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FT-4 XLLL NM Hindi Medium (19 - 01 - 2025)

The document contains a series of physics, chemistry, and mathematics questions designed for an examination, including multiple-choice questions and numerical problems. Each section presents various concepts and calculations related to the respective subjects. The exam is structured to assess knowledge and problem-solving skills in these scientific fields.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
27 views15 pages

FT-4 XLLL NM Hindi Medium (19 - 01 - 2025)

The document contains a series of physics, chemistry, and mathematics questions designed for an examination, including multiple-choice questions and numerical problems. Each section presents various concepts and calculations related to the respective subjects. The exam is structured to assess knowledge and problem-solving skills in these scientific fields.

Uploaded by

kanishkassrt
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
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Perfect Education

Vinyak Vihar,Opposite-Sihag Hospital


Date: 19/01/2025

Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 300

FT-4 XIII NM HM (19-01-25)

Physics
Single Choice Question

Q1 What is the number of α and β-particle emitted in the following


radioactive decay ?

a) 6 and 6 b) 8 and 8 c) 8 and 6 d) 6 and 8

Q2 With what potential an electron should be accelerated so that its de-


Broglie wavelength becomes equal to the wavelength of first line of
lyman series for He+ ion ?
a) b) c) d)

Q3 The boolean expression for the given circuit is :-

a) b) c) d)

Q4 The resistance of a moving coil galvanometer is 20Ω. It requires 0.01A


current for full scale deflection. Calculate the value of resistance
required to convert it into a voltmeter of range 20 volt :-
a) 1980 Ω b) 2000 Ω c) 1880 Ω d) 1500 Ω
Q5 How will the reading of ammeter change if the key k is closed ?

a) Increase b) Decrease
c) Remains same d) Information insufficient

Q6 Two concentric circular coils X and Y of radii 16 cm and 10 cm,


respectively, lie in the same vertical plane containing the north to south
direction. Coil X has 20 turns and carries a current of 16A ; coil Y has 25
turns and carries a current of 18 A. The sense of the current in X is
anticlockwise, and clockwise in Y, for an observer looking at the coils
facing west. Give the magnitude and direction of the net magnetic field
due to the coils at their centre.
a) 1.6 × 10 –3 T towards west b) 1.6 × 10 –3 T towards east

c) 1.6 × 10–5 T towards east d) 1.6 × 10–5 T towards west

Q7 A sensor is exposed for time t to a lamp of power P placed at a distance ℓ.


The sensor has an opening that is 4d in diameter. Assuming all energy of
the lamp is given off as light, the number of photons entering the sensor
if the wavelength of light is λ is:-
a) b) c) d)

Q8 A circular loop wire of radius r rotates about the z–axis with angular
velocity ω. The normal to the loop is always perpendicular to the z–axis.
At time t = 0, the normal is parallel to the y–axis. An external magnetic
field is applied. The EMF ε(t) induced in the loop is :

a) b) c) d)

Q9 A point source of power 15 W is placed at a certain point in the space.


The amplitude of magnetic field at a distance of 2 meter from source is :
a) 5 × 10 –8 T b) 6 × 10 –8 T c) 10 × 10 –8 T d) 1 × 10 –8 T
Q10 A point object is placed at a distance of 10 cm and its real image is
formed at a distance of 20 cm from a concave mirror. If the object is
moved by 0.1 cm towards the mirror, the image will shift by about.
a) 0.4 cm away from the mirror b) 0.4 cm towards the mirror

c) 0.8 cm away from the mirror d) 0.8 cm towards the mirror

Q11 An air bubble in a glass slab with refractive index 1.5 (near normal
incidence) is 5 cm deep when viewed from one surface and 3 cm deep
when viewed from the opposite face. The thickness (in cm) of the slab is
:-
a) 12 b) 16 c) 8 d) 10

Q12 The angle of a prism is 'A'. One of its refracting surfaces is silvered. Light
rays falling at an angle of incidence 2A on the first surface returns back
through the same path after suffering reflection at the silvered surface.
The refractive index µ, of the prism is :-
a) 2sinA b) 2cos A c) d) tanA

