PARLIAMENTARY

PRIVILEGES
Sagar kavach
CASE
 CONTENTS
POLITY AND GOVERNANCE.........................................1 Low Female Labor Force Participation Rate (LFPR)..............41

President’s Veto on State Bills.....................................................1 Growing Space Economy...........................................................42

S. R. Bommai v/s Union of India (1994).....................................2 Agroforestry more Beneficial to Small and
Marginal Farmers........................................................................43
Regional Benches of Supreme Court..........................................3
Cotton Cultivation in North India............................................45
Municipal Election Reforms........................................................5
Agriculture Sector Poised for High Growth in 2024-25........46
Curative Petition...........................................................................6
India’s Direct Tax Collections Surge in FY 2023-24...............47
Custodial Death............................................................................8
'Priority Watch List'....................................................................48
National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR)....9
30 Years of the Marrakesh Agreement.....................................49
Committee Report on the “One Nation One Election”..........11
Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs)............................................50
EVM-VVPAT Case....................................................................12
UNCTAD Report on Global Trade...........................................51
National Civil service Day........................................................13
ENVIRONMENT AND GEOGRAPHY........................53
Zero FIRs......................................................................................15
Soil Erosion in Western Ghats...................................................53
Indian Secularism vs Western Secularism................................16
State of the Global Climate Report 2023.............................54
Enforcement Directorate (ED)..................................................17
World Water Development Report 2024.................................55
INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS..................................19
Decoding the Judgment on Jim Corbett..................................56
India Rejects China’s ‘Senseless’ Arunachal Act....................19
Taiwan’s Recent Earthquake......................................................57
India Gains Sittwe Port Access..................................................20
Role of Nuclear Energy in Mitigating Climate Change........59
UN Security Council Resolution on Gaza...............................22
Right Against Adverse Effects of Climate Change................60
‘Vision for Regional Security’ announced by the
Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC)............................................23 Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs)...................................61

Electric Vehicle (EV) Battery Recycling Startups....................62

Katchatheevu Island...................................................................25
"Synchronizing Energy Transitions toward Possible Net
India’s Vision for Global South.................................................26
Zero for India" Report.................................................................63
Iran-Israel Conflict......................................................................27 Heat Wave....................................................................................64
AUKUS Alliance-Expansion of Membership..........................29 Green Credit Program................................................................65
E CON O M Y..............................................................................31 Europe is ‘Warming Faster than any other Continent’.........66
Agriculture Integrated Command and Control Center........31 Mount Ruang...............................................................................67
50 Years of Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs).............................32 India Powers Ahead in Renewable Energy.............................68
Acquisition of Shares Under the Large Value Fund (LVF) ....32 Environmental Performance Index (EPI) ...............................69
Unicorn 2.0: Adding the Next Trillion.....................................34 Combating Plastic Pollution......................................................70
India & Mauritius Amend Tax Treaty......................................35 UN Report Calls for Urgent Action on SDG Financing........71
Restrictions on Import of Solar PV Cells.................................36 Soil Acidification Eroding India’s Agricultural Future.........72
India Aims for Living Wage Standard by 2025......................38 Critical Minerals for Clean Energy Transition.......................73
The Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA)..............40 Methane Emission.......................................................................75

 I
SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY............................................76 India’s Food Safety System......................................................108

Samudrayaan Mission to Explore Deep Ocean .....................76 India’s 4P Model.......................................................................109

India’s Application to Explore Nikitin Seamount..................77 HISTORY & CULTURE.....................................................111

India’s First Home-grown CAR-T Cell Therapy (NexCAR19)....79 Ahobilam Temple......................................................................111

South Korea’s “Artificial Sun” ..................................................80 Sulthan Bathery.........................................................................112

Large Language Model (LLM) “Meta Llama3”......................82 Vaikom Satyagraha...................................................................112

Sodium Batteries.........................................................................83 50th Year of Chipko Movement..............................................113

Zika & Dengue Virus..................................................................84 The Olympics of the Art World..............................................114

India Ramps Up Gas-Based Power Generation to Meet GOVERNMENT SCHEMES...........................................116

Rising Electricity Demand.........................................................85
CDP-SURAKSHA......................................................................116
Atomic Clocks: One-Nation One-Time....................................86
Electric Mobility Promotion Scheme ........................................118
PETER HIGGS (Higgs Mechanism).........................................87
Financing Agrochemical Reduction and Management
PSLV Orbital Experimental Module-3 (POEM-3)..................88 (FARM) Programme.................................................................119
DEFENCE & INTERNAL SECURITY...........................90 Rashtriya Arogya Nidhi (RAN) Scheme................................120
Infrastructure Development in Arunachal Pradesh...............90 National Clean Air Programme (NCAP)..............................121

Building a Self-Reliant Defence Ecosystem.............................91 MISCELLANEOUS............................................................122

Agni Prime Missile.............................................................................93 Food Waste Index (FWI) Report 2024....................................122
Sagar Kavach................................................................................94 The Economics of Forced Labour”.........................................122
NATO’s 75th Anniversary..........................................................95 Monkeypox Virus.....................................................................123
SOCIAL ISSUES...................................................................97 Misleading Advertisement.....................................................124
CPWD’s Move Towards Inclusive Public Buildings for Asia Development Outlook Report 2024..............................125
Persons with Disabilities............................................................97
UNDP’s Human Development Report 2023-24...................126
Global Hepatitis Report 2024....................................................98
Manufacturing Purchasing Managers’ Index.......................128
Uniform Code for Pharmaceuticals Marketing Practices
(UCPMP) 2024.............................................................................99 Infrastructure Investment Trust (InvIT)................................128

Student Suicides........................................................................101 Islamic State-Khorasan (IS-K).................................................130

Urbanization, No Liberating Force for Dalits.......................102 Voluntary Code of Ethics for Elections by Social Media
Platforms....................................................................................131
Childcare Leave Policy in India..............................................103
IRDAI Celebrates 25 Years of its Establishment.................131
Surrogacy Laws........................................................................104
ARTICLE FROM YOJANA (APRIL 2024)..........................133
Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005...105
Soil Ecosystem...........................................................................133
IRDAI Removes the Age Limit for Health Insurance..........106

II 
 SECTION

A POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

Governor’s Role in Assenting to Bills

PRESIDENT'S VETO ON STATE BILLS
Article 200 of the Constitution outlines the Governor’s
Why in News: The Kerala government’s decision to challenge the
options when a state legislature presents a bill for assent:
President’s withholding of assent to certain bills passed by the
state legislature has sparked a significant debate on federalism, • Granting Assent: This allows the bill to become law.
gubernatorial powers, and the scope of judicial review in India.
• Withholding Assent: This effectively kills the bill.
Key Details
• In 2023, the President withheld assent to three Kerala • Returning the Bill (except Money Bills): This allows the
University Law Amendment Bills, out of seven bills legislature to reconsider the bill. Upon repassage, the
referred to her by the Governor. Governor is bound to grant assent.

• The Kerala government argues that these bills dealt with • Reserving the bill for the President’s consideration: This
matters within the State List of the Constitution, falling is a discretionary power of the Governor used in specific
under the state’s legislative competence. situations.

Article 201 of Constitution

• Article 201 of the Constitution specifically states that “When a Bill is reserved by a Governor for the consideration of
President
¾ The President shall declare either that he assents to the Bill or that he withholds assent therefrom.
• But no time stipulation is provided in the Constitution.
• President is not bound to give her/his assent to bill if it again passes by the house.

POLITY AND GOVERNANCE  1

Sarkaria Commission Recommendations • Together with nineteen other Legislative Assembly
• The Sarkaria Commission emphasized that reserving members, a Janata Dal politician left the party in September
bills for the President should be a rare practice, used 1988, ending their support for the Bommai administration.
only in cases of suspected unconstitutionality. • Article 356 was used to overthrow the state government
• It recommended that Governors act on ministerial advice as a result of the majority loss from defections. The
(except in such exceptional circumstances) and that the governor refused Bommai’s request to test the majority.
President dispose of reserved bills within six months, • Bommai appealed to the Supreme Court after the high
with reasons for withholding assent communicated court denied his request for redress.
whenever possible. • Restrictions on the arbitrary dismissal of state
Way Forward governments under Article 356 were established by the
• Constitutional Amendment: Amending the Constitution 1994 Supreme Court of India bench that determined the
to limit discretion in reserving bills could be explored. S. R. Bommai vs Union of India case
• Following Sarkaria Commission Recommendations: Supreme Court Verdict
Implementing the Sarkaria Commission’s recommen- • The Sarkaria Commission and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar both
dations on timely disposal of bills and communication of urged caution in the use of the Presidential Proclamation
reasons for withholding assent would bring transparency. under Article 356, and a nine-judge Supreme Court
Conclusion bench emphasized this point.
Kerala’s challenge to the President’s decision is likely to set a • According to Article 356(3), the Presidential
precedent for interpreting the Governor’s role, the President’s Proclamation must be carefully examined by both
power over state legislation, and the delicate balance between houses of Parliament.
federalism and gubernatorial discretion. • The proclamation expires after two months if it is
issued without the consent of both houses, and the state
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE assembly resumes its function.
Prelims MCQ • If the proclamation raises debatable issues, the Supreme
Court may consider writ petitions contesting its validity
Q. Consider the following statements: in addition to subject it to judicial review.
1. Reservation of a bill for the Presidential • Court made it clear that the President's power to
consideration is mandatory only if the bill threatens dismiss a state government is not absolute but subject
the position of the state High Court. to limitations.
2. Constitution of Indian prescribed the 6-month time • It acknowledged that although the dissolution of the
frame to President within which President must legislature is not specifically addressed in Article 356,
give his accent to the bill. such powers can be inferred from it
• It was noted that the authority to dissolve the legislature
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
is implied by Article 174(2), which gives the Governor
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only the authority to dissolve the Legislative Assembly, and
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Article 356(1)(a), which gives the President the authority
Answer: (a) (1 Only) to bestow upon himself the powers of the Governor and
the state government.
Descriptive Question
Importance of S.R. Bommai case
Q. Assess the constitutional provisions and principles
on reservation of bills for Presidential consideration • The S.R. Bommai case documents the misuse of article
of state legislature. Discuss in brief about the Sarkaria 356 and provides one of the Supreme Court’s rulings on
Commission recommendations on it. [15 Marks] [250 the basic structure doctrine.
words] • The ruling clarified the scope and limitations of Article
356 and emphasized that it should only be used in
extreme situations.
S. R. BOMMAI V/S. UNION OF • The case supported cooperative federalism and upheld
INDIA (1994) the fundamentals of federalism, declaring that state
governments are not subservient to the federal government.
Why in News: It marks its 30th anniversary, its influence on
the constitution of India continues to grow. • The ruling upheld the judiciary’s responsibility to scrutinize
Key Details the President’s conduct in accordance with Article 356 and
guarantee that constitutional norms are followed.
• Following its victory in the Karnataka Assembly elections
in 1985, the Janata Party formed a government led by • It affirmed that the floor of the Assembly is the sole
Chief Minister Ramakrishna Hegde. Later in 1988, Hegde authority to test the government's majority, not the
was replaced by SR Bommai. subjective opinion of the Governor.

2 POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

 EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ

Q. If the President of India exercises his power as

provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in
respect of a particular State, then
(a) The Assembly of the State is automatically
dissolved.
(b) The powers of the Legislature of that State shall
be exercisable by or under the authority of the
Parliament.
(c) Article 19 is suspended in that State.
(d) The President can make laws relating to that
State.
Answer: (b)

Descriptive Question
Q. Discuss the significance of the S. R. Bommai v. Union
of India ([1994]) case in shaping the constitutional
principles governing centre-state relations and
federalism in India. [15 Marks] [250 words]

REGIONAL BENCHES OF SUPREME

COURT
Why in News: The Law Ministry has approved the
Parliamentary Standing Committee on Personnel, Public
Grievances, Law and Justice’s proposal to create regional
Supreme Court benches across India, the committee recently
informed the Lok Sabha.
Way Forward
Legal provisions on the Regional Benches of the Supreme
• The Sarkaria Commission supported informing the Court in India
state prior to invoking Article 356(1) in some situations.
• According to Article 130 of the Indian Constitution, the
• It was mentioned that in order to resolve the situation, all Supreme Court will have its sessions in Delhi or at any
other options should be explored first. Article 365 should other location that the Chief Justice of India (CJI) may
only be employed in the event that no other feasible designate at any time, subject to the President’s assent.
solution exists. • Law Commission Report: The 19th Law Commission
Report (2009) suggested setting up four regional
• The Supreme Court identified the circumstances in which benches to hear non-constitutional cases in Delhi,
the exercise of power under Article 356 could be appropriate Chennai or Hyderabad, Kolkata, and Mumbai in an
or inappropriate in the Bommai case of 1994, drawing from effort to make the Court more accessible.
the report of the Sarkaria Commission on Center-state
Relations (1988). • Bar Councils: Southern Bar Councils petitioned the
Chief Justice of India in July 2021 to establish a southern
bench of the Supreme Court.
Conclusion

The SR Bommai judgment, delivered by the Supreme Court • Report of the Parliament Standing Committee: The
of India in 1994, established vital principles regarding Parliament Standing Committee on Personnel, Public
Grievances, Law and Justice presented its 107th report
the dismissal of state governments under Article 356 of
on “Demands for Grant (2021–22) of the Ministry of
the Constitution. It upheld federalism by limiting the Law and Justice” and advocated for the creation of the
discretionary power of the Union government, requiring it to Supreme Court’s regional benches.
have objective reasons for imposing President’s Rule.

POLITY AND GOVERNANCE  3

Issues with the Regional Benches of the Supreme Court
• Jurisprudence fragmentation: Different interpretations of legislation and legal concepts by regional benches may lead to
inconsistent court rulings throughout the nation.

• K.G. Balakrishnan, the former CJI, even went so far as to • Create a National Special Leave Petitions (SLPs)
speculate that it might cause the institution to fall apart. Court of Appeal: The Supreme Court said in Bihar
• Rising Litigation: Regional benches may lead to a rise Legal Support Society v. Chief Justice of India, 1986
in pointless or forum-shopping lawsuits as parties look that it was “desirable” to create a National Court of
for favourable decisions from benches, they believe to be Appeal with the authority to hear cases involving
more sympathetic to their positions. special leaves.
• Up to 347 seats are vacant in the nation’s high courts, • Increase Working Days: In light of the lengthy case
which have a sanctioned strength of 1,114 judges. backlog, the Malimath Committee proposed that the
• Similarly, of the 25,081 sanctioned judges in the district Supreme Court extend its period of operation to 206 days
judiciary, only 19,781 were really in service. There are up and shorten its vacation time by 21 days.
to 5,300 open district judge vacancies.
• In an effort to reduce the backlog of cases, the 2009 Law
Way Forward Commission recommended in its 230th report that court
• A Distinction Between the Benches of Appellate and holidays be shortened by 10 to 15 days at all judicial
Constitutional Jurisdiction: The Constitutional Division levels.
and the Legal Division are the two divisions that the
• Preserve the Exclusive Power: The Supreme Court should
Tenth Law Commission of India suggested the Supreme
continue to have certain exclusive powers, including
Court be divided into.
its original jurisdiction under Article 131, its advisory
¾ According to the plan, the proposed Constitutional jurisdiction under Article 143, and its writ jurisdiction
Division would only hear cases involving constit- under Article 32 of the Constitution.
utional law.
• The National Judicial Infrastructure Authority of

4 POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

 India (NJIAI), which will aid in enhancing the judicial counting and declaration phases, rather than calling for a
infrastructure that presently requires urgent attention, fresh election.
was proposed by former Chief Justice of India NV
Ramanna. • Action Against Malpractice: Under the direction
of Chief Justice, a bench issued a show-cause notice
Conclusion to the Returning Officer for his actions during the
Regional benches of the Supreme Court can enhance mayoral elections, alleging misconduct that affected the
accessibility to justice, alleviate the burden on the apex administration of justice in violation of section 340.
court, and promote legal inclusivity. However, challenges
• Deep Concern for Political integrity: The Supreme Court
such as maintaining consistency in jurisprudence, equitable
Chief Justice highlighted incidents of “horse trading”
distribution of judicial resources, and potential conflicts with
among counselors in order to demonstrate her grave
the principle of uniformity in law must be addressed.
concerns about political honesty.
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
Status of Municipal Elections in India
Prelims MCQs
• According to the 2023 Annual Survey of India’s
Q. Consider the following statements: City-Systems by NGO Janaagraha, more than 1,400
municipalities lacked elected councils as of September
1. Establishment of the regional branches of the 2021, indicating a widespread issue nationwide.
Supreme Court by the Chief Justice of India is not
subject to the Presidents Accent. • The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India (CAG)
audit found that between 2015 and 2021, over 1,500
2. Law Commission of India in its several reports has
municipalities operated without elected councils.
opposed the creation of the regional branches of the
Supreme Court.
• Cities like Chennai, Delhi, Mumbai, and Bengaluru
experienced delays ranging from months to years in
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
conducting elections.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Possible solutions for Elections to Local Bodies
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Articles of the Constitution
Answer: (d) (Neither 1 nor 2) • Article 243ZA and Article 243K: The State Election
Commission (SEC) will be in charge of overseeing,
Descriptive Question directing, and controlling the process of creating
electoral rolls and conducting all panchayat and
Q. Evaluate the potential benefits and challenges municipal elections.
associated with the creation of regional benches of
the Supreme Court in terms of judicial efficiency and • Article 243ZG: Court intervention in municipal
effectiveness. [15 Marks] [250 words] elections is prohibited by the 74th Amendment to the
Constitution.

• The 74th Constitution Amendment Act, through

MUNICIPAL ELECTION REFORMS Article 243U, requires urban municipal governments
to serve five-year terms.
Why in News: The recent ruling by the Supreme Court
regarding the Chandigarh mayor election has brought up Lawful Requirements
issues associated with local urban body elections.
• The Supreme Court emphasized the inviolability of
Supreme court verdict on Chandigarh Mayor election this constitutional requirement in the Suresh Mahajan
v. State of Madhya Pradesh Case, 2022.
• Upholding Electoral Democracy: The Supreme Court
affirmed that it is its duty to uphold electoral democracy Conclusion
by carrying out its constitutional mandate under Article
142, which prohibits deceit at any stage of the voting Urban local bodies electoral reforms are imperative for
process. strengthening democratic governance at the grassroots
level. Through comprehensive reforms by improving voter
• Review of Re-election: The Court examined the election registration, enhancing transparency in candidate selection,
results and found that problems arose particularly in the and advanced voting technologies can ensure fair elections.

POLITY AND GOVERNANCE  5

 EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE (d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain
matters without the concurrence of the Union
Prelims MCQ Legislature.
Answer: (b)
Q. With reference to the Constitution of India,
prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in Descriptive Question
ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations Q. What are the challenges associated with local bodies
on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It elections? Discuss recent Supreme court verdict in this
could mean which one of the following? regard. [15 Marks] [250 words]
(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission
of India while discharging its duties cannot be
challenged in any court of law.
CURATIVE PETITION
Why in News: In order to fix a “fundamental error” in its
(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in
decision, the court has now used its “extraordinary powers”
the exercise of its powers by laws made by the
Parliament. in a curative writ petition.

(c) In the event of a grave financial crisis in the Key Details

country, the President of India can declare a • By using its “extraordinary powers,” the Indian Supreme
Financial Emergency without the counsel from
Court overturned its 2021 decision through the use of a
the Cabinet.
curative petition.

6 POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

• This overturn invalidates an arbitral award that was
worth around Rs 8,000 crore and ordered the Delhi Metro
Rail Corporation (DMRC) to reimburse the consortium
led by Reliance Infrastructure Ltd. for Delhi Airport
Metro Express Private Limited (DAMEPL).

The Curative Petition

• A curative petition is a last resort legal option available

after someone has been found guilty and their appeal has
been denied.

• In India, the Supreme Court’s final decisions are usually

only challenged on review petition. A curative petition
allows the court to fix or rectify a grave miscarriage of
justice.

• Objective: To prevent wrongful convictions and ensure

the legal system is used fairly.

• Decision making: Judges normally review curative

petitions in private, but public hearings can be requested.

• Legal foundation: The Supreme Court established the

rules for curative petitions in the 2002 case of Rupa Ashok
Hurra Vs Ashok Hurra & others.

Guidelines for Filing a Curative Petition Curative Petitions: Another example

• A bench consisting of the three seniormost judges if • Bhopal Gas Tragedy Compensation Case
available, the judges who passed the relevant decision ¾ In 2010, the Indian government filed a curative
must receive a curative petition before anything else can petition related to the Bhopal Gas Tragedy. This
be done. petition aimed to get more compensation for the
victims. However, the court rejected the petition in
• As much as practicable, the matter should not be listed 2023. Their reasoning was that the compensation
before the same bench until a majority of the judges already awarded was sufficient.
determine that it has to be heard.
¾ The court emphasized a crucial point: curative
• Unless a particular request for an open-court hearing petitions are only meant for very serious situations.
is granted, judges typically make decisions on curative These situations involve a major error in the legal
petitions in chambers. process, like fraud or hiding crucial information. The
court found no such issues in the Bhopal case.
• The Bench may request the assistance of a senior attorney
as an amicus curiae at any point throughout the curative How Is It Different From A Review Petition?
petition’s review. Review Petition Curative Petition
• The petitioner may be required to pay exemplary costs • A review petition • A curative petition, on the
if the bench determines at any point that the petition is allows the Supreme other hand, is a last resort.
unreasonable and without substance. Court to reconsider a • A party may choose to file a
legally binding ruling. curative petition to request
Delhi Metro Rail vs. Delhi Airport Metro Express (2024): • It is filed when a a reversal of the court’s
A Legal Dispute Resolved Supreme Court order ruling or judgement if they
clearly contains flaws. are still not satisfied even
• The Supreme Court reversed its decision in April 2024, after submitting a review
finding a “serious error” in the prior judgement. • The goal is to correct petition.
these mistakes without • Curative petitions usually
• This signifies the importance of curative petitions, starting over with a do not require public court
clarifies legal guidelines for infrastructure projects, new assessment of the hearings, in contrast to
and demonstrates the court’s commitment to correct situation. review petitions.
mistakes and uphold justice.

POLITY AND GOVERNANCE  7

Conclusion

The Supreme Court’s curative petition process offers a

final recourse for correcting grave judicial errors. This case
demonstrates its effectiveness in rectifying a significant
financial award against the Delhi Metro Rail Corporation.

Curative petitions, however, are meant for exceptional

circumstances and not intended for seeking higher
compensation, as seen in the Bhopal Gas Tragedy case.

EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE

Custodial Death
Prelims MCQ • A custodial death is when someone dies while under
arrest or in jail. This can happen for several reasons,
Q. Consider the following Writs: including misuse of force by authorities, neglect of the
person’s health, or even mistreatment.
1. Habeas Corpus
• In India, the Law Commission considers any crime
2. Mandamus committed by an official against someone in custody to
be a form of violence.
3. Certiorari
Police Custody and Judicial Custody
4. Prohibition
Aspect Police Custody Judicial Custody
How many of the above are both Preventive as well as Custody A person may be A person can be
Curative in nature? Location held at a police jailed by order of
station or with an a magistrate.
(a) Only one (b) Only two investigating agency.
Appearance This can happen This can only
(c) Only three (d) All four
before Court within 24 hours happen until a
Answer: (a) (Statement 3) of being brought court decides to
before a magistrate. release the person
Descriptive Question on bail.
Commencement If arrested by Before releasing
Q. Assess the effectiveness of curative petitions as a a police officer someone on bail,
mechanism for correcting judicial errors, ensuring following a the prosecutor
fairness, and upholding the rule of law, with reference complaint or the needs to convince
to notable cases and outcomes. [15 Marks] [250 words] filing of an FIR the court it’s
(First Information alright to do so
Report). and won’t hinder
CUSTODIAL DEATH the investigation.
Why in News: Recently, two police officers were taken into Maximum The initial detention The maximum
custody in relation to the January death of a 19-year-old Duration period is 24 hours, amount of time
teenager in Akot, Akola district. with the possibility someone can be
of extension to held in jail before
Key Details 15 days by a trial depends on
magistrate. the severity of the
• Indian authorities are taking steps to address custodial crime. For serious
deaths. In Uttar Pradesh, DGP has reaffirmed guidelines offenses, it’s 90
to prevent them. days. For lesser
• Similarly, Tamil Nadu suspended a police inspector offenses, it’s 60
following a custodial death. These incidents highlight a days.
serious issue. Restricting Deaths in Custody
• Gujarat has reported the most custodial deaths in India • Every person deserves to be treated with dignity under
between 2017 and 2022, followed by Maharashtra, Uttar the law. This is a fundamental right. India has pledged to
Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, and Bihar. uphold this right by signing the UN Convention Against

8 POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

 Torture (UNCAT), which prohibits cruel treatment in
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
custody.
Prelims MCQ
• Weak rules against violence in custody create problems.
For example, it can be difficult to extradite fugitives like Q. Consider the following statements:
Vijay Mallya who claim they may be tortured in India.
Similarly, a lack of clear rules can damage the mental 1. Protection to persons who are arrested or detained
well-being of detainees, as seen in the horrific 1972 under a preventive detention law is available to
Mathura custodial rape case. both citizens as well as foreigners.
2. The detention of a person cannot exceed three
Custodial Death: Constitutional and Legal Safeguards in months unless advisory board reports sufficient
India cause for extended detention.

• Right to Life and Dignity (Article 21): The Constitution 3. Constitution has divided the legislative power
with regard to preventive detention between the
guarantees the right to life and freedom from cruel
Parliament and the state legislatures.
treatment, even for those in custody. This protects
individuals from torture and abuse. How many of the above statements are correct?

• Protection from Excessive Punishment (Article 20): The (a) Only one (b) Only two
law cannot punish someone more harshly than what was
allowed when the crime occurred. People cannot be tried (c) All three (d) None
twice for the same offense, and they cannot be forced to Answer: (c) (All Three)
confess against themselves.

• Confessions and Consent (Selvi Case): Tests like narco- Descriptive Question
analysis cannot be performed on anyone without their Q. Analyze the prevalence and underlying causes of
consent. This ensures confessions are genuine and not custodial deaths in India, and assess the constitutional
obtained through coercion. and legal safeguards in India to the prisoners against
the custodial violence. [15 Marks] [250 words]
• Legal Safeguards: Laws prevent using force to get
confessions (Indian Evidence Act & IPC). Arrests require
proper justification and procedures, with transparency NATIONAL COMMISSION FOR
and access to legal aid (CrPC). PROTECTION OF CHILD RIGHTS
International Conventions Against Custodial Torture (NCPCR)
• Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948): To protects Why in News: Recently, NCPCR has celebrated its 19th
people from torture and enforced disappearances. foundation day.

National Commission for Protection of Child Rights

• United Nations Charter (1945): Demands dignified
(NCPCR)
treatment of prisoners and recognizes their fundamental
rights as outlined in other human rights treaties. • It was established in 2007 under the Commission for
Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005, the NCPCR serves
• The Nelson Mandela Rules (2015): Upholds the inherent as the apex statutory body for child rights in India. Its
dignity of prisoners and prohibits torture and other cruel core mandate is to:
treatment.
¾ Ensure all laws, policies, and programs align with the
• United Nations Convention Against Torture (UNCAT): vision enshrined in the Constitution of India and the
International treaty aiming to prevent torture and other UN Convention on the Rights of the Child (UNCRC).
cruel punishments globally.
¾ Advocate for children (aged 0-18) and their well-
Way Forward being across various domains.

• Strengthening Laws: Clear laws criminalizing torture, Functions of the NCPCR

along with independent investigations and fair trials for • Developing new monitoring strategies: This involves
perpetrators, are crucial. implementing robust mechanisms to track the
effectiveness of child protection initiatives.
• Police Reform: Training that emphasizes human rights
and accountability, along with oversight mechanisms, • Streamlining processes for authorities: The NCPCR
can improve police conduct. works to create clear and efficient procedures that enable
authorities to better fulfill their child protection duties.

POLITY AND GOVERNANCE  9

• Policy framework development: The Commission
actively participates in formulating policies that prioritize
child welfare.

The Rights of Children in India

1. Survival: This includes access to basic necessities like
food, shelter, and healthcare.

2. Development: Children have the right to education,

play, and opportunities for physical, intellectual, and
emotional growth.

3. Protection: This area safeguards children from all forms

of abuse, neglect, exploitation, and violence.

4. Participation: Children have the right to express their

views and be heard on matters concerning them.

The United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child

(UNCRC)

India is a signatory to the UNCRC, a significant international

treaty outlining the fundamental rights of children. Key
principles of the UNCRC include:

• Universal Application (up to 18 years): Applies equally

to all children, regardless of gender, marital status, or
parental status.

• Best Interests of the Child: All actions concerning

children must prioritize their well-being.

• Non-discrimination: All children have equal rights, Way Forward

regardless of background or circumstance.
Effective Implementation of Laws: Ensuring stricter
enforcement mechanisms for existing child protection
legislation is crucial. Raising awareness strengthening Child
Protection Mechanisms can be solutions.
By prioritizing these areas, India can move closer to achieve
the goals of the UNCRC and create a society where every
child can thrive and reach their full potential.

EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ

Q. With reference to the National Commission for

Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR), consider the
following statements:

1. It is neither statutory nor a constitutional body.

2. It conducts research studies on child rights issues

and investigates serious violations.

3. It ensures that all laws, policies, and programs in

India are aligning with the vision of the United
Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child
(UNCRC).

10 POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

 How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two

(c) All three (d) None

Answer: (b) (2 and 3 only)

Descriptive Question

Q. Trace the origin of National Commission for Protection

of Child Rights. Discuss the Legal Framework
for child Protection in India and challenges in its
implementation. [15 Marks] [250 Words]

COMMITTEE REPORT ON THE

“ONE NATION ONE ELECTION”
Why in News: A high-level committee led by former President
Ram Nath Kovind recently submitted a report on the “One
Nation One Election” initiative to the President.
Addressing Specific Issues
Background

• The concept of “One Nation One Election” refers to

conducting Lok Sabha and State Assembly elections
together.

• This aims to reduce the frequency of elections and the

associated costs. India previously held simultaneous
elections between 1951-52 and 1967, but the practice
hasn’t been continued since.

The Panel’s Recommendations

• Amendment to Article 82A: The President would

declare an “Appointed Date” after each general election,
marking the start of a new electoral cycle to the House of
the People and Legislative Assemblies.

• Synchronized Terms: State Assemblies formed after the

Appointed Date which conclude before the subsequent
general elections, ensuring simultaneous polls.

• Simultaneous Lok Sabha and State Assembly Elections:

The first step involves holding elections for both national
and state legislatures together.

• Local Body Elections: Within 100 days of the first step,

local body (municipal and panchayat) elections would be
conducted.

• States with elections due between June 2024 and May

2029 would see their terms expire alongside the 18th Lok
Sabha, even if it results in some state assemblies having
terms of less than five years as a one-time measure.

POLITY AND GOVERNANCE  11

• Hung Houses: For situations with a hung assembly (no
clear majority), the committee suggests a no-confidence EVM-VVPAT CASE
motion. Fresh elections would only be held for the Why in News: The Supreme Court agreed to list a series of
remaining term if the motion fails. petitions seeking a directive to the Election Commission
• Constitutional Amendments: The report recommends to mandatorily cross-verify the vote count in all EVMs by
amending Articles 83 (duration of Parliament) and 172 counting all VVPAT slips.
(duration of State legislatures) to facilitate synchronized Key Details
polls. This amendment wouldn’t require state ratification.
• Verification is currently carried out with VVPAT slips
• State Ratification: Further amendments are proposed for: from votes cast in 5 randomly selected polling booths.
¾ Article 324A to enable simultaneous elections in • The EC in an affidavit in 2023, had said that “there is no
panchayats and municipalities. fundamental right of the voter to verify through VVPATs
¾ Article 325 to empower the Election Commission that their votes were ‘recorded as cast’ and ‘counted as
of India (ECI) to collaborate with state election recorded”.
authorities for a common electoral roll and voter ID • SC in Subramanian Swamy vs Election Commission
cards. These amendments require state ratification. of India (2013): the election process should “have fullest
Way Forward transparency in the system and to restore the confidence
of the voters”. The court had held that a “paper trail” was
1. Political Consensus: Building a national consensus an “indispensable requirement of free and fair elections”
on electoral reforms is crucial. Open discussions
involving all political parties and stakeholders are About EVM
essential. • EVM (Electronic Voting Machine) consists mainly of two
2. Constitutional Amendments: Streamlining the units - (a) Control Unit (CU) and (b) Ballot Unit (BU)
process of amending Articles 83, 172, 324A, and 325
with cable for connecting it with the Control Unit.
is necessary.
• The EVM is powered by a 6-volt single alkaline battery
Conclusion installed in the control unit, allowing it to function even
The Kovind Committee report offers a comprehensive plan in areas without electricity.
for “One Nation, One Election” in India. While the proposal • The control unit is placed with the Election Commission
presents potential benefits in terms of reduced costs and appointed polling officer.
increased policy continuity, concerns regarding federalism
and democratic accountability need careful consideration. • The Ballot Unit is set up in the voting compartment where
the voter enters to secretly cast their vote by pressing the
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE button next to the name and symbol of their preferred
candidate.
Prelims MCQ
• EVMs in India are manufactured by Bharat Electronics
Q. Consider the following statements with reference to Ltd (Bengaluru) and Electronic Corporation of India Ltd
the “One Nation One Election”: (Hyderabad).

1. It refers to the simultaneous conduct of both Lok History of EVM

Sabha and State Assembly elections. Electronic voting machines (EVMs) were first used in India
37 years ago, in one constituency, Parur, during the 1982
2. In India, historically the simultaneous elections Kerala assembly election.
were held between 1951-52 and 1967.
In 2003, all by-elections and state elections were held using
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? EVMs. The next year marked the complete rollout of EVMs,
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only with the 2004 general election going down in history as the
first instance of the machine’s use across the country.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
VVPAT is not mandatory for all elections conducted by
Answer: (d) (Neither 1 nor 2) the Election Commission of India.
It is only mandatory for elections to the Lok Sabha and the
Descriptive Question
State Legislative Assemblies. The Election Commission
Q. Analyze critically the concept of ‘One Nation can decide to use VVPAT for other elections as well, but it
One Election’. What recommendations for its is not compulsory.
implementation were given by the Kovind Committee. VVPAT Machines were first introduced in India in the
[15 Marks] [250 words] 2014 Lok Sabha elections

12 POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

Conclusion NATIONAL CIVIL SERVICE DAY
Free and fair elections form the fulcrum of Indian democracy
and voters’ confidence is necessary to legitimise them. Why in News: Every year on April 21, the Indian government
Initiatives like VVPAT strive to achieve the same. observes National Civil Service Day as a way to honour the
officers working in all of the nation’s public departments.
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE Key Details
Prelims MCQ • Civil workers receive recognition on this day for their
commitment to serve the public and their hard work.
Q. Consider the following statements:
• It’s also an acknowledgement of the important role they
1. Statement-I: There is no fundamental right of the play in the country’s administration.
voter to verify through VVPATs that their votes
were ‘recorded as cast’ and ‘counted as recorded.’ History
2. Statement-II: VVPAT is mandatory for all elections • In 1947, on April 21st, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel,
conducted by the Election Commission of India. India’s first Home Minister, addressed new recruits
(probationers) of the Indian Administrative Service at
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Metcalf House, New Delhi.
above statements?
• He emphasized the principles of good governance and
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and
Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I famously called these officers the “Steel Frame of India,”
underlining their vital role.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and
Statement-H is not the correct explanation for • The first official Civil Services Day celebration was held
Statement-I in 2006.
Significance
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
• Civil Services Day is a time for civil servants to recommit
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct themselves to serve the citizens and uphold excellence in
their work.
Answer: (c)
• It also inspires them to continuously improve governance
and implement policies that promote India’s self-reliance
Descriptive Question
(Atmanirbhar).
Q. What is VVPAT (Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Related Constitutional Articles
Trail)? How does the implementation of VVPAT
address concerns regarding potential tampering or Articles 309-315 of the Indian Constitution establish the
malfunctioning of EVMs? [15 Marks] [250 words] framework for civil service recruitment, service conditions,
and service commissions.

