Basic Concepts  A) A program in execution

1. What is an operating system?  B) A type of hardware

 A) A type of hardware  C) A command
 B) A collection of software that manages computer  D) An operating system module
hardware Answer: A25
 C) A programming language 7. Which scheduling algorithm is non-preemptive?
 D) None of the above  A) Round Robin
Answer: B25  B) Shortest Job Next (SJN)
2. Which of the following is not an operating system?  C) Priority Scheduling
 A) Windows  D) Multilevel Queue Scheduling
 B) Linux Answer: B25
 C) Oracle 8. What is virtual memory?
 D) MacOS  A) Memory on the hard disk that the CPU uses as RAM
Answer: C23 when needed
3. The kernel of an operating system is:  B) Memory used for caching purposes
 A) The user interface  C) Physical memory directly available to the CPU
 B) The part that manages hardware interactions  D) None of the above
 C) An application software Answer: A15
 D) A type of virus File and Device Management
Answer: B6 9. Which component of an operating system is responsible for
Types of Operating Systems managing files?
4. Which type of operating system allows multiple users to access a  A) File System Manager
single system simultaneously?  B) Memory Manager
 A) Batch Operating System  C) Process Manager
 B) Time-Sharing Operating System  D) Device Driver
 C) Distributed Operating System Answer: A6
 D) Real-Time Operating System 10. In Unix, which command is used to display the contents of the
Answer: B15 current directory?
5. Which of the following is an example of a real-time operating  A) ls
system?  B) cd
 A) Lynx  C) mkdir
 B) MS-DOS  D) touch
 C) Windows XP Answer: A6
 D) Unix Advanced Topics
Answer: A3 11. What is the main function of a command interpreter in an OS?
Memory and Process Management  A) To provide the interface between API and application
6. What is a process in an operating system? programs
pg. 1
  B) To handle files in the operating system D) None of the above
 C) To get and execute the next user-specified command Answer: B
 D) None of the above 16. The main advantage of multiprocessing is:
Answer: C45  A) Reduced cost
12. Which one of these is not true about CPU scheduling?  B) Increased throughput and fault tolerance
 A) Assigning ready processes to waiting queues  C) Simplified system design
 B) Assigning running processes to blocked queues  D) Single-threaded execution
 C) Assigning ready processes to CPU Answer: B
 D) None of the above Multiprogramming Systems
Answer: D5 5. Which of the following is true about multiprogramming?
13. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for:  A) It allows only one job in memory at a time.
 A) Operating systems  B) It increases CPU utilization by organizing jobs so that the
 B) Multiprocessor systems CPU always has one to execute.
 C) Time-sharing systems  C) It requires real-time processing capabilities.
 D) Multiprogramming systems  D) It is used only in embedded systems.
Answer: C Answer: B
Batch Processing Systems 6. In a multiprogramming system, when a process waits for I/O, the CPU:
14. What is the primary goal of a batch processing system?  A) Remains idle
 A) Real-time execution  B) Executes another process from memory
 B) Grouping and executing similar jobs together  C) Terminates the process
 C) Interactive user sessions  D) Shuts down temporarily
 D) Multitasking Answer: B
Answer: B Time-Sharing Systems
15. In a batch processing system, jobs are executed: 7. In a time-sharing operating system, when the time slot given to a
 A) Simultaneously process is completed, the process moves to:
 B) Sequentially without user interaction  A) Blocked state
 C) Based on priority  B) Ready state
 D) Randomly  C) Suspended state
Answer: B  D) Terminated state
Answer: B4
Multiprocessing Systems 8. Time-sharing systems are designed for:
3. A multiprocessing system uses:  A) Batch processing only
 A) A single processor for multiple tasks  B) Real-time applications only
 B) Multiple processors for executing multiple tasks  C) Interactive use by multiple users simultaneously
concurrently  D) Single-user environments only
 C) A single processor for sequential tasks Answer: C
Multitasking Systems
pg. 2
 9. Multitasking requires which of the following? 15. In a distributed system, each processor has its own:
 A) Time-sharing and multiprogramming concepts combined  A) Local memory and clock
 B) Only batch processing capabilities  B) Shared memory only
 C) Single-threaded execution model  C) No memory or clock
 D) No kernel involvement in scheduling tasks  D) None of the above
Answer: A15 Answer: A7
10. The kernel in a multitasking system decides: 16. If one site fails in a distributed system:
 A) Which task gets the next time slot for execution  A) The entire system stops working
 B) How to terminate processes prematurely  B) The remaining sites continue operating
 C) How to manage hardware failures  C) Only directly connected sites stop working
 D) None of the above  D) None of the above
Answer: A5 Answer: B
11. A network operating system (NOS): Answer: B7 17. What does DMA stand for?
 A) Manages resources on a single computer only  A) Direct Memory Access
 B) Provides services like file sharing and printer access  B) Data Memory Access
across multiple computers  C) Dynamic Memory Allocation
 C) Is not dependent on networking hardware  D) Direct Management Access
 D) Does not support multi-user environments Answer: A
12. Which of the following runs on every system in a network? 18. What is the primary purpose of DMA?
 A) Distributed operating system  A) To speed up CPU processing
 B) Network operating system  B) To allow data transfer between memory and I/O devices
 C) Both distributed and network operating systems without CPU intervention
 D) None of the above  C) To manage memory allocation dynamically
Answer: B7  D) To enable multitasking in operating systems
13. Parallel processing refers to: Answer: A6 Answer: B
 A) Execution of several activities at the same time by 19. Which component controls the DMA operation?
multiple processors  A) CPU
 B) Sequential execution of tasks using one processor  B) DMA Controller
 C) Time-sharing among multiple users  C) Device Driver
 D) None of the above  D) Operating System
14. Which of these leads to concurrency in parallel processing? Answer: B
 A) Serialization Answer: B6 20. In DMA, the CPU is placed in which state during data transfer?
 B) Parallelism  A) Active state
 C) Single-threading  B) Hold state
 D) Distribution  C) Idle state
 D) Sleep state
Distributed Operating Systems Answer: B
pg. 3
 21. The signal used by the DMA controller to notify the CPU that it has 27. The sequence for a typical DMA operation is as follows:
completed its operation is called:  The I/O device requests a DMA transfer.
 A) Interrupt signal  The CPU grants control of the system bus to the DMA
 B) Acknowledge signal controller.
 C) Ready signal  The DMA controller transfers data directly between memory
 D) Request signal and the I/O device.
Answer: A  The DMA controller signals the CPU upon completion of
22. Which of the following initiates a DMA transfer? data transfer.
 A) CPU instruction Answer: B 28. What is this sequence called?
 B) I/O device request  A) Interrupt-driven I/O Answer: C
 C) Operating system command  B) Hardware-controlled I/O
 D) User program request  C) Direct Memory Access process
23. Which mode of DMA transfer allows the CPU to continue  D) Programmed I/O
executing instructions while data transfer occurs? 29. During a cycle-stealing operation in DMA, what happens?
 A) Burst mode DMA Answer: C  A) The CPU executes instructions continuously without
 B) Transparent mode DMA interruption
 C) Cycle stealing mode DMA  B) The CPU temporarily halts to allow one byte or word of
 D) Block mode DMA data transfer
24. In burst mode DMA, the CPU is:  C) The entire block of data is transferred at once
 A) Allowed to execute instructions intermittently during data  D) The system bus remains idle throughout the process
transfer Answer: B
 B) Completely idle until the entire block of data is 30. Which signal indicates that a device has requested a DMA
transferred operation?
 C) Actively involved in data transfer operations  A) HRQ (Hold Request Signal)**
 D) Not affected by the data transfer process  B: HLDA (Hold Acknowledge Signal)**
Answer: B 1. What is a system call?
25. Which of the following devices commonly use DMA for data transfer?  A) A routine built into the kernel that performs basic
 A) Graphics cards and sound cards Answer: C functions Answer: A1
 B) Disk drive controllers and network cards  B) A user-defined function
 C) Both A and B  C) A command-line instruction
 D) None of the above  D) None of the above
26. What is one major advantage of using DMA? 2. When a process invokes a system call, the CPU switches from:
 A) Reduces CPU overhead during data transfer  A) Kernel mode to user mode
 B) Increases memory size  B) User mode to kernel mode
 C) Simplifies device driver design  C) Supervisor mode to user mode
 D) Eliminates the need for an operating system  D) Kernel mode to supervisor mode
Answer: A Answer: B1
pg. 4
 3. To access the services of the operating system, the interface 9. Which one of the following guarantees that a computer transitions from
provided is called: user mode to kernel mode?
 A) API Answer: B4  A) malloc call Answer: C5
 B) System calls  B) Page fault
 C) Assembly instructions  C) System call
 D) Library functions  D) All of the above
4. Which system call is used to create a new process? 10. The chmod command invokes which system call?
 A) execve Answer: B3  A) chmod Answer: A1
 B) fork  B) ch
 C) open  C) change
 D) waitpid  D) read
5. Which system call is used to replace the current process image 11. What does the open system call return?
with a new one?  A) File name as a string Answer: B1
 A) fork  B) File descriptor as an integer
 B) execve  C) File size as a float
 C) exit  D) None of the above
 D) waitpid 12. If a thread invokes the exec system call, what happens?
Answer: B3  A) The exec executes as a separate process
6. Which system call is used for reading input?  B) The program specified in exec replaces the entire process
 A) write  C) The exec is ignored by threads
 B) read  D) None of the above
 C) input Answer: B2
 D) fetch 13. What happens if a process does not call exec after forking?
Answer: B1  A) The program specified in exec replaces the process
7. Which system call is used to open or create a file?  B) All threads are duplicated
 A) read  C) Duplication occurs without replacement
 B) write  D) None of the above
 C) open Answer: C
 D) close 1. What is the primary objective of process scheduling in an
Answer: C1 operating system?
8. In kernel mode, the operating system can:  A) To minimize CPU usage
 A) Access all memory locations and execute any machine  B) To maximize CPU utilization and ensure fairness among
instruction processes
 B) Only access user memory locations  C) To execute processes in a random order
 C) Perform no privileged operations  D) To prioritize I/O-bound processes over CPU-bound
 D) Execute user programs directly processes
Answer: A1 Answer: B
pg. 5
 2. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by 7. Which scheduling algorithm is most suitable for time-sharing
the short-term scheduler? systems?
 A) Dispatcher  A) First-Come, First-Served (FCFS) Scheduling
 B) Interrupt handler  B) Round Robin (RR) Scheduling
 C) Scheduler  C) Priority Scheduling
 D) None of the above  D) Shortest Job First (SJF) Scheduling
Answer: A4 Answer: B12
3. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready Performance Metrics
and waiting to execute are kept in which queue? 8. The interval from the time of submission of a process to its
 A) Job Queue completion is termed as:
 B) Ready Queue  A) Waiting Time
 C) Device Queue  B) Turnaround Time
 D) Execution Queue  C) Response Time
Answer: B4  D) Throughput Time
Scheduling Algorithms Answer: B4
4. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process 9. Which scheduling algorithm minimizes the average waiting time
that requests it first? for processes?
 A) Shortest Job First (SJF) Scheduling  A) FCFS Scheduling
 B) Round Robin (RR) Scheduling  B) SJF Scheduling
 C) First-Come, First-Served (FCFS) Scheduling  C) Round Robin Scheduling
 D) Priority Scheduling  D) Priority Scheduling
Answer: C4 Answer: B
5. In priority scheduling, CPU is allocated to the process with: Advanced Questions
 A) The highest priority 10. The problem of indefinite blockage of low-priority jobs in a
 B) The lowest priority general priority scheduling algorithm can be solved using:
 C) Equal priority for all processes  A) Aging
 D) Random priority assignment  B) Starvation
Answer: A4  C) Preemption
6. What happens when a process exceeds its allocated time quantum  D) Round Robin Scheduling
in Round Robin scheduling? Answer: A25
 A) The process is terminated immediately. 11. What is the primary distinction between short-term and long-term
 B) The process is moved to the back of the ready queue. schedulers?
 C) The process is given additional time to complete.  A) The length of their queues
 D) The process receives a lower priority for future  B) The type of processes they schedule
scheduling.  C) The frequency of their execution
Answer: B12  D) None of the above
Answer: C3
pg. 6
 12. Which scheduler selects a process from memory and allocates it 2. Threads share which of the following resources with other threads
to the CPU for execution? in the same process?
 A) Long-term Scheduler Answer: C3  A) Program counter and stack
 B) Medium-term Scheduler  B) Code section and data section
 C) Short-term Scheduler  C) Register set and stack space
 D) Dispatcher  D) None of the above
13. In real-time operating systems, which scheduling scheme is most Answer: B
suitable?
