Plant growth is unique because plants retain the capacity for unlimited growth through their
(1)
life.
(2) The cells of meristems have the capacity to divide and self perpetuate.
(3) Vascular cambium and cork cambium is responsible for primary growth of the plant.
(4) Where new cells are always being added to plant body is called open form of growth.

17) Among the given hormone, which one acid is a derivative of carotenoids ?

(1) Indole-3-acetic acid

(2) Abscisic acid
(3) Gibberllic acid
(4) Indole butyric acid

18) Which of the following is not the function of Auxin :-

(1) Cell division & cell enlargement

(2) Root initiation
(3) Ripening in fruits
(4) Parthenocarpy

19) Thinning in walnut is promoted by ?

(1) Ethylene
(2) Gibberellins
(3) Cytokinin
(4) Auxin

20) When does plant decides to flowering ?

(1) In embryonic development

(2) In seedling plant
(3) Before the actual flower appear on plant
(4) In growing embryo during germination of seed

21) Select the incorrect match?

(1) Pollen tablets → food supplements

(2) longest pollen → zostera
(3) Rice and wheat→ Pollen grains viability 30 minutes
(4) Aero Allergens→ By monocots

22) Match the column-I and column-II

Column-I Column-II

(a) Carpel (i) Nutritive layer

(b) Stamen (ii) Megasporophyll

(c) Tapetum (iii) Residual nucellus

 (d) Perisperm (iv) Microsporophyll
(1) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(2) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(4) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i

23) Transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of a different plant is known as :

(1) Autogamy
(2) Geitonogamy
(3) Xenogamy
(4) Chasmogamy

24) Select the incorrect pair :-

(1) Secondary nucleus - Diploid

(2) PEN - Triploid
(3) Central cell - Diploid
(4) Synergid - Haploid

25) Consider the following statements and choose the correct option which have all correct
statements.
(a) The early stages of embryo development are similar in both monocotyledons and dicotyledons.
(b) The zygote give rise to proembryo and subsequently to heart-shaped, globular and mature
embryo.
(c) Embryo development precedes endosperm development.
(d) The most common type of endosperm is free-nuclear endosperm.

(1) (a) and (d)

(2) (a) and (b)
(3) (b) and (c)
(4) (b) and (d)

26) In wheat plant roots are ?

(1) Prop roots

(2) Tap root
(3) Fibrous root
(4) Pneumathodes

27) Which of the following is correct about silk cotton tree ?

(1) Simple leaf

(2) Palmately compound leaf
(3) Pinnately compound leaf
(4) Both (2) and (3)
28) In some leguminous plants the leaf base may become swollen which is called :-

(1) Sheathing leaf base

(2) Pulvinus
(3) Winged leaf base
(4) Flattened leaf base

29) Identify the following diagram -

(1) Racemose inflorescence

(2) Spike Inflorescence
(3) Capitulam inflorescence
(4) Cymose inflorescence

30) Identify the types of placentation in the given figure (a) & (b) and select the correct option ?

(1) (a) Axile (b) Parietal

(2) (a) Basal (b) free central
(3) (a) Parietal (b) axile
(4) (a) Parietal (b) Free central

31) How many of the given statements are incorrect about fruit ?
(I) Generally, the fruit consists of pericarp and seeds.
(II) The fruit is characterstic feature of the flowering plants.
(III) Fruit is mature or ripened ovary, developed after fertilisation.
(IV) In mango and coconut, the fruit is known as berry.
(V) Drupe developed from monocarpellary inferior ovaries.
(VI) Drupes are one seeded fruit.

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 3

32) How many in the list given below are the part of ground tissue system ?
Epidermis, Root hairs, Xylem, Phloem, Cortex, Pericycle, Pith.
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

33) The outermost layer of primary plant body is :-

(1) Cork
(2) Epidermis
(3) Bark
(4) Periderm

34) Which of the following is not associated with root ?

(1) Casparin strips on endodermis.

(2) Conjuctive tissue
(3) Radial vascular bundles
(4) Hypodermis

35) Which character is not related with monocotyledon root ?

(1) Polyarch xylem bundles

(2) Pith is small
(3) Do not undergo secondary growth
(4) Root hairs are unicellular

36) Find the incorrect statements :

(1) Polyarch condition is present in monocot roots

(2) Endodermis of dicot root is barrel shape
(3) Exarch condition is present in roots
(4) Conjoint vascular bundles are present in roots

37) From outside to inside the correct sequence of different layer of monocot root is :-

(1) Endodermis → Epidermis → Cortex → Pith → Vascular Bundle → Pericyle

(2) Epidermis → Cortex → Endodermis → Pericycle → Vascular bundle → Pith
(3) Pericyle → Vascular bundle → Cortex → Pith → Epidermis → Endodermis
(4) Pith → Epidermis → Endodermis → Cortex → Pericycle → Vascular bundle

38) Which of the following statement is incorrect for dorsiventral leaf?

(1) The epidermis cover both surface of leaf.

(2) The adaxial epidermis generally bear more stomata.
(3) The tissue between upper and lower epidermis is called the mesophyll.
(4) Vascular bundles are surrounded by bundle sheath cells.
39) Which of the following was not used by T.W Engelmann in his experiment ?

(1) Aerobic bacteria

(2) Prism
(3) Cladophora
(4) Mint plant

40) Non cyclic photo phosphorylation occurs in chloroplast of ?

(1) Grana
(2) Stroma
(3) Stroma lamellae
(4) Both 1 and 3

41) The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent to :-

(1) Megaspore
(2) Megasporophyll
(3) Megasporangium
(4) Megaspore mother cell

42) When the calyx and corolla are not distinct then they are termed as -

(1) Stamen
(2) Carpel
(3) Receptacle
(4) Parianth

43) Pollen grain exine has prominent apertures called ?

