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Full Test 2

This document presents a full syllabus test for NEET, covering various physics topics including magnetic fields, energy, and thermodynamics. It includes multiple-choice questions with detailed calculations and explanations for each answer. The test code is FT - 02, and it is structured to assess students' understanding of fundamental physics concepts.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
61 views10 pages

Full Test 2

This document presents a full syllabus test for NEET, covering various physics topics including magnetic fields, energy, and thermodynamics. It includes multiple-choice questions with detailed calculations and explanations for each answer. The test code is FT - 02, and it is structured to assess students' understanding of fundamental physics concepts.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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12 FT - 02

SOLUTIONS
TEST SERIES-NEET [(4+1)(4+1)(+10)]

FULL SYLLABUS TEST - 02 TEST CODE : FT - 02


PART - I : PHYSICS As wavelength of light decreases, fringe width will
decrease and fringe line will come closer.
1. (4) 6. (1) The final boolean expression is,
2. (1) Magnetic field due to a bar magnet in the broad-side
on position is given by X = ( A . B ) = A + B = A + B Þ OR gate
µ0 M 7. (2) Velocity, v = 2t
B= ; M = ml .
4p é
l2 ù
3/ 2 Þ wr = 2t (Q v = wr)
2
êr + ú
ë 4 û 2t
After substituting the values and simplifying we get Þ w=
r
B = 6 × 10–5 A -m 2 æ dq ö
3. (2) The given masses are shown in figure. Þ dq = t dt çQ w = dt ÷
r è ø
4p 2 t 2t 2
Þ ò0 dq =
r ò0 t dt Þ 4p =
2r
Þ t2 = 4pr

v 2 4t 2 4
Radial acceleration, ar = = = ´ 4pr = 16p m/s
r r r
dv d
at = = 2t = 2 m/s
dt dt
So anet = at2 + ar2 = (2) 2 + (16p) 2

= 2 1 + 64 p 2
\ Moment of inertia of given system about the diagonal AC
8. (2) Force on any charge due to a number of other
IAC = IA + IB + IC + ID charges is the vector sum of all the forces on that charge
2 2 due to the other charges, taken one at a time. The
æ L ö æ L ö
= 0+Mç ÷ +0+Mç ÷ individual force are unaffected due to the presence of
è 2ø è 2ø other charges. This is the principle of superposition of
charges.
ML2 ML2
= + = ML2 9. (2) The FBD of given system is
2 2
4. (1) n MSD = (n + 1) VSD

æ n ö
1 VSD = çè ÷ MSD
n + 1ø
LC = 1MSD – 1VSD

æ n ö Both block will move together when they have same


= ç1 - ÷ MSD
è n +1 ø acceleration (a) as
æ 1 ö 1cm 0.2 2 f = m2a [For m2]
=ç ÷ ´ = cm = mm
è n +1ø 5 n +1 n +1 mm2g = m2a Þ a = mg
5. (1) Fringe width, F – f = m1a [For m1]
l×D F = f + m1a = m2mg + m1mg = mg(m1 + m2)
b=
d 10. (3) Power output = V2I2 = 2.2 kW
Here, l = wavelength of light 2.2kW
D = Distance of screen from source \ V2 = = 220 volts
d = Distance between the slits (10A )
Q l R > lV \ Input voltage for step-down transformer
FT - 02 13