POLITY AND GOVERNANCE  13

• Article 309: Recruitment and terms of service for individuals serving the Union or States.
• Article 310: The President of India may appoint and remove civil officers as he or she pleases.
• Article 311: Termination, removal, or downsizing of individuals working for the Union or a State in civil capacities.
• Article 312: Establishing a single or many All-India Services shared by the Union and States.
• Article 315: Describes the Union and State Public Service Commissions.

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (1875-1950) Conclusion

• Also known as the “Iron Man of India,” Patel played To ensure effective governance, Civil Services Day proposes
a pivotal role in India’s integration and political continuous evaluation and improvement. Recognizing
unification after independence. outstanding work motivates officials to strive for excellence
in public service, ultimately leading to a self-reliant India
• A prominent lawyer and leader of the Indian National (Atmanirbhar Bharat).
Congress during the independence movement.
Descriptive Question
• He served as India’s first Deputy Prime Minister,
Q. Examine the initiatives and reforms undertaken by
Home Minister, Information Minister, and States
the government to enhance the effectiveness and
Minister. efficiency of the civil services, and assess their impact
• The Statue of Unity, the world’s tallest statue at 182 on governance and public service delivery. [15 Marks]
meters, stands as a tribute to his legacy. [250 words]

14 POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

 Prelims MCQ ZERO FIRs
Q. With reference to the National Civil Service Day, Why in News: The Banjara Hills police registered a zero
consider the following statements: FIR case against the former minister for allegedly making
objectionable comments against the Telangana Chief Minister.
(a) The Indian government observes National Civil
Service Day on April 21 each year. About Zero FIR
(b) Articles 309-315 of the Indian Constitution gives • A zero FIR is one that can be filed by any police station,
constitutional recognition to civil services. regardless of jurisdiction, when it gets a complaint on a
cognisable offense.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• At this stage, no regular FIR number has been assigned.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only • Following receipt of the Zero FIR, the relevant Police
Station files a new FIR and launches an investigation.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 • The purpose of the provision is to give the victim prompt
Answer: (c) redress so that prompt action can be taken following the
filing of the FIR.
Legal Basis of Zero FIR
• The Justice Verma Committee Report’s suggestion led to the introduction of the Zero FIR provision at the backdrop of
the brutal Nirbhaya gang rape in Delhi in 2012.
• In 2020, the Puducherry government announced a circular stating that the group was established with the intention of
proposing changes to the Criminal Law that would expedite the trial process and augment penalties for offenders who
are charged with sexual assault against women.

POLITY AND GOVERNANCE  15

 • Non-Engagement with Religion: The state avoids any
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
engagement with religion whatsoever. Religious practices
Prelims MCQ and reforms are considered private matters.
• Limited Public Policy: Public policy cannot be based on
Q. With reference to the Zero FIR, consider the following
religious principles, as religion is considered a purely
statements:
personal domain.
1. It can be filed in any police station, regardless of
offence committed in under the jurisdiction of any The Indian Model
police station. The Indian model of secularism stands in contrast to the
2. It was introduced on the recommendation of the Western model. It embraces a positive concept of secularism,
Justice Verma Committee. emphasizing equal respect and protection for all religions
(“Sarvadharma Sambhava”). Its key features:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• Principled Distance: The state maintains a principled
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only distance from religion, allowing it to intervene or engage
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 with religious matters when necessary.
Answer: (c) • State Support for Minorities: The Indian state can
provide financial and legal aid to educational institutions
Descriptive Question run by religious minorities.
Q. Discuss the role of Zero FIRs in combating crimes • State-Supported Religious Reform: The state can initiate
against women, children, and other vulnerable groups, reforms within religions to address social evils like
and its contribution to promote a safer and more untouchability and promote social harmony.
inclusive society. [10 Marks] [150 words] • Focus on Both Inter and Intra-Religious Harmony: It
guarantees equal protection for all religions and their
followers.
INDIAN SECULARISM VS WESTERN • Neutrality with Intervention: While the Indian state
remains neutral in matters of religious faith, it can take
SECULARISM steps to reform social ills within a particular religion.
Why in News: The Indian Supreme Court agreed to examine
Arguments for the Indian Model
the possibility of removing the terms “socialist” and “secular”
from the Preamble of the Indian Constitution. Promotes tolerance and acceptance: By ensuring equal
treatment for all religions, the Indian model fosters a sense
Defining Secularism of mutual respect and understanding.
• Secularism, a cornerstone of modern democracies, fosters Enables social reform: The state’s ability to intervene in
a society where the state and religion operate in distinct religious practices allows for the eradication of social evils
spheres. However, the interpretation and application of like untouchability.
this principle vary significantly across different nations. Acknowledges the social reality of religion: Religion
• Secularism means that the State has no recognized plays a significant role in Indian society; the Indian model
religion of State. Or Secularism means that the State treats recognizes this reality and facilitates its positive aspects.
all the religions equally. Challenges of the Indian Model
• In India, the concept of secularism is enshrined in the Potential for state interference: The government’s power
Preamble to the Constitution, introduced through the to engage with religion could be misused for political gain.
42nd Amendment Act of 1976. Balancing religious freedom with social progress:
The line between reform and infringement on religious
The Western Model freedom can be delicate.
The Western model of secularism emphasizes a strict Ensuring genuine equality: Despite constitutional
separation between religion and the state. The principle of guarantees, there have been instances where minority
mutual exclusion implies non-interference in each other’s communities have faced discrimination.
affairs. Some key characteristics of this model:
• Negative Secularism: It embodies a negative concept of Conclusion
secularism, advocating a clear separation between the The Indian model of secularism presents a unique approach
religious and the secular spheres. to ensuring religious freedom and social harmony. It fosters
• No State Support: The state offers no financial or legal a spirit of tolerance and respect for all religions, while
aid to religious institutions, including educational allowing the state to intervene when necessary to address
institutions run by religious minorities. social issues.

16 POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

 Challenges in the Functioning of the ED
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
• Political Interference: Allegations of political interference
Prelims MCQ in high-profile cases undermine the ED’s independence
Q. Consider the following statements: and impartiality.
1. Statement-I: All religions in India have the same • Lack of Coordination: Inadequate coordination with
status and support from the state. agencies like CBI, SEBI, and state police forces hinders
2. Statement-II: The Constitution of India has efficient investigation and prosecution.
declared the term Secular as the Basic feature of the • Overburdened and Lengthy Investigations: The
Constitution. complexity of financial transactions, legal hurdles, and
lack of coordination with other agencies.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the
above statements? • Legal Challenges: Delays in court proceedings,
ambiguous legal interpretations, and limitations in the
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and legal framework impede prosecutions and asset recovery.
Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
• International Cooperation: Differences in legal systems,
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and jurisdictional issues, and diplomatic complexities create
Statement-H is not the correct explanation for hurdles.
Statement-I
Way Forward
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
• Strengthening Institutional Capacity: Increased man-
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct power, improved infrastructure, and specialized training
can enhance the ED’s ability to handle complex financial
Answer: (c) investigations.
• Enhanced Inter-Agency Coordination: Creating a
Descriptive Question robust mechanism for seamless information sharing and
Q. Evaluate the constitutional frameworks and legal coordinated action with other law enforcement agencies
mechanisms governing the relationship between is crucial.
religion and state in India and Western countries, • Ensuring Independence and Autonomy: Insulation
highlighting similarities and differences. [15 Marks] from political pressures through legislative and adminis-
[250 words]
trative safeguards is vital to maintain public trust and
impartiality.

ENFORCEMENT DIRECTORATE Conclusion

(ED) The ED plays a critical role in safeguarding India’s financial
Why in News: Recently, ED has been remained in the news system. By addressing the challenges, it faces and implement
its functioning and other issues. the suggested measures, the ED can become a more
robust and effective agency. A well-functioning ED with
Enforcement Directorate (ED) enhanced capabilities and international cooperation will be
• The Enforcement Directorate (ED) plays a crucial role in instrumental in deterring financial crimes, recovering stolen
India’s fight against financial crime. assets, and promoting financial integrity in India.
• It was established in 1956 under the aegis of the
Department of Economic Affairs and handles Exchange EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
Control Laws violations under Foreign Exchange
Regulation Act, 1947 (FERA 1947). Prelims MCQ

Q. With reference to ‘Enforcement Directorate (ED),’

consider the following statements:

1. While the police are mandated to provide the

grounds of arrest to the detainee in writing within
24 hours, the Enforcement Directorate (ED) is not
obligated to do so.

2. It is not authorized to take Suo Motu action against

the detainee under the Prevention of Money
Laundering Act, 2002.

POLITY AND GOVERNANCE  17

 3. It is authorized to attach and freeze foreign assets Descriptive Question
owned by economic offenders under the Prevention
of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) Act, 2002. Q. Examine the challenges and criticisms faced by the
Enforcement Directorate (ED), including concerns
How many of the above statements are correct? regarding its autonomy, accountability, and potential
(a) Only one (b) Only two misuse for political purposes. [15 Marks] [250 words]

(c) All three (d) None

Answer: (b) (2 and 3 only)

18 POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

 SECTION

B INTERNATIONAL REALATIONS

China’s Standardized Maps

INDIA REJECTS CHINA’S ‘SENSE-
• Territorial Disputes
LESS’ ARUNACHAL ACT
¾ The map reflects China’s claims to certain territories,
Why in News: The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) including Arunachal Pradesh and Aksai Chin.
spokesperson, firmly stated that regardless of what names
¾ It also includes the disputed “Nine-Dash Line”
others may use, Arunachal Pradesh is an integral part of
encompassing the South China Sea, signifying
India.
China’s stance on the region.
Key Details ¾ A new “tenth dash” appears near Taiwan, further
• The Chinese government has renamed 30 locations within emphasizing China’s claim to the island.
Arunachal Pradesh, a state in India. This marks the fourth • Name Changes
instance of China renaming places in the region, following
¾ The new map incorporates the area of Arunchal
similar actions in 2017, 2021, and April 2023.
Pradesh with new name which is close to the region
• China claims some 90,000 sq km of Arunachal Pradesh as of Itanagar and Tawang.
its territory.
India’s Counter-measures to China’s Rise
• China claims the region as part of “South Tibet,” while
India considers it an inseparable territory. • Collaborating with Allies: India works with other
countries that share some kind of concern with China.
Border Dispute in Eastern India They do this through groupings like the QUAD and I2U2.
• The border between India and China in the eastern sector • Building Better Trade Routes: India offers alternative
is a point of contention. trade routes to China’s Belt and Road Initiative with
• A historical agreement, the McMahon Line, significantly projects like IMEC and INSTC corridors.
expanded British control northward. This included areas • Countering China’s Military Reach: India is building its
like Tawang, which were previously considered part as naval power, expanding military bases, and working closely
of Tibet. with other countries (like presently, India shares very close
relationship with the United States, Russia, France, Israel,
• Chinese representatives initially approved the agreement, Germany, etc.) to limit China’s military influence.
they later rejected it. The Chinese government continues
to view the McMahon Line as invalid. • Strengthening Border Security: India is improving roads
and infrastructure along its borders, particularly those
• China accuses India of occupying territory it considers areas which have close proximity with China.
part of its own, specifically southern Tibet which overlaps
with India’s Arunachal Pradesh state. • Cooperation with Neighbours: India helps its neighbours,
like Bhutan, and Nepal with various projects like BBIN to
• China’s claims are also based on historical connections increase corporation and reduce China's influence.
between Tibetan monasteries in Tawang and Lhasa.

The McMahon Line

• The source of disagreement along the eastern portion of the India-China border lies in the McMahon Line. In 1913-
1914, representatives from China, India, and Tibet convened in Shimla to define the boundaries between Tibet and
India and China.

• During this conference, Sir Henry McMahon, who served as the foreign secretary for British India at the time,
established the McMahon Line, a 550-mile (890 kilometer) demarcation separating British India from Tibet.

• This line stretches from the eastern border of Bhutan to the Isu Razi Pass on the border between China and
Myanmar.

INTERNATIONAL REALATIONS  19
Way Forward Descriptive Question
To strenghthen borders focus should be on infrastructure Q. Analyse the historical context and geopolitical factors
development via roads and communication influencing territorial disputes and claims over
systems,enhancement of modern military Arunachal Pradesh, particularly in the context of
technology,collaboration with other neighbouring countries India-China relations and border issues? [15 Marks]
and building a roust economy. [250 words]

EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE

INDIA GAINS SITTWE PORT
Prelims MCQ ACCESS
Q. Consider the following mountain passes: Why in News: India now has the authority to run Sittwe, a
1. Diphu 2. Muling la 3. Bilafond La second overseas port in Myanmar, following Chabahar in
Iran. Port situated on the Kaladan River will be managed by
How many of the above are located on the McMahon Line? India Ports Global (IPGL) as the Ministry of External Affairs
(a) Only one (b) Only two (MEA) gave approval.

(c) All three (d) None Key Details

The Ministry of Ports, Shipping, and Waterways is the sole
Answer: (a) (1 only)
owner of IPGL.

20 INTERNATIONAL REALATIONS

Sittwe Port ¾ Geopolitical Tensions: Because of its strategic
location and interest of India in the project.
• It is an essential part of the Kaladan multi-modal transit
transport project, which is located in the Rakhine ¾ Political Instability: If there will be any kind of
province of Myanmar. political tensions or changes in either India or
• This deep-water port offers a major connectivity benefit, Myanmar, it would affect the stability and continuity
making it easier to move freight from Vizag and Kolkata of the project. Political instability in the region could
to the states in the Northeast without having to go lead to disruptions in operations or changes in
through Bangladesh. strategic priorities.
• India’s maritime influence is increased by its operational
control over important foreign ports like Sittwe and Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project
Chabahar.
• It establishes a maritime link between the ports of Sittwe
Importance of Sittwe Port in Rakhine State, Myanmar, and Kolkata in India.
• The project intends to establish a maritime link between
• The project in Myanmar uses the Kaladan river boat
the seaports of Sittwe(Myanmar) and Kolkata (eastern
route to connect Sittwe seaport to Paletwa in Chin
India). State. From Paletwa, there is a road that leads to
• Additionally, it connects Paletwa, Myanmar, to Zorinpui, Mizoram state in Northeast India.
Mizoram, via a road component, and Sittwe Port to
Paletwa, Myanmar, via the Kaladan River canal. • The Indian government is funding the project, which
aims to cut the distance between Kolkata and Sittwe by
• This link will cut the price and travel time from Kolkata about 1,328 Km.
to Mizoram and other destinations.
• Additionally, it will lessen reliance on the chicken’s • At first, completion was expected by 2014.
neck, or Siliguri Corridor, which is crammed between • The project is impacted by the Rohingya and Chin
Bangladesh and Bhutan, by diversifying transportation conflicts, as well as millitant groups like the Arakan
routes. Rohingya Salvation Army (ARSA) and Arakan Army.
• China’s String of Pearls policy, which entails securing
ports like Hambantota in Sri Lanka and Djibouti in Africa, • The Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project
is also countered by this control. consists of several sections that integrate several modes
of transportation, including as road, river, and sea lines.
Challenges in operation of Sittwe Port
• Financial Burden: Transport of cargo to Mizoram or • Sea Route: This comprises the following routes: Kolkata-
Tripura will face a challenge as there is a need of strong Sittwe shipping route, Sittwe seaport to Paletwa inland
road link which is under the control of Myanmar and rebel jetty river boat route, Sittwe Special Economic Zone at
forces and India has already invested $500million,more Ponnagyun town, Paletwa inland jetty to Zorinpui road
investment may lead to financial burden route in Myanmar, and the Zorinpui to Aizawl Road
route in India.
¾ Security: The region where the port is located,
Rakhine State, has experienced instability and conflict • Road: This project will supplement the Kaladan Multi-
in the past, raising concerns about the security of port Modal Transit Transport Project in Myanmar-Mizoram’s
operations and infrastructure. Intense fighting with river-road route.
the rebel Arakan Army, the Myanmar junta struggled
to keep control of Sittwe. • Railway: It has three railways: the Zochawchhuah
(Zorinpui)-Sairang railway in India, the Kyaukhtu-
¾ Environmental Impact: The construction and Zorinpui railway in Myanmar and , the Sittwe-Kyaukhtu
operation of the port raised many environmental railway in Myanmar.
consequences, such as habitat destruction, pollution,
and disruption to local ecosystems.
Conclusion
¾ Social Impact: The port’s development could
impact local communities, including displacement India’s acquisition of operational rights for the Sittwe
of residents, changes to livelihoods, and concern Port in Myanmar marks a strategic milestone, bolstering
regarding preservation of cultural heritage regional connectivity and maritime influence. Despite
potential challenges regarding sovereignty, infrastructure
¾ Governance and Transparency: There have been
development, local corporation , and effective managemnet
concerns about governance, transparency, and
can mitigate the challenges. This development enhances
accountability in the management of the port project,
India’s position in the Indo-Pacific region, countering
including issues related to corruption and lack of
geopolitical dynamics and strengthen economic ties with
public consultation in the past.
Myanmar.

INTERNATIONAL REALATIONS  21
 • Israel is under scrutiny from the International Court of
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
Justice (ICJ) for allegations of genocide in Gaza.
Prelims MCQ

Q. What is the importance of developing ‘Sittwe Port’ by

India?

(a) India will get an alternative route to the Siliguri

Corridor to transport logistics to northeastern
India.

(b) India’s relations with oil-producing Arab countries

will be strengthened.

(c) India will not depend on Pakistan for access to

Afghanistan and Central Asia.

(d) Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation

of a gas pipe between Iraq and India.
UNSC
Answer: (a)
• Established post-WWII to address League of Nations’
failures in global peace and security.
Descriptive Question • Primary responsibilities include ensuring international
Q. Discuss the strategic significance of India’s access to peace, recommending new UN member admissions,
the Sittwe Port in Myanmar and its implications for and approving changes to the UN Charter.
India’s maritime security, connectivity, and regional
• Has significant powers outlined in the UN Charter,
influence in the Bay of Bengal. Also state the issues in
including authority to establish peacekeeping operat-
operation of Sittwe port? [15 Marks] [250 words]
ions, impose sanctions, and authorize military action.
• Resolutions passed by the Security Council are binding
UN SECURITY COUNCIL RESOLU- on member states.
TION ON GAZA • Comprises 15 members, with five permanent P5 (China,
France, Russia, UK, and USA) having veto power over
Why in News: The UN Security Council demanded an urgent
substantive resolutions.
ceasefire in Gaza after five and a half months of fighting which
resulted in numerous deaths and large-scale displacement. • Permanent members can veto any substantive
resolution, but not General Assembly matters.
Key Details
• Domestic politics and international relations challenges The America role in UN Ceasefire Resolutions
include pro-Israel lobbying and potential Republican • USA vs. Russia: The USA continues to support Israel
Party backlash. militarily and avoids condemning them. They recently
• Balancing Israel support with Arab engagement abstained from a ceasefire vote instead of vetoing it,
poses diplomatic challenges due to region’s complex unlike Russia who wanted a stronger resolution.
geopolitical dynamics. • USA Draft Resolution: Before the current resolution,
the US proposed one that didn’t demand a ceasefire but
UNSC Resolution Passed on Israel
focused on hostage release alongside a ceasefire. This
• Calls for immediate ceasefire for Ramadan and release of was vetoed by others.
Israeli captives.
• USA Position on Hamas: The USA criticizes the current
• Emphasizes need for humanitarian aid and adherence to resolution for not condemning Hamas, which they
international law. consider a terrorist organization.
• Impact on USA-Israel Relations: USA actions have
• All UNSC resolutions are considered binding, but the
strained relations with Israel, who see it as a shift in USA
latest is non-binding.
policy.
• If not followed, the council can vote on a follow-up Israel’s Response to the Ceasefire Resolution
resolution and take punitive action.
• Israel criticized the resolution for not conditioning a
• Previous resolutions include 2016’s illegal settlements in ceasefire on the release of Israeli hostages under Hamas
Palestine and 2023’s non-binding humanitarian ceasefire. control.

22 INTERNATIONAL REALATIONS

• Israel alleged an invasion of Rafah, a town home to 1.4
Descriptive Question
million Palestinians, which would be inappropriate given
the call for an immediate ceasefire. Q. What are the major obstacles to achieve a lasting peace
agreement between Israel and Palestine, and how have
• The war has increased Israel’s isolation, leading to previous peace efforts addressed or failed to address
tensions with its close partners, including the US and these challenges? [15 Marks] [250 words]
Britain.
• Israel’s refusal to respect the USA’s “red line” and deny
the principle of a two-state solution as it has damaging ‘VISION FOR REGIONAL SECURITY’
impact on Israel's long term interest. ANNOUNCED BY THE GULF
• The UN’s decision to impose the resolution on Israel but COOPERATION COUNCIL (GCC)
not Hamas, a Palestinian group, has been criticized as
discriminatory and a partial resolution. Why in news: Recently, the Gulf Cooperation Council’s
(GCC) unveiled its ‘Vision for Regional Security’ in Riyadh
Israel’s Path to Peace marks a significant development for West Asia.
• Prioritizing Long Term Peace: End violence, allow aid,
and resume talks to free hostages and withdraw troops.
• Upholding Accords: Maintain Israel’s improved relations
with neighbours and the world, especially through the
Abraham Accords.
• Engaging with Hamas: Collaborate to secure the release
of hostages on both sides.
• Aligning with the USA: Address concerns about civilian
casualties in Gaza and lack of aid.
• India’s Role as a Mediator: Use India’s position on the
Human Rights Council to promote a balanced approach
to peace.
Conclusion
The USA’s abstention in a UNSC resolution on the Israel-
Palestine conflict highlights growing tensions between
the USA administration and Israel. Israel’s refusal to heed
warnings and maximalist positions include risk of isolation
and undermine regional stability and national interests. • Headquarters: Riyadh, the capital of Saudi Arabia.
• The GCC comprises six Arab nations (Bahrain, Kuwait,
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab
Prelims MCQ Emirates) and is dedicated to advancing economic and
political cohesion within the region.
Q. Consider the following statements with reference to the • It was established in 1981, its primary goal is to
United Nations:
enhance cooperation across various domains including
1. Each year the General Assembly elects five non- economics, social affairs, defence, and cultural exchange
permanent members (out of 10 in total) for a two- among the Persian Gulf Arab states.
year term.
Vision and its Significance
2. United Nations gives the UNSC the authority to • Collective Security: The emphasis on “shared destiny”
impose sanctions measures which does not involve and “indivisible security” strengthens regional stability.
the use of armed force. ¾ Any attack on one member is seen as an attack on all,
3. In past, UNSC has authorized military force to fostering a deterrent effect against external threats.
reverse or repel aggression by one State against • Combating Terrorism: The vision prioritizes countering
another. terrorism and extremism.
How many of the above statements are correct? ¾ Disrupting terrorist financing and money laundering
are crucial steps in weakening terror networks.
(a) Only one (b) Only two
• Maritime Security Cooperation: Recognizing the
(c) All three (d) None importance of seafaring trade and energy routes, the
Answer: (c) (All three) focus on regional and international collaboration for
maritime security is vital.

INTERNATIONAL REALATIONS  23
 ¾ This ensures the free flow of goods and resources, Challenges
critical for the GCC economies.
• Internal Disputes: While the vision emphasizes unity,
• Nuclear Non-Proliferation: In light of the Iran-Israel
resolving internal political disputes within the GCC
nuclear programs, the GCC’s call for a “Weapons of
remains a challenge.
Mass Destruction Free Zone” (WMDFZ) is a positive step
towards regional peace and stability. ¾ The ongoing Qatar blockade by other GCC members
• Economic growth: The partnership fosters trade and is a concerning point.
investment opportunities. India is a significant trading
partner for the GCC Countries with bilateral trade • Israel-Palestine Conflict: The vision’s focus on the Arab
crossing $100 billion. Peace Initiative is commendable.
• Diplomatic influence: Enhanced cooperations amplifies ¾ However, achieving a lasting solution requires
India's diplomatic influence in the region, providing it addressing the core issues of the conflict and engaging
with a platform to engage in discussions on regional and all stakeholders meaningfully.
global issues.

• Divergent foreigner policy Goals: diverging interests EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
within the GCC, particularly regarding relations with
Iran and the US, hamper unified foreign policy efforts. Prelims MCQ
Q. Consider the following countries:
• Human Rights Concerns allegations of human rights
abuses in member states, like the treatment of migrant 1. Yemen 2. Bahrain
workers in Qatar tarnish the bloc’s international 3. Kuwait 4. Iran
reputation.
5. Saudi Arabia
Conclusion
How many of the above are members of Gulf Cooperation
The GCC’s vision for regional security offers a framework Council (GCC)?
for cooperation. Addressing internal disputes and fostering (a) Only two (b) Only three
a lasting solution to the Israel-Palestine conflict for long-term
stability. India’s strategic partnership with the GCC can be (c) Only four (d) All five
further strengthened by deepening cooperation in energy, Answer: (b) (2, 3 and 5 only)
trade, defence, and technology.

24 INTERNATIONAL REALATIONS

 Descriptive Question
Q. Analyse the strategic significance of the Gulf
Cooperation Council (GCC) as a key partner for
India in the trade, energy security, and geopolitical
cooperation. [15 Marks] [250 words]

KATCHATHEEVU ISLAND
Why in News: The Katchatheevu Island has been in news
with respect to rights of Indian fishermen which can impact
India-Sri Lanka relations.

Key Details
• Katchatheevu, a small, uninhabited island in the Palk
Strait, was claimed by both India (formerly Madras
Stakeholder Perspectives
Presidency) and Sri Lanka. The crux of the issue lies in
varying historical interpretations • Tamil Nadu: The state government has consistently
• India: Katchatheevu’s ownership was contested opposed the ceding of Kachchatheevu, demanding its
throughout history. Initially ruled by the Jaffna kingdom retrieval or a perpetual lease. This reflects the concerns
of Sri Lanka, control shifted to the Ramnad zamindari of Tamil Nadu fishermen who have traditionally fished
in the 17th century. Following Indian independence, the in these waters.
dispute with Sri Lanka persisted until 1974. • Union Government: The central government’s stance
• Sri Lanka: Maintains sovereignty citing Portuguese has evolved. Initially, it downplayed the issue, citing
control during the 16th century. the 1974 agreement as a settlement. However, in 2022,
it acknowledged that Kachchatheevu lies within Sri
Lanka’s EEZ.
Way Forward
• Dialogue and Joint Patrols: Regular diplomatic
discussions and joint patrolling by Indian and Sri
Lankan coast guards can foster trust and prevent
misunderstandings.
• Clear Fishing Agreements: Revising the 1974 agreement
with clear regulations on fishing rights in the Palk Strait
can benefit both sides.

• Alternative Livelihoods for Fishermen: Supporting

Indian fishermen in developing alternative livelihoods
or deep-sea fishing capabilities can lessen dependence on
disputed waters.

• Compensation for Apprehended Fishermen: A

mechanism for fair and swift compensation for
apprehended fishermen can mitigate the economic
hardship caused by arrests.

• Regional Cooperation: Collaboration with other regional

players like Bangladesh in managing shared fisheries
resources can set a positive example.

Conclusion
Resolving the Katchatheevu issue requires a nuanced
approach that acknowledges historical complexities,
addresses the concerns of fishermen, and prioritizes peaceful
co-existence in the Indian Ocean.

INTERNATIONAL REALATIONS  25
 • Climate Action: India’s vision involves working together
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
to tackle climate change. Through initiatives like the
Prelims MCQ International Solar Alliance, India promotes renewable
energy use in Asia, Africa, and Latin America, fostering
Q. With reference to the Katchatheevu islands, consider
the following statements: both sustainable development and climate resilience.

1. It is an uninhabited island located in the Palk Strait. India’s Gains from prioritizing Africa in its Global South
Focus
2. It forms a maritime boundary between the Gulf of
Mannar and Bay of Bengal. • Economic Boost: Africa offers a significant market
for Indian businesses. With substantial investments
3. Indian fishermen do not require a passport to visit
this island. and booming trade, the continent presents a lucrative
opportunity for economic growth.
How many of the above statements are correct?
• Stronger Partnerships: Africa’s growing influence on
(a) Only one (b) Only two the global stage makes them a valuable strategic partner
(c) All three (d) None for India. India’s support for Africa’s inclusion in major
Answer: (c) (All Three) forums reflects a shared desire for inclusive global
leadership. India has already achieved success, like
Descriptive Question securing a seat for African Union in G20.
Q. Enumerate the Indo-Sri Lankan Maritime Agreements • Investing in the Future: Africa’s young population
after 1950s. What steps can be taken to addresses the presents a vast potential for collaboration in education,
concerns of fishermen of both the countries. [15 Marks] technology, and innovation. India’s experience can
[250 words] empower African youth and contribute to long-term
development.

INDIA’S VISION FOR GLOBAL

SOUTH
Why in News: India’s increasing global prominence and
advocacy for the Global South have led to a heightened focus
on Africa during official visits.

Key Details
• India and Africa have a longstanding partnership built
on common ground. India is well-respected across Africa.
• Trade between the two continents has flourished,
increasing from $68.5 billion to $90.5 billion over a decade.
• Additionally, India is now among the top five investors
in Africa.
India’s Role for Developing Countries (Global South)
• Representation: India acts as a champion for developing
nations, ensuring their concerns are addressed in
important global meetings (G20). Initiatives like the
“Voice of Global South Summit” provide platforms for
these countries to discuss shared challenges.
• Reform: India pushes for changes in international
organizations to better represent developing countries’
interests. This includes areas like taxation rules, climate
change funding, and increased decision-making power in
institutions like the UN Security Council.
• Cooperation: India encourages collaboration among
developing nations by sharing knowledge, technology,
and resources. The India-UN Development Partnership
Fund supports sustainable development projects led by
developing countries, particularly those facing the most
challenges.

26 INTERNATIONAL REALATIONS

• Resource Collaboration: Africa’s abundant natural
(c) Widespread decline in poverty rates.
resources, particularly those crucial for renewable
energy, create exciting opportunities for joint ventures. (d) Universal adoption of Western political systems.
India’s expertise can be combined with Africa’s resources Answer: (b)
to drive progress in sustainable development.
• Enhanced Global Influence: A strong partnership with Descriptive Question
Africa strengthens India’s position on the world stage.
This allows India to play a more significant role in shaping Q. Evaluate the economic dimensions of India’s Africa
global governance and addressing issues important for policy, including trade, investment, and development
developing nations. Additionally, closer ties with Africa cooperation initiatives aimed at fostering sustainable
can counterbalance other countries’ influence on the growth and inclusive development in Africa. [15
Marks] [250 words]
continent.
India’s Leadership Challenges in the Developing World
• Domestic Demands: India faces criticism for focusing IRAN ISRAEL CONFLICT
on global leadership while neglecting internal issues Why in News: In a major escalation, Iran launched a forceful
like poverty, unemployment, and infrastructure. Critics attack on Israel using hundreds of missiles and drones.
argue India should address these challenges before
leading others. Key Details
• Diverse Needs: Developing nations have varying • This recent attack marks a major step in the long-running
priorities. Africa might seek debt relief, while Southeast dispute between Israel and Iran.
Asia prioritizes technology. India needs to bridge these
differences while promoting unity. • Iran used more than 300 projectiles, including more than
120 ballistic missiles, cruise missiles, and almost 170
• Balancing Partnerships: Strong economic ties with
drones, to launch a massive strike on Israel.
developed countries like the USA and Japan can create
a conflict. India might hesitate to push for policies that
could harm trade with these partners.
• Climate Change: As the world’s third-largest emitter,
India’s own environmental record weakens its credibility
when advocating for climate action in the Global South.
Way Forward
• Frugal Tech Labs: Establish labs to develop affordable
tech solutions for common problems in developing
countries, like healthcare and education.
• Shared Leadership: Create a rotating leadership council
with representatives from various Global South regions
to foster collaboration.
• Satellite Network: Develop a low-cost satellite network
led by developing nations to provide data and services
in remote areas. This can leverage advanced tech for
disaster response.
• Vocational Training: Set up training centres across the
Global South to equip individuals with job-relevant skills
and boost local economies.

EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ

Q. The trend recently seen in the news about the ‘Global

South’ is

(a) Increased dependence on foreign aid.

(b) Growing influence of regional economic blocs.

INTERNATIONAL REALATIONS  27
 • Global Economic Strain: Geopolitical tensions could
cause a rise in commodity prices, inflation, and a shift
from riskier investments like Indian stocks to safer
options.
• Trade and Travel Challenges: The conflict could disrupt
trade and travel, especially by air and sea. This could
impact India’s exports and supply chains.
• India’s Balancing Act: India has close ties with both
Israel and Iran. The country must balance its defense
cooperation with Israel and its economic ties with Iran
while ensuring regional stability for its energy needs and
citizens abroad.

• Unlike past clashes with Hamas, this incident directly

involves two regional rivals.
• It shows how tensions are growing and suggests there
could be more conflict in the future. Impact of Iran-Israel Conflict on India
• The mood in Israel is of celebration, “We intercepted, we • Economic Interests: Threat to India’s trade, investment,
stopped, and we will win.” and energy imports in the Middle East. Potential
Potential Global Impact of Iran-Israel Conflict disruptions in trade routes and increased oil prices.
• Military Action Risk: Israel may retaliate if Iran pursues • Security of Indian Diaspora: Turmoil and conflict pose
nuclear weapons, which leads to tensions and raising the risks to the large Indian diaspora in the Gulf region.
risk of a wider conflict. Concerns about piracy, hostage-taking, and instability.
• Oil Market Disruptions: As a major oil producer, Iran's
• Instability in Global South Governance: Recognizes
conflict could disrupt global oil supplies, impacting
Middle East’s importance for global south governance
countries like India that rely on imports. This could lead
and stability. Instability affects regional dynamics and
to higher prices and economic instability.
international security.
Way Forward
Aspect Summary
Sustainable Ceasefire and Two- Israel should accept a ceasefire and open borders for aid. The two-state solution is the
State Solution way for long-term peace.
An international initiative should mediate a ceasefire between Israel and Iran. Direct
Dialogue and Diplomacy
talks facilitated by a neutral third party could help.
Iran could adhere to JCPOA and allow inspections to ensure compliance. Israel could
Addressing Nuclear Proliferation
recognize Iran’s right to peaceful nuclear energy and commit to refraining from
Concerns
military strikes.
Promoting cooperation between Iran and Israel within regional organizations could
Regional Cooperation
address shared security concerns and foster stability.
Long-Term Vision for the Middle Regional powers could establish a comprehensive security architecture to address
East concerns and reduce conflict.
Normalization of Relations Iran and Israel could take steps towards normalizing diplomatic relations.

28 INTERNATIONAL REALATIONS

Conclusion
The Middle East’s instability impacts Global South and
AUKUS ALLIANCE- EXPANSION OF
Governance, necessitating non-violence, diplomatic dialogues, MEMBERSHIP
and responsible policies to mitigate long-term challenges and Why in News: The AUKUS alliance, consisting of Australia,
promote global governance. the United Kingdom, and the United States of America, is
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE gearing up for talks on potential membership expansion,
signalling a strategic move towards broadening its reach
Prelims MCQ beyond its original geo-political influence.

