1) EPEC causes
A) Infantile diarrhoea
B) Traveller's diarrhoea
C) Shigella like dysentery
D) Persistent diarrhoea
2) Cough plate technique is used for the diagnosis of Infection caused by
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Bordetella pertussis
C) Brucella abortus
D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
3) NGU is caused by all EXCEPT
A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Ureaplasma urealyticum
C) Mycoplasma hominis
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae
4) Neil-Mooser reaction is used to differentiate
A) Rickettsia prowazekii and Rickettsia typhi
B) R. ricketsii and R. prowazekii
C) R. conorii and R. typhi
D) R. akari and R. prowazekii
5) All the following are Coagulase test negative EXCEPT
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) S. epidermidis
C) S. haemolyticus
D) S. saprophyticus
6) All are TRUE about Metachromatic granules EXCEPT
A) Diagnostic structure in Albert's staining for Corynebacterium diphtheria
B) Serve as storage granules
C) Can also be stained by Neisser's stain
D) Often situated at the centre of the bacillary body
7) Kass concept
A) Is used for diagnosis of UTI by significant bacteriuria
B) is a viral culture technique
C) was proposed by Robert Koch
D) is used for the analysis of DNA in Genetic engineering
8) M'Fadyean's reaction is seen in
A) Clostridium botulinum
B) Bacillus anthracis
C) Haemophilus influenzae
D) Clostridium perfringens
9) Classical vibrio cholerae are
A) Sensitive to 50 IU of polymixin B
B) Hemolytic to sheep erythrocytes
C) Positive for VP reaction
D) Susceptible to EL tor phage 5
10) The etiological agent of Rat bite fever is
A) Mycobacterium avium
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
C) Streptobacillus moniliformis
D) Leptospira icterohaemorrhagiae
11) Spaulding classification is used to classify
A) Antibiotics based on mechanism of action
B) Fungi based on their morphology
C) Devices used on a patient to determine the method of sterilization
D) Viruses based on their genome
12) Bruton's syndrome is
A) Common variable immune deficiency disorder
B) Hyper IgM syndrome
C) X linked agammaglobulinemia
D) DiGeorge syndrome
13) Minimum number of bacteria required to produce Shigella infection
A) 1
B) 10
C) 100
D) 1000
14) All of the following are methods of sterilization by dry heat EXCEPT
A) Flaming
B) Incineration
C) Hot air oven
D) Autoclave
15) Bacterial capsule can be demonstrated by
A) Hanging drop preparation
B) Negative staining
C) Cragie tube method
D) Tannic acid staining
16) Who among the following is widely regarded as the father of microbiology?
A) Louis Pasteur
B) Joseph Lister
C) Robert Koch
D) Edward Jenner
17) Which of the following is NOT a transport medium?
A) Pike's medium
B) Cary Blair medium
C) Sach's Buffered glycerol saline
D) Lowenstein- Jensen medium
18) Which of the following is TRUE about hapten?
A) Induces immune response
B) Is a T-independent antigen
C) Needs carrier to induce an immune response
D) Has no association with MHC
19) The only antibody which can cross the placenta is:
A) IgA
B) IgG
C) IgE
D) IgM
20) All of the following are type I hypersensitivity reactions EXCEPT
A) Auto-immune hemolytic anaemia
B) Anaphylaxis
C) Extrinsic asthma
D) Hay fever
21) The endotoxic activity of the Gram-negative bacteria is due to the _____________
component of the lipopolysaccharide in the cell wall
A) Lipid A
B) O antigen
C) Core polysaccharide
D) Outer membrane protein
22) Glutaraldehyde is commonly used in the concentration of ___________ per cent
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
23) All the following are enrichment media EXCEPT
A) Selenite F broth
B) Gram-negative broth
C) Alkaline peptone water
D) Buffered glycerol saline
24) Which of the following blotting techniques is used to detect the DNA?
A) Northern
B) Southern
C) Eastern
D) Western
25) The only antibody that can cross the placenta is
A) IgG
B) IgA
C) IgM
D) IgE
26) Which of the following is NOT a heterophile agglutination test?