V1 N1 KQ4p(r + R) 1 ( r + R )Q
= =2 = =
V2 N 2
2
4p(r + R ) 2
4pe 0 (r 2 + R 2 )
Vinput = 2 × Voutput = 2 × 220 = 440 V
æ 7R ö æ R ö
I1 N 2 ç ÷ç ÷ 7R
8 øè 8 ø
Also I = N 15. (2) R eq = è =
2 1 R 64
1
\ I1 = ´ 10 = 5A
2
11. (1) The magnetic field at the point P is 16. (2) V
BP = BAB + BBC + BCD
m0 i
BAB =
4pr
m 0i m i v
BBC = ´p = 0
4pr 4r Change in momentum, Mv – (–Mv) = 2Mv.
BCD = 0 17. (4) For T.I.R. 45° > C
\ sin 45° > sin C
45°
æm i m i ö m iæ1 1 ö 1 4/3
BP = ç 0 + 0 ÷ = 0 ç + \ >
÷ 2 n
è 4r 4pr ø 2 r è 2 2p ø 45°
4 2
\ n>
12. (4) When e– jumps from lower to higher energy orbit, 3
energy is absorbed, but not emitted. So, statement I is 18. (2) Photoelectric current depends only on intensity of
incorrect. incident light.
When e– jump from higher energy orbit (E2) to lower energy
19. (2) We know that F × v = Power
orbit (E1). Then, energy of emitted photon is E2 – E1 = h.
\ F × v = c where c = constant
E - E1
\f = 2 dv æ mdv ö
h \m ´v =c çQF = ma = dt ÷
13. (2) For path iaf, dt è ø
Q = 50 cal v t
1
W = 20 cal a f \ mò vdv = c ò dt \ mv 2 = ct
By first law of thermodynamics, 2
0 0
DU = Q - W = 50 – 20 = 30 cal. 2c 1 2
For path ibf i b \ v= ´t
Q' = 36 cal m
W' = ? dx 2c 1 2
or, W' = Q' – DU' \ = ´t
dt m
Since, the change in internal energy does not depend on
the path, therefore x t
2c 1
DU ' = 30 cal
\ W' = Q' – DU ' = 36 – 30 = 6 cal.
\ ò dx = m
´ ò t 2 dt
0 0
14. (4) Let s be the surface charge density of the shells. 3
Charge on the inner shell, Q1 = s 4pr 2 2c 2t 2 3
x= ´ Þ xµt 2
Charge on the outer shell, Q2 = s 4pR 2 m 3
\ Total charge, Q = s 4p (r 2 + R 2 ) 20. (1)
3µF
4µF C1 = 4µF 12µF
Q
Þs=
4p ( r 2 + R 2 ) 9µF
Potential at the common centre, Þ
2µF 2µF
KQ1 KQ2 æ where K = 1 ö
VC = + ç ÷
r R è 4pe0 ø 8V 8V
K s 4pr 2 K s4pR 2 By voltage division rule,
= + = K s4p ( r + R )
r R é æ 12 ö ù
Charge on 4mF is q1 = ê ç
è ÷ø ´ 8 ú ´ 4 = 24mC
ë 4 + 12 û
14 FT - 02

4 Radius of nth orbit,


The voltage across 12mF is VP = ×8 = 2V
4 + 12
\ Voltage across 9mF is also 2V n 2h 2
rn =
\ Charge on 9mF capacitor = 9 × 2 = 18mC 4p 2kZme 2
\ Total charge on 4 mF and 9mF = 42mC Velocity of election in nth orbit,
KQ 42 ´ 10-6
\ E = 2 = 9 × 109 × = 420 NC–1 2pkZe 2
r 30 ´ 30 vn =
nh
B2
21. (3) Energy per unit volume, u = Potential energy in nth orbit,
2m 0