Q. Consider the following countries: AUKUS Alliance

• Australia, the UK, and the USA (AUKUS) signed a
1. Turkmenistan 2. Saudi Arabia trilateral security alliance for the Indo-Pacific in 2021.
3. Bahrain 4. Kuwait • The originating point of this agreement is that Australia
How many of the above countries share the maritime will receive US nuclear submarine technology.
border with Iran? • It is an alliance against China’s forceful moves in the
South China Sea because of its Indo-Pacific policy.
(a) Only one (b) Only two
• It creates a new forum for the three nations’ meetings
(c) Only three (d) All four and interactions in addition to collaboration on cutting-
Answer: (c) (2, 3 and 4 only) edge technologies (undersea capabilities, quantum
technologies, and applied AI).
Descriptive Question
Q. Assess the historical background of Iran-Israel • India is not included in the collective. Though no
relationship. Discuss the potential impact of Iran-Israel formal interaction has yet taken place, informal
Conflict globally and particularly on India. [15 Marks] discussions about developing technologies have taken
[250 words] place between India and the AUKUS bloc.

Significance of AUKUS Alliance for the region

• The security landscape in the Asia-Pacific is notably affected by AUKUS. The alliance’s decision to share sensitive defence
technologies and intelligence, including the transfer of nuclear-powered submarine technology to Australia, is perceived
as a challenge to regional stability, particularly by China.

INTERNATIONAL REALATIONS  29
• Diplomatically, AUKUS has stirred reactions among key • Areas like maritime security, cybersecurity, and
regional players. Countries like India, Japan, and South intelligence sharing offer potential avenues for
Korea, traditionally considered close U.S. allies, view the cooperation.
alliance as a diplomatic setback. ¾ Maintaining Equilibrium: India must strike a
• They fear being sidelined and see their influence in the balance in engaging with AUKUS and other key
region potentially diminishing as AUKUS strengthens partners like Russia, France, and Japan.
ties among its members. • It should avoid being drawn into a zero-sum game
• The transfer of nuclear submarine technology also has and maintain strong ties with all relevant countries,
implications for global non-proliferation efforts. considering the intricate geopolitics of the Indo-Pacific.
• Experts worry that this move could set a dangerous • Strengthening other grouping like the Quad: India
precedent, potentially encouraging other countries to should prioritize strengthening the Quad, providing a
pursue similar capabilities, thereby complicating efforts counterbalance to AUKUS and promoting a rules-based
to maintain nuclear non-proliferation norms. regional order.
• Economically, AUKUS raises concerns for countries with
• Leveraging the Quad can advance regional stability and
significant defence industries, such as India.
power equilibrium.
• Increased competition for defence contracts and potential
• Ensuring Independent Voice: India should ensure the
limitations on selling defence equipment to Australia
interests of smaller regional countries are not sidelined in
could impact these countries’ defence exports and
its engagements with AUKUS.
economic interests in the region.
• Taking a leadership role, India can foster a cooperative
In what ways can AUKUS affect India? and inclusive approach to regional security issues.
• Strengthening relationship with Australia becomes
Conclusion
necessary as India has the opportunity to deepen its
scientific and technical cooperation with Australia, India’s response to the AUKUS alliance requires a delicate
leveraging its upgraded capabilities in sensitive strategic balance between leveraging collaboration opportunities and
areas such as submarine and nuclear technologies. safeguarding national interests. By maintaining equilibrium
in its engagements, strengthening multilateral frameworks
• This collaboration would not only enhance India’s
like the Quad, and ensuring inclusivity in regional security
technological prowess but also contribute to regional
initiatives, India can effectively navigate the evolving Indo-
peace and security.
Pacific dynamics. This approach will enable India to promote
• Acceptance of continued global strategic importance stability, cooperation, and its strategic interests in the region.
of Britain as India often overlooks Britain’s strategic
importance, but the AUKUS agreement may elevate the
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
UK’s profile in Asia.
• India could explore avenues for closer cooperation with Prelims MCQ
Britain on Indo-Pacific security matters.
Q. Consider the following countries:
• Emergence of modern day “Anglosphere” despite
historical complexities, the AUKUS pact has revitalized 1. Israel 2. The United States of America
enduring geopolitical ties among English-speaking nations
3. Australia
like the USA, UK, Australia, Canada, and New Zealand.
• Developing unique diplomatic relationship with the US How many of the above are one of the founders of AUKUS?
aiming to bolster the strategic capabilities of its allies and
partners in the Indo-Pacific. (a) Only one (b) Only two
• India has a rare opportunity to forge its own set of (c) All three (d) None
arrangements with the USA and its allies. This may Answer: (b) (2 and 3)
involve enhanced military collaboration, joint exercises,
and intelligence sharing, among other measures.
Descriptive Question
What should be India’s approach to safeguard its strategic
interests? Q. Discuss the strategic significance of the AUKUS
alliance. In what ways can AUKUS affect India? Also,
• Exploring Collaboration Opportunities: India can seek what should be India’s approach to safeguard its
collaboration and technology transfer with AUKUS strategic interests? [15 Marks] [250 words]
nations, ensuring its national security interests remain
intact.

30 INTERNATIONAL REALATIONS

 SECTION

C ECONOMY

AGRICULTURE INTEGRATED • National Agriculture Market (e-NAM): This pan-India

electronic trading platform connects various mandis,
COMMAND AND CONTROL creating a unified national market for agricultural
CENTER commodities and offering digital services to farmers,
traders, and mandis.
Why in News: The inauguration of the Agriculture
PM KISAN Scheme: This scheme facilitates direct
• 
Integrated Command and Control Center marks a significant
financial support to eligible farmers through direct bank
step towards empowering Indian farmers with digital transfers, with self-registration options available online
technologies. for wider accessibility.
Digital Agriculture • 
Integrated Scheme for Agricultural Marketing
(AGMARKNET): This program offers backend
• Digital agriculture integrates cutting-edge technologies
subsidy support for developing agricultural marketing
like AI, robotics, and sensors into agricultural practices. infrastructure and provides online services through the
AGMARKNET portal for stakeholders.
• Mobile Apps by ICAR: Over 100 mobile applications
developed by ICAR, State Agricultural Universities, and
Krishi Vigyan Kendras provide valuable information to
farmers on various agricultural aspects.

Conclusion
Embracing digital agriculture holds immense potential
to transform the Indian agricultural sector. By addressing
the existing challenges and fostering inclusive growth, this
technological revolution can empower farmers, ensure
food security, and pave the way for a more sustainable and
prosperous future.

EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ
Q. Consider the following statements with reference to the
Agriculture Integrated Command and Control Center:
1. 
It is online internet-based platform that identify
farmers with their Aadhaar numbers.
2. 
It generates customized advisories in the local
language of the farmers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Government Initiatives in Digital Agriculture
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
• India Digital Ecosystem of Agriculture (IDEA): This
framework aims to establish a unified farmers’ database
Answer: c
for developing innovative, technology-driven solutions
for the agricultural sector. Descriptive Question
• National e-Governance Plan in Agriculture (NeGP-A): Q. Evaluate the potential benefits and challenges
This program provides financial support to states for associated with digital technologies in the agriculture?
integrating AI, ML, robotics, drones, data analytics, and Mention government initiatives in Digital Agriculture.
blockchain technology into agricultural practices. [15 Marks] [250 words]

ECONOMY  31
 universities to ensure a constant flow of new knowledge
50 YEARS OF KRISHI VIGYAN and technologies.
KENDRAS (KVKs) 4. Performance monitoring: Regularly evaluating the impact
of KVK initiatives and adapting strategies based on farmer
Why in News: The Indian Council of Agricultural Research
feedback and emerging agricultural needs.
(ICAR) recently celebrated the Golden Jubilee of Krishi
Vigyan Kendras (KVKs) on 21st March 2024. Conclusion
By addressing these challenges and implementing the
suggested measures, KVKs can continue to play a pivotal role
in empowering Indian farmers with the knowledge and skills
they need to thrive in the years to come.

EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ

Q. Consider the following statements with reference to

the Krishi Vigyan Kendras:
1. 
It is integral part of the National Agricultural
Research and Extension System (NARES).
2. It was established on the recommendations of the
Sarkaria Commission.
3. It functions as Knowledge and Resource Centre of
agricultural technology.

How many of the above statements are correct

(a) Only one (b) Only two

(c) All three (d) None

Answer: b 1 and 3 only

Descriptive Question
Q. What are the key milestones achieved by the Indian
Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) through its
Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs) from their inception?
Challenges [15 Marks] [250 words]
• Reaching all farmers: Ensuring all farmers, particularly
small and marginal ones, have access to KVK services
remains a challenge. ACQUISITION OF SHARES UNDER
• Digital inclusion: Bridging the digital divide in rural THE LARGE VALUE FUND (LVF)
areas is crucial for effective dissemination of information
Why in News: The purchase of shares of MG Motor
and training programs through online platforms.
India Private Limited by IndoEdge India Fund under the
• Focus on emerging areas: KVKs need to adapt to address Large Value Fund (LVF) Scheme has been allowed by the
emerging challenges like climate change, water scarcity, Competition Commission of India (CCI).
and sustainable agriculture practices.
Key Details
Way Forward
1. Digitalization: Investing in digital infrastructure and • The scheme known as Large Value Fund (LVF) is an
training KVK personnel to effectively utilize online Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) in which each
platforms for knowledge dissemination and training. certified investor must invest a minimum of Rs 70
2. Focus on climate-smart agriculture: Equipping KVKs to crore.
provide farmers with training and resources on climate- • Alternative Investment Fund (AIF): AIFs are investment
resilient practices like water conservation, drought- funds that are privately pooled or collective and that are
resistant varieties, and organic farming. incorporated in India.
3. Strengthening linkages: Enhancing collaboration Alternative Investment Fund
between KVKs, research institutions, and agricultural • A fund created or founded in India that functions as a

32 ECONOMY
 privately managed investment vehicle is referred to as an Competition Commission of India (CCI)
AIF. • The Competition Commission of India (CCI) was
• It raises money from affluent domestic and foreign duly created in March 2009 and is a statutory body of
investors with the intention of investing in accordance the Government of India tasked with executing the
with a particular investment policy, ultimately providing Competition Act, 2002.
returns for its investors. • On the advice of the Raghavan committee, the
• The Alternative Investment Funds (SEBI) Regulations Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act,
of 2012 are followed by these investment vehicles. 1969 (MRTP Act) was abolished and replaced by the
Competition Act, 2002.
• 1,220 AIFs were registered with the Securities and
Exchange Board of India (SEBI) as of December 2023. Composition
• A limited liability partnership, corporation, trust, or • The Central Government choose the Commission’s six
body corporate may be formed as an AIF. The majority members, including the Chairperson.
of AIFs that are registered with SEBI are maintained as • The commission is a quasi-judicial entity that handles
trust. various issues in addition to providing advice to statutory
bodies. All members, including the chairperson, must
be full-time members.
Eligibility criteria of members of CCI
• Each Member, including the Chairperson, must possess
the qualities of ability, integrity, and standing.
• They must also have served as or be qualified to serve as
a judge in a High Court, or
• Have at least fifteen years of professional experience in
any of the following areas:
• Public affairs, administration, economics, business,
commerce, law, finance, accountancy, management,
industry, international trade, or any other area in which
the Central Government believes the Commission may
find value.
Competition Act, 2002
• The Competition (Amendment) Act of 2007 made
amendments to the 2002-passed Competition Act. It adheres
to the theory behind contemporary competition legislation.

ECONOMY  33
 ¾ The Act forbids anti-competitive agreements, the Impact of Unicorn 1.0 (2010-23)
misuse of a dominating position by businesses, and
combinations that materially impede competition in Positive Impacts
India. • Economic Growth: Startups contributed 10-15% to GDP
¾ The Competition Commission of India and the growth, fostering job creation (20-25% of new jobs) and
Competition Appellate Tribunal have been created innovation (40th rank in global innovation index).
in compliance with the terms of the Amendment Act.
• Financial Inclusion: Fintech solutions empowered over
¾ In 2017, the National Company Law Appellate 50 million MSMEs, promoting financial inclusion and
Tribunal (NCLAT) was established by the growth.
government to take the position of the Competition
Appellate Tribunal (COMPAT). • Democratization of Consumption: Startups made
essential services like education and healthcare 30-40%
Conclusion more affordable and expanded e-commerce reach.
The Competition Commission of India (CCI) serves as a
watchdog, ensuring fair competition and preventing anti-
competitive practices in various sectors, fostering market
efficiency. On the other hand, the Fund for Alternative
Investments (AIF) provides capital to promising ventures,
stimulating innovation and economic growth. Together,
they promote a competitive and dynamic business
environment, driving entrepreneurship and investment
across diverse sectors of the Indian economy.

EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE

Descriptive Question

Q. 
What is the mandate and role of the Competition
Commission of India (CCI) in regulating competition
and promoting fair trade practices? What are the
challenges faced by CCI fulfilling its mandate? [15
Marks] [250 words]

UNICORN 2.0: ADDING THE NEXT

TRILLION
Why in News: The Confederation of Indian Industry (CII)
recently released a report titled “Unicorn 2.0: Adding the
Next Trillion,” which paints a promising picture of India’s
startup ecosystem.

Understanding Startup Terminology

• Decacorn: A startup with a current valuation exceeding
USD 10 billion.
• Unicorn: A startup founded after 2000 with a valuation
of USD 1 billion.
• Gazelle: A startup with strong potential to become a
unicorn within the next three years.
• Cheetah: A startup with the potential to achieve
unicorn status within the next five years.

What is a startup?
• A startup defined as an entity that is headquartered in
India, which was opened less than 10 years ago, and has
an annual turnover less than ₹100 crore.

34 ECONOMY
Vision for Unicorn 2.0 (2024-35)
(c) Finance Commission
Potential of Unicorn 2.0
(d) Ministry of Micro Small and Medium Enterprises
• $1 Trillion to GDP: New unicorns are likely to add USD
1 trillion to the Indian economy, which would reach USD Answer: b
7 trillion size by 2030, and add 50 million new jobs.
Descriptive Question
• Digital Democratization: Widespread adoption of digital
Q. What are the challenges faced by Indian startups in
services can bridge the digital divide and empower citizens.
scaling up to become unicorns, and what strategies
• Globally Leading Startups: India can nurture 15-25 are they employing to overcome these challenges?
globally leading startups and 25+ innovation-driven How does India’s regulatory environment support the
companies. growth of startups? [15 Marks] [250 words]
Challenges of Unicorn 2.0
• Access to Capital: Retail investors and public institutions INDIA & MAURITIUS AMEND TAX
need to participate more actively in startup funding.
TREATY
• Governance Framework: Defined guidelines and a
robust corporate governance framework are crucial for Why in News: India has signed a protocol amending its
attracting investors and ensuring ethical practices. tax treaty with Mauritius with an aim to fill the loopholes
• Supportive Regulatory Environment: A supportive in the treaty which were being abused for tax evasion and
tax regime and streamlined regulations are essential for avoidance.
nurturing innovation.
Key Details
• Skilled Workforce: Developing a deeper talent pool
• In order to prevent treaty, abuse for tax evasion or
through apprenticeship programs and skill development
avoidance, India and Mauritius have signed a protocol
initiatives is critical.
modifying the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement
Recommendations (DTAA).
The CII report proposes several recommendations to achieve • The Principal Purpose Test (PPT), which is introduced
Unicorn 2.0: in Article 27B of the India-Mauritius Tax Treaty
• Capital: Encourage retail investor participation and Amendment, forbids tax benefits if the primary goal of a
public sector funding in startups. transaction is to gain them.

• Governance: Establish clear guidelines and a robust Amendment to Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement
corporate governance framework. (DTAA)
• Regulation: Implement a supportive tax environment • The goal of the amendment is to stop the treaty from
and streamline regulations. being abused for tax-related reasons.
• This amendment covers all forms of income, including
• Innovation: Encourage startups to collaborate with
dividends, capital gains, and fees for technical services.
academia for research and monetize intellectual property.
• The Principal Purpose Test (PPT), which prohibits
• Talent Development: Invest in skill development treaty benefits including lower withholding taxes on
programs and apprenticeship models to create a talent interest, royalties, and dividends, is put into effect by
pool aligned with industry needs. the amended agreement. This occurs when the primary
Conclusion purpose of a transaction or arrangement was to gain
India’s startup ecosystem holds immense potential for these benefits.
driving economic growth, social inclusion, and innovation. By • Additionally, the treaty’s preamble has been changed
addressing the challenges of Unicorn 1.0 and implementing to highlight the goal of “eliminating double taxation”
the recommendations for Unicorn 2.0, India can unlock the while preventing chances for tax fraud or tax avoidance
next trillion-dollar opportunity and emerge as a global leader that could lead to non-taxation or lower taxation.
in the startup landscape. • After the US, Singapore, and Luxembourg, Mauritius is
still the fourth-largest source of foreign direct investment
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE (FDI) and foreign portfolio investment (FPI) in India.
As of the end of March 2024, Mauritius’s FPI & FDI
Prelims MCQ investment were valued at Rs 4.19 lakh crore.
Q. “Unicorn 2.0: Adding the Next Trillion” report was • This is especially crucial when the goal of the structuring
published by is to take advantage of tax treaty advantages in Mauritius
(a) Cabinet Committee on Investment or India.
(b) Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) • It is unclear from this most recent modification if previous
investments would be spared from a new regulation.

ECONOMY  35
Need for Revision
• Because capital gains from the sale of shares in Indian companies are not taxable until 2016, Mauritius has been a favoured
destination for investments in India.
• The most recent amendment to the treaty was made in 2016, granting the power to tax capital gains from the sale or
transfer of shares of an Indian company that a Mauritian tax resident had purchased.
• The goal of “eliminate double taxation” has taken the role of the previous goal of “mutual trade and investment.”
• This will be accomplished without opening up chances for tax evasion or avoidance, including “treaty shopping
arrangements,” that would result in non-taxation or lower taxation.
Conclusion
The Double Tax Agreement (DTAA) is essential in
streamlining tax issues for both individuals and multinational
corporations. It aids in avoiding the problem of paying
taxes twice, stimulates trade, cross-border investment, and
raises transparency. These agreements help to build a more
equitable and effective international tax system.

EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ
Q. The “limitation-on-benefits” rule and “principal
purpose test” rule recently mentioned in the news, in
the context of
(a) Genetically modified crops
(b) Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA)
(c) Space exploration and related technologies
(d) Antimicrobial resistance
Answer: b

Descriptive Question
Q. What are the objectives behind revising the Double
Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) between
India and Mauritius, and how do these changes aim to
benefit both countries? [15 Marks] [250 words]

RESTRICTIONS ON IMPORT OF
SOLAR PV CELLS
Why in News: Recently, the government introduced
import limits in order to encourage domestic sourcing of
solar modules and assist India’s renewable manufacturing
environment.

Key Details
• India relies substantially on imports of solar cells and
modules, mainly from China and Vietnam.
• In the last five years, India has imported solar cells and
modules worth around $11.17 billion, accounting for
0.4% of total import.
• The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE)
was instructed to re-implement its 2021 notification of an
‘Approved List of Models and Manufacturers of Solar
Photovoltaic [PV] Modules’, also known as the ALMM
list.

36 ECONOMY
• This order aims to promote domestic solar module sourcing to help India’s renewables manufacturing ecosystem.
However, it is usually interpreted as import limits on solar PV cells.
What is a Solar Panel?
• A solar panel consists of photovoltaic (PV) cells that convert sunlight into electricity.

About ALMM List This initiative intends to strengthen India’s

� 
renewable energy sector and minimize reliance on
• The ALMM is a list of approved manufacturers imports.
for government initiatives, notably those involving
renewable energy, such as solar power. Increased Production Capacity: The government
• 
believes domestic producers can now compete with
• It was halted two years after its introduction because lower-cost imports.
renewable energy producers were concerned about
their commitments with the government. � This is one of the main reasons for re-implementing
the ALMM list.
• 
These makers depended mainly on low-cost solar
modules and cells from China. • Import Substitution: The goal is to increase domestic
manufacture to meet local demand for solar equipment.
• The goal is to encourage indigenous industry by However, imports have not been completely
encouraging import substitution rather than fully prohibited.
restricting imports.

• India’s own renewable energy sector could not meet India’s Dependency on Importing Solar PV Cells
the demand for solar equipment at the prices supplied • To achieve its grid-connected solar power demands,
by Chinese producers. India relies significantly on imports of solar modules
Reason for Re-implementing the ALMM List and cells from China and Vietnam.
• India has been the top solar cell importer, spending
• ALMM emphasizes domestically manufactured solar $11.17 billion on solar cells and modules during the last
equipment for government projects. five years, accounting for 0.4% of total exports during
this time period.

ECONOMY  37
• China is the major provider of solar cell imports,
accounting for 53% of India’s total imports. Furthermore,
it is the primary provider of solar PV modules, accounting
for 63% of total imports.
• China dominates the scope of production in the solar
energy market, whereas India’s capacity is still limited
but concentrated on the final assembly stage.

EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ

Q. With reference to the Solar power production in India,

consider the following statements:

1. India is third largest in the world in manufacture of

the silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units.

2. The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar

energy corporation of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: d

Descriptive Question

Q. 
What challenges or concerns might arise from the
imposition of import limits on solar modules, and how
can they be addressed to ensure a smooth transition
towards domestic manufacturing? [15 Marks] [250
words]

INDIA AIMS FOR LIVING WAGE

STANDARD BY 2025
Why in News: Recently, India’s government has set an
ambitious goal for replacing the minimum wage system
with a living wage framework by 2025.
Key Details
• India’s workforce stands at over 500 million, with a
significant portion employed in the unorganized sector.
• The current minimum wage system, plagued by
inconsistencies and inadequacy, fails to ensure a decent
standard of living for many workers.
• In this context, the government’s proposal to establish a
living wage standard (Article 43 of Our Constitution) by

38 ECONOMY
 2025 holds immense promise for improving worker well- automation and the gig economy pose challenges in
being and fostering inclusive growth. maintaining fair wages in a changing job landscape.
Current Wage System in India Way Forward
• National Floor Level Minimum Wage (NFLMW): It was • Government Legislation and Policies: Stronger
established under the Code on Wages 2019, the NFLMW legislation with provisions for regular inflation
sets a baseline for minimum wages across states. adjustments and effective enforcement mechanisms will
However, states have the flexibility to revise these rates. be crucial.
• Challenges with Minimum Wage Implementation:
Limited enforcement mechanisms and variations across • Multidimensional Poverty Index: Considering
states create wage discrepancies, especially in the vast multidimensional factors like health, education, and
unorganized sector with over 90% of India’s workforce. standard of living in defining living wages can provide a
more holistic approach.

• Integration with Sustainable Development Goals:

Aligning living wages with the Sustainable Development
Goals can promote fair compensation and contribute to a
more equitable future.

Conclusion

India’s ambitious plan to implement living wages by 2025

presents both opportunities and challenges. Collaboration
between all stakeholders, including the government,
businesses, labour organizations, and the ILO, will be key to
navigate these challenges and ensure a successful transition
to a living wage framework.

EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ

Q. Which of the following statements well describes the

term ‘Living Wage’?

(a) It is a bare minimum wage sufficient for survival,

like food and shelter, but wouldn’t cover a basic
but decent standard of living.

Challenges in Implementing Living Wages (b) 

Financial aid provided to eligible unemployed
individuals to help cover basic living expenses
• Variations in Living Costs: The cost of living varies
while they search for a new job.
significantly across regions, making it difficult to establish
a uniform national living wage.
(c) It is a universal wage that applies equally to all
• Challenges in the Unorganized Sector: Ensuring sectors of the economy regardless of cost of living.
implementation and enforcement in the vast unorganized
sector will require robust mechanisms. (d) 
The remuneration received for a standard
workweek by a worker in a particular place
• Fiscal Implications for Businesses and Government: sufficient to afford a decent standard of living for
Higher wage costs may impact businesses, particularly the worker and her or his family.
smaller firms, and could increase government Answer: d
expenditure.

• Lack of Worker Awareness: Limited knowledge about Descriptive Question

minimum wage provisions and labor rights amongst
workers, particularly in remote areas, needs to be Q. What are the key differences between the minimum
addressed. wage system and a living wage framework? Why has
the Indian government decided to transition to the
• Impact of Automation and Gig Economy: The rise of latter? [15 Marks] [250 words]

ECONOMY  39
 ¾ Prevention: Implementing robust systems to monitor
THE PREVENTION OF MONEY financial transactions and deter money laundering
LAUNDERING ACT (PMLA) attempts.
Why in News: The Prevention of Money Laundering Act ¾ Detection: Empowering agencies to investigate
(PMLA), 2002, is a crucial piece of legislation in India’s fight suspected money laundering activities.
against financial crime. However, the Act has been under ¾ Confiscation: Authorizing the seizure of assets
scrutiny for its broad scope and potential infringement on acquired through illegal means.
individual rights. ¾ International Cooperation: Collaborating with other
nations to combat money laundering on a global
Objectives and Background
scale.
• It was enacted in 2002, the PMLA aims to curb money
• The PMLA’s enactment fulfills India’s obligations under
laundering, the process of concealing the illicit origins
international treaties like the United Nations Convention
of income derived from criminal activities like drug
against Transnational Organized Crime and the
trafficking, terror financing, human trafficking and
Financial Action Task Force (FATF) recommendations.
corruption. The Act mandates stringent measures for:

40 ECONOMY
Supreme Court’s Observations
Descriptive Question
• Strict Bail Conditions: While the Court initially struck
Q. Discuss the significance of the Prevention of Money
down the PMLA’s stringent bail provision in 2018,
Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002, in India’s efforts to
Parliament subsequently restored it with amendments.
combat financial crime and ensure the integrity of the
In 2022, the Court upheld the constitutionality of these financial system? [15 Marks] [250 words]
amendments.
• ED’s Overreach: The Court, in the Pankaj Bansal case,
highlighted inconsistencies and lack of transparency in LOW FEMALE LABOR FORCE
the ED’s operations.
PARTICIPATION RATE (LFPR)
• Procedural Violations: The Court has observed instances
of procedural violations and misuse of the PMLA by Why in News: India’s labour market presents a paradox.
authorities, emphasizing the need for adherence to legal While overall indicators are improving, female LFPR remains
standards. significantly lower than males (78.5% vs. 37% in 2023).

Way Forward
• Precise Definition of “Proceeds of Crime”: A more
precise definition can mitigate potential abuse by
authorities.
• Reassessing Burden of Proof: Shifting the burden of
proof to a more equitable distribution between the
prosecution and the accused can be considered.
• Oversight Mechanism: Establishing an independent
body to monitor law enforcement actions can prevent
overreach.
• Reviewing Bail Conditions: Stringent bail conditions for
minor offenses should be relaxed.
• Transparency and Accountability: Measures like regular
reporting and disclosure by the ED can enhance public
confidence in the institution.
Conclusion
The PMLA is a powerful tool in combating financial crime.
However, striking a balance between effective enforcement Government Initiatives
and individual rights is essential. By incorporating the • Legislative Measures: The Code on Wages (2019)
suggested reforms, India can ensure the PMLA fulfills its promotes equal pay for equal work, while the Maternity
objectives while upholding the principles of fairness and Benefit Act (2017) aims to create a supportive work
justice. environment for mothers.
• Financial Empowerment Schemes: Rashtriya Mahila
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE Kosh and National Rural Livelihoods Mission provide
Prelims MCQ microfinance and skill training to women for self-
employment ventures.
Q. Consider the following statements: • Employment Programs: MGNREGA guarantees rural
households 100 days of work, with a focus on women’s
1. Cryptocurrency transactions do not fall within the
ambit of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, participation.
2002 (PMLA). Way Forward
2. 
Cryptocurrencies are regulated by Securities and • Demand-Side Interventions: Promote labor-intensive
Exchange Board of India (SEBI). sectors in manufacturing and services to create formal
job opportunities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• Public Investment: Infrastructure development in safety,
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only transportation, and affordable childcare and eldercare
services would incentivize women to join the workforce.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 • Skill Development & Education: Invest in quality
Answer: d education for girls and bridge the skill gap through
targeted training programs.

ECONOMY  41
• Attitudinal Change: Address societal norms through Current Trends in the Space Economy
awareness campaigns promoting gender equality in • Economic Expansion: The Space Report 2022 estimates
work spheres. the space economy to be worth $469 billion in 2021,
• Safe Workplaces: Implement stricter regulations and reflecting a 9% increase from the previous year. The
ensure swift action against workplace harassment to global space market is projected to reach $1 trillion by
create a secure environment. 2040.
Conclusion • Rise in State-backed Investment: There has been a global
surge in state-backed investment in space projects, with
Enhancing female LFPR is not just about economic growth but
a 19% jump in overall government spending on military
also about creating a more equitable society. By addressing
and civilian space programs in 2021.
structural barriers, investing in social infrastructure, and
fostering a supportive ecosystem, India can unlock the full
potential of its women workforce.

EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. The ‘Female Labour Force Participation Rate’

(FLFPR) has continuously increased in the last six
consecutive years.

2. Periodic Labour Force Survey Report is released by

the Department of Economic Affairs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Challenges of the Space Economy
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only • Space Debris Mitigation: Growing space activity
increases the risk of collisions and debris generation,
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 hindering future exploration. International cooperation
Answer: a is crucial for developing sustainable practices.
• Regulation and Governance: A clear legal framework
Descriptive Question is needed to address issues like resource extraction on
Q. Critically analyze the underlying factors contributing celestial bodies and space traffic management.
to the disparity in labor force participation rates
• Accessibility and Equity: Ensuring equitable access to
between males and females in India? What are the
space technology and its benefits for all nations remains
economic implications of the gender gap in labor force
participation for India’s overall economic growth. [15 a challenge. Developed countries should facilitate
Marks] [250 words] knowledge transfer and collaboration.

The Indian Space Economy

• India’s space sector is currently estimated to account
GROWING SPACE ECONOMY for around 2% of the global space economy. However,
it has the potential to reach a value of $44 billion by
Why in News: Recently, the World Economic Forum has
2033, capturing an impressive 8% of the global share
released report titled ‘Space: The $1.8 Trillion Opportunity
due to the following reasons:
for Global Space Economic Growth by 2035’.
• Strong Foundation: India boasts a well-established
What is the Space Economy? space agency with expertise in satellite launches and
• The Organization for Economic Co-operation and missions.
Development (OECD) defines the space economy as the
full spectrum of activities and the utilization of resources • Policy Reforms: The Indian Space Policy 2023 and
the creation of IN-SPACe encourage private sector
that generate value and benefits for humankind in space
participation, fostering innovation and growth.
exploration, research, understanding, management, and
utilization. FDI and Talent Pool: India’s 100% FDI allowance
• 
• It encompasses the development of goods and services and large scientific talent pool make it an attractive
produced in space for use in space or on Earth. destination for space companies.

42 ECONOMY
 Benefits of agroforestry for small farmers
• Target and Vision: India’s ambitious target of reaching
$44 billion in its space economy by 2033 reflects its • Can enhance farmer livelihoods and the environment.
commitment to this sector. To tackle climate induced salination of land around
coastal areas.
Conclusion  E
xample, Following the Gaja cyclone’s devastation of
coconut trees and soil salinity in Pudukkottai district,
The space economy presents an exciting opportunity
Tamil Nadu farmers faced crop uncertainty. They united
for economic growth, technological innovation, and
resources, choosing to cultivate jackfruit and mango trees
addressing global challenges. By effectively navigating the
instead. Six years later, they are reaping promising profits
existing hurdles and leveraging its strong foundation and
from this strategic shift.
policy reforms, India can become a significant player in this
burgeoning sector. • To tackle the problem of loss fertility due to
monocropping inspired by the Green Revolution.
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE • Agroforestry provides farmers with food, fodder,
fuel, fruit, and timber, boosting production and rural
Prelims MCQ
employment.
Q. ‘Space: The $1.8 Trillion Opportunity for Global Space • Eucalyptus, Poplar, and Casuarinas are common species,
Economic Growth by 2035’ report is published by the with wood serving fuel, plywood, paper, and match
(a) NASA industries.
(b) World Bank • Source of additional income in the draught conditions.
(c) World Economic Forum Some of the issues with adoption of Agroforestry
(d) International Monetary Fund • Farmers often favour fast-growing, herbivore-repelling
Answer: c non-native species, which can harm soil health and
human well-being. Selecting suitable tree species based
Descriptive Question on location and purpose is crucial for agroforestry to
Q. Evaluate the potential benefits and challenges improve livelihood sustainability.
associated with the projected expansion of the global ¾ Example, Casuarina and eucalyptus, non-native
space economy, both from an economic and socio-
timber species, thrive in saline soils and require
political perspective. [15 Marks] [250 words]
minimal labour inputs due to their fast growth.
However, they are unsuitable for intercropping or
tree-crop combinations, which are essential for small
AGROFORESTRY MORE landholdings.
BENEFICIAL TO SMALL AND • Existing government policies and schemes lack
MARGINAL FARMERS customization for land-holding size and regional
biophysical variations, leading to exclusion of
Why in News: The Ministry of Agriculture recognised water smallholders.
availability as a challenge when it drafted the National ¾ The Indian Forest and Wood Certification Scheme
Agroforestry Policy in 2014. Yet the problem remains 2023, which certifies agroforestry and wood-based
relevant and is especially acute for smallholders. products as sustainable, makes almost all farmers and
Key Details industries eligible indirectly excluding small farmers.
• Smallholder farmers seldom grow trees because of their
• Agriculture in India has historically been a diversified long gestation, a lack of incentive or investment-based
land-use practice, integrating crops, trees, and livestock. capital, and weak market linkages.
This technique, broadly called agroforestry.
• Transition Finance have been big concern for small
• Small and marginal holding farmers in India cultivate farmers.
44% of the total area, yet produce 60% of food grain
• Lucrative market linkages are absent.
(49% rice, 40% wheat, 29% coarse cereals, 27% pulses)
and over half of fruits and vegetables. (Agricultural • A recurrent water problem as there is around 67
census, 2014). per cent farmers depend on rain fed agriculture. The
Ministry of Agriculture recognised water availability as
• In India, small and marginal farmers’ average size of
a challenge when it drafted the National Agroforestry
holdings is about 0.38 ha when compared to 17.37 ha for
Policy in 2014.
large farmers. As per India’s Agriculture Census 2015-16,
86.1 percent of Indian farmers are small and marginal • Finding the right native species Water availability is
(SMF). critical for saplings but becomes a persistent concern
when trees compete with crops in water-constrained

ECONOMY  43
 environments like hard rock aquifers and low-rainfall Way Forward
regions. • Grow trees that don’t compete with the crops for
• It tends to benefit large farmers more, potentially water- (TOFI) initiative collaborated with Bengaluru-
impacting agricultural labourers and risking food and based WELL Labs, customized the open-source water-
industrial material scarcity. accounting tool ‘Jaltol’ to analyse trade-offs. This
adaptation yielded valuable insights; for instance, mango
plantations in central Karnataka plateau don’t compete
with kharif crops, while coconut trees in Tamil Nadu’s
uplands require more water than crops year-round.
rewrite crisp.
• The ‘Diversity for Restoration’ tool offers a customized
list of climate-resilient species, tailored to restoration
goals. It will soon be launched for the Western Ghats,
with plans for expansion to other regions.
• The viability of current Central and State policies and
programs as a transitional financing route for agroforestry
must also be taken into account by policymakers.
• Ecosystem credits and payment for ecosystem services
(PES) are potential incentive mechanisms that reinforce
nature-centred economics. PES involves a service
user, like a food processing company, paying a service
provider, such as a small farmer, for services like
pollination provided by trees.
Conclusion
Scaling up agroforestry in India requires the inclusion of
smallholders, who own the majority of agricultural land.
However, ecological and socio-economic barriers hinder
this adoption. While secure land tenure is essential,
economic viability and sustainable practices are crucial for
empowering these farmers through market linkages.

EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ

Q. Consider the following pairs:

Agroforestry Main components

1. Agrisilviculture Crops + Trees

2. Silvopastoral Crops + Pasture + Trees

3. Agrosilvopastoral Pasture/Livestock + Trees

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one (b) Only two

(c) All three (d) None

Answer: a (1 only)

Descriptive Question
Q. What are the economic benefits of agroforestry for
smallholder farmers? What are the challenges faced by
small farmers in adopting agroforestry practices? How
can these obstacles be addressed through supportive
policies? [15 Marks] [250 words]

44 ECONOMY
 • By exposing PBW to Bt protein continuously,
COTTON CULTIVATION IN NORTH noncompliance with refugia planting accelerated the
INDIA establishment of resistance.
Why in News: A possible decline in cotton acreages is ¾ Natural enemies of cultivated plants can find refuge
anticipated by stakeholders as the 2024–25 kharif cotton and sustenance in the biodiversity plants known as
planting season in North India gets near. refugias.
Effects on Crop Yields and Economy

• PBW infestation reduces cotton yield significantly and

degrades the quality of the fiber, which has an effect on
farmers’ sustainability and income.
• Cotton crops in Haryana have suffered severe damage,
according to entomologists; about 25% of farms have
reported a 50% loss.
• The damage rate in Punjab is 65%, while the worst
loss on the list is 90% in Rajasthan. This highlights the
serious financial consequences for farmers and the local
economy.

Pink Bollworm (PBW) Infestation

• Within the American bollworm complex, PBW
(Pectinophora gossypiella) is a significant pest that
mostly affects cotton crops.
• PBW, commonly referred to as Saunders, harms cotton
fruits that are still developing, including the square-
shaped flower bud and the seed-filled boll.
• The pest deposits its eggs on buds, blooms, and bolls.
The hatched larvae burrow into the bolls to feed on the
seeds, which degrades the quality of the lint and damages
it.
• To reduce hazards, Bt Cotton which has been genetically
modified to withstand pests like PBW was introduced.
But over time, PBW have grown resistant to Bt Cotton, Significance of cotton to India
which makes the issue worse.
• Principal source, accounting for two thirds of India’s
Factors responsible for Resistance Development total use of textile fibers, for the textile sector.
• In the centre and southern cotton-growing zones,
• Cakes and meals made from cottonseed are used as
continuous cotton planting without crop rotation boosted
animal and poultry feed as well as for cooking.
PBW persistence.
• Farmers’ illicit production of Bt/Ht seeds without • The third-largest vegetable oil produced in India is
authorization played a role in the establishment of PBW cottonseed oil.
resistance.
• One of India’s most significant commercial crops, cotton
• Long-duration hybrids were grown for an extended makes for around 25% of the world’s total production.
period of time, giving PBW constant host availability.
• Extending the cotton crop past the advised times helped • The term “White-Gold” is frequently used to describe it
promote PBW reproduction and survival. because of its economic importance.

ECONOMY  45
Some of the government initiatives monsoon across the country would significantly benefit
• Minimum Support Price (MSP) crop yields.
• Kasturi cotton
• Low Base Effect: The agricultural sector’s growth in
• National Food Security Mission-Commercial Crops 2023-24 was modest at 0.67%. This relatively low base
(NFSM-CC) provides a springboard for a more substantial increase
• Cotton Corporation of India (CCI) in 2024-25.
Conclusion
Significance of Agriculture in India
India, one of the world’s largest cotton producers, faces both
opportunities and challenges in its cotton industry. Despite • Livelihood Source: Agriculture is the primary source of
being a major contributor to the global market, issues like income for approximately 45% of India’s population.
pest management, water scarcity, and fluctuating market Millions of farmers and their families depend on
prices persist. Sustainable practices and technological agriculture for their sustenance.
advancements are crucial for ensuring consistent and
profitable cotton production in India. • Global Agricultural Powerhouse: India is a major
player in the global agricultural sector, ranking second
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE in the production of fruits, vegetables, tea, farmed fish,
Prelims MCQ sugarcane, wheat, rice, cotton, and sugar.

Q. Consider the following statements: • Organic Farming Leader: India occupies the fifth position
globally in terms of total area dedicated to organic
1. India got 1st place in the world for area under cotton
farming, highlighting its commitment to sustainable
cultivation.
agricultural practices.
2. More than 50% of India’s cotton is produced in
irrigated lands. Recent Trends and Challenges
3. India is the only country which grows all four species
of cotton. • Declining Share of GVA: The agriculture sector’s
contribution to India’s Gross Value Added (GVA)
How many of the above statements are correct? has declined from 35% in 1990-91 to 15% in 2022-23,
primarily due to the rapid growth of the industrial and
(a) Only one (b) Only two service sectors.

• Stagnant or Falling Prices: While the government has

(c) All three (d) None
increased Minimum Support Prices (MSPs) for major
Answer: b (1 and 3 only) foodgrain crops, market prices of agricultural produce
have stagnated or even fallen, impacting farmer
Descriptive Question incomes.

Q. How do weather conditions, market dynamics, input • Real Income Decline: The real income of agricultural
costs, and government policies influence farmers’ households from cultivation witnessed a decline of
decisions regarding crop choices, particularly regarding
about 1.4% between 2012-13 and 2018-19.
cotton cultivation? Illustrate the importance of cotton to
India and Indian economy. [15 Marks] [250 words]
¾ This decrease can be attributed to both stagnant
agricultural prices and rising input costs, particularly
fertilizers.
AGRICULTURE SECTOR POISED
FOR HIGH GROWTH IN 2024-25 • Limited Public Investment: Public investment in
agriculture, including research and extension services,
Why in News: The agriculture sector in India is expected to has stagnated or even declined in the past decade.
witness significant growth in the coming year, with NITI
Aayog projecting a rise of more than 6% in 2024-25. ¾ This lack of investment hinders long-term growth
and innovation in the sector.
Key Details
• Favorable Monsoon: Various agencies predict normal • Rising Input Costs: The real prices of agricultural inputs,
or above-normal monsoon rainfall, which is crucial for such as fertilizers, have been rising for several years,
agricultural productivity in India. A well-distributed putting a strain on farmers’ profit margins.

46 ECONOMY
 Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: a

Descriptive Question
Q. Critically evaluate the role of government policies and
initiatives in fostering the projected growth of more
than 6% in India’s agriculture sector for the upcoming
fiscal year. What policy reforms are necessary to sustain
and accelerate this growth? [15 Marks] [250 words]

INDIA’S DIRECT TAX

COLLECTIONS SURGE IN FY 2023-24
Why in News: India’s government witnessed a significant
boost in direct tax collections during the financial year 2023-
24 (FY 2023-24). This positive development is a promising
sign for the country’s fiscal health.
Exceeding Expectations
• Net direct tax collections for FY 2023-24 reached a
staggering ₹19.58 lakh crore, reflecting a remarkable
17.7% increase compared to the previous year’s ₹16.64
lakh crore.
• This growth surpassed even the revised estimates set by
the government in the Union Budget.
• The initial Budget Estimates (BE) for direct tax revenue
were set at ₹18.23 lakh crore, which were subsequently
revised upwards to ₹19.45 lakh crore (Revised Estimates
or RE).
• The actual collections exceeded the BE by a healthy 7.40%
and the RE by a marginal 0.67%.

Conclusion
By addressing these challenges and implementing effective
measures, India can unlock the true potential of its agricultural
sector, ensuring not only growth but also improve livelihoods
for millions of farmers.

EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ Breaking Down the Numbers

Q. Which of the following activities constitute a real sector The positive trend extends to gross collections (before
in the economy? adjusting for refunds) as well. Gross direct tax collections
1. Farmers harvesting their crops for FY 2023-24 stood at ₹23.37 lakh crore, representing an
impressive 18.48% growth compared to ₹19.72 lakh crore
2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics collected in FY 2022-23.
3. 
A Commercial bank lending money to a trading • Corporate Tax: Both gross and net corporate tax
company
collections witnessed significant growth.
4. 
A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated ¾ Gross corporate tax collection reached ₹11.32 lakh
Bonds overseas
crore, reflecting a 13.06% increase year-on-year.

ECONOMY  47
• Personal Income Tax: Personal income tax collections,
including Security Transaction Tax (STT), displayed ‘PRIORITY WATCH LIST’
robust growth. Why in News: The United States Trade Representative’s
¾ Gross personal income tax collection, including STT, (USTR) annual “Special 301 Report” on intellectual property
reached ₹12.01 lakh crore in FY 2023-24, showcasing a (IP) protection and enforcement placed India on its “priority
substantial 24.26% growth compared to the previous watch list” for 2024.
year.
What is the Special 301 Report?
• Refunds: It’s important to note that the government
issued tax refunds amounting to ₹3.79 lakh crore in FY The Special 301 Report identifies countries with inadequate IP
2023-24. This represents a 22.74% increase compared to protection and enforcement practices that hinder American
the ₹3.09 lakh crore refunded in FY 2022-23. innovation and investment. It focuses on issues like:
Way Forward
• Weak enforcement mechanisms leading to online piracy
• Enhancing Tax Administration: Streamlining tax and counterfeit goods.
collection processes, reducing tax evasion, and promoting
wider tax compliance can further improve tax revenue. • Lack of robust trade secret protection.
• Simplifying Tax Laws: Regularly reviewing and
simplifying tax laws can make compliance easier for • Market access barriers for US rights holders.
taxpayers and encourage greater participation in the tax • Challenges in copyright protection, particularly for
system. online transmissions.
• Focus on Digitalization: Leveraging digital technologies
for tax filing, assessment, and payment can improve What is Intellectual Property?
efficiency and transparency in tax administration.
• Expanding Tax Base: Exploring ways to broaden the tax • 
Intellectual property (IP) encompasses products of
human intellect, such as inventions, literary and
base by bringing more individuals and entities under
artistic works, designs, and symbols or names used in
the tax net, while ensuring a fair and progressive tax commerce.
structure, can increase tax revenue.
• Promoting Investment and Growth: Policies that • These creations are safeguarded by legal mechanisms
encourage investment and economic growth can lead to like patents, copyrights, and trademarks, granting
higher incomes and ultimately, higher tax collections. individuals the ability to gain recognition or financial
rewards for their innovations.
By implementing these measures, the government can ensure
sustained growth in direct tax collections, enabling it to better • By balancing the interests of creators with the broader
serve the nation’s developmental needs. public good, the IP framework aims to nurture an
environment conducive to creativity and innovation.
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
Types of Intellectual Property:
Prelims MCQ
• Patent: An exclusive right granted for a novel invention,
Q. Consider the following taxes: whether a product or process, offering a new method or
1. Octroi Tax technical solution to a problem.

2. Securities Transaction Tax (STT) • Copyright: Legal rights held by creators over their
3. Gift Tax literary and artistic works.
4. Angel Tax • Trademark: A distinctive symbol capable of identifying
How many of the above are the Direct Taxes? the goods or services of one entity from others.
(a) Only one (b) Only two • Industrial Design: Concerns the aesthetic or ornamental
(c) Only three (d) All four features of an object.
Answer: c (2, 3 and 4 only)
• Geographical Indications and Appellations of Origin:
Identifiers used for products with specific geographical
Descriptive Question
origins, possessing unique qualities or characteristics
Q. Assess the impact of the boost in direct tax collections attributed to that location.
on income distribution and inequality in India. How
can the government ensure that increased tax revenues • Trade Secrets: Protection for confidential information
contribute to equitable development and social that may be commercially valuable, available for sale or
welfare? [15 Marks] [250 words] licensing.

48 ECONOMY
 3. A registered Design, the copyright of which has
expired cannot be re-registered.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two

(c) All three (d) None

Answer: b (1 and 3 only)

Descriptive Question

Q. Discuss the potential implications of India’s inclusion

on the ‘priority watch list’ of the USTR’s Special 301
Report for its trade relations with the United States
and other global partners. How might this designation
impact India’s competitiveness in the global market?
[15 Marks] [250 words]
Why is India on the Priority Watch List?
• Inadequate IP Enforcement: High rates of online piracy,
trademark backlog, and insufficient legal safeguards for 30 YEARS OF THE MARRAKESH
trade secrets are major concerns. AGREEMENT
• Incomplete Implementation of WIPO Treaties: India
hasn’t fully adopted the World Intellectual Property Why in News: The World Trade Organization (WTO) is
Organization (WIPO) Internet Treaties, impacting commemorating a significant milestone – the 30th anniversary
copyright protection. of the Marrakesh Agreement.
• Patent Revocation Concerns: The potential for patent About WTO
revocations based on discretionary criteria in the Indian
Patents Act creates uncertainty for US companies. • The Marrakesh Agreement represents a cornerstone of
the modern multilateral trading system.
Way Forward
• It was signed in 1994, paving the way for the establishment
Strengthening IP Enforcement: Investing in robust
1. 
of the WTO itself in 1995.
enforcement mechanisms to tackle online piracy and
counterfeit goods is crucial. • It established a framework for fair and open trade between
nations, fostering economic growth and development.
Full Implementation of WIPO Treaties: Enacting
2. 
necessary amendments to fully adopt the WIPO Internet About the Agreement
Treaties would enhance copyright protection.
Transparency in Patent Revocation Process: Providing
3.  • Comprehensive Framework: It acts as the foundation for
clear guidelines and predictability in patent revocation trade relations among all WTO members.
procedures can alleviate concerns for foreign companies.
• Expanded Scope: It broadened the focus beyond just
Conclusion goods, encompassing trade in services, intellectual
By taking these steps, India can create a more robust IP regime, property (IP), and other areas.
fostering innovation and attracting foreign investment while • Institutional Framework: It established the WTO’s
promoting domestic creativity. governance structure, including the Ministerial
Conference (top decision-making body), General
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE Council, and specialized councils to facilitate
Prelims MCQ negotiations, dispute settlement, and economic
Q. Consider the following statements with reference to the cooperation.
Intellectual Property Rights of the ‘Industrial Designs’:
Achievements of the WTO
1. Stamps and tokens can not be considered as an
article for the purpose of registration of Design. • Reduced Barriers: Since its inception, the real volume of
2. 
The duration of the registration of a Design is world trade has nearly tripled, and average tariffs have
initially twenty years from the date of registration. almost halved.

ECONOMY  49
• Global Value Chains: Trade within these interconnected Conclusion
production networks now accounts for almost 70% of The Marrakesh Agreement’s legacy lies in fostering a more
global merchandise trade. interconnected and prosperous world. By addressing current
• Developing Country Growth: The WTO era has challenges and adapting to the evolving global landscape, the
witnessed the fastest decline in poverty rates and a rise in WTO can continue to play a vital role in promoting free and
purchasing power across the globe. fair trade for the benefit of all nations.
• Trade Agreements & Rules: The WTO has facilitated
numerous trade agreements like the TRIPS Agreement, EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
the Nairobi Package, and the Trade Facilitation
Prelims MCQ
Agreement, promoting international trade rules and
regulations. Q. 
With reference to the World Trade Organization
(WTO), consider the following statements:

1. 
It was established under the provisions of the
Marrakesh Agreement.

2. The WTO agreements apply only to the goods and

services but do not apply to intellectual property
rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a

Descriptive Question
Q. Assess the achievements and challenges faced by the
World Trade Organization (WTO) since its inception.
How have WTO agreements impacted global trade
dynamics and economic development? [15 Marks]
[250 words]

URBAN COOPERATIVE BANKS (UCB)

Why in News: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has imposed
restrictions on several Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs),
including capping withdrawal limits for National Urban Co-
operative Bank Ltd and Sarvodaya Co-operative Bank.

Understanding UCBs
• Definition: UCBs are primary cooperative banks
operating in urban and semi-urban areas.

50 ECONOMY
• Regulation: They function under the respective State By addressing these critical issues, the RBI and relevant
Cooperative Societies Act or Multi-State Cooperative authorities can work towards ensuring the stability and growth
Societies Act, 2002. of the UCB sector, safeguarding the interests of depositors and
• RBI’s Categorization: RBI categorizes UCBs into four promoting a healthy financial ecosystem in India.
tiers based on their deposit size for regulatory purposes.
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
Dual Regulation of UCBs Prelims MCQ

• RBI’s Role: Regulates and supervises banking functions Q. With reference to Urban Cooperative Banks in India,
under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. consider the following statements:

State/Central Registrar’s Role: Oversees managerial,

•  1. They are supervised and regulated by local boards
administrative, and other non-banking matters. set up by the State Governments.

• Deposit Insurance Cover: Eligible depositors in these 2. They can issue equity shares and preference shares.
banks are entitled to claim up to Rs. 5 lakhs from the 3. 
They were brought under the purview of the
Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation Banking Regulation Act, 1949 through an
(DICGC). Amendment in 1996.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Issues Plaguing UCBs
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
• Financial Instability (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b
¾ Inadequate capital base and low capital adequacy
ratios. Descriptive Question
¾ High gross non-performing assets (NPA) ratio of
Q. What are the issues faced by the Urban Cooperative
8.7% compared to the banking sector average. Banks (UCBs)? Examine the reasons behind the
• Regulatory Disparity: Lack of uniformity in regulations Reserve Bank of India’s decision to impose restrictions,
across different states. including capping withdrawal limits, on several Urban
Cooperative Banks (UCBs). [15 Marks] [250 words]
• Governance Concerns: Influence of political interests in
the management of certain UCBs.
UNCTAD REPORT ON GLOBAL
TRADE
Why in News: The United Nations Conference on Trade and
Development (UNCTAD) recently published a concerning
update to its Trade and Development Report.
Key Details
• Global trade dipped 3% to USD 31 trillion in 2023 after
peaking in 2022. The downturn was driven by less
demand in developed economies and weaker trade in
East Asia and Latin America.
• The downturn was driven by a 5% fall in trade in goods.
Meanwhile, trade in services bucked the negative trend,
Way Forward growing by 8%.

• Strengthening Capital Base: UCBs need to improve their • Developed Economies’ Monetary Policy Impact:
capital adequacy ratios to enhance financial resilience. Tightening monetary policies in major developed economies
have had a cascading effect on developing countries:
• Tackling NPAs: Effective NPA recovery measures and
stricter loan disbursement practices are crucial. ¾ Increased Debt Servicing Costs.

• Uniform Regulatory Framework: A consistent regulatory ¾ Currency Depreciation.

framework across all states is essential for improved ¾ Domestic Economic Slowdown.
governance. • Global Debt Crisis: Developing countries are grappling
• Professionalizing Management: Minimizing political with a worsening debt crisis:
interference and promoting professional management ¾ Net Negative Resource Transfer: In 2022, developing
practices within UCBs. countries collectively paid $50 billion more to external
• Technology Adoption: Embracing digital technologies creditors than they received in new loans, marking
can improve operational efficiency and transparency. the first net negative resource transfer since 2008.

ECONOMY  51
Challenges Conclusion
• Unsustainable Debt Burdens: Developing countries By acknowledging the interconnectedness of global economic
require debt relief and restructuring mechanisms to challenges and taking coordinated action, the international
alleviate their unsustainable debt burdens and free up community can work towards a more stable and equitable
resources for critical development needs. future for all nations.
• Vulnerability to External Shocks: The report highlights
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
the vulnerability of developing countries to external
economic shocks originating from developed economies, Prelims MCQ
emphasizing the need for a more equitable and resilient
global financial system. Q1. In the context of the Indian economy, non-financial
• Need for Coordinated Action: Effective solutions debt includes which of the following?
require coordinated international action to address the 1. Housing loans owed by households
debt crisis, stabilize global trade, and ensure inclusive 2. Amounts outstanding on credit cards
economic growth.
3. Treasury bills
Related Development Select the correct answer using the code given below.
• IMF (International Monetary Fund) Executive Board
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
endorsed reforms: Recognizing the gravity of the
situation, the International Monetary Fund (IMF) has (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
endorsed reforms to enhance its capacity to support Answer: d
countries undergoing debt restructuring.
• These reforms aim to streamline the debt resolution Q2. Consider the following statements:
process and facilitate timely interventions during debt
crises. 1. Most of India’s external debt is owed by
governmental entities.

2. All of India’s external debt is denominated in US

dollars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: d

Descriptive Question

Q. Discuss the key findings highlighted in the latest

update of the United Nations Conference on Trade and
Development’s (UNCTAD) Trade and Development
Report. What are the major challenges identified in the
global trade and development landscape? [10 Marks]
[150 words]

52 ECONOMY
 SECTION

D ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY

SOIL EROSION IN WESTERN GHATS

Why in News: A recent study by the Indian Institute of
Technology Bombay (IIT-Bombay) has revealed a significant
increase in soil erosion rates across the WGR between 1990
and 2020.

Key Findings of Study

• The IIT-Bombay conducted study, using data from
LANDSAT-8 satellites and rainfall records, that reveals
a disturbing trend.
• Specific areas in Tamil Nadu and Gujarat witnessed
a staggering increase in soil erosion – 121% and 119%
respectively, compared to 1990.
• While Kerala registered the lowest soil loss, the overall erosion
rate across the Western Ghats rose by a concerning 94%.
• Furthermore, Maharashtra recorded the highest absolute
soil loss in 2020, with an average of 79 tons per hectare
per year.
Western Ghat

The Western Ghats stretch for about 1,600 km along

India’s western coast, encompassing six states: Gujarat,
Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.

They are recognized as one of the world’s eight “hottest

hotspots” for biodiversity and are best known for their
non-equatorial tropical evergreen forests.

The Western Ghats act as a barrier, influencing monsoon

patterns and contributing to the region’s unique climate.

Way Forward
• Climate-Smart Practices: Adopting climate-smart
agricultural practices that can better withstand changing
weather patterns is essential.
• Research and Monitoring: Continuous research on soil
erosion and mitigation strategies is crucial for effective
management.
Conclusion
Soil erosion presents a serious threat to the WGR’s ecological

ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY  53

health and the well-being of millions who depend on it. By ¾ Inequitable Distribution: Climate-vulnerable nations
adopting a multi-pronged approach that integrates policy and vital sectors like agriculture lack adequate
changes, sustainable practices, and community participation, funding despite their mitigation potential.
we can conserve this vital ecosystem for future generations. ¾ Data Tracking: Private sector adaptation actions
remain inadequately tracked, hindering effective
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
resource allocation.
Prelims MCQ Recommendations for Mobilizing Climate Finance
Q. Consider the following statements: • The WMO report proposes a multi-pronged approach:
• Transforming Financial Systems: This involves prioriti-
1. The Western Ghats are geologically older than the zing concessional financing, de-risking investments, and
Himalayan Mountain ranges. bridging the gap between climate and development needs.
2. Western Ghats are fold mountain. • Mobilizing Domestic Capital: Enabling policies and
regulatory frameworks are critical to unlock domestic
Which of the statements given above is are correct? capital markets for climate action.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only • Data Improvement: Availability of high-quality, granular
data is essential to measure progress and ensure efficient
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 resource management.
Answer: (a)
Initiatives to Improve Climate Finance
Positive developments includes:
Descriptive Question
• Global Climate Finance Framework (COP28, Dubai):
Q. Discuss the potential consequences of heightened soil This framework aims to streamline climate finance and
erosion rates on the ecological integrity, biodiversity, improve accountability.
and socio-economic dynamics of the Western Ghats
region. [10 Marks] [150 words] • France’s AFD 2050 Facility: This initiative supports
developing countries in implementing the Paris
Agreement.
• Just Energy Transition Partnerships (JETPs): These
STATE OF THE GLOBAL CLIMATE partnerships assist developing nations in transitioning
REPORT 2023 to clean energy in a just and equitable manner.
Why in News: The World Meteorological Organization’s Conclusion
(WMO) “State of the Global Climate 2023” report paints a
The WMO report underscores the urgency of mobilizing
grim picture, highlighting 2023 as the hottest year on record
adequate climate finance. Addressing the challenges through
with unprecedented extremes in weather patterns.
a combination of innovative financial instruments, domestic
Current State of Climate Finance resource mobilization, and improved data collection will be
crucial to bridge the funding gap and ensure a sustainable future.
• Climate finance flows nearly doubled between 2019-20
and 2021-22, reaching a total of $1.3 trillion. EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
• However, this is far from sufficient. A six-fold increase in Prelims MCQ
investments is needed by 2030 to stay on track for a 1.5°C
Q. “State of the Global Climate 2023” report was published
warming pathway as outlined in the Paris Agreement. by
• The report reveals an uneven distribution of climate
(a) World Meteorological Organization.
finance. A significant portion (90% of the increase) went
to just six countries: China, the USA, Europe, Brazil, (b) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change.
Japan, and India.
(c) World Resources Institute
• Additionally, sectors with high mitigation potential, such
as agriculture and industry in developing countries, are (d) United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction
receiving insufficient funds. Answer: (a)
• The report also emphasizes the need for better tracking of Descriptive Question
adaptation efforts undertaken by the private sector.
Q. What steps can be taken to enhance global cooperation
Challenges in Climate Finance and coordination in addressing climate change,
including efforts to reduce emissions, increase
• Financing Gap: Investments need to grow six-fold by
resilience, and support vulnerable communities?
2030 to achieve a 1.5°C pathway, as outlined in the Paris
[10 Marks] [150 words]
Agreement.

54 ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY

 WORLD WATER DEVELOPMENT
REPORT 2024
Why in News: The United Nation’s World Water Development
Report 2024, titled “Water for Prosperity and Peace,” sheds
light on the crucial role water plays in maintaining global
stability and economic well-being.

Key Findings of Report

• Current Water Resource Status: The report highlights

several alarming statistics:

¾ Agriculture’s Dominance: A staggering 70% of global

freshwater withdrawals are used for agriculture.

¾ Shrinking Water Bodies: Lake Chad, a vital source of

water in Africa, has shrunk by a staggering 90% in just
60 years, signifying the alarming rate of depletion.

¾ Uneven Cooperation: While collaboration over shared

surface water resources seems to be improving,
groundwater, a crucial source, remains largely
neglected in terms of cooperative management.

• The Challenge of Achieving SDG 6: The report underscores

the immense challenge in achieving SDG 6 due to:

¾ Water Scarcity’s Grip: A significant portion of the

world’s population (around 50%) grapples with
severe water scarcity for at least part of the year.

¾ Food Security at Risk: Regions like Northwest India

and North China are identified as hotspots where
water scarcity poses a major threat to food production.

• The Water-Prosperity Paradox: The report introduces

the concept of the “Water-Prosperity Paradox.”
¾ While developed water infrastructure can promote
economic growth, it often comes at a high cost,
limiting access to less wealthy nations.

Recommendations for Sustainable Water Management

The report proposes several key recommendations to ensure
the sustainable management of water resources:
Conclusion
1. Transboundary Agreements: Collaborative agreements
between countries sharing water resources as crucial for The UN World Water Development Report 2024 serves
equitable and sustainable management. as a stark reminder that water is not just a resource, but a
cornerstone of peace and prosperity.
2. Increased Private Investment: The report estimates that
achieving universal water access requires an annual EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
investment of around US $114 billion until 2030. Increased
Prelims MCQ
private sector participation can help bridge this gap.
Q. With reference to the United Nations Water (UN
3. Decoupling Water and Production: Industries must
Water), consider the following statements:
strive to reduce their water footprint. The report cites
Tata Chemicals as an example, highlighting their success (a) The United Nations agencies, programs and funds
in reducing groundwater usage by 99.4% through water with a water-related mandate are members of UN
recycling and management practices. Water.

ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY  55

 growth cannot be achieved at the cost of environmental
(b) United Nations Water Conference, 2023, was co-
destruction and people’s right to a healthy environment.”
hosted by the Governments of Denmark and the
USA. Key Points of the Judgement

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? • The Supreme Court underlined the necessity of an
eco-centric approach rather than anthropocentrism in
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only ecotourism management.
• Precautionary Principle of Environmental Conservation:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Under the Precautionary Principle, it states that “where
there are threats of serious or irreversible damage, lack
Answer: (a)
of full scientific certainty shall not be used as a reason
Descriptive Question
for postponing cost-effective measures to prevent such
Q. What is the significance of a water for sustainable environmental degradation.”
development and peace? How does water insecurity Loopholes
exacerbate existing inequalities and conflicts within • Undefined approach: The court’s strategy to recoup
and between nations? [15 Marks] [250 words]
repair expenditures lacks a clear approach, raising
questions about its effectiveness.
DECODING THE JUDGMENT ON • Ecosystem-Based Valuation: To accurately quantify
JIM CORBETT environmental harm, propose a valuation method based
on ecosystem services. In restoration plans, there is a
Why in News: Recently, the Supreme Court discovered the strong emphasis on conservation over money production.
fraudulent collaboration between politicians, forest officials,
• Prioritizing Ecosystem Services: The court fails to set
and local contractors that resulted in the illegal destruction of
a precedent by putting ecosystem services ahead of
6,000 trees in Jim Corbett National Park.
ecotourism in conservation efforts.
Key Details • Reference to International Precedents: Drawing on
• The court deemed the case a “classic case” of a link between international precedents, such as the rationale offered
politicians and authorities collaborating to devastate the by the International Court of Justice in Costa Rica v.
environment for short-term commercial gain. Nicaragua, could have improved understanding of
• Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra vs. State of Uttar procedures for assessing environmental harm and
Pradesh: According to the Supreme Court, “economic compensating for losses.

56 ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY

Conclusion Understanding of Earthquakes
Thus, incorporating ecosystem service valuation into legal • Taiwan’s vulnerability to earthquakes stems from its
and policy frameworks might have given a holistic method location along the Pacific Ring of Fire.
to deal with environmental deterioration and providing fair • This horseshoe-shaped zone encircles the Pacific Ocean
compensation for its effects. and is characterized by intense geological activity due to
the interaction of tectonic plates.
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
• The Philippine Sea Plate and the Eurasian Plate constantly
Prelims MCQ grind against each other, accumulating tension that
Q. Consider the following statements: releases abruptly as earthquakes.
The Science Behind Seismic Activity
1. 
The concept of ‘‘Tiger Safari’’ in the wild was
introduced by the Government in the Tourism • Earthquakes occur due to the sudden release of energy
Guidelines, 2012. stored in the Earth’s crust. This energy travels outward in
the form of waves called seismic waves.
2. The concept of ‘Safari’ is mentioned the Wild Life • These waves originate at the focus, or hypocenter, located
(Protection) Act, 1972.
deep within the Earth.
3. The Tiger Safari in the core regions of the National • The point directly above the focus on the surface is called
parks is prohibited. the epicenter, and it experiences the initial tremors.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two

(c) All three (d) None

Answer: (c) (All Three)

Descriptive Question
Q. 
How has this illegal deforestation affected the
biodiversity, ecosystem services, and natural heritage?
Explain legal and regulatory mechanisms are in place
to prevent and prosecute illegal deforestation and
environmental crimes in protected areas such as
national parks and wildlife sanctuaries? [15 Marks] Measuring Earthquake Strength
[250 words] • Seismographic networks equipped with seismic stations
monitor and measure these seismic waves.

TAIWAN’S RECENT EARTHQUAKE

Why in News: On April 3rd, 2024, Taiwan experienced
its strongest earthquake in nearly 25 years, registering a
magnitude of 7.2.

ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY  57

• From the wave amplitude, scientists can estimate the energy released, which translates to the earthquake’s magnitude
on the Richter scale.
The Pacific Ring of Fire
The Pacific Ring of Fire is notorious for its frequent earthquakes and volcanic eruptions. This intense activity is a direct
consequence of tectonic plate movement. Subduction zones, where one plate dives underneath another, are particularly prone
to volcanic activity.

Case of Taiwan
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
• Taiwan’s recent earthquake serves as a reminder of its
vulnerability due to its location on the Pacific Ring of Fire. Prelims MCQ
• While casualties were fortunately limited, the temblor
Q. Consider the following statements:
caused infrastructure damage and power outages. The
economic impact is still being assessed. 1. All natural earthquakes take place in the asthenos-
Mitigating Measures phere.

• Earthquake-resistant building codes: Implementing and 2. 

Velocity of the earthquake waves increases with
enforcing stricter building codes that consider earthquake increase in density of material through which they
forces can minimize structural damage and casualties. travel.
• Early warning systems: Establishing robust early warning 3. Direction of the earthquake waves changes as they
systems can provide crucial seconds for evacuation and reflect or refract when coming across materials with
preparation. different densities.
• Land-use planning: Avoiding construction in high-risk
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
zones like landslide-prone areas can minimize potential
damage. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
• International cooperation: Sharing expertise, technology,
and resources for earthquake preparedness, response, (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above
and reconstruction can enhance global resilience. Answer: (c) (1 and 3)

Conclusion
Earthquakes are inevitable, but their impacts can be Descriptive Question
mitigated through proactive measures. By prioritizing Q. Why Pacific Ring of Fire is notorious for its frequent
earthquake-resistant infrastructure, public preparedness, earthquakes and volcanic eruptions? Also explain,
and international cooperation, societies like Taiwan can what are the potential secondary hazards associated
build resilience and minimize the socio-economic and with the earthquake? [15 Marks] [250 words]
environmental consequences of these natural disasters.

58 ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY

 ROLE OF NUCLEAR ENERGY IN
MITIGATING CLIMATE CHANGE
Why in News: Nuclear energy, with its low carbon footprint
and reliable baseload power generation, has emerged as a
potential contender in the fight against climate change.
Nuclear Energy & Climate Change
• Low-Carbon Champion: Nuclear power plants are
champions of low-carbon electricity generation. Their
operation emits virtually no greenhouse gases, unlike fossil
fuels which are the primary culprits behind climate change.

¾ The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)

estimates nuclear power’s life-cycle emissions
to be a mere 5-6 grams of CO2 per kilowatt-hour,
significantly lower than coal and even renewable
sources like solar and wind.
¾ Historically, nuclear power has prevented an estimated
70 billion tonnes of carbon dioxide emissions.
• Reliable Baseload Power: Unlike wind and solar, which
are intermittent, nuclear power plants are reliable baseload
sources, providing consistent power generation 24/7.
¾ This stability is crucial for maintaining grid stability
and integrating a higher share of renewables into the
energy mix.
• Decarbonization Engine: Nuclear energy can directly
replace fossil fuel plants, accelerating the transition to a
clean energy future.
¾ Its potential extends beyond electricity generation.
¾ High-Temperature Reactors (HTRs) can provide
process heat for industrial applications like steel
and cement production, further decarbonizing these
sectors.

Nuclear Capacity of India

• Nuclear energy stands as the fifth-largest contributor to

India’s electricity, constituting approximately 3% of the
nation’s total power generation.

• India boasts over 22 nuclear reactors distributed across

7 power plants, collectively generating 6780 MW of
nuclear energy.

• Furthermore, the Kakrapar Atomic Power Project

(KAPP-3) successfully linked to the grid in January 2021.

• Among these reactors, 18 are Pressurised Heavy Water

Reactors (PHWRs) while 4 are Light Water Reactors
(LWRs).

• Notably, KAPP-3 represents India’s inaugural 700 MWe

unit and the most substantial domestically engineered
variant of the PHWR.

ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY  59

Conclusion This judgement came in response to a plea seeking protection
Nuclear energy presents a complex yet compelling solution for the Great Indian Bustard (GIB), an endangered bird
in the fight against climate change. While acknowledging its threatened by habitat loss due to power transmission lines.
safety and waste disposal challenges, it is crucial to leverage
• The court acknowledged the interconnectedness between
its potential for clean energy generation.
climate change and various human rights, including health,
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE indigenous rights, gender equality, and development.

Prelims MCQ The Importance of Fundamental Rights

Q. 
With reference to the fast breeder nuclear reactor, • Fundamental rights, enshrined in Part III (Articles 14
consider the following statements: to 32) of the Constitution, provide essential safeguards
1. It is a machine that produces more nuclear fuel than against government overreach.
it consumes. • They guarantee justice, fair play, and standards of
2. It uses the Uranium-Plutonium Mixed Oxide (MOX) conduct. These rights are justiciable, which means
fuel. individuals can approach courts for their protection.
3. It uses the liquid sodium as coolant.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None
Answer: (c) (All Three)

Descriptive Question
Q. Critically evaluate the environmental benefits and
risks associated with nuclear power, including its
contribution to reduce greenhouse gas emissions,
as well as concerns about nuclear waste disposal,
accidents, and proliferation? [15 Marks] [250 words]

RIGHT AGAINST ADVERSE

EFFECTS OF CLIMATE CHANGE
Why in News: In its recent judgement, the Supreme Court
of India’s has significantly expanded the scope of Articles 14
and 21 of the Constitution. This landmark decision recognizes
the “right against the adverse effects of climate change” as a
fundamental right.
Key Details
Way Forward

• Strengthening Environmental Legislation: Existing

environmental laws can be reviewed and strengthened to
better address climate change concerns.