A) Paul-Bunnell test
B) Weil-Felix test
C) Cold agglutination test
D) Coomb's test
27) Deficiency of C1 inhibitor is associated with:
A) Bacteremia mainly with Gram negative diplococci
B) SLE and other collagen vascular diseases
C) Hereditary angioneurotic edema
D) Severe recurrent pyogenic infections
28) The drug of choice for treating MRSA infection is
A) Ciprofloxacin
B) Vancomycin
C) Gentamicin
D) Erythromycin
29) Bamboo stick appearance is a characteristic feature of
A) Clostridium tetani
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C) Bacillus anthracis
D) Bordetella pertussis
30) Diarrheagenic Escherichia coli that causes Traveller's diarrhoea is:
A) Enterotoxigenic
B) Enteropathogenic
C) Enteroinvasive
D) Enterohaemorrhagic
31) Epidemic Typhus is transmitted by
A) Rat flea
B) Tick
C) Mite
D) Body louse
32 ) Which of the following bacteria shows a "safety pin appearance"?
A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B) Pseudomonas fluorescence
C) Burkholderia mallei
D) Burkholderia pseudomallei
33) The causative agent of plague is
A) Yersinia pestis
B) Yersinia intermedia
C) Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
D) Yersinia enterocolitica
34) Antiseptic techniques in surgery was introduced by:
A) Louis Pasteur
B) Robert Koch
C) Joseph Lister
D) Paul Ehrlich
35) Which of the following bacteria produce coagulase enzymes?
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Streptococcus pyogenes
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Staphylococcus epidermidis
36) Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is mainly caused by:
A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B) Neisseria meningitidis
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae
37) Which of the following tests can be helpful in identifying Clostridium perfringens?
A) M'Fadyean reaction
B) Nagler reaction
C) Elek's gel precipitation reaction
D) Neil Mooser's reaction.
38) The most infectious type of leprosy is
A) Lepromatous
B) Tuberculoid
C) Borderline tuberculoid
D) Borderline borderline
39) Which of the following is also known as Dorderlein's bacillus?
A) Lactobacillus
B) Bifidobacterium
C) Propionibacterium
D) Clostridium
40) Which of the following was formerly known as the TWAR strain?
A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Chlamydia pneumonia
C) Chlamydia psittaci
D) Chlamydia pecorum
41) Which of the following types of microscopy uses reflected light to improve contrast?
A) Dark field
B) Electron
C) Fluorescent
D) Phase contrast
42) Negative staining with India ink is used for the demonstration of-
A) Flagella
B) Capsule
C) Spore
D) Granules
43) Hereditary angioneurotic edema is associated with a deficiency of
A) B cell receptors
B) Complement 1 inhibitor
C) Lymphatic system
D) T cell receptor
44) The method by which culture media are sterilized by heating at 80-85°C for 30 minutes on
successive days is called
A) Flash
B) Holder
C) Inspissation
D) Tyndallization
45) The ability of a pathogen to spread in host tissues after establishing the infection is known
as
A) Intracellular survival
B) Invasiveness
C) Adhesion
D) Toxigenicity
46) Which of the following diseases is MOST likely to be caused by delayed hypersensitivity?
A) Serum sickness
B) Haemolytic disease of the newborn
C) SLE
D) Contact dermatitis
47) Culture of exudate from a burn wound infection produces green-pigmented colonies of
Gram-negative rod, which is oxidase positive and which is the most likely organism?
A) Bacteroides fragilis
B) Citrobacter koseri
C) Acinetobacter baumanii
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
48) The etiological agent of Chancroid
A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
C) Haemophilus ducreyi
D) Treponema pallidum
49) A 14-year-old boy sustained trauma in the feet with vegetative matter. He has an inflamed
area over the skin, in the center of which is a draining sinus tract. Gram stain of the discharge
fluid reveals Gram-positive filamentous rods. The most likely causative agent
A) Bacillus anthracis
B) Actinomyces israelii
C) Bacteroides fragilis
D) Clostridium perfringens
50) A 16-year-old boy reported for evaluation of multiple hypo-pigmented macules on the trunk
and limbs. The investigation of choice would be
A) Slit smear examination
B) Culture
C) Lepromin test
D) Antigen detection
51) Pathogenesis of which ONE of the following bacteria involves the invasion of intestinal
mucosa?
