ACCA AA RevisionEx24-25 As
ACCA AA RevisionEx24-25 As
Answers
Section A
BEECH & CO
1 D
Self-interest Familiarity
2, 3 1, 4
Option 2 represents a self-interest threat as the audit firm may be perceived as performing the
role of management by attending these meetings and this threatens objectivity.
2 C After a key audit partner has been rotated off a listed client, they should not participate
in the audit at all for at least two years
Option A is incorrect – 10 years
Option B is incorrect – 7 years
Option D is incorrect – the previous years’ service IS taken into account
4 D Beech & Co should divest some of the other services or resign the audit.
It is not necessary to resign the audit if the other safeguards are implemented, although it
should be monitored regularly and considered as an option if the safeguards do not continue to
mitigate the self-interest threat.
5 A
Threat Safeguard
Self-interest Do not commence audit until fees paid
It would not be necessary to resign the audit unless the situation continued and the self-interest
threat could not be avoided. It is not an intimidation threat particularly.
ACCA AA R e v i s i o n e xa mi n at i o n a n s w e rs 3
AQUAMARINE CO
6 D 2 and 4
Unless the auditor has suspicions arising to the contrary (or ought to have done), it is
reasonable to assume that documents presented to him to support assertions in the financial
statements are genuine.
Reliance on the results of analytical procedures is a matter of audit judgement. Often they are
supported by other audit evidence (such as the results of tests of controls, or other substantive
testing).
7 A The risk is that non-current assets are overstated as new assets may be accounted for
prior to delivery.
A company cannot recognise an asset until they it has been delivered to them and they are able
to generate economic benefits from it, hence it does not matter that the assets were ordered
together, they should be recognised as assets of the business after delivery.
Failure to depreciate the assets would result in them being overstated not understated.
Although there are several risks relating to non-current assets, not all the options given here
were correct, so D cannot be correct.
8 D 3 and 4
The fact that the audit junior is a new trainee should not increase detection risk as this should
be managed at the audit level by assigning the trainee appropriate tasks and supervising the
audit work well.
A purchased patent should be capitalised so the risks is that the intangible assets are
understated by it not being included or overstated by it not being amortised properly over its
five year life.
Errors may have occurred when the payroll was transferred to Coral. Although this is not the
ONLY audit risk associated with the outsourcing of the payroll to Coral, it is a valid audit risk to
identify.
There is a risk that the classification of the loan (the split between current and non-current
liabilities for example) and disclosures relating to the loan are incorrect.
9 D 1, 2 and 3
Option 2 tests controls over creditworthiness of new customers and hence reduces the risk that
receivables will be irrecoverable due to poor controls. As combined testing is planned, this
would be a valid test to carry out.
However, as receivables is a material balance, it is also necessary to carry out substantive
testing so option B is incorrect.
Two substantive tests are given. If receivables are overstated, there may be two causes. (1)
Receivables which do not EXIST have been included in the balance. (2) Receivables which are
unlikely to be recoverable have been included in the balance, in other words, the VALUATION of
receivables is incorrect.
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Test 1 gives evidence of EXISTENCE, test 3 gives evidence of EXISTENCE and VALUATION
(recoverability).
However, given that it is a risk area, it would be insufficient to rely on test 3 as evidence of
existence, because although payment proves existence, non-payment within the audit period
does not prove lack of existence, so both tests would be performed in this situation.
AUDIT REVIEWS
11 A 1, 2, 3
Only material misstatements would result in the audit opinion being qualified.
12 D
Material Financial statement impact
Yes Assets overstated
As the research expenditure should have been expensed, assets are overstated, expenses
understated and profit overstated.
5% of profit before tax is $1.3 so this has had a material impact on profit.
13 C
Financial statements amended Financial statements not amended
Unmodified Qualified ‘except for’
14 A 1 and 3
The written representation does not give sufficient evidence concerning the missing figures. As
the issue is a loss of evidence rather than misstated figures, write offs would be inappropriate.
Section B
16 FOX
EXAMINER’S COMMENTS: PART (a)
This 30-mark question was based on a manufacturing company, Fox Industries Co (Fox), and
tested candidates’ knowledge of communicating to those charged with governance (TCWG),
internal controls, information processing controls and substantive procedures for bank and
cash.
Part (a)(i) for two marks required candidates to explain why it’s important for auditors to
communicate with TCWG and part (a)(ii) for three marks required three matters that may be
communicated by auditors to TCWG.