Q13 A uniform rope of mass 0.1 kg and length 2.5 m hangs from ceiling. The
speed of transverse wave in the rope at upper end and at a point 0.5 m
distance from lower end will be :
a) 5 m/s, 2.24 m/s b) 10 m/s, 3.23 m/s

c) 7.5 m/s, 1.2 m/s d) 2.25 m/s, 5 m/s

Q14
At 300 K, the rms speed of oxygen molecules is times to that of its

average speed in the gas. Then, the value of α will be


a) 32 b) 28 c) 24 d) 27

Q15 The pressure (P) and temperature (T) relationship of an ideal gas obeys
the equation PT2 = constant. The volume expansion coefficient of the gas
will be:
a) 3T 2 b) c) d)

Q16 Heat is given to an ideal gas in an isothermal process.


a. Internal energy of the gas will decrease
b. Internal energy of the gas will increase
c. Internal energy of the gas will not change
d. The gas will do positive work
e. The gas will do negative work
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a) a and e only b) b and d only c) c and e only d) c and d only
Q17 The pressure of a gas changes linearly with volume from A to B as shown
in figure. If no heat is supplied to or extracted from the gas then change
in the internal energy of the gas will be

a) 6J b) Zero c) – 4.5 J d) 4.5 J

Q18 The coefficient of apparent expansion of mercury in a glass vessel is 153


× 10–6 /°C and in a steel vessel is 144×10–6 /°C. If α for steel is 12×10–6 /°C,
then α that of glass is :-
a) 9 × 10 –6 /°C b) 6 × 10 –6 /°C c) 36 × 10 –6 /°C d) 27 × 10 –6 /°C

Q19 1 mole of a monoatomic gas undergoes the process PT = constant. Then


the molar heat capacity of the gas during the process will be equal to :-
a) 4R b) 2.5 R c) 3.5 R d) 8 R/3

Q20 The heat energy absorbed by a system in going through a cyclic process
shown in the adjacent figure is-

a) 103 π J b) 102 π J c) 104 π J d) 107 π J

Numerical

Q21 3 mW of light of wavelength 6600Å is incident on a cesium surface.


Assuming a quantum efficiency of 0.5% and work function of cesium 1.2
eV, the max photoelectric current (in nA) will be
Ans. 8000

Q22 In the following circuit diagram the breakdown voltage of zener diode is
3 Volt. Then the power of a zener diode is x × 10–2 W, find x :

Ans. 21
Q23 Six charges are kept at the vertices of a regular hexagon as shown in the
figure. If magnitude of force applied by +Q on +q charge is F, then net
electric force on the +Q is nF. Find the value of n.

Ans. 9

Q24 A capacitor of capacitance 1µF withstands a maximum voltage of 6 kV,


while another capacitor of capacitance 2µF, the maximum voltage 4 KV.
If they are connected in series, the combination can withstand a
maximum Voltage (in KV):-
Ans. 9

Q25 The first overtone frequency of an open organ pipe is equal to the
fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe. If the length of the closed
organ pipe is 20 cm. The length of the open organ pipe is _____ cm.
Ans. 80
Chemistry
Single Choice Question

Q26 Which is not incorrect for acidic strength ?


a) H 2 S < H 2 Se < H 2 Te b) HClO 4 > HClO 3 > HClO 2 > HClO

c) P 4 O 10 > SiO 2 d) All are correct

Q27 Match the following and choose the correct option given below.

a) a - (q, r), b - (q, r), c - (p, s), d - (q, s)


b) a - (q, s), b - (q, s), c - (p, s), d - (q, r)
c) a - (p, q), b - (q, s), c - (p, r), d - (q, t)
d) a - (p, s), b - (q, p), c - (q, t), d - (q, t)

Q28 Which of the following complex is most stable among the following :-
a) b) c) d)

Q29 Diamagnetic species is :-


a) b) c) d)