A) Enterotoxigenic E coli
B) Vibrio cholerae
C) Clostridium botulinum
D) Shigella flexneri
52) Neonatal meningitis acquired through the mother's infected birth canal is due to
A) Streptococcus mutans
B) Streptococcus mitis
C) Streptococcus agalactiae
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae
53) Malignant pustule is a term used for
A) Carbuncle
B) Infected malignant melanoma
C) Anthrax of skin
D) Impetigo
54) Diphtheria toxin acts by
A) Inhibiting Acetylcholine release
B) Increasing levels of cyclic AMP
C) Inhibiting glucose transport
D) Inhibiting protein synthesis
55) In the first week, typhoid is diagnosed by
A) Stool culture
B) Urine culture
C) Blood culture
D) Widal test
56) The Weil-Felix test is useful in
A) Rickettsial infection
B) Streptococcal infection
C) Mycobacterial infection
D) Staphylococcal infection
57) The media for the cultivation of anaerobic organisms
A) Robertson Cooked meat medium
B) Cary Blair medium
C) Stuarts medium
D) Pike's medium
58) The most sensitive method of diagnosis of Helicobacter pylori is
A) Microscopy
B) Antibody detection
C) Biopsy urease test
D) Urease breath test
59) Fever in Brucella infection is
A) Breakbone fever
B) Undulant fever
C) Step ladder fever
D) Pontiac fever
60) The transport media for Vibrio cholerae
A) Selenite F broth
B) Tetrathionate broth
C) Nutrient broth
D) Venkatraman Ramakrishnan medium
61) Bacterial capsule can be best demonstrated by:
A) Gram staining
B) Acid Fast staining
C) Negative staining
D) Albert staining
62) Which of the following is a cold sterilization?
A) Infrared rays
B) Steam sterilization
C) Gamma rays
D) UV rays
63) Which of the following disinfectant is used in plasma sterilization?
A) Formaldehyde
B) Glutaraldehyde
C) Hydrogen peroxide
D) Ethylene oxide
64) Robertson's cooked meat broth is an example of:
A) Enriched media
B) Enrichment media
C) Anaerobic media
D) Basal media
65) The chemical nature of endotoxin is:
A) Lipopolysaccharide
B) Protein
C) Carbohydrate
D) None of these
66) Diagnostic application of heterophile antigens include all, EXCEPT:
A) Weil-Felix reaction
B) Paul-Bunnel test
C) Widal test
D) Cold agglutination test
67) Secretary component is present in:
A) IgA
B) IgG
C) IgE
D) IgM
68) Prozone phenomenon is due to:
A) Excess antigen
B) Excess antibody
C) Hyperimmune reaction
D) None of these
69) Interferon-gamma is secreted by:
A) Macrophage
B) Fibroblast
C) Activated T-cell
D) Neutrophils
70) DiGeorge syndrome is due to defects in:
A) T cell
B) B cell
C) Phagocyte
D) Complement
71) Which of the following is post Streptococcal sequelae?
A) Acute rheumatic fever
B) Cellulitis
C) Pharyngitis
D) Impetigo
72) Pseudo-membranous colitis is caused by
A) Clostridium perfringens
B) Clostridium difficile
C) Clostridium tetani
D) Closrtidium botulinum
73) The etiological agent of Buruli ulcer is
A) M. ulcerans
B) M. kansasii
C) M. fortuitum
D) M. asiaticum
74) Plague is transmitted by:
A) Rat flea
B) Soft tick
C) Hard tick
D) Louse
75) Rat bite fever is caused by:
A) Borrelia recurrentis
B) Streptobacillus moniliformis
C) Yersinia pestis
D) Leptospira
76) The etilogical agent of chancroid is:
A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Treponema pallidum
C) Haemophilus ducreyi
D) Ureaplasma urealyticum
77) Which is the highly infective stage in whooping cough?
A) Catarrhal stage
B) Paroxysmal stage
C) Convalescent stage
D) All of these
78) Weil's disease is caused by:
A) Leptospira interrogans
B) Borrelia recurrentis
C) Treponema carateum
D) Treponema pallidum
79) Frei test is done for
A) Trachoma
B) Lymphogranuloma venereum
C) Non Gonococcal urethritis
D) Chlamydia conjunctivitis
80) Fever in Brucella infection is described as:
A) Breakbone fever
B) Stepladder fever
C) Undulant fever
D) Pontiac fever
81) Bacterial capsule can be demonstrated by:
A) Grams stain
B) Leishmans Stain
C) Negative Staining
D) AFB staining
82) Robertson Cooked meat broth is an example of:
A) Enriched media
B) Anaerobic media
C) Enrichment media
D) Selective media
83) Plague is transmitted by:
A) Rat flea
B) Soft Tick
C) Hard Tick
D) Louse
84) Secretory Immunoglobulin is:
A) IgD
B) IgA
C) IgE
D) IgM
85) Syphilis is caused by:
A) Treponema pallidum
B) Borrelia vincenti
C) Corynebacterium diphtheria
D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
86) The drug of choice to treat MRSA infection is:
A) Tetracycline
B) Chloramphenicol
C) Vancomycin
D) Gentamicin
87) Bamboo stick appearance is characteristic of:
A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B) Treponema pallidum
