AAI ATC Physics 2023 - Assignment-2

1. Two plane mirrors are placed at to each other. How many images will be seen if the
object is placed between them?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) Infinite

2. A person of height 2 m stands in front of a plane mirror. What must be the minimum
vertical height of the mirror so he can see his full image?
(a) 2 m
(b) 1 m
(c) 0.5 m
(d) 0.25 m

3. Diameter of a plano-convex lens is 6 cm and thickness at the centre is 3 mm. The speed
of light in material of lens is 2 × 108 m/s, the focal length of the lens is :
(a) 20 cm
(b) 30 cm
(c) 10 cm
(d) 15 cm

4. A ray of light making an angle with the horizontal is incident on a plane mirror
making an angle θ with the horizontal. What should be the value of θ so that the
reflected ray goes vertically upwards?
(a) 20o
(b) 30o
(c) 40o
(d) 50o

5. In a concave mirror if x1 and x2 are the distances of object and its image respectively
from the focus, then the focal length of the mirror is –
(a) x1x2
(b) (x1 + x2)/2
(c)
(d) x1x2/(x1 + x2)

6. A short linear object of length ℓ is lying along the axis of a spherical mirror of focal
length f at a distance u from the mirror. The axial length of the image will be:
(a)

(b)
 (c)
(d)

7. The focal length of a convex lens is f. It makes imaginary image of size of n time that of
the object. The distance of the object from the lens is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

8. Index of refraction for ordinary glass relative to air is 1.5. What will be the critical
angle?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

9. A prism of material having refractive index μ = 4/3 has refracting angle 150. The angle
of minimum deviation of this prism is
(a) Zero
(b) 50
(c) 7.50
(d) 150

10. The refractive index of water and refractive index of glass . A lens
placed in air has focal length 10 cm. What will be its focal length if placed inside water?
(a) 10 cm
(b) 15 cm
(c) 50 cm
(d) 40 cm

11. Refractive index of the material of a prism having an angle A = 60°, which produces a
minimum deviation of 30°, is:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
12. The refractive index of diamond is 2.42. The critical angle for total internal reflection for
light passing from diamond to air is, about
(a) 300
(b) 24.40
(c) 350
(d) 400

13. A ray of light strikes a glass plate at an angle of 600, If the reflected and refracted rays
are perpendicular to each other, the index of refraction of glass is:
(a)
(b)
(c) 3/2
(d) 1/2

14. A point source of light is placed 4 m below the surface of water of refractive index 5/3.
The minimum diameter of a disc, which should be placed over the source, on the surface
of water to cut off all light coming out of water is
(a) ∞
(b) 6 m
(c) 4 m
(d) 3 m

15. Time taken by sunlight to pass through a glass window of thickness 4 mm and
refractive index 1.5, is
(a) 2×10–14 s
(b) 0.2×10–11 s
(c) 0.2×10–8 s
(d) 2×10–11 s

16. White light is incident normally on a glass plate of thickness 10–7 m and index of
refraction 1.50. The longest wavelength that is strongly reflected by the plate is:
(a) 1500 A0
(b) 2000 A0
(c) 3000 A0
(d) 6000 A0

17. The wavelength of light coming from a sodium source in water if 443 nm, what will be
its wavelength in air? (Refractive index of water is 1.33)
(a) 443 nm
(b) 333 nm
(c) 589 nm
(d) 625 nm
18. The prism angle for prism of refractive index is equal to the angle of minimum
deviation. The value of prism angle is
(a) 50°
(b) 45°
(c) 30°
(d) 60°

19. In total internal reflection, maximum deviation of ray will be (ic represents critical
angle)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

20. A small-angled prism gives a deviation of 4.8 . The refractive index of the material of
prism is 1.62. The angle of the prism will be:
(a) 8.740
(b) 7.740
(c) 6.740
(d) 5.740

21. The angle of prism is A and refractive index is cot(A/2). The angle of minimum
deviation for prism will be
(a) 180o – 3A
(b) 90o –A
(c) 180o – 2A
(d) 180o + 2A