 A) Non-preemptive Priority Scheduling Answer: B24 3. Which of the following is true about threads within the same
 B) Preemptive Priority Scheduling process?
 C) Round Robin Scheduling  A) They share the same memory space but have separate
 D) FCFS Scheduling program counters and stacks
14. In Round Robin scheduling, what happens if the time quantum is  B) They have separate CPUs but share memory space
set too short?  C) They run independently without sharing any resources
 A) Processes may starve due to low priority.  D) None of the above
 B) Context switching overhead increases significantly. Answer: A
 C) Throughput decreases drastically. Types of Threads
 D) CPU utilization improves significantly. 4. What are the two main types of threads in operating systems?
Answer: B12  A) User-level threads and kernel-level threads
15. For a single-processor system, multiprogramming aims to ensure that:  B) Lightweight threads and heavyweight threads
1. Some process is running at all times.  C) Single-threaded and multithreaded processes
2. Only one process runs at a time.  D) None of the above
3. CPU utilization is maximized. Answer: A
Which options are correct? 5. Which of the following is an advantage of user-level threads?
 A) 1 only Answer: B  A) Easier to implement than kernel-level threads
 B) 1 and 3 only  B) More efficient context switching compared to kernel-level
 C) 2 and 3 only threads
1. D) All of the above  C) Simpler representation and management
What is a thread in an operating system?  D) All of the above
 A) A lightweight process that can be scheduled and run Answer: D
concurrently with other threads 6. Which of the following is a disadvantage of user-level threads?
 B) A heavyweight process that requires its own dedicated  A) Lack of coordination with the kernel
memory space  B) Entire process can be blocked if one thread is blocked
 C) A virtual machine that emulates a separate computer  C) Both (a) and (b)
system  D) Neither (a) nor (b)
 D) A software interrupt that handles asynchronous events Answer: C
Answer: A
pg. 7
 7. Which of the following is an advantage of kernel-level threads? 12. In which multithreading model, only one thread can access the
 A) Better handling of applications that block frequently kernel at a time, preventing multiple threads from running in
 B) Up-to-date information on all threads managed by the parallel on multicore systems?
operating system  A) Many-to-One model
 C) Improved responsiveness for applications requiring  B) One-to-One model
frequent I/O operations  C) Many-to-Many model
 D) All of the above  D) None of the above
Answer: D Answer: A
8. Which of the following is a disadvantage of kernel-level threads? 13. What is the main purpose of thread synchronization?
 A) Faster than user-level threads  A) Ensure that only one thread can access a resource at any
 B) More complex to implement than user-level threads given time
 C) Both (a) and (b)  B) Make sure that all threads run at the same speed
 D) Neither (a) nor (b)  C) Prevent deadlocks during execution
Answer: B  D) Improve CPU utilization
Multithreading Models Answer: A
9. Which multithreading model maps many user-level threads to one 14. A thread is unable to proceed with its execution because it's
kernel thread? waiting for a resource held by another thread. This scenario
 A) Many-to-One model describes:
 B) One-to-One model  A) Deadlock Answer: A
 C) Many-to-Many model  B) Starvation
 D) None of the above  C) Context switching
Answer: A  D) Thread blocking
10. In which multithreading model does each user thread map 15. When multiple threads execute concurrently without
directly to a kernel thread? synchronization, it may lead to:
 A) Many-to-One model  A) Race conditions Answer: D
 B) One-to-One model  B) Deadlocks
 C) Many-to-Many model  C) Starvation
 D) None of the above  D) All of the above
Answer: B 16. The time required to create a new thread in an existing process is
11. Which multithreading model provides more concurrency than generally:
Many-to-One by allowing another thread to run when one thread  A) Greater than creating a new process
makes a blocking system call?  B) Less than creating a new process
 A) Many-to-One model  C) Equal to creating a new process
 B) One-to-One model  D) Double the time required for creating a new process
 C) Many-to-Many model Answer: B
 D) None of the above
Answer: C
pg. 8
 17. Multithreading an interactive program increases responsiveness by  D) None of the above
allowing: Answer: A
1. Background tasks to run while waiting for user input. 4. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process
2. The program to perform multiple tasks simultaneously. that requests it first?
Choose the correct option:  A) Shortest Job First (SJF) Scheduling
 A: Only 1  B) First-Come, First-Served (FCFS) Scheduling
 B: Only 2  C) Priority Scheduling
 C: Both 1 and 2  D) Round Robin Scheduling
 D: Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: B
Answer: C 5. Which scheduling algorithm minimizes average waiting time for
18. Which statement about multithreading in multiprocessor systems processes?
is true?  A) FCFS Scheduling
 A: Threads cannot utilize multiple processors simultaneously.  B) SJF Scheduling
 B: Threads can utilize multiple processors for parallel execution.  C) Round Robin Scheduling
 C: Threads always execute sequentially regardless of processor  D) Priority Scheduling
count. Answer: B
 D: Threads require separate processes for parallel execution on 6. Round Robin scheduling falls under which category?
multiprocessors.  A) Non-preemptive scheduling
Answer: B  B) Preemptive scheduling
1. What is the primary goal of CPU scheduling?  C) Both Non-preemptive and Preemptive scheduling
 A) Minimize CPU usage  D) None of the above
 B) Maximize CPU utilization and throughput Answer: B
 C) Execute processes in random order 7. In priority scheduling, CPU is allocated to the process with:
 D) Prioritize I/O-bound processes over CPU-bound processes  A) The highest priority first
Answer: B  B) The lowest priority first
2. CPU scheduling decisions may take place under which of the  C) Equal priority processes cannot be scheduled
following circumstances?  D) None of the above
 A) When a process switches from running to waiting state Answer: A
 B) When a process switches from running to ready state 8. Which scheduling algorithm is most suitable for real-time
 C) When a process terminates systems?
 D) All of the above  A) FCFS Scheduling
Answer: D  B) Round Robin Scheduling
3. The module that gives control of the CPU to the process selected  C) Preemptive Priority Scheduling
by the short-term scheduler is called:  D) Shortest Job First Scheduling
 A) Dispatcher Answer: C
 B) Scheduler
 C) Interrupt handler

pg. 9
 9. The interval from submission of a process to its completion is called: 15. Which scheduling algorithm ensures that all processes receive
 A) Waiting Time Answer: B equal CPU time slices?
 B) Turnaround Time  A: FCFS Scheduling
 C) Response Time  B: Round Robin Scheduling
 D) Throughput Time  C: Priority Scheduling
10. The number of processes completed per unit time is referred to as:  D: Shortest Job First (SJF) Scheduling
 A) Turnaround Time Answer: B Answer: B
 B) Throughput 1. Which scheduler selects processes from the job pool and loads
 C) Response Time them into memory for execution?
 D) Waiting Time  A) Short-term scheduler
11. What happens if the time quantum in Round Robin scheduling is set too short?  B) Long-term scheduler
 A) Starvation occurs for certain processes Answer: B  C) Medium-term scheduler
 B) Excessive context switching overhead occurs  D) Dispatcher
 C) Average waiting time increases Answer: B
 D) Processes complete faster 2. The short-term scheduler is responsible for:
12. The problem of indefinite blockage of low-priority jobs in priority  A) Selecting which process will be executed next by the CPU
scheduling can be solved using:  B) Moving processes between memory and disk storage
 A) Starvation Answer: B  C) Managing the degree of multiprogramming
 B) Aging  D) None of the above
 C) Preemption Answer: A
 D) Round Robin Scheduling 3. Which scheduler temporarily removes processes from memory
13. Under non-preemptive scheduling, once a process has been and places them in secondary storage?
allocated the CPU, it keeps the CPU until:  A) Long-term scheduler
1. It terminates.  B) Short-term scheduler
2. It switches to the waiting state.  C) Medium-term scheduler
Choose the correct option:  D) Dispatcher
 A: Only 1 Answer: C
B: Only 2 Answer: C 
 C: Both 1 and 2 4. Which of the following is true about the long-term scheduler?
 D: Neither 1 nor 2  A) It executes more frequently than the short-term
14. In Round Robin scheduling, using very large time slices converts it scheduler.
into which algorithm?  B) It controls the degree of multiprogramming.
 A: Shortest Job First (SJF) Scheduling  C) It selects processes from the ready queue.
 B: First-Come, First-Served (FCFS) Scheduling  D) It is invoked every time a process terminates.
 C: Priority Scheduling Answer: B
 D: None of the above
Answer: B
pg. 10
 5. The dispatcher is responsible for: 10. In priority scheduling, CPU is allocated to the process with:
 A) Assigning ready processes to the waiting queue  A) The highest priority first
 B) Assigning running processes to blocked queues  B) The lowest priority first
 C) Giving control of the CPU to the process selected by the  C) Equal priority processes cannot be scheduled
short-term scheduler  D) None of the above
 D) Managing I/O devices for processes in memory Answer: A
Answer: C 11. What happens if the time quantum in Round Robin scheduling is
6. In which scheduling algorithm is the process that requests the CPU set too small?
first allocated the CPU first?  A) Starvation occurs for certain processes
 A) Priority Scheduling  B) Excessive context switching overhead occurs
 B) Shortest Job First (SJF) Scheduling  C) Average waiting time increases
 C) First-Come, First-Served (FCFS) Scheduling  D) Processes complete faster
 D) Round Robin Scheduling Answer: B
Answer: C 12. The interval from submission of a process to its completion is
7. Which scheduling algorithm assigns a fixed time slice to each called:
process in a circular order?  A) Waiting Time
 A) Priority Scheduling  B) Turnaround Time
 B) Round Robin Scheduling  C) Response Time
 C) Shortest Job First (SJF) Scheduling  D) Throughput Time
 D) First-Come, First-Served (FCFS) Scheduling Answer: B
Answer: B 13. The number of processes completed per unit time is referred to
8. Which scheduling algorithm is most suitable for real-time as:
systems?  A) Turnaround Time
 A) Round Robin Scheduling  B) Throughput
 B) Preemptive Priority Scheduling  C) Response Time
 C) First-Come, First-Served (FCFS) Scheduling  D) Waiting Time
 D) Shortest Job First (SJF) Scheduling Answer: B
Answer: B Advanced Questions
9. Which scheduling algorithm can lead to starvation if shorter 14. The problem of indefinite blockage of low-priority jobs in priority
processes keep arriving? scheduling can be solved using:
 A) Round Robin Scheduling  A) Starvation
 B) Shortest Job First (SJF) Scheduling  B) Aging
 C) Priority Scheduling  C) Preemption
 D) Both B and C  D) Round Robin Scheduling
Answer: D Answer: B

pg. 11
 15. Which type of scheduling ensures that all processes receive equal 4. In symmetric multiprocessing (SMP), each processor:
CPU time slices?  A) Has its own private memory and I/O devices
 A) FCFS Scheduling  B) Schedules its own jobs from a common or private ready
 B) Round Robin Scheduling queue
 C) Priority Scheduling  C) Acts as a master server for other processors
 D) Shortest Job First (SJF) Scheduling  D) Does not perform scheduling tasks independently
Answer: B Answer: B
 5. In asymmetric multiprocessing (AMP), the master processor:
16. In real-time systems, which type of scheduling is most suitable?  A) Handles all scheduling and I/O operations while slave
1. Preemptive Priority-Based Scheduling processors handle user processes
2. Rate Monotonic Scheduling  B) Shares scheduling tasks equally with slave processors
Choose the correct option:  C) Does not perform any scheduling tasks
 A: Only 1  D) Is used only for real-time systems
 B: Only 2 Answer: A
 C: Both 1 and 2 6. Which approach uses a global ready queue for scheduling in SMP
 D: Neither 1 nor 2 systems?
Answer: C  A) Symmetrical Scheduling with per queues
1. What is the main goal of multiple processor scheduling?  B) Symmetrical Scheduling with global queues
 A) To minimize CPU utilization  C) Asymmetric Multiprocessing (AMP)
 B) To efficiently utilize multiple processors for concurrent  D) Dynamic Scheduling
execution of processes Answer: B
 C) To reduce memory usage Processor Affinity
 D) To prioritize I/O-bound processes over CPU-bound 7. What is processor affinity in multiprocessor scheduling?
processes  A) The ability of processes to migrate freely between
Answer: B processors without constraints
2. In a multiprocessor system, the processors share:  B) The tendency to keep a process running on the same
 A) Separate memory and buses processor to avoid cache invalidation costs
 B) Common memory, bus, and I/O devices  C) The allocation of processes based on priority levels only
 C) Only I/O devices  D) None of the above
 D) None of the above Answer: B
Answer: B 8. Which type of processor affinity allows the system to attempt to
3. Which type of system continues to work even if one processor fails? keep processes on the same processor but does not guarantee it?
