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19-03-2025 - Sr.S60 - Elite, Target & LIIT-BTs - Jee-Main-GTM-26&21 - Q.PAPER

The document outlines the instructions and format for the JEE-MAIN examination conducted by Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy on March 19, 2025. It includes details about the test duration, marking scheme, and the structure of the question paper, which consists of 75 questions across Mathematics, Physics, and Chemistry. Candidates are instructed on how to fill out the answer sheet and the materials they are allowed to bring into the examination hall.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
100 views24 pages

19-03-2025 - Sr.S60 - Elite, Target & LIIT-BTs - Jee-Main-GTM-26&21 - Q.PAPER

The document outlines the instructions and format for the JEE-MAIN examination conducted by Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy on March 19, 2025. It includes details about the test duration, marking scheme, and the structure of the question paper, which consists of 75 questions across Mathematics, Physics, and Chemistry. Candidates are instructed on how to fill out the answer sheet and the materials they are allowed to bring into the examination hall.

Uploaded by

xyz65214
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy.,India.

 A.P  T.S  KARNATAKA  TAMILNADU  MAHARASTRA  DELHI  RANCHI


A right Choice for the Real Aspirant
ICON Central Office - Madhapur - Hyderabad
SEC: Sr.S60_Elite, Target & LIIT-BTs JEE-MAIN Date: 19-03-2025
Time: 09.00Am to 12.00Pm GTM-26/21 Max. Marks: 300
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTION:
1. Immediately fill in the Admission number on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen
only.
2. The candidates should not write their Admission Number anywhere (except in the specified space) on the
Test Booklet/ Answer Sheet.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 75 Questions. The maximum marks are 300.
5. There are three parts in the question paper 1,2,3 consisting of Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry
having 25 Questions in each subject and subject having two sections.
(I) Section –I contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions with only one correct option.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases.
(II) Section-II contains 05 Numerical Value Type Questions.
∎ The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal then round off to the Nearest Integer
value (Example i,e. If answer is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 and If answer is from 10.5 and
less than 11 round off is 11).
To cancel any attempted question bubble on the question number box.
For example: To cancel attempted Question 21. Bubble on 21 as shown belo w
SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 19-03-25_ Sr.S60_Elite, Target & LIIT-BTs _Jee-Main_GTM-26/21_Q.P

.
Question Answered for Marking Question Cancelled for Marking
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases.
6. Use Blue / Black Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking responses on the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is
strictly prohibited.
7. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, mobile phone any electron
device etc, except the Identity Card inside the examination hall.
8. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
9. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty in the Hall.
However, the candidate are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
10. Do not fold of make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet
Name of the Candidate (in Capital): ________________________________________________

Admission Number:
Candidate’s Signature:________________ Invigilator’s Signature: ________________
19-03-2025_Sr. S60_Elite, Target & LIIT-BTs_Jee-Main-GTM-26/21_Test Syllabus
MATHEMATICS : TOTAL SYLLABUS
PHYSICS : TOTAL SYLLABUS
CHEMISTRY : TOTAL SYLLABUS

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SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 19-03-25_ Sr.S60_Elite, Target & LIIT-BTs _Jee-Main_GTM-26/21_Q.P
MATHEMATICS Max Marks: 100
SECTION-I (SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which
ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
1. The shortest distance between the lines x  y  2  6 z  6 and x  1  2 y  12 z is
1 3
1) 2) 2 3) 1 4)
2 2
x2 y2
2. Let ' ' and f   be the eccentricity of the ellipse 2   1 and
4b  3a 2 3b 2  2a 2
x2 y2
 2  1 respectively, where b2  a 2  0 , then
3b  2a
2 2
b
2025
2 
 