22. A vessel of depth 0.5 m is half filled with a liquid of refractive index μ1 and the upper
half with another liquid of refractive index μ2. If μ1 = 1.2 and μ2 = 1.3, the apparent
depth of the vessel as seen perpendicularly will be approximately
(a) 0.3 m
(b) 0.4 m
(c) 0.35 m
(d) 0.45 m

23. A parallel beam of light falls on a thin film of refractive index μ = 1.33 at an angle of 520
with respect to its normal. What should be the film thickness so that the yellow light (λ
= 0.4μm) is reflected most intensively?
(a) 0.14μm
(b) 0.18μm
(c) 0.21μm
(d) 0.24μm
24. A short-sighted man can clearly see the object up to a distance is 1.5 m. The power of
the lens of spectacles necessary for the remedy of this defect is
(a) -0.67D
(b) -1.50D
(c) +0.67D
(d) +1.50D

25. A luminous object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from the convex lens of focal length
20 cm. On the other side of the lens, at what distance from the lens a convex mirror of
radius of curvature 10 cm be placed in order to have an upright image of the object
coincident with it?
(a) 12 cm
(b) 30 cm
(c) 50 cm
(d) 60 cm

26. A convex lens (f = 25 cm) has an object at 25cm. Where is the image?
(a) at 25 cm
(b) at 50 cm
(c) at 0 cm
(d) at ∞

27. The focal length of a convex lens of glass of refractive index 1.5 is 2 cm. The focal length
of the lens when it is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.25 will be:
(a) 1cm
(b) 2.5cm
(c) 4 cm
(d) 5cm

28. The dispersive powers of crown and flint glasses are 0.02 and 0.04 respectively. An
achromatic lens of focal length 20 cm is made by keeping two lenses, one of crown glass
and the other of flint glass in contact with each other. The focal lengths of the two lenses
are:
(a) 20 cm, 40 cm
(b) 20 cm, –40 cm
(c) –20 cm, 40 cm
(d) 10 cm, –20 cm

29. Given refractive index of water and refractive index of glass . If a

convex lens of focal length 10 cm is placed in water, then its focal length in water is
(a) 40 cm
(b) 20 cm
(c) 10 cm
(d) None of these
30. A screen is placed at a distance of 40 cm from an illuminated object. A converging lens is
placed between the source and the screen, and it is attempted to form an image of the
source on the screen. If no position could be found, the focal length of the lens must be:
(a) less than 10cm
(b) greater than 20cm
(c) not greater than 15 cm
(d) not less than 10 cm

31. A double - convex lens has two surfaces of equal radii R and refractive index 1.75.
Its focal length will be:
(a) R/2
(b) R/3
(c) 2R/3
(d) R

32. An astronomical telescope is constructed by two convex lenses, focal lengths 100 cm
and 5 cm respectively. When it is used to see far away object, then final image is formed
at a distance of 25 cm from eye lens. Magnifying power of instrument is
(a) 12
(b) 24
(c) 30
(d) 22

33. A person can see objects only at distance greater than 40 cm. He is advised to use lens
of power
(a) –2.5D
(b) +2.5D
(c) –6.25D
(d) +1.5D

34. An astronomical telescope of 10 fold angular magnification has a length of 44cm. The
focal length of the objective is:
(a) 4 cm
(b) 40 cm
(c) 44 cm
(d) 440 cm

35. A concave lens of glass of refractive index 1.5 has both surfaces of same radius of
curvature R. On immersion in a medium of refractive index 1.75, the lens will behave as
(a) convergent lens of focal length 3.5 R
(b) convergent lens of focal length3.0 R
(c) divergent lens of focal length 3.5 R
(d) divergent lens of focal length 3.0 R
36. A telescope has an objective lens of focal length 150 cm and an eye piece of focal length
5 cm. If a 50 m tall tower at a distance of 1km is observed through this telescope (in
normal setting), the angle formed by the image of the tower is , then is close to :
(a) 1°
(b) 15°
(c) 30°
(d) 56°