(1) Stomata
(2) Germ pores
(3) Micropyle
(4) Filiform apparatus

44) In which of the following plants diadelphous stamen is found.

(1) Chinarose
(2) Pea
(3) Citrus
(4) Salvia

45) Statement-I :- Expansion of a leaf is growth.

Statement-II :- Growth is accompanied by metabolic process.

(1) Statement-I and statement-II both are correct.

(2) Only statement-I is correct.
(3) Only statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I and statement-II both are incorrect.

46) Which of the following option is not correct :–

(1) Specific receptors for neurotransmitters are located on post synaptic membrane.
The binding of neurotransmitters opens ion channels allowing the entry of ions which can
(2)
generate a new potential in the post synaptic neuron.
(3) Specific receptors for neurotransmitters are located on pre synaptic membrane.
(4) Synaptic cleft may or may not be present in synapses.

47) Match the column-A with column-B

Column-A Column-B

(a) Command and control system (i) Cranial meninges

(b) Coverings of brain (ii) Piamater

(c) Outer most-meninges (iii) Brain

(d) Inner most meninges (iv) Dura mater

(e) Middle meninges (v) Arachnoid

Find correct option :

a b c d e

(1) iv i iii ii v

(2) ii i iv iii v

(3) iii i iv ii v

(4) v i iii ii iv
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

48) Statement-1 : Thalamus is major coordinating centre for sensory & motor signalling.
Statement-2 : Mid brain controls sexual behaviour, excitement & pleasure.

(1) Statement-1 is correct & 2 is incorrect

(2) Statement-2 is correct & 1 is incorrect
(3) Both are correct
(4) Both are incorrect

49) Which part of neuron transmits impulses towards cell body ?

(1) Dendron
(2) Axon
(3) Telodendria
(4) Myelin sheath

50) Where are multipolar neurons most commonly found ?

(1) Embryonic stage

(2) Retina
(3) Ganglionic cells
(4) Cerebral cortex

51) Which of the following area is not a part of cerebral cortex ?

(1) Motor area

(2) Sensory area
(3) Large region which are neither clearly sensory nor motor.
(4) Respiratory rhythm center.

52) Which of the following cranial meninges is in direct contact with brain tissue ?

(1) Duramater
(2) Arachnoid
(3) Piamater
(4) Corpus callosum

53) Which is not the site of ANS to function ?

(1) Involuntary muscles

(2) Blood vessles
(3) Exocrine gland
(4) Skeletal muscles

54) Along with hypothalamus limbic system involved in regulation of :-

(1) Rage
(2) Excitement
(3) Motivation
(4) All of the above

55) Read the following statements and identify the incorrect statements :-
(i) Iodine is essential for the normal rate of hormone synthesis in the thyroid.
(ii) The thyroid gland is composed of follicles and stromal tissues.
(iii) The pineal gland is located on the dorsal side of forebrain.
(iv) In adult women, hypothyrodism may cause menstrual cycle to become irregular.
(v) Thyroid hormones provide cell-mediated immunity.
(1) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(2) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(3) (i) & (v)
(4) Only (v)

56) Which one of the following hormone secreted by ovary and acts on uterus?

(1) FSH
(2) LH
(3) Progesterone
(4) Cortisol

57) Find organs which produce steroid Hormone-

(1) GIT, Liver, Heart, Lungs

(2) Lungs, Liver, Kidney, Heart
(3) Testis, Ovary, Adrenal Cortex
(4) Liver, Gall bladder, Pancreas, GIT

58) Assertion (A) : The pineal gland plays a crucial role in regulating the 24-hour (diurnal) rhythm
of our body.
Reason (R) : The pineal gland secretes melatonin, which influences various circadian processes like
sleep wake cycle, body temperature.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is the not correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(4) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

59) Match the following columns and select the correct options :-

Column A Column B

(A) FSH (i) Increases the Ca+2 levels in the blood

(B) MSH (ii) Prevent water loss and dehydration

(C) ADH (iii) Regulates pigmentation of the skin

Stimulates growth and development of the

(D) PTH (iv)
ovarian follicles in female
(1) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(2) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii

60) Which one of the following statements is correct ?

 Hypothalamus is the upper part of diencephalon, forebrain and it regulates a wide spectrum of
(1)
body function
Hypothalamus contains several groups of neurosecretory cells called nuclei which produce
(2)
ACTH.
(3) Pituitary gland is located in a bony cavity called sella tursica
(4) Adenohypophysis consists of two portions, pars distalis and pars nervosa

61) PTH and TCT are __________ hormones in their action.

(1) Antagonistic
(2) Synergistic
(3) Calorigenic
(4) Trophic

62) Thymus gland plays a major role in the differentiation of :-

(1) Neutrophils
(2) Monocytes
(3) Lymphocytes
(4) Basophils

63) What disease is caused by underproduction of hormones by the adrenal cortex ?

(1) Cushing's syndrome

(2) Addison's disease
(3) Diabetes mellitus
(4) Grave's disease

64) What is the consequence of decreased thymosin production in old individuals ?

(1) Enhance immune response

(2) Weakened immune response
(3) Improved bone density
(4) Increased antibody production

65) Which are pituitary hormones ?

(1) GnRH
(2) Gonadotrophins
(3) (1) & (2) both
(4) Melanin

66) Erythropoietin is secreted by ?

(1) Atrial wall of our heart

(2) G.I.T.
(3) Pineal Gland
(4) Juxtaglomerular cells of kidney

67) Assertion :- Red muscles can also be called aerobic muscles.

Reason :- Red muscles contain plenty of mitochondria which can utilise the large amount of oxygen
stored in them for ATP production.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

68) Which structure helps in the propagation of impulse and contraction in cardiac muscle.