• Policy and Planning with Climate in Mind: Policymakers

need to integrate climate change considerations all
aspects of development planning.

• Climate Litigation: This judgement could pave the way

for increased climate litigation, holding the government
accountable for inaction.

Conclusion
The Supreme Court’s recognition of the right against climate
change marks a significant step forward. By taking the
steps outlined above, India can effectively tackle this global
challenge and ensure the well-being of its citizens.

60 ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY

 EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ

Q. 
Which of the following constitutional provisions
declares the “Right against the adverse effects of
climate change” as a Fundamental Right?

(a) Article 14 and Article 48A

(b) Article 21 and Article 51A

(c) Article 14 and Article 51A

(d) Article 14 and Article 21

Answer: (d)

Descriptive Question

Q. How does Supreme court expanded the interpretation

and application of Articles 14 (right to equality) and
21 (right to life and personal liberty) of the Indian
Constitution to encompass environmental protection
and climate justice over the time? [15 Marks] [250
words] Mitigation Strategies for GLOF Risks
• Risk Assessment and Early Warning Systems: A
thorough risk assessment of all glacial lakes, including
GLACIAL LAKE OUTBURST those beyond the initial five, is crucial.
FLOODS (GLOFS) ¾ This should be followed by the development of robust
early warning systems to detect potential GLOF
Why in News: The Uttarakhand government has constituted events and provide timely warnings to downstream
two teams of experts to evaluate the risk posed by five communities.
potentially hazardous glacial lakes in the region.
• Enhanced Research: Increased research on glacial lake
Understanding of GLOFs dynamics and past GLOF events is crucial for better risk
• GLOFs are sudden and catastrophic floods caused by the assessment.
outburst of water from glacial lakes.
• Advanced Monitoring: Utilizing satellite imagery and
• These lakes form when retreating glaciers leave remote sensing technologies can facilitate continuous
depressions that fill with meltwater. monitoring of glacial lakes.
• As glaciers recede due to rising temperatures, these lakes • Community Preparedness: Developing and disseminating
can grow larger and become increasingly unstable. clear and localized emergency preparedness plans for at-
risk communities is essential.
• Unstable surrounding terrain, avalanches, or landslides
can trigger the sudden release of massive amounts of • Infrastructure Development Regulations: Implementing
water, sediment, and debris, leading to devastating stricter regulations for infrastructure development in
downstream floods. vulnerable areas can minimize disruption to natural
drainage patterns.
Geographical Distribution of GLOFs
• Mountainous Regions: GLOFs are prevalent in glacial • Addressing Climate Change: Combating climate change
regions, especially in the Himalayas, Andes, and Alps. is the root cause of glacial retreat and increased GLOF risk.

• Focus on the Himalayas: Since 1980, GLOFs have Conclusion

become more frequent in the Himalayas, particularly in
GLOFs pose a significant threat to the Indian Himalayas
southeastern Tibet and the China-Nepal border.
due to their increasing frequency and destructive potential.
• India’s Vulnerability: The National Disaster Addressing this challenge requires a multi-pronged approach,
Management Authority (NDMA) has identified 188 including enhanced research, advanced monitoring, robust
glacial lakes in the Indian Himalayas prone to breach early warning systems, community preparedness, and
due to heavy rainfall. sustainable development practices.

ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY  61

 Significance of EV Battery Recycling
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
• Resource Recovery: EV batteries contain valuable non-
Prelims MCQ renewable materials like lithium, nickel, and zinc.

Q. Consider the following statements related to Glacial ¾ Recycling recovers these materials, reducing
Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs): dependence on virgin resource extraction, which can
be environmentally destructive.
1. It can be caused due to the failure of the moraine • Environmental Protection: Improper battery disposal
dam. can lead to heavy metal contamination of soil and water.
2. It can occur in various geological settings where ¾ Recycling minimizes waste and promotes a circular
landslides block rivers or valleys, leading to the economy.
formation of landslide-dammed lakes.
• Cost Reduction: Recovered materials can be used in
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? new battery production, reducing costs and promoting
affordability.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
¾ India aims to achieve 90% battery recycling by 2026-
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 27 under the Battery Waste Management Rules, 2022.
Answer: (c) (both 1 and 2)
• Economic Potential: India’s EV battery recycling market
Descriptive Question is projected to reach $300 billion by 2030, creating new
jobs and economic opportunities.
Q. What are the specific criteria used to identify and
prioritize the five potentially hazardous glacial lakes
in Uttarakhand for risk assessment, and what factors
contribute to their susceptibility to outburst floods? [15
Marks] [250 words]

ELECTRIC VEHICLE (EV) BATTERY

RECYCLING STARTUPS
Why in News: Recently, India-EU initiative for EV battery
recycling startups which presents a significant opportunity
to accelerate India’s clean energy transition.

Key Details
• Identifying Promising Players: Six innovators each from
India and the EU will be selected to present their cutting-
edge EV battery recycling technologies.

¾ This will not only provide a platform for these

startups/SMEs to showcase their expertise but also
allow them to connect with potential partners and
investors.

• Facilitating Collaboration: By bringing together key

India’s Efforts
players from both regions, the event intends to foster
deeper customer relationships and explore avenues • Battery Waste Management Rules (Amendment)
for trade and investment in the domain of EV battery 2023: These rules establish mandatory phase-in
recycling technologies. targets for using recycled materials in new batteries,
aiming to reach 20% by 2030-31 for both portable and
India’s Startup Culture EV batteries.
• India’s startup scene is booming, solidifying its position
• Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR): The rules
as one of the world’s top three startup ecosystems.
introduce a system of transactable EPR certificates for
• In 2021, a staggering 44 Indian startups achieved producers based on the weight of batteries processed,
unicorn status. This growth is further fueled by a incentivizing them to invest in environmentally sound
significant surge in funding, with total funding for management systems.
startups increasing by 15 times from 2015 to 2022.

62 ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY

Way Forward Key Details
• Collaboration and Technology Transfer: India-EU • Coal’s Continued Role: The report acknowledges coal’s
collaboration can facilitate knowledge sharing, technol- continued relevance as the backbone of India’s energy
ogy transfer, and joint research and development in EV system for the next two decades.
battery recycling technologies. ¾ This reflects the reality of India’s current energy mix
• Standardization and Investment: Developing standar- and the need for a gradual transition.
dized processes and investing in infrastructure will • Indispensability of Nuclear and Renewable Energy:
improve efficiency and attract private investments. However, achieving net zero by 2070 demands a significant
• Financial Incentives: Providing subsidies or tax breaks increase in nuclear and renewable energy generation.
can encourage setting up recycling units and promote the ¾ This shift is crucial for decarbonizing the electricity
use of recycled materials. sector, a major contributor to greenhouse gas emissions.
Conclusion • Critical Minerals: The report emphasizes the importance
By addressing the existing challenges and leveraging India- of refurbishing, recycling, and recovering minerals.
EU collaboration, India can establish a robust and sustainable This is essential to meet the future demand for minerals
EV battery recycling ecosystem. This will not only contribute required in clean energy technologies.
to a cleaner environment and resource security but also • Carbon Capture Technologies: Exploring carbon dioxide
unlock significant economic benefits and propel India’s clean removal technologies like bioenergy with carbon capture
energy transition. and storage (BECCS) and carbon capture, utilization,
and storage (CCUS) becomes vital for offsetting residual
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE emissions.
Prelims MCQ Recommendations and their Implications
• Life Cycle Assessments and Incentive Design: The
Q. In India, ‘Extended Producer Responsibility’ was
introduced as an important feature in which of the report recommends conducting life cycle assessments of
following? alternative energy systems and linking incentives to their
net mitigation potential.
(a) The Bio-medical waste (Management and Handling) • Focus on Domestic Resources: Investing in developing
Rules, 1998 renewable and battery technologies based on domestically
available mineral resources is crucial.
(b) The Recycled Plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) ¾ For instance, using vanadium-based flow batteries
Rules, 2011 for stationary applications and EV charging
infrastructure can leverage India’s rich vanadium
(c) 
The e-waste (Management and Handling) Rules, reserves.
2011

(d) The Food Safety and Standard Regulation, 2011

Answer: (c)

Descriptive Question

Q. What policy frameworks and regulatory measures are

necessary to facilitate the sustainable and responsible
recycling of EV batteries in India? What are the
potential environmental and socio-economic benefits
of effective EV battery recycling? [15 Marks] [250
words]

“SYNCHRONIZING ENERGY
TRANSITIONS TOWARD POSSIBLE
NET ZERO FOR INDIA”REPORT
Why in News: Recently, the “Synchronizing energy transitions • Regulatory Changes for Hydrogen Blending: Regulatory
toward possible Net Zero for India” report has been changes to reflect hydrogen blending limits in natural
launched by the Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser to gas networks can facilitate a smoother transition towards
the Government of India. cleaner fuels.

ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY  63

• Uranium Storage Facilities: The report highlights the • Additionally, IMD has the authority to declare a heat
need for uranium storage facilities to ensure resilience in wave if the recorded maximum temperature exceeds 45
the face of potential disruptions to nuclear power. This degrees C, and categorize it as a ‘severe heat wave’ if it
will be crucial for maintaining energy security during the surpasses 47 degrees C.
transition.
Challenges of Above-Normal Temperatures and Heatwaves
Conclusion • Heat-Related Illnesses: Heatwaves can cause heatstroke,
The “Synchronizing energy transitions toward possible Net dehydration, and exacerbate pre-existing medical
Zero for India” report offers a comprehensive roadmap for conditions, particularly amongst vulnerable populations
achieving net zero emissions while ensuring energy security like children, the elderly, and outdoor workers.
and affordability. By implementing its recommendations ¾ A 2016 study by the Indian Institute of Technology
and addressing the associated challenges, India can chart a Delhi attributed 1,826 deaths to heatwaves in India
sustainable energy future for all its citizens. between 1999 and 2016.
• Impact on Agriculture: For example, the 2015 heatwave
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE in Maharashtra significantly impacted wheat production.
• Water Scarcity: Heatwaves increase evaporation rates,
Prelims MCQ
leading to a higher demand for water for irrigation and
Q. Consider the following: household needs.
• Energy Demand and Emissions: Rising temperatures
1. Coal is projected to continue until the next two decades
as the backbone of the Indian energy system. drive up demand for electricity for cooling purposes,
putting pressure on the power grid.
2. Net-zero is not possible without substantial nuclear
• Climate Change: Increased reliance on coal-fired power
power and Renewable Energy (RE) generation.
plants to meet this demand can lead to higher greenhouse
3. Out of total finance the considerable amount must gas emissions, contradicting India’s NDC (Nationally
be foreign inflows. Determined Contributions) under the Paris Agreement.
How many of the above are the conclusions drawn by • Ecosystems and Air Quality: Heatwaves can disrupt
the Synchronizing Energy Transitions Toward Possible ecological processes and increase air pollution due to
Net Zero for India: Affordable and Clean Energy for All stagnant air conditions.
Report?
(a) Only one (b) Only two Exacerbating Existing Issues
The IMD’s forecast comes at a time when India is already
(c) All three (d) None grappling with challenges like:
Answer: (c) (All Three)
• Declining Hydropower Generation: India’s hydroele-
ctricity output fell significantly in the year ending March
Descriptive Question 31, 2024, reducing the availability of clean energy during
peak summer demand.
Q. What are the specific challenges and opportunities
for India in transitioning to a low-carbon economy, • Power Shortage: India faces an ongoing power shortage, and
considering its unique socio-economic context such the heatwave is likely to exacerbate this problem, leading to
as low per capita energy consumption and developm- potential blackouts and disruptions in essential services.
ental priorities as a developing nation? [15 Marks] [250
words]

HEAT WAVE
Why in News: Recently, the India Meteorological Depart-
ment’s (IMD) released forecast of above-normal temperatures
and heatwave days across most parts of India during the
upcoming hot weather season (April-June) 2024.

What is Heat Wave?

• According to IMD criteria, a heat wave is announced
when the maximum temperature at a weather station
reaches a minimum of 40 degrees C in low-lying areas
and at least 30 degrees C in mountainous regions, with
a deviation of approximately 4.5-6.4 degrees C from the
usual maximum temperature.

64 ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY

 Key Details
• Its objectives are to promote sustainability, cut down on
waste, and enhance the environment.
• According to a brochure from the Environment Ministry,
the GCP initiative bills itself as a “innovative, market-
based mechanism” to reward “voluntary actions” for
environmental conservation.
• In October, 2023, pursuant to the Environment Protection
Act of 1986, a new set of regulations were promulgated.

Conclusion
The IMD’s seasonal outlook necessitates a proactive approach
from the government, local authorities, and communities.
By mitigating the risks associated with heatwaves and
capitalizing on the potential for improved resource
management and renewable energy development, India can
navigate this challenging season and build resilience for a
hotter future.

EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ
Q. Consider the following:
1. Prevalence of the dry air
2. Absence of moisture in the upper atmosphere
3. Clear Skies
4. Large amplitude anti-cyclonic flow over the area
Potential Discrepancies and Clarifications in the Green
How many of the above are the factors that are collectively Credit Programme (GCP) Guidelines
responsible for the occurrence of the heat waves in India?
• Previously: Sources indicated that green credits issued
(a) Only one (b) Only two under the GCP were not tradable.

(c) Only three (d) All four • Current Guidelines: The notified 2023 GCP rules establish
Answer: (d) (All Four) a program designed to incentivize environmentally
beneficial actions through market mechanisms. These
mechanisms explicitly include the trading of green credits
Descriptive Question
on a designated domestic market platform.
Q. 
What factors are driving the forecasted increase in
temperatures and heatwave frequency in India? How • Additional Considerations: The guidelines acknowledge
can urban planning and infrastructure development that verifiable reductions or removals of carbon emissions
incorporate strategies to reduce the urban heat island achieved through green credit generation may also
effect and enhance resilience to heatwaves? [15 Marks] qualify for carbon credits, which are currently traded on
[250 words] separate, established markets.
• Calculation Discrepancy: The latest guidelines seemingly
GREEN CREDIT PROGRAM shift the responsibility for calculating restoration costs of
degraded forest landscapes to individual states.
Why in News: The Union Environment Ministry (MoEFCC)
has released guidelines that States must rely on to determine • Minimum Tree Count Removal: Notably, the previous
how much it would cost to repair a damaged forest minimum requirement of 1,100 trees per hectare to
environment, raising concerns that the GCP would promote qualify as a reforested landscape has been eliminated.
tree planting for financial benefit. The 2023 GCP empowers individual states to determine
this threshold.

ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY  65

Conclusion Key Findings of the Report
The Green Credit Initiative (GCI) aims to incentivize • Europe’s climate is changing rapidly, warming at double
environmental actions through a market-based system the global rate. This threatens human health, glaciers,
awarding “Green Credits.” Concerns exist regarding potential and economic activity.
prioritization of financial gain over ecological restoration due • In 2022, renewables surpassed fossil fuels for electricity
to tradable green credits and state discretion in calculating generation for the second year in a row, reaching 43%.
restoration costs. Clarification is needed to ensure GCI
• Compared to the global average of 1.3 degrees Celsius,
aligns with its goals of sustainability and environmental
Europe’s temperatures are now 2.3 degrees Celsius
improvement.
higher than pre-industrial times.
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE • Heatwaves, wildfires, and melting glaciers are becoming
more severe, causing health problems and economic losses.
Prelims MCQ • Europe has seen record-breaking temperatures for 10
months straight, ending in March 2023.
Q. 
With reference to the Green Credit Programme,
consider the following statements: • Heat-related deaths are rising, and weather-related economic
losses are estimated to exceed 13.4 billion euros in 2023.
1. Green Credits under this programme can be traded
for financial benefits on a domestic market platform. • The Alps have lost about 10% of their glacial ice in just
two years due to high temperatures and extreme weather.
2. This programme was launched as part of the Carbon
Credit Trading Scheme 2023.

3. 
It also grants Green credits to those involved in
sustainable agriculture practices.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two

(c) All three (d) None

Answer: (b) (1 and 3 only)

Descriptive Question
Q. Elaborate the Green Credit Initiative (GCI)? What
are the concerns about environmental conservation
through a market-based system awarding? [15 Marks]
[250 words]

Conclusion
EUROPE IS ‘WARMING FASTER
Europe’s rapid warming (double the global rate) poses dangers
THAN ANY OTHER CONTINENT’ from heatwaves to glacial melt. Despite rising heat-related
Why in News: According to recent research by the climate and deaths and economic losses, Europe has an opportunity to
meteorological service of the European Union, the number of combat climate change by transitioning to renewable energy
heat-related deaths in Europe has increased by at least 30% in sources like wind, solar, and hydropower.
the last 20 years.
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
Key Details
Prelims MCQ
• Europe is the fastest-warming continent and its
temperatures are rising at roughly twice the global average. Q1. 
In the context of which of the following do some
scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning
• In a joint report, the World Meteorological Organisation technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into
of the United Nations and Copernicus, the climate the stratosphere?
agency of the European Union, stated that in response to
the effects of climate change. (a) Creating artificial rains in some regions
• The continent has the chance to develop focused strategies
to accelerate the transition to renewable resources like (b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical
wind, solar, and hydroelectric power. cyclones

66 ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY

 • This stratovolcano forms a separate island approximately
(c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the
4 kilometers by 5 kilometers in dimension. Its summit
Earth
features a partially formed lava dome, reaching an
(d) Reducing the global warming elevation of 725 meters.
Answer: (d)
• From this vantage point, one can observe the peaks of
Q2. 
With reference to the ‘Heat Domes,’ consider the Klabat, Siau, and Ternate volcanoes respectively to the
following statements: south, north, and east.
1. It occurs when the atmosphere traps hot ocean air • The volcanic activity of Mount Ruang dates back to at
like a lid.
least 1808, as documented by the first recorded eruption.
2. This is the result of air convection from the sea
surface. Reasons behind frequent eruptions in Indonesia this
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? year?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only • Indonesia’s frequent volcanic eruptions are a consequence
of its geographic location.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) (Both 1 and 2) • The archipelago nation, populated by over 270 million
people, is situated along the Pacific Ocean’s “Ring of
Descriptive Question Fire.”
Q. 
How do heatwaves and extreme heat events affect • This horseshoe-shaped zone encompasses a series of
human health, particularly vulnerable populations? seismic fault lines, making the region highly susceptible
What adaptation measures and public health to volcanic activity.
interventions are being implemented in Europe to
reduce the risks associated with heatwaves? [15 Marks] What are Stratovolcanoes?
[250 words]
• Stratovolcanoes, also known as composite volcanoes,
are a distinctive type of volcano characterized by their
MOUNT RUANG towering conical form and steep slopes. In contrast to
shield volcanoes, which are broad and relatively flat,
Why in News: Recently, the Ruang mountain volcano erupted
stratovolcanoes rise to impressive heights.
multiple times, sending ash and lava hundreds of feet into the
air, prompting Indonesian authorities to issue a tsunami alert. • These geological giants are frequently found along
About Mount Ruang subduction zones, regions where tectonic plates converge.
The Pacific Ocean’s fiery rim, known as the Ring of Fire, is
• Mount Ruang is located within the Sangihe Islands arc, in
a prime example of such a zone and is home to numerous
Indonesia’s North Sulawesi province.
stratovolcanoes.

• Comprising roughly 60% of Earth’s volcanoes, stratovol-canoes erupt with a unique type of lava – andesite and dacite.
These lavas are cooler and thicker than common basalt, making them more sluggish in their flow. This characteristic
viscosity traps gas within the magma, leading to frequent and often explosive eruptions.
• Stratovolcanoes are aptly named for their layered structure, a consequence of alternating episodes of lava flows and the
expulsion of pyroclastic material (ash and rock fragments).

ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY  67

 Challenges
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
• Despite the progress, challenges persist. The financial
Prelims MCQ health of state-owned power distribution companies
(DISCOMs) is a major concern.
Q. The Ruang volcano, recently in the news for its frequent
eruptions, is located on • The long and unsustainable payment cycles for renewable
energy purchases act as a roadblock.
(a) Spratly Islands (b) Barren Islands • Land acquisition is another hurdle. Issues like lack of
proper land use policies, poorly maintained land records,
(c) Ogasawara Islands (d) Sulawesi Islands
and lengthy permission processes from local bodies
Answer: (d) hinder large-scale project implementation.

Descriptive Question
Q. What are Stratovolcanoes? State the reasons behind
frequent volcanic eruptions in the Indonesia. [10
Marks] [150 words]

INDIA POWERS AHEAD IN

RENEWABLE ENERGY
Why in News: India’s renewable energy sector is witnessing
a significant surge, with a 21% increase in capacity addition
in FY24 compared to the previous year.

Growth Trajectory and Leading States

• Driven by solar (12.78 GW) and wind energy (2.27 GW)
installations, India’s total renewable energy capacity has
witnessed a remarkable increase from 76.37 GW in 2014
to 178.98 GW in October 2023.
• This translates to nearly 2.34 times growth in less than a
decade.
• States like Gujarat and Rajasthan (27 GW each) hold the
top spot in terms of installed renewable energy capacity,
followed by Tamil Nadu (22 GW), Karnataka (21 GW),
and Maharashtra (17 GW).
• Himachal Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh have also made
significant contributions with 11 GW each.
Aiming for a Greener Future
• At COP26, India pledged an ambitious target of achieving
a 500 GW non-fossil fuel energy capacity by 2030.
Way Forward
• This translates to fulfilling at least half of the country’s
India’s record capacity addition in FY24 signifies a positive
energy requirements through renewable sources.
step towards a sustainable future. Going forward, the
• To achieve this, the MNRE is aiming to bid around 50 following measures can further propel the nation’s renewable
GW of renewable energy projects annually. energy journey:
• India’s existing non-fossil fuel capacity, including large 1. Streamlining Land Acquisition: Implementing a robust
hydro and nuclear, has seen a massive 396% increase in land use policy for efficient land allocation and quicker
the last 8.5 years, reaching over 190.97 GW. project approvals.
• This currently constitutes around 44% of the nation’s
2. Grid Modernization: Upgrading and expanding the
total capacity (as of Feb 2024).
national grid to handle the integration of large-scale
• The renewable energy sector has the potential to generate renewable energy sources.
significant employment opportunities. Estimates suggest
that by 2030, the sector could create around one million 3. Storage Solutions: Investing in energy storage solutions
jobs, primarily driven by small-scale renewable energy like pumped hydro storage to address the intermittent
projects. nature of renewable energy sources.

68 ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY

 EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ

Q. Consider the following statements with reference to the

Solar Thermal Power Plant:

1. It converts the mechanical energy into electricity by

using a turbine.

2. It is able to store the energy in the form of heat to

generate electricity during the night time.

3. It uses nuclear fusion of the Deuterium and Tritium

to generate the heat.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two

(c) All three (d) None

Answer: (c) (1 and 2 only)

Descriptive Question

Q. How does the expansion of India’s renewable energy Way Forward

sector contribute to job creation, economic growth,
Achieving lasting environmental improvement requires a
energy security, and climate mitigation efforts? [10
Marks] [150 words] collaborative approach:
• Sustained Government Intervention: Continued gove-
rnment support for infrastructure development, public
ENVIRONMENTAL PERFORMANCE education, and capacity building at the local level is essential.
INDEX (EPI) • Role of Civil Society: Civil society organizations can play
a crucial role in promoting behavior change, monitoring
Why in News: India’s ranking at the bottom of the 2022 progress, and advocating for resource allocation.
Environmental Performance Index (EPI) has sparked debate
• Focus on Waste Management: Developing sustainable
about the effectiveness of the Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM).
waste management systems across rural and urban areas
Understanding the EPI and its Connection to SBM is key to achieve clean and healthy environments.
• The EPI is a global ranking system that assesses countries’ • Data-Driven Strategies: Utilizing data to identify
performance across three key areas: climate change, persisting challenges and tailor interventions to specific
environmental health, and ecosystem vitality. needs will optimize resource allocation and program
effectiveness.
• Sanitation, a key focus of SBM, falls under the
Conclusion
environmental health category.
The Swachh Bharat Mission has undoubtedly transformed
• India’s poor ranking on the EPI raises questions about India’s sanitation landscape. However, the EPI ranking
whether SBM has adequately addressed broader serves as a reminder of the need for a broader environmental
environmental issues related to sanitation, such as waste approach.
management.
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
The Swachh Bharat Mission and its Achievements and
Prelims MCQ
Impact:
Q. With reference to the Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin),
It was launched in 2014, SBM aimed to achieve universal consider the following statements:
sanitation coverage by 2019. SBM comprised two sub- 1. 
Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin) is the only
missions: Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin) for rural areas sanitation programme implemented by the
and Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban) for cities. Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation.

ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY  69

 Global Efforts to Address Plastic Waste
2. 
Construction of Community Sanitary Complexes
(CSCs) is one of the objectives of this programme.
Several international initiatives have addressed plastic
Which of the statements given above are correct?
pollution:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
• London Convention (1972): Regulates dumping waste
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 and other matter in the ocean.
Answer: (c) (Both 1 and 2)
• Clean Seas Campaign (2017): A UN Environment
Descriptive Question Programme campaign raising awareness about plastic
pollution.
Q. How has the Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) contributed
to improving access to sanitation, reducing open • Basel Convention (amended in 2019): Regulates plastic
defecation, and addressing other environmental waste as a controlled material.
challenges related to water quality, waste management,
and public health in India? [15 Marks] [250 words] • India’s Initiatives: Policies like Extended Producer
Responsibility (EPR), Plastic Waste Management Rules,
Swachh Bharat Abhiyan, Plastic Parks, and beach clean-
COMBATING PLASTIC POLLUTION up drives demonstrate India’s commitment to tackle
Why in News: Negotiations for the first-ever global treaty plastic pollution.
to tackle plastic pollution kick off in Ottawa, Canada, with
the aim of curbing plastic production and its environmental Challenges to the Treaty
impact.
Negotiating a global treaty presents significant hurdles:
Why a Global Treaty?
• Plastic production has witnessed an alarming surge, • Geopolitical Disagreements: Countries like Saudi Arabia,
rising from a mere 2 million tonnes in 1950 to over 450 Russia, and Iran oppose production caps and employ
million tonnes in 2019. delaying tactics to impede progress.
• With plastic’s slow decomposition rate and limited • Consensus vs. Majority Vote: The agreement mechanism
recycling (less than 10%), plastic pollution has reached (consensus or majority vote) remains undecided.
staggering levels.
• High-Ambition Coalition: A group of 65 nations pushing
for ambitious targets, including production reduction,
lacks the US, a major fossil fuel producer.

Way Forward

The proposed treaty has the potential to be a landmark

environmental agreement, comparable to the 2015 Paris
Agreement on climate change. It could:

• Establish Binding Targets: Set legally binding targets

for plastic reduction, recycling, and recycled content in
products.

• Financial Assistance: Outline how developed nations

can support developing countries in achieving plastic
reduction goals.

• Ban Certain Plastics: Potentially ban specific plastic types,

products, and harmful chemical additives.

A successful treaty hinges on overcoming industry resistance,

achieving international consensus, and ensuring strong
enforcement mechanisms. Global cooperation is crucial to
curb plastic pollution and safeguard our planet for future
generations.

70 ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY

 EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ

Q. Consider the following statements with reference to

Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016:

1. These rules were notified under the Environment

(Protection) Act, 1986.

2. These rules aim to increase the minimum thickness

of plastic carry bags from 40 to 50 microns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) (Both 1 and 2)

Descriptive Question
Impact on Development Goals
Q. Evaluate the key environmental and human health These financing challenges have a domino effect, jeopardizing
concerns associated with plastic pollution? What are progress on various SDGs. The report warns that:
the roles and responsibilities of different stakeholders,
including governments, industry, civil society • Extreme Poverty Persists: Nearly 600 million people
organizations, and consumers, in addressing plastic could remain trapped in extreme poverty by 2030, with
pollution? [15 Marks] [250 words] women disproportionately affected.
• Stalled Progress: Existing gains in healthcare, education,
and other development areas are at risk of backsliding
without adequate investment.
UN REPORT CALLS FOR URGENT
ACTION ON SDG FINANCING
Why in News: The recent release of the United Nations’
“Financing for Sustainable Development Report 2024” paints
a concerning picture.

Understanding the SDGs

• It was adopted by all UN member states in 2015. The

SDGs are a set of 17 interconnected goals aimed at
achieving a sustainable future for all by 2030.

• These goals encompass aspects like poverty eradication,

quality education, good health, clean water and
sanitation, and climate action.

A Journey of Global Collaboration

• The SDGs represent the culmination of a long-standing
commitment to sustainable development.

• This journey began with Agenda 21, adopted at the 1992

Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro.

• Subsequent milestones like the Millennium Summit and Way Forward

Rio+20 the, World Summit on Sustainable Development • Closing Financing Gaps: Urgent action is needed to
in South Africa in 2002, further emphasized the need for mobilize resources and close the financing gap for SDG
international cooperation on sustainability. and climate investments.

ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY  71

• Policy and Institutional Reforms: Reforming interna-
tional financial institutions and addressing policy SOIL ACIDIFICATION ERODING
inconsistencies are critical. INDIA’S AGRICULTURAL FUTURE
Why is News: A recent publication in the journal Science
• Building Trust and Credibility: Both international and revealed that soil acidification in India could potentially
domestic efforts require enhanced transparency and deplete billions of tons of crucial carbon, thereby impacting
accountability. crop growth.
• New Development Pathways: Formulating and financing Understanding Soil Acidification
innovative pathways for sustainable development are
essential.

• The report also calls for a comprehensive reform of the

international financial system (IMF and World Bank),
arguing that the current system, established in 1944, is no
longer fit for purpose. This reform should

¾ Strengthen multilateral development banks: These

institutions need increased resources to support
sustainable development projects in developing
countries.

¾ Improve the global safety net: A more robust safety

net is essential to help all countries weather crises and
invest in long-term development goals.

Conclusion

The “Financing for Sustainable Development Report 2024”

serves as a stark wake-up call. It underscores the urgency
of collective action to bridge the funding gap, reform
international institutions, and chart new paths for sustainable
development.

EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ

Q. Internet based interactive ‘SDG Financing Tool’ was

released by • Soil acidification is a process where soil pH levels
decrease over time. This primarily happens due to the
(a) United Nations Development Programme displacement of base cations (calcium, magnesium,
potassium, and sodium) by acid-forming hydrogen and
(b) World Bank aluminum ions.
• Intensive agricultural practices and industrial activities
(c) International Monetary Fund accelerate this process, affecting both surface and sub-
soil layers.
(d) Asian Development Bank
Answer: (c) Soil Inorganic Carbon (SIC) or Soil Organic Carbon
(SOC)?
• 
SIC comprises mineral carbon forms like calcium
Descriptive Question carbonate, generated through the weathering of soil
parent material or from the interaction of soil minerals
Q. What are the major challenges identified in the with atmospheric carbon dioxide.
Sustainable Development Report 2024 regarding • 
SOC is involved in nutrient cycling and constitutes
financing for sustainable development? State some of the primary component of soil organic matter,
the measures to bridge the funding gap for sustainable encompassing materials like plant and animal residues,
development. [15 Marks] [250 words] microbes, and their byproducts.

72 ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY

Extent of the Problem
• Neem Coating of Urea: This initiative slows down urea
• Globally: Future global warming is projected to worsen breakdown, improving fertilizer use efficiency and
soil acidification, leading to a potential loss of 1.35 to 5.83 reducing soil acidification.
GtC of carbon from the topsoil layer by 2100.
¾ Additionally, over 1 billion tonnes of inorganic Conclusion
carbon are lost from global soil annually.
Soil acidification is a looming threat to India’s agricultural
• In India: Over 30% of cultivable land in India suffers
productivity and environmental well-being. By impleme-
from acidic soil, impacting nearly 48 million hectares.
nting sustainable practices, promoting responsible land
¾ The northeastern region is particularly affected, with management, and fostering public awareness, we can
almost 95% of its soil exhibiting acidity. combat this issue and ensure the health of our soil for future
generations.
The Indian Scenario
The study predicts a potential loss of 3.3 billion tonnes of EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
SIC from India’s topsoil layer over the next 30 years due
to acidification. This loss can severely impact soil health, Prelims MCQ
hindering its ability to:
• Regulate Nutrient Levels: Healthy soil acts as a natural Q. Consider the following:
reservoir for nutrients, releasing them gradually for
1. Heavy rainfall
plant uptake. Acidification disrupts this process.
2. Decomposition of organic residues
• Foster Plant Growth: Healthy soil provides a
conducive environment for root development and 3. Acid rain
nutrient absorption, promoting plant growth.
4. Application of liming materials to soils
• Store Carbon: Soil acts as a crucial carbon sink.
Acidification reduces this capacity, impacting climate How many of the above causes soil acidification?
change mitigation efforts.
(a) Only one (b) Only two
Way Forward
1. Promoting Sustainable Practices: (c) Only three (d) All four
¾ Organic Farming: Encouraging organic farming Answer: (c) (1, 2 and 3 only)
practices that replenish soil organic matter, a natural
buffer against acidity. Descriptive Question
¾ Judicious Fertilizer Use: Promoting balanced and
Q. What is the soil acidification? How does soil
targeted use of fertilizers to minimize nutrient loss
acidification poses a significant threat to agricultural
and acidification. productivity and ecosystem health? [10 Marks] [150
¾ Cover Cropping: Integrating cover crops into crop words]
rotations helps maintain soil health and reduce
reliance on synthetic fertilizers.

2. Soil Amelioration Techniques: CRITICAL MINERALS FOR CLEAN

¾ Liming: Applying appropriate liming materials like
ENERGY TRANSITION
calcium carbonate to neutralize soil acidity. Why in News: The United Nations has taken a significant
¾ Compost Application: Adding compost rich in step towards ensuring a sustainable and equitable clean
potassium helps improve soil fertility and buffer acidity. energy transition by establishing a panel on Critical Energy
Transition Minerals.
Government Initiatives
Key Details
Soil Health Card Scheme: This scheme provides
• 
farmers with data on soil health parameters, enabling • This panel aims to create a framework for responsible
targeted interventions. sourcing and management of these minerals, which
Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana: This scheme
•  are crucial for renewable energy technologies but
promotes organic farming practices, contributing to face challenges related to geographical concentration,
improved soil health. environmental impact, and ethical practices.

ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY  73

 Way Forward
1. Technological Advancements: Research and development
of new technologies that require less critical minerals or
utilize them more efficiently can reduce overall demand.
2. Circular Economy Practices: Implementing circular
economy principles, such as recycling and reusing
critical minerals from old technologies, can help manage
resource scarcity.
3. Supporting Local Communities: Development projects
that create economic opportunities for local communities
can incentivize responsible mining practices and mitigate
potential social and environmental consequences.