37. Two lenses have dispersive powers in ratio 2:3. These glasses are used to make
achromatic lens of focal length 20 cm. The value of focal lengths of two lenses are
(a) f1 = 5 cm, f2 = –10 cm
(b) f1 = –10 cm, f2 = 10 cm
(c) f1 = 6.67 cm, f2 = –10 cm
(d) f1 = 10 cm, f2 = –10 cm

38. A converging lens of focal length f is placed in contact with a diverging lens of focal
length 3f. The combination is
(a) A diverging lens of focal length 3f/2
(b) A converging lens of focal length 2f
(c) A diverging lens of focal length 3f
(d) A converging lens of focal length 3f/2

39. The distance between object and the screen is D. Real images of an object are formed on
the screen for two positions of a lens separated by a distance d. The ratio between the
sizes of two images will be:
(a) D/d
(b) D2/d2
(c) (D - d)2 / (D + d)2
(d) (D/d)1/2

40. In displacement, lengths of images in two positions are 9 cm and 4 cm respectively, the
length of the object is:
(a) 6.25 cm
(b) 6. 5 cm
(c) 6.0 cm
(d) 36 cm

41. The power of a lens combination, consisting of two lenses of different focal lengths and
kept at a distance equal to the sum of their focal lengths is:
(a) zero
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
42. Two thin similar lenses of focal length + f each are placed at a distance x apart. For what
value of x the equivalent focal length of the combination will be negative
(a) x = 2f
(b) x <2f
(c) x >2f
(d) x = f2

43. The magnifying power of a telescope can be increased

(a) by increasing focal length
(b) by fitting eyepiece of higher power
(c) by fitting eyepiece of low power
(d) by increasing the distance of object

44. To remove Hypermetropia lens used is

(a) Concave
(b) Convex
(c) Cylindrical
(d) Plano-convex

45. A myopic eye can be corrected by using a:

(a) convex lens
(b) cylindrical lens
(c) plano–convex lens
(d) concave lens

46. Of the following human eyes are most sensitive to

(a) red light
(b) violet light
(c) blue light
(d) green light

47. Ratio of intensities of two waves is 1:9. What will be the ratio of maximum intensity to
minimum intensity if these waves interface?
(a) 1 : 3
(b) 4 : 1
(c) 2 : 6
(d) 1 : 4

48. Two interfering waves have intensities in the ratio 9 : 1. The ratio of maximum and
minimum intensities, in interference pattern, will be
(a) 5 : 4
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 25 : 16
(d) 4 : 1
49. Two coherent sources of intensity ratio 100 : 1 interfere. The ratio intensity between
maxima and minima is
(a) 100 : 1
(b) 10 : 1
(c) 11 : 9
(d) 121 : 81

50. In an interference pattern, at a point we observe the 12th order maxima for λ1 =
6000A0. What order will be visible here if the source is replaced by light of wavelength
λ2 = 4800A?
(a) 15th
(b) 10th
(c) 18th
(d) 16th

51. Oil floating on water looks colored due to interference of light. The approximate
thickness of oil for such effect to be visible should be :
(a) 100 A0
(b) 10,000 A0
(c) 1 mm
(d) 1 cm

52. The main difference in the phenomenon of interference and diffraction is that
(a) Diffraction is due to interaction of light from the same wave-front whereas
interference is the interaction of waves from two isolated sources.
(b) Diffraction is due to interaction of light from same wave-front, whereas the
interference is the interaction of two waves derived from the same source.
(c) Diffraction is a due to interaction of waves derived from the same source, whereas
the interference is the bending of light from the same wave-front.
(d) Diffraction is caused by the reflected waves from a source whereas interference
caused is due to refraction of waves from a surface.

53. The correct statement out of the following is

(a) Brewster's angle is independent of wavelength of light
(b) Brewster's angle is independent of the nature of reflecting surface.
(c) Brewster's angle is different for different wavelengths.
(d) Brewster's angle depends on wavelength but not on the nature of the reflecting
surface.

