21/03/2024 Phase-l

CODE-A

Aakash
Medicall|IT-JEE| Foundations
Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2024

Test-l Time: 3 Hrs. 20 Mins.
MM:720

Topics covered: CC-019 CC-019

CC-019 CC-019
: Units & Measurements, Motion in a Straight Line, Motion in a Plane
Physics
Classification of Elements and Periodicity in
Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom,
Properties
Botany : The Living World, Biological Classification, Plant Kingdom
Zoology : Animal Kingdom

Instructions:
You have to attempt all 35 questions from
There are two sections in each subject, i.e,Section-A & Section-B,
Section-A &only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
mark shall bededucted from the total score.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1
Unanswered / unattempted questions wl be given no marks
(ii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate cirdle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle,
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circde in the space provided only.
use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
(vi) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer:

SECTION-A 3 In figures, variation of velocity of a body with

to time is depicted. Choose the curve in
When a body moves along a straight line in one

resp19eration goes on deereas1W.r.t time.

1.
partiarai10ction then CC-019 whitH?
(1) Distance < (displacement|
(2) Distance > (displacement
(3) Distance =|displacement| (1) velocity (2) velocity
(4) Distance |displacement|
time time
2. A partide covers first one third distance with
speed 3 m/s and remaining distance with speed
6 m/s. Then the average speed of the particle is
(1) 5 m/s (2) 4.5 m/s (3) velocity (4) velocity
1
(3) m/s m/s time
4 (4) , time

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 Final Test Series for NEET-2024
Test-1 (Code-A)
4 Choose the incorrect statement among the 9 A physical quantity y depends on quantities x and
following (Assume air resistance to be negligible) Z as y= Ax B sin (Cz), where A, B and C are
(1) In case of motion under gravity, the speed constants. Which of the following have same
with which a body is projected vertically dimensions?
upwards is equal to the speed with which it (1) y and Ax (2) y and B
comes back to point of projection (3) Cand z-1 (4) Allof these
(2) In case of motion under gravity when a 10. Pick out the incorrect statement among the
particle is projected vertically up the following statements.
magnitude of velocity at any point on the path (1) Systematic errors can be minimised by
is same whether the body is moving in improving experimental techniques
upward or downward direction
(2) Instrumental errors are due to imperfect
(3) For a body dropped from some height the design of instrument
graph of velocity with respect to time is a (3) Systematic errors are that tend
sttgb1ge parallel to time atc-019 one direction
(4) A heavy and light body when released from (4) Least count error belongs to category of
the same height, reach the ground
random error only
simultaneously and with same velocity
11. A police jeep is chasing a culprit going on
5 An insect crawling up a wall crawls 6 cm up in motorcycle. The motorcycle crosses a turning at
first second and then slides 4 cm down in next
second. It again crawls up 6 cm in third second
20 m/s. The jeep follows at speed of 30 m/s,
crossing the turning 6 second later than
and again slides 4 cm downwards in 4th second. motorcycle. If they travel at constant speeds, how
How long willinsect take to reach a hole in wall at far fromturning point jeep catches up the
a vertical height of 24 cm from starting point? motorcycle?
(1) 20 s (2) 27 s ons (2) 50 m
(1) 40 m
(3) 25 s (4) 19s
(4) 120 m
6
(3) 360 m
The angle subtended at the centre of a circle by
an arc equal in length to the radius of the circle is
12.A particle is moving in acircle of radius 3 mwith
(1) 1steradian (2) 1radian
constant angular velocity of 2 rad/s in clockwise
directíon as'shown. The acceleration (in m/s?) of
(3) 1 degree (4) 1minute partide at point Qis
7. The dimensions of b if F represents the force and
x represents the position the given relation F=
K60
alog Pis (2) (2i +3/3)
(1) (M°LOTO] (2) [MOLIT dic (3) (4i* 6j)
(3) [M'L'T-1 (4) [M'L'T-)
8 Ajay is running on a straight horizontal foad on a (4) (si +2j)
rainy day, with a speed 4 m/s. He observes that
the rain is falling down vertically with a speed of 3 13. The velocity of a particle projected in vertical
m/s. The actual speed of raindrops is plane at the initial point Ais V=(4i +6j) m/s. Its
(1) 20s019 (2) 4 misC-019 veDO1 m/s) at point S&OGsume air
(3) 7 m/s (4) 5 m/s resistance to be negligible).
Space for Rough Work

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Final Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-1 (Code-A)
18 The horizontal range of a projectile fired at an
angle of 15° with horizontal is 30 m. If it is fired at
an angle of 45° angle with the vertical with same
speed then its range will be
(1) 90 m (2) 120 m
(3) 60 m (4) 100 m
A B
19. Person A is moving with speed 10 km/h along
(1) -4i -6j (2) 4i - 6j west and is moving with same speed along
south. The velocity of A with respect to B is (take
(3) 2i+3j (4) -2i +3j + x axis towards east and + y axis towards north)
14. The mass of a box measured by a grocer's (1) 10i (2) 10i +10j
balance is 3.3 kg. Two gold piece of masses (4) 10i +20j
10.15 g and 10.17 gare added to the box. The (3) -10i +10j
total mass of the box is 20. A boat takes 1hour to go 8 km and come back in
(1)i19 CC-019 stCQa1.9f water starts movi@Oi10km/h then
the time taken to go 5 km upstream and return
(2) 3.2 kg back is
(3) 3.4 kg
(4) 3.6 kg (1) 2 h (2)
15 Some physical quantity are given in Column-l 9 5
while their dimensions are given in Column-l1. (3) -h (4) h
10 2
Match the correct entries in Column- with
corresponding correct entries in Column-l. 21. A wire has a mass (0.3 t 0.003) gm, radius
(0.5 ± 0.005) mm and length (6 ± 0.06) cmn. The
Column -I Column percentage error in the measurement of density
a t i o n s

Angular momentum ) (MLZT1

(1) 2% (2) 3%
b Density (ü) (ML (3). 4% (4) 5 %
C. Pressure (iii) (ML 22. In a verniercalliper it was found that the 4h
(iv) (ML-T-1 divisioD of main scale coincides with 5th division
d Energy
of vermier scale (given 1 MSD=1 unit). The least
(1) a(), b(i), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(i), b(i), c(iv), d(i) count of vernier calliper is
(3) a(), b(i), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(Ø), c(ii), d(i) unit (2)
1
16. An object is dropped from the top of atower. It
travels a distance of 5 m in the first second and 25 5
3
m in the last second. The speed with which object ledicz (3) unit (4) , unit
strikes the ground is (g = 10 m/s?) 8
(1) 30 m/s (2) 50 m/s 23. Which of the following statements among the
(3) 40 m/s
given options may be incorrect?
(4) 20 m/s
(1) Velocity may be positive,negative or zero
17. A player throws a ball such that maximum range (2) Direction of velocity is always in the direction
of ballis 240 m then maximum height attained by of change in position
ball under same condition is (3) Speedometer measures the instantaneous
(1) ¬00A19 (2) 60 rC-019 CSpet%f a vehicle CC-019
(3) 24 m (4) 1200 m (4) Rate of change of speed is momentum
Space for Rough Work