(1) Sarcoplasmic Reticulum

(2) Inter vertebral disk
(3) Inter calated disk
(4) Sarcomere

69) During muscle contraction all of these change except.

(1) Length of sarcomere

(2) Length of I-Band
(3) Length of A-Band
(4) Length of H-Zone

70) Which of the following is more in white muscles ?

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Myoglobin
(3) Stored oxygen
(4) Sarcoplasmic reticulum

71) What is the main reason for tetany?

(1) High level of Ca++ ion in bones.

(2) Low level of Ca++ ion in bones.
(3) High level of Ca++ ion body fluids.
(4) Low level of Ca++ ion in body fluids.

72) Which of the following is an auto immune disorder?

(1) Arthritis (Gout)

(2) Muscular dystrophy
(3) Myasthenia gravis
(4) Tetany
73) No. of vertebrosternal ribs in human are -

(1) 3 pairs
(2) 7 pairs
(3) 6 pairs
(4) 2 pairs

74) The skull region articulates with the superior region of the vertebral column, with the help of :-

(1) Odontoid process

(2) Acromian process
(3) Occipital condyles
(4) Trochanter

75) Statement-I :- Fibrous joints do not allow any movement.

Statement-II :- Pivot joint is present between atlas and axis.

(1) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false.

(2) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are true.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are false.

76) Select incorrect option.

(1) Humans are viviparous

(2) Transfer of sperms into the female genital tract called ejaculation
(3) In human reproduction events occur after puberty
(4) All of the above

77) Read the following terminology of column-I and column-II and identify the correct match ?

Column-I Column-II

A Endometrium i Middle thick layer of smooth muscle

B Myometrium ii Outer cellular layer of ovum

C Corona radiata iii Outer cellular layer of Blastocyst

Inner Glandular layer which undergoes cyclic

D Trophoblast iv
changes during menstrual cycle.

v Plasma membrane of sperm

(1) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii
(2) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(3) A-iv, B-i, C-v, D-ii
(4) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-v

78) In which of the following interphase is short only S-phase is present.

(1) Mitosis
(2) Meiosis
(3) Cleavage
(4) Closed meiosis

79) Which hormone maintain the corpus luteum during pregnancy and secreted by placenta ?

(1) FSH
(2) LH
(3) HCG
(4) Progesterone

80) Which of the following is not a paired structure in human male?

(1) Vas deferens

(2) Seminal vesicle
(3) Prostate
(4) Bulbourethral

81) Seminal plasma, the fluid part of semen, is contributed by :-

(1) Prostate gland

(2) Bulbourethral gland
(3) Seminal vesicle
(4) All of these

82) What is the length of each fallopian tube in the female reproductive system?

(1) 2-4 cm
(2) 5-7 cm
(3) 10-12 cm
(4) 15-17 cm

83) In which of the following menstrual cycle is not found?

(1) Monkeys
(2) Apes
(3) Macropus
(4) Human

84) Which of the following event takes place after entry of sperm ?

(1) Completion of meiotic division of secondary oocyte

(2) Formation of second polar body
(3) Formation of a haploid ovum
(4) All of these
85) A lady is diagnosed to have both her fallopian tubes blocked which ART can help her to conceive
a child ?

(1) GIFT
(2) ZIFT
(3) IVF
(4) SUZI

86) Which of the following hormone is secreted by ovary and placenta both ?

(1) HCG
(2) HPL
(3) Relaxin
(4) Oxytocin

87) The foetus develops limbs and digits by the end of _______ ?

(1) 16 weeks
(2) 8 weeks
(3) 4 weeks
(4) 24 weeks

88) Which of the following disease is not detected by amniocentesis ?

(1) Down syndrome

(2) Sickle cell anemia
(3) Dengue
(4) Haemophilia

89) Which of the following is not a copper releasing IUD :

(1) CuT
(2) Cu7
(3) LNG-20
(4) Multiload 375

90) Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option :
Statement A : Government of India legalised MTP in 1971 with some strict conditions to avoid its
misuse.
Statement B : A dangerous trend is the misuse of MTP to determine the sex of unborn child
frequently followed by foeticide if the foetus is found to be female.

(1) Both the statement A and B are correct

(2) Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect
(3) Statement B is correct but statement A is incorrect
(4) Both the statements A and B are incorrect
 PHYSICS

1) A graph of pressure versus volume for an ideal gas for different process is as shown. In the graph

curve OC represents :-

(1) Isochoric process

(2) Isothermal process
(3) Isobaric process
(4) Adiabatic process

2) A carnot engine whose efficiency is 40% receives heat at 500 K. If the efficiency is to be 50%, the
source temperature for the same sink temperature is :-

(1) 900 K
(2) 600 K
(3) 700 K
(4) 800 K

3) The ratio of the molar heat capacities of a diatomic gas at constant pressure to that at constant
volume is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) In the P-V diagram, 'I' is initial state and 'F' is the final state. The gas goes from state I to F

through paths (i) IAF, (ii) IBF, (iii) ICF. The heat absorbed by gas is :-

(1) Same in all three processes

(2) Same in (i) and (ii) processes
(3) Greater in (i) than in (ii)
(4) Same in (i) and (iii) processes

5) In a closed container mean free path of gas molecules is λ. If diameter of molecules becomes half
and number of gas molecules is increased two times then mean free path of gas molecules will be.