 A) Asymmetric Multiprocessing (AMP)  A) Hard Affinity
 B) Symmetric Multiprocessing (SMP)  B) Soft Affinity
 C) Single Processor System  C) Dynamic Affinity
 D) None of the above  D) Static Affinity
Answer: B Answer: B
pg. 12
 9. Which operating system feature supports hard affinity for 14. What happens when a process migrates from one processor to another?
processes? 1. Cache memory of the first processor becomes invalidated.
 A) sched_setaffinity() system call in Linux 2. Cache memory of the second processor must be
 B) Windows Task Manager settings repopulated.
 C) Dynamic Load Balancing algorithms Choose the correct option:
 D) None of the above  A: Only 1
Answer: A  B: Only 2
10. Which algorithm assigns time quanta equally across all processors  C: Both 1 and 2
in a multiprocessor system?  D: Neither 1 nor 2
 A) Priority Scheduling Answer: B Answer: C
 B) Round Robin Scheduling 15. Load sharing in multiprocessor systems refers to:
 C) Shortest Job First (SJF) Scheduling  A: Assigning processes randomly across processors
 D) Fair-Share Scheduling  B: Balancing workload among multiple processors to ensure
11. In priority scheduling for multiprocessor systems, which process is efficient utilization
executed first?  C: Prioritizing specific processors over others for certain
 A) The process with the lowest priority Answer: B tasks
 B) The process with the highest priority  D: Limiting process execution to one processor only
 C) Processes are executed randomly Answer: B
 D) Processes are executed based on arrival time Basic Concepts
12. Fair-share scheduling ensures that: 1. What is the primary requirement of a real-time operating system
 A) Each process gets an equal amount of CPU time (RTOS)?
regardless of priority  A) High throughput
 B) Processes are scheduled based on their priority levels  B) Meeting time constraints and deadlines
only  C) Low CPU utilization
 C) CPU time is allocated based on the number of processors  D) Random process execution
and process priority Answer: B
 D) Only short processes are prioritized 2. In a real-time operating system, interrupt latency should be:
Answer: C  A) Maximum
13. One major challenge in multiprocessor scheduling is:  B) Minimal
 A) Cache affinity issues due to process migration between  C) Zero
processors  D) Dependent on the scheduling algorithm
 B) Lack of memory sharing among processors Answer: B
 C) Reduced parallelism due to asymmetric multiprocessing 3. Which type of jitter is desirable in a hard real-time operating
 D) Increased CPU utilization without load balancing system compared to a soft real-time operating system?
Answer: A  A) More jitter
 B) Less jitter
 C) Equal jitter
pg. 13
  D) No jitter at all  B) Deadline period
Answer: B  C) Burst time
Real-Time Scheduling Algorithms  D) Priority level only
4. Rate Monotonic Scheduling (RMS) assigns priorities based on: 10. In dynamic planning-based scheduling, an attempt to create a
 A) Deadlines of tasks schedule is made:
 B) Duration of tasks (shorter duration gets higher priority)  A) Before the task arrives
 C) Arrival times of tasks  B) After the task arrives but before execution begins
 D) None of the above  C) After execution begins
Answer: B  D) None of the above
 Answer: B
5. Earliest Deadline First (EDF) scheduling assigns priorities based on: 11. Which approach is used by many commercially available real-time
 A) Task periods systems?
 B) Task deadlines (earlier deadline gets higher priority)  A) Static table-driven scheduling
 C) Burst times of tasks  B) Dynamic best-effort scheduling
 D) None of the above  C) Static priority-driven preemptive scheduling
Answer: B  D) Dynamic planning-based scheduling
6. Which scheduling algorithm is optimal for uniprocessor systems in Answer: C
real-time environments? 12. What happens if two processes cannot meet their deadlines using
 A) Rate Monotonic Scheduling (RMS) EDF scheduling?
 B) Earliest Deadline First (EDF) 1. The system fails to schedule both processes successfully.
 C) Round Robin Scheduling 2. The processes are scheduled based on priorities.
 D) First-Come, First-Served (FCFS) Scheduling Choose the correct option:
Answer: B  A: Only 1
7. Which scheduling algorithm is commonly used for periodic tasks  B: Only 2
in real-time systems?  C: Both 1 and 2
 A) Static table-driven scheduling  D: Neither 1 nor 2
 B) Dynamic best-effort scheduling Answer: A
 C) Static priority-driven preemptive scheduling 13. Which type of real-time system requires deterministic results
 D) Earliest Deadline First (EDF) Scheduling within strict deadlines?
Answer: A  A: Hard Real-Time System
8. What is the base for scheduling algorithms in real-time systems?  B: Soft Real-Time System
 A) Worst Case Execution Time (WCET) Answer: A  C: Embedded System
 B) Arrival Time  D: Distributed System
 C) Burst Time Answer: A
 D) Address Accessing Time 14. A process P1 has a period of 50 ms and CPU burst time of 25 ms,
9. A process in a real-time system must be serviced by its: while P2 has a period of 80 ms and CPU burst time of 35 ms. Can
 A) Arrival time Answer: B these processes be scheduled using EDF without missing
pg. 14
 deadlines?  D) Critical condition
Total utilization = 2550+3580=0.905025+8035=0.90. 3. If a process is executing in its critical section, then no other
Choose the correct option: processes can execute in their critical section. What is this
 A: Yes, utilization is less than or equal to 1.0 condition called?
 B: No, utilization exceeds 0.75 for EDF feasibility test  A) Mutual exclusion
 C: No, utilization exceeds 1.0 for EDF feasibility test  B) Critical exclusion
 D: Cannot be determined without more information  C) Synchronous exclusion
Answer: A  D) Asynchronous exclusion
Answer: A25
15. Which feature makes preemptive scheduling suitable for real-time 4. Which synchronization tool is commonly used to manage access to
systems? shared resources?
 A: It allows high-priority processes to interrupt lower-  A) Thread
priority ones immediately.  B) Pipe
 B: It minimizes context switching overheads.  C) Semaphore
 C: It ensures equal CPU time allocation to all processes.  D) Socket
 D: It reduces memory usage during execution. Answer: C5
Answer: A 5. What is a semaphore used for in process synchronization?
16. The interrupt latency in real-time systems refers to:  A) To enable communication between processes
 A: The time taken to complete a task after its arrival  B) To control access to shared resources and ensure mutual
 B: The time between generation of an interrupt and exclusion
execution of its service routine  C) To allocate memory dynamically among processes
 C: The time taken by the scheduler to allocate CPU time to a  D) None of the above
process Answer: B15
 D: None of the above 6. The hardware implementation that provides mutual exclusion is
Answer: B called:
Basic Concepts  A) Semaphore
1. Which process can be affected by other processes executing in the  B) TestAndSet mechanism
system?  C) Mutex lock
 A) Cooperating process Answer: A2  D) Monitor-based synchronization scheme
 B) Child process Answer: B1
 C) Parent process 7. Which of the following statements are TRUE about mutual
 D) Init process exclusion in concurrent programming?
2. When several processes access the same data concurrently and (A) Mutual exclusion ensures that only one process can be in a
the outcome depends on the order of access, this is called: critical section at any given time.
 A) Dynamic condition Answer: B25 (B) It prevents conflicts and ensures exclusive access to shared
 B) Race condition resources.
 C) Essential condition (C) It uses algorithms like Peterson’s and Bakery algorithms to
pg. 15
 prevent simultaneous access. Process P1: while(true){ w1 = true; while(w2 == true); Critical
(D) It allows multiple processes to access the critical section section w1 = false; } Remainder Section
simultaneously. Process P2: while(true){ w2 = true; while(w1 == true); Critical
Choose the correct answer: section w2 = false; } Remainder Section
 A: (A), (B), (C) only Choose the correct statement:
 B: (A), (B), (D) only  A: It does not ensure mutual exclusion
 C: All of the above  B: It does not ensure bounded waiting
 D: None of the above  C: It requires strict alternation between processes entering
Answer: A1 critical sections
8. What happens if multiple processes try to access shared data  D: It does not prevent deadlocks but ensures mutual
without synchronization? exclusion
 A) Deadlock occurs immediately Answer: D3
 B) Race conditions occur, leading to unpredictable outcomes 12. Consider three concurrent processes P1, P2, and P3 accessing a
 C) Processes execute sequentially without issues shared variable initialized to 100 with
 D) The operating system automatically resolves conflicts operations D=D+20, D=D+50, D=D+10. The maximum and
Answer: B25 minimum possible values of DD, after execution, differ by:
9. To overcome difficulties in Readers-Writers problem, which of the  A: 50
following statement(s) is/are true?  B: 60
1. Writers are given exclusive access to shared objects.  C: 80
2. Readers are given exclusive access to shared objects.  D: 100
3. Both readers and writers are given exclusive access Answer: C1
simultaneously. 13. In a monitor-based synchronization scheme, which operations are
Choose the correct answer: allowed on a condition variable xx?
 A: Only 1 I: Only wait() and signal() operations can be invoked on xx.
 B: Only 2 II: If a process invokes x.wait(), it is suspended until another process
 C: Both 1 and 3 invokes x.signal().
 D: None of the above III: The x.signal() operation resumes exactly one suspended process
Answer: A1 or has no effect if no process is suspended.
10. What will happen if a non-recursive mutex is locked more than Choose the correct answer:
once by the same thread?  A: I only
 A) Deadlock occurs as no thread can unlock it again.  B: II only
 B) The mutex unlocks automatically after some time.  C: I and II only
 C) The thread continues execution without any issue.  D: All of the above
 D) None of the above. Answer: D
Answer: A3 Basic Concepts
11. Which of the following synchronization constructs ensures mutual 1. What is a deadlock in an operating system?
exclusion but does not prevent deadlocks?
pg. 16
  A) A situation where processes execute without waiting for  B) Allowing preemption of resources
resources  C) Allocating all resources at once to processes
 B) A situation where a set of processes are blocked because  D) All of the above
each process is holding a resource and waiting for another Answer: D
resource held by another process 6. Which strategy ensures that no process holds resources while
 C) A condition where processes are terminated due to waiting for additional resources?
resource unavailability  A) Mutual exclusion prevention
 D) None of the above  B) Hold and wait prevention
Answer: B  C) Circular wait prevention
2. Which of the following conditions must hold simultaneously for a  D) No preemption enforcement
deadlock to occur? Answer: B
 A) Mutual exclusion, Hold and wait, No preemption, Circular Deadlock Detection and Recovery
wait 7. A system is in a safe state if:
 B) Mutual exclusion, Resource sharing, Preemption, Circular  A) The system can allocate resources to each process in
wait some order and still avoid a deadlock
 C) Hold and wait, Preemption, Resource allocation  B) All processes can execute simultaneously without waiting
 D) None of the above for resources
Answer: A  C) Deadlock has already occurred but can be resolved
3. Which condition for deadlock states that at least one resource dynamically
must be held in a non-sharable mode?  D) None of the above
 A) Hold and Wait Answer: A
 B) Mutual Exclusion 8. The operating system uses which tool to detect deadlocks?
 C) No Preemption  A) Resource Allocation Graph (RAG)
 D) Circular Wait  B) Process Control Block (PCB)
Answer: B  C) Semaphore Table
Deadlock Prevention  D) Thread Scheduler
4. Deadlock prevention techniques ensure that: Answer: A
 A) All necessary conditions for deadlock are allowed to 9. Which of the following is NOT a method for handling deadlocks?
occur  A) Deadlock prevention
 B) At least one of the necessary conditions for deadlock  B) Deadlock detection and recovery
does not hold  C) Ignoring the problem
 C) Resources are forcibly removed from processes in a  D) Increasing CPU speed
deadlock state Answer: D
 D) Processes are terminated when a deadlock occurs 10. In deadlock recovery, which method involves terminating one or
Answer: B more processes to break the circular wait?
5. The circular wait condition can be prevented by:  A) Process Preemption
 A) Defining a linear ordering of resource types  B) Resource Allocation
pg. 17
  C) Process Termination 1. Reusable resources (e.g., CPU cycles, memory).
 D) Safe Sequence Generation 2. Consumable resources (e.g., signals, messages).