54. Two Nicol prisms are first crossed and then one of them is rotated through 60°. The
percentage of incident light transmitted is:
(a) 12.5
(b) 25.0
(c) 37.5
(d) 50.0
55. In a Young's double slit interference experiment, the fringe pattern is observed on a
screen placed at a distance D. The slits are separated by d and are illuminated by light of
wavelength . The distance from the central point to the point where the intensity falls
to zero is :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

56. In the ideal double-slit experiment, when a glass-plate of refractive index 1.5 and
thickness t is introduced in the path of the interfering beams (Wavelength of light is λ)
from one slit the intensity at the position where the central maximum occurred
previously remains unchanged. The minimum thickness of the glass-plate is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

57. Two Polaroid's are crossed. The percent of incident un-polarized light, which will be
transmitted on rotating one Polaroid by 60°, is
(a) 34.5%
(b) 35.5%
(c) 36.5%
(d) 37.5%

58. The mean separation of two points on moon that can be resolved by a 500 cm telescope
aperture is (distance of the moon is 4×105 km, eye is most sensitive to wavelength 5500
A0)
(a) 40 m
(b) 43 m
(c) 53.6 m
(d) 50.6 m

59. The sun looks red at sunset because:

(a) Sun has only red color
(b) Red color is scattered more than other colors
(c) Red color is scattered less than other colors
(d) Our eyes are more sensitive to ted color

60. Rayleigh criterion of just resolution is

(a) when maximum of one image lies on the minimum of another image.
(b) when maximum of one image lies on the maximum of other image.
(c) when minimum of one image lies on the minimum of other image.
(d) no condition exists
61. Wavelength of light used in an optical instrument are λ1 = 4000 A0 and λ2 = 5000 A0. The
ratio of their respective resolving power is –
(a) 1:9
(b) 5:4
(c) 16:5
(d) 9:1

62. The approximate diameter of nucleus is

(a) 10–8 cm
(b) 10–13 cm
(c) 10–15 cm
(d) 10–18 cm

63. The binding energy of a nucleus is a measure of its

(a) Stability
(b) Mass
(c) Charge
(d) Momentum

64. What is the particle X in the following nuclear reaction?

(a) Electron
(b) Proton
(c) Neutron
(d) Meson

65. Zero point energy is consequence of –

(a) Particle nature of the waves
(b) Wave nature of the particles
(c) Relativistic mass variation
(d) Energy at temperature 0K

66. Davisson-Germer experiment gives the proof of-

(a) Particle nature of waves
(b) Uncertainty principle
(c) Wave nature of electron
(d) Speed of light

67. When γ - rays fall on heavy substance, electron and positron are produced, the
phenomenon is known as –
(a) β − decay
(b) Meson production
(c) Cosmic ray
(d) Pair production
68. The process of nuclear fusion can be best explained by –
(a) Bohr model
(b) Liquid drop model
(c) Shell model
(d) Somerfield model

69. The mean free path of molecules of a certain gas at pressure p and temperature T is
2×10–7 m. The mean free path for the same gas at pressure p/2 and temperature 2T,
will be
(a) 10 × 10–7 m
(b) 8 × 10–7 m
(c) 6 × 10–7 m
(d) 4 × 10–7 m

70. The average binding energy per nucleon of most nuclei is of the order of
(a) 10–12 eV
(b) 10–12 MeV
(c) 10–12 BeV
(d) 10–12 J

71. At the peak of the nuclear binding energy curve

(a) Z is even but N is odd
(b) Z is odd but N is even
(c) Both Z and N are odd
(d) Both Z and N are even

72. γ-emission is associated with transition between

(a) Atomic energy levels
(b) Nuclear energy levels
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

73. The magic numbers are related to which nuclear property?

(a) Force
(b) Decay
(c) Explosion
(d) Stability

74. Who made the observation that there must be very large empty space within the atom?
(a) Einstein
(b) Arrhenius
(c) Chadwick
(d) Rutherford
75. If the atomic size increase, the non-metallic character will
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Sometimes increases and sometimes decreases
(d) No change

76. The ratio of specific charge of a proton and a α- particle is

(a) 2 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 1 : 4
(d) 1 : 1

77. An electron in an atom though revolves around the nucleolus, the radius of its path is
not constant but varies between a maximum and a minimum values. This suggestion
was given by
(a) John Dalton
(b) Sir Ernest Rutherford
(c) Niels Henrik David Bohr
(d) Arnold Johannes Wilhelm Somerfield

78. A proton and an electron travelling along parallel paths enter a region of a uniform
magnetic field acting perpendicular to their paths. Which of following statements is
correct?
(a) Electron will move in a circular path with higher frequency.
(b) Electron will move in a helical path with higher frequency.
(c) Proton will move in a circular path with higher frequency.
(d) Proton will move in a helical path with higher frequency.