2
1) f f  f ........ f    

2025 times
1     2
2 2025
2

22025

2) f f  f ........ f    


1  22025 2
2025 times

2025
2 
  
2
3) f f f  f ........ f    
  1   2024 
2025 times

22024 
 
4) f f f ........ f     

2024 times
1     2
2 2024
2

3. If xi   0, 1 i  1,2,3,.....28, then the maximum value of

sin 1 x1 cos 1 x2  sin 1 x2 cos 1 x3  sin 1 x3 cos 1 x4  .....  sin 1 x28 cos 1 x1 is

1) 7 2) 14 3) 28 4) can’t be determined

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4. Let R be the real line. Consider the following subsets of the plane R  R :
S   x, y  : y  x  1and 0  x  2

T  { x, y  : x  y is an integer}
Which one of the following is true
1) T is an equivalence relation on R but S is not
2) Neither S nor T is an equivalence relation on R
3) Both S and T are equivalence relations on R
4) S is an equivalence relation on R but T is not
2 1 
5. If ‘A’ and ‘B’ are square Matrices of order ‘2’ such that A  adj  BT     and
1 2 
 0 1
AT  adj  B     , then
1 0 
1) An  A, n   2) B is Skew symmetric matrix
3) A  A2  A3  A4  A5  0 4) B  B 2  B 3  B 4  B 5  0
Note: here K denotes determinant of matrix K.
6. Five points are selected on a circle of radius ‘r’ the centers of the Rectangular Hyperbolas
each passing through four of these points lie on a circle of radius
r r
1) r 2) 2r 3) 4)
2 2
7. The particular solution of Differential equation x dy  y dx  xy 2  x  y  dy  0 at
2 2

x  1 and f 1  2 is
2 2
y  x 1 y 24  y  x  5 y2 2 x
1)
xy
 e
2
2) 2 
xy   2e
 
2
y
y  x 2 2 2 y yx x
3)  e 4) e2
xy 5 xy
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n
1 3 r
7 r 15r 
  1
r n
8. The sum of series Cr  r  2 r  3r  4 r  ....  m terms  is
r 0 2 2 2 2 
2mn  1 2mn  1 2mn  1 2m
1) mn n 2) n 3) n 4) n
2  2  1 2 1 2 1 2 1

x 2n f  x   g  x 
9. If h  x   Lt , then the value of h  x  when x     1,1 is
n x2n  1
f  x  g  x f  x  g  x
1) g  x  2) f  x  3) 4)
2 2
10. The sum of the terms of the G.P a, ar , ar ,.... where ‘a’ is the only integer solution for the
2

 2 1 
 1
 dx 
 2a  5  1  1 x 
inequality log 1    0 and ‘r’ is given by the relation  e 0
is  

2  a  3  r
2 2 2 2 2 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 1 2 1 2 1 2 1
11. A vector x coplanar with vectors a  i  j  k and b  2i  k and is orthogonal to the
vector b . If x.a  7 , Then the vector x equals____
3 5 3 5 7 5
1)  i  j  3k 2) i  j  3k 3) 3i  5 j  k 4) i  j  k
2 2 2 2 2 2
12. 2n boys are randomly divided into two groups each containing n boys. The chance that two
particular boys X and Y are different groups is
3n n 1 n n 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
4n  1 2n  1 2n  1 2n  1
13. Statement-I: A fair coin is tossed n times. Let Pn denotes the probability that no two (or
more) consecutive heads occur in n tosses. The probabilities P2 , P3 , P4 are in arithmetic
progression.
Statement-II: The probabilities P1 , P2 , P3 ,....., Pn are in decreasing order
1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
2) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false
3) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true
4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
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14. The number of all possible values of  , where 0     , for which system of questions
 y  z  cos3   xyz  sin 3 ;
2cos3 2sin 3
x sin 3   ;
y z
 xyz  sin 3   y  2 z  cos3  y sin 3 have a solution  x0 , y0 , z0  with y0 z0  0 , is____.
1) 2 2) 4 3) 3 4) 5
n 1 n