C) Bacillus anthracis
D) Bordetella pertussis
88) Father of antiseptic surgery:
A) Louis Pasteur
B) Joseph Lister
C) Robert Koch
D) Alexander Ogston
89) Thumb print appearance of bacteria on gram staining with bisected pearl appearance on
culture is diagnostic of:
A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B) Treponema pallidum
C) Bacillus anthracis
D) Bordetella pertussis
90) KASS concept:
A) A bacterial count of more than 100000 CFU/ml is used for diagnosis of significant bacteriuria
B) Was Proposed by Robert Koch
C) Is a viral culture technique
D) Used in the analysis of DNA in Genetic engineering
91) Which of the following is not a transport media:
A) Lowenstein Jensen Media
B) Sachs Buffered Glycerol Saline
C) Cary Blair Media
D) Pikes Media
92) Mass sterilization of prepacked syringes (cold sterilization) is done by:
A) Infrared
B) UV Rays
C) Ultrasonic vibration
D) X-Rays
93) Which effector cell is involved in the activation of B lymphocytes during immune response:
A) Dendritic cells
B) Red Blood Cells
C) Natural Killer cells
D) Helper T cells
94) Which of the following is a Zoonotic disease:
A) Typhoid
B) Cholera
C) Brucella
D) Amoebiasis
95) Swimming pool granuloma is caused by:
A) Mycobacterium marinum
B) Mycobacterium smegmatis
C) Mycobacterium xenopi
D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
96) Which of the following bacteria is associated with rats and rice fields?
A) Rickettsia
B) Borrelia burgdorferi
C) Borrelia vincenti
D) Leptospira interrogans
97) Causative agent of Gas gangrene:
A) Corynebacterium diptheriae
B) Clostridium perfringens
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
98) A carrier who acquires an organism from another carrier is known as ___________ carrier
A) Contact
B) Paradoxical
C) Chronic
D) Convalescent
99) ASO test is diagnostic in:
A) Acute rheumatic fever
B) Subacute bacterial endocarditis
C) SLE
D) Rheumatoid arthritis
100) Hereditary angioneurotic edema is caused by the deficiency of:
A) C1
B) C5
C) C3 inactivator
D) C1 esterase inhibitor
101) A case of fleeting joint pain, and subcutaneous nodules with a previous history of sore
throat was provisionally diagnosed as a case of Acute Rheumatic fever. The investigation that
would confirm the diagnosis is,
A) Culture for bacteria from throat sample
B) Gram stain of throat swab
C) Antistreptolysin O titres
D) Biopsy of subcutaneous nodule for histopathological study
102) As per Dukes criteria for diagnosis of Infective Endocarditis (IE) major criteria is (Answer c
or d)
A) Predisposing heart condition or intravenous drug use (IVDA)
B) Fever of 38°C (100.4°F) or higher
C) Two blood cultures positive for organisms typically found in patients with IE
D) Presence of Osler's nodes
103) Cotton and gauze are sterilized by
A) Hot air oven
B) Autoclave
C) Chemical sterilization
D) Boiling
104) Heterophile antigens are used in all the following serological tests EXCEPT
A) Well-Felix Test
B) Paul Bunnel Test
C) Cold agglutinin test
D) WIDAL Test
105) In a patient with typhoid, diagnosis within 5 days of onset of fever is best done by:
A) Blood culture
B) Stool culture
C) Urine culture
D) WIDAL test
106) The route of spread of Hepatitis E is
A) Sexual
B) Fecooral
C) Blood transfusion
D) IV injection
107) Vibrio cholerae shows which type of motility.
A) Gliding
B) Tumbling
C) Darting
D) Stately
108) A Labourer involved with the repair work of sewers was admitted with fever, jaundice and
renal failure. The most appropriate test to diagnose the infection in this patient is:
A) Weil-Felix
B) Paul Bunnell
C) Microscopic agglutination
D) Micro immunofluorescence
109) The causative agent of sleeping sickness is
A) Trypanosoma brucei
B) Trypanosoma cruzi
C) Leishmania tropica
D) Leishmania donovani
110) The only antibody that can cross the placenta is
A) IgA
B) IgG
C) IgE
D) IgM
111) The technique of immunoblotting to analyse RNA is named as
A) Southern blot
B) Northern blot
C) Western blot
D) Eastern blot
112) Mother-to-child transmission of HIV, occurs mostly during
A) 1st trimester
B) 2nd trimester
C) 3rd trimester
D) During labour
113) CD8 cells can recognize ______________ antigens
A) MHC Class I
B) MHC Class II
C) MHC Class III
D) MHC Class II & Class III
114 ) DiGeorge's syndrome is an immunodeficiency disease due to
A) T cell defect
B) B cell defect
C) Complement deficiency
D) Diminished phagocytic activity
115) Which of the following is the only protozoan parasite whose habitat is the lumen of the
human small intestine?