é B2 ù é ML2 T -2 ù kZe2
ë û = éML-1T -2 ù U =–
ê ú [ ] = u =
ë û rn
m
ëê 0 ûú éL ù
3
ë û kinetic energy in nth orbit,
F
A Fl kZe 2
22. (1) From Hookes law, Y = or 0 = Dl K=
Dl AY 2rn
l0
26. (1) Polariser A and B have same alignment of transmission
F and l0 same for three wires axis.
1 Lets assume polariser C is introduced at q angle
\ Dlµ 14
AY I I 2 æ 2ö
Given A1 : A2 : A3 = 1 : 2 : 3 and Y1 : Y2 : Y3 = 3 : 2 : 1 cos2 q ´ cos2 q = Þ cos 4 q = Þ cos q = ç ÷
2 3 3 è 3ø
D l1 : D l2 : D l3 : 4 : 3 : 4 27. (1)
23. (4) Given, Area of cross-section of pipe, 28. (3) Atomic number in LHS = 92
A = 10 cm2 Atomic number in RHS = 56 + 36 = 92
Length of pipe, l = 20 cm Mass number in LHS = 236
m0 N1 N2 A 4 p ´ 10 -7 ´ 300 ´ 400 ´ 10 ´ 10 -4 Mass number in RHS = 141 + 92 = 233
M= = \ 92X236 ® 56Y141 + 36Z92 + 3(0n1)
l 0.2
= 2.4p × 10–4 H \ R = 0n1(neutron)
24. (3) Escape velocity of a particle from the surface of a 29. (2) Velocity of particle 1,
planet is given by dy1 æ pö
v1 = = 0.1 ´ 100p cos ç100pt + ÷
ve = 2gR dt è 3ø
Velocity of particle 2,
where, g = acceleration due to gravity,
dy æ pö
and R = radius of the planet v2 = 2 = - 0.1p sin pt = 0.1p cos ç pt + ÷
Given, acceleration due to gravity at equator, dt è 2ø
\ Phase difference of velocity of particle 1 with respect to
1
gE = g P Þ gP = 3gE …(i) the velocity of particle 2 is
3
p p 2 p - 3p p
Escape velocity of a particle at equator, = f1 - f 2 = - = =–
3 2 6 6
\ vE = 2 g E R …(ii) 30. (4) Freq = mg + 2 [T (2 p R)] [ T = 75 ´ 10–3 N/m ]
At poles, = 0.1 + 2 [75 ´ 10–3 (0.2)] = 0.130 N
vP = 2gP R 31. (2) Output, Y = (A + B) + (B × 1)
= A + B+ B = A +B
= 2 ´ 3g E R = 3 2 g E R [From Eq. (i)] \ Y = 0 Þ A = 0 and B = 0
= 3vE = [From Eq. (ii)] [Q vE = V] 32. (2) Energy required = mgh
3v In both cases, h is the same. Hence energy both is the
Hence, 3v is the escape velocity for a particle at the same.
33. (1) Displacement current is set up in a region where
pole of this planet.
the electric field is changing with time.
25. (1) (A) ® (s); (B) ® (p); (C) ® (q); (D) ® (r)
34. (2)
FT - 02 15

f0 41. (4) B
35. (1) =9, \ f0 = 9 fe
fe 100W 10W
Also f0 + fe = 20 (Q final image is at infinity)
A C
9 fe + fe = 20, fe = 2 cm, \ f0 = 18 cm
G
36. (4)
37. (4) Resistance, R = V2/P = (220)2/P. Since P of each 60W 5W
appliance is the same, hence R is same for all the three D
appliances.
38. (2) According to ideal gas equation 10 V
PV = nRT Current through the galvanometer,
m m æ TM ö VB - VD
PV = RT \r = = ç P \ slope µ T IG =
M v è R ÷ø RBD
Hence T2 > T1 VB - VA VB - VD VB - VC
+ + =0
39. (2) We have 100 15 10
1 V - 10 VB - VD VB - 0
x = ( -1´ 2 ) + ´ 6 ´ 22 = -2 + 12 = 10m Þ B + + =0
2 100 15 10
1 V - 10 VB - VD VB
y = (1´ 2 ) + ´ 4 ´ 22 = 2 + 8 = 10m Þ B + + =0
2 20 3 2
r
So, r = 10iˆ + 10ˆj Þ 3VB - 30 + 20VB - 20VD + 30VB = 0
t = 2sec
r Þ 53VB - 20VD = 30 ...(i)
r = 102 + 102 = 10 2m = 14.14 m Similarly,
VD - 10 VD - VB VD - 0
40. (2) The effective acceleration of a bob in water + + =0
60 15 5
g' = g æç 1 - s ö÷ Þ VD - 10 + 4VD - 4VB + 12VD = 0
è rø
Here s and r are the density of water and the bob Þ -4VB + 17VD = 10 ...(ii)
respectively. Solving equations (i) and (ii), we get
The time period in air is VB = 0.86 V and VD = 0.79 V
VB - VD 0.86 - 0.79 0.07
l \ IG = = =
T = 2p ...(1) RBD 15 15
g
\ IG = 4.87 m A
The time period in water is
42. (3) The gravitational potential energy of a system is given
l by
T’ = 2p ...(2)
g' G
U= - [2m2 + 6m2 + 3m2]
Divide equation (2) by (1), we have a
Gm 2
T' l g U = -11
= ´ a
T g' l
43. (3) Magnetic susceptibility is low and negative for
diamagnetic; low but positive for paramagnetic; positive
2T g 1 and high for ferromagnetic.
= Þ 2=
T æ sö s
g ç1 - ÷ 1- di di i
è rø r 44. (3) i 2 R = Li Þ =
dt dt t
Since (Qs = 1)
dé I (1 - e- t/ t )
1 1 1 1 1 Þ I0 (1 - e - t / t ) ù = 0
2= Þ 1- = Þ = dt ë û t
1 r 2 r 2
1- é L 20 ù
r Þ t = t ln2 = 2ln2 ê ast = = = 2ú
ë R 10 û
\ r=2
16 FT - 02