India’s Initiatives
India is recognizing the importance of critical minerals for
its clean energy ambitions, and has taken several proactive
steps:
• Identification of Critical Minerals: The government
has identified 30 critical minerals crucial for self-
reliance in clean energy technologies.
• The clean energy transition requires a massive shift • Strategic Partnerships: India has partnered with
towards technologies like wind turbines, solar panels, countries like Australia for lithium and cobalt and
and electric vehicles. Argentina for lithium to secure reliable sources of these
• These technologies rely heavily on critical minerals such minerals.
as lithium, cobalt, and nickel. • Khanij Bidesh India Limited (KABIL): This
• However, the extraction and processing of these minerals government-owned company focuses on securing
can have negative consequences, including environmental critical minerals from overseas locations to meet India’s
damage, human rights abuses, and geopolitical tensions domestic needs.
due to geographically concentrated reserves.
Conclusion
Challenges and Issues in Critical Mineral Supply Chains
The UN panel on Critical Energy Transition Minerals
• Geographical Concentration: A few countries hold the represents a critical step towards a responsible and
majority of reserves for some critical minerals. This can sustainable clean energy transition. By addressing the
lead to: challenges associated with sourcing and managing these
¾ Geopolitical Tensions: Competition for access essential resources, the panel can help pave the way for a
to these resources could exacerbate international greener future.
tensions.
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
¾ Supply Chain Disruption: Political instability or
natural disasters in resource-rich regions can disrupt Prelims MCQ
the supply of critical minerals.
Q. ‘Critical Energy Transition Minerals’ Panel’, recently
¾ Example: The “Lithium Triangle” of Argentina, seen in the news, was established by
Chile, and Bolivia holds a significant portion of the
world’s lithium reserves. (a) United Nations
• Unsustainable Practices: Irresponsible mining practices (b) International Seabed Authority (ISA)
can lead to:
(c) International Coal Group
¾ Environmental Degradation: Water pollution, air (d) World Trade Organization (WTO)
pollution, and destruction of ecosystems. Answer: (a)
¾ Human Rights Issues: Child labor, unsafe working
conditions, and exploitation of local communities. Descriptive Question
• Growing Demand vs. Limited Supply: The demand for
Q. What are Critical Energy Transition Minerals, and
critical minerals is expected to skyrocket in the coming
why are they important for achieving a sustainable
years, outpacing current supply. According to the and equitable clean energy transition? [10 Marks]
International Energy Agency, demand is set to grow by [150 words]
three and a half times by 2030.

74 ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY

 National Initiatives to Curb Methane Emissions
METHANE EMISSION The Indian government is actively tackling agricultural
Why in News: Rice, a staple food for billions, also carries methane emissions through various initiatives:
a hidden environmental cost that is methane emissions. • National Mission on Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA):
Vietnamese rice farmers are pioneering innovative methods This mission promotes climate-smart agricultural
to cultivate rice while reducing their methane emission. practices, including techniques to reduce methane
emissions from rice cultivation.
Key Details
• Livestock Management: The National Livestock Mission
• Rice thrives in flooded paddies, creating ideal conditions
encourages practices like green fodder production, silage
for methane-producing bacteria.
making, and improved feed management to decrease
• Decomposing rice straw and excessive use of nitrogen methane emissions from enteric fermentation in animals.
fertilizers contribute to the problem.
• Biogas Programs: The New National Biogas and Organic
• Globally, rice cultivation accounts for roughly 10% of
Manure Programme (NNBOMP) and the Gobar-Dhan
human-caused methane emissions.
scheme promote the use of biogas produced from cattle
dung and organic waste. Biogas offers a cleaner alternative
to traditional fuels and reduces methane emissions from
waste decomposition.
Way Forward
1. Scaling-up Vietnamese Techniques: Promoting AWD,
drone technology, and sustainable stubble management
practices across rice-growing regions globally.
2. International Collaboration: Encouraging knowledge
exchange and technology transfer between rice-
producing countries like Vietnam and India.
3. Financial Incentives: Providing economic support to
farmers transitioning to sustainable practices, including cost-
sharing for AWD infrastructure and drone techno-logy.

Conclusion
Vietnamese rice farmers are demonstrating that sustainability
and economic viability can go hand-in-hand. By adopting
innovative techniques, they are leading the way in reducing
methane emissions from rice cultivation.

EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ

Q. Among the following crops, which one is the most

important anthropogenic source of both methane and
nitrous oxide?

(a) Cotton (b) Rice

(c) Sugarcane (d) Wheat

Answer: (b)

Descriptive Question
India’s Methane Challenge Q. Evaluate the traditional methods of rice cultivation that
• India faces a significant challenge in reducing agricultural contribute to methane emissions, and how do these
methane emissions. emissions contribute to greenhouse gas concentrations
and climate change? Enumerate the environmental
• In 2016, 73.96% of India’s methane emissions originated benefits of reducing methane emissions from rice
from the agriculture sector, with rice cultivation and cultivation. [10 Marks] [150 words]
livestock enteric fermentation being the primary culprits.

ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY  75

 SECTION

E SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

SAMUDRAYAAN MISSION TO
EXPLORE DEEP OCEAN
Why in News: India is poised to take a giant leap forward in
ocean exploration with the upcoming Samudrayaan mission,
aiming to send a crewed submersible 6 kilometers deep into
the ocean by the end of 2025.

SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY  76

Significance of the Mission
Descriptive Question
The successful completion of the Samudrayaan mission will
Q. What are the primary objectives of the Samudrayaan
propel India into an elite group of nations with deep-sea
mission? What is significance and challenges of the
crewed exploration capabilities, currently including the US, mission for the India? [10 Marks] [150 words]
Russia, China, France, and Japan. This achievement signifies:
• Scientific Advancement: DOM contributes to the ‘Decade
of Ocean Science’ (2021-2030) declared by the United INDIA’S APPLICATION TO
Nations, fostering global understanding of the deep EXPLORE NIKITIN SEAMOUNT
oceans.
Why in News: Recently, India has taken a significant step by
• Blue Economy Growth: The mission aligns with the “New applying to the International Seabed Authority (ISBA) for
India 2030” vision, which identifies the blue economy as exploration rights beyond its Jurisdiction, Including Cobalt-
a key driver of India’s growth. Rich Afanasy Nikitin Seamount.

¾ Sustainable exploration of marine resources can India’s Exploration Targets

unlock immense economic potential. • Afanasy Nikitin Seamount (AN Seamount): This
prominent feature, located approximately 3,000
• Strategic Importance: Deep-sea exploration capabilities
kilometers from the Indian coast, is particularly rich in
hold strategic significance, allowing India to indepen-
deposits of cobalt, nickel, manganese, and copper.
dently access and utilize valuable resources crucial for
various industries. ¾ India’s application for exploration rights in this
region, known for its cobalt-rich crust, has garnered
significant attention.
Way Forward
• Carlsberg Ridge: Lying in the Central Indian Ocean, the
1. International Collaboration: Collaborating with experie- Carlsberg Ridge is another target for exploration.
nced nations in deep-sea exploration can provide
¾ Here, India seeks permission to investigate polyme-
valuable knowledge and technical expertise, accelerating
tallic sulphides, which are mineral deposits often
India’s progress.
associated with hydrothermal vent activity.
2. Skilled Workforce Development: Investing in training ¾ These deposits are believed to be rich in copper, zinc,
and education programs will be essential to create a gold, and silver.
skilled workforce to operate and maintain deep-sea India’s Strategic Considerations: Several factors underpin
technologies. India’s pursuit of deep seabed exploration rights:
3. Regulatory Framework: Establishing a robust regulatory • Unveiling the Indian Ocean’s Potential: The Indian
framework for deep-sea resource exploration is crucial to Ocean is a largely untapped resource frontier.
ensure responsible and sustainable practices.
• Meeting the Growing Demand for Critical Minerals: The
global transition towards clean energy technologies has
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE driven a surge in demand for critical minerals like cobalt,
Prelims MCQ essential components in lithium-ion batteries.
• Securing Resources for India’s Ambitious Renewable
Q. Consider the following: Energy Goals: The World Bank projects a fivefold
1. To explore avenues for deep sea mining increase in critical mineral extraction by 2050 to meet
clean energy demands. India’s reliance on imports makes
2. To develop underwater vehicles and underwater exploration crucial.
robotics • Countering China’s Dominance: China controls a
3. To develop offshore based desalination techniques staggering share of the global supply for resources
like natural graphite, dysprosium, cobalt, lithium, and
4. 
To develop renewable energy generation techni- manganese.
ques ¾ India’s exploration efforts represent a strategic
How many of the above are objectives of the Deep Ocean move to diversify its resource portfolio and lessen
Mission? dependence on a single supplier.

(a) Only one (b) Only two • Economic Benefits: Growth and create new industries.
• Scientific Advancement: Exploration will involve
(c) Only three (d) All four extensive scientific research, furthering India’s oceanog-
Answer: (d) (All Four)
raphic knowledge and expertise in deep-sea mining
technologies.

77 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

 The International Seabed Authority (ISA)
• The ISA, established under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) 1982, serves as the
governing body for exploration and exploitation of mineral resources in international waters.
• The organization came into force in 1994 and is headquartered in Kingston, Jamaica.
• For any commercial extraction to occur, countries must first obtain an exploration license from the ISA.
• Currently, no country has commercially extracted resources from the deep seabed.

Challenges
• Overlapping Claims: Sri Lanka’s claim on the exploration area necessitates diplomatic negotiations to find a mutually
agreeable solution.

SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY  78

• Technical Hurdles: Deep-sea exploration is a complex
and expensive undertaking. Technological advancements INDIA’S FIRST HOME-GROWN
are needed for efficient and sustainable extraction. CAR-T CELL THERAPY (NEXCAR19)
• Environmental Impact: Potential damage to the fragile Why in News: Recently, the launch of India’s first indigenous
deep-sea ecosystem requires rigorous environmental CAR-T cell therapy, NexCAR19, by IIT Bombay and Tata
impact assessments and adherence to strict regulations. Memorial Hospital, marks a significant breakthrough with
Way Forward the potential to revolutionize cancer treatment.
• International Cooperation: Collaboration with other
countries for technology sharing and resource manage-
ment can optimize exploration efforts.
• Compliance with UNCLOS: Adherence to the regulations
of the International Seabed Authority (ISA) ensures
responsible exploration and environmental protection.
• Development of Indigenous Technologies.

Conclusion
India’s application for deep seabed exploration rights marks
a significant step towards securing critical resources for its
economic and energy security.

EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. Statement I: India requires permission from the

International Seabed Authority to explore the
Afanasy Nikitin Seamount for Cobalt deposits.

2. Statement II: India does not enjoy exclusive rights

for exploring, exploiting, conserving, and managing
natural resources in high seas.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the

above statements?

(a) 
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Significance of NexCAR19
Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I • Targeted Therapy: CAR-T cell therapy offers a more
targeted approach compared to conventional options.
(b) 
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and
¾ It engineers a patient’s own immune system to
Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I recognize and destroy cancer cells, minimizing harm
to healthy tissues.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect • Promising Results: Early trials of CAR-T cell therapy
have shown remarkable remission rates, particularly for
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct B-cell cancers like leukemia and lymphoma.
Answer: (a) • Cost-Effectiveness: Traditional CAR-T cell therapies are
expensive due to import dependence.
Descriptive Question ¾ NexCAR19, developed domestically, has the
potential to be significantly more affordable, making
Q. What are the specific reasons behind India’s interest
this life-saving treatment accessible to a larger patient
in exploring the Afanasy Nikitin Seamount and
the Carlsberg Ridge? Enumerate the technological population in India.
challenges associated with exploring and extracting • Boost to Medical Innovation: The successful develop-
resources from such remote and deep-sea locations?
ment of NexCAR19 signifies India’s growing prowess in
[10 Marks] [150 words]
cutting-edge medical research.

79 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

Applications of CAR-T Cell Therapy • Healthcare Workforce Training: Healthcare professionals
• Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL): Studies have need specialized training in administering CAR-T cell
shown high remission rates in children and young adults therapy and managing its associated side effects.
with relapsed/refractory ALL. • Cost Control Measures: Exploring cost-effective manufa-
• Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL): CAR-T cell cturing methods and developing insurance coverage for
therapy offers hope for patients with advanced CLL who CAR-T cell therapy can improve accessibility.
haven’t responded to other treatments. • R & D: Continued research is needed to develop CAR-T
• Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (NHL): This therapy is being cell therapies.
explored for aggressive NHL subtypes with limited Conclusion
treatment options.
The development of NexCAR19 marks a significant milestone
• Multiple Myeloma: CAR-T cell therapy targeting specific in India’s fight against cancer. This indigenous CAR-T cell
antigens on myeloma cells is under investigation for this therapy offers a promising new avenue for targeted and
blood cancer. potentially curative treatment.

EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ

Q. With reference to the CAR-T cell therapy, consider the

following statements:

1. It uses genetically modified cells to treat various

diseases.

2. Unlike chemotherapy which targets the normal cells

along with cancer cells, the CAR-T Cell therapy
specifically attacks the cancer cells.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) (Both 1 and 2)
Challenges and Limitations
• Manufacturing Complexity: Producing CAR-T cells is Descriptive Question
a complex process requiring specialized infrastructure
and expertise. Scaling up manufacturing to meet patient Q. Explain the applications of CAR-T Cell Therapy. What
needs will be crucial. are the challenges and limitations associated with
• Side Effects: CAR-T cell therapy can cause severe CAR-T cell therapy. [15 Marks] [250 words]
side effects like cytokine release syndrome (CRS) and
neurotoxicity.
• Limited Availability: Initially, NexCAR19 might be SOUTH KOREA’S “ARTIFICIAL
available only in select healthcare institutions with the SUN”
necessary infrastructure and expertise.
• High Cost: Even with domestic development, NexCAR-T Why in News: Recently, South Korea’s Superconducting
cell therapy might remain expensive compared to Tokamak Advanced Research (KSTAR) fusion reactor has
conventional treatments. achieved a significant milestone in the race towards clean
and limitless energy.
• Limited Application: Currently it has been tested for
treating blood cancer while cancer has many varieties. Key Details
Way Forward • KSTAR recently set a new world record by sustaining
• Clinical Trials: Large-scale clinical trials involving plasma, a hot, charged gas, at a scorching temperature
diverse patient populations are needed to establish the of 100 million degrees Celsius for a record-breaking 48
long-term efficacy and safety of NexCAR19. seconds.
• Infrastructure Development: Investing in infrastructure • This temperature is seven times hotter than the Sun’s
for large-scale, standardized manufacturing of CAR-T core, earning KSTAR the nickname “artificial sun.”
cells is vital to meet treatment demands.

SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY  80

• Notably, KSTAR also managed to maintain a stable plasma state (H-mode) for over 100 seconds, further demonstrating
progress in controlling the fusion process.
What is Nuclear Fusion?
• Nuclear fusion is the process that powers the Sun and other stars. It involves fusing lighter atomic nuclei into heavier
ones, releasing enormous amounts of energy in the process.
• KSTAR replicates this reaction within a tokamak, a donut-shaped reactor where hydrogen isotopes are heated to extremely
high temperatures to create plasma.

Challenges on the Road to Fusion Power

• Material Challenges: Developing materials that can

withstand extreme temperatures and pressures within a
fusion reactor for extended periods is a major hurdle.

• Plasma Physics Mysteries: Scientists are still working to

fully understand the complex physics governing plasma
behavior.

¾ Maintaining the extreme temperatures and stability

required for sustained fusion poses a significant
challenge.

• Technical Hurdles: Maintaining extremely high

temperatures (around 50 million degrees Celsius) for Way Forward
extended periods remains a technical hurdle that needs • International Collaboration: Global collaboration
to be overcome. between research institutions like KSTAR and ITER
(International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor) is
crucial to accelerate advancements.

• Material Research: Developing advanced materials

capable of withstanding the harsh fusion environment is
a critical area of focus.

• Plasma Physics Research: Deepening our understanding

of plasma physics is essential for controlling, maintaining,
and optimizing the fusion process.

Conclusion
KSTAR’s record-breaking achievement represents a
significant milestone in the pursuit of clean and limitless
energy through nuclear fusion. While challenges remain,
continued international collaboration, research, and
technological advancements offer a promising path towards
a future powered by the stars.

81 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

 EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two

Prelims MCQ
(c) All three (d) None
Q. With reference to the nuclear fusion reaction, consider
the following statements: Answer: (b) (1 and 3 only)
1. It does not involve the chain reaction. Descriptive Question
2. It forms the radioactive deuterium as a byproduct at Q. What is the difference between nuclear fission and
the end of reaction. nuclear fusion? Elaborate the challenges to attain the
generation of fusion power capacities. [15 Marks]
3. It produces a temperature that is several times hotter
[250 words]
than the Sun’s core.

LARGE LANGUAGE MODEL (LLM) “META LLAMA3”

Why in News: Meta, the company behind Facebook, Instagram, and WhatsApp, has unveiled its most advanced large
language system yet, called Meta Llama 3.
Key Details
• In addition to its image generator that can modify pictures based on user prompts, Meta AI has also developed a powerful
language model called Llama.
• First introduced in February 2023, Llama has since been upgraded with a significant improvement in its capabilities, as
seen with the release of Llama 2 in July of the same year.
• Meta introduces sophisticated AI models, surpassing competitors like Google and Mistral.
• The updated Meta AI assistant integrates into Facebook, Instagram, WhatsApp, Messenger, and a standalone website.

SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY  82

Conclusion • Safety Improvements: By combining metallic sodium
Meta unveiled its most advanced large language model, with specially tailored lignin-based carbon, researchers
Llama 3, surpassing competitors in capabilities. Llama 3 offers have managed to retain the energy capacity benefits
improved performance in reasoning, code generation, and while reducing safety risks associated with dendrite
following instructions. It can generate creative text formats, buildup (which can cause batteries to short-circuit).
translate languages, and hold conversations with users. • Cost-Effectiveness and Scalability: Sodium-ion batteries
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE use widely available and inexpensive raw materials,
making them promising in terms of cost-effectiveness.
Prelims MCQ
• Sustainability: Sodium-ion batteries align well with the
Q. The term, “Meta Llama 3,” recently mentioned in the requirements of grid-scale energy storage and integration
news in context of of intermittent renewable generation. Their sustainability
benefits, coupled with their potential for high energy
(a) Large Language modal
density and storage capacity, make them an attractive
(b) Optical communication system option.
(c) Fast Breeder Reactor
Conclusion
(d) Gene editing
Development and adoption of sodium-ion batteries mark
Answer: (a)
an exciting chapter in the evolution of energy storage. With
Descriptive Question ongoing research and innovation, these batteries could
Q. What is Meta Llama? What are the ethical considerations redefine the landscape of sustainable energy solutions,
and potential biases associated with language models, offering a reliable and eco-friendly alternative to traditional
and how can these issues be addressed in AI research lithium-ion batteries.
and development? [15Marks] [250 words]
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE

SODIUM BATTERIES Prelims MCQ

Why in News: South Korean scientists have recently created Q. Consider the following statements with reference to the
Battery Waste Management Rules, 2022:
next-generation sodium batteries that can be charged quickly
just a few seconds. 1. 
These rules state that producers of batteries
are responsible for collection and recycling/
refurbishment of waste batteries.

2. 
Entities involved in recycling of Waste Batteries
registered under these rules shall provide certificates
for Waste Battery processing.

3. 
These rules mandate the battery producers to
register with the Central Pollution Control Board.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two

(c) All three (d) None

Answer: (c)

Descriptive Question
Advantages of next-generation sodium batteries
Q. How do new sodium batteries compare to traditional
• High Capacity and Rapid Charging: Hybrid sodium-ion lithium-ion batteries in terms of charging speed,
battery that combines anode materials from conventional energy density, and environmental impact? Discuss
batteries with cathodes from supercapacitors. the potential applications and industries that could
• Abundance of Sodium Resources: Sodium is significantly benefit from the use of sodium batteries with quick-
charging capabilities. [15Marks] [250 words]
more abundant than lithium, up to 1,000 times more.

83 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

 About Zika Virus
ZIKA & DENGUE VIRUS
• Caused by a Flavivirus genus, Flaviviridae family.
Why in News: Through a sophisticated set of tests, scientists
demonstrated that certain extracellular vesicles have the • Mostly transmitted through bite of infected Aedes species
same proteins on their surface that certain viruses utilise to mosquito.
infiltrate cells.
• Causes microcephaly in newborns and Guillain-Barré
Key Details syndrome.
• In order to infect cells, viruses must find compatible • Named after the Zika Forest in Uganda.
targets. Viruses have specific proteins on their surface
that can only connect with certain receptors on host cells. • First human case reported in 1952.
Only cells with matching receptors can be infected by a
• Caused significant epidemic in Brazil in 2015.
particular virus.
• For example, HIV targets cells that display a protein • WHO declared Zika virus, neurological illnesses, and
called CD4, such as T-cells and macrophages. In contrast, microcephaly as PHEIC in 2016.
SARS-CoV-2 uses a different receptor, ACE2, which is
• Spread in India: Zika virus has been reported in different
found on cells in the respiratory tract.
parts of India like Gujrat, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan,
• Therefore, HIV cannot infect respiratory cells, and SARS- Kerala and Maharashtra
CoV-2 cannot infect T-cells.
• The spread of a virus depends on a race within the host. Conclusion
The virus tries to replicate and spread before the immune
In a significant advancement for immunology, researchers
system eliminates it or the host dies.
identified a novel defense mechanism: PS-coated vesicles
inhibit viruses that exploit a specific receptor for entry.
This targeted inhibition offers promising avenues for future
investigation, potentially leading to innovative therapeutic
strategies.

EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted

by the same mosquito that transmit Dengue.

2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) (Both 1 and 2)

Descriptive Question

Q. 
What are viruses and how do they differ from
other microorganisms? How can advancements in
virology and molecular biology contribute to our
understanding of viruses and the development of
novel strategies for virus control and prevention?
[15Marks] [250 words]

SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY  84

 Government Initiatives
INDIA RAMPS UP GAS-BASED The government is actively promoting the growth of the gas-
POWER GENERATION TO MEET based power sector through various initiatives:
RISING ELECTRICITY DEMAND • Infrastructure Development: A significant pipeline
Why in News: India is facing an early onset of summer and network expansion is underway, with a target to increase
a consequent rise in electricity demand. To address this, coverage by 54% by 2024-25 and connect all states to the
the government has directed all gas-based power plants to national network by 2027.
operate at full capacity from May 1 to June 30, 2024. ¾ Projects like Pradhan Mantri Urja Ganga (PMUG)
focus on developing eastern India's gas pipeline
India's Gas-Based Power Sector
infrastructure.
• India boasts a significant gas-based power generation
• Gas Price Rationalization: Policies like the New Domestic
capacity with 62 power stations utilizing natural gas
Gas Pricing Guidelines and the Hydrocarbon Exploration
as their primary fuel, generating a combined output of
and Licensing Policy (HELP) aim to incentivize domestic
23,845 MW.
gas production while ensuring affordability for
• The International Energy Agency (IEA) predicts a 6% consumers.
rise in India's natural gas demand in 2024, driven by
• Natural Gas Infrastructure Development Fund (NGIDF):
increased consumption in fertilizers, power generation,
This fund provides financial support for gas infrastructure
and industries.
development.
• While the world average share of natural gas in the
• Promotion of LNG Imports and Terminals: The
energy basket is 23%, it is only 6% for India. However,
government encourages investment in LNG import
the government of India has set the target to make it 15%
terminals to diversify gas supply sources and enhance
by 2030.
energy security.
• City Gas Distribution (CGD) Network Expansion,
Natural Gas Marketing Reforms etc.
Conclusion
By implementing these measures, India can leverage
the benefits of gas-based power generation to meet its
growing electricity demand while ensuring environmental
sustainability and energy security.

EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ
Q1. Consider the following statements with reference to
the Solar Thermal Power Plant:
1. It converts the mechanical energy into electricity by
using a turbine.
2. It is able to store the energy in the form of heat to
generate electricity during the night time.
3. It uses nuclear fusion of the Deuterium and Tritium
to generate the heat.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two

(c) All three (d) None

Answer: (b) (1 and 2 only)

Descriptive Question

Q. 
What are the broader energy policy objectives and
long-term strategies being pursued to enhance energy
security and resilience in India, especially in light of
changing climate patterns and energy demand trends?
[15Marks] [250 words]

85 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

 Need of atomic clocks for India
ATOMIC CLOCKS: ONE-NATION
ONE-TIME • National Infrastructure and Technology: Atomic clocks
are crucial for various applications, including satellite
Why in News: In an endeavour that was started more than navigation systems, telecommunications, and scientific
20 years ago, India is installing atomic clocks all around the research.
nation.
¾ Strategic Applications: Precision timing is essential
Key Details for various strategic applications, such as synchroni-
• It is to guarantee that the time displayed on digital zation of communication networks, financial
gadgets such as laptop, smartphone, and digital watch is transactions, and military operations.
indeed based on Indian Standard Time.
¾ The Kargil War involved the blackout of Global
• Installation of these atomic clocks are done by the Positioning System (GPS) for India.
National Physical Laboratory (NPL) under the Ministry
of Consumer Affairs and Ministry of Science and • Space Exploration: India's space program, exemplified
Technology. by organizations like the Indian Space Research
Organisation (ISRO), relies heavily on precise timing for
satellite navigation, Earth observation, and interplanetary
missions for critical facilities such as the NavIC, or Indian
Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS).

• Global Collaboration: By participating in international

initiatives, India can exchange knowledge, expertise, and
resources with other countries.

Challenges for deployment of atomic clocks

• Cost, Size and Portability: Traditional atomic clocks

are often large and bulky. Miniaturizing atomic clock
technology without compromising accuracy remains a
significant challenge.

• Power Consumption, Environmental Sensitivity: External

factors such as temperature fluctuations, electromagnetic
interference, and radiation can affect the performance of
atomic clocks.

• Frequency Standardization: Achieving global standardi-

zation of atomic clock frequencies is challenging due
to differences in measurement techniques, calibration
methods, and reference standards across countries and
organizations.

• Long-Term Stability: Factors such as atomic frequency

drift, aging effects, and environmental variations can
degrade long-term clock accuracy, requiring continuous
monitoring and calibration.

• Interference and Jamming: Such as intentional

electromagnetic interference or natural phenomena.

Conclusion

Atomic clocks represent a cornerstone of precision

timekeeping for India, offering unmatched accuracy and
stability across diverse applications. While challenges such as
cost and environmental sensitivity persist, India's commitment
to advancing atomic clock technology underscores its
dedication to scientific excellence, technological innovation,
and national development.

SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY  86

 • The standard model of particle physics was finalized
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
with the confirmation of the Higgs field's existence and
Prelims MCQ the process responsible for mass formation by the LHC.
• It is one of the 17 fundamental particles that comprise
Q. 
With reference to the Atomic Clocks, consider the
the Standard Model of particle physics, the most
following statements:
comprehensive theory now available to scientists
1. 
These clocks use electromagnetic radiation to explaining the behaviors of the simplest objects in the
vibrate the atoms to measure the time. universe.
2. 
These clocks operate in a vacuum to minimise • In subatomic physics, the Higgs boson is so essential that
collisions with gas molecules that can disrupt the it is sometimes called the "God particle."
vibrations of atoms.
Features
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only • The Higgs boson is 130 times heavier than a proton, with
a mass of 125 billion electron volts.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
• In addition, it has zero spin and is chargeless angular
Answer: (c) (Both 1 and 2) momentum's quantum mechanical counterpart.
• It is the only non-spin elementary particle.
Descriptive Question
Boson
Q. What is the purpose behind India's initiative to install
• One "force carrier" particle that enters the picture when
atomic clocks across the nation? How do atomic clock
particles interact with one another is a boson, which is
function, and why are they considered crucial for
modern technologies and services? [15Marks] [250 transferred in the process. For instance, the force-carrying
words] particle of electromagnetic fields, a photon, is exchanged
when two electrons engage.
• A boson can alternatively be thought of as a wave in
PETER HIGGS (HIGGS a field since quantum field theory describes both the
MECHANISM) microscopic realm and the quantum fields that fill the
cosmos with wave mechanics.
Why in News: British physicist Peter Higgs, who won the • Accordingly, the Higgs boson is the particle or "quantized
Nobel Prize in physics and postulated the existence of a mass- manifestation" that emerges from the excited Higgs field,
giving particle (sometimes referred to as the "God particle" or whereas a photon is a particle and a wave that develops
Higgs boson), passed away at the age of 94. from an excited electromagnetic field.
Key Details
• One of the three groundbreaking articles published in
Physical Review Letters (PRL) in 1964 that suggested the
origin of mass of fundamental particles in general and
the W and Z bosons in particular might be explained by
spontaneous symmetry breaking in electroweak theory.
• These were written by Higgs alone.
• The discovery of the Higgs boson, a new particle that this
Higgs mechanism predicted would exist, became one of
physics' primary goals.
Higgs Boson

• The fundamental force carrying particle of the Higgs field

that gives fundamental particles their mass is called the
Higgs boson.
• The particle bears Peter Higgs's name, who first suggested
this field in the mid-1960s.
• On July 4, 2012, scientists working at the world's most
potent particle accelerator, the Large Hadron Collider
(LHC), situated at the European particle physics
laboratory CERN in Switzerland, made the particle's
discovery.

87 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

 PSLV ORBITAL EXPERIMENTAL
MODULE-3 (POEM-3)
Why in News: By converting the last stage as the PSLV Orbital
Experimental Module-3 (POEM-3), which successfully re-
entered the atmosphere after the mission was completed
instead of staying in orbit, ISRO's PSLV-C58/XPoSat mission
achieved almost no debris in Earth's orbit.
About POEM
• The Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) has created
POEM, a revolutionary space platform.
• It converts a PSLV rocket's fourth stage into a stable
orbital station that may be used to carry out a variety of
About Higgs Boson in-orbit scientific investigations.
• Through its interactions with other particles and the • In June 2022, it was used for the first time on the PSLV-C53
Brout-Englert-Higgs process, which is carried by the mission.
Higgs boson, that field produces mass. ¾ After satellites are deployed, the PSLV's fourth stage
• Greater masses are assigned to particles that interact or usually ends up as space trash, however for the
"couple" with the Higgs field more strongly. PSLV-C53 mission, it functioned as a stable platform
for experimentation.
• The Higgs field interacts with the Higgs boson itself to
give it mass. ¾ As per ISRO, POEM is equipped with a specialized
Navigation Guidance and Control (NGC) system
• The photon, which is the fundamental unit of light, is one
for attitude stabilization, meaning it can regulate
particle that the Higgs field does not provide mass to.
the orientation of any aircraft within authorized
• This is due to the fact that photons do not undergo boundaries.
spontaneous symmetry breaking like other force-carrying
particles do. POEM-3 Objective
¾ On January 1, 2024, it was launched as a component
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE of the PSLV C-58 mission.
¾ The fourth stage was converted into POEM-3 and
Prelims MCQ dropped to a 350-km orbit after the XpoSat satellite
was deployed, greatly lowering the possibility of
Q. Consider the following statements with reference to space debris creation.
the Large Hadron Collider (LHC):
Space Debris
1. It is the world’s largest and most powerful particle
• Spacecraft parts, rockets, defunct satellites, and debris
accelerator built so far.
from anti-satellite missile tests make up the space debris
2. 
It is designed to detect the gravitational waves in Low Earth Orbit (LEO).
predicted by Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity. • LEO is a range of 100 to 2000 kilometers above Earth.
3. It is configured as a very large L-shaped detector • Smaller amounts of debris are also present in
with long arms accelerating structures to boost the Geosynchronous Orbit (GEO), which is 36,000 kilometers
energy of the particles along the way. above Earth.
• Space assets are at risk from space debris, which may
How many of the above statements are correct?
move at high to 27,000 km/h. In addition to causing
(a) Only one (b) Only two unusable orbit areas, it can set off the "Kessler syndrome,"
which can result in cascading collisions.
(c) All three (d) None • Over 60,000 space objects larger than 10 cm in low Earth
Answer: (a) (1 only) orbit (LEO) are predicted by ISRO by 2030. The problem
is made worse by the growth of private space agencies.
• According to ISRO's Space Situational Assessment
Descriptive Question
Report 2022, 179 launches resulted in the placement of
Q. What is the Higgs Boson? How did Higgs's theory of 2,533 items in orbit in 2022.
the Higgs boson revolutionize our understanding of • Three significant on-orbit break-up occurrences took
particle physics? [10Marks] [150 words] place in 2022: China's Yunhai-3 upper stage accidentally

SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY  88

 exploded, Japan's H-2A upper stage broke up, and Russia's • Spacecraft Design and End-of-Life Disposal: This
Cosmos 1048 upper stage was destroyed on purpose. includes incorporating propulsion systems for deorbiting
• Space laws: As of right now, LEO trash is not governed or deploying drag sails to accelerate re-entry.
by any international rules. The majority of countries • Collision Avoidance and Maneuvering: Implementing
adhere to the Inter-Agency Space Debris Coordination advanced collision avoidance systems on satellites and
Committee's (IADC) 2002 Space Debris Mitigation spacecraft. This includes utilizing onboard sensors,
Guidelines, which were approved by the UN in 2007. algorithms, and communication networks.
• Laser Deorbiting and Deflection: Laser-based systems
can be used to either deorbit small debris objects by
imparting momentum to them through photon pressure
or to deflect larger debris objects away from collision
courses with operational satellites.
• Deployable Tethers and Drag Devices: Deployable
tethers and drag devices attached to defunct satellites or
debris objects can increase atmospheric drag, accelerating
their natural decay and re-entry into Earth's atmosphere.
• Space Situational Awareness (SSA) and Space Traffic
Management (STM): Enhancing SSA capabilities through
improved ground-based and space-based sensors.

EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ

Q. Consider the following statements with reference to

the POEM-3:

1. It is a unique space platform created using the spent

PS4 stage of the PSLV vehicle.

2. 
It was originally developed to enable a missile
to deliver multiple nuclear warheads to different
targets.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) (1 only)

Descriptive Question

Q. How did the POEM-3 module contribute to reducing

Way Forward space debris generated by the space missions?
What are the economic and operational benefits of
• Active Debris Removal (ADR): ADR involves capturing
minimizing space debris through initiatives like
and removing defunct satellites. Various techniques are
POEM-3? [15Marks] [250 words]
being studied, including robotic arms, nets, harpoons,
and even lasers to deorbit or reposition debris.

89 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

 SECTION

F DEFENCE & INTERNAL SECURITY

• Financial Constraints: The cost of infrastructure

INFRASTRUCTURE DEVELOPMENT development in remote areas is high, requiring efficient
IN ARUNACHAL PRADESH resource allocation and management.
Why in News: The recent focus on infrastructure development • Educational Limitations: Limited access to quality
and improved connectivity along the Line of Actual Control education in remote areas hinders skilled workforce
(LAC) in Arunachal Pradesh signifies a multi-pronged development, crucial for long-term development.
approach by the Indian government. • Security Concerns: Ensuring the safety of infrastructure
projects and workers in the vicinity of the contested
border necessitates robust security measures.
• Last-Mile Connectivity: While major highways are being
constructed, providing connectivity to the remotest areas
and forward posts remains a challenge.
Way Forward
• Community Participation: Actively involve local
communities in infrastructure planning and development.
• Skill Development Initiatives: Invest in skill development
programs to create a skilled workforce in border areas.
• EnvironmentallySustainablePractices: Adopteco-friendly
construction methods minimizing environmental impact.
• Public-Private Partnerships: Leverage private sector
expertise and resources for faster infrastructure
development.
• Focus on Renewable Energy: Promote renewable energy
sources like micro-hydropower and solar to reduce
dependence on fossil fuels.
Conclusion

Boosting Security and Strategic Significance Infrastructure development and improved connectivity along
the LAC in Arunachal Pradesh are strategically significant
• Enhanced Troop Movement: Improved road networks for national security and hold immense potential for socio-
like the Trans Arunachal Highway and tunnels like economic development.
Nechiphu, significantly reduce travel times for troops
and military equipment to strategic locations.
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
• Improved Surveillance: Upgraded communication and
surveillance infrastructure facilitate real-time monitoring Prelims MCQ
of the LAC, enabling early detection of any suspicious
Q. Vibrant Village programme is administered by?
activity.
(a) Ministry of Defence
• Border Infrastructure Development by MHA:
Construction of Border Outposts (BOPs) and deployment
(b) Ministry of Home affairs
of technology further strengthen India’s border
management capabilities.
(c) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
Associated Challenges
• Geographical Obstacles: The high-altitude terrain and (d) Ministry of Rural Development
harsh weather conditions pose significant challenges in Answer: (b)
construction and maintenance of infrastructure.