 r e r 1

15. The value of r 0


n
 r 1
n 1
is

r 0
r
e
r 1
r 1

1)  0 2)  0 3)  0 4)  0

16. If vector r with d.c.s. l, m, n is equally inclined to the co-ordinate axes, then the total
number of such vectors is
1) 4 2) 6 3) 8 4) 2
2
1 5
 1
17. If z   3 , then the value of   z r  r  is______.
z r 1  z 
1) 8 2) 5 3) 4 4) 1
18. Match the following columns and select the correct option
List – I List – II
P The maximum value of f  x   9 x  x  1 2 ,0  x  2 is A 1
Q x2  1 B 18
The minimum value of f  x   is
x2  1
R x2  1 C 2
The local maximum value of f  x   2 , x  R  1, 1
x 1
S x2  1 D 2
The local maximum value of f  x   , x  R  0
x
1) P – C; Q – B; R – A; S – D 2) P – D; Q – C; R – B; Q – A
3) P – B; Q –A ; R – A; S – C 4) P – A; Q – D; R – C; S – B

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19. f  x   x   x   cos x,   ,    . The number of ordered pair   ,   for which
2

f ( x)  0 and f  f  x    0 have same (non empty) set of real roots is


1) 4 2) 6 3) 8 4) 10
20. Suppose values taken by a variable X are such that a  xi  b where xi denotes the value of
X in the ith case for i  1,2,....., n. Then,
a2
 Var  X  2)  b  a   Var  X 
2
1)
4
3) a  Var  X   b 4) a 2  Var  X   b 2
SECTION-II (NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5 Numerical Value Type Questions. The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal
then round off to the Nearest Integer value (Example i,e. If answer is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 and If
answer is from 10.5 and less than 11 round off is 11).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases.
M  2025   M  2023
21. If M ( r )  sin r   cos r  , then Maximum value of  2024  is
M (2021)

Note: . denotes absolute value of real number

22. If a 2  b 2  c 2  1 , where a, b, c , then Maximum value of

 4a  3b    5b  4c    3c  5a 
2 2 2
is

23. Let f :  2024, 2025   be a Differentiable function such that f  2024   2025 and
2025
f  f  x    x x in [2024, 2025], then the value of 2025   x  f  x 
2024
dx is
2024

24. The sum of integers lie between 1 and 121 (both included) and divisible by 3 or 5 or 11
is_____
25. The area enclosed by the curve xy 2  4  2  x  and y-axis is  sq. unit, then the value of

cos 1824  must be____.

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SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 19-03-25_ Sr.S60_Elite, Target & LIIT-BTs _Jee-Main_GTM-26/21_Q.P
PHYSICS Max Marks: 100
SECTION-I (SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which
ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
26. A point moves in a straight line so that its displacement x (in m) at time t (in s) is given by
x 2  1  t 2 . Its acceleration in m/s2 at time t s is
t t 1 t2 1 1
1) 3 2) 3 3)  3 4) 
x x x x x x2
o
27. A solid sphere of radius R1 and volume charge density   is enclosed by a hollow sphere
r
of radius R2 with negative surface charge density  , such that the total charge in the system
is zero. o is a positive constant and r is the distance from the centre of the sphere. The
R2
ratio is
R1
 o
1) 2)  / o 3)  o /  2  4)
o 
28. A projectile is fired from level ground at an angle  above the horizontal. The elevation
angle  of the highest point as seen from the launch point is related to  by the relation.
1 1
1) tan   tan  2) tan   tan  3) tan   tan  4) tan   2 tan 
4 2
29. In a Searle's experiment, the diameter of the wire as measured by a screw gauge of least
count 0.001cm is 0.050cm. The length measured by a scale of least count 0.1cm is 110.0cm.
When a weight of 50N is suspended from the wire, the extension is measured to be 0.125cm
by a micrometer of least count 0.001cm. The maximum percentage error in the measurement
of Young's modulus of the material of the wire from this data is
1) 4.89% 2) 3.89% 3) 2.85% 4) 2.75%
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30. Water flows steadily through a horizontal pipe of variable cross-section. If the pressure of
water is P at a point where flow speed is v, the pressure at another point where the flow
speed is 2v, is (Take density of water as  )
3 v 2 v2 3 v 2
1) P  2) P  3) P  4) P   v 2
2 2 4
31. In the given figure a capacitor of plate area A is charged up to a charge q. The mass of each
plate is m2. The lower plate is rigidly fixed. The value of m1 if the system remains in
equilibrium is