Answer: C Choose the correct answer:
Advanced Questions  A: Only 1
11. In Banker's Algorithm, the system is considered safe if:  B: Only 2
 A) There exists at least one safe sequence of process  C: Both 1 and 2
execution  D: Neither 1 nor 2
 B) All processes are allocated their maximum resource Answer: C
needs immediately 15. In which situation will adding one more unit of a resource prevent
 C) Deadlocks are ignored during execution deadlocks?
 D) Resources are allocated randomly to processes For n×(r−1)+1≤R, adding one unit ensures at least one process
Answer: A completes execution.
12. If there are 4 processes each requiring 5 units of a resource, what Choose the correct answer:
is the minimum number of units required to ensure no deadlock  A: When all processes are requesting maximum resources
occurs? simultaneously
Formula: n×(r−1)+1,  B: When at least one process can finish execution after
where n=number of processes,r=maximum resource need per proc receiving additional resources
essn=number of processes,r=maximum resource need per process.  C: When no process holds any resource currently
4×(5−1)+1=17.  D: None of the above
Choose the correct answer: Answer: B
 A: 16 Basic Concepts
 B: 17 1. Deadlock prevention techniques ensure that:
 C: 18  A) All four necessary conditions for deadlock are allowed
 D: 20  B) At least one necessary condition for deadlock cannot hold
Answer: B  C) Resources are preempted only from terminated
13. What happens if a process requests a resource that is currently processes
unavailable in Banker's Algorithm?  D) None of the above
1. The request is denied immediately. Answer: B24
2. The system checks if granting the request keeps it in a safe 2. Which condition is violated to prevent "hold and wait"?
state.  A) Requiring processes to request all resources before
Choose the correct option: execution
 A: Only 1  B) Allowing processes to hold resources while requesting
 B: Only 2 others
 C: Both 1 and 2  C) Using non-sharable resources only
 D: Neither 1 nor 2  D) Enforcing circular resource ordering
Answer: B Answer: A24
14. Which type of resources can lead to deadlocks? 3. The "no preemption" condition is prevented by:
pg. 18
  A) Allowing resources to be forcibly taken from waiting  A) If a process waits for a resource, all its held resources are
processes released
 B) Requiring processes to release all resources before  B) Processes must request resources in a fixed order
requesting new ones  C) Resources are allocated only to high-priority processes
 C) Using only sharable resources  D) None of the above
 D) Defining a linear resource hierarchy Answer: A24
Answer: A24 9. Preemption is most suitable for resources like:
Mutual Exclusion Prevention  A) Printers
4. Mutual exclusion can be prevented by:  B) CPU registers and memory
 A) Using only non-sharable resources  C) Database locks
 B) Ensuring all resources are inherently sharable  D) Cryptographic keys
 C) Prioritizing I/O-bound processes Answer: B24
 D) None of the above Circular Wait Prevention
Answer: B27 10. To prevent circular waits, resources are:
5. Which resource type inherently violates mutual exclusion?  A) Assigned unique numeric IDs and requested in ascending
 A) Printer order
 B) Read-only files  B) Allocated randomly
 C) CPU registers  C) Shared among all processes equally
 D) Mutex locks  D) Preempted after a fixed time quantum
Answer: B27 Answer: A24
Hold and Wait Prevention 11. If a process holds resource R1, it can next request:
6. The "hold and wait" protocol requires processes to:  A) Only resources with IDs > R1
 A) Request all resources upfront or release all before new  B) Only resources with IDs < R1
requests  C) Any resource except R1
 B) Hold at least one resource indefinitely  D) Resources in any order
 C) Share resources with other processes Answer: A24
 D) Preempt resources from low-priority processes Advanced Questions
Answer: A24 12. Using the formula n×(r−1)+1n×(r−1)+1, calculate the minimum
7. A disadvantage of the "request all resources upfront" protocol is: resources needed to prevent deadlock for 5 processes requiring 3
 A) Increased risk of deadlock units each.
 B) Low resource utilization  A) 11
 C) Frequent context switching  B) 13
 D) Starvation of high-priority processes  C) 15
Answer: B27  D) 17
No Preemption Prevention Answer: A38
8. Which protocol allows resource preemption in deadlock Explanation: 5×(3−1)+1=115×(3−1)+1=11.
prevention? 13. Which statement about the Banker’s Algorithm is FALSE?
pg. 19
  A) It requires processes to declare maximum resource needs  C) 2 and 3
upfront  D) All of the above
 B) It detects deadlocks after they occur Answer: D
 C) It ensures the system remains in a safe state Mutual Exclusion
 D) It uses available resources and current allocations for 1. Which condition ensures a resource is used by only one process at
decisions a time?
Answer: B37  A) Hold and Wait
 B) Mutual Exclusion
 C) No Preemption
 D) Circular Wait
Answer: B
Explanation: Mutual exclusion prevents simultaneous
access to non-sharable resources like printers[^1][^6].
14. A system with 12 resources and 3 processes (max needs: 7, 6, 5) is 2. Mutual exclusion can be enforced using:
in a safe state if current allocations are:  A) Semaphores
Proces Current Max  B) TestAndSet instruction
s  C) Monitors
 D) All of the above
P1 3 7 Answer: D
Explanation: These mechanisms ensure only one process
P2 1 6 accesses a critical section[^1][^6].
Hold and Wait
P3 3 5 3. To prevent "hold and wait," a process must:
 A) Safe sequence exists  A) Release all resources before requesting new ones
 B) Deadlock is inevitable  B) Request all resources upfront
 C) Only P3 can execute  C) Allow resource preemption
 D) None of the above  D) Both A and B
Answer: A36 Answer: D
Explanation: Available = 12 - (3+1+3) = 5. P3 (needs 2) → P1 Explanation: Processes either request all resources initially
(needs 4) → P2 (needs 5). or release current resources before new requests[^2][^4].
15. Side effects of deadlock prevention include: 4. A disadvantage of the "request all resources upfront" protocol is:
1. Low device utilization  A) High resource utilization
2. Reduced throughput  B) Low resource utilization
3. Starvation  C) Increased throughput
 A) 1 and 2  D) Reduced context switching
 B) 1 and 3 Answer: B

pg. 20
 Explanation: Resources may remain idle if allocated but Combined Concepts
unused[^2][^4]. 9. For a deadlock to occur, which conditions must hold
No Preemption simultaneously?
5. No preemption is prevented by:  A) Mutual Exclusion, Hold and Wait
 A) Allowing processes to retain resources indefinitely  B) No Preemption, Circular Wait
 B) Forcibly taking resources from waiting processes  C) All four conditions
 C) Using circular resource ordering  D) None of the above
 D) None of the above Answer: C
Answer: B Explanation: All four conditions (mutual exclusion, hold and
Explanation: Resources held by a process are preempted if wait, no preemption, circular wait) are necessary[^2][^4].
another request cannot be granted[^2][^5]. 10. Using the formula n×(r−1)+1n×(r−1)+1, calculate the minimum
6. Preemption is suitable for resources like: resources to prevent deadlock for 6 processes needing 4 units
 A) Printers each.
 B) CPU registers  A) 19
 C) Database locks  B) 21
 D) Cryptographic keys  C) 23
Answer: B  D) 25
Explanation: CPU registers can be easily saved/restored, Answer: A
making preemption feasible[^2][^5]. Explanation: 6×(4−1)+1=196×(4−1)+1=19. This ensures at
Circular Wait least one process completes[^5].
7. Circular wait is prevented by: Advanced Questions
 A) Assigning numeric IDs to resources and requesting them 11. Which statement about the Banker’s Algorithm is FALSE?
in order  A) It detects deadlocks after they occur
 B) Allowing random resource requests  B) It requires processes to declare maximum resource needs
 C) Using priority-based scheduling upfront
 D) None of the above  C) It ensures the system remains in a safe state
Answer: A  D) It uses available resources for allocation decisions
Explanation: Linear ordering prevents cyclic Answer: A
dependencies[^5][^6]. Explanation: Banker’s Algorithm prevents deadlocks, not
8. If a process holds resource R1, it can next request: detects them[^3][^5].
 A) Only resources with IDs > R1 12. In a system with 15 resources and 4 processes (max needs: 5, 6, 7,
 B) Only resources with IDs < R1 8), the safe sequence is determined by:
 C) Any resource except R1  A) Granting requests only if they lead to a safe state
 D) Resources in any order  B) Allowing random resource allocation
Answer: A  C) Ignoring process priorities
Explanation: Ensures no circular chain of waiting  D) None of the above
processes[^5][^6]. Answer: A
pg. 21
 Explanation: Banker’s Algorithm checks for safe states  B) Logical address
before granting requests  C) Absolute address
Basic Concepts  D) None of the above
1. What is the primary purpose of memory management in an Answer: B
operating system? Explanation: The CPU generates logical addresses, which are
 A) To allocate CPU resources to processes then mapped to physical addresses by the Memory
 B) To manage the allocation and deallocation of memory to Management Unit (MMU)6.
processes Memory Management Techniques
 C) To schedule processes for execution 5. What is paging in memory management?
 D) To manage I/O devices  A) Dividing physical memory into variable-sized blocks called
Answer: B segments
Explanation: Memory management ensures efficient  B) Dividing physical memory into fixed-sized blocks called
allocation and deallocation of memory to processes, frames and mapping them to pages in logical memory
enabling multitasking and optimal utilization of resources67.  C) Allocating contiguous blocks of memory to processes
2. Which type of memory is used as the main memory in a computer  D) Swapping processes between main memory and
system? secondary storage
 A) DRAM Answer: B
 B) SRAM Explanation: Paging divides physical memory into fixed-size
 C) ROM frames and logical memory into pages, allowing non-
 D) Cache contiguous allocation46.
Answer: A 6. What is segmentation in memory management?
Explanation: DRAM (Dynamic Random Access Memory) is  A) Dividing physical memory into fixed-sized blocks called
widely used as the main memory due to its cost- frames
effectiveness and ability to store large amounts of data15.  B) Dividing logical memory into variable-sized segments
3. What is virtual memory? based on program modules (e.g., code, data, stack)
 A) Memory that exists only in the CPU registers  C) Allocating contiguous blocks of memory to processes
 B) A technique that uses secondary storage as an extension dynamically
of physical memory  D) Swapping pages between main memory and secondary
 C) High-speed buffer memory between CPU and RAM storage
 D) Memory used exclusively by the operating system kernel Answer: B
Answer: B Explanation: Segmentation divides logical memory into
Explanation: Virtual memory allows a computer to variable-sized segments, reflecting the program's structure
compensate for physical memory limitations by temporarily (e.g., code, data, stack)45.
storing data on secondary storage (e.g., hard drives or 7. What is fragmentation in memory management?
SSDs)27.  A) The inability to allocate contiguous blocks of free space to
4. Which one of the following is the address generated by the CPU? a process due to scattered free space
 A) Physical address  B) The process of dividing logical addresses into pages
pg. 22
  C) The process of swapping pages between main and  B) Segmentation with variable-sized partitions
secondary storage  C) Fixed partitioning
 D) None of the above  D) Dynamic partitioning
Answer: A Answer: B
Explanation: Fragmentation occurs when free space is Explanation: Segmentation with variable-sized partitions
scattered across memory, making it difficult to allocate can lead to external fragmentation due to scattered free
contiguous blocks27. space7.
8. Which type of fragmentation occurs in paging systems? 12. In which scenario does thrashing occur?
 A) Internal fragmentation 1. When a process spends more time swapping pages than
 B) External fragmentation executing instructions.
 C) Both internal and external fragmentation 2. When there are too many active processes competing for
 D) None of the above limited physical memory.
Answer: A Choose the correct option:
Explanation: Paging systems suffer from internal  A: Only 1
fragmentation because allocated pages may not be fully  B: Only 2
utilized46.  C: Both 1 and 2
Advanced Concepts  D: Neither 1 nor 2
9. What does a page table store? Answer: C
 A) The base address of each segment in physical memory Explanation: Thrashing occurs when excessive paging reduces system
 B) The base address of each page in physical memory performance due to insufficient physical memory47.
 C) The logical addresses generated by the CPU Summary Table for Key Concepts
 D) The size of each page in virtual memory Concept Description
Answer: B
Explanation: The page table maps logical pages to their Divides logical/physical memory into fixed-size blocks
corresponding frames in physical memory46. Paging (pages/frames)4.
10. Which component performs runtime mapping from virtual
addresses to physical addresses? Divides logical memory into variable-size segments based
 A) CPU Scheduler
Segmentation on program structure5.
 B) Memory Management Unit (MMU)
 C) Page Table Register
Virtual Extends physical memory using secondary storage for
 D) Operating System Kernel
Memory multitasking2.