Most candidates performed unsatisfactorily on part (a)(i). They needed to focus on WHY it
was important to communicate rather than WHAT needed to be reported as this was the
requirement of part (a)(ii). Answers that focused on what was to be communicated would
not have gained credit as this was not the question requirement for (a)(i). In addition, some
candidates simply restated the requirement, explaining that it was important to
communicate, but without answering why. Part (a)(ii) was answered better, with most
candidates focusing on the areas of fraud, material misstatement and internal control
deficiencies. Some candidates focused on providing details of specific audit issues that would
be discussed during the audit as opposed to areas which would be formally reported to
TCWG.
EXAM SMART
Read the requirement carefully here and make sure you only answer the question set. Your
answer should describe WHY it is important to report to TCWG rather than WHAT should be
reported, as this is tested in part (ii).
(a)
(i) Importance of reporting to those charged with governance
In accordance with ISA 260 Communication with Those Charged with Governance, it is
important for the auditors to report to those charged with governance as it helps in the
following ways:
It assists the auditor and those charged with governance in understanding matters
related to the audit, and in developing a constructive working relationship. This
relationship is developed while maintaining the auditor’s independence and
objectivity.
It helps the auditor in obtaining, from those charged with governance, information
relevant to the audit. For example, those charged with governance may assist the
auditor in understanding the entity and its environment, in identifying appropriate
sources of audit evidence and in providing information about specific transactions
or events.
ACCA AA R e v i s i o n e xa mi n at i o n a n s w e rs 7
recommendation where candidates failed to maximise their marks was for sequentially
numbered purchase orders. Simply recommending “that purchase orders should be
sequentially numbered” only scored ½ marks, as the control is to undertake sequence
checks, for which the orders need to be sequential. This demonstrated a lack of
understanding of this type of control.
A covering letter to the report was required and there were two marks available. Despite
this specific requirement a significant number of candidates provided their answers as a
memo rather than as a letter. Adopting a memo format resulted in a failure to maximise
marks. The two marks were allocated as ½ for a letterhead, ½ for an introductory paragraph,
½ for disclaimers and ½ for a courteous sign off of the letter, which requires more than just a
signature.
Many candidates set their answer out in two (three) columns being deficiency, implication
and recommendation.
However, those who explained all of the deficiencies, the implications and then separately
provided all of the recommendations tended to repeat themselves and possibly wasted
some time.
The requirement was for FOUR deficiencies; this session a significant proportion of
candidates provided many more than four points, it was not uncommon to see answers with
eight deficiencies. Also in many answers deficiencies were combined such as; “purchase
orders are not sequentially numbered and only orders over $5,000 require authorisation”,
the implications and recommendations would then also be combined. Providing many more
points than required and combining answers leads to unstructured answers that are difficult
to mark.
Spending too much time on this part of the exam also puts candidates under time pressure
for the rest of the paper.
EXAM SMART
The Examiner highlights where candidates lost marks on this question:
Candidates were often able to identify control deficiencies from the scenario but did
not always give a clear and specific explanation of the implications of the deficiencies.
Think about what could go wrong because of the deficiency you have identified. Why
should management be concerned?
Control recommendations must also be sufficiently detailed. Use the model answer
below as a guide for the level of detail required.
If a covering letter is required then make sure you lay your answer out in this format
and you will earn two easy marks. You can use the model answer below to revise the
format and content of the letter.
A columnar layout will help you to produce a clear, focussed answer in a minimum
amount of time.
Only give the required number of points as there are no additional marks available and
time could be spent elsewhere on the paper.
ACCA AA R e v i s i o n e xa mi n at i o n a n s w e rs 9
APPENDIX
Deficiency Implication Recommendation
When raising purchase orders, the This could result in Fox ordering An approved supplier list should
clerks choose whichever supplier goods at a much higher price or a be compiled; this should take into
can despatch the goods the lower quality than they would account the price of goods, their
fastest. like, as the only factor considered quality and also the speed of
was speed of delivery. delivery.
It is important that goods are Once the list has been produced,
despatched promptly, but this is all orders should only be placed
just one of many criteria that with suppliers on the approved
should be used in deciding which list.
supplier to use.
Purchase orders are not Failing to sequentially number the All purchase orders should be
sequentially numbered. orders means that Fox’s ordering sequentially numbered and on a
team are unable to monitor if all regular basis a sequence check of
orders are being fulfilled in a unfulfilled orders should be
timely manner; this could result in performed.
stock outs.
If the orders are numbered, then
a sequence check can be
performed for any unfulfilled
orders.