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Test-1 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2024

24 The displacement of a particle moving along a

straight line is given by s = 52 + 5t- 10. (Here s (1) (2) 2xt?
2
is in cm and t is in s). The initial velocity of the
particle is 3 x{2
(3) 7 (4)
(1) 10cm/s (2) 5 m/s 3
(3) 5 cm/s (4) 6 m/s 31. A ball is thrown vertically upward with a velocity
25 Aprojectile is thrown from a point in a horizontal of 20 m/s from top of a tower 25 m high. What is
plane such that the horizontal and vertical the maximum height reached by ball from
component of initial velocity is 10 m/s and 20 m/s ground?
respectively. Its horizontal range is (g= 10 m/s?)
(1) 20 m (2) 10 m (1) 30 m (2) 40 m
(3) 40 m (4) 60 m (3) 45 m (4) 75 m
26. The dimensional formula for pressure gradient is 32. From top of a tower 100 m high,a ballis dropped
(1) (DCâI9 (2) [MLCCb19 angatdhe same time anothec,a i9 projected
(3) (MLT] (4) (ML-2T-] vertically up from ground with speed of 40 m/s.
27. Which among the following statements is incorrect? The two balls will meet at (g = 9.8 m/s?)
(1) Accuracy of measurement is the closeness of (1) 56 m above ground
observed value to the true value (2) 30.6 m below the top
(3) 40.8 m below the top
(2) As we reduce the errors, measurement's
accuracy increases (4) 40.8 m above ground
(3) Smaller is the least count, greater is the 33. Assertion (A): Light year and astronomical unit,
both measure time.
precision
(4) More accurate measurement must have high Reason (R): Both light year and astronomical
precision unit are very small units.
28. Amotor boat covers the distance between two In the light of above statement choose the correct
spots in river in 8 h and 12 h downstream and option.
upstream respectively. What is time required by (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the
rea[onis the correct explanation of the
boat to cover this distance in stillwater?
(1) 10 h (2) 10.8 h assertion
(21. Both Assertion & Reason are true and the
(3) 9.6 h (4) 9h reàson is not the correct explanation of the
29. Water drops are falling from water tap in regular assertion
time interval. When first drop reaches the ground (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is
third drop is about to leave. If height of water tap false
from ground is 8 m, then height of second drop
M e d i c z

(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

from ground is
statements
(1) 2.5 m (2) 4 mn
34. The acceleration of a body starting from rest
(3) 6 m (4) 2 m varies with time according to the equation
30. A lift undergoes the first part of its ascent from a= 3t + 4, where a is in ms-² and t in s. The
the lowest position with uniform acceleration x velocity of body at t= 2 s will be
and the remaining to the topmost position with
unifogrrgayation 2x. If t is thaino ascent, ("-819 (2) 1%019
then the depth of the shaft is (3) 12m/s (4) 20 m/s

Space for Rough Work

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Final Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-1 (Code-A)
35 The velocity (v) - time () graph for a particle is 40. The position vector of a particle at any time is
shown. The average velocity of particle during given as r=3t i +2t'j +5k. The direction of
first 7 seconds is
velocity of particle at t= 1 is
10 mvs
(1) Making an angle of 53° with x-axis
(2) Making an angle of 37° with X-axis
(3) Making an angle of 30° with y-axis
’t(s)
01 3 (4) Making an angle of 45° with x-axis
(1) 4.2 m/s (2) 6.5 m/s 41. Which of the following is correct conclusion
(3) 5.7 m/s (4) 5.0 m/s regarding position vector and acceleration vector
SECTION -B of a body executing uniform circular motion?
36. Two ends, of a train movingat,çonstant (1) Both of them are perpendicular to each other
acceferr19a
pass a point with sple1912 m/s (2PBo them are along sarneRon
and 24 m/s respectively. The speed with which (3) Both of them are in opposite direction
middle point of the train passes the same point is
(approximately) (4) Both of them may be inclined at any angle
42. The equation of path of projectile is given by y =
(1) 16 m/s (2) 19 m/s
(3) 22 m/s (4) 20 m/s
V3x- 6x?, then the angle of projection of
projectile from vertical is
37. The area under acceleration-time graph gives (1) 60° (2) 30°
(1) Velocity of object (3) 45° (4) 90°
(2) Speed of object 43. The
an relation
da between
tio power
ns P, distance x and
(3) Change in velocity b+x2
(4) Change in acceleration
time tis given . The dimensions of
at
38. A partide moving along a straight line has bla is
velocity v m/s and it covers a distance x along (2) [M-1LT-1
positive x axis, the relation between wo
quantities is V= /49+ x. Its acceleration is (3),(QLT (4) (ML-2T-]
(1) 1 m/s² (2) 7 m/s? 44Aparticle start moving from point P and reaches
(3) 2 m/s? (4) 0.5 mls rat point Q along a semicircular path as shown,
then the displacement of particle is
39. A unit vector along the direction of resultant- of
two vectors Å and B, where A=1+2] Medt
and B=2i +3j +k, is
(1) i+2j-4k (2) -i+5j-; r P

V35 V35
(1) (2) r
(3) dei
V29 4) it/25 c²o19 CC-019
(3) 2r (4) 2nr
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Test-1 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2024
45 A truck moves such that its velocity is a linear 49. The speed of the projectile at maximum height is
function of time. The curve acceleration vs time 1
and velocity vs time respectively will be times initial speed. If the range of the
(1) Straight line, straight line projectile is N times the maximum height attained
(2) Straight line, parabola
(3) Parabola, straight line by it, then N equals
(4) Parabola, parabola (1) 2 (2) 3
46. The motion of a particle is described by an (3) 4 (4) 5
equation x = at + bf² where a = 15 cm/s and b = 3
cm/s?. The instantaneous speed of particle at 50. Two particles are projected simultaneously with
t= 3 s is different speed from same point in a plane as
(1) 32 cm/s (2) 16 cm/s shown in figure. The incorrect statement is
(3) 18 cm/s (4) 33 cm/s
4 m/s
47. A boyyalks pn a straight road frgm his home to
marke3k away, with speed o nh. He CC-019 CC-019
stays at market for 20 minute and returns back 3 m/s
home with speed of 6 km/h. His average speed
over round trip is 532
37o
(1) 6 km/h (2) 5 km/h
(3) 4.9 km/h (4) 4.5 km/h
48. The position x of a particle with respect to time (1) Their relative acceleration is zero
along x-axis is given by equation x = 9f - . (2) Their relative velocity is constant
where x is in meter and t in second. What will be
position of particle when it achieves maximum (3) The magnitude of relative velocity along
speed along +ve x-axis? horizontal direction is non zero.
(1) 54 m (2) 42 m (4) The magnitude of relative velocity along
(3) 32 m (4) 46 m vertical direction is non zero
Ounda