(1) λ
(2)

(3)

(4) 2λ

6) Match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

(I) Isochoric Process (p) Change in pressure is zero

(II) Isothermal Process (q) Work done is zero

(III) Isobaric Process (r) Change in internal energy is zero

(IV) Adiabatic Process (s) No heat exchange

(1) (I)→s ; (II)→q ; (III)→p ; (IV)→s
(2) (I)→q ; (II)→s ; (III)→p ; (IV)→s
(3) (I)→q ; (II)→r ; (III)→p ; (IV)→s
(4) (I)→q ; (II)→s ; (III)→r ; (IV)→s

7)

Temperature at which Fahrenheit and Kelvin pair of scales give the same reading will be-

(1) –40
(2) 40
(3) 574.25
(4) 512.45

8) We have a jar A filled with gas characterised by parameters, P V and T and another jar B filled

with gas with parameters 2P, and and 2T, when the symbols have their usual meanings. The ratio
of the number of molecules of jar A those of jar B is-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 4 : 1

9) A breaker is completely filled with water at 4ºC. Water will overflow if-

(1) heated above 4ºC

(2) cooled below 4ºC
(3) both heated and cooled above and below 4ºC
(4) none of the above

10) The total KE of all the molecules of helium having a volume V exerting a pressure P is 1500J. The
total KE (in joules) of all the molecules of N2 having the same volume V and exerting a pressure 2P
is-

(1) 3000
(2) 4000
(3) 5000
(4) 6000

11) Two rods of copper and brass having the same length and cross - section are joined end to end.
The free end of the copper rod is at 0°C and of the brass rod is at 100°C in steady state. If thermal
conductivity of copper is 4 times of that of brass, find the temperature at the junction of two rods.

(1) 80°C
(2) 60°C
(3) 40°C
(4) 20°C

12) A body having initial temperature 85°C is kept in a room of temperature 55°C. If its temperature
decrease by 15°C in 20 min. then find temperature of body after next 20 min.

(1) 55°C
(2) 60°C
(3) 57.5°C
(4) 62.5°C

13) If a black body radiates 10 calories heat per second at 227ºC it will radiate at 727°C.

(1) 10 cal/s.
(2) 80 cal/s
(3) 160 cal/s
(4) None of the above

14) Radius of two spheres of same material are 1m & 2m respectively and their temperature are
2×103K and 103K respectively. Then ratio of energy emitted of spheres per sec. will be :-

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 4 : 1

15) A mass M is suspended from a light spring. An additional mass m added displaces the spring
further by a distance x. Now the combined mass will oscillate with the spring with time period :-
(1)
T = 2π

(2)
T = 2π

(3)

T=2π
(4)

16) Two pendulums have time periods T and . They start S.H.M. at the same time from the mean
position. What will be the phase difference between them at the instant when bigger pendulum has
completed one oscillation ?

(1) 45°
(2) 90°
(3) 60°
(4) 30°

17) A particle is executing S.H.M of amplitude 4 cm and time period 4 sec. The time taken by it to
move from positive extreme position to half the amplitude is :-

(1) 1 sec

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) The speed of sound in oxygen (O2) at a certain temperature is 460 m/s. The speed of sound in
helium (He) at the same temperature will be nearly :-

(1) 500 m/s

(2) 650 m/s
(3) 330 m/s
(4) 1420 m/s

19) For a closed organ pipe, match the following columns :-

Column-I Column-II

Third overtone frequency is x times the fundamental frequency, here x is equal

A P 3
to

B Number of nodes in second overtone Q 4

 C Number of antinodes in second overtone R 5

S None
(1) A → S, B → P, C → P
(2) A → S, B → P, C → R
(3) A → R, B → Q, C → P
(4) A → R, B → Q, C → Q

20) Assertion :- In a spring block system if length of spring and mass of block both are halved, time
period of oscillation will remain unchanged.

Reason :- Angular frequency of SHM is where k is spring constant and m is mass of block.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

21) Two sources are placed at distance 6m & 6.4m from a person P as shown in figure. The speed of
sound in air is 320 m/s. If sound signal is continuously varied from 500 Hz to 2500 Hz, for which

frequency person will hear minimum sound intensity :-

(1) 800 Hz
(2) 1600 Hz
(3) 2000 Hz
(4) 2400 Hz

22) If the pipe of length 15 cm is closed at one end. Velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s. Which one is
not the overtone frequency of this pipe :-

(1) 1650 Hz
(2) 2200 Hz
(3) 2750 Hz
(4) 3850 Hz

23) Find out current in 2Ω Resistor.

(1) 12 A
(2) Zero
(3) 1 A
(4) 14 A

24) Find out reading of ammeter :-

(1) 2.5 A
(2) 2 A
(3) 4.5 A
(4) 6.5 A

25) Assertion (A) : There will be electric field inside a current carrying wire :
Reason (R) : Net charge in a current carrying wire is zero.

(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

26) Compare electric field at point 'P' and 'Q' :

(1) EP = EQ
(2) EP > EQ
(3) EP < EQ
(4) Data is insufficient

27) Find out RAB/RCD

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

28) Resistance of 100 W bulb to be operated at 330 V is R, then resistance of 100 W bulb to be
operated at 220 V will be :

(1) 2R

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Graph between coulomb force (F) versus where "r" is the distance between two point
charges ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) A body has a negative charge of 2 µC. If body has 2.25 × 1013 protons, then total number of
electron present in the body will be :-

(1) 1.25 × 1013

(2) 2.25 × 1013
(3) 1 × 1013
(4) 3.50 × 1013

31) A glass rod is positively charged by rubbing against a silk. That means :-
(1) All molecules of glass become ions.
(2) Few of atoms are ionised to release electrons.
(3) Few of molecules are polarised to show presence of charge.
(4) All of these

32) The displacement of a charge q0 in electric field is . The work done

is :

(1) q0 (Exa + Eyb)

(2) q0

(3)

q0(Ex + Ey)
(4)

33) Find equivalent capacitance between x and y will be -

(1) 32 μF
(2) 2 μF
(3) 8 μF
(4) 16 μF

34) Find correct statements :-

(A) Charge is invariant while mass is not.
(B) For an isolated system charge is always conserved while mass is not always conserved.
(C) Mass of proton is equals to sum of mass of 2 up quark and 1 down quark.
(D) Repulsion is the true test of electrification.