Purchase orders below $5,000 are This can result in goods being All purchase orders should be
not authorised and are processed purchased which are not required authorised by a responsible
solely by an order clerk. by Fox. In addition, there is an official. Authorised signatories
increased fraud risk as an order should be established with
clerk could place orders for varying levels of purchase order
personal goods up to the value of authorisation.
$5,000, which is significant.
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EXAM SMART
If you struggled to generate ideas for information processing controls, use the list below to
help you revise the topic. Remember that although these are often part of the IT system,
they can be manual as well as computerised.
EXAM SMART
Marks will be awarded for any other relevant information processing controls.
EXAM SMART
For this paper it is essential that you understand the difference between a substantive
test and a test of control.
When describing substantive procedures try to start your sentences with a verb as they
are something the auditor does. Think about the documentation the auditor will have
available e.g. cash book, bank statements, bank confirmation letter, bank reconciliation.
Make sure you practice plenty of questions like this one as candidates often struggle to
describe substantive tests and you can expect them to appear in every exam sitting.
(d) Substantive procedures over bank and cash balance of Fox Industries Co (Fox)
Obtain Fox’s current bank account reconciliation and check the additions to ensure
arithmetical accuracy.
Obtain a bank confirmation letter from Fox’s bankers for all of its accounts.
For the current account, agree the balance per the bank statement to an original year-
end bank statement and also to the bank confirmation letter.
Agree the reconciliation’s balance per the cash book to the year-end cash book.
Trace all of the outstanding lodgements to the pre year-end cash book, post year-end
bank statement and also to paying-in-book pre year end.
Trace all unpresented cheques through to a pre year-end cash book and post year-end
statement. For any unusual amounts or significant delays obtain explanations from
management.
Examine any old unpresented cheques to assess if they need to be written back into the
purchase ledger as they are no longer valid to be presented.
ACCA AA R e v i s i o n e xa mi n at i o n a n s w e rs 13
Agree all balances listed on the bank confirmation letter to Fox’s bank reconciliations or
the trial balance to ensure completeness of bank balances.
Review the cash book and bank statements for any unusual items or large transfers
around the year end, as this could be evidence of window dressing.
Examine the bank confirmation letter for details of any security provided by Fox or any
legal right of set-off as this may require disclosure.
For the saving (deposit) bank accounts, review any reconciling items on the year-end
bank reconciliations and agree to supporting documentation.
In respect of material cash balances, count cash balances at the year end and agree to
petty cash records, such as the petty cash book.
Review the financial statements to ensure that the disclosure of cash and bank balances
are complete and accurate.
EXAM SMART
Marks will be awarded for any other relevant bank and cash tests
17 HAWTHORN ENTERPRISES
EXAMINER’S COMMENTS
This 20-mark question was based on Hawthorn Enterprises Co and tested candidates’
knowledge of financial statement assertions and substantive procedures.
Part (a) was for eight marks in total and comprised of (a)(i) which required four financial
statement assertions relevant to classes of transactions and events and part (a)(ii) which
required an example substantive procedure for each assertion identified which would be
relevant to the audit of revenue. This question was unrelated to the scenario and was
knowledge based, and candidates’ performance was unsatisfactory.
Financial statement assertions are a key element of the AA syllabus and so it was very
disappointing to see that a significant minority of candidates do not know the assertions
relevant to classes of transactions and events. A significant proportion of candidates
provided existence and valuation which were irrelevant as these are assertions relevant to
account balances. Where candidates did correctly identify the assertions they often failed to
explain them adequately or did so with reference to assets and liabilities rather than
transactions. Also many explanations were too brief or simply repeated the assertion, such
as, “accuracy ensures the amounts in the financial statements are accurate”.
A number of candidates provided example procedures which were not relevant when testing
revenue, but instead focused on receivables or purchases. This can only be due to a failure
to read the question requirement properly. In addition many procedures were vague or
incomplete, such as agreeing goods despatch notes to sales invoices but not then agreeing
the invoices to the sales day book. Also many of the procedures were tests of control rather
than substantive procedures. The direction of the occurrence and completeness tests were
often confused resulting in incorrect procedures. The direction of occurrence tests should
generally start at accounting records, whereas completeness procedures should begin at
source documents.
The remainder of the question provided candidates with three short scenarios detailing
matters that had been brought to attention prior to the audit fieldwork and candidates were
expected to produce appropriate substantive procedures relevant to each matter. Part (b)(i)
for three marks required substantive procedures in relation to auditing supplier statement
ACCA AA R e v i s i o n e xa mi n at i o n a n s w e rs 15
reconciliations. Part (b)(ii) for four marks required substantive procedures over the bank
reconciliation and finally part (b)(iii) for five marks required substantive procedures in
relation to the existence and valuation of receivables. Performance on this question was
unsatisfactory. A significant minority did not attempt all parts of this question.