79. The mass number of Helium (He) is 4 and that of Sulphur (S) is 32. The radius of S
nucleus is larger than that of He nucleus by:
(a) times
(b) 4 times
(c) 2 times
(d) 8 times

80. Hydrogen (1H1), Deuterium (1H2) , singly ionized Helium (2He4)+ and doubly ionized
Lithium (3He7)++ all have one electron around the nucleus. Consider an electron
transition from level n = 2 to n = 1. If the wavelengths of emitted radiation are λ1, λ2, λ3
and λ4, respectively, then which one of the following order is correct?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
81. Some postulates of atomic theory of matter are quoted below. One of the above
postulates was not part of Dalton's atomic theory. Identify it.
(a) The ultimate particles of a given pure substance, called atoms, are chemically alike.
(b) Atoms can neither be created nor destroyed
(c) Atoms though chemically identical, differ slightly in their weights
(d) Chemical reactions do not change nature of atoms, but cause their rearrangement.

82. Complete the equation for the following fission process: 92U235 + 0n1 → 38Sr90 + _____
(a) 54Xe143 + 30n1
(b) 54Xe145
(c) 57Xe142
(d) 54Xe145 + 30n1

83. For cobalt (Z = 27) X-ray spectrum contained strong Kα line at 0.1785 nm and a Kα at
0.1930 nm. This weak Kα line due to an impurity whose atomic number is:
(a) 25
(b) 26
(c) 28
(d) 30

84. The mean free path covered by a molecule between two successive collisions is given as
(n is number density and d is the diameter of the molecule)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

85. The expression for classical radius of an electron is given as:

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

86. When hydrogen atom is raised from the ground state to excited state
(a) P.E. increases and K.E. decreases
(b) P.E. decreases and K.E. increases
(c) Both P.E. and K.E. increases
(d) Both P.E. and K.E. decreases

87. According to Rutherford model of atom the atom consists of:

(a) positively charged nucleus surrounded by a cloud of negative charge
(b) electrons orbiting a positively charged nucleus in definite orbits
(c) same as (b) above with electrons spinning
 (d) a rigid sphere only

88. Mass defect for the He nucleus is 0.0303 amu, binding energy per nucleon for this (in
MeV) will be
(a) 28
(b) 7
(c) 4
(d) 1

89. The binding energy of neutron in deuterium 1H2 will be (Given that mp = 1.0078 a.m.u,
mn = 1.0087 a.m.u, md = 2.0141 a.m.u)
(a) 2.2344 MeV
(b) 4.4688 MeV
(c) 1.1172 MeV
(d) 7.8 MeV

90. Moseley's law is concerned with:

(a) continuous x–rays
(b) characteristic x–rays
(c) γ–rays
(d) β–rays

91. The binding energy per nucleon of O16 is 7.97 MeV and that of O17 is 7.75 MeV. The
energy in MeV required to remove a neutron from O17 is:
(a) 3.52
(b) 3.64
(c) 4.23
(d) 7.86

92. The nuclear radius of an element X216 is 7.731 Fermi. The radius of nucleus of Y8 is:
(a) 7.731 Fermi
(b) 2.193 Fermi
(c) 2.577 Fermi
(d) 2.86 Fermi

93. Bohr-magneton is given by –

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

94. Cooper pair has, electrons of –

(A) Equal and opposite momentum
(B) Equal and opposite spins
(C) Spins not equal
Which of the above statements are true?
 (a) Only (A)
(b) Only (B)
(c) (A) and (B)
(d) (A) and (C)

95. The ratio of the energies of hydrogen atom in its first and second excited state is –
(a) 1: 4
(b) 4 : 9
(c) 9 : 4
(d) 4 : 1