q2 q2
1) m2  2) m2 3)  m2 4) 2m2
0 Ag 2 0 Ag
32. The electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition from an excited state to the ground state.
Match the following.
a) Kinetic energy p) increases
b) Potential energy q) decreases
c) Total energy r) remains the same
1) a-p, b-q, c-q 2) a-p, b-p, c-q 3) a-q, b-p, c-q 4) a-p, b-q, c-p
33. Assertion : The ferromagnetic substance do not obey Curie’s law as long it has
ferromagnetic behavior.
Reason : Above curie point a ferromagnetic substance behaves as paramagnetic substance
and in this region susceptibility   1 . Where T=temperature of substance and T 
c
T  Tc
Curie point temperature.
1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
4) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
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34. STATEMENT-1: When body is floating, the weight of liquid displaced by body is equal to
the weight of the body.
STATEMENT-2: A man is sitting in a boat which is floating on a pond. If the man drinks
some water from the pond, the level of the water in the pond decreases
1) Both STATEMENT-1 and STATEMENT-2 are true
2) Both STATEMENT-1 and STATEMENT-2 are false.
3) STATEMENT-1 is true but STATEMENT-2 is false
4) STATEMENT-1 is false but STATEMENT-2 is true
35. If resistivity of the material of a conductor of uniform area of cross-section varies along its
length as   0 1  x . Then the resistance of the conductor if its lengths is ‘L’ and area of
cross-section is ‘A’ is
  1    1    1  
1) 0  L  L2  2) 0  L  L2  3) 0  L  L  4) 0  L  L2 
A 2  A 2  A 2  A
36. A heavy weight is suspended from a spring. A person raises the weight till the spring
becomes slack. The work done by him is W. The energy stored in the stretched spring was
E. The gain in gravitational potential energy is
1) W 2) E 3) W + E 4) W – E
37. A small candle 2.5 cm in size is placed at 27 cm in front of a concave mirror of radius of
curvature 36 cm. At what distance from the mirror should a screen be placed in order to
obtain a sharp image? What are the nature and size of image?
1) 54 cm, erected, magnified, 5cm
2) 54 cm, real, inverted, magnified, 5cm
3) 5 cm, erected, magnified, 54 cm
4) 54 cm, real, inverted, diminished, 4 cm
38. A uniform thin bar of mass 6m and length 12 L is bent to make a regular hexagon. Its
moment of inertia about an axis passing through the centre of mass and perpendicular to the
plane of the hexagon is
12 2
1) 20mL2 2) 6mL2 3) mL 4) 30mL2
5
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39. A beam of natural light falls on a system of 5 polaroids, which are arranged in succession
such that the pass axis of each polaroid is turned through 60° with respect to the preceding
one. The fraction of the incident light intensity that passes through the system is
1 1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
64 512 256 128
40. A cubical block of mass M and edge 'a' slides down a rough inclined plane of inclination 
with a uniform velocity. The torque of the normal force on the block about its centre has a
magnitude.
Mga sin 
1) Zero 2) Mga 3) Mga sin  4)
2
41. A prism of refractive index n and angle A is placed in minimum deviation position. If the
angle of minimum deviation is equal to the angle A, then the value of A is

n
1  n
1
 1  n2 
1
 4  n2 
1
1) sin   2) sin   3) 2sin   4) 2sin  
2  2   2   4 
42. Statement-I: The graph of total energy of a particle in SHM w.r.t., position is a straight line
with zero slope.
Statement-II: The graph of acceleration of particle in SHM w.r.t., to velocity is a straight
line
1) Statement-1 is true but Statement-2 is false
2) If both Statements are true
3) Statement-1 is false but Statement-2 is true
4) If both Statements are false
43. A variable frequency a.c source is connected to a capacitor. With decrease in frequency,
displacement current
1) Increases 2) decreases 3) remains same 4) becomes zero