CHEMISTRY
SECTION -A 54. The pair of series of spectral lines for hydrogen
51. Number of urea mnolecules present in 200 mL of atom which falls in infrared region is
1Maqueous solution of urea is (1YLyman and Pfund
(1) 1.2x 1026 (2) 1.2 x 1024 (2) Paschen and Brackett
(3) 6.0 x 1021 (4) 1.2 x 1023 (3) Balmer and Brackett
52. Empirical formula of a hydrocarbon thatM
contains
ed (4) Lyman and Balmer
20% hydrogen is 55. Correct order of energy of 2s orbital of the given
(1) CzH3 (2) CH4 atoms is
(3) CH3 (4) CH (1) K> Na > Li > H (2) Li> Na > K> H
53. If the mass ratio of carbon dioxide and methane (3) H> Li> Na > K (4) H> K> Na> Li
is 5:3then the ratio of their number of atoms is 56. The pair which contains representative elements is
(1) 5CG-019 (2) 8:5CC-019 (1CCAathg Hg (2) SeOr D
(3) 4: 11 (4) 2:7 (3) In and Bi (4) Br and Ti
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 Final Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-1 (Code-A)
57 Consider the following statements about 64. Match the atomic number given in List-l with their
photoelectric effect IUPAC official name given in List-l and choose
(a) The number of electrons ejected is the correct answer
proportional tothe intensity of light List-I List-ll
(b) There is no time lag between the striking of 107 (i) Dubnium
light beam and the ejection of electrons from b. 102 Bohrium
metalsurface
(c) Work function of magnesium is greater than
C 104 (ii) Nobelium
d. 105 (iv) Rutherfordium
Copper
The corect statements are (1) a(iv), b(ii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only (3) a(i), b(i), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(ii)
65. Consider the following observations
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
58. hat is the energy of one mole of photons of (a) Photoelectric effect
raditige ytgse wavelength is 448aGlanck's (bcariign of heat capaciyce felids as a
constant, h6.6 x104 Js) function of temperature
(1) 4.5 x 10J (2) 2.7 x 105J (c) Black body radiation
(3) 7.5 x 106J (4) 1.2 x 10 J The observations which could be explained by
59 Correct order of atomic radiof given elements is particle nature of electromagnetic radiations are
(1) Cl> S>0> F (2) S> C| >0> F (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) S>Cl> F>O (4) Cl> S>F>O (3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a). (b) and (c)
60. How many grams of concentrated nitric acid 66. Volume of COz(g) obtained at STP by burning
solution should be used to prepare 800 mL of 1.6 32 gof CH4 with 64 g of oxygen is
MHNO3 ? (The concentrated HNO, is 70% (Ww) (1) 5.6 L (2) 11.2L
HNO)
(1) 175.5g (2) 115.2 g (3) 22.4L (4) 44.8 L
(3) 225.8 g (4) 80 g 67. If1029 moleculesyof Ha0 are removed from
61. Mass of CaCOs required to react with 400 mL of 18 mg of, Hð, then moles of H0 left
1.5 M HCI solution is approximatelyis
(1) 30 g (2) 15g (1) 72%1o3 (2) 8.3 x 104
(3) 45g (4) 60 g (3) 261 10-3 (4) 1.66 x 104
62 Select the incorrect statement. 68. Mátch the oxides given in column-l with their
(1) Canalrays are positively charged particles chenical nature given in column-ll and choose
the correct answer
(2) Cathode rays start from anode and move
towards cathode Column-4 Column-|
(3) Characteristics of cathode rays do
a. NO Acidic
depend upon the material of electrodes
(4) The charge to mass ratio of canal ràys b Al2O3 (ii) Neutral
depends on the gas from whích these
originate C Cl2O7 Basic
63. A biomolecule contains 0.24% Mg by mass. The Na2O
minimum molecular mass of the biomolecule is
(iv)Amphoteric
(1) GC019 (2) 1000C-019 (1be ýv),c), d(ji) (2) abbjgci), d(iv)
(3) 10000 u (4) 2400 u (3) a(i), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(iv), b(), c(ii), d(ii)
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 Final Test Series for NEET-2024
Test-1 (Code-A)
69. The wavelength of light emitted when the 75. Chlorine has two isotopes 35CI and 37CI. If the %
electron in hydrogen atom undergoes transition abundance of lighter isotope is 75% then the
from an energy level with n =3to an energy level average atomic mass of CI atom is
with n= 1is (RH = Rydberg constant for hydrogen (1) 36.5 u (2) 35.5 u
atom) (4) 36.8u
(3) 32.2 u
1 2
(1) (2) 76. Burning a small sample of hydrocarbon in oxygen
R Ry gives 8.8 g CO2 and 5.4 g H20. The possible
9 1 molecular formula of the hydrocarbon is
(3) (4) (2) CzHs
8R4 9RH (1) CH4
70. Minimum negative electron gain enthalpy among (3) CzH2 (4) CzHa
the following is of 77. Which of the following set of quantum numbers is
(1) O (2) S not possible for an electron in an atom?
(3) SeC-019 (4) Te CC-019 m
ÇC-019
71. If the density of 4M solution of NaOH is 1.25 gmL-1 3 2 -1
then the (w/w)% of NaOH in the solution will be (1) 1

(1) 25.4% (2) 32.4%

(3) 12.8% (4) 20% (2) 3 1 -2 1
72. If the mole fraction of urea in aqueous solution is 2
0.08 then the molality of urea in the solution will
be (3) 4 0 1
+
(1) 6.4 m (2) 4.8 m
(3) 2.6 m (4) 3.5 m 4
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73. Given below are the two statements
Statement I: 0.0071 has two significant figures
Statement |Il : Zeros preceding to first non-zero 78: Ametal sheet has work function of 5 eV. The
digit are not significant kinetíc energy of photoelectron when the metal
sheet is irrädiated by an electromagnetic wave of
In the light of the above statements, cho0se the frequency 2 x 1015 Hz is (h = 6.6 x 10-4 Js)
Correct answer
(1) Statement is correct but statement || is (1) 5.2x 10-19 J (2) 3.6 x 10-20 J
incorrect (3) 2.4 x 10-18 J (4) 7.2 x 10-18 J
(2) Both statement I and statement ll are correct 79. The de Broglie wavelength associated with a
(3) Both statement I and statement | afe particle of mass 100 mg moving with a velocity of
incorrect 20 ms-1 is (h= 6.6 x 10-34 Js)

(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement (1) 3.3 x 10-36 m (2) 3.3 x 1030 m
correct (3) 3.3 x 10-33 m (4) 3.3 x 1031 m
74. The number of protons, electrons and neutrons 80. Orbital angular momentum of 3d electron is
in Ir respectively are (2) V2A
(1) 0
(1) 7 gtnd 77 (2) 77, Gyiy6 CC-019 CC-019
(3) 77, 193 and 77 (4) 77, 154 and 193 (3) V6 A (4) V12A