45. (3) Initial diameter of tyre = (1000 – 6) mm = 994 mm, so 50. (3) Velocity of wave is
994 w 4
initial radius of tyre R = = 497 mm V= = = 0.5m/s
2 K 8
6
and change in diameter DD = 6 mm so DR = = 3 mm
2 PART - II : CHEMISTRY
After increasing temperature by Dq tyre will fit onto wheel
Increment in the length (circumference) of the iron tyre
6.02 ´ 1020
g g 51. (2) \ Number of moles =
DL = L ´ a ´ Dq = L ´ ´ Dq [As a = ] NA
3 3
ægö 3 DR 3´ 3
2pDR = 2pR ç ÷ Dq Þ Dq = = 6.02 ´ 1020
3
è ø g R 3.6 ´ 10 –5 ´ 497 = = 1 ´ 10-3 mol
Þ Dq ; 500°C 6.023 ´ 1023
46. (2) According to work energy theorem Volume of the solution = 100 mL = 0.1 L
W =Ufinal – Uinitial = MB (cos 0 – cos 60°) Concentration of urea solution
MB (in mol L–1)
W= = 3J ... (i)
2 1 ´ 10-3
æ ö = mol L-1
t = MB sin q = MB sin 60° = ç MB 3 ÷ ... (ii) 0.1
è 2 ø = 1 × 10–2 mol L–1
From equation (i) and (ii) = 0.01 mol L–1
2 3´ 3
t= = 3J æ1ö
2 52. (4) For first orbit (n = 1), r1 = ç ÷ ´ 0.529Å
47. (4) Figure shows a bar of diamagnetic material placed in èzø
an external magnetic field.
The field lines are repelled æ9ö
For third orbit (n = 3), r3 = ç ÷ ´ 0.529Å
or expelled and the field èzø
inside the material is Hence, r3 = 9r1
reduced, this reduction is
53. (1) Both statement I and statement II are true.
slight, being one part in 105.
In group 13 Elements trivalent halides get hydrolysed in
When placed in a non-uniform magnetic field, the bar will
water due to their covalent nature. The trichlorides on
tend to move from high to low field. hydrolysis in water form tetrahedral [M(OH)4]– species.
48. (2) Given Whereas Aluminium chloride in acidified aqueous solation
F = ax2 + bt1/2 forms octahedral [Al(H2O)6] ion.
54. (2) A reducing sugar has a free aldehyde group or a free
From the principle of homogeneity of dimension
ketone group.
[F ] = [ax2] All monosaccharides are reducing sugars like glucose,
Also [F] = [bt1/2] fructose, ribose.
Some disaccharides like lactose, maltose and ribose are
[F] [F] reducing in nature. Sucrose is non-reducing sugar as its
\[a] = = [M1L-1T-2 ] and [b] = = [M1L1T -5/ 2 ]
éëx2 ùû éë t1/ 2 ùû carbonyl groups are involved in glycosidic linkage.
55. (2)
+ –
é b 2 ù [M 2 L2 T -5 ] 1 3 -3 NH2 N2Cl
Dimension of ê a ú = 1 -1 -2 = [M L T ]
ë û [M L T ] 2

r r ur
49. ( )
(2) F = q v ´ B = qvBsin q Cl
ur ur Cu2/Cl2 Na/dry ether
r r
As v is parallel to B, angle between v and B is 0°.
¬¾¾¾
(Free radical
mechanism)
\F=0
56. (3) When halogen is present directly on the benzene
Hence, electron will continue to move with constant nucleus it produces two opposing effects namely + M
velocity.
(activating effect) and –I (deactivating)
FT - 02 17