(1) A, B, C, D
(2) A, B, D
(3) A, C, D
(4) B, D

35) Four point charges are placed at different corners of the square of side 'a' as shown, then net

force on central charge will be :-

(1) Zero
(2)

(3)

(4)

36) A hollow sphere of radius r is put inside another hollow sphere of radius R. The charge on the
two spheres are shown in the figure. A point P is located at a distance x from the common centre

such that r < x < R. the potential at the point P is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) A unit positive charge has to be brought from infinity to a mid-point between two charges 20μC
and 10μC separated by a distance of 50 m. How much work will be required ?

(1) 10.8 × 104 J

(2) 10.8 × 103 J
(3) 1.08 × 106 J
(4) 0.54 × 105 J

38) The correct formula for potential energy in the electric field of an electrical dipole body is, when

the angle of the electric dipole is θ with the electric field :

(1) U = –pE cos θ

(2) U = +pE cos θ

(3)

(4)
39) Eight point charges having magnitude q are fixed at vertices of a cube.

Statement 1 : electric flux through square surface ABCD of the cube is

Statement 2 : electric flux through cube is

Statement 3 : electric flux through square surface EFGH of the cube is

Which of the following statement are correct

(1) 1 & 2
(2) 2 & 3
(3) 1 & 3
(4) All

40)

Two charged spheres having radii a and b are joined with a wire, then the ratio of electric field
on their surface is :

(1) a/b
(2) b/a
(3) a2/b2
(4) b2/a2

41) The force between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C and distance of
separation of the plates d with a potential difference V between the plates, is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) On placing a dielectric slab between the plates of a charged condenser its:-

Potential Energy
Capacity Charge
Difference stored
 remains
(1) decreases decreases increases
unchanged

remains
(2) increases increases increases
unchanged

remains
(3) increases decreases decreases
unchanged

remains
(4) decreases increases decreases
unchanged
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

43) A 6 μF capacitor charged from 10 volt to 20 volt. Calculate increase in energy.

(1) 50 μJ
(2) 100 μJ
(3) 300 μJ
(4) 900 μJ

44) When the key K is pressed at time t = 0, which of the following statements about the current i in

the resistor AB of the adjoining circuit is true ?

(1) i = 2mA at all t

(2) i oscillates between 1mA and 2mA
(3) i = 1mA at all t
(4) At t = 0, i = 2mA and with time it goes to 1mA

45) Find Cab :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) For a first order reaction A → Product, the rate of reaction at [A] = 0.2 M is 1 × 10–2 mol L–1 min–1.
The half-life period for the reaction is :-

(1) 832 sec

(2) 440 sec
(3) 416 sec
(4) 14 sec

2) The following data were obtained during the first order gaseous reaction at constant volume :
2A(g) → 2B(g) + C(g)

S.No. Time (s) Total pressure (atm)

1. 0 4

2 100 5

The rate constant for above reaction will be :

(1) 6.93 × 10–2 s–1
(2) 6.93 × 10–3 s–1
(3) 7.4 × 10–2 s–1
(4) 8 × 10–2 s–1

3) The following data is given for reaction between A and B :-

[A] [B] Rate

S.No.
mol.L–1 mol.L–1 mol.L–1s–1

I 1 × 10–2 2 × 10–2 2 × 10–6

II 2 × 10–2 2 × 10–2 4 × 10–6

III 2 × 10–2 4 × 10–2 8 × 10–6

Which of the following are correct conclusions from above data ?

(a) Rate constant of the reaction is 10–2 s–1
(b) Rate law of the reaction is k[A][B]
(c) Rate of reaction increases nine times when the concentration of both the reactant are tripled.
(1) a, b and c
(2) a and b
(3) b and c
(4) c only

4) For a complex reaction products

= 180 kJ/mol;
= 80 kJ/mol;
= 50 kJ/mol

Overall rate constant k is related to individual rate constant by the equation .

Activation energy (kJ/mol) for the overall reaction is :

(1) 100
(2) 43.44
(3) 150
(4) 140

5) How much electricity in terms of faraday is required to produce 54 g of Al from molten Al2O3 :-

(1) 3F
(2) 6F
(3) 12F
(4) 9F

6) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Potential of individual half cell cannot be measured.
Statement-II : According to convention, standard electrode potential of standard hydrogen
electrode is assigned zero potential at all temperatures.
In light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are true

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are false
(3) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false
(4) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true.

7) Select incorrect statement

Conductivity always decreases with decrease in concentration for both weak and strong
(1)
electrolytes
(2) Variation in molar conductivity with concentration is different for strong and weak electrolytes.
(3) Molar conductivity decreases with decrease in concentration.
When concentration approaches zero, molar conductivity is known as limiting molar
(4)
conductivity.

8) In which of the following conversion 3F charge is required-

(A) 1.5 mol of Ca from molten CaCl2
(B) 0.5 mol of Al from molten Al2O3
(C) 1 mol of FeO to Fe2O3
(D) 0.6 mol of to Mn+2
Choose the correct answer from options given below :-

(1) A, B and D
(2) A and D
(3) A, B and C
(4) B and D

9) 0.2 molal aqueous solution of an electrolyte A3B is 90% ionised. The boiling point of the solution at
1 atm is.
(Kb for H2O = 0.52 K Kg mol–1 & B.pt. of H2O = 373 Kelvin ) :-

(1) 273.19 K
(2) 374.92 K
(3) 376.4 K
(4) 373.38 K

10) 1.25 g of a non electrolyte is dissolved in 20 g water. If freezing point of above solution is 271 K
then calculate the molar mass of solute (Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1 and freezing point of water = 273 K)

(1) 116.25
(2) 29.06
(3) 58.125
(4) 87.18

11) Assertion (A) : 0.1 M solution of NaCl has greater osmotic pressure than 0.1 M solution of
glucose at same temperature.
Reason (R) : In solution, NaCl dissociates to produce more number of particles.