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Final Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-1 (Code-A)
81. Correct order of energy of given orbitals for 88. Which of the following transition results in the
multielectronic species is formation of spectral line in Balmer series of
(1) 4f> 5d> 5p > 4d (2) 4f> 5d> 4d> 5p hydrogen atom?
(3) 5p > 4d> 4f> 5d (4) 5d > 4f> 5p > 4d (1) 3 ’ 2 (2) 2 ’ 1
82 Charge to mass ratio is maximum for (3) 4 3 (4) 5 4
(1) Electron (2) Proton 89. Radius of 3rd excited state of Li?* ion is
(3) Neutron (4) Alpha particle (ao = radius of 1st orbit of hydrogen atom)
83. Maximum number of spectral lines obtained (2) 3a0
during the transition of electron from fourth (1) ao
excited state to ground state in hydrogen atoms 16
(3) (4)
3
(1) 8 (2) 5
90. If the energy of two different electromagnetic
(3) 6 (4) 10 wYee G in ratio of 1:2 heoate of wave
84. MaxíGG1amber of unpairedCteans are number of the two radiations are
present in
(1) 2:3 (2) 1:2
(1) Cu (2) Cr
(3) 1:4 (4) 4: 1
(3) Zn (4) Mn
85. Given below are two statements: one is labelled 91. If the uncertainty in the position is two times that
as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason of momentum for a moving particle then the
uncertainty in the velocity of the particle will be
(R).
Assertion (A) : Negative electron gain enthalpy h
of fluorine is more than negative electron gain (1) (2)
enthalpy of chlorire An V8zm?
etions
Reason (R): Electronegativity of fluorine is more h h
than chlorine (3) (4) 2rm
4m
In the light of the above statements, dhoose the
correct answer
92. Total number of electrons present in 27 g of AJs*
ions is
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the (2) 10NA
correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true (4) 27NA
(3) (A) is true but (R)is false 93. ACorrect order of ionisation enthalpy of the given
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the elements is
corect explanation of (A) (1) Li< Be < B (2) C<N<O
SECTIONB (3) Be<B<C (4) B <C<N
86 Number of radial and angular nodes Pre
94. Given below are the two statements
4p orbital respectively are
(1) 1and 2 (2) 2 and 1 Statements I:The maximum number of electrons
(4) 3and 2
in the shell with principal quantum number n is
(3) 2and 3 equal to 2n2.
87. The quantum number which defines the three The maximum number of
dimensional shape of an orbital is Statements ||
(1) CC-019 (2) I CC-019 degnaae orbitals in the 3teb rý hydrogen
atom is 6.
(3) m (4) ms
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Test-1 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2024

In the light of the above statements, choose the 97. If the electronic configuration of an element is
Correct answer [Kr]5s²4di°5p2 then the element belongs to
(1) Both statement Iand statement |l are correct (1) 4th period, 4th group (2) 4th period, 14h group
(2) Both statement I and statement I| are (3) 5th period, 4th group (4) 5th period, 14h group
incorrect
98. Which of the following elements is also known as
(3) Statement | is incorrect but statement || is eka-aluminium?
Correct
(1) B (2) Ga
(4) Statement I is correct but statement || is
incorrect (3) Si (4) Ge
95 Correct order of metallic nature of the given 99. Li resembles diagonally with
metals is (1) Be (2) Mg
(1) K> Mg > Al > B (2) Mg > K> Al> B (3) Na (4) B
(3) Mg K> B (4) B> KaM9GA 100. Gegerab1 glectronic configugtr1gf block
96. Correc order of wavelength of th given elements is
electromagnetic radiations is
(1) IR > Microwaves > Radio waves
(1) (n -2)f4 (n1)ons?
(2) (n-2)f-14(n - 1)dions?
(2) Radio waves > IR > Microwaves
(3) Radio waves> Microwaves> IR
(3) (n-2)f-14(n 1)A-'ns?
(4) IR> Radio waves > Microwaves
(4) (n-2)fi-14(n 1)-'nso
BOTANY
SECTION A 105. In Rhizopus,
101. Major pigments of Chlorophyceaen members are (a) Fruiting body ascocarp is formed
(1) Chlorophyll c and phycoerythrin (b) Mycelium is aseptate and coenocytic
(2) Chlorophyll a and d (c) Asexual spores are exogenously produced.
Choose the cortect option.
(3) Fucoxanthin and chlorophyll a (1) (a) and b) only (2) (a) and (c) only
(4) Chlorophyll a and b (3) (b),6niy (4) (b) and (c) only
102. Which of the following plants is used as a 106. Viroids differ from prions as the former
packing material for trans-shipment of living (1)Causes mad cow disease
material and also provides peat? 2) Has RNA of high molecular weight
(1) Marchantia (2) Sphaghum (3) Consists of abnormally folded protein.
(3) Riccia (4) Funaria (4) Is smaller than viruses
103. Select the imperfect fungi from the options given
Medi 107. Read the following statements and choose the
below. correct option.
(1) Colletotrichum (2) Puccinia Statement A : In gymnosperms, the male and
(3) Aspergillus (4) Albugo female gametophyte do not have an independent
free-living existence.
104. Trypanosoma which causes sleeping sickness, Statement B : In numerical taxonomy, each
belongs to the kingdom character is given equal importance and at the
(1) Fgio19 (2) Provgt-019 sao-Gre hundreds of chatr9 can be
(3) Plantae (4) Monera considered.

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Test-2 (Code-B) Final Test Series for NEET-2024
148. Find the odd one out w.r.t. apical meristem. (2) Are connected with tracheids by pit fields
present between their common radial walls
(1) Cells are always in active state of division
(2) It is found at the apices of stem, root or (3) Possess peripheral cytoplasm and a large
branches vacuole but lacks a nucleus
(4) Store food materials and substances like
(3) Increase the length as well as girth of stems
and roots resins and latex
(4) It is primary meristem 150. In which of the following plants, petioles expand
149. The companion cells in phloem of angiosperms and become green to synthesize food?
(1) Euphorbia (2) Australian acacia
(1) Help in maintaining the pressure gradient in
the sieve tubes (3) Nerium (4) Opuntia