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44. A light rod of length 200 cm is suspended from the ceiling horizontally by means of two
vertical wires of equal length tied to its ends. One of the wires is made of steel and is of
cross-section 0.1 cm2 and the other of brass of cross-section 0.2 cm2. Along the rod at
which distance a weight may be hung to produce equal stresses in both the wires?
4 4
1) m from steel wire 2) m from brass wire
3 3
1
3) 1 m from steel wire 4) m from brass wire
4
45. Assertion: According to Huygen’s principle, no backward wave-front is possible.
Reason: Amplitude of secondary wavelet is proportional to (1 + cos θ) where θ is the angle
between the ray at the point of consideration and the direction of secondary wavelet.
1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion
3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
4) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
SECTION-II (NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5 Numerical Value Type Questions. The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal
then round off to the Nearest Integer value (Example i,e. If answer is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 and If
answer is from 10.5 and less than 11 round off is 11).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases
46. A person of mass 50kg stands on a trolley of mass 30kg which is attached to a rope passing
over a pulley. The person pulls down the other end of rope as shown in fig. such that trolley
starts moving up with acceleration g/4. The force which person exerts on the rope in kg.wt is

m
M
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47. A current carrying conductor of mass 50g, length 0.5m carrying a current 1amp, hangs by
two identical springs each of stiffness constant k = 50N/m. For an outward magnetic field

B = 1 T, find extension(in cm) in the springs at equilibrium. g  10m / sec2 

48. When a circular coil of radius 1 m and 100 turns is rotated in a horizontal uniform magnetic
field, the peak value of emf induced is 100 V. The coil is unwound and then rewound into a
circular coil of radius 2 m. If it is rotated, now, with the same speed under similar
conditions, the new peak value of emf developed is (in V)
49. Two blocks 4 kg and 2 kg are sliding down an incline plane as shown in the figure. The
acceleration of 2 kg block is
  0.2
2 kg
4 kg
  0.3
30º
50. Carbon monoxide is carried around a closed cycle abca in which bc is an isothermal process,
as shown in the figure. The gas absorbs 7000 J of heat, as its temperature increased from
300K to 1000K in going from a to b. The magnitude of heat ejected by the gas during the
process ca is (in J)

P2 b

P1 c
a

V1 V2
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CHEMISTRY Max Marks: 100
SECTION-I (SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which
ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
51. Identify the end product in the reaction sequence

NO2

Br2 FeBr3
U Fe  HCl V

NaNO2 / HCl 0 C

Cu power / HCl Mg / ether Acetophenone


W X onemole Y Z
H 3O 
Cl Br

CH 3 CH 3

1) OH 2) OH
Cl Br

CH 3 CH 3

3) OH 4) OH

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O
(i) H 2 N  NH 2
F Product (A)
(ii) OH / ROH
H
Zn  Hg
Product (B)
HCl
NaBH 4
52. Product (C)
Correct option is
CH 2OH

A  B  H 3C CH2CH2F ; C=

1) F

A  H 3C CH  CH 2 ; B  H 3C CH 2CH 2 F
2)

C  HOCH 2 CH 2CH 3

3)

B  H 3C CH 2CH 2 F ; C  HOCH 2 CH 2CH 3

4)

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53. For the following reaction
NO2 NO2 NO2 NO2