96. The KE of an electron in an atom is –

(a) Half of its PE
(b) Double of PE
(c) Equal to PE
(d) Thrice of PE

97. If r0 is the radius of the first (n = 1) Bohr orbit in hydrogen atom, the radius of the
fourth (n = 4) orbit is given by
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

98. Quantum dot solar cells are based on

(a) Galvanic cell
(b) Voltaic cell
(c) Solar cell
(d) Gratzel cell

99. If the binding energy of the electron in a hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV, the energy required
to remove the electron from the 1st excited state of Li++ is :
(a) 122.4 eV
(b) 30.6 eV
(c) 13.6 eV
(d) 3.4 eV

100. The binding energy of deuteron is 2.2 MeV and that of 2He4 is 28 MeV. If two
deuterons are fused to form one 2He4 , then the energy released is
(a) 25.8 MeV
(b) 23.6 MeV
(c) 19.2 MeV
(d) 30.2 MeV
101. Which of the following statements does not form part of Bohr's model of the
hydrogen atom?
(a) Energy of the electrons in the orbit is quantized
(b) The electron in the orbit nearest the nucleus has the lowest energy
(c) Electrons revolve in different orbits around the nucleus
(d) The position and velocity of the electrons in the orbit cannot be determined
simultaneously

102. The energy of an atom (or ion) in its ground state is -54.4eV. It should be
(a) hydrogen
(b) deuterium
(c) He+
(d) Li++

103. In Bohr hydrogen atomic model, the electron moves around the nucleus in a circular
orbit of radius 5×10−11 m, with a time period of 1.5×10−16 sec. The current in relation to
the speed of electron is
(a) Zero
(b) 1.6×10-19 ampere
(c) 0.17 ampere
(d) 1.07 × 10-3 ampere

104. How much energy will approximately be released if all the atoms of 1 kg of
deuterium could undergo fusion?
(a) 2×107 kWh
(b) 8×1013 J
(c) 6×1027 calorie
(d) 8×1023 MeV

105. The ionization potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. The ionization potential of
singly ionized helium ion will be (in eV):
(a) 54.4
(b) 27.2
(c) 6.8
(d) 3.4

106. The energy of hydrogen atom in the nth orbit is EH, then the energy in the nth orbit
of singly-ionized helium atom is
(a) EH/2
(b) 2EH
(c) 4EH
(d) EH/4
107. Wavelength of 2nd member of Balmer series is:
(a) 16/3R
(b) 8/5R
(c) 4/3R
(d) 2/R

108. In the following transitions, the minimum wavelength shall be in:

(a) n = 2 to n = 1
(b) n = 3 to n = 2
(c) n = 4 to n = 3
(d) n = 5 to n = 4

109. In Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, the electron travels with speed 2.2×106 m/s in
a circle (r = 5.3×10–11 m) about the nucleus. The value of B at the nucleus due to
electron's motion, is:
(a) 12.5 T
(b) 25.0 T
(c) 30.0 T
(d) 40.0 T

110. In the spectrum of hydrogen, the ratio of the longest wavelength in the Lyman series
to the longer wavelength in the Balmer series, will be:
(a) 1/3
(b) 4/9
(c) 5/27
(d) 3/2

111. The wavelength of first line of Balmer series in hydrogen atom is λ. The wavelength
of the corresponding line of doubly ionized lithium atom is:
(a) λ/3
(b) λ/4
(c) λ/27
(d) λ/9

112. The minimum energy required to excite an hydrogen atom from its ground state is
of the order of: (Ionization potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV)
(a) 13.6 eV
(b) –13.6 eV
(c) 3.4 eV
(d) 10.2 eV

113. The maximum wavelength emitted of hydrogen spectrum in ultraviolet region is

122 nm. The minimum wavelength emitted in infrared region is
(a) 802 mn
(b) 823 nm
(c) 1882nm
 (d) 1648nm

114. The upper limit of wavelength in Pfund series of hydrogen atom spectrum is
(a) 9.12 μm
(b) 8.12 μm
(c) 10.12 μm
(d) 6.12 μm