CC 013 ZOOLOGY
SECTION
A - S C Hepatic caeca (iiü) Grinding the food
151. Choose the odd one w.r.t. paired structures in particles
cockroaches.
(1) Maxilla (2) Mandible
Hypopharynx (iv) Used for storing of
food
(3) Antenna (4) Labrum
Select the correct option.
152. In Periplaneta americana, the prothoracic
segment bears (1) a(i), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(i), di)
(1) A pair of legs and hind wings
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i),d() (4) a(ii), b(), c(iv), d(i)
155. Blindness in cockroach is associated with the
(2) A pair of legs and tegmina damage of
(3) Only apair of legs located dorsally (1) Thoracic ganglion
(4) Only a pair of legs locatedventrally (2) Abdominal ganglion
153. Genital chamber of the male cockroach contains (3) Supra-oesophageal ganglion
(1) Dorsal gonapophysis and ventral anus (4) Sub-oesophageal ganglion
156. Read the following characteristics w.r.t. tendons
(2) Dorsal male genital pore and ventral anus
(a) Attach skeletal muscles to bones
(3) Dorsal anus and ventral male genital pore
(b) Formed only by non-proteinaceous fibres
(4) Dorsal male genital pore and gonapophysis
(c) Belongs to the specialised connective tissue
154. Match Column Iwith Column Il w.r.t. structures
and their functions in a cockroach. (d) Collagen fibres are arranged in rows between
many parallel bundles of fibres
Column I Column || Howmany of the above given characteristics are
correct?
Crop ()Acts as tongue
(1) Four (2) Three
b. Gizzard (i) Secrete igestive (3) Two (4) Gne
juice
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Final Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-2 (Code-B)
157. Complete the analogy w.r.t. cells of specialised 162. Sensory receptors are chemically similar to
connective tissues.
(1) Trypsin
Cartilage:Chondrocytes: : Bones (2) Adenosine
Select the correct option. (3) Glycerol
(1) Fibroblasts (4) Exoskeleton of arthropods
(2) Osteocytes 163. The below given bar diagram represents the
(3) Collagen cellular components w.r.t. their per cernt of the
total cellular mass. If B represents protein
(4) Lacunae components, then which of the following bar will
158. The muscle fibres that can alter the diameter of represent the nucleic acids?
total
the blood vessels are
thecellular
mass
(1) Branched (2) Striated of
CC-019
(3) Uninucleated (4) Voluntary Percentage
159. The type of epithelium which helps to move ovum
through the oviduct is also present in
(1) Blood vessels
(2) Bronchioles
A B
(3) Oesophagus Components
(4) Moist surface of buccal cavity (1) A (2) C
160. Cells of specialised tissue 'X are enclosed in (3) D (4) E
small cavities within the matrix secreted by them. 164. Which of the following forms coordination bonds
ldentify the tissue 'X and cho0se the correct with the active site of the enzyme as well as with
option. the substrate at the same time?

(1) Blood (2) Ligament (1) Prosthetic group (2) Co-enzyme

(3) Tendon (4) Bone (3) Metal ion (4) NADP
161. An enzyme obtained from a plant source has 165. During competitive inhibition of Succinic
been classified and allocated its unique four digit dehydrogenase by malonate
number as 1.2.1.4. The above described enzyme (1) Km value increases for the enzymatic reaction
belongs to the class? (2) Vmax value decreases for the enzymatic
(1) Ligases reaction

(2) Oxidoreductases (3) Km value of succinate decreases for the

enzyme
(3) Hydrolases
(4) IsOimei ases
(4).Vmax value increases for the enzymatic
reaction

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 Final Test Series for NEET-2024
Test-2 (Code-B)
166. Assertion (A): Lipids are found in the retentate 170. Choose the pair which contains heterocyclic.
upon chemical analysis of a living tissue. Compounds as their structural constituents.
Reason (R): When we grind a tissue, (1) RNA, Cytidylic acid
membranes containing lipids get fragmented and (2) DNA, Glycine
form water insoluble vesicles. (3) Cellulose, Arachidonic acid
In the light of above statements, select the (4) Nucleic acid, Alanine
correct option.
171. How many compounds given in the box below
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the are polymeric secondary metabolites?
correct explanation of (A)
Rubber, Morphine, Cellulose, Monoterpene,
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the Gums, Carotenoid
correct explanation of (A)
Select the correct option.
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false (1) Five
167. Choose the amino acid that contains the
(2) Six
alcoholic 'R' group. (3) TwO
(2) Serine (4) Three
(1) Lysine
(3) Valine (4) Glutamic acid 172, A section of a human tissue was stained and
studied under the microscope. Upon observation,
168. The element which forms 3.3 per cent weight of chondrocytes were found in the lacunae but
the human body is lamellae were absent. This tissue could have
(1) Nitrogen (2) Silicon been taken most probably from
(3) Sodium (4) Carbon (1) Pelvic bone
169. What does the 'X' and Y represent in the graph (2) Scapula
given below? (3) Skinepidermis
(4) Ear pinna
Y 173. Choose the odd one w.r.t. polymeric compounds.
(1) Collagen
(2) Glycogen
X
(3) Chitin
X
(4) Cholesterol
(1) pH Substrate 174. In the B-DNA model, the two antiparallel
concentration
polynucleotide strands are joined together by
(2) pH Enzyme activity (1) Sugar-phosphate bonds
(3) Temperature pH (2) Phosphodiester bonds
(4) Temperature Substrate (31 Hydrogen bonds
concentration (4) Glycosidic bonds
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Final Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-2 (Code-B)
175. Read the statements given below: (3) Only statement A is incorrect
(a) The activity of carbonic anhydrase declines
both below and above its optimum (4) Only statement B is incorrect
pH/temperature. 178. A scientist was analysing the sense organs
(b) In proteins, only left handed helices are present in frogs. He observed the structures
observed. under the microscope and Came to the
(C) An active site of an enzyme is a crevice or conclusion that
pocket into which the substrate fits. (1) Sensory papillae and eyes are well organised
(d) Enzymes remain unchanged after the structures
chemical reaction.
(2) Tympanum and taste buds are present as
Choose the correct option. cellular aggregates around nerve endings
(1) Only (a) and (b) are correct (3) Eyes and internal ears are well organised
(2) Oniy (a), (b) and (c) are correct sirucisr'es CC-0
(3) Only (c) and (d) are incorrect
(4) Nasal epithelium and eyes are present as
(4) Only (a), (c) and (d) are correct cellular aggregates around nerve endings
176. A student made a table of differences between 179. In frogs, the thin-walled urinary bladder is present
the male and female frogs. Select the incorrect to the rectum.
difference enlisted by him.
Choose the correct option to fill in the blank.
Male frogs Female frogs (1) Dorsal
(1) Copulatory pad Copulatory pad (2) Ventral
present absent
(3) Anterior
(2) Vocal sacs present Vocal sacs absent
(4) Posterior
(3) Urinogenital duct Urinogenital duct 180. Select the odd one w.r.t. the excretory system of
present absent Rana tigrina.
(4) No functional Functional (1) Kidney
connection exists Connectíon exists
between testes between Ovaries
(2) Urinary bladder
and kidneys and kidneys (3) Cloaca
177. Read the statements given below w.r.t. frogs. (4) Anus
Statement A: They maintain ecological balance. 181. Peptide bond is present between the monomeric
units of
Statement B: They serve as an important link of
food chain and food web in the ecosystem. (1) Starch
Choose the correct option. (2) Glycogen
(1) Both statements A and B are incorrect (3) Lecithin
(2) Both statements A and Bare correct (4) RuBisCo

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 Final Test Series for NEET-2024
Test-2 (Code-B)
half
182. Consider the statements given beloW: (c) Rate of reaction doubles or decreases by
in either direction,
Statement A: Inulin is a heteropolysaccharide. for every 10°C change
Statement B: The right end of the inulin chain is (d) The number of amino groups present in the
structure of valine is less than the number of
called the non-reducing end. carboxyl groups present in it.
Choose the correct option.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Both statements Aand Bare correct
F T T
(2) Only statement A is incorrect (1)
(3) Only statement B is incorrect (2) T T F

(4) Both statements A and Bare incorrect (3) T T F

183. Choose the correct match w.r.t. proteins. (4) F T

(1) Primary Necessary for SECTION -B

structure enzymatic activities
of protein 186. Given below are some features
Exists as a-helix
(a) Dicondylic skull
(2) Secondary
structure and B-plated sheet (b) Enucleated RBCS