CH 3 NH 2 CH 3 NH 2
(i ) (ii )
NaHCO3 NaHCO3
NO2 NO2 NO2 NO2

F NHCH 3 Cl NHCH 3

NO2 NO2

CH 3 NH 2
(iii) NaHCO3
NO2 NO2
I NHCH 3

Correct order of reactivity


1) i = ii = iii 2) i > ii > iii 3) i < ii < iii 4) ii > iii > i
54. Assertion (A): It is difficult to replace chlorine by –OH in chlorobenzene in comparison to
that in chloroethane.
Reason (R) : Chlorine – Carbon (C – Cl) bond in Chlorobenzene has a partial double bond
character due to resonance.
1) Assertion (A) is true but Reason(R) is false
2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason(R) are true but Reason(R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
3) Assertion (A) is false but Reason(R) is true
4) Both Assertion (A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)

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55. Which of the following statement is wrong?
1) Single N – N bond is stronger than the single P – P bond.
2) PH 3 can act as a ligand in the formation of coordination compound with transition
elements.
3) NO2 is paramagnetic in nature.
4) Covalency of nitrogen in N 2O5 is four..
56. In qualitative analysis when H 2 S is passed through an aqueous solution of salt acidified
with HCl, a black precipitate is obtained. On boiling the precipitate with dil. HNO3 , it forms
a solution of blue colour. Addition of excess of aqueous solution of ammonia to this solution
gives
1) A deep blue precipitate of Cu  OH 2
2
2) A deep blue solution of Cu  NH 3 4 
3) A deep blue solution of Cu  NO3 2
4) A deep blue solution of Cu  OH 2 .Cu  NH 3 2
57. Match the complex ions given in Column I with the colours given in Column II and assign
the correct code:
Column I(complex ion) Column II (colour)
A Co  NH 3 6 
3
P Violet

B Ti  H 2O 6 
3 Q Green

C  Ni  H 2O 6 
2 S Pale blue

D
 Ni  H 2O 4  en  
2
 aq   T Yellowish orange

U Blue
1) A (P), B (Q), C (T), D (U) 2) A (T), B (S), C (Q), D (P)
3) A (S), B (Q), C (T), D (P) 4) A (T), B (P), C (Q), D (S)
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N N

58. the most stable canonical structure of this molecule is

N N N N

1) 2)

N N

3) 4) All are equally


59. The correct order of basicity of oxides of vanadium is
1) V2O3  V2O4  V2O5 2) V2O3  V2O5  V2O4
3) V2O5  V2O4  V2O3 4) V2O4  V2O3  V2O5
60. Strong reducing behavior of H 3 PO2 is due to
1) Low oxidation state of phosphorus
2) Presence of two -OH groups and one P – H bond
3) Two P – H bonds
4) High electron gain enthalpy of phosphorus
61. On addition of small amount of KMnO4 to concentrated H 2 SO4 , a green oily compound is
obtained which is highly explosive in nature. Identify the compound from the following
1) Mn2O7 2) MnO2 3) MnSO4 4) Mn2O3
62. Which of the following statements are true?
1) CH 3  CH 2  CH 2  I will react less readily than  CH 3  2 CHI for SN 2 reactions
2) CH 3  CH 2  CH 2  Cl will react more readily than CH 3  CH 2  CH 2  Br for S N 2
reactions
3) CH 3  CH 2  CH 2  CH 2  OH will react more readily than  CH 3 3 C  CH 2  OH for SN i
reactions in the presence of pyridine
4) CH 3  O  C6 H 5 Br will react more readily than NO2  C6 H 5  CH 2 Br for S N 2 reactions

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63. Which of the following statement is not correct from the view point of molecular orbital
theory?
1) Be2 is not a stable molecule.

2) He2 is not stable but He2 is expected to exist.