Most candidates were unable to tailor their knowledge of general substantive procedures to
the specific issues in the scenario and question requirements. Many candidates spotted the
terms payables, bank and receivables and proceeded to list all possible tests for these areas.
This is not what was required and this approach scored few or no marks. The scenario was
provided so that candidates could apply their knowledge. However it seems that many
candidates did not take any notice of the scenario at all. As addressed in previous examiner’s
reports candidates must strive to understand substantive procedures, learning a generic list
of tests will not translate to exam success as they must be responsive to the scenario.
EXAM SMART
It is very important to learn which assertions relate to classes of transactions (as well as
account balances at the year-end and disclosures) so that you can tackle questions like
this.
When describing substantive procedures you should start your sentences with a verb as
they are something the auditor does.
Think about the documentation the auditor will have available e.g. GDN’s, customer
orders.
You may also find the AEIOU mnemonic useful here. Analytical procedures are a good
way of testing revenue.
Substantive procedures
Select a sample of sales invoices and recalculate that the totals and calculation of sales
tax are correct.
Review the total amount of sales, compare to the prior year and budget and investigate
any significant differences.
For a sample of sales invoices, confirm the sales price stated agrees to the authorised
price list.
Cut-off
Transactions and events have been recorded in the correct accounting period.
Substantive procedures
Select a sample of pre and post year-end GDNs and agree that the sale is recorded in the correct
period’s sales day books.
Review the post year-end sales returns and agree if they relate to pre year-end sales that
the revenue has been correctly removed from the sales day book.
Classification
Transactions and events have been recorded in the proper accounts.
Substantive procedures
Agree for a sample of sales invoices that they have been correctly recorded within
revenue nominal account codes and included within revenue in the financial statements.
The requirement verb was to “describe” therefore sufficient detail was required to score the
1 mark available per test. Candidates must provide enough tests as they should assume 1
mark per valid procedure. Candidates are reminded yet again that substantive procedures
are a core topic area and they must be able to produce relevant detailed procedures.
EXAM SMART
In part (b) you are asked to describe some more substantive procedures. Use the mark
allocation as a guide to the number of procedures you need to provide.
Make sure that you answer is specific to the scenario in the question, rather than just
giving general substantive procedures.
(b)
(i) Substantive procedures for supplier statement reconciliations
Select a representative sample of year-end supplier statements and agree the
balance to the purchase ledger of Hawthorn. If the balance agrees, then no further
work is required.
Where differences occur due to invoices in transit, confirm from goods received
notes (GRN) whether the receipt of goods was pre year end, if so confirm that this
receipt is included in year-end accruals.
Where differences occur due to cash in transit from Hawthorn to the supplier,
confirm from the cashbook and bank statements that the cash was sent pre year
end.
Discuss any further adjusting items with the purchase ledger supervisor to
understand the nature of the reconciling item, and whether it has been correctly
accounted for.
(ii) Substantive procedures for bank reconciliation
Obtain Hawthorn’s bank account reconciliation and cast to check the additions to
ensure arithmetical accuracy.
Agree the balance per the bank reconciliation to an original year-end bank
statement and to the bank confirmation letter.
Trace all the outstanding lodgements to the pre year-end cash book, post year-end
bank statement and also to paying-in-book pre year end.
Trace all unpresented cheques through to a pre year-end cash book and post year-
end statement. For any unusual amounts or significant delays, obtain explanations
from management.
Examine any old unpresented cheques to assess if they need to be written back
into the purchase ledger as they are no longer valid to be presented.
(iii) Substantive procedures for receivables
Review the aged receivable ledger to identify any slow moving or old receivable
balances, discuss the status of these balances with the credit controller to assess
whether they are likely to pay.
Select a significant sample of receivables and review whether there are any after
date cash receipts, ensure that a sample of slow moving/old receivable balances is
also selected.
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18 EAGLE HEATING
EXAMINER’S COMMENTS
Part (a) of this question required identification and description of five audit risks from the
scenario and the relevant auditor’s response for each. Performance on this question was
mixed, although better than June 2014 when audit risk was last tested.
The scenario contained significantly more than five risks and so candidates were able to
easily identify enough risks for the marks available. Candidates who scored well in this
question went on to describe how the point identified from the scenario was an audit risk by
referring to the assertion and the account balance impacted.