(3) Tertiary Adult haemoglobin (c) Hepaticportal system

structure exhibits this level of (d) Renal portal system
organisation only (e) Ureotelism
(4)| Quaternary Gives positional () Pulmonary respiration
structure information
amino acids in How many of the above mentioned features are
Common in both humans and frogs?
proteins
(1) Five
184. Fructose are characterized by two functional
(2) Four
groups. These groups are
(3) Six
(1) Carbonyl and methyl
(2) Hydroxyl and methyl (4) Three
187. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. the heart
(3) Carboxyl and phosphate
of frogs.
(4) Carbonyl and hydroxyl (1) It is myogenic in nature like humans.
185. Read the statements given below and choose the
option that correctly states them as true (T) or (2) It is surrounded by pericardium.
false (F). (3) It comprises of two ventricles and one atrium.
(a) Glucagon
-
is a heteropolymer- rir. (4) It contains additional chambers called sinus
(b) Glycerol is trihydroxy propane. venosus and conus arteriosus.

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Final Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-2 (Code-B)
188. Select the correct sequence of structures 193. Rate of a chemical reaction refers to
through which food passes in cockroaches. (1) Substrate formed in time St
(1) Mouth Oesophagus Pharynx (2) Reactants present at the end of the reaction
Gizzard ’ Crop
(3) Amount of reactants before the reaction
(2) Mouth ’ Pharynx Oesophagus
Gizzard ’ Crop (4) Amount of product formed per unit time
(3) Mouth ’ Pharynx ’ Oesophagus ’ Crop ’ 194. Hydrolysis of guanosine will release all, except
Gizzard (1) Aphosphate group
(4) Mouth ’ Oesophagus ’ Crop ’ Pharynx ’ (2) A purine base
Gizzard (3) Heterocyclic compounds
189. In male cockroaches, the sperms are stored in (4) A ribose sugar
the 'X and are glued together in the form
195. Assertion (A): The enzyme cartoxypeptidase,
of bundles called that helps in proteolysis, requires zinc for its
Choose the correct option to fill the blanks 'X activity.
and Y' respectively. Reason (R): The removal of co-factor does not
affect the catalytic activity of enzymes.
(1) Mushroom glands; Spermatheca
In the light of above statements, select the
(2) Seminal vesicles; Spermatophores
correct option.
(3) Testes; Gonapophysis
(4) Vas deferens: Vestibulum
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
190. Goblet cells are modified columnar epithelial cells (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
found in the
correct explanation of (A)
(1) PCT
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(2) Intestine
(4) Both (A)and (R) are false
(3) Buccal cavity
(4) Pancreatic ducts 196. Select the bond that is not involved in stabilizing
the structure of myoglobin.
191. The total number of glycosidic bonds present in
three fullturns of a double stranded B-DNA is (1) Hydrogen bonds
(1) 90 (2) 70 (2) Electrostatic interactions
(3) 60 (4) 50 (3) Hydrophilic interactions
192. In an enzymatic reaction, the "transition state (4) Glycosidic bonds
structure" of the substrate formed is 197. Uridine differs from uridylic acid in
(1) Permanent and stable (1) Presence of nitrogenous base
(2) Transient and unstable (2) Type of pentose sugar
(3) Permanent but unstable (3) Absence of phosphate grouS
(4) Transient but stable (4) Presence of OH at 2' position of sugar moiety
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Test-2 (Code-B) Final Test Series for NEET-2024
198. Choose the incorrect match. 199. During the chemical analysis of living tissues' the
Has lower melting acid-insoluble fraction will contain all of the givert
(1) Gingelly oil molecules, except
point as compared to
fats (1) Myosin
(2) Starch
(2) Lecithin Classified as simple (3) GLUT-4
lipid
(4) Glycine
(3) Saturated fatty Possess C-C bonds 200. In the polynucleotide chain of DNA, a thymine is
acids linked to the - OH of
(4) Palmitic acid The carboxyl group (1) 5C pentose sugar
present in it reacts (2) 3C pentose sugar
with - OH of glycerol (3) 1'C pentose sugar
CC019 for esterification
(4) 2'C pentose sugar

Scan the QR Code for

Detailed Video Solutions
(Video will be available to access post 3 p.m. on 27 March, 2024 onwards)

Co-019

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Test-3 (Code-B) Final Test Series for NEET-2024

95 Select an incorrect statenment among the 98. Which of the following oxides is amphoteric?
following (1) CO: (2) SnO2
(1) Si, Ge and Sn have nearly equal (4) GeOz
(3) SiO2
electronegativities 99. Match column- with column-l
(2) Entropy of graphite is more than diamond
Column-l Column-1|
(3) CO forms a complex with haemoglobin
(4) SnO and PbO are basic in nature (Silicate) (Formula)
Inthe following questions, a statement of assertion a Pyrosilicate (1) Sio
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R).
b Orthosilicate ()
Assertion (A):CCl, is not hydrolysed by water.
Reason (R): In CCI4, the central atom do not have
c.Chain Silicate
vacant dorbitals.
co-019
(ii)Si,O
CC-019
In igeC 1e above statemefes-se the d. Sheet Silicate
correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the
(iv)
(siO3)hj2n
The correct option is
reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion (1) a(iv), b(), c(i), d(ii)
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the (2) a(i), b(i),c(iüi), d(iv)
reason is not the correct explanation of the (3) a(ii), b(), c(iv), d(i)
assertion
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(i),d()
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false 100. The correct order of bond enthalpy is
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements
(1) Sn -SnGe-Ge>Si - Si> C-C
97. Colour of bead formed when CoO is heated with (2) CCGeGe >Si - Si >Sn - Sn
glassy bead is (3) CC> SiSi> Ge-Ge> Sn -Sn
(1) Red (2) Yellow (4) Si - Si >C-C> Sn - Sn > Ge - Ge
(3) Green (4) Blue

|30TANY
SECTION -A 102. Select the correct statement about the plasma
membrane.
101. The membrane of RBCs of human have protein
(1) Neutral solutes move across the membrane
and lipid content respectively in the ratioof by the process of active transport only
approximately (2) It is a bi layer of proteins in which lipids are
(1) 35% and 40% embedded
(3) Water may move across the membrane from
(2) 62% and 30%
higher concentration to lower concentration
(3) 52%f0% CC-019 (4CCnkEeukaryotes membrbacterium
(4) 40% and 529% is selectively permeable
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 Test-3 (Code-B)
Final Test Series for NEET-2024

103. ldentify the wrongly matched pair. 107. Read the following statements and select the
(1) Rough ER - Detoxification of drugs correct option.
(2) Smooth ER - Specialised in the Statement A : In plant cells Golgi apparatus is
synthesis of lipids and of unconnected units called
made up
steroids
dictyosomes.
(3) Rough ER Present in the cells which Statement B: A number of proteins synthesised
are actively involved in cisternae of
by ribosomes of ER are modified in
protein synthesis and
secretion Golgi apparatus.
(4) Smooth ER - Associated with muscle (1) Statement A is correct but statement B is
contraction by release and incorrect