H
•• Br ••
+
+H
+

+ E effect (H+ is a electron deficient species)


(–I effect, + M effect) –

+ CN
However, + M > –I hence halogens are said to be o, p-
directing (due to + M effect) but deactivating group (due CN
to –I effect) groups giving mainly p-substituted product. – E effect ( CN is a electron rich species)
57. (2) A – (r), B – (p), C – (s), D – (q) 64. (2) CH3Br + AgF ¾® CH3F + AgBr
58. (3) OH Br 65. (1) Both statement I and II are correct.
H
PB r3

alc. OH 66. (3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
¾¾® ¾¾¾®
(–HBr) Na is highly reactive. So it reacts with acid to produces
O O O H2 gas.
More stable due
to conjugation 67. (3) Solubilty of a gas decreases with increase in
59. (2) The correct match is temperature. Molality is not affected by temperature.
A – (r), B – (p), C – (s), D – (q) 68. (2)
60. (3) Formal charge (Qf) on an atom in a Lewis Structure = 0 –1 +1
[Total number of valence electron in the free atom (V)] (A) Cl2 + 2NaOH NaCl + NaOCl + H 2 O
– [total number of non bonding/unshared electron] Red
ox
– [number of bond around the atom]
\ Qf = V – (U) – (B) –1 –2 0
Qf = V – (U + B) (B) H 2 O 2 H 2O + O2
Red
61. (1) Formation of NH3 takes place according to Le- ox
Chatelier’s principle.
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ¾® 2NH3(g) +7 +6 +4 0
As number of moles of product (2) is less than number of (C) 2KMnO 4 K 2 MnO 4 + MnO2 + O2
moles of reactants (4). Red
Red
So, increase in pressure will favour forward direction.
As the reaction is exothermic so exothermic decrease in +6 +7 +4
temperature will favour forward direction. (D) 3MnO 24 - + 4H + 2MnO4- + MnO2 + 2H2 O
Hence, high pressure and low temperature are favourable ox
conditions for formation of NH3. Red
62. (3) The atmospheric pressure (p) = the volatile organic 69. (4) C > B > D > A
compound vap. pressure (p1) + the water vap. pressure 70. (4) Lucas reagent is anhydrous ZnCl2 and conc. HCl. It
(p2). is used to distinguish between 1°, 2° and 3° alcohols.
+ 3° alcohols ® immediate turbidity
NH2 NH2 2° alcohols ® turbidity after 5 minutes
– 1° alcohols ® No turbidity at room temp.
63. (1)
CH3
|
CH3 - C - OH is a tertiary alcohol hence it will give
+ R effect ( – NH 2 is a electron donating group) |

CH 3
O O O O
N N fastest reaction with Lucas reagent.
71. (3) In Acidic medium
+ +6
Cr2 O27 - + 14H + + 6e - ¾¾
® 2Cr 3+ + 7H 2O

– R effect (– NO2 is a electron withdrawing group)


18 FT - 02

In basic medium
CH3 CH3
+6 +6
Cr2 O72- + 2OH - ¾¾ ® 2Cr O42- + H 2 O
NaBH
(IV) CH3—C—Cl ¾¾¾® CH3—C—H
4