90 DEFENCE & INTERNAL SECURITY

 surge, reaching an all-time high of Rs. 21,083 crores in
Descriptive Question
FY 2023-24.
Q. Explain the importance of Robust Border infrastructure
• This signifies a growth of 32.5% over FY 2022-23 and a
in India’s National security? Discuss the efforts taken
by the government to bolster border Infrastructure. [10 staggering 31 times increase compared to FY 2013-14.
Marks] [150 words] • The value of India’s defence production surpassed Rs.
1,00,000 crores for the first time in 2022-23.
• Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) account for 75% of
BUILDING A SELF-RELIANT this production, with the private sector contributing Rs.
21,083 crore (20%).
DEFENCE ECOSYSTEM
¾ The government aims to reach a production target of
Why in News: India’s defence sector is undergoing a Rs. 1,75,000 crores by 2025.
significant transformation, driven by the goals of self-reliance
• This positive development is a testament to India’s
(Atmanirbhar Bharat) and Make in India.
growing prowess in defence manufacturing and its
Recent Significant Transformation ambition to become a major exporter in the global arms
market.
• India’s defence exports have witnessed a remarkable

Key Policy Initiatives

• Defence Industrial Corridors: Two corridors in Tamil
• Defence Acquisition Procedure (DAP) 2020: This policy Nadu and Uttar Pradesh are attracting investments and
mandates 50% indigenous content (IC) in procurement creating a domestic production ecosystem.
contracts.
• Boost to Naval Power: The INS Vikrant, India’s largest
¾ It also introduces the “Buy (Global-Manufacture domestically built aircraft carrier, exemplifies the
in India)” category, encouraging foreign Original country’s growing naval prowess.
Equipment Manufacturers (OEMs) to set up
• Focus on Defence Research and Development (DRDO):
manufacturing facilities in India, leading to long-term
A committee has been constituted to review DRDO’s
technology transfer and ab initio (from the beginning)
functioning.
indigenization of spare parts.
• Increased Allocation for Domestic Procurement: The
• Positive Indigenization Lists: The Ministry of Defence
government has significantly increased the share of the
has released lists specifying items that must be procured
defence budget rising from 40% in 2020-21 to 75% in
domestically.
2023-24.
¾ This promotes domestic production of nearly 5,000
• Growth of Domestic Defence Production: Promoting
items previously imported.
Innovation: Initiatives like iDEX (Innovations for
• Srijan Indigenization Portal: This online platform lists Defence Excellence) and iDEX Prime support start-ups,
over 34,000 items currently imported, with a focus on MSMEs, and academia in developing defence solutions.
indigenization of a third of them.

DEFENCE & INTERNAL SECURITY  91

Way Forward Conclusion
• Exporting High-Value Systems: Focus on exporting By addressing existing challenges and implementing these
high-value platforms like Aircraft Carriers, Arjun Mark 2 strategic measures, India can solidify its position as a key
tanks, LCA-Tejas fighters, and Light Combat Helicopters. player in the global defence export market. This will not
only bolster its economic growth but also contribute to its
• Comprehensive Export Deals: Move beyond simply strategic autonomy and global influence.
selling weaponry. Offer comprehensive packages
encompassing training and efficient maintenance EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
services.
Prelims MCQ
• Defense Lines of Credit: Leverage Lines of Credit (LoC)
extended to FFCs to facilitate defence purchases and Q1 Srijan portal aims for indigenization of?
bolster exports. (a) Vaccine production
• Enhanced Private Sector Role: Increase the private (b) Defence production
sector’s contribution to at least 50% of total defence (c) Oil production
production. (d) Semi-conductor production
• Dedicated Export Promotion Body: Establishing a Answer: (b)
dedicated export promotion body will streamline and
spearhead export-related initiatives. Q2. Consider the following Indian states
• Defence Modernization Fund: The proposed 1. Tamil Nadu 2. Uttar Pradesh
establishment of a non-lapsable Defence Modernization
Fund would be a significant step forward. 3. Rajasthan 4. Haryana

92 DEFENCE & INTERNAL SECURITY

 Features of Agni-Prime
In how many of the above States Defence Industrial
Corridors are established by the Government of India? • Agni-Prime resembles Agni-III but with half the weight,
intended to replace older generation missiles like Prithvi-
(a) Only one (b) Only two
II, Agni-II, Agni-III, and Agni-IV ballistic missiles.
(c) All three (d) None
• Upgrades include new propulsion systems, composite
rocket motor casings, and advanced navigation. Agni-P
Answer: (b) (1 and 2)
aims for maximum maneuverability against missile
Descriptive Question defence systems and higher accuracy for precision strikes,
complicating enemy defenses.
Q. Being self- reliant in Defence equipment manufacturing
is a strategic necessity for India. Critically evaluate the • Agni-P, along with Agni-V, enhances India’s deterrence
statement in the light of recent steps taken to make against China and Pakistan, with Agni-V targeting China
India self-reliant in Defence technology. [15 Marks] and Agni-Prime focusing on Pakistan.
[250 words]
The Agni Missile Series
• The Agni series, named after one of the five elements
AGNI-PRIME MISSILE of nature, encompasses medium to intercontinental
range ballistic missiles. Agni-P is the sixth missile in the
Why in News: DRDO Successfully conducted a flight test of
series, developed under the Integrated Guided Missile
Agni Missile.
Development Programme (IGMDP) spearheaded by
About the DRDO former president Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam in the 1980s.
• DRDO and India’s SFC conducted successful flight
test of Agni-Prime missile. The Defence Research and
Development Organisation (DRDO) and India’s Strategic
Forces Command (SFC) have successfully conducted a
flight test of the new generation ballistic missile called
‘Agni-Prime’.
• The test took place at Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Island, off
Odisha’s coast, with data captured by range sensors
positioned at various locations, including two downrange
ships at the terminal point.
• The launch was observed by the Chief of Defence Staff,
Chief of Strategic Forces Command, and other senior
officials from DRDO and the Indian Army.
About Agni-Prime
• Agni-P, also known as Agni-Prime, is a medium-range
ballistic missile (MRBM) developed by DRDO, equipped
with nuclear capabilities. It is viewed as the successor Conclusion
to Agni-I and Agni-II missiles in the SFC’s operational The successful test of the Agni-Prime missile marks a
service, featuring a strike range of 1,000 to 2,000 km and significant milestone in India’s efforts to enhance its strategic
incorporating technological advancements from Agni-IV deterrence capabilities and bolster its position in the regional
and Agni-V. security landscape.
• The missile has undergone significant upgrades,
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
including a composite motor casing, maneuverable re-
entry vehicle (MaRV), improved fuels, and advanced Prelims MCQ
navigation and guidance systems. Constructed entirely Q1. Consider the following Indian missiles
using composite material, Agni-Prime offers benefits
like lightweight construction and enhanced strength and 1. Agni 2. Trishul
flexibility. 3. Nag 4. Akash
• Agni-Prime is a two-stage, solid-fuelled, surface-to- How many of the above missiles are part of
surface missile, road-mobile and transportable by
Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme?
truck. Launched via a canister, similar to the country’s
first intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM), Agni-V, (a) Only one (b) Only two
Agni-Prime features dual navigation and guidance (c) Only three (d) All four
systems. Answer: (d)

DEFENCE & INTERNAL SECURITY  93

 stakeholders, fostering a robust framework for coastal
Descriptive Question
security.
Q. What is the Agni Missile system and Indian integrated
missile program? Explain its significance considering
India’s national security challenges. [15 Marks] [250
words]

SAGAR KAVACH
Why in News: ‘Sagar Kavach’ coastal security exercise is
poised to commence its strategic maneuvers along the coasts
of Kerala and Mahe.

Objective
Spanning the entirety of the Kerala and Mahe coastline (590
km), this exercise strengthens coastal security protocols.

Conclusion
¾ The exercise strategically divides participating units
into two teams: Attack (Red) and Defense (Blue) “Sagar Kavach” exemplifies the importance of collaborative
forces. endeavors and comprehensive exercises in solidifying
¾ The Red Forces simulate infiltration attempts from coastal security mechanisms. Through these drills, which
seaward, testing coastal defenses. Meanwhile, the involve a multitude of stakeholders, the Indian Coast Guard
Blue Forces respond by setting up Coastal Security guarantees preparedness and fosters coordination, ultimately
Surveillance to intercept and neutralize these threats. safeguarding India’s coastal regions.
¾ Recognizing fishermen’s crucial role, the exercise
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
stresses their active participation.
¾ Fishermen are encouraged to report any unknown Prelims MCQ
vessels near the coast promptly to the Indian Coast
Guard. Q. Consider the following statements
¾ This collaborative approach aims to bolster
1. It is a biannual exercise
surveillance along the coast, leveraging the local
fishing community as a valuable security asset. 2. It aims to secure maritime security among South
Asian countries
Enhanced Collaboration
• The consistent execution of such maneuvers over time 3. It is coordinated by Indian Coast Guard
has demonstrably improved coordination amongst

94 DEFENCE & INTERNAL SECURITY

 independent states to self-defence, either individually or
How many of the above statements are correct for Sagar
collectively.
Kavach exercise?
Background of NATO
(a) Only one (b) Only two
NATO emerged during the Cold War to deter Soviet
(c) All three (d) None expansionism and counter the potential spread of Soviet
Answer: (a) (3 Only) influence beyond Eastern Europe.

Membership of NATO
Descriptive Question
• Original Founding Members: NATO was initially
Q. What is significance of bilateral military engagements formed with 12 founding nations - Belgium, Canada,
like Sagar Kavach exercise? Discuss the importance of Denmark, France, Iceland, Italy, Luxembourg, the
blue water navy ensuring India’s Maritime security Netherlands, Norway, Portugal, the United Kingdom,
and its importance as soft power in international and the United States.
relations. [15 Marks] [250 words]
• Expanded Member States: NATO has undergone several
expansions since its inception, with new countries joining
NATO’S 75TH ANNIVERSARY in multiple rounds. Presently, the alliance comprises 32
member nations. The expanded membership includes
Why in News: Article analyses NATO’s 75th anniversary, Greece and Turkey (1952), West Germany (1955, later
role in Western dominance. Germany), Spain (1982), the Czech Republic, Hungary,
NATO: A Western security alliance established on April 4, and Poland (1999), Bulgaria, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania,
1949, had 12 founding members who signed the Washington Romania, Slovakia, and Slovenia (2004), Albania and
Treaty. This treaty was rooted in Article 51 of the United Croatia (2009), Montenegro (2017), North Macedonia
Nations Charter, which reaffirms the inherent right of (2020), Finland (2023), and Sweden (2024).

Objective of NATO cooperation on defense and security matters to address

challenges, foster trust, and prevent conflicts.
• Collective Defence: NATO’s primary goal is collective
defence, as articulated in Article 5 of the Washington • Military Assistance: NATO is tasked with providing
Treaty (North Atlantic Treaty). This principle dictates military assistance and conducting crisis management
that an attack on any member is deemed an attack on all, operations if diplomatic efforts fail to resolve disputes.
necessitating unified action.
Challenges Faced by NATO
• Political Cooperation: NATO aims to foster democratic
values and facilitate member consultation and • Funding Challenges: Meeting the defense spending

DEFENCE & INTERNAL SECURITY  95

 target of 2% of GDP has been a struggle for many Conclusion
members since its pledge following Russia’s annexation As NATO celebrates its 75th anniversary in 2024, it stands
of Crimea in 2014. Presently, the disproportionate burden at a critical juncture in its history. While effectively fulfilling
on the US, accounting for over two-thirds of the alliance’s its mandate of protecting the freedom and security of its
defense spending, is criticized by some US Republicans. member states, the alliance grapples with a swiftly changing
• Intra-block tensions: Disagreements among member global security environment characterized by intense great
countries have sparked intra-block tensions within power competition, transnational challenges, and emerging
NATO. For instance, Turkey’s objections to Sweden complexities.
and Finland’s NATO membership due to criticism over
Turkey’s human rights record, and French President’s EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
critique of NATO’s lack of strategic coordination among Prelims MCQ
European allies and the US, and Turkey.
• Deterioration of ties with Russia: Relations between Q. Consider the following statements about North Atlantic
NATO and Russia have deteriorated to the point of direct Treaty Organisation (NATO)
confrontation, particularly over NATO’s overt support 1. NATO consists of 32 member states
for Ukraine in the Russia-Ukraine War.
2. Sweden is latest country to become member state of
NATO

3. NATO has 12 original founding members

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two

(c) All three (d) None

Answer: (c)

Descriptive Question
Q. 
What is the composition of NATO and explain its
relevance in ensuring the security of contemporary
Europe? Do you think Supra-National military
alliances are danger to sovereignty of remaining
adjacent nations? [15 Marks] [250 words]

96 DEFENCE & INTERNAL SECURITY

 SECTION

G SOCIAL ISSUES
barriers may hinder their full and effective participation
CPWD’S MOVE TOWARDS in society on an equal basis with others.
INCLUSIVE PUBLIC BUILDINGS • As per the 2011 census, the most common disabilities
FOR PERSONS WITH DISABILITIES include movement (20%), seeing (19%), and hearing (19%).
Why in News: The Central Public Works Department The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016
(CPWD) recently issued a directive to its regional offices to • The RPWD Act mandates equal rights, dignity, and
ensure accessibility in all public buildings for Persons with respect for PwDs. It replaced the 1995 Act, fulfilling
Disabilities (PwDs). India’s obligations under the UNCRPD.
Understanding Persons with Disabilities • The Act defines disability broadly, covering 21 types
with the provision to add more. It includes penalties
• As per the United Nations Convention on the Rights for offenses against PwDs and violations of the Act’s
of Persons with Disabilities (UNCRPD), PwDs are provisions.
individuals with long-term physical, mental, intellectual
• Special courts in each district handle cases concerning
or sensory impairments which in interaction with various
PwD rights.

Government Initiatives
• Harmonised Guidelines (2021): These guidelines aim to create a universally accessible India.

SOCIAL ISSUES  97
• Department of Empowerment of Persons with Key Details
Disabilities: This department focuses on understanding • This comprehensive report, the first of its kind from the
and addressing the unique needs of PwDs. WHO, combines data on viral hepatitis epidemiology,
• Terminology Shift “Divyang”: The government service coverage, and access to essential health products
introduced this term to promote a more positive across 187 countries.
perception of PwDs.
What constitutes viral hepatitis?
• Accessible India Campaign (2015): This campaign aims
to create barrier-free environments in public spaces. • Viral hepatitis encompasses five viruses that induce
liver disease in humans.
• Sugamya Bharat App: This app allows users to report
accessibility issues. • Hepatitis A and E are spread through contaminated
food and water, resulting in symptoms lasting for
• Unique Disability Identity Project (UDID): This project
weeks, such as fever, abdominal pain, jaundice
simplifies disability certification while preventing fraud.
(yellowing of the skin), dark urine, and pale stools.
• Divya Kala Shakti and ADIP Scheme: These schemes
• The WHO report primarily addresses the bloodborne
encourage cultural participation and provide financial
hepatitis B (hep B) and hepatitis C (hep C) viruses.
assistance for assistive devices.
• While some infections of these viruses may be short-
Conclusion term and self-resolving, others can progress to chronic,
PwDs are a valuable resource with immense potential. lifelong conditions, leading to cirrhosis (permanent
Proper sensitization, infrastructure development, and a liver scarring, reducing its efficiency) and increasing
shift in societal attitudes are crucial for their inclusion and the risk of liver cancer.
participation in all spheres of life. By effectively implementing • Vaccination can prevent hep B, whereas medication
the RPWD Act and associated initiatives, India can move can cure hep C.
towards a truly inclusive society.
• The report excludes hepatitis D, which can only
infect those already infected with hep B and can be
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
prevented by vaccinating against hep B.
Prelims MCQ • The report updates progress made since 2019 in
Q. Consider the following statements: improving access to hepatitis B and C treatments in low-
1. 
A parliamentary legislation declared that every and middle-income countries, encompassing data from
child with a benchmark disability between the ages 38 nations that account for nearly 80% of the global
of 6 to 18 years shall have the right to free education burden of the disease.
in a neighborhood school.
2. 
The Constitution of India does not provide the
persons with disabilities a right to reservation in
promotion.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: a

Descriptive Question
Q. What are the potential benefits of ensuring accessibility
in public buildings for PwDs? How can public
awareness and education campaigns contribute to
fostering a more inclusive attitude towards PwDs in
society? [15 Marks] [250 words]

GLOBAL HEPATITIS REPORT 2024 Key Findings of the Report

Why in News: The World Health Organization (WHO) • An estimated 254 million people globally were living
recently released its 2024 Global Hepatitis Report, painting with hepatitis B and 50 million with hepatitis C in 2022.
a concerning picture of rising death rates from viral hepatitis • Deaths attributed to viral hepatitis rose from 1.1 million
B and C despite advancements in prevention. in 2019 to a staggering 1.3 million in 2022.

98 SOCIAL ISSUES

• Of these deaths, 83% were caused by hepatitis B and Conclusion
17% by hepatitis C. By addressing these challenges and implementing the
• Every day, a staggering 3500 people lose their lives recommended actions, the world can collectively work
globally due to these infections. towards achieving the goal of eliminating viral hepatitis B
• India, with an estimated 3.5 crore cases in 2022, stands and C as a public health threat by 2030.
second only to China in terms of hepatitis B and C
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
infections. This translates to a concerning 11.6% of the
total global disease burden. Prelims MCQ

Q. Consider the following statements with reference to the

Hepatitis:

1. 
Vaccination is available for all types of hepatitis
viruses.

2. Hepatitis A can be transmitted through exposure to

contaminated food.

3. 
Hepatitis C is only transmitted through infected
blood or from mother to newborn during childbirth.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two

(c) All three (d) None

Answer: b (2 and 3 only)

Descriptive Question

Q. What factors contribute to the escalating death rates

from viral hepatitis B and C despite advancements
in prevention methods? What strategies should be
implemented to reverse the trend of rising death rates
from viral hepatitis B and C? [15 Marks] [250 words]

UNIFORM CODE FOR

PHARMACEUTICALS MARKETING
PRACTICES (UCPMP) 2024
Why in News: Recently, the Indian government has taken
a significant step towards promoting ethical practices
within the pharmaceutical sector with the introduction of
the Uniform Code for Pharmaceuticals Marketing Practices
(UCPMP) 2024.

About UCPMP 2024

The UCPMP outlines a series of regulations governing
interactions between pharmaceutical companies and
healthcare professionals. Key provisions include:
• Marketing authorization: Drugs can only be promoted
after obtaining marketing approval, ensuring adherence
to safety and efficacy standards.
• Responsible drug promotion: Misleading claims are
prohibited, including the unqualified use of terms like
“safe” and “new.” Information must be balanced, up-to-
date, and verifiable.

SOCIAL ISSUES  99
• Curbing free samples: Free drug samples are restricted to Other existing measures include
qualified professionals, preventing misuse and potential
over-prescription. • MCI Guidelines: The MCI guidelines emphasize
• Gift restrictions: Healthcare professionals are barred maintaining professional independence and ethical
from accepting gifts or vacations from pharma conduct regarding interactions with pharmaceutical
companies, except for participation in approved CME/ companies.
CPD programs. • National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA):
• Fair competition, educational materials, Self-regulation: The NPPA regulates drug prices, promoting fair
Pharmaceutical associations are mandated to establish market practices within the pharmaceutical industry.
“Ethics Committees” to address complaints and ensure • Collaboration with Professional Bodies: Collaboration
adherence to the code. with medical associations helps develop and implement
ethical guidelines for doctor-pharma interactions.

By prioritizing ethical practices and patient well-being,

India can create a robust and sustainable pharmaceutical
ecosystem.

EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ

Q. Consider the following statements with reference to the

Uniform Code for Pharmaceuticals Marketing Practices
(UCPMP), 2024:

1. 
It declared the formation of a committee called
“Ethics Committee for Pharma Marketing Practices
(ECPMP).

2. It does not cover third parties that work on behalf of

pharmaceutical companies.

3. 
It prevents pharmaceutical companies from
extending travel facilities to healthcare professionals
inside or outside the country.

100 SOCIAL ISSUES

 How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None
Answer: b (1 and 3 only)

Descriptive Question
Q. 
Explain the key provisions and objectives of the
Uniform Code for Pharmaceuticals Marketing
Practices (UCPMP) 2024? How does the UCPMP 2024
differ from previous regulations or codes governing
pharmaceutical marketing practices in India? [15
Marks] [250 words]

STUDENT SUICIDES
Why in News: Recent student suicides at prestigious
institutions such as the Indian Institutes of Technology
(IITs) have highlighted a major and urgent issue inside
our educational system, demonstrating the multifarious
pressure and distress that students confront.

Key Details
• Suicides among students at central educational
institutions, including IITs, are on the rise.
• According to a recent data, five suicides have been
reported at various IITs in 2024.
• According to the last five-year data, there have been 98
suicides in core educational institutions.
• Marginalized Groups Affected: Since 2018, nearly half
of individuals who committed suicide at IITs were from
the SC, ST, and OBC categories.

SOCIAL ISSUES  101

Initiatives Taken by Indian Government Key Details
• Tele-MANAS intends to provide free tele-mental health • India celebrates Ambedkar Jayanti on April 14 of each
services around the clock across the country, with a focus year.
on persons living in distant or underserved areas. • The social and physical organisation of communities
¾ The initiative includes a network of 38 tele-mental throughout India has long been influenced by caste, and
health centers of excellence located across 27 states this influence is visible in the layout of Indian towns,
and union territories that provide mental health where caste frequently functions as the main spatial
services in over 20 languages, as well as over 1600 language.
trained counsellors who manage the front-line • Despite these obstacles, influential Indians like Jyotirao
services. Phule and R. Ambedkar saw urbanization as a chance
• Mental Healthcare Act (MHA) of 2017: MHA 2017 for Dalit liberation.
strives to give mental healthcare services to people • Understanding Ambedkar’s concept of urbanization,
suffering from mental illnesses. the continuation of caste-based discrimination in urban
• The National Suicide Prevention Strategy, launched in areas, and the ongoing struggles of Muslims and
2023, aims to reduce suicide mortality by 10% by 2030 Dalits to access public housing and services in cities are
through action plans and multi-sectoral cooperation. therefore crucial.
• KIRAN: The Ministry of Social Justice and Challenges to Ambedkar’s Vision
Empowerment has inaugurated a 24-hour toll-free
• Though he advocated for urbanization for marginalized
helpline called “KIRAN” to help those suffering from
populations, Ambedkar was aware of the difficulties
anxiety, stress, depression, suicide thoughts, and other
associated with urbanization.
mental health issues.
• His own experiences convinced him that caste-based
Conclusion discrimination may still exist in urban areas.
It is a high time to learn from previous failures in dealing with • Because of his caste, he had trouble finding a place to
the developing crisis and take immediate action involving all live in Baroda and was prevented from entering some
stakeholders - children, parents, teachers, institutes, and areas of textile mills.
policymakers by properly implementing NEP 2020.
• Even so, he continued to be enthusiastic about the
liberating power of cities, seeing them as places where
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
people could live more freely and independently.
Prelims MCQ
Q. 
Guidelines titled ‘UMMEED’ was released by the
central government to
(a) facilitate the women led Self Help Groups with
collateral free credit.
(b) prevent Student suicides.
(c) ensure quality antenatal care for pregnant women
in India.
(d) promote the use of renewable and environmentally
friendly fuels such as Biodiesel.
Answer: b

Descriptive Question
Q. Suicide should be viewed as a complicated public and
mental health issue, critically analyse. [15 Marks] [250
words]

URBANIZATION, NO LIBERATING
FORCE FOR DALITS
Why in News: In India, urbanization has long been seen as a
means of achieving social progress and breaking free from
the deeply ingrained caste system. The reality is far more
nuanced, though, as caste-based prejudice and segregation
are still reflected in and sustained by the urban environment.

102 SOCIAL ISSUES

 Conclusion
Indian cities have not lived up to Ambedkar’s ideal of
urbanization as a means of achieving Dalit freedom.
Even while moving to the city may have made some caste
oppressive systems weaker, caste has managed to survive
in urban areas thanks to changes in language, legislation,
and state sanction. The necessity of addressing caste-based
prejudice and advancing inclusion and equality in Indian
cities is highlighted by this continuous conflict.

EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ
Q. Consider the following movements:

1. Mahad Satyagraha (1927)

2. Temple Entry Proclamation (1936) at Travancore

3. Guruvayur Satyagraha (1931-32)

4. Temple Entry Movement (1930) at Kalaram Temple

in Nasik

How many of the above were the movements led by Dr.

B.R. Ambedkar?

(a) Only one (b) Only two

(c) Only three (d) All four

Answer: b (1 and 4 only)

Descriptive Question

Q. To what extent has urbanization in India contributed

to the dismantling of caste-based social hierarchies
and the promotion of social progress? Enumerate the
key socio-economic factors driving the migration of
caste-based communities from rural to urban areas. [15
Marks] [250 words]

CHILDCARE LEAVE POLICY IN

INDIA
Why in News: Recently, the Indian government’s Childcare
Leave (CCL) policy has been remained in debate due to
several issues.
Understanding the Current Policy
• Generous Leave Provisions: Female central government
employees are eligible for 730 days of paid CCL
throughout their service period, applicable for up to two
children under 18 years.
¾ This significantly extends support beyond standard
maternity leave.
• Limited Eligibility: Only single fathers qualify for CCL
among men, potentially reinforcing traditional gender
roles where childcare is primarily seen as a woman’s
responsibility.

SOCIAL ISSUES  103

Issues with the CCL Policy
Descriptive Question
• Gender Bias: The policy’s focus on female employees,
Q. What are the key provisions of the Indian government’s
excluding most male employees, perpetuates the notion
Childcare Leave (CCL) policy, and how does it aim to
that childcare is primarily a woman’s concern. support working parents? [15 Marks] [250 words]
• Limited Scope: The policy is restricted to central
government employees, excluding state government and
private sector workers, creating an uneven playing field SURROGACY LAWS
for working mothers across different sectors.
Why in News: Restricted by surrogacy laws, Indians are
• Implementation Challenges: Applying CCL in smaller
going abroad to become parents.
firms, particularly the vast majority of “micro” businesses
with less than 10 employees, might be impractical due to About Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021
resource constraints.
• The act defines surrogacy as a practice where a woman
• Potential Employer Bias: Concerns exist that such gives birth to a child for an intending couple to hand
policies might lead to unconscious bias against women in over the child after the birth to the intending couple.
larger organizations.
• Under the Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021, a woman
¾ Employers might perceive them as less reliable due who is a widow or a divorcee between the age of 35
to potential childcare-related leave, impacting hiring to 45 years or a couple, defined as a legally married
and career advancement opportunities. woman and man, can avail of surrogacy if they have a
Way Forward medical condition necessitating this option.
1. Uniform Application Across States: The Supreme Court’s ¾ The intended couple shall be a legally married Indian
recognition of CCL as a constitutional right necessitates man and woman, the man shall be between the ages
its uniform application across all government sectors, not of 26-55 years and the woman shall be between the
just the central government. ages of 25-50 years, and shall not have any previous
biological, adopted, or surrogate child.
2. Cultural Shift Towards Shared Parenting: Redistribution
of childcare responsibilities within families and • It also bans commercial surrogacy, which is punishable
communities is essential. with a jail term of 10 years and a fine of up to Rs. 10 lakhs.
¾ Commercial surrogacy includes surrogacy or its
3. Investing in the Care Economy: Investing in childcare
related procedures undertaken for a monetary benefit
infrastructure, including crèches and daycare facilities, is
or reward (in cash or kind) exceeding the basic
crucial to create a supportive care ecosystem. Promoting
medical expenses and insurance coverage.
Gender-Neutral Policies: Extending CCL benefits to
single fathers and exploring similar policies for all • The law allows only altruistic surrogacy where no
parents. money exchanges hands and where a surrogate mother is
genetically related to those seeking a child.
Addressing Implementation Challenges: Tailored
4. 
• Rule 7 of the Surrogacy Act bans use of donor eggs for
solutions are needed to make CCL feasible in smaller
the procedure.
firms.
¾ But The Supreme Court stayed the operation of Rule
Conclusion 7 of the Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021, to allow
By addressing these critical aspects, India’s CCL policy can the woman suffering from the Mayer-Rokitansky-
evolve into a more inclusive and effective framework that Küster-Hauser (MRKH) Syndrome a rare congenital
empowers working parents while promoting gender equality disorder that affects the female reproductive system
in the workplace and society. to undergo surrogacy using a donor egg.

EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ

Q. 
The Directive Principles of State Policy “The State
shall make provisions for securing just and humane
conditions of work and for maternity relief.” Comes
under ………. of the Indian Constitution.
(a) Article 39 (b) Article 42

(c) Article 45 (d) Article 47

Answer: b

104 SOCIAL ISSUES

• In the exercise of powers conferred under the Surrogacy
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Regulation Act 2021, the Government has made the
Surrogacy Regulation Amendment Rules, 2024 to (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
amend the Surrogacy Regulation Rules, 2022.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
¾ Couples (husband or wife), certified by the District Answer: c
Medical Board as suffering from medical conditions,
do not require both gametes from the intending
Descriptive Question
couple, provided that the child to be born through
surrogacy must have at least one gamete from the Q. Discuss the regulatory challenges and opportunities in
intending couple. addressing the complexities of cross-border surrogacy?
What are the socioeconomic factors driving the trend
¾ Single women (widow or divorcee) undergoing of “reproductive tourism” among Indian individuals
surrogacy must use self-eggs and donor sperms to or couples? [15 Marks] [250 words]
avail surrogacy procedure. (Surrogacy (Regulation)
Amendment Rules, 2024 will not be applicable for
widowed or divorced women.)
PROTECTION OF WOMEN FROM
Concerns with the Surrogacy Law
DOMESTIC VIOLENCE ACT, 2005
• Exploitation of the Surrogate and the Child: The
Why in News: The Delhi High Court recently noted that the
banning of commercial surrogacy moves from the
Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act is a “means
rights-based approach to a needs-based approach, thus
of social justice that applies to every woman, regardless of
removing the women’s autonomy to make their own
her religious affiliation or social background.”
reproductive decisions and right to parenthood.
Key details of the Act
• Altruistic surrogacy also limits the option of the
intending couple in choosing a surrogate mother as very • It was enacted in 2006, the Act offers comprehensive
limited relatives will be ready to undergo the process. protection to women from violence within their homes.

• There is exclusion of unmarried women, single men, • It defines domestic violence as physical, sexual, verbal,
live-in partners, and same-sex couples from availing emotional, or economic abuse inflicted by a husband,
surrogacy services. This amounts to discrimination based male partner, or their relatives.
on marital status, gender, and sexual orientation, and • Notably, the Act extends protection to mothers, sisters
denies them the right to form a family of their choice (including adopted), and female live-in partners.
Conclusion Salient Features and Benefits
By focusing on inclusivity, ethics, and medical advancements, • Right to Residence: The Act ensures a woman’s right to
India can establish a robust legal framework for surrogacy reside in the shared household irrespective of ownership.
that respects individuals’ rights, ensures the well-being of all
parties involved, and supports those seeking to start families • Economic Relief: It recognizes economic violence,
through assisted reproductive technologies. empowering women to seek financial support.

• Multifaceted Abuse Recognition: Verbal and emotional

EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE abuse, often overlooked, are acknowledged as forms of
domestic violence.
Prelims MCQ • Speedy Justice: The Act mandates judgements within 60
days of filing a case.
Q. With reference to the Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021,
consider the following statements: • Comprehensive Orders: Courts can issue multiple orders
in a single case, addressing various aspects of a victim’s
1. 
It also banned the commercial surrogacy and situation.
declared it as punishable offense.
Protection Officers
2. 
Surrogacy (Regulation) Amendment Rules, 2024 • The Act mandates the appointment of Protection
formulated under this Act says that a child to be Officers to assist aggrieved women.
born through surrogacy must have gamete from one
of the parents. • These officers help file complaints, secure legal aid, and
obtain court orders for protection.

SOCIAL ISSUES  105

 Conclusion
The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act
serves as a vital legal tool in the fight against domestic
violence. Recognizing its limitations while acknowledging
its strengths, a multi-pronged approach that combines legal
remedies with social interventions is essential for creating a
society free from domestic abuse.

EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ
Q. Consider the following statements with reference to
the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act,
2005:

1. It facilitates appointment of the Protection Officers

to help the aggrieved woman.

2. Harassment by way of unlawful dowry demands to

the woman are also covered under this Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c

Descriptive Question
Q. The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act
serves as a vital legal tool in the fight against domestic
violence. In this regard discuss reasons for violence
against women. Analyse role of society in women
empowerment. [15 Marks] [250 words]

IRDAI REMOVES THE AGE LIMIT

FOR HEALTH INSURANCE
Why in News: IRDAI has lifted age restrictions on health
insurance purchases, allowing individuals aged 65 and above
to buy new plans.
Key Details
• IRDAI directive mandates health insurance products to
cater to diverse demographic groups, including senior
citizens, students, children, and maternity, promoting
broad scope for insurance companies.
• The insurance regulatory body mandates insurance
firms to introduce policies benefiting senior citizens
and establish special channels for efficient claim and
grievance redressal.
• IRDAI’s new regulations aim to improve healthcare
in India by increasing access to health insurance for
individuals with severe medical conditions like cancer,
heart disease, renal failure, and AIDS.
• With effect from April 1, the Insurance Regulatory and
Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has eliminated
the age restriction for acquiring health insurance
coverage.

106 SOCIAL ISSUES

India’s Insurance sector • The non-life insurance segment, however, incorporates
• The Indian insurance industry is a prominent sector six public sector insurers.
experiencing significant growth. It stands as the world’s
• Regulatory Framework
fifth largest life insurance market within the emerging
economies, boasting an impressive annual growth rate of ¾ IRDAI serves as the paramount regulatory body
32-34%. responsible for overseeing and governing the Indian
• This thriving industry comprises 57 insurance companies, insurance sector.
with 24 dedicated to life insurance and 34 specializing in
non-life insurance. ¾ This critical body plays a vital role in ensuring
that insurance companies adhere to established
• Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) holds the distinction
regulations, prioritize the interests of policyholders,
of being the sole public sector entity within the life
and contribute to the stability of the overall insurance
insurance domain.
market.

The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)

• The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) functions as an independent statutory body
established by the Indian Parliament through the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act of 1999.

• Comprised of 10 members, the IRDAI is structured with a chairman, 5 full-time members, and 4 part-time members.

• The organization is headquartered in Hyderabad, India, and is entrusted with the oversight and regulation of the
country’s insurance and reinsurance industry.

SOCIAL ISSUES  107

 • Inconsistent Global Standards: Indian food products
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
face scrutiny in international markets like the EU, raising
concerns about the overall safety and quality of exported
Prelims MCQ
food.

Q. Consider the following statements with reference to

the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority
of India (IRDAI):

1. It is the nodal agency for the certification of the

insurance companies.

2. 
It adjudicates the disputes between insurers and
insurance intermediaries.

3. It is obligatory for the IRDAI to ensure that insurers

are providing the insurance facility for mentally ill.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two

(c) All three (d) None

Answer: c

Descriptive Question

Q. What was the rationale behind IRDAI’s decision to

lift age restrictions on health insurance purchases for
individuals aged 65 and above? What are the potential
implications of allowing individuals aged 65 and
above to purchase new health insurance plans? [15
Marks] [250 words]

INDIA’S FOOD SAFETY SYSTEM

Why in News: Recent reports have exposed serious
shortcomings in India’s food safety system, raising concerns
about the health of consumers and the country’s reputation
in the global food market.

Several critical issues

• Unhealthy Baby Food: The FSSAI is investigating

Nestle’s baby food products for excessive sugar content,
potentially impacting child health.