CC-019 uptake of Ac U9 (2r6jatetpent A is incorrect btstetement B is

104. Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Correct
statements and select the correct option.
(3) Both statements Aand Bare correct
Assertion (A): Interphase is also called the
(4) Both statements Aand Bare incorrect
resting phase.
Reason (R): In interphase, cells are metabolically 108. Acrosome of the sperm is modified
inactive. (1) Lysosome (2) Mitochondria
(1) Both (A) and (R) are false
(3) Vacuole (4) Golgi apparatus
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
109. Whichof.the. following feature is not similar in
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A) chloroplast and mitochondria?
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (1) Double membrane-bound organelle
explanation of (A) (2)Presence öf 80S ribosomes
105. Assuming the chromosome number of onion root
cell as 16, then how many chromosomes will this
(3) Synthesise ATP
cell have at G1 phase, S phase and M pha_e (4)_Presence of circular dsDNA
respectively? 110.nsome organisms karyokinesis is not followed by
(1) 16, 32, 32 respectively cytokinesis as a result of which () condition
(2) 16, 16, 16 respectively M e d i s ;

arises leading to the formation of (iü)

(3) 16, 32, 16 respectively
(4) 32, 32, 16 respectively Choose the correct option for (i) and (ii).
106. Duplication of centrioles occurs in the (1) () Multicellular, (ii) syncytium
(1) Cytoplasm
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum
(2) () Multinucleate, (ii) syncytium
(3)(4) Nicleus
lP Uninucleate, (i) Coenocyte
CC-019
(019
(4) ) Unicellular, (ü) Cell plate
C-019

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Test-3 (Code-B) Final Test Series for NEET-2024

111. ldentify the different stages of cell cycle from the (1) a(iv), b(i), c(). d(i)
features given below and choose the correct
option. (2) a(iv). b(i), c(). di)
(a) In oocytes ofsome vertebrates,this stage can (3) a(ii), b(ii), c(iv). d()
last for months or years. (4) a(), b(iv), c(i), d(i)
(b) Bivalent chromosomes align on the equatorial 115. Read the following statements and select the
plate. correct option.
(c) The chromosomes cluster at pole, nucleolus
and the nuclear membrane reappear.
Statement A : Polar molecules require a carrier
protein of the membrane to facilitate their transport
A B across the membrane.
(1) Diakinesis Metaphase-ll Anaphase Il Statement B: Movement of few ions or molecules
(2 ctPne Metaphase-ll Jelophase-l across the plasma membrane is energy
(3) Diakinesis Metaphase-l| CC-019
Telophase-I dependehPprocess. CC-019

(4) Diplotene Metaphase-l (1) Only statement A is correct

Telophase
112. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter (2) Both statements Aand Bare incorrect
vegetative inactive stage, this process occurs at (3) Both statements A and B are correct
the end of
(4) Only statement B is correct
(1) G1 phase (2) S phase 116. Plasmodesmata is responsible for
(3) G2 phase (4) M phase
113. The regulation of osmotic expansion of. a..cell
(1) Connecting the cytoplasm of neighbouring
which is kept in water is chiefly carried Qut by animal cells.
(1) Ribosomes (2) Plastids (2).Connecting the cytoplasm of neighbouring
(3) Centriole (4) Vacuoles plant cells.
114. Match the following columns and select the (3) Holding the different neighbouring plant cells
correct options. togethr
Column Column-l| (4) Holding the different neighbouring animal cells
a. Thylakoids () Infoldingof inner together
membrane in 117. Which stage of mitosis is best for studying the
mitochondria morphology of chromosomes?
b. Centriole (i) Highly extended and. (1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
elaborate nucleoprotéin (3) Anaphase (4) Telophase
fibers
118. Mitotic apparatus is composed of
Chromatin (ii) It form basal body of (1) One aster together with chromosomes
cilia or flagella (2) Centrosome along with microtubules
d. Cristae (iv) Flat membranous sacs in
CC-019 stroma CC-019 c*88ers together with s res
(4) Two microtubules together with chromatin

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 Test-3 (Code-B)
Final Test Series for NEET-2024

119 Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) (1) a(ü). b(), c(üi), d(iv)
and choose the correct option. (2) a(ii), b(ii), c(iv), d()
Assertion (A) : Concentration of ions and other
(3) a(i). b(i), c(i), d(iv)
molecules are significantly higher in the vacuole
than in the cytoplasm of plant cell. (4) a(iv), b(), coi), d(ii)
Reason (R): In plants, the tonoplast facilitates the 123. Which of the following scientists explained that
cells"?
transport of a number of ions and other molecules "new cells are formed from pre-existing
against concentration gradient into the vacuole. (1) Matthias Schleiden (2) Rudolf Virchow
(1) Both (A) and (R) are false
(3) Theodore Schwann (4) Robert Brown
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
124. In animal cells, cytokinesis occurs through
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A) (1) Cell plate formation
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the (2)_ Furrow formation in cel wall
OGea t9planation of (A) CC-019 (3)CC-019, CC-01
Furrow formation in plasma memÑYane
120. The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle is (4) Formation of phragmoplast
(1) Post-mitotic gap phase ’ DNA synthesis ’ 125. Cells remain metabolically active but no longer
Pre-mitotic gap phase ’ Mitosis proliferate in which of the given phase/stage of cell
(2) Pre-mitotic gap phase ’ DNA synthesis ’
Post mitotic gap phase ’ Mitosis cycle?
(1) Mitotic phase (2) Synthesis phase
(3) DNA synthesis ’ Post-mitotic gap phase ’
Mitosis ’ Pre-mitotic gap phase (3) Quiescent stage (4) Gap 1phase
(4) Post-mitotic gap phase ’ Mitosis ’ DNA 126. The stage of cell division in which exchange of
synthesis ’ Pre mitotic gap phase genetic material between non-sister chromatids of
121. Higher plant cells and animal cells are different as homologous chromosomes OCCurS is also
the former possess all,except characterisedbý.
(1) Plastids (2) Central vacuoles (1) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
(3) Cell walls (4) Centrioles
(2) Terminalisation of chiasmata
122. Match column I with column || w.r.t. prokaryotic
(3) Clear appearance of chiasmata
celland choose the correct option.
Column l Column Il (4)-Involvement of recombinase enzyme
127. Choose the Correct one for acrocentric
Infoldings of cell,
(0) membrane chromosome.
Mesosomes
(1) It appears Ishaped during anaphase
|Helps in attachmernt
b Pili with substratúm (2) The centromere is situated close to its end
Involved in DNA
forming one extremely short and one very long
C Fimbriae (iii) | transfer between arm.