115. The ionization energy of Li+2 ion is related to H atom as

(a) 2 : 1
(b) 3 : 1
(c) 9 : 1
(d) 4 : 1

116. Rydberg's constant is equal to:

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

117. A photon of energy 14.05 eV ionizes H-atom in its ground state. The velocity of the
electron coming out of the atom will be:
(a) 4.0×105 m/s
(b) 2.2×106 m/s
(c) 8.0×105 m/s
(d) 9.9×106 m/s

118. In the absorption spectrum of hydrogen absorption lines appear for

(a) only Lyman series
(b) only Balmer series
(c) both Lyman and Balmer series only
(d) all series

119. A hydrogen atom moving with a velocity of 4 m/s absorbs a photon of wavelength
and stops. The is:
(a) 1000A0
(b) 2000A0
(c) 3000A0
(d) 4000A0

120. In hydrogen atom, electrons are excited to n = 4. The number of spectral lines
observed will be:
(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 5
 (d) 2

121. Which of the following statements is not true-

(a) Lyman spectral series of hydrogen atom lies in the ultraviolet region of
electromagnetic radiation
(b) Balmer spectral series of hydrogen atom lies in the visible region of electromagnetic
radiation
(c) Paschen spectral series of hydrogen atom lies in the visible region of
electromagnetic radiations
(d) Brackett spectral series of hydrogen atom lies in the infra-red region of
electromagnetic radiation.

122. Bohr's model can explain:

(a) the spectrum of hydrogen atom only
(b) spectrum of atom or ion containing one electron only
(c) the spectrum of hydrogen molecule
(d) the solar spectrum

123. The shortest wavelength of X-rays emitted from X-ray tube depends upon
(a) Current in the tube
(b) Voltage applied to the tube
(c) Nature of the gas in the tube
(d) None of these

124. If 50 kV is applied in an X-ray tube, the minimum wavelength for X-rays will be
nearly-
(a) 3 nm
(b) 2 nm
(c) 0.2 A0
(d) 2 A0

125. The short wavelength limit of X-ray depends on-

(a) Nature of target
(b) Potential applied on X-ray
(c) Nature of filament
(d) None of the above

126. Mark the wrong statement.

(a) The characteristic X-ray spectrum consists of sharp peaks superimposed on the
continuous spectrum.
(b) The characteristic X-rays from substances of higher atomic number are of longer
wavelength than those from lower atomic number
(c) X-rays from higher atomic number are more penetrating.
(d) Characteristic X-rays are generated when an electron from a higher inner shell
jumps to lower
127. The source of solar energy is
(a) burning of hydrogen
(b) nuclear fission reactions
(c) nuclear fusion reactions
(d) radiant energy received from other solar
Systems

128. At the same temperature, which of the following will exert maximum pressure?
(a) Gas of classical molecules
(b) Gas of Bosons
(c) Gas of Fermions
(d) None of the above

129. The electron microscope produces sharp images at higher magnification because:
(a) Frequency of electron is smaller than that of light waves
(b) Wavelength of the fast electrons are shorter than that of the light waves in optical
microscope
(c) Velocity of fast electrons is lower than the velocity of the light wave
(d) None of the above is true

130. An alloy of elements A and B is used as a target anode in the production is X–rays.
(a) Completely disappear
(b) be same as that of A and B
(c) be different from A and B
(d) show new lines characteristics of A and B

131. The glancing angle of incidence for first order reflection of X-rays of wavelength 0.6
A0 from a crystal is 300. The inter-planar distance for the crystal is
(a) 1.2 A
(b) 0.346 A
(c) 0.424 A
(d) 0.6 A

132. The graph between the frequency of K line of X–ray and atomic number Z of target is
(a) straight line
(b) parabola
(c) hyperbola
(d) ellipse

133. Shortest wavelength of X-rays that can be produced with 20 k V electron beam is
nearly:
(a) 0.6 A0
(b) 3.0 A0
(c) 6.0 A0
(d) 0.3 A0
134. Which of the following is different for a photon of continuous X-ray and a photon of
characteristic X-ray of the same wavelength?
(a) Frequency
(b) Penetrating power
(c) Some characteristics of light
(d) Method of production