3) Bond strength of N 2 is maximum amongst the homonuclear diatomic molecules
belonging to the second period.
4) The order of energies of molecular orbitals in N 2 molecule is

 2 s   * 2 s   2 p z    2 p x   2 p y    * 2 p x   * 2 p y    * 2 p z

64. How much rate is affected in the presence of catalyst at 300K? (find the approximate value)

1) 20 times 2) 14 times 3) 28 times 4) 2 times


65. For the cell, Zn Zn 2 1M  H  1M  Pt  H 2  , Ecell

 0.76V and for the cell

Pt  H 2  H  1M  Ag  1M  Ag , Ecell



 0.80V

Thus, Ecell for the

Ag Ag   0.1M  Zn 2  0.1M  Zn is…….. and cell reaction is……

1) 1.44V , spontaneous 2) 0.4V spontaneous


3) 1.44V , non-spontaneous 4) 1.53V , non-spontaneous

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66. Given below are two statement
Statement-I: The gas liberated on warming a salt with dil H 2 SO4 , turns a piece of paper
dipped in lead acetate into black, It is a confirmatory test for sulphide ion.
Statement-II: In statement-I the colour of paper turns black because of formation of lead
sulphite.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
below
1) Both statement-I and statement-II are false
2) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true
3) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false
4) Both statement-I and statement-II are true.
67. Statement-I: The enthalpy of neutralization of a strong acid with a strong base is always
approximately 57.1kJ mol 1
Statement-II: The reaction between a strong acid and a strong base in an aqueous solution
involves the formation of water molecules from H  and OH  ions
1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct, and statement-II is the correct explanation
of statement-I.
2) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct, but statement-II is not the correct
explanation of statement-I
3) Statement-I is correct, but statement-II is incorrect
4) Statement-I is incorrect, but statement-II is correct
68. Assertion(A): The boiling point of a solution containing a non-volatile solute is always
higher than that of the pure solvent
Reason(R): The addition of a non-volatile solute decreases the vapor pressure of the
solution.
1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason(R) are correct, and Reason(R) is the correct explanation
of Assertion (A)
2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason(R) are correct, but Reason(R) is not the correct
explanation of Assertion (A)
3) Assertion (A)is correct , but Reason(R) is incorrect
4) Assertion (A)is incorrect, but Reason(R) is correct
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69. Consider the following reaction

The major product is expected to be :

1) 2)

3) 4)

70.

CH 3

KMnO4 NaOH / CaO Na


P Q R
 NH 3

O3 ZnHg / HCl Br2 / hv Et2CuLi


R Zn S T U (major) V
The number of monochloro products of compound ‘V’ and the fractional distillation of
product mixture respectively are:
1) 4, 4 2) 6, 5 3) 6, 4 4) 4, 2

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SECTION-II (NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5 Numerical Value Type Questions. The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal
then round off to the Nearest Integer value (Example i,e. If answer is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 and If
answer is from 10.5 and less than 11 round off is 11).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases
71. Adenine, a nitrogenous base found in DNA and RNA, the % of N in adenine is X. The value
of X is (round off nearest integer)

Given: Molar mass

N  14 g mol 1; O  16 g mol 1; C  12 g mol 1; H  1 g mol 1

72. The number of compounds from the following, soluble in aqueous NaOH is

H 3C CH 3
N COOH OCH 2CH 3
OH
CH 2OH

NO2 OH OCH 2CH 3 COOH

CH 2CH 3

N
H 3C CH 3

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73. 1 g of a monobasic acid dissolved in 200 g of water lowers the FP by 0.186 C . On the other
hand when 1 g of the same acid is dissolved in water so as to make the solution 200mL , this
solution requires 125mL of 0.1N NaOH for complete neutralization. Calculate  , is the

 K  kg 
degree of dissociation of acid .  K f  H O   1.86  find the value of 10
 2 mol  ,
74. The molar solubility of Fe(OH)3 in a buffer solution that 0.10 M in NH 4Cl and that 0.10

M in NH3 is a  1027 M . The value of a is -----


Given: K b  NH 3   1.8  105 and K sp  Fe  OH 3   2.6  10 39 .

75. Among the following, the number of planar as well as polar species is:
XeO3 , ClF3 , SO3 , HNO3 , SF4 , BeF2 , SO2 , XeF4 , HCl

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