• Carcinogenic Additives in Spices: Popular Indian spice

brands like MDH and Everest have been flagged by
authorities in Singapore and Hong Kong for containing
potentially cancer-causing substances.

• Salmonella Contamination: The US rejected 31% of

spice shipments from MDH in the past six months due to
salmonella contamination, indicating significant hygiene
problems.

108 SOCIAL ISSUES

Conclusion

By taking these steps, India can work towards building a

robust and effective food safety system, safeguarding public
health and regaining trust in its food exports.

EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ

Q. Consider the following statements,

1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced

the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.

2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India

(FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of
Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and
Family Welfare.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: a

Descriptive Question

Q. State the factors which contribute to the persistence

of shortcomings in India’s food safety system? What
reforms or measures can be implemented to improve
India’s food safety system and address the deficiencies?
[15 Marks] [250 words]

INDIA’S 4P MODEL
Why in News: Four crucial strategies have been effectively
employed by India’s Swachh Bharat Mission to improve
public health and sanitation: partnerships, public financing,
political leadership, and public participation.

Key Details

• Global leaders recently convened at the World Bank-IMF

spring meetings to discuss how to further the goals of the
2023 Paris Pact for People and the Planet (4P).
Achievements of the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan in promoting
• This international agreement, echoing an earlier cleanliness and sanitation
framework established at the 2018 Mahatma Gandhi • Sanitation Coverage: Increased from 39% in 2014 to 100%
International Sanitation Conference (MGISC) in Delhi, in 2019 in rural India (Swachh Bharat Mission-Gramin).
aims to combat poverty and promote environmental Aims to achieve Open Defecation Free Plus (ODF Plus)
responsibility. status by 2024-25.
• Co-hosted by Prime Minister of India and UN Secretary- • Open Defecation Free (ODF) Status: Approximately
General Guterres, the MGISC established India’s 85% of villages have achieved ODF Plus status.
4Ps political leadership, public funding, partnerships, • Toilet Access: 95% of India’s rural population has access
and public participation as a cornerstone for successful to toilets (National Annual Rural Sanitation Survey
development strategies. Round 3). 79% of rural households own their toilet
facilities.

SOCIAL ISSUES  109

• Public Toilets: Over 6 lakh community and public toilets
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
constructed across India.
• Waste Management: Improved door-to-door waste Prelims MCQ
collection, waste segregation, and scientific processing
Q. 
With reference to the ‘Swachh Bharat Mission
in many cities and towns. Investment of over Rs 20,000
(Gramin),’ consider the following statements:
crores for solid and liquid waste management systems.
• Behavioural Change and Awareness: Extensive 1. It is only sanitation programme implemented by
awareness campaigns have promoted behavioural ‘Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation.’
change and a focus on cleaner practices. Sanitation and
2. It involves the construction of ‘Community Sanitary
cleanliness have become a prominent topic in public
Complexes (CSCs).’
discourse.
• Competition for Cleanliness: Initiatives like Swachhta 3. 
It provides subsidies to farmers for constructing
leagues and clean city rankings have encouraged positive Vermicompost production units to prevent the
competition among towns and cities. Surveys indicate stubble burning.
increasing public satisfaction with sanitation and How many of the above statements are correct?
cleanliness.
(a) Only one (b) Only two
Conclusion
India’s four-pronged approach to development, emphasizing (c) All three (d) None
political leadership, public funding, collaboration, and Answer: b (1 and 2 only)
public engagement, offers a successful model for achieving
goals like the SDGs. This strategy, exemplified by the Swachh Descriptive Question
Bharat Mission and championed by Prime Minister, is
crucial for addressing global issues like climate change and Q. 
Discuss the challenges and barriers encountered in
implementing the Swachh Bharat Mission, and identify
pandemics.
strategies for overcoming them to ensure sustained
progress towards universal sanitation coverage. [15
Marks] [250 words]

110 SOCIAL ISSUES

 SECTION

H HISTORY & CULTURE

About Ahobilam
AHOBILAM TEMPLE • Brahmanda Purana states that it was the dwelling of the
demon king Hiranyakashipu who was killed by Vishnu
Why in News: The Forest Department and Sri Lakshmi
in the form of Narasimha in order to save his devotee
Narasimha Swamy Devasthanam (mostly known as Yadadri)
Prahlada.
at Ahobilam, (Kurnool District of Andhra Pradesh) have
imposed certain restrictions on visitors arriving at the shrine, • It is also counted among the 108 Vaishnava Divyadesams.
which is composed of nine different temples, situated in the ¾ Vaishnava Divyadesams are Vishnu and Lakshmi
Nallamala forest. temples that is mentioned in the works of the Alvars,
the poet-saints of the Sri Vaishnava tradition.
Key Details
• Ahobilam Narasimha Temple: This temple is the primary
• The forest area covers the Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam and oldest among the nine temples in Ahobilam.
Tiger Reserve, which was declared a tiger reserve in
1983. Paruveta Festival
The festival, also known as the ‘mock hunting festival’, is
• The Ahobilam National Tiger Conservation Authority,
celebrated at the Sri Narasimha Swamy temple in the town
constituted as per the provisions of the Wildlife Protection
of Ahobilam, Andhra Pradesh.
Act, 1972, by the Ministry of Forests, Environment and
Climate Change, oversees the rare flora and fauna species It is celebrated by all sections of people, irrespective of
specific to the region. their caste.

• The forest area around the Pavana Narasimha temple is During the festival, the deity from the temple’s inner
home to red sanders, leopards, deer and tigers. sanctum is taken to the 32 Chenchu tribal villages
surrounding Ahobilam town for a duration of 40 days.

HISTORY & CULTURE  111

Conclusion
Expected Questions For UPSC CSE
Centuries of conflict and accommodation among forest,
hill, and field dwellers in the Eastern Ghats have shaped Prelims MCQ
their history and culture. These interactions have resulted
Q. Consider the following statements with reference to
in unique legends, traditions, and rituals that continue to
the Ganapathyvattam temple:
influence the lives of the people in the region.
1. It is a Jaina Temple.
Expected Questions For UPSC CSE 2. It was constructed in the Vijayanagara architectural
Prelims MCQ style.
Q. With reference to the Nagarjunasagar Srisailam Tiger 3. It is located in the Ambukuthi Hills in Kerala.
Reserve (NSTR), consider the following statements: How many of the above statements are correct?
1. It is located in the Ananthagiri hill ranges. (a) Only one (b) Only two
2. It spreads across Prakasam, Nandyal and Palnadu
(c) All three (d) None
Districts of Andhra Pradesh. Answer: (c)
3. Rajiv Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary and Gundla
Brahmeswaram Wildlife Sanctuary (GBM) constitute Descriptive Question
this Tiger Reserve.
Q. What is the Vijayanagara style of Temple Architecture?
How many of the above statements are correct? Enumerate the difference of Vijayanagara style from
(a) Only one (b) Only two Nagara style? [10 Marks] [150 words]

(c) All three (d) None

Answer: (b) (2 and 3 only)
VAIKOM SATYAGRAHA
Descriptive Question Why in News: The year 2024 marked the centenary of the
Q. Discuss the significance of Project Tiger and also discuss Vaikom Satyagraha, a non-violent protest that stands as a
the importance of Tiger Reserves in the conservation landmark in India’s fight against caste-based discrimination.
efforts of the big cat.[15 Marks] [250 words]
Vaikom Satyagraha
• This movement, which unfolded in the erstwhile princely
SULTHAN BATHERY state of Travancore (present-day Kerala), challenged
the exclusion of lower-caste Hindus from accessing the
Vaikom Mahadeva Temple and its surrounding public
roads.

• The seeds of the Vaikom Satyagraha were sown in 1917

when T.K. Madhavan, a prominent Ezhava leader,
highlighted the issue of exclusion in an editorial published
in his newspaper, Deshabhimani.

• This ignited a fire, culminating in a resolution passed at

the 1923 Indian National Congress session in Kakinada
prioritizing the fight against untouchability.

• The Vaikom Satyagraha, launched in 1924, embraced the

Gandhian philosophy of non-violent resistance.

• The movement involved groups of three Satyagrahis,

representing different communities like Nairs, Ezhavas,
and Pulayas, peacefully approaching the restricted areas.
Notably, the first group was led by K.P. Kesava Menon.

• The leadership of the Satyagraha boasted stalwarts like

T.K. Madhavan, K. Kelappan (known as Kerala Gandhi),
K.P. Kesava Menon, and George Joseph.

• The movement received a significant boost with visits

and expressions of solidarity from Mahatma Gandhi, C.
Rajagopalachari, and E.V. Ramasamy (Periyar).

112 HISTORY & CULTURE

A Testament to Resilience
Expected Questions For UPSC CSE
• The Vaikom Satyagraha stretched for an extraordinary
Prelims MCQ
603 days, fostering a spirit of unity across caste lines.

• This unwavering commitment ultimately yielded results. Q. Vaikom Satyagraha was launched in 1924 to
(a) fight against untouchability.
• In 1925, three of the four roads surrounding the temple
were opened to all castes, marking a partial victory for (b) 
oust the French from the Northern Circars.
the movement.
(c) 
raise the salt duty from 50 paise to one rupee.
• However, the fight for complete equality continued.
Finally, in 1936, the Maharaja of Travancore issued (d) 
resist against the administrative reorganization.
a Temple Entry Proclamation, granting access to Answer: (a)
marginalized communities.
Descriptive Question

Q. Analyse the Significance of the Vaikom Satyagraha

in the struggle against caste-based discriminations in
Modern Indian History? [10 Marks] [150 words]

50TH YEAR OF CHIPKO MOVEMENT

Why in News: Recently, 50 years have been completed for the
Chipko Movement, the landmark environmental movement
that was started in Uttarakhand in 1973.

Limitations of the Satyagraha

• Incomplete Victory: The Satyagraha did not achieve

its initial goal of granting full access to the temple. The
eastern road and the temple itself remained closed to
lower castes until the Temple Entry Proclamation in 1936.

• Limited Scope: The movement primarily focused

on caste-based discrimination within Hinduism, not
addressing the broader inequalities faced by marginalized
communities.

Conclusion

The Vaikom Satyagraha, though falling short of complete

victory, stands as a landmark in India’s struggle for social
reform. It fostered unity, raised awareness, and inspired
further movements.

HISTORY & CULTURE  113

Understanding Eco-Feminism • Prioritizing Ecological Well-being: Environmental
Eco-feminism challenges the dominance of a capitalist, protection must be placed at the forefront of development
patriarchal system that prioritizes profit over environmental policies.
well-being. It argues that: • Challenging Unsustainable Practices: Critically
• Intertwined Exploitation: There are inherent parallels examining and addressing the root causes of environmental
between the subjugation of women and the unsustainable degradation, such as excessive resource extraction.
exploitation of nature within patriarchal societies.
• Promoting Environmental Justice: Ensuring equitable
• Significance of Traditional Knowledge: Women often access to environmental resources and addressing the
hold and transmit vital traditional ecological knowledge, unequal impact of environmental issues on marginalized
crucial for promoting sustainable practices. communities.
• Women’s Lived Experiences: Women often have a
closer, more dependent relationship with the natural By learning from the Chipko movement and embracing eco-
environment due to their responsibilities in collecting feminist principles, we can create a more just and sustainable
water, firewood, etc. future for all.

Contemporary Relevance of Eco-Feminism Expected Questions For UPSC CSE

In today’s world, eco-feminism remains critically relevant
due to its emphasis on: Prelims MCQ
• Critique of Capitalist Exploitation: Challenging the
Q. Which of the following statements is/are correct with
unsustainable resource extraction driven by profit
reference to the Chipko movement?
motives.
• Valuing Traditional Knowledge: Recognizing the 1. It was a non-violent movement that arose in 1973
importance of indigenous communities’ ecological in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand (then Uttar
wisdom. Pradesh) to protect trees from being felled.
• Environmental Justice: Advocating for equitable
access to environmental resources and addressing the 2. The Chipko movement stands out for its remarkable
disproportionate impact of environmental degradation mobilization of women in environmental activism.
on marginalized communities. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2

(c) None (d) Both

Other Movements
Answer: (d)
• Additional significant eco-feminist movements include
the Narmada Bachao Andolan (1985), spearheaded by
environmental advocate Medha Patkar to oppose the Descriptive Question
construction of a massive dam on the Narmada River. Q. Chipko movement has completed 50 years, now is time
• The Appiko Movement (1980s) in Karnataka’s for Chipko 2.0; Discuss. Also evaluate the importance
of it on the envirnoment conservation movement in the
Western Ghats, influenced by the Chipko movement,
India. [15 Marks] [250 words]
saw women embracing trees to halt deforestation.

• The Silent Valley Movement (1973) aimed to preserve

a rainforest in Kerala from inundation due to a THE OLYMPICS OF THE ART WORLD
hydroelectric project. Women also played pivotal roles
in addressing human and environmental injustices Why in News: During a period of global unrest, the initiative
during the notorious Bhopal Gas tragedy. referred to as the “Olympics of the art world,” which
endeavors to include all participants irrespective of their
Way Forward political affiliation, signifies a positive development.
The Chipko movement’s legacy serves as a guiding light for
future environmental action: Key Details

• Community Participation: Active involvement of local • The 60th edition of the Venice Biennale, often dubbed
communities is essential for effective environmental the Olympics of the art world, has recently been
conservation efforts. inaugurated.

• Empowering Women: Recognizing women’s leadership • This year’s exhibition will feature various artists under
and traditional knowledge is crucial for sustainable the central theme “Stranieri Ovunque” or “Foreigners
resource management. Everywhere.”

114 HISTORY & CULTURE

Origin of the Venice Biennale without overarching themes or concepts, a practice that
• The term “Biennale” is Italian for ‘every other year,’ but it evolved in subsequent years.
has come to signify a major international exhibition held Format of the Venice Biennale
biennially. • The Biennale spans seven months and includes three main
• Unlike regular exhibitions, biennales are organized on a components: the central pavilion, national pavilions, and
large scale and span multiple venues. collateral events.
• These exhibitions showcase contemporary art from • The central pavilion serves as the focal point, featuring
various countries, typically linked by a common theme, the main exhibition curated by the selected curator.
allowing for the exploration of contemporary social, • National pavilions are managed by individual countries’
economic, and political ideas in an international context. ministries of culture, often with private funding.
• In 1893, Venice’s city government proposed establishing a These pavilions highlight each nation’s unique artistic
national biennial art exhibition to commemorate the silver contributions.
anniversary of King Umberto I of Italy and Margherita of • Belgium was the first foreign nation to construct a
Savoy. pavilion in 1907, followed by Germany, Britain, and
Hungary within the same decade.
• Although planned to open in 1894, the Biennale was
• While India does not have a permanent national pavilion,
delayed and eventually inaugurated on April 30, 1895.
it has officially organized exhibitions at the Biennale in
• Initially, the Biennale displayed selected works of artists 1954, 2011, and 2019.

Expected Questions For UPSC CSE (c) A space mission launched by Italy.

Prelims MCQ (d) None of the above.

Q. The term “Venice Biennale” signifies?

Answer: (a)

Descriptive Question
(a) An art exhibition held in Venice, Italy.
Explain the relevance of “Venice Biennale”, often
Q. 
(b) A Poverty Alleviation Programme launched by the dubbed the Olympics of the art world, in uniting the
United Nations. world in times of global uncertainties? [10 Marks] [150
words]

HISTORY & CULTURE  115

 SECTION

I GOVERNMENT SCHEMES

CDP-SURAKSHA
Why in News: The Indian government has introduced a novel
platform called CDP-SURAKSHA, designed to facilitate the
distribution of subsidies to horticulture farmers participating
in the Cluster Development Programme (CDP).

The Cluster Development Program (CDP)

• Overview: This initiative forms part of the central
sector scheme managed by the National Horticulture
Board (NHB).
• Initiative: Launched by the Ministry of Agriculture
and Farmers Welfare (MoA&FW) in 2021.
• Purpose: Aimed at leveraging the geographical
concentration of horticultural clusters, the program
seeks to promote comprehensive and market-driven
progress in pre-production, production, post-harvest
management, logistics, branding and marketing
activities.

Purpose and Significance Farmer Interaction

• The CDP-SURAKSHA aims to boost India’s horticulture • Access: The platform is accessible to farmers, vendors,
sector, which contributes nearly one-third to the implementing agencies (IA), cluster development
agricultural gross value addition (GVA) and plays a agencies (CDAs), and officials of the National Horticulture
substantial role in the Indian economy. Board (NHB).
• Over the years, horticulture crop production has surged • Order Placement: Farmers can log in using their mobile
significantly, from 240.53 million tonnes in 2010-11 to numbers and place orders for planting material (seeds,
334.60 million tonnes in 2020-21. seedlings, and plants) based on their requirements.
How CDP-SURAKSHA Works? • Cost Sharing: After raising a demand, farmers contribute
• Digital Platform: CDP-SURAKSHA operates as a digital their share of the planting material cost.
platform. • Subsidy Display: The system automatically displays the
• Instant Subsidy Disbursal: It enables the immediate government’s subsidy amount.
transfer of subsidies to farmers’ bank accounts. • e-RUPI Voucher Generation: Upon the farmer’s
• e-RUPI Voucher: Farmers receive subsidies through the contribution, an e-RUPI voucher is generated.
e-RUPI voucher, facilitated by the National Payments • Material Delivery: Vendors receive the voucher and
Corporation of India (NPCI). provide the required planting material to the farmer.

GOVERNMENT SCHEMES  116

• Verification: Farmers verify material delivery through financial assistance for infrastructure development,
geo-tagged photos and videos of their fields. technical expertise and market linkages.
• National Horticulture Board (NHB): Offers financial
Horticulture Sector in India
aid, technical guidance and market intelligence to
• India ranks second globally in fruit and vegetable stakeholders across the horticulture value chain.
production, comprising nearly 90% of total horticulture
• Cluster Development Programme (CDP): Promotes
output.
integrated development of pre-production, production
• This sector contributes 33% to the agriculture Gross and post-harvest activities within geographically
Value Added (GVA), significantly boosting the specialized clusters.
economy.
• Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture
• Despite cultivating on a smaller land area (25.66 (MIDH): Integrates various horticulture development
million hectares for horticulture versus 127.6 million schemes for holistic support from pre-production to
hectares for food grains), India produces 320.48 million marketing.
tons of horticulture produce, surpassing food grain
• Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY): Provides financial
production.
assistance to states for infrastructure development,
• Horticulture crops exhibit superior productivity, capacity building, and other interventions.
averaging 12.49 tons per hectare compared to 2.23 tons
• Sub-Mission on Agriculture Mechanization (SMAM):
per hectare for food grains.
Promotes mechanization in horticulture activities to
• The FAO recognizes India’s leadership in producing improve efficiency and reduce labour dependency.
certain vegetables (ginger and okra) and fruits (banana,
mangoes, and papaya). Conclusion
• However, India holds only a 1% share in the global In conclusion, CDP-SURAKSHA revolutionizes subsidy
horticultural market, ranking 14th in vegetable exports disbursal in horticulture by employing a digital platform
and 23rd in fruit exports. for instant transfer to farmers’ bank accounts. With robust
features like database integration, UIDAI validation, and
• Major export destinations include Bangladesh, UAE,
geotagging, it ensures transparency, efficiency, and equitable
Nepal, Netherlands, Malaysia, Sri Lanka, UK, Oman,
access to subsidies, driving holistic growth in the agricultural
and Qatar.
sector.
• Alarmingly, 15-20% of India’s fruits and vegetables
are wasted along the supply chain, contributing to EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
greenhouse gas emissions.
Prelims MCQ
Challenges Faced by the Horticulture Sector
• Infrastructure Bottlenecks: Limited cold storage Q. The ‘CDP-SURAKSHA,’ was recently launched by the
facilities, inadequate transportation networks, and poor government of India to
packing infrastructure lead to substantial post-harvest
(a) 
Establish the new national architecture for
losses (estimated at 20-30%). civil services capacity building at individual,
• Water Scarcity and Management: Horticulture crops are institutional and process levels.
water intensive. Unequal water distribution, inefficient
irrigation practices and climate change pose challenges (b) Sanction loans up to rupees 10 Lakhs to those who
have a business plan to generate income from a
to sustainable water management.
non-farm activity.
• Pest and Disease Management: Crop damage due to pests
and diseases significantly reduces yields. Inappropriate (c) 
Support the ‘Make in India’ campaign for
pesticide use can harm the environment and human encouraging the manufacturing sector.
health.
(d) 
Facilitate the distribution of subsidies to
• Market Linkages and Price Fluctuations: Limited access horticulture farmers participating in the Cluster
to organized markets and fluctuating prices due to Development Programme (CDP).
seasonality and perishability discourage farmers and
lead to income instability.
Answer: (d)

• Quality Standards and Compliance: Meeting stringent

quality standards and certifications for domestic and Descriptive Question
international markets can be difficult for small-scale
producers, limiting their market reach. Q. 
The CDP-SURAKSHA aims to boost India’s
horticulture sector, substantiate statement with
Government Initiatives for Promotion of horticulture appropriate examples? [10 Marks] [150 words]
• National Horticulture Mission (NHM): Provides

117 GOVERNMENT SCHEMES

 ELECTRIC MOBILITY PROMOTION to a staggering $113.99 billion by 2029, reflecting a
compounded annual growth rate (CAGR) of 66.52%.
SCHEME
• This exponential growth signifies the industry’s
Why in News: The Indian government recently launched the
potential to revolutionize India’s transportation sector.
Electric Mobility Promotion Scheme (EMPS) 2024, marking a
significant step towards promoting electric vehicles (EVs) in
the country. Building on FAME’s Legacy
Key Details • FAME I (2015-2019): Introduced to promote electric and
hybrid vehicles with an initial outlay of Rs. 895 crores.
This scheme follows the successful implementation of FAME
I and FAME II, which played a vital role in driving EV • FAME II (2019-2024): Expanded the scheme with a larger
adoption. outlay of Rs. 11,500 crores, emphasizing advanced battery
technologies.
Electric Vehicle Sector in India • EMPS 2024: Aims to further incentivize green mobility
• 
A report by Fortune Business Insights projects the and domestic EV manufacturing with a targeted
Indian EV market to surge from $3.21 billion in 2022 approach.

Analysis
• Reduced Financial Support: EMPS 2024’s budget is
significantly lower compared to FAME II’s Rs. 11,500
crore allocation.
• Multiple Caps and Lower Benefits: The new scheme
offers an incentive of Rs. 5,000 per kWh battery capacity,
capped at 15% of the ex-factory cost or a maximum limit
(Rs. 10,000 for two-wheelers, Rs. 25,000 for e-rickshaws/
e-carts, Rs. 50,000 for e-autos).
¾ This translates to a substantial reduction in monetary
support, potentially impacting vehicle affordability.
• Re-registration Roadblock: EMPS mandates online re-
registration for manufacturers, dealers and vehicles to be
eligible for subsidies. This could create initial hurdles for
both manufacturers and consumers.
Way Forward
• Balancing Incentives and Sustainability: The government
needs to find a balance between reducing financial
support and ensuring continued EV affordability to
maintain healthy adoption rates.
• Focus on Charging Infrastructure: Developing a robust
and widespread charging infrastructure across India is
crucial to address range anxiety and encourage EV usage.
• EV Manufacturing Ecosystem: Continued support for
domestic EV component manufacturing is essential to
achieve self-reliance (Atmanirbhar Bharat) in the EV sector.

GOVERNMENT SCHEMES  118

• Innovation and Technology: Promoting research and tackle the widespread use of harmful pesticides and
development in battery technology is key to improve agricultural plastics in food production.
range, performance, and affordability of EVs. • Focus Areas: The program will focus on two key areas:
• Consumer Awareness: Initiatives to educate consumers ¾ Discouraging harmful practices: FARM will work
about the benefits of EVs and dispel range anxiety are to incentivize farmers to move away from using
necessary to drive wider acceptance. pesticides containing persistent organic pollutants
Conclusion (POPs) and mismanaged agricultural plastics.
The Electric Mobility Promotion Scheme 2024 marks a ¾ Promoting Sustainable Alternatives: The program
crucial step in India’s journey towards a sustainable future. will actively encourage the adoption of safer, low-
While the reduction in financial support compared to FAME chemical, and non-chemical alternatives for pest
II is a concern, the scheme’s focus on key areas like EV control and agricultural practices.
manufacturing and green mobility holds promise. • Implementation Framework
¾ Policy and Regulation: FARM will support the
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
development and implementation of stricter
Prelims MCQ government regulations to phase out POPs-containing
agrochemicals and agricultural plastics.
Q. Consider the following statements with regard to The
¾ Financial Incentives: This includes strengthening
Electric Mobility Promotion Scheme(EMPS) 2024:
banking, insurance, and investment criteria to make
1. The scheme is under the purview of the Ministry of financing for effective pest control alternatives,
Heavy Industries. sustainable production methods, and trade in eco-
friendly produce more readily available.
2. It focuses on Two and Three wheelers because of
their affordability and ease of use. • Participating Countries: The initial phase of FARM will
be rolled out in seven countries: India, Ecuador, Kenya,
3. It aims to incentivize green mobility and domestic Lao PDR, the Philippines, Uruguay, and Vietnam.
EV manufacturing with a targeted approach. • Implementing Partners: The program is spearheaded
4. It mandates online re-registration for manufac- by the United Nations Environment Programme
turers, dealers, and vehicles to be eligible for (UNEP) with support from several key international
subsidies. organizations:
¾ Asian Development Bank (ADB)
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
¾ United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
(a) Only 1 (b) 1, 2 and 3 ¾ United Nations Industrial Development Organization
(UNIDO)
(c) 1, 2, 3, and 4 (d) 2 and 3
Answer: (c) (1, 2, 3, and 4) ¾ In-country execution will be carried out by the Food
and Agriculture Organization (FAO).
• Project Timeline: FARM is a five-year program designed
Descriptive Question
to create a lasting impact on agricultural practices.
Q. 
Electric vehicles represent futuristic mode of Global Environment Facility (GEF)
transportation. Discuss with reference to the statement
the challenges involved and ways to increase the • GEF was established in 1992 at the historic Rio Earth
adoption of the electronic vehicles in India? [15 Marks] Summit, GEF is a unique partnership of 18 agencies,
[250 words] including UN institutions, multilateral development
banks, and non-governmental organizations.
• GEF serves as the financial mechanism for five crucial
FINANCING AGROCHEMICAL international environmental conventions:
REDUCTION AND MANAGEMENT ¾ Minamata Convention on Mercury
(FARM) PROGRAMME ¾ Stockholm Convention on POPs
Why in News: The Global Environment Facility (GEF) recently ¾ UN Convention on Biological Diversity (UNCBD)
launched a new initiative called the Financing Agrochemical
Reduction and Management (FARM) Programme. ¾ UN Convention to Combat Desertification
About the FARM Programme (UNCCD)

• A Global Effort: FARM is a first-of-its-kind global ¾ UN Framework Convention on Climate Change

program with a total budget of $379 million. It aims to (UNFCCC)

119 GOVERNMENT SCHEMES

• With over 180 member countries, including India, Concusion
GEF plays a pivotal role in mobilizing resources and By addressing these challenges and implementing the
fostering international cooperation to address global suggested steps, FARM has the potential to revolutionize
environmental concerns. agriculture, safeguard human health and the environment
for generations to come.
Challenges
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
• Cost Factor: Sustainable alternatives might be initially
costlier than conventional methods. Bridging this gap
Prelims MCQ
requires financial support for farmers transitioning to
sustainable practices. Q. Which of the following recently launched the Financing
• Technological Availability: Widespread adoption of Agrochemical Reduction and Management (FARM)
eco-friendly alternatives necessitates readily available Programme?
and effective technologies across diverse agricultural
landscapes. (a) Green Climate Fund
• Capacity Building: Equipping farmers with the
knowledge and skills necessary to implement sustainable (b) Global Environment Facility
practices is crucial. Training programs and extension
services are essential to ensure successful adoption. (c) World Bank

• Market Access: Creating robust market channels for

(d)The Adaptation Fund
sustainably produced agricultural products is key. This
incentivizes farmers and ensures profitability.
Answer: (b)

Descriptive Question

Q. 
What are the primary objectives of the Financing
Agrochemical Reduction and Management (FARM)
Programme? How does the FARM Programme aim to
address the challenges associated with agrochemical
usage in agriculture? [15 Marks] [250 words]

RASHTRIYA AROGYA NIDHI (RAN)

SCHEME
Why in News: Recently, the Delhi High Court has determined
that the new income threshold to qualify for benefits under
the Rashtriya Arogya Nidhi (RAN) scheme.

Key Details

• It is, prima facie under the revised umbrella scheme of

RAN, the monthly income threshold for eligibility is
Rs.1,571 for rural areas and Rs.1,605 for urban areas.

• The court has expressed a preliminary opinion that these

limits are significantly low.
About Rashtriya Arogya Nidhi (RAN) scheme

• Offered by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

• This program provides one-time financial assistance to

impoverish patients who fall below the state or union
territory’s designated poverty line. It supports those
suffering from life-threatening diseases such as heart,
kidney, liver, and cancer, enabling them to receive
treatment at any of the Super Specialty Government
hospitals or institutes.

GOVERNMENT SCHEMES  120

 EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ
Q. Which of the following statements is/are correct about
the Rashtriya Arogya Nidhi Scheme?
I. It is launched by the Ministry of Health & Family
Welfare.
II. It aims to provide financial assistance to the patients
who are living below the poverty line and who are
suffering from non life threatening diseases.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only I (b) Only II

(c) Both (d) None

Answer: (a) (Only I)

Descriptive Question
Q. 
What are the primary objectives of the Rashtriya
Arogya Nidhi Scheme? How can it help to improve
India’s Healthcare sector? [15 Marks] [250 words]

NATIONAL CLEAN AIR PROGRAMME (NCAP)

EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE (c) 

Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate
Change (MoEFCC) and various States
Prelims MCQ (d) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
Answer: (c)
Q. The National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) launched
in 2019 with ambitious targets to curb air pollution, is Descriptive Question
an initiative of ?
Q. Discuss the key features of the National Clean Air
Programme (NCAP) initiated by the Government
(a) NITI Aayog
of India? What steps can be taken to make it more
effective? [15 Marks] [250 words]
(b) Ministry of Human Resource Development

121 GOVERNMENT SCHEMES

 SECTION

J MISCELLANEOUS

stakeholders, contributes to inefficiencies and increased

FOOD WASTE INDEX (FWI) REPORT waste generation.
2024 Way Forward
Why in News: Recently, the United Nations Environment • Improved Data Collection: Strengthening data collection
Programme (UNEP), in collaboration with the Waste and methods across all sectors, particularly retail and food
Resources Action Programme (WRAP), released the Food service, is crucial to identify hotspots and tailor solutions.
Waste Index (FWI) Report 2024.
• Collaboration Throughout the Food System: Fostering
Tracking Food Waste collaboration between farmers, retailers, food service
providers, and consumers can optimize resource
The FWI report serves as a crucial tool for monitoring utilization and minimize food waste throughout the
progress towards achieving Sustainable Development supply chain.
Goal (SDG): “Halve per capita global food waste at the
Conclusion
retail and consumer levels and reduce food losses along
production and supply chains, including post-harvest Food waste is a complex challenge with multifaceted
losses, by 2030.” The report focuses on two key indicators consequences. By implementing the strategies outlined
within SDG: in the FWI Report 2024 and fostering collaborative action
through PPPs, we can create a more sustainable and equitable
• Food Loss Index (FLI) - This indicator, overseen by the food system.
Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), tracks food
losses along production and supply chains. EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
• Food Waste Index (FWI) - This indicator, under Prelims MCQ
UNEP’s custodianship, monitors per capita food waste Q. The Food Waste Index (FWI) Report, was launched by
at retail and consumer levels. the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
in collaboration with
Key Findings
(a) Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
• Wastage in Abundance: Households across the globe
wasted a staggering over 1 billion meals a day in 2022. (b) Waste and Resources Action Programme (WRAP)
¾ This figure stands in stark contrast to the 783 million (c) UN World Food Programme
people facing hunger globally and the one-third of (d) World Bank
humanity experiencing food insecurity. Answer: (b)
• Environmental Impact: Food waste is a significant
Descriptive Question
contributor to climate change, generating an estimated
8-10% of global greenhouse gas emissions. Q. Food waste is a complex challenge with multifaceted
consequences, critically evaluate. [10 Marks] [150
Challenges and Issues Highlighted in Report words]
• Temperature Dependence: Hotter countries, often
lacking robust cold chain infrastructure, experience
higher levels of household food waste due to faster
THE ECONOMICS OF FORCED
spoilage of perishable items. LABOUR
• Data Gaps: Reliable data on food waste generation in the Why in news: Recently, International Labour Organization
retail and food service sectors, particularly in low and (ILO) released the report “Profits and Poverty: The Economics
middle-income countries, remains scarce. of forced labour”.
¾ This lack of comprehensive data hinders effective Key Findings of Report
policy formulation. • The report estimates that 27.6 million people were
• Fragmented Food Systems: The current food system, subjected to forced labour in 2021. This number represents
characterized by a lack of coordination between various a vast human cost hidden behind economic activity.

MISCELLANEOUS  122
• The report further reveals a concerning trend - the total amount of illegal profits generated from forced labour has risen
by 37% since 2014.
• This highlights the perverse incentive for exploitation in certain sectors.

Combating Forced Labour: The global community has taken 3. It established Vigilance committees at district and
steps to address forced labour, including: sub-divisional levels.
• ILO Protocol of 2014: This protocol strengthens the Forced How many of the above statements are correct?
Labour Convention of 1930 by outlining specific actions
(a) Only one (b) Only two
governments and social partners should take to eradicate
forced labour. (c) All three (d) None
Answer: (c)
• Forced Labour (Supplementary Measures) Recommendation,
2014: This recommendation provides guidance on Descriptive Question
implementing measures to prevent forced labour, protect Q. What are the primary drivers and root causes identified
victims, and ensure effective remedies. by the report ‘Profits and Poverty: The Economics
India has its own legal framework to combat forced labour, of forced labour’ that perpetuate forced labor within
including global supply chains? Throw light on India’s legal
framework to combat forced labour. [15 Marks] [250
• Article 23: Prohibits trafficking in human beings and
words]
forced labour (Indian Constitution).
• Article 24: Prohibits child labour in factories and other
specified establishments (Indian Constitution). MONKEYPOX VIRUS
• Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976: Outlaws Why in News: New research ideltifies specific genomic
bonded labour practices.
changes associated with the transmissibility of the
Conclusion monkeypox virus
By implementing these solutions, we can create a world
where work is based on fair treatment and decent working Key Details
conditions, leaving no room for the exploitation of forced
• Mount Sinai scientists and ISCIII researchers have
labour. identified alterations in the (mpox) virus genome,
Expected Questions For UPSC CSE possibly linked to the 2022 outbreak’s transmissibility
changes.
Prelims MCQ
• The majority of mpox infections exhibit mild symptoms
Q. Consider the following statements with reference to
the Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976: and demonstrate a natural course towards resolution.
However, mpox can cause significant pain and potentially
1. It abolished the bonded labour system throughout result in permanent scarring.
the country.
2. It extinguished the liability of the labour to repay • The causative agent, designated MPXV, was first
bonded debt. identified in 1958 within crab-eating macaque monkeys
imported to Belgium.

123 MISCELLANEOUS
• Since the 1970s, MPXV has been responsible for sporadic
Descriptive Question
outbreaks of human disease in Central and Western Africa.
Q. Explain specific genomic changes have been identified
in the mpox virus? How do these genomic changes
affect the virus's ability to spread between hosts?
[15 Marks] [250 words]

MISLEADING ADVERTISEMENT
Why in News: The Indian Medical Association (IMA) was
suing Patanjali in this issue, and the court was considering
a contempt prosecution against the company for allegedly
disobeying its directives.
Key