Answer: B
Explanation: The MMU translates virtual addresses Scattered free space causing inefficient allocation
generated by the CPU into physical addresses during Fragmentation (internal/external)7.
runtime6. Basic Concepts
11. Which type of allocation policy leads to external fragmentation? 1. In paging, physical memory is divided into fixed-sized blocks
 A) Paging called:
pg. 23
  A) Pages 5. What does the page table store?
 B) Frames  A) The base address of each segment in memory
 C) Segments  B) The frame number corresponding to each page in
 D) Partitions physical memory
Answer: B  C) The logical addresses of all processes in memory
Explanation: Physical memory is divided into fixed-sized  D) The size of each page in virtual memory
blocks called frames, while logical memory is divided into Answer: B
pages of the same size5. Explanation: The page table maps logical pages to their
2. Logical memory is divided into blocks of the same size called: corresponding frames in physical memory35.
 A) Frames 6. Which part of the logical address is used as an index into the page
 B) Pages table?
 C) Backing store  A) Page offset
 D) Segments  B) Frame bit
Answer: B  C) Page number
Explanation: Logical memory is divided into fixed-size blocks  D) Frame offset
called pages, which correspond to frames in physical Answer: C
memory5. Explanation: The page number acts as an index into the
3. Every address generated by the CPU is divided into two parts. page table to retrieve the corresponding frame number5.
They are: 7. Paging eliminates which type of fragmentation?
 A) Frame bit & page number  A) Internal fragmentation
 B) Page number & page offset  B) External fragmentation
 C) Page offset & frame bit  C) Both internal and external fragmentation
 D) Frame offset & page offset  D) None of the above
Answer: B Answer: B
Explanation: The logical address generated by the CPU Explanation: Paging eliminates external fragmentation
consists of a page number and a page offset5. because it allows non-contiguous allocation of physical
4. The size of a page is typically: memory34.
 A) Fixed and determined by the hardware 8. Paging suffers from which type of fragmentation?
 B) Variable and determined by the process requirements  A) Internal fragmentation
 C) Fixed and determined by the operating system  B) External fragmentation
dynamically  C) Both internal and external fragmentation
 D) Variable and determined at runtime  D) None of the above
Answer: A Answer: A
Explanation: The size of a page is fixed and determined by Explanation: Internal fragmentation occurs when a process
the hardware, typically a power of 2 for efficient address does not fully utilize the last allocated page13.
translation35. Advanced Concepts
Paging Mechanisms
pg. 24
 9. Which hardware component performs runtime mapping from  B: Only 2
virtual addresses to physical addresses in paging?  C: Both 1 and 2
 A) CPU Scheduler  D: Neither 1 nor 2
 B) Memory Management Unit (MMU) Answer: C
 C) Page Table Register Explanation: Smaller pages reduce internal fragmentation but increase the
 D) Operating System Kernel size of page tables due to more entries being required3.
Answer: B Summary Table for Key Concepts
Explanation: The MMU translates virtual addresses Concept Description
generated by the CPU into physical addresses during
runtime using the page table35. Frames Fixed-size blocks in physical memory5.
10. What happens when a requested page is not present in main
memory? Fixed-size blocks in logical memory corresponding to
 A) Segmentation fault occurs
Pages frames5.
 B) Page fault occurs
 C) Process terminates immediately
Performed using MMU with logical address split into
 D) Process continues execution without interruption
Address Translation page number and offset3.
Answer: B
Explanation: A page fault occurs when a requested page is Internal
not present in main memory, prompting the operating Fragmentation Occurs when allocated pages are not fully utilized13.
system to load it from secondary storage45.
External Eliminated by paging due to non-contiguous
11. Which statement about paging is FALSE?
Fragmentation allocation34.
1. Paging eliminates both internal and external fragmentation.
2. Paging allows processes to be stored non-contiguously in Basic Concepts
memory. 1. In segmentation, each address is specified by:
Choose the correct option:  A) A page number and offset
 A: Only 1  B) A segment number and offset
 B: Only 2  C) A frame number and offset
 C: Both 1 and 2  D) None of the above
 D: Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: B
Answer: A Explanation: In segmentation, the logical address consists of
Explanation: Paging eliminates external fragmentation but may suffer from a segment number and an offset within that segment.
internal fragmentation34. 2. What does the segment table store?
12. A small page size causes which effect on paging?  A) The base address and limit of each segment
1. Larger page tables are required.  B) The page number and frame number of each segment
2. Internal fragmentation decreases.  C) The size of each page in the segment
Choose the correct option:  D) The logical addresses of all processes in memory
 A: Only 1 Answer: A
pg. 25
 Explanation: The segment table contains the base address  A) Offset must be greater than or equal to the limit value.
(starting physical address) and the limit (length) for each  B) Offset must be less than or equal to the base value.
segment.  C) Offset must be less than the limit value for that segment.
3. Segmentation divides the memory into:  D) None of the above.
 A) Fixed-size blocks called frames Answer: C
 B) Variable-size segments based on logical divisions like 8. If a segment has a base address of 2200 and a limit of 500, what
code, data, stack happens if a process tries to access offset 600?
 C) Equal-sized pages for efficient allocation  A) Access is allowed, and physical address is calculated as
 D) None of the above 2800.
Answer: B  B) Access is denied as it exceeds the segment limit, causing a
Explanation: Segmentation divides memory into variable- trap.
sized segments that correspond to logical divisions in a  C) Access is allowed but results in an incorrect physical
program. address.
4. Which type of fragmentation occurs in segmentation?  D) None of the above.
 A) Internal fragmentation Answer: B
 B) External fragmentation Advanced Questions
 C) Both internal and external fragmentation 9. What happens when two processes have entries in their segment
 D) None of the above tables pointing to the same physical location?
Answer: B  A) Segments are invalidated.
Explanation: Segmentation suffers from external  B) Processes get blocked from execution.
fragmentation because free memory space may become  C) Segments are shared between processes.
scattered across physical memory.  D) All processes terminate due to conflicts.
Mechanisms and Calculations Answer: C
5. The base register in a segment table contains: 10. Which statement about segmentation is FALSE?
 A) The starting logical address of the process 1. Segmentation divides memory into fixed-size blocks called
 B) The starting physical address of the segment in memory pages.
 C) The total length of the segment in memory 2. Segmentation uses a base and limit register for each
 D) None of the above segment.
Answer: B Choose the correct option:
6. The limit register in a segment table contains:  A: Only 1
 A) The starting logical address of the process  B: Only 2
 B) The starting physical address of the segment in memory  C: Both 1 and 2
 C) The length (size) of the segment in memory  D: Neither 1 nor 2
 D) None of the above Answer: A
Answer: C Explanation: Segmentation divides memory into variable-sized
7. If a logical address is represented as <Segment Number, Offset>, segments, not fixed-size pages.
what condition must be satisfied for it to be valid?
pg. 26
 11. Consider a system with segmentation where Segment 0 has a base  C) A memory allocation technique for cache
address = 1000 and limit = 400, Segment 1 has base = 2000 and  D) None of the above
limit = 300. If a process requests logical address <1,350>, what will Answer: B
happen? Explanation: Virtual memory allows processes to execute
 A: Access is allowed; physical address = 2350 even if they are larger than the available physical memory
 B: Access is denied as it exceeds Segment 1's limit, causing a by using secondary storage.
trap 2. Which of the following is true about virtual memory?
 C: Access is allowed; physical address = 2050  A) It eliminates the need for physical memory
 D: None of the above  B) It uses secondary storage to extend the apparent size of
Answer: A RAM
12. If there are 32 segments, each with a size of 1 KB, how many bits  C) It does not use paging or segmentation
are required for addressing?  D) It is slower than physical memory but faster than cache
 A: 13 bits Answer: B
 B: 14 bits 3. The size of virtual memory depends on:
 C: 15 bits  A) The size of the address bus
 D: 16 bits  B) The size of RAM only
Answer: C  C) The size of the secondary storage only
Explanation: For addressing, we  D) The number of processes running in the system
need log⁡2(32 segments)=5 bitslog2(32 segments)=5 bits, Answer: A
plus log⁡2(1 KB)=10 bitslog2(1 KB)=10 bits, 4. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address
totaling 5+10=155+10=15. space but not loaded in physical memory, it causes a:
Summary Table for Key Concepts  A) Segmentation fault
Concept Description  B) Page fault
 C) Thrashing
Base Register Stores starting physical address for each segment  D) Deadlock
Answer: B
Limit Register Stores length (size) of each segment Paging and Demand Paging
5. Virtual memory can be implemented via:
Address Validation Offset must be less than or equal to limit  A) Simple division
 B) Logical paging or demand paging
Fragmentation  C) Complex division only
Type Suffers from external fragmentation  D) None of the above
Basic Concepts Answer: B
1. What is virtual memory? 6. Demand paging refers to:
 A) A type of physical memory  A) Loading all pages of a process into physical memory
 B) A memory management technique that allows execution before execution starts
of processes larger than physical memory
pg. 27
  B) Loading pages into physical memory only when they are 11. Which algorithm gives the best performance but is difficult to
required for execution implement because it requires future knowledge?
 C) Allocating contiguous blocks of memory to processes  A) FIFO
dynamically  B) LRU
 D) Swapping entire processes between main and secondary  C) Optimal Page Replacement
memory  D) Clock Algorithm
Answer: B Answer: C
7. What happens when a page fault occurs? Advanced Concepts
 A) The process is terminated immediately 12. Thrashing occurs when:
 B) The operating system retrieves the required page from 1. Processes spend more time swapping pages than executing
secondary storage instructions.
 C) The CPU continues executing without interruption 2. There is insufficient physical memory for active processes.
 D) None of the above Choose the correct option:
Answer: B  A: Only 1
8. Which concept improves performance by keeping frequently  B: Only 2
accessed pages in physical memory?  C: Both 1 and 2
 A) Thrashing  D: Neither 1 nor 2
 B) Locality of reference Answer: C
 C) Segmentation 13. The working set model for page replacement assumes:
 D) Swapping  A) Random access to pages
Answer: B  B) Locality of reference
Page Replacement Algorithms  C) Global replacement policy
9. Which page replacement algorithm replaces the page that has  D) None of the above
been in memory for the longest time? Answer: B
 A) Least Recently Used (LRU) 14. Which technique automatically moves program and data blocks
 B) First-In-First-Out (FIFO) into physical main memory when required for execution?
 C) Optimal Page Replacement  A) Swapping
 D) Clock Algorithm  B) Demand Paging
Answer: B  C) Segmentation
10. The Least Recently Used (LRU) page replacement algorithm works  D) Thrashing
on which principle? Answer: B
 A) Replace the page that was loaded first into memory 15. Effective access time in virtual memory depends on:
 B) Replace the page that has not been used for the longest 1. Memory access time for RAM.
time 2. Page fault rate and disk access time.
 C) Replace the page that will not be used in the future Choose the correct option:
 D) Replace a random page from memory  A: Only 1
Answer: B  B: Only 2
pg. 28
  C: Both 1 and 2 used to temporarily store processes that are swapped out of
 D: Neither 1 nor 2 main memory.
Answer: C 3. Swapping is primarily used to:
Summary Table for Key Concepts  A) Increase CPU speed
Concept Description  B) Manage memory efficiently by freeing up space in RAM
 C) Improve I/O operations
Virtual Allows execution of processes larger than physical memory  D) Reduce external fragmentation
Memory using secondary storage Answer: B
4. Which of the following best describes "swap in" and "swap out"?
Demand  A) Moving a process from disk to main memory and vice
Paging Loads pages into RAM only when needed versa, respectively
 B) Allocating and deallocating memory dynamically
Page Fault Occurs when a referenced page is not in RAM  C) Dividing processes into pages and frames
 D) None of the above
Thrashing Excessive paging due to insufficient physical memory Answer: A
Mechanisms
LRU
5. In process swapping, what triggers a "swap out"?
Algorithm Replaces least recently used pages
 A) Insufficient CPU resources
Basic Concepts  B) Insufficient physical memory
1. What is swapping in an operating system?  C) High-priority process arrival
 A) Moving processes between main memory and secondary  D) Both B and C
storage Answer: D
 B) Dividing memory into fixed-size partitions 6. Which of the following is NOT true about swapping?