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are correct and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect.
(4) A is incorrect but R is correct.

12) A solution has a 1 : 4 mole ratio of pentane to hexane. If the vapour pressure of pentane &
hexane in pure state are 440 & 120 mm Hg respectively, then the mole fraction of pentane in vapour
phase would be -

(1) 0.549
(2) 0.200
(3) 0.786
(4) 0.478

13)

Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of the above

14) Which the following reaction is correct representation of enthalpy of neutralization reaction ?

HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(ℓ) ;

(1)
ΔHneut. = –57.1 kJ eq–1

(2) → H2O(ℓ) ;
ΔHneut = –57.1 kJ eq–1
HCl(aq) + Li(OH)(aq) → LiCl(aq) + H2O(ℓ) ;
(3)
ΔHneut. = – 13.7 k Cal g eq–1
(4) All of the above

15) Consider the following statements and select the correct option :-
Statement-I :- Lyophobic sols needs stabilising agents for their preservation.
Statement-II :- Lyophilic sols are readily precipitated (or coagulated) on the addition of small
amount of electrolytes.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect

16) If a substance with half life of 3 days is taken at other place in 12 days what amount of substance
is left now :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) t1/2 for a zero order reaction is ....(I).... proportional to the initial concentration of the reactants
and ....(II).... proportional to the rate constant. Choose the correct words to fill up the blanks (I) and
(II) respectively from the options given below.

(1) (I) inversely, (II) directly

(2) (I) directly, (II) directly
(3) (I) inversely, (II) inversely
(4) (I) directly, (II) inversely
18) The nature of curve of v/s log KC is :-

(1) straight line

(2) hyperbola
(3) parabola
(4) None

19) When lead storage battery is discharge :-

(1) SO2 is evolved

(2) PbSO4 is consumed
(3) Lead is formed
(4) H2SO4 is consumed

20) For first order reaction will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

21) A very dilute saturated solution of sparingly soluble salt X3Y4 has a vapour pressure of 20 mm Hg
at temperature 'T' while pure water exerts a pressure of 20.0126 mm Hg at same temperature.
Calculate molality at temperature T.

(1) 6.3 × 10–4

(2) 3.5 × 10–2
(3) 5 × 10–3
(4) None

22) Depression in freezing point of 0.01 molar aqueous HCOOH solution is 0.02046. One molal
aqueous urea solution freezes at –1.86°C assuming molarity equal to molality pH of HCOOH solution
:-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

23) In sodium fusion test of organic compounds the nitrogen of the organic compound is converted
into

(1) Sodamide
(2) Sodium cyanide
(3) Sodium nitrite
(4) Sodium nitrate

24) In 'S' estimation, 0.18 g of an organic compound gave 0.54 g of barium sulphate, what is the
percentage of 'S' in the compound.

(1) 25.4%
(2) 41.2%
(3) 43%
(4) 52.4%

25) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II

Estimation Chromato
(A) (p)
of nitrogen graphy

Estimation Fractional
(B) (q)
of halogen distillation

Separate fractions Carius

(C) (r)
of crude oil method

Separation of
Duma's
(D) coloured substance (s)
method
found in plant
(1) A-s, B-r, C-q, D-p
(2) A-r, B-s, C-q, D-p
(3) A-s, B-r, C-p, D-q
(4) A-q, B-p, C-r, D-s

26)

The IUPAC name of following compound is :-

(1) 3-Ethyl-6,6-Dimethyl cyclohexene

(2) 6-Ethyl-3,3-Dimethyl cyclohexene
(3) 4-Ethyl-1,1-Dimethyl cyclohex-2-ene
(4) 1-Ethyl-4,4-Dimethyl cyclohex-2-ene

27) Statement-I :- Separation of aniline and chloroform from their mixture is done using simple
distillation.
Statement-II :- The boiling point of aniline and chloroform are almost same.

(1) Both statement-I and II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

28) For which of the following substance Kjeldhal's method can not be used.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

29) Which of the following can not be written in an isomeric form :-

(1) CH3–CH2–CH(OH)–CH3
(2) CH3–CHO
(3) Cl–CH2–CH2–Cl
(4) CH2 = CH – Cl

30) Which of the following pair of compounds are functional group isomer ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) The number of asymmetric carbon atoms and the number of optical isomers
in CH3(CHOH)2COOH are respectively :–

(1) 3 and 4
(2) 1 and 3
(3) 2 and 4
(4) 2 and 3

32) Which of the following compound can show geometrical isomerism ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) CH2 = N–OH

33) Product (A) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) When ethyl chloride and n-propyl chloride undergoes wurtz reaction which is not obtained :-

(1) n-butane
(2) n-pentane
(3) n-Hexane
(4) 2-Methylbutane

35) Which of the following compound does not give Friedel craft alkylation reaction -

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Ammonical Silver nitrate forms a White precipitate with :-

(1) CH3–C≡CH
(2) CH3–C≡C–CH3
(3) CH2=CH2
(4) CH3–CH=CH2

37) An Alkene "A" on ozonolysis give a mixture of Ethanal and Pentan-3-one; what is IUPAC Name of
"A".

(1) 3-Ethylpent-2-ene
(2) 2-Ethylpent-2-ene
(3) 3-Ethylpent-1-ene
(4) 3-Methylpent-3-ene

38) Which of the following is chain propogation step in monochlorination of methane :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) Match list I with list II and then select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists.