Oxidation state of Cr in CrO42–


CH3 CH3
Þ x + 4 (–2) = –2 Þ x = + 6
72. (1) There is no reaction between I– and Fe3+ Hence, option (3) is the correct answer.
73. (1) In air phosphorous change into P2O5. 80. (1) When initial concentration of A is kept constant and
74. (4) A – (q), B – (p), C – (r), D – (s) that of B is changed (tripled), the rate of the reaction
increases by 9 times.
(A)
Thus, the order of the reaction will be 2 with respect to B.
O When the concentration of B is kept constant and that of
A is increased by 3 times, the rate of the reaction increases
® (- CHO)
Pd, H - BaSO
2 4
Acid Chloride C ¾Rosenmund
¾¾¾¾¾¾ reaction by 3 times too.
Cl Thus, the order of the reaction is 1 with respect to A.
CHO 81. (4) The longest chain has nine carbon atoms.
CO, HCl, anhyd.
(B) ¾¾¾¾¾® (Gatterman-Koch The chain has a hydroxy group at C – 3, – F and CH3 at C
AlCl3
reaction) – 4, – Cl and – CH3 at C – 5 and a C – C double bond at C
4 HgSO , H SO
2 4 – 7.
(C) HC ≡CH ¾¾¾¾¾® H 3 C - CHO (Addition of water
to acetylene)
Thus, the IUPAC name will be :
DIBAL - H
(D) Ester ¾¾¾¾® Aldehyde 5-Chloro-4-fluoro-4, 5-dimethyl non-7-en-3-ol
[AlH(i - Bu)2]
82. (2)
75. (1) Due to H-bonding.
76. (3) Highest molar conductivity (for equimolar solutions) O
will be exhibited by the complex that will dissociate into a
greater number of ions in the solution. CH3
[Pt (NH3)2 Cl2] = 0 H2 N - NH 2 , KOH
®
ethylene glycol
[Co (NH3)4 Cl2]Cl = 2
HO
K4 [Fe (CN)6] = 5
[Cr (H2O)6]Cl3 = 4 CH3
Thus, potassium hexacyano ferrate (II) will have the
highest molar conductivity.
HO
Cl N(CH3)2
NH2NH2, OH– can reduce
(CH 3 ) 2 NH
77. (1) (+) (CH 3 ) 2 NLi ¾¾¾¾¾ ® C=O® CH2 group. Therefore, the most effective

78. (1) Conductivity depends on ion in unit volume. reagent is NH2NH2, OH–.
83. (2) A – (r); B – (s); C – (p); D – (q)
79. (3) (A) 3d3 (Octahedral) : d2sp3 hybridization; 3 unpaired
- +
NaOH + CaO elecrtons
(I) R ¾ COONa + NaOH ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾
D Decarboxylation
® (R ¾ H ) (B) d5 (Octahedral, low spin) : d2sp3 hybridization ; 1
(Alkane)
unpaired electron
(II) CH3—C—CH3 ¾¾¾¾¾¾
Zn-Hg
® Alkane (C) d6 (Octahedral, low spin) : d2sp3 ; no unpaired electron
conc. HCl
Clemmensen reduction (D) d6 (Octahedral, outer orbital) : sp3d2 ; 4 unpaired
O electrons
The above reaction is called Clemmensen-reduction. It Magnetic moment n(n + 2) B.M. (n unpaired electrons)
converts aldehydes and ketones to corresponding alkane. 84. (1) From the rate law,
LiAlH 4
(III) CH3 C º CCH3 ¾¾¾¾ ® Alkene Rate of reaction units = (mol L–1s–1).
V
This reaction is used for reduction of alkynes which gives 85. (4) Wrev = –2.303 RT log 2
V1
corresponding alkenes.
FT - 02 19