A) Entamoeba histolytica
B) Entamoeba coli
C) Giardia Lamblia
D) Endolimax nana
116) The antibody (Ig) conferring passive immunity to the fetus is
A) A
B) E
C) G
D) M
117) The father of Microbiology is
A) Louis Pasture
B) Robert Koch
C) Joseph Lister
D) Paul Ehrlich
118) Which of the following is a spore bearing bacilli?
A) Corynebacterium diphtheria
B) Clostridium perfringes
C) Escherichia coli
D) Enterobacter aerogenes
119) The causative agent of megaloblastic anaemia, due to hampered vitamin B12 absorption
is,
A) Ancylostoma duodenale
B) Ascaris lumbricoides
C) Diphyllobothrium latum
D) Tenia solium
120) The infective form of Entamoeba histolytica is
A) Trophozoite
B) Precystic
C) Binucleated cyst
D) Quadrinucleated cyst
121) Which is the first antibody marker to appear after Hepatitis B virus infection?
A) Anti Hbs
B) Anti HBe
C) Anti Hbx
D) Anti Hbc
122) A 30-year-old male patient came with a history of abdominal pain and a burning sensation
in the chest. The urea breath test was positive. What is the causative agent of the patient's
condition?
A) Ancylostoma duodenale
B) Helicobacter pylori
C) Proteus mirabilis
D) Campylobacter jejuni
123) In which phase of bacterial growth are bacteria uniformly stained?
A) Lag phase
B) Log phase
C) Stationary phase
D) Decline phase
124) The temperature and time used in the flash method of pasteurization of milk is
A) 63°C for 30 seconds
B) 63°C for 30 minutes
C) 72°C for 20 seconds
D) 72°C for 20 minutes
125) Transfer of genetic information by uptake of naked DNA is known as
A) Transformation
B) Transduction
C) Conjugation
D) Lysogenic conversion
126) Which of the following is NOT a heterophile agglutination test?
A) Widal test
B) Weil-Felix test
C) Paul Bunnel test
D) Streptococcus MG test
127) In the national immunization schedule; the first dose of vaccine to protect the child against
diphtheria is given at the age of
A) 4 weeks
B) 6 weeks
C) 9 months
D) 15 months
128) Clot culture is used in the diagnosis of which organism?
A) Shigella sonnei
B) Salmonella Typhi
C) Escherichia coli
D) Fasciolopsis buski
129) Maltese cross appearance in the RBCs is characteristic of
A) Plasmodium falciparum
B) Leishmania donovani
C) Babesia microti
D) Trypanosome cruzi
130) All of the following are causative agents of infective endocarditis EXCEPT
A) Viridans Streptococci
B) Staphylococcus epidermidis
C) Campylobacter jejuni
D) Enterococcus faecalis
131) A complex of genes is located on the short arm of
A) Chromosome 4
B) Chromosome 5
C) Chromosome 6
D) Chromosome 7
132) Which is the causative agent of Chaga's disease?
A) Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
B) Toxoplasma gondi
C) Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
D) Trypanosoma cruzi
133) Which of the following is used as an indicator of anaerobiosis in McIntosh and Filde's
anaerobic jar?
A) Alumina pellets
B) Gas-pak
C) Alkaline pyrogallol
D) Reduced methylene blue
134) Which of the following is FALSE regarding Fasciolopsis buski?
A) It requires 3 hosts for its life cycle
B) It is the largest nematode infecting humans
C) The eggs are operculated
D) Praziquantel is the drug of choice
135) Rectal prolapse is a complication of which of the following?
A) Trichuriasis
B) Strongyloidiasis
C) Ascariasis
D) Paragoniamiasis
136) Acid-fast oocysts of 2-5 µm diameter in stool examination is diagnostic of which organism?
A) Cystoisospora belli
B) Cryptosporidium parvum
C) Cyclospora cayetanensis
D) Toxoplasma gondii
137) Interleukin-1 is principally secreted by
A) Macrophages
B) T lymphocytes
C) Natural killer cells
D) Epithelial cells
138) Which of the following is a characteristic feature of B cells?
A) They have CD3 receptors
B) They undergo blast transformation with phytohemagglutinin
C) They have immunoglobulin on the surface
D) They bind to sheep erythrocytes to form rosettes
139) What is the strategy for HIV testing in India for ensuring donation safety?
A) Strategy I
B) Strategy IIA
C) Strategy IIB
D) Strategy III