Q30 What is incorrect about the reactions of KMnO4 and oxalic acid
a) CO 2 is formed

b) decolourisation is fast in begining but become slow after some time

c) Mn 2+ is autocatalyst

d) It is a redox change

Q31 What are the characteristics of products obtained when green vitriol is
strongly heated ?
a) Green residue b) Neutral oxide

c) Acidic oxide d) Exist in liquid state

Q32 Which of the following compound does not have hydrogen bonding :
a) K 2 HPO 4 b) K 2 HPO 3 c) NaHCO 3 (s) d)
Q33
Initially the molar ratio of N2 and H2 was 1 : 3. At equilibrium 50% of
each reactant has reacted. If the equilibrium pressure is P then the
partial pressure of NH3 at equilibrium is :-
a) b) c) d)

Q34 The rate constant of a first order reaction is 3 × 10–6 per sec. If the initial
concentration is 0.10 M, the initial rate of reaction is :-
a) 3 × 10 –7 Ms –1 b) 3 × 10 –6 Ms –1 c) 3 × 10 –5 Ms –1 d) 3 × 10 –8 Ms –1

Q35 1 Mole of liquid A and 2 moles of liquid B make a solution having


observed vapour pressure of 42 torr. The vapour pressure of pure A and
pure B are 45 torr and 36 torr respectively. The described solution :-
a) is an ideal solution

b) shows negative deviation

c) is a minimum boiling azeotrope

d) has volume less than the sum of individual volumes of both


components.

Q36 A solution has 1 : 4 mole ratio of pentane to hexane. The vapour


pressures of the pure hydrocarbons at 20°C are 440 mm Hg for pentane
and 120 mm Hg for hexane. The mole fraction of pentane in the vapour
phase would be :-
a) 0.200 b) 0.478 c) 0.549 d) 0.789

Q37 If the standard reduction potential, E° for four divalent elements X, Y, Z,


W are –1.46 V, –0.36 V, 0.15 V and –1.24 V respectively, then
a) X will displace Z +2 from aqueous solution

b) Y will displace Z +2 from aqueous solution

c) W will displace Z +2 from aqueous solution

d) All the above statements are correct

Q38 The reaction of KMnO4 and HCl results in :-


a) Oxidation of Mn and production of Cl 2

b) Reduction of Mn and production of H 2

c) Oxidation of Mn and production of H 2

d) Reduction of Mn and production of Cl 2


Q39 Which of the following reagents would carry out the following
transformation?

a) NaBD4 in CH3OH b) LiAlH4, then D2O


c) NaBO4 in CH3OD d) LiAlO4, then D2O

Q40

Product (C) is :
a) b) c) d)

Q41

Product (A) & (B) respectively are :


a) b)

c) d)

Q42 In the following reaction sequence, structures of P and Q, are


respectively

a) b)

c) d)
Q43 Identify the major product in the following reaction

a) b) c) d)

Q44
Major product
a) b) c) d)

Q45 Which of the following represents the anomer of the compound shown ?

a) b)

c) d) None of these

Numerical

Q46 Consider the following order (a) PH3 > NH3 > AsH3 (basic character) (b)
PH3 > NH3 > AsH3 (boiling point) (c) HOCl > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4
(oxidising property) (d) HF > HCl > HBr > HI (acidic)
(e) H2O > H2S > H2Se (bond angle)
(f ) H2SO4 > H3PO4 > H2CO3 (acidic character)
Correct order(s) are :-
Ans. 3

Q47 The total No. of possible isomers of the compound [CuII (NH3)4][PtII Cl4]
are :-
Ans. 4
Q48 Find sum of number of unpaired electron in

Ans. 7

Q49 What is the final temperature (in kelvin) of 0.10 mole monoatomic ideal
gas that performs 75 cal of work adiabatically if the initial temperature is
227°C ? (use R = 2 cal/K-mol)
Ans. 250

Q50 The half-life of decomposition of gaseous CH3CHO at initial pressure of


364 mm and 182 mm of Hg were 440 sec and 880 sec respectively. The
order of the reaction is :-
Ans. 2
Mathematics
Single Choice Question