 C) Allocating memory dynamically to processes  A) It allows multiple processes to share CPU time efficiently
 D) Sharing memory between multiple processes  B) It eliminates external fragmentation
Answer: A  C) It can cause delays due to disk I/O operations
Explanation: Swapping is a memory management technique  D) It uses secondary storage for temporary process storage
where processes are moved between main memory and Answer: B
secondary storage to free up space for other processes. 7. When a higher-priority process arrives, the operating system may
2. The area on the disk where swapped-out processes are stored is swap out a lower-priority process. This is called:
called:  A) Priority swapping
 A) Cache memory  B) Roll out, roll in
 B) Swap space  C) Process scheduling
 C) Virtual memory  D) Preemptive swapping
 D) Secondary storage Answer: B
Answer: B Advanced Concepts
Explanation: Swap space is a dedicated area on the disk
pg. 29
 8. What happens if binding is done at load time and the process is Concept Description
swapped out and back in?
 A) The process must be relocated to the same address space
Thrashing Excessive swapping causing performance degradation
 B) The process can be relocated to any available address Basic Concepts
space 1. Which page replacement algorithm is guaranteed to incur the
 C) The process terminates immediately minimum number of page faults theoretically?
 D) None of the above  A) FIFO
Answer: A  B) LRU
9. Swapping can lead to which of the following performance issues?  C) Optimal
1. Increased disk I/O operations.  D) NRU
2. Thrashing if excessive swapping occurs. Answer: C
Choose the correct option: Explanation: The Optimal algorithm replaces the page that
 A: Only 1 will not be used for the longest time in the future,
 B: Only 2 minimizing page faults. It is theoretical and
 C: Both 1 and 2 unimplementable in practice.
 D: Neither 1 nor 2 Algorithm-Specific Questions
Answer: C 2. Which algorithm suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?
10. In systems that support swapping, which of the following  A) LRU
statements is TRUE?  B) FIFO
 A) Processes are permanently stored in swap space once  C) Optimal
swapped out.  D) NRU
 B) Swapped-out processes are brought back into main Answer: B
memory when needed. Explanation: Belady’s Anomaly occurs in FIFO when
 C) Swapping eliminates the need for virtual memory. increasing the number of frames can increase page faults.
 D) Swapping only works for fixed-size partitions. 3. For the reference string 1, 2, 3, 4, 2, 1, 5, 6, 2, 1, 2, 3, 7, 6, 3, 2, 1, 2,
Answer: B 3, 6 with 3 frames, how many page faults occur using the Optimal
Summary Table for Key Concepts algorithm?
Concept Description  A) 9
 B) 11
Disk area used for temporarily storing swapped-out
 C) 15
Swap Space processes
 D) 20
Answer: A
Swap In/Swap Moving processes between main memory and secondary
Explanation: The Optimal algorithm results in 9 page
Out storage
faults for this reference string. [Reference: Testbook Q5].
4. In the LRU algorithm, page replacement decisions are based on:
Swapping out lower-priority processes for higher-priority
 A) The time a page was loaded into memory
Roll Out, Roll In ones
 B) The frequency of page usage
pg. 30
  C) The recentness of page usage  S2: SRTF scheduling can cause starvation.
 D) A random selection  S3: All threads in a process share the same stack.
Answer: C  A) S1 and S2
Explanation: LRU replaces the least recently used page.  B) S2 and S3
Belady’s Anomaly  C) S1 and S3
5. Which statement about Belady’s Anomaly is TRUE?  D) None
 A) It affects LRU and FIFO algorithms. Answer: A
 B) It occurs when page faults increase despite more Explanation: S1 is true (LRU is stack-based), S2 is true (short
allocated frames. processes can starve long ones), S3 is false (each thread has
 C) It is resolved using the Optimal algorithm. its own stack). [Reference: Testbook Q3].
 D) Both B and C Advanced Concepts
Answer: B 9. Thrashing occurs when:
Explanation: Belady’s Anomaly is observed in FIFO, where  A) Pages are frequently swapped in/out due to insufficient
increasing frames can increase page faults. memory.
Problem Solving  B) The Optimal algorithm is used.
6. Given the reference string 7, 0, 1, 2, 0, 3, 0, 4, 2, 3, 0, 3, 2, 1, 2, 0,  C) The page table size exceeds physical memory.
1, 7, 0, 1 with 3 frames, how many page faults occur using FIFO?  D) None of the above.
 A) 12 Answer: A
 B) 15 Explanation: Thrashing degrades performance as processes
 C) 9 spend more time swapping pages than executing.
 D) 10 Miscellaneous
Answer: B 10. The NRU algorithm uses which parameter for replacement?
Explanation: FIFO results in 15 page faults for this string.  A) Reference bit
[Reference: Testbook Q6].  B) Modify bit
7. For a system with 100 distinct pages accessed forward and then  C) Both A and B
backward, how many page faults occur with 4 frames using FIFO?  D) Time of last use
 A) 196 Answer: C
 B) 200 Explanation: NRU (Not Recently Used) prioritizes pages with
 C) 100 unset reference/modify bits. [Reference: Examradar Q13].
 D) 150 Summary Table
Answer: A Algorithm Key Property Belady’s Use Case
Explanation: First 100 accesses cause faults. Reverse order Anomaly?
causes 96 more faults (100 - 4). Total = 196. [Reference:
Testbook Q9]. Simple
True/False Statements FIFO Replaces oldest page Yes implementations
8. Which statements are CORRECT?
 S1: LRU does not suffer from Belady’s Anomaly.
LRU Replaces least recently used No Systems with
pg. 31
Algorithm Key Property Belady’s Use Case  D) 8
Anomaly? Answer: B
Explanation: FIFO results in 9 page faults.
page locality 4. Belady’s Anomaly occurs in:
 A) Optimal
Replaces future-unused  B) LRU
Optimal page (theoretical) No Benchmarking  C) FIFO
 D) Clock
Low-overhead Answer: C
NRU Uses reference/modify bits No systems Second Chance & Clock Algorithms
5. The Second Chance algorithm improves FIFO by:
Optimal Page Replacement  A) Using a reference bit to give pages a second chance
1. Which page replacement algorithm guarantees the minimum  B) Prioritizing pages with dirty bits
number of page faults theoretically?  C) Sorting pages by access frequency
 A) FIFO  D) None of the above
 B) LRU Answer: A
 C) Optimal 6. In the Clock algorithm, pages are arranged in a:
 D) Clock  A) Stack
Answer: C  B) Circular queue
Explanation: Optimal replaces the page that will not be used  C) Priority heap
for the longest time in the future, minimizing faults.  D) Hash table
2. Which algorithm is unaffected by Belady’s Anomaly? Answer: B
 A) FIFO LRU Page Replacement
 B) Optimal 7. For the reference string 1, 2, 3, 4, 1, 2, 5, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 with 3 frames,
 C) LRU how many LRU page faults occur?
 D) Second Chance  A) 7
Answer: B & C  B) 9
Explanation: Optimal and LRU are stack-based algorithms  C) 10
immune to Belady’s Anomaly.  D) 8
FIFO Page Replacement Answer: C
3. For the reference string 3, 2, 1, 0, 3, 2, 4, 3, 2, 1, 0, 4 with 3 frames, 8. Which statement about LRU is FALSE?
how many page faults occur using FIFO?  A) It avoids Belady’s Anomaly
 A) 6  B) It uses historical access data
 B) 9  C) It requires timestamp tracking for each page
 C) 7  D) It performs worse than FIFO in all cases
Answer: D
Simulating LRU
pg. 32
 9. Which technique approximates LRU using reference bits?  D) All of the above
 A) Clock Answer: D
 B) Aging Advanced Questions
 C) Working Set 15. Using the Working Set model with Δ=3, determine the working set
 D) Both A & B for the reference string 1, 2, 1, 3, 4, 1, 2 at time t=6:
Answer: D  A) {1, 2}
10. The "Aging" algorithm simulates LRU by:  B) {1, 2, 4}
 A) Periodically shifting reference bits into a counter  C) {1, 2, 3}
 B) Using a circular buffer  D) {2, 4}
 C) Tracking the exact access time Answer: A
 D) None of the above Explanation: At t=6, pages accessed in the last 3 references
Answer: A (positions 4-6: 4, 1, 2) are {1, 2, 4}, but only {1, 2} are
Working Set Model retained based on
11. The working set of a process is:
 A) Pages accessed in the last Δ time units Basic Concepts
 B) All pages allocated to the process 1. Which disk scheduling algorithm processes requests in the order
 C) Pages currently in physical memory they arrive?
 D) Pages with dirty bits set  A) SSTF
Answer: A  B) SCAN
12. Thrashing is reduced in the Working Set model by:  C) FIFO
 A) Allocating frames equal to the working set size  D) C-LOOK
 B) Increasing swap space Answer: C
 C) Using larger pages Explanation: FIFO (First-In, First-Out) handles requests
 D) None of the above sequentially without optimization.
Answer: A Shortest Seek Time First (SSTF)
Comparative Questions 2. For requests `[98, 183, 37, 122, 14, 124, 65, head at 53, what is the
13. Given the reference string 7, 0, 1, 2, 0, 3, 0, 4, 2, 3, 0, 3, 2, 1, 2, 0, total head movement using SSTF?
1, 7, 0, 1, which algorithm yields the fewest faults with 4 frames?  A) 236
 A) FIFO (15 faults)  B) 299
 B) LRU (12 faults)  C) 332
 C) Optimal (9 faults)  D) 412
 D) Clock (14 faults) Answer: A
Answer: C Explanation:
14. Which algorithm uses a combination of reference and modify bits? Order: 53 → 65 → 67 → 37 → 14 → 98 → 122 → 124 → 183
 A) Second Chance Movement: 12+2+30+23+84+24+2+59=23612+2+30+23+84
 B) NRU (Not Recently Used) +24+2+59=236.
 C) Working Set SCAN (Elevator Algorithm)
pg. 33
 3. Which algorithm moves the disk arm to the end of the disk and Explanation: The head moves to the end (199), jumps to 12,
reverses direction? and services remaining requests linearly.
 A) LOOK 7. Requests: `[95, 180, 34, 119,th head at 50. What is the C-SCAN
 B) SCAN sequence?
 C) C-SCAN  A) 50 → 62 → 64 → 95 → 119 → 180 → 11 → 34
 D) SSTF  B) 50 → 34 → 11 → 62 → 64 → 95 → 119 → 180
Answer: B  C) 50 → 62 → 64 → 95 → 119 → 180 → 34 → 11
Explanation: SCAN moves to the disk’s end before reversing,  D) 50 → 11 → 34 → 62 → 64 → 95 → 119 → 180
like an elevator. Answer: A
C-SCAN (Circular SCAN) Explanation: C-SCAN moves right
4. In C-SCAN, after servicing the last request, the disk head: (50→62→64→95→119→180), jumps to the start, then
 A) Reverses direction immediately services 11→34.
 B) Jumps to the opposite end without servicing requests Conceptual Questions
 C) Stops at the last request 8. Which algorithm avoids starvation?
 D) None of the above  A) SSTF
Answer: B  B) FIFO
Explanation: C-SCAN jumps back to the start after reaching  C) SCAN
the end, creating a circular motion.  D) C-LOOK
LOOK and C-LOOK Answer: C (SCAN) & D (C-LOOK)
5. Which algorithm services requests only up to the last request in Explanation: SCAN and C-LOOK ensure all requests are
each direction? eventually serviced.
 A) SCAN 9. Belady’s Anomaly occurs in:
 B) C-SCAN  A) FIFO
 C) LOOK  B) SSTF
 D) FIFO  C) SCAN
Answer: C  D) LOOK
Explanation: LOOK reverses direction after the last request, Answer: A
avoiding unnecessary traversal. Explanation: FIFO may increase page faults with more
Numerical Problems frames allocated.
6. Requests: [36, 69, 167, 76, 42, 51, 126, starts at 100 (moving Advanced Problems
towards 200). Sequence: 126, 167, 199, 12, 36, 42, 51, 69, 76`. 10. Requests: `[30, 85, 90, 100, 105, 110, 135,head at 100 (SSTF). How
Which algorithm is used? many requests are serviced before 90?
 A) SCAN  A) 2
 B) C-SCAN  B) 3
 C) SSTF  C) 4
 D) FIFO  D) 5
Answer: B (C-SCAN) Answer: B
pg. 34
 Explanation: Order: 100 → 105 → 110 → 90. Three requests Movement: 30+22+33+25+125+9+16=23030+22+33+25+12
before 90. 5+9+16=230.
11. Requests: `[7, 0, 1, 2, 0, 3, 0, 4, 2, 3, 0, 3, 2, 1, 2, 0, 4 frames. Which LOOP/C-LOOP Specifics
algorithm has the least faults? 14. Which algorithm is a hybrid of SCAN and C-SCAN?