List I List II

A Butane→ Isobutane (a) Cracking

B Butane → Lower hydrocarbons (b) Isomerisation

substitution
C n-Heptane→Toluene (c)
reaction

D Propane 2-chloro (d) Aromatization

propane
 A B C D

(1) b a d c

(2) b d a c

(3) b c d a

(4) b d c a
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

40) The main product of following reaction will be -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41)

major product B is :-

(B)

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

42)
(B) will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Identify the correct order of reactivity in electrophilic substitution reaction of the following

compounds :-

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) IV > III > II > I
(3) II > I > III > IV
(4) II > III > I > IV

44)

Which of the following reaction does not gives benzoic acid

(1)
C6H5 —CH3

(2) C6H5—CH3
(3)

(4)

45) No. of 2° carbon are present in given compound:-

(1) 6
(2) 10
(3) 8
(4) 2
 ANSWER KEYS

BIOLOGY

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 4 3 4 3 1 3 1 2 3 3 1 1 3 3 3 2 3 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 1 3 3 1 3 2 2 4 4 1 3 2 4 2 4 2 2 4 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 3 4 2 2 1 3 3 1 1 4 4 3 4 4 4 3 3 2 3 3
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A. 1 3 2 2 2 4 4 3 3 4 4 3 2 3 3 2 2 3 3 3
Q. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 3 3 4 3 3 2 3 3 2

PHYSICS

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 2 4 3 4 3 3 4 3 3 4 4 3 4 2 2 3 4 1 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 2 1 4 2 3 3 3 2 4 2 1 1 2 2 3 2 4 2 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 3 4 4 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 1 2 3 4 2 1 3 2 4 3 1 4 1 4 4 3 4 1 4 2
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 3 2 2 2 1 2 2 4 4 3 3 2 2 4 4 1 1 3 1 2
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 1 3 4 3
 SOLUTIONS

BIOLOGY

1) XI NCERT Page. No :- 137

2)

NCERT XI, Page No. 135

3) XI NCERT Page No. # 138

4) NCERT, Pg. # 138, 139

5) NCERT-XI, Pg # 138

6) XI NCERT Pg # 145

7) NCERT XI Pg. # 146, 147

Bundle sheath cells in C4 plants contain RuBisCo enzyme.

8) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 156

9) NCERT, Pg. # 156, Diagram

10) NCERT Pg. No. # 160

11) NCERT Pg. # 159

12) NCERT Pg. # 159

13) NCERT XI, Pg. # 160

14) NCERT XI Pg # 162

15)

NCERT-XI Pg. No. # 167

16) NCERT, Pg. # 167-168

17) NCERT, Pg. # 174

18) NCERT Pg. # 175, 176

19) NCERT Pg. # 175-177

20) NCERT XII Pg. # 4

21) NCERT XII Pg. # 7

22) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 20

23) NCERT-XII, Pg. 12

24) NCERT XII, Pg. # 18, 19

25) NCERT XII Page No. 19

26) XI-NCERT Page No. # 57

27) NCERT XI Pg. # 68

28) NCERT XI Pg. # 59

29) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 61

30) NCERT XI Pg. No. # 65

31) NCERT XI Pg. # 65

IV and V are incorrect

32)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 72
Cortex, Pericycle, Pith

33) NCERT XI, Pg # 72, 73

34) NCERT XI Pg. # 74

35) NCERT, Pg. # 74

36) NCERT, Pg. # 74

37) NCERT, Pg. # 74

38) NCERT Page No. 76

39) NCERT, Pg # 135

40) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 139

41) NCERT-XII Pg. # 25

42) NCERT Pg. No. # 62

43) NCERT (XII) Pg # 23(E), 24(H)

44) NCERT XI Pg. # 75

45) NCERT, Pg. # 167

46)

NCERT, Pg. # 234

47) NCERT-XI, Pg. 236

48) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 236

49) NCERT Pg#232

50) NCERT Pg#232

51) NCERT Pg#236

52) NCERT Pg#235

53) NCERT Pg#231

54) NCERT, Pg. # 236

55) NCERT Pg. # 242, 243

56) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 247

57)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 245, 246

58) NCERT Pg. No. # 242

59) NCERT Pg # 241,242, 243

60) NCERT XI, Pg. # 240, 241

61) NCERT Pg. # 243

62) NCERT Pg. # 243

63) NCERT Pg#244

64) NCERT Pg#243

65) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 241

66) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 247

67) NCERT Pg. # 308

68) Module

69) NCERT Pg. No. # 222

70) NCERT Pg. No. # 223

71) NCERT Pg. No. # 227

72) NCERT Pg. No. # 227

73) NCERT-XI Pg#310, II para fig. 20.8

74) Module-5, Pg. No. # 109

75)

NCERT Pg. # 312

76) NCERT Pg. # 26

77) NCERT Pg. No. # 30, 35, 37

78) NCERT Pg. # 36

79) NCERT Pg. # 37

80) NCERT, Pg. # 28

81) NCERT, Pg. # (E)-28, (H)-30

82) NCERT, Pg. # 28, 29

83) NCERT Pg. # 33

84) NCERT-XII Pg#52, I para

85)

Module-8 Page No. #110

86) NCERT, Pg. # 37

87) NCERT, Pg. # 38

88)

NCERT Pg#42
 89) NCERT Pg#44

90) NCERT Pg # 62

PHYSICS

91)

OA → Pressure constant → Isobaric Process

OD → Volume constant → Isochoric Process
OB → Isothermal Process
OC → Adiabatic Process

92)

Now :- Temperature of source is

η=1– ⇒ 0.5 = 1 –
∴ = 600 K

93) For a diatomic gas :-

CP = 7/2 R , CV = 5/2 R

∴ = =

94) Q = ΔU + W
∵ ΔU is same

Wi = +Ve
Wii = 0
Wiii = –Ve
∴ Qi > Qii

95) λ =

λ∝

96) Isochoric → V = constant ⇒

Isothermal → T = constant ⇒ ;
Adiabatic ⇒ ΔQ = 0
Isobaric → P = constant

97)

5T – 160 = 9T – 2457 ⇒ 4T = 2297

T = 574.25

98) PV = nRT

PV =

PV = NKT ⇒ N =

99) ∵ Density of water is maximum at 4ºC.