Q51

(where [.] = G.I.F. ) is an even function then


a) a ∈ (0, 257] b) a ∈ [257, ∞) c) a ∈ (257, ∞) d) a ∈ (0, 257)

Q52

a) 2000 b) 2500 c) 3000 d) 3500

Q53 The altitude of a triangle is increasing at rate of 1 cm/min while the area
of the triangle is increasing at a rate of 2 cm2/min. If altitude is 10 cm and
area is 100 cm2, then rate of change of base of triangle is equal to -
a) –2 cm/min b) –1.6 cm/min c) –1.8 cm/min d) –2.5 cm/min

Q54

a) f(x) is increasing in [–1,2] b) f(x) is continuous in [–1,3]


c) f(x) is maximum at x=2 d) All the above

Q55

a) b) 24 c) d) 12

Q56
The shortest distance between the lines and

is:
a) b) c) 3 d)

Q57
Lines are drawn parallel to the line 4x – 3y + 2 = 0, at a distance from
the origin. Then which one of the following points lies on any of these
lines ?
a) b) c) d)
Q58 If the circles x2 + y2 – 16x – 20y + 164 = r2 and (x – 4)2 + (y – 7)2 = 36
intersect at two distinct points, then:
a) 0 < r < 1 b) 1 < r < 11 c) r > 11 d) r = 11

Q59 If (2, 0) is vertex and y axis is directrix of a parabola then its focus is :-
a) (0, 4) b) (4, 0) c) (–2, 0) d) None

Q60

a) b)

c) d)

Q61 The area enclosed by the closed curve C given by the differential
equation , is 4π. Let P and Q be the points of intersection
of the curve C and the y-axis. If normals at P and Q on the curve C
intersect x-axis at points R and S respectively, then the length of the line
segment RS is
a) b) c) 2 d)

Q62

a) b) c) d)

Q63 Minimum value of a5 + 2a4 + 3a3 + 4a2 – 30a where (a∈R+) is :-


a) 20 b) 10 c) –20 d) does not exist

Q64 Let α, β, γ are roots of f(x) = x3 + x2 – 5x – 1 = 0, then find the value of |[α]
+ [β] + [γ]|, where [x] denotes G.I.F.
a) 1 b) 3 c) 2 d) 4

Q65

a) 26 b) 28 c) 30 d) 35
Q66 If the system of equation
λp + r = 0
2p + λq + r = 0
–q + r = 0
has non trivial solution then the value of λ can be the roots of quadratic
equation which is :-
a) x 2 – x – 2 = 0 b) x 2 + x – 2 = 0 c) x 2 + 4x + 1 = 0 d) x 2 – 3x + 2 = 0

Q67 In a circle 20 person are sitted, then the number of way of selecting 5
person such that no two person are consecutive, are :-
a) 16 C 5 b) 16 C 5 – 14 C 3 c) 15 C 5 d) None

Q68 All the spades are taken out from a pack of cards. From these cards,
cards are drawn one by one without replacement till the ace of spade
comes. The probability that the ace of spade comes in the 4 draw is:-
a) b) c) d)

Q69
Let the mean and variance of 12 observations be and 4 respectively.
Later on, it was observed that two observations were considered as 9 and
10 instead of 7 and 14 respectively. If the correct variance is , where m
and n are co-prime, then m+n is equal to
a) 316 b) 314 c) 317 d) 315

Q70 In a triangle ABC, if cos A + 2 cos B + cos C = 2 and the lengths of the sides
opposite to the angles A and C are 3 and 7 respectively, then cos A – cos C
is equal to
a) b) c) d)

Numerical

Q71

Ans. 0

Q72

Ans. 0
Q73

Ans. 3

Q74

Ans. 1

Q75

Ans. 63
Answer Key
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans. C B C A A A A A A A

Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

Ans. A B A B D D D A C B

Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

Ans. 8000 21 9 9 80 D A A C B

Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

Ans. C B A A C B D D A B

Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

Ans. A D B B B 3 4 7 250 2

Que. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

Ans. C B B D C B A B B A

Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70

Ans. D C C B B B B C C C

Que. 71 72 73 74 75

Ans. 0 0 3 1 63

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