135. Molybdenum is used as a target element for production of X-rays because it is:
(a) a heavy element and can easily absorb high velocity electrons
(b) a heavy element with high melting point
(c) an element having high thermal conductivity
(d) heavy and can easily deflect electrons

136. The potential difference that is applied to produce an electric field that can
accelerate an electron one-tenth the velocity of light is [e and m are charge and mass of
electron and c is the velocity of light] :
(a) 100mc2/e
(b) mc2/100e
(c) mc2/2e
(d) mc2/200e

137. X-rays from an atom are produced by :

(a) transition within valence electron levels
(b) transition from valence to empty core electron levels
(c) protons inside the nucleus
(d) neutrons inside the nucleus

138. The photoelectric threshold wavelength for a metal is 3000A. What is the kinetic
energy of an electron ejected from it by radiation of wavelength 1200A?
(a) 6.2 eV
(b) 3.1 eV
(c) 1.65 eV
(d) 1.03 eV

139. A non-monochromatic light is used in an experiment on photoelectric effect. The

stopping potential
(a) is related to the mean wavelength
(b) is related to the shortest wavelength
(c) is related to the longest wavelength
(d) is not related to the wavelength

140. The photoelectric threshold wavelength for tungsten is 2300 Ǻ. If this surface is
irradiated by ultra-violet light of wavelength 1800 Ǻ, the kinetic energy of emitted
electrons is
(a) 1.5 eV
(b) 1.8 eV
 (c) 2.4 eV
(d) 2.7 eV

141. A particle of rest mass mo moves with speed of . Its kinetic energy is:
(a) 0.41 moc2
(b) moc2
(c) 1.41 moc2
(d) 2.41 moc2

142. What potential must be applied to stop the fastest photoelectrons emitted when
ultraviolet light of 2000 A0 wavelength falls on a nickel surface? (Work function of
nickel = 5.01 eV)
(a) 5.01 V
(b) 3.02 V
(c) 2.10 V
(d) 1.20 V

143. In photoelectric effect, the rate of emission of photoelectrons depends on

(a) Intensity of radiation
(b) Frequency of radiation
(c) Both (A) and (B) above
(d) None of the above

144. In photoelectric effect, the most energetic electrons are emitted from
(a) Inner shells
(b) Surface of metal
(c) Nucleus
(d) Deep inside the metal

145. A metal surface is illuminated by a light of given intensity and frequency to cause
photoemission. If the intensity of illumination is reduced to one fourth of its original
value, then the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons would becomes.
(a) Unchanged
(b) 1/16th of original value
(c) twice the original value
(d) four times the original value

146. Radiations of wavelength m and m are allowed to

irradiate the surface of a material one by one. The stopping potential for electrons
emitted in the two cases is 2 : 1, respectively. The work function of the materials is
(a) 1.05 eV
(b) 10.50 eV
(c) 2.10 eV
(d) 0.52 eV
147. A photoelectric cell
(a) converts electricity into light
(b) converts light into electricity
(c) stores light
(d) stores electricity

148. In photoelectric effect, the maximum initial velocity of emitted electrons depends
upon:
(a) intensity of incident light only
(b) frequency of incident light only
(c) threshold frequency only
(d) both (b) and (c) above

149. According to the law of photoelectric emission, the number of electrons emitted per
second depends on−
(a) the intensity of incident light
(b) the nature of incident light
(c) the frequency of incident light
(d) the speed of incident light.

150. The shortest wavelength present in the radiation from an X-ray machine whose
accelerating potential is 50,000 V will be
(a) 0.025 nm
(b) 0.3426 nm
(c) 0.0248 A0
(d) 0.3426 A0

151. What is the ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths of proton, deuteron and -particle if
they are accelerated through same potential difference?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

152. If an electron and a proton have the same kinetic energy:

(a) the electron has a larger wavelength
(b) the proton has a larger wavelength
(c) both will have the same wavelength
(d) depending upon the value of kinetic energy, anyone of the above three statements
can be true