100) Total energy : E =

For H2 : 1500 = .......(1)

For N2 : E' = .......(2)

∴
E' = 5000 J

101)

∴
100 – T = 4T
T = 20°C

102) By NLC
In first, 20 min
T1 = 85°C, T2 = 85 – 15 = 70°C

then ....(i)
After next 20 min temp. of body will be T3.
 .... (ii)
By eq. (i) & (ii)
T3 = 62.5°C

103)

(dQ/dt)2 = 160 cal.

104)

= 4/1

105) kx = mg ⇒ k =

T= = 2π

106) 5T = T +
it means when bigger pendulum makes one full oscillation the smaller pendulum will make

oscillation. Thus phase difference = 90°.

107) time taken =

108) VHe = 460 × m/s

109)
In second overtone :-
Nodes :- 3
Antinodes :- 3
Third overtone frequency of closed pipe means seventh harmonic. Which is 7 times the
fundamental frequency.

110) k ∝ if length is halved k will become two times

∵T=
so, time period will become half for the given conditions.

111) Δx = 6.4 – 6.0 = 0.4 m

For minimum intensity Δx = (2N + 1) λ/2

∴n= = = 400 (2N + 1) Hz

If N = 0 then n = 400 Hz, if N = 1 then n = 1200 Hz
If N = 2 then n = 2000 Hz, if N = 3 then n = 2800 Hz

112) Fundamental frequency of pipe

n0 = 550 Hz
The available overtones are 3n0, 5n0, 7n0, 9n0
So overtone frequencies are
1650, 2750, 3850, ...... etc.

113)

Potential difference across 2 ohm.

Resistance is 24V

So,
114)

115) Electric field inside a current carrying conductor is due to potential difference created by
battery.

116) J = σE

So, EQ > EP

117)

118) 100 =

R′ =

119) F =

120) n = = 1.25 × 1013

(ntotal)electron = 2.25 × 1013 + 1.25 × 1013
= 3.50 × 1013

121) Fact

122) w = =
= q0 ( .
= q0 (Exa + Eyb)

123)
Cxy = 32 μF

124) (A), (B), (D) are correct statements.

(C) is incorrect because charge of a proton is equal to sum of charge of 2 up quark and 1 down
quark but it might seem reasonable that simply adding up the quarks' masses would give you a
protons mass ; yet it doesn't.

125)

126) V =

127)

w = qΔv

=
= 10.8 × 103J

128) U = U1 + U2 = – pEcosθ +
= – pEcosθ –

129) By symmetry ϕ due to charge at E, F, G & H from face ABCD are equal

ϕ due to charge at

ϕ due to charge at E, F, G, H = 4 ×
ϕ due to charge at A, B, C & D = 0 field lines are perpendicular to area vector

130)

Potential equal =

131)

132)

Cm = KCair

Em =

Vm =

133)

= 900 μJ

134)
 At t = 0 whole current passes through capacitance; so effective resistance of circuit is 1000Ω

and current . After sufficient time, steady state is reached; then

there is no current in capacitor branch; so effective resistance of circuit is 1000 + 1000 =

2000Ω and current i.e., current is 2mA at t = 0 and with time it

goes to 1mA.

135) ⇒ Cab =

CHEMISTRY

137) NCERT XII, Part-I, Pg # 109

2A → 2B + C
t=0 4 atm 0 0
t = 100s 4 –2x 2x x
Total pressure = 4 – 2x + 2x + x
5=4+x
x = 1 atm

k = 6.93 × 10–3 s–1

138) r = k[A]x [B]y

By I, II
A = doubled, B = same, r = doubled
∴x=1
By II, III
A = same, B = doubled, r = doubled
∴y=1
r = k [A] [B]
By I ; 2 × 10–6 = k × (1 × 10–2) × (2 × 10–2)
k = 10–2 mol–1 L sec–1 (order = 2)

139) ;
 ⇒

140)

142)

Explanation

A. Conductivity (κ): It decreases with dilution because the number of ions per unit volume
decreases.

B. Molar Conductivity (Λm): Defined as Λm = κ / C, it increases with dilution because ion

mobility increases due to reduced inter-ionic attractions.

C. Strong vs. Weak Electrolytes: Strong electrolytes show a linear increase in Λm with √C,
while weak electrolytes follow the Kohlrausch’s Law and exhibit a sharp increase due to
incomplete dissociation at higher concentrations.

Concept

A. Correct, Conductivity (κ) always decreases with decrease in concentration, for both
strong and weak electrolytes because κ α C.

B. Correct, Variation in molar conductivity with concentration, strong electrolytes show a

different trend compared to weak electrolytes.

C. Incorrect, Molar conductivity (Λm) increases with dilution, not decreases.

D. Correct, At infinite dilution (C → 0), molar conductivity is called limiting molar

conductivity (Λm°).

Answer Option 3.

143) For n eq. of substance deposited/converted, nF charge is required.

144) A3B → 3A + B x = 0.9

t0 1 – – DTD = × i × KD × m
t0 1–x 3x x 1 – x + 3x + x = i = 1 + 3x
146) NCERT (2019), Pg # 57

148)

150) NCERT-XII, Part-1, Pg # 135

152) Question is Asking About:

We find t1/2 relation between [A]0 & K in zero order reaction.

Concept:

0
t1/2 ∝ [A] , t1/2 ∝
Final Answer: I = directly
II = inversely
Hence, option (4) is correct.

164) CH2=CH–Cl → IUPAC name

is 1-Chloro ethene, no other structure is possible for this.

166)
22 = 4

174) Fact

176)