two cels (3) The centromere is slightly away from the

cOSor
middle the chromosome,
d. (CHbt&atophores (iv)Coátnthents (4) TwO equal arms are preSent
CC-019
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Test-3 (Code-B) Final Test Series for NEET-2024
128 In a Golgi body. the maturing face is 134 Which structure of bacteria confer resistance
(1) Concave and also called trans face towards antibiotics?
(2) Not interconnected with cis face (2) Plasmid
(1) Mesosome
(3) Receiving face and receives vesicles from ER (4) Nucleus
(3) Nucleoid
(4) Convex and closely appressed with ER
129. Cytoskeleton helps in all, except 135. Nuclear membrane is absent in
(1) Celldivision (1) Volvox (2) Chlamydomonas
(2) Mechanical support (3) Anabaena (4) Yeast
(3) Mot1ity SECTION - B
(4) Photophosphorylation
136. State true (T) orfalse (F) for the given statements
130. Eukaryotic flagella and cilia are similar to each and cho0se the correct option.
othera&i9
a
CC-019
Have '9 +2' organisation of microtubules (aehtisles are made up of hihe gai of evenly
b Are surrounded by membrane spaced peripheral fibrils of tubulin protein.
Help in movement (b) Some chromosomes exhibit non-staining
d. Are hair-like outgrowths and work as oars secondary constriction at a fixed location,
Choose the correct one(s) creating a small fragment known as satellite
(1) Only a and b (2) Onlyc (c) The inner membrane of nuclear envelope
(3) Only a and d (4) Only a, b and c encloses the nucleoplasm and the chromatin
131. If pollen grain has 12 pg of DNA then what amount material.
of DNA would have been there in pollen mother
cellat G2 phase? (d) The cristae of; mitochondria Contains
(1) 12 p9 (2) 48 pg components fo ATP and protein synthesis.
(3) 24 pg (4) 36 pg (a) (b) (c) (d)
132. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. isobrachial (1) F F T
chromosomes.
(1) They are metacentric chromosomes (2) T T

(2) The centromere is present at the centre in (3) T F T T

these chromosomes i c A !

(4) F T T
(3) These chromosomes have two equal arms
(4) They appear L- shaped during anaphase 137. The ribosomes of the chloroplast are composed of
133. Allof the following features are true for lipidsof two subunits, those are
plasma membrane, except
(1) 60 S smaller subunit and 40 S larger subunit
(1) Tails are hydrophobic
(2) 40 S larger subunit and 30 S smaller subunit
(2) Polar heads are towards the inner sides
(3) CCO8n
Lipids, a bilayer (3) 50 S smaller subunit and 40 S larger subunit
(4) Major Tipids are phospholipidsC-019 (4f6o91ger subunit and 30-er subunit
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Final Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-3 (Code-B)

138 Select the wrongly matched pair. 144. A polysome contains

(1) Leptotene Condensation and coiling (1) Many ribosomes and asingle m-RNA
of chromatin fibres (2) Single ribosome and many m-RNAs
- Homologous chromosomes (3) Single ribosome and single m-RNA
(2) Zygotene
start pairing together (4) Many ribosomes and many m-RNAs
of
Four chromotids of each 145. Attachment of spindle fibres to kinetochores
(3) Pachytene
bivalent become distinct chromosomes is seen in

and clearly appear as (1) Prophase (2) Anaphase

tetrads (3) Metaphase (4) Telophase
Nucleolus disappears and 146. Which stru cture perform the function of
(4) Diplotene
mitochondria in bacteria?
the nuclear envelope
CC-019 disintegratec-019 (1COhtgatophores (2) FBlB19
(3) Mesosome (4) Inclusion bodies
139. The number and ploidy level of cells formed from
147. Microtubules are not constituents of
adiploid cell at the end of meiosis lis respectively
(1) Two and diploid (2) Four and haploid (1) Cilia (2) Spindle fibres
(3) Two and haploid (4) Four and diploid (3) Nucleosome (4) Centriole
140. G: ’ S transition is carriedout by 148. Which among the following is afunction of Golgi
complex?
(1) Cyclins only
(1) Formation of secretory vesicles
(2) Maturation promoting factor
(3) G1 cyclin and cdc2 kinase
(2) Majorly involved in protein synthesis
(3) Activation of amino acid
(4) Mitotic cyclin and cdc2 kinase (4) Synthesis of lipids and steroids
141. Which one of the following structures is/are cell
149. Refer the given schematic presentation of
primarily responsible for cell plate mediated
cytokinesis in plant cells? cycle.
(1) Kinetochores
(2) Golgi derived vesicles
(3) Actin and myosin
(4) Centriole and centromere
142. At the end of Golgi complex, ER
nucleolus and nuclear envelope disappear.
Choose the correct option to fill in the blank.
P
(1) Telophase (2) Prophase
(3) Metaphase (4) Anaphase
is
143. The longest phase of meiotic cell division
(2) Metgtag49 Wigt ggpf the following is inçorregtty matched
(1) POpasgl w.r.t. stage(s) of cell cycle?
(3) Prophase II (4) Metaphase II
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Test-3 (Code-B) Final Test Series for NEET-2024

(1) P- Duplication of Golgi body 150. Chromosomes form A metaphasic plate(s) in

(2) X- Allthe chromosomes align themselves at metaphase I, and B metaphasic plate(s) in
equator
metaphase lI.
(3) Y- Reappearance of ER, nucleolus in Choose the correct option for A and 8
daughter cells. (1) A-2. B-1 (2) A-2, B-2
(4) B- Last phase of karyokinesis (3) A-1, B-1 (4) A-1, B-2

zOOLOGY

SECTION -A 155. Read the following statements.

Statement A : Aportal vein does not carry blood
151. whicee tollowing is coR_IOEFE as a direty 0159the heart but foG-@1etwork of
secondary lymphoid organ as well as graveyard of
human RBCs?
capillaries in another or intermediate organ before
reaching the heart.
(1) Pancreas (2) Red bone marrow Statement B:Two portal systemns are present in
(3) Spleen (4) Thymus humans.
Select the correct option.
152. Read the following features w.rt. a formed
element. (1) Both statements A and B are correct
(2) Only statement A is correct
() Cell fragments produced from megakaryocytes
(3) Only statement B is correct
(i) Normal count in a healthy adult man is (4) Both statements AandBare incorrect
1,500,00 -3,500,00 mm-³of blood 156. Total Lung Capacity (TLC) is not
(ii) Its deficiency can cause clottingdisorders Complete the,e,sentence by choosing the correct
All the above features are true for option.
(1) The total volume of air accommodated in the
(1) Lymphocyte (2) Erythrocyte lungs at the end of a forced inspiration.
(3) Thrombocyte (4) Monocytes (2) Represented as RV + ERV + TV + IRV
153. Semilunar valves forced open during (3) Measured by using a spirometer
(1) Ventricular systole (4) Ranges between 51 00 -5800 mL in a normal
adult human
(2) Atrial systole 157. During normal respiration, every 4000 mL of
(3) Ventricular diastole deoxygenated blood delivers approximately
(4) Joint diastole mL of CO, to the alveoli in humnans under normal
physiological conditions. Select the option which
154. Glottis is the openingof fills the blank correctly.
(1) PbgvO19 (2) LargC-019 (1C¬-019 (2) 16C-019
(3) Oral cavity (4) Oesophagus (3) 50 (4) 30
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