 A) FIFO (15)  A) LOOK
 B) LRU (12)  B) C-LOOK
 C) Optimal (9)  C) SSTF
 D) Clock (14)  D) FIFO
Answer: C Answer: B
Explanation: Optimal minimizes faults by replacing the Explanation: C-LOOK jumps to the first request in the
farthest future page. opposite direction after reaching the last request.
Comparative Analysis Key Takeaways
12. Match the algorithms with their properties: Algorithm Advantage Disadvantage
Algorithm Property
FIFO Simple High seek time
I. SSTF P. Starvation possible
SSTF Minimizes seek time Starvation risk
II. SCAN Q. Services requests in one direction only
SCAN Fairness Extra traversal
III. C-LOOK R. Circular traversal
C-SCAN Uniform latency High jump cost
IV. FIFO S. No reordering
LOOK Efficient Complex logic
13. Answer:
 I→P Core Concepts & Definitions
 II → Q 1. What is the primary focus of "protection" in OS?
 III → R  A) Preventing external cyberattacks
 IV → S  B) Managing internal access to resources (e.g., files,
Practical Scenarios memory)
13. Head at cylinder 50. Requests: `[80, 102, 26, 160, 35,What is the  C) Encrypting network traffic
total movement using SCAN?  D) Blocking malware
 A) 180 Answer: B
 B) 230 Explanation: Protection ensures authorized access to system
 C) 310 resources (e.g., files, CPU) by internal users/programs[^2]
 D) 410 [^3].
Answer: B 2. Which principle ensures users/programs have only the minimum
Explanation: SCAN sequence: 50 → 80 → 102 → 135 → 160 privileges needed?
→ 35 → 26 → 10.  A) Principle of Least Privilege
pg. 35
  B) Principle of Full Disclosure Encryption & Data Protection
 C) Principle of Abstraction 8. What is the purpose of FileVault in macOS?
 D) Role-Based Access Control  A) Network traffic monitoring
Answer: A[^3].  B) Full-disk encryption
3. Security in OS primarily addresses:  C) Malware detection
 A) Internal resource conflicts  D) Process scheduling
 B) External threats (e.g., malware, unauthorized access) Answer: B[^1].
 C) Memory fragmentation 9. Which Windows tool encrypts entire drives?
 D) Process scheduling  A) Windows Update
Answer: B[^2][^5].  B) BitLocker
Access Control & Authentication  C) Task Manager
4. Which Linux feature restricts application permissions using  D) Group Policy Editor
profiles? Answer: B[^1].
 A) SELinux 10. The umask command in Linux sets:
 B) AppArmor  A) Default file permissions
 C) sudo  B) Network firewall rules
 D) umask  C) User authentication policies
Answer: B[^1].  D) Memory allocation limits
5. What does "sudo" enforce in Unix-based systems? Answer: A[^1].
 A) File encryption Threats & Countermeasures
 B) User authentication for privileged commands 11. A program that spreads by replicating itself is called a:
 C) Network traffic filtering  A) Trojan Horse
 D) Memory randomization  B) Worm
Answer: B[^1][^4].  C) Logic Bomb
6. Which Windows feature requires administrative approval for  D) Spyware
system changes? Answer: B[^5].
 A) BitLocker 12. Which technique prevents buffer overflow attacks?
 B) User Account Control (UAC)  A) Data Execution Prevention (DEP)
 C) Windows Defender  B) FileVault
 D) Registry Editor  C) SELinux
Answer: B[^1].  D) RAID
7. A strong password typically includes: Answer: A[^1][^5].
 A) Only lowercase letters 13. What does ASLR (Address Space Layout Randomization) achieve?
 B) A mix of uppercase, lowercase, numbers, and symbols  A) Encrypts memory contents
 C) Common dictionary words  B) Randomizes memory addresses to block code injection
 D) The user’s birth year  C) Monitors network traffic
Answer: B[^4].
pg. 36
  D) Compresses files Protection Security
Answer: B[^1].
14. A Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack aims to: Example: Restricting file access Example: Blocking malware[^2]
 A) Steal sensitive data Scenario-Based Questions
 B) Overload systems to disrupt service 18. A user receives an email asking for their login credentials. This is
 C) Encrypt files for ransom likely a:
 D) Log keystrokes  A) Phishing attack
Answer: B[^5].  B) Buffer overflow
Security Policies & Tools  C) Logic bomb
15. Which tool provides centralized authentication in networks?  D) Firewall bypass
 A) RADIUS Answer: A[^4].
 B) BitLocker 19. After installing software, a hidden script deletes system files. This
 C) AppArmor is a:
 D) Windows Registry  A) Trojan Horse
Answer: A[^4].  B) Worm
16. Secure Boot ensures:  C) Spyware
 A) Files are encrypted during transfer  D) Ransomware
 B) Only signed/trusted software runs at startup Answer: A[^5].
 C) Users have strong passwords 20. To prevent unauthorized access on a shared computer, you
 D) Firewalls are enabled should:
Answer: B[^1].  A) Disable the firewall
17. Which Linux security module uses Mandatory Access Control  B) Use role-based access control (RBAC)
(MAC)?  C) Enable SELinux
 A) sudo  D) Both B and C
 B) SELinux Answer: D[^3][^5].
 C) umask Key Takeaways:
 D) chmod  Protection focuses on internal access control (e.g., file permissions,
Answer: B[^1]. least privilege).
Differentiation: Protection vs. Security  Security defends against external threats (e.g., malware, DoS
Protection Security attacks).
 Tools like SELinux, BitLocker, and DEP mitigate risks through access
Defends against external
control, encryption, and memory protection.
Manages internal resource access[^2] threats[^2]
Basic Concepts
1. What is encryption?
Uses authorization (e.g., file Uses encryption,
 A) The process of converting ciphertext into plaintext
permissions) authentication[^2]
 B) The process of converting plaintext into ciphertext to
prevent unauthorized access
pg. 37
  C) A method to delete sensitive data  D) Limited scalability
 D) A technique to compress files Answer: B
Answer: B Explanation: Symmetric encryption requires secure
Explanation: Encryption ensures data confidentiality by transmission of the secret key between sender and
converting plaintext into unreadable ciphertext[^3][^5]. receiver[^4].
2. Which type of encryption uses the same key for both encryption Asymmetric Encryption
and decryption? 6. In asymmetric encryption, why can only the private key decrypt a
 A) Symmetric encryption message encrypted with the public key?
 B) Asymmetric encryption  A) The public key contains the function for decryption
 C) Hybrid encryption  B) The private key contains unique information that reverses
 D) Public-key encryption the one-way function used during encryption
Answer: A  C) Both keys perform identical operations
Explanation: Symmetric encryption uses a single key for  D) None of the above
both operations[^1][^3]. Answer: B
3. Which type of encryption uses a pair of keys: public key for Explanation: Asymmetric encryption uses one-way functions
encryption and private key for decryption? with "back doors" accessible only via the private key[^4].
 A) Symmetric encryption 7. Which asymmetric algorithm is widely used for secure online
 B) Asymmetric encryption communication?
 C) Conventional encryption  A) AES
 D) Block cipher encryption  B) RSA
Answer: B  C) DES
Explanation: Asymmetric encryption ensures secure  D) Blowfish
communication using two different keys[^1][^5]. Answer: B
Symmetric Encryption Explanation: RSA (Rivest-Shamir-Adleman) is a popular
4. Examples of symmetric encryption algorithms include: asymmetric algorithm for secure communication[^5].
 A) AES, DES, 3DES Encryption Modes
 B) RSA, ECC, Diffie-Hellman 8. In Cipher Block Chaining (CBC), each plaintext block is encrypted
 C) SHA-256, MD5, HMAC after being XORed with:
 D) None of the above  A) The previous ciphertext block
Answer: A  B) The next plaintext block
Explanation: AES (Advanced Encryption Standard), DES  C) The secret key directly
(Data Encryption Standard), and 3DES are common  D) None of the above
symmetric algorithms[^1][^3]. Answer: A
5. What is the major disadvantage of symmetric encryption? Explanation: CBC mode ensures that repetitions in plaintext
 A) Slow performance do not show up in ciphertext[^2][^5].
 B) Secure key distribution 9. Which mode does not require an Initialization Vector (IV)?
 C) Complex calculations  A) CBC mode
pg. 38
  B) CTR mode Feature Symmetric Encryption Asymmetric Encryption
 C) ECB mode
 D) None of the above Speed Faster Slower
Answer: C
Explanation: ECB (Electronic Codebook Mode) encrypts Scalability Limited High
each block independently and does not require an IV[^2]. Which statement is TRUE?
Applications and Challenges  A: Symmetric is slower than asymmetric.
10. What is a major challenge when encrypting small values like  B: Asymmetric uses a single shared key.
identifiers or names?  C: Symmetric has limited scalability due to secure key sharing
 A) Dictionary attacks challenges.
 B) Buffer overflow attacks  D: None of the above.
 C) Network latency issues Answer: C
 D) Random attacks Advanced Questions
Answer: A 13. Which algorithm uses a 128-bit round key for XOR-based
Explanation: Dictionary attacks exploit predictable patterns encryption/decryption?
in small-value encryptions[^4].  A: AES
11. Which technique combines symmetric and asymmetric encryption  B: RSA
for efficiency and security?  C: Blowfish
 A) Block chaining  D: DES
 B) Hybrid encryption Answer: A
 C) Stream ciphering 14. What is NOT a role of encryption in operating systems?
 D) Hashing 1. Ensuring user authentication.
Answer: B 2. Protecting data during transmission.
Explanation: Hybrid encryption leverages symmetric speed Choose the correct option:
and asymmetric security[^1][^3].  A: Only 1
 B: Only 2
 C: Both 1 and 2
 D: Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
15. Which statement about hybrid encryption is FALSE?
 It combines symmetric speed with asymmetric security.
Comparative Questions  It requires two separate keys for decryption only
12. Correct Answer
Feature Symmetric Encryption Asymmetric Encryption Basic Concepts
1. What is the primary purpose of authentication in operating
Key Usage Single shared key Public-private key pair
systems?
 A) Verifying user identity
pg. 39
  B) Controlling access to resources  B) Something you have
 C) Encrypting sensitive data  C) Something you are
 D) Enhancing system performance  D) None of the above
Answer: A Answer: A[^3].
Explanation: Authentication ensures that the user is who 6. Which protocol enables secure third-party authentication in web
they claim to be[^1][^3]. applications?
2. How is authentication different from authorization?  A) OAuth and OpenID Connect
 A) Authentication verifies identity; authorization verifies  B) HTTPS and SSL/TLS
access to resources  C) FTP and SMTP
 B) Authentication verifies access; authorization verifies  D) None of the above
identity Answer: A[^1].
 C) Both are interchangeable terms 7. What role does CAPTCHA play in authentication?
 D) Authentication and authorization serve the same purpose  A) Improving system aesthetics
Answer: A  B) Preventing automated bots from abusing authentication
Explanation: Authentication proves identity, while processes
authorization determines resource access[^3][^4].  C) Encrypting sensitive user data
3. Which happens first: authentication or authorization?  D) Optimizing server performance
 A) Authorization Answer: B[^1].
 B) Authentication Password Security
 C) Both occur simultaneously 8. Which of the following characteristics define a strong password?
 D) None of the above 1. Includes numbers and special characters.
Answer: B 2. Is at least eight characters long.
Explanation: Authentication must occur first to verify Choose the correct option:
identity before granting access[^4].  A: Only 1
Authentication Mechanisms  B: Only 2
4. What does multi-factor authentication (MFA) involve?  C: Both 1 and 2
 A) Using multiple passwords for login  D: Neither 1 nor 2
 B) Verifying identity using multiple authentication factors Answer: C[^3][^4].
(e.g., password, biometrics) 9. Why is a one-time password (OTP) considered secure?
 C) Encrypting login credentials multiple times  A) It cannot be shared or reused
 D) Using a single factor for verification  B) It is generated uniquely for each access attempt
Answer: B  C) It uses complex encryption algorithms
Explanation: MFA adds layers of security by combining  D: All of the above
factors like "something you know," "something you have," Answer: B[^4].
and "something you are"[^1][^3]. Biometric Authentication
5. In MFA, a password is categorized as: 10. What are some drawbacks of biometric authentication?
 A) Something you know 1. Potential privacy concerns.
pg. 40
 2. Difficulty in changing compromised biometric data. 15. What forces users to change their password at first login?
Choose the correct option: Choose the correct option:
 A: Only 1 a Default OS behavior
 B: Only 2 Basic Concepts
 C: Both 1 and 2 1. Which of the following is a self-replicating malicious program that
 D: Neither 1 nor 2 attaches itself to other files or programs?