As in previous diets however, a significant number of candidates tended to only identify facts
from the scenario such as “Eagle Heating has reduced its selling price due to increased
competition” but failed to describe how this results in an audit risk, thus limiting the marks
that can be scored to ½ marks. To gain the full 1 mark candidates needed to explain that this
drop in selling price could impact inventory valuation as there was a risk that inventory may
be overvalued due to NRV now being lower than cost or that this presents a going concern
risk as this drop in selling price may not be sustainable. Only by connecting the fact from the
scenario to the relevant assertion and area of the financial statement will the candidate have
adequately explained the audit risk.
Unfortunately many candidates yet again focused on business risks rather than audit risks
with answers such as increased risk of theft and difficulties in counting inventory arising due
to the increase in inventory levels. These candidates then provided responses related to how
management should address these business risks. This meant that out of a potential 2 marks
per point, candidates would only score ½ marks for the identification of the issue from the
scenario.
Additionally, many candidates performed poorly with regards to the auditor’s responses.
Many candidates gave business advice, such as replacing the financial controller who was
dismissed or provided inappropriate responses such as attending inventory counts to
address the inventory valuation risk. Audit responses need to be practical and should relate
to the approach (ie what testing) the auditor will adopt to assess whether the balance is
materially misstated or not.
Many candidates presented their answers well as they adopted a two column approach with
audit risk in one column and the related response next to it. This helps candidates to ensure
20 R e v i s i o n E xami n at i on a n s w e rs ACCA AA
that for every risk identified there is a related response and candidates are encouraged to
continue to use this approach where appropriate.
Future candidates must take note of the importance of audit risk which is a key element of the
syllabus and must be understood, and they would benefit from practising audit risk questions.
EXAM SMART
Candidates often struggle with risk identification questions such as this one, so it important
to practise them to master the required exam technique.
The Examiner is asking for FIVE risks but you may find more in the scenario. If this is the
case then select your five best points.
For each risk, the Examiner is asking you to do two things; explain the audit risk and
describe the auditor’s response. Therefore for each risk there will be one mark available
for explanation and another for providing a response. A tabular layout will help you
produce a concise and focused answer.
As you read the scenario consider why the Examiner is giving you each piece of
information and highlight any factors you believe might lead to an audit risk, e.g.
‘customer experiencing financial difficulties’.
Then, make yourself write down next to those words, a financial statement impact: e.g.,
in the above case, ‘receivables overstated?’
This should make you focus on the audit risk, not the business risk (irrecoverable debts
in this case). Business risk is not examinable in paper AA.
In terms of the audit response, remember that you want to ensure that the financial
statements are not materially misstated, so in terms of that customer, think ‘have any
payments been received since the year end?’ How do you prove that? Review post
year-end cash receipts…
EXAM SMART
Let the reference to the fall in selling prices of inventory guide you towards selling price
testing (NRV) as well as cost testing.
For a sample of items in inventory, trace to purchase invoice to verify cost price.
For the same sample, trace items to post year-end sales invoices to confirm net realisable
value (NRV).
Compare price lists before and after the price reduction to identify significant price
changes which might indicate NRV has fallen below cost.
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Review stock movement reports to identify items which have not sold since year end
which might require full write off.
(c) Quality control procedures
EXAM SMART
Note here that the question was specific to engagement performance. Only three
procedures were required and the top three are the most obvious as they are required on
every audit. The model answer here gives the range of answers you could have given.
Direction: The audit should be planned and audit staff briefed on their responsibilities
within the audit team.
Supervision: Audit staff will be responsible for supervising more junior staff, ensuring
they understand what is required of them, informing them of audit risks, materiality and
any particular factors relating to the client, being prepared to answer queries.
Review: Senior audit staff will review the work of more junior members to ensure it is in
line with the audit plan and that sufficient appropriate evidence has been obtained and
documented.
Consultation: In the event of contentious matters arising on the audit (for example, in
relation to judgemental issues, eg going concern), the engagement partner should have
arranged consultation.
Differences of opinion: Again, should differences of opinion have arisen during the audit,
the engagement partner should have followed firm procedures on how to resolve these.
Marking guide Marks
(a) Up to 1 mark per well explained risk and up to 1 mark for each well explained response.
Overall max of 5 marks for risks and 5 marks for responses
─ Inventory valuation
─ Receivable valuation
─ Going concern
─ Unfair dismissal of financial controller
─ Increased inherent risk of errors in finance department due to loss of financial
controller
─ Under- or over-stated trade payables
─ Completeness of administration expenses
Max 10
(b) Up to 1 mark for each appropriate procedure Max4
(c) Up to 2 marks for well explained procedures Max 6
Maximum marks available 20