V2 97. (3)
= –2.303 P1 V1 log
V1 No.of Molar Simplest
Element %
V V moles ratio ratio
= –2.303 (20) (1.0) log 2 = – 46.06 log 2 40 / 12 3.33
V1 1 C 40 =1 1
= 3.33 3.33
= – 46.06 log V2 = –92.12 L atm
Þ log V2 = 2 Þ V2 = 100 L 13.33 / 1 13.33
H 13.33 = 13.33 =4 4
3.33
86. (1) The specific conductance increases with
46.67 / 14 3.33
concentration. The number of ions per cm3 increase with N 46.67 =1 1
= 3.33 3.33
increase of concentration.
87. (2) C6H5ONa + Br – CH2 – CH = CH2 ¾® Thus, the empirical formula is CH4N.
98. (1) The increasing order of the acidity of the carboxylic
C6H5 – O – CH2 – CH = CH2 + NaBr acids is III < II < IV < I. In aromatic acids, electron
Allyl phenyl ether withdrawing groups like –Cl, –CN, –NO2 increases the
88. (2) 2MnO -4 + 5C2 O42 - + 16H + ® 2Mn2+ + 10CO2 + 8H2O acidity, whereas electron releasing groups like –CH3,
–OH, –OCH3, –NH2 decreases the acidity.
20 mL of 0.1 M KMnO4 = 20 × 0.1 = 2 mmol
99. (2) degree of dissociation of weak acid (HA) = 1%
2 mmol of KMnO4 = 5 m mol of C2 O24 - a = 1%
50 mL of 0.1 M H2C2O4 or 50 × 0.1 = 5 m mol 1
Hence, 20 mL of 0.1 M. KMnO4 = 50 mL of 0.1 M H2C2O4 Þ = 0.01
100
89. (3) DTb = 0.104 K, Kb = 0.52 K kg mol–1,
Dissociation constant (Ka) = Ca2
Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1
where,
DTb 0.104
Thus, DTb = m Kb Þ m = = = 0.2 mol kg–1 C(concentration) = 0.5 M
Kb 0.52
degree of dissociation = 0.01
Þ DTf = m Kf = 0.2 × 1.86 = 0.372 K.
\ Ka = 0.5 × (0.01)2
90. (3) Among isoelectronic species, greater the negative
charge, greater will be the ionic radii. = 5 × 10–1 × (10–2)2
So, correct order is ionic radii = 5 × 10–1 × 10–4
– 2– 3–
F1.36 < O1.40 < N1.71
K a = 5 ´ 10 - 5
91. (3) For a given value of 'n', there are 'n' values of 'l' that
100. (1) SiH4:
range from 0 to (n – 1). Si belongs to group 14, has 4 valence electrons, undergoes
92. (3) Extensive properties = Internal energy, enthalpy, sp3- hybridization to form a tetrahedral geometry.
Be in BeCl2 is in sp-hybridization and forms linear shape.
Mass, volume, Heat capacity, Gibbs energy S in SF4 is in dsp3 - hybridization and forms a square-
Intensive properties = Density, pressure pyramidal geometry with one lone pair.
SnCl2 has Sn in sp2 - hybridization and forms an angular
93. (2) E°cell = E°C - E°A = 0.80 - ( -0.76 ) = 1.56V geometry with one lone pair.
Thus, only I is correct.
From the equation DG° = –nFE°
= –2 × 96500 × 1.56 (n = 2) PART-III: BOTANY
= –301080 J/mol
101. (2)
= –301 kJ/mol
94. (4) Al(OH)3 is insoluble ppt. due to low solubility 102. (2) Laminarin and mannitol, reserve food in brown algae
are complex carbohydrates.
product.
103. (3) In the given figure of monocotyledonous seeds, the
95. (3) The compounds containing active H-atoms (H atoms
structure marked as A and B are respectively endosperm
attached to N, O or S) react with CH3COCl to form acetyl
and embryo. Endosperm is the part of a seed which acts
derivatives. as a food store for the developing plant embryo, usually
containing starch with protein and other nutrients.
O Embryo is the part of a seed which develops into a plant,
96. (2) Apart from aldehyde, Formic acid H–C–OH also consisting (in the mature embryo of a higher plant) of a
plumule, a radicle, and one or two cotyledons.
gives silver mirror test with ammonical silver nitrate. 104. (3) Pollen receptor in gynoecium is its stigma.
20 FT - 02