Answer: C[^3].  A) Trojan
11. Biometric authentication falls under which category in MFA?  B) Virus
 A: Something you know  C) Worm
 B: Something you have  D) Spyware
 C: Something you are Answer: B
 D: None of the above Explanation: A virus is a self-replicating program that
Answer: C[^3]. spreads by attaching itself to other files or programs[^1]
Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) [^4].
12. What does Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) determine in 2. What is the primary difference between a worm and a virus?
authentication systems?  A) Worms require user interaction to spread, while viruses
 A: User identities do not
 B: User permissions based on assigned roles  B) Worms spread independently over networks, while
 C: Network encryption protocols viruses attach themselves to files or programs
 D: File integrity checks  C) Worms disguise themselves as legitimate software, while
Answer: B[^1]. viruses do not
13. How does RBAC simplify access control in web applications?  D) Worms are harmless, while viruses are destructive
 A: By reducing complexity in managing individual user Answer: B
permissions Explanation: Worms spread autonomously through
 B: By encrypting all user data automatically networks, while viruses require a host file or program[^1]
 C: By granting unrestricted access to all users [^6].
 D: By improving website aesthetics 3. Which of the following malware types does NOT self-replicate?
Answer: A[^1].  A) Virus
Advanced Questions  B) Worm
14. Which system provides centralized authentication via network  C) Trojan
devices?  D) Ransomware
 A: RADIUS Answer: C
 B: LDAP Explanation: Trojans do not self-replicate; they disguise
 C: RBAC themselves as legitimate software[^1][^5].
 D: AES Encryption System Characteristics of Malware
Answer: A[^4]. 4. A Trojan horse is designed to:
 A) Self-replicate across networks
pg. 41
  B) Disguise itself as legitimate software to perform malicious  C) Stuxnet
activities when executed  D) Zeus
 C) Encrypt files and demand payment for decryption keys Answer: A
 D) Record user keystrokes and send them to attackers Explanation: ILOVEYOU is a famous email-based virus[^1].
Answer: B 9. Which malware type is most likely to cause network congestion
Explanation: Trojans appear legitimate but execute due to its replication behavior?
malicious actions once trusted[^1][^4].  A) Virus
5. Which malware spreads automatically over networks without  B) Worm
requiring user interaction?  C) Trojan horse
 A) Virus  D) Ransomware
 B) Worm Answer: B
 C) Trojan horse Explanation: Worms can overwhelm networks by replicating
 D) Spyware and spreading rapidly[^3][^6].
Answer: B Comparative Questions
Explanation: Worms are self-replicating programs that 10.
propagate across networks independently[^1][^6]. Feature Virus Worm Trojan
6. Which malware type is most likely to create a backdoor for
attackers? Self-replication Yes Yes No
 A) Virus
 B) Worm
Requires host file Yes No No
 C) Trojan
 D) Adware
Disguised as
Answer: C legitimate? No No Yes
Explanation: Trojans often create backdoors, allowing 11. Based on the table above, which statement is TRUE?
unauthorized access to systems[^5].  A: Trojans replicate themselves like worms.
Examples and Impacts  B: Viruses require a host file, while worms do not.
7. What is the primary purpose of a worm?  C: Worms disguise themselves as legitimate software.
 A) Encrypt files for ransom  D: All of the above are false.
 B) Replicate and spread itself across networks Answer: B
 C) Disguise itself as legitimate software 12. Which malware type can infect both boot sectors and executable
 D) Steal user credentials files?
Answer: B  A) Macro virus
Explanation: Worms are designed to replicate and spread  B) Multipartite virus
across networks[^3][^6].  C) Email virus
8. Which of the following is an example of a virus?  D) Polymorphic virus
 A) ILOVEYOU Answer: B
 B) WannaCry
pg. 42
 Explanation: Multipartite viruses infect both boot sectors  A) Soft RTOS
and executable files[^6].  B) Hard RTOS
Advanced Questions  C) Firm RTOS
12. A worm infecting multiple systems in a network can lead to which  D) Non-real-time OS
issue? Answer: B
1. Network congestion. Explanation: Hard real-time systems ensure that missing a
2. Unauthorized access. deadline results in catastrophic failure56.
Choose the correct option: Applications of RTOS
 A: Only 1 3. Which of the following is an example of a hard real-time system?
 B: Only 2  A) Online bus ticketing system
 C: Both 1 and 2  B) Aircraft yaw control system
 D: Neither 1 nor 2  C) Library book reservation system
Answer: C  D) Printing annual company reports
13. Which malware type is most difficult to detect due to its ability to Answer: B
disguise itself? Explanation: Systems like aircraft control require strict
 A: Virus adherence to deadlines to ensure safety25.
 B: Worm 4. Which of these applications is typically associated with soft real-
 C: Trojan horse time systems?
 D: Keylogger  A) Air traffic control
Answer: C  B) Video streaming services
14. Which statement about malware is FALSE?  C) Pacemakers
 Viruses need user action (e.g., opening an infected file).  D) Missile guidance systems
 Trojans can replicate themselves like worms. Answer: B
Correct Answer Explanation: Soft real-time systems tolerate occasional
Basic Concepts deadline misses without catastrophic consequences, such as
1. What is the primary feature of a real-time operating system in video streaming56.
(RTOS)? 5. Antilock braking systems, flight management systems, and
 A) High throughput pacemakers are examples of:
 B) Guaranteed response within a specific time period  A) Soft real-time systems
 C) Maximum CPU utilization  B) Hard real-time systems
 D) Low power consumption  C) Non-real-time systems
Answer: B  D) Distributed operating systems
Explanation: RTOS ensures tasks are completed within strict Answer: B
deadlines, making them suitable for time-critical Explanation: These are safety-critical applications where
applications26. missing deadlines can lead to catastrophic failures4.
2. Which type of real-time system guarantees that critical tasks will RTOS Features
be completed within their deadlines? 6. In an RTOS, interrupt latency should be:
pg. 43
  A) Maximum Explanation: AUTOSAR OS is specifically designed for
 B) Minimal automotive embedded systems5.
 C) Dependent on scheduling Advanced Applications
 D) Zero 10. Air traffic control systems fall under which category of real-time
Answer: B systems?
Explanation: Minimal interrupt latency ensures quick  A) Soft real-time systems
response to time-critical events36.  B) Hard real-time systems
7. Which scheduling algorithm is commonly used in RTOS for  C) Firm real-time systems
periodic tasks?  D: Non-real-time systems
 A) First-Come-First-Served (FCFS) Answer: B
 B) Round Robin Scheduling Explanation: Air traffic control requires strict adherence to
 C) Rate Monotonic Scheduling (RMS) deadlines to ensure safety5.
 D) Shortest Job Next (SJN) 11. In a pacemaker application, missing a deadline would result in:
Answer: C  A) Minor inconvenience
Explanation: RMS assigns higher priority to tasks with  B) Catastrophic failure
shorter periods, making it suitable for periodic tasks in  C) No significant impact
RTOS35.  D: Reduced performance only
Commercial RTOS Examples Answer: B
8. Which of the following are examples of commercially available Explanation: Pacemakers are hard real-time systems where
RTOS? missing a deadline could result in life-threatening
1. VxWorks consequences4.
2. QNX 12. Which RTOS application involves managing multiple sensors and
3. Windows CE actuators in industrial automation?
Choose the correct option:  A: Video conferencing system
 A: Only 1 and 2  B: SCADA (Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition System)
 B: Only 2 and 3  C: Online banking system
 C: All 1, 2, and 3  D: File management system
 D: None of the above Answer: B
Answer: C Explanation: SCADA is widely used in industrial automation
Explanation: VxWorks, QNX, and Windows CE are widely used and relies on RTOS for managing sensors and actuators
commercial RTOSs25. efficiently5.
9. Which RTOS is commonly used in automotive applications? Summary Table for Applications
 A) Linux Application Type of Real- Explanation
 B) FreeRTOS Time System
 C) AUTOSAR OS
 D) Windows CE
Missing deadlines can cause
Answer: C Aircraft yaw control Hard catastrophic failure
pg. 44
Application Type of Real- Explanation  B) The remaining sites continue operating independently
Time System  C) Directly connected sites stop working
 D) None of the above
Occasional deadline misses are Answer: B[^14].
Video streaming Soft tolerable Features of Distributed Operating Systems
5. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a distributed OS?
Pacemaker Hard Critical safety application  A) Resource sharing across nodes
 B) Fault tolerance in case of node failure
SCADA in industrial Ensures timely response to  C) Centralized control over all resources
automation Hard or Firm sensor/actuator inputs  D) Scalability with additional nodes
Basic Concepts Answer: C[^3][^4].
1. What is a distributed operating system? 6. What is transparency in distributed systems?
 A) A system that runs on a single computer  A) Users are aware of resource distribution across nodes
 B) A system that connects multiple computers and makes  B) Users are unaware of resource distribution across nodes
them appear as a single system and see it as a single system
 C) A system that uses only one processor  C) All resources are visible to users directly without
 D) A system that does not use networking abstraction
Answer: B  D) The system does not allow resource sharing at all
Explanation: Distributed operating systems connect multiple Answer: B[^4].
computers, enabling resource sharing and providing the 7. Which type of transparency ensures that users do not know
illusion of a single system[^3][^4]. whether resources are local or remote?
2. Distributed OS works on the principle of:  A) Location Transparency
 A) File Foundation  B) Access Transparency
 B) Single System Image  C) Migration Transparency
 C) Multi-System Image  D) Concurrency Transparency
 D) Networking Image Answer: A[^4].
Answer: B 8. Concurrency transparency in distributed systems means:
Explanation: The "Single System Image" principle makes  A) Users are unaware of other concurrent users or processes
distributed systems appear as one unified system[^2]. accessing shared resources
3. In distributed systems, each processor has its own:  B) Users can see all concurrent activities in the system
 A) Local memory only  C) Processes cannot run concurrently
 B) Clock only  D) None of the above
 C) Both local memory and clock Answer: A[^4].
 D) None of the above Applications
Answer: C[^14]. 9. Which of the following is an example of a distributed operating
4. If one site fails in a distributed system, what happens? system application?
 A) All sites stop working  A) Airline reservation systems
pg. 45
  B) Telecommunication networks Advanced Questions
 C) Online banking systems 14. In a distributed file system, which feature ensures that users do
 D) All of the above not know where files are physically stored?
Answer: D[^3][^5][^10].  A: Naming Transparency
10. Which application uses distributed systems to process vast  B: Access Transparency
amounts of data across multiple servers?  C: Location Transparency
 A) Social Media Platforms (e.g., Facebook, Twitter)  D: Concurrency Transparency
 B) Cloud Computing Services (e.g., AWS, Google Cloud) Answer: C[^8][^14].
 C) Big Data Systems (e.g., Hadoop, Spark clusters) 15. Which middleware component facilitates communication
 D) All of the above between nodes in a distributed OS?
Answer: D[^5][^9][^10].  A: Kernel
11. What is an example of fault tolerance in a distributed OS?  B: Protocols
 A) Automatic failover to another node if one node crashes  C: Middleware
 B) Restarting all nodes when one node fails  D: Client Stub
 C) Stopping the entire system during node failure Answer: C[^15].
 D: None of the above 16. What is the role of caching in remote file access in distributed file
Answer: A[^3][^5]. systems?
Synchronization and Resource Sharing  A: Reduces network traffic by storing recently accessed data
12. Which algorithm is used for mutual exclusion in distributed locally
systems?  B: Automatically backs up data to remote servers
1. Lamport’s Algorithm  C: Resolves inconsistencies between local and remote files
2. Ricart-Agrawala Algorithm  D: None of the above
Choose the correct option: Answer: A[^8].
 A: Only 1 Summary Table for Distributed OS Features
 B: Only 2
 C: Both 1 and 2
 D: Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C[^13]. Feature Description
13. What is an advantage of resource sharing in distributed systems?
1. Improved performance through load balancing. Transparency Hides resource distribution from users
2. Efficient utilization of hardware and software resources.
Choose the correct option: Fault Tolerance Ensures continued operation despite node failures
 A: Only 1
 B: Only 2 Scalability Maintains performance as nodes are added
 C: Both 1 and 2
 D: Neither 1 nor 2 Concurrency Allows simultaneous access to shared resources
Answer: C[^3][^7].
Resource Sharing Enables efficient use of hardware and software resources
pg. 46