105. (2) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III 130. (1) All the statements are correct.
106. (2) 131. (3)
107. (2) 132. (4)
108. (1) During early M-phase, i.e., prophase, cells have more 133. (2)
than 2C content of DNA. During early S-phase since, 134. (2) The crossing of F1 to homozygous recessive parent
replication begins so, DNA content is less than 4C. is called test cross.
109. (1) In the given figure of chloroplast section the parts 135. (1)
marked as A, B, C, D and E are respectively stromal lamella,
grana, stroma, starch granule and lipid droplets. Stromal 136. (2) Isotopes used in proving semiconser vative
lamella (A), grana (B) and stoma (C) are considered as replication of DNA were 14N 15N.
membrane system in the chloroplast and are responsible for 137. (1) A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II
trapping the light energy and also for the synthesis of ATP
and NADPH. 138. (1)
110. (1) 139. (4) In trophic level of our ecosystem we belong to
111. (1) Differentiation is not a part of growth phase. tertiary consumer and fourth trophic level.
112. (3) All the statements are correct about self-incompatibility. 140. (1)
Self-incompatibility is a general name for several genetic
141. (4) A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV
mechanisms in angiosperms, which prevent self-
fertilization and thus encourage outcrossing and allogamy. 142. (4)
In plants with self - incompatibility, when a pollen grain 143. (4) A – I, B – II, C – IV, D – III
produced in a plant reaches a stigma of the same plant or 144. (1) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
another plant with a similar genotype, the process of pollen
germination, pollen tube growth, ovule fertilization, and 145. (3) A – I; B – III; C – IV; D – II
embryo development is halted at one of its stages, and 146. (3)
consequently no seeds are produced. 147. (1)
113. (3) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I 148. (1)
114. (2) Ligases perform the joining of DNA fragments, An in
149. (2) Plants of cruciferae family are always herbs.
vitro-selected ribozyme can catalyze the same type of
peptide-bond formation as a ribosome; the ribozyme 150. (4)
resembles the ribosome because a very specific RNA PART-IV: ZOOLOGY
structure is required for substrate binding and catalysis,
and both amino acids are attached to nucleotides. 151. (3)
115. (2) 152. (1) The tissue that form gland is epithelial.
116. (1) In onion and garlic, scale leaves store food and water 153. (1) The inorganic compounds like sulphate, phosphate,
etc., are found in acid soluble pool.
and are, therefore, thick and fleshy.
154. (3) In blood, formed elements (erythrocytes, leucocytes
117. (4)
and platelets) constitute nearly 45 per cent.
118. (4) The cell wall of plants consists of cellulose,
155. (1) A – IV, B – III, C – I, D – II
hemicellulose, pectins and proteins.
119. (1) 156. (4)
120. (4) 157. (4) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
121. (3) Statement B, C and D are correct. 158. (3) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II
122. (4) 159. (1)
123. (1) 160. (2)
124. (1) In the absence of ‘B’ allele, the B-antigen cannot 161. (3) In the absence of fertilisation, the corpus luteum
develop in the child. degenerates.
125. (2) Endodermis or innermost layer of cortex has 162. (2) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
casparian strips in roots. It is called starch sheath in dicot 163. (3)
stems. It separates cortex from stele. The cell walls are 164. (4) A – III, B – II, C – I, D – IV
thickened at the corners in angular collenchyma.
165. (3) Starch can hold iodine (I2) molecules in its helical
126. (1) secondary structure but cellulose being non helical, can
127. (1) Auxin promotes apical dominance. not hold I2. Thus, cellulose does not shows blue colour
128. (1) when treated with I2.
129. (2) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I
FT - 02 21

166. (4) A – I, B – IV, C – III, D – II 188. (2) In columnar epithelium, their nuclei are located at
167. (2) Atrio-ventricular node (AVN) is situated in lower left the base of the cells.
corner of right auricle close to AV-septum. 189. (1) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV
168. (1) 190. (3)
169. (1) A – II, B – IV, C – III, D – I 191. (4) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III
170. (4) 192. (1)
171. (2) The figure shows the process of tubectomy. This is 193. (3) The given apparatus shows sparged stirred tank
a surgical method to prevent pregnancy in women. In bioreactor. This apparatus carries out the fermentation
tubectomy, small part of the fallopian tube is removed or process by transferring oxygen to mass bioreactors. The
tied through a small cut in the abdomen or through vagina. rate of oxygen mass transfer into a culture in a bioreactor
172. (4) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I is affected by operational conditions and geometrical
parameters as well as the physicochemical properties of
173. (1) Acoelomate animals with flame cells are found in
the medium (containing nutrients, substances excreted
platyhelminthes.
by the micro-organism, and surface active agents that are
174. (3) often added to the medium) and the presence of the micro-
175. (1) A – II, B – IV, C – III, D – I organism. Thus, oxygen mass transfer coefficient values
176. (4) All the given statements are correct. in fermentation broths often differ substantially from
177. (3) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV values estimated for simple aqueous solutions.
178. (1) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II 194. (1)
179. (4) 195. (2) Active immunity is slow and takes time to give its
180. (2) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – IV full effective response.
181. (4) Spermatogonium is diploid and spermatid is haploid. 196. (2)
182. (1) 197. (1) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
183. (1) 198. (3) Dengue is transmitted by the bite of female Aedes
184. (3) A – II; B – III; C – IV, D – I aegypti mosquito.
185. (2) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV 199. (3)
186. (2) 200. (1)
187. (4) DNA is a hydrophilic molecule, so it cannot pass
through the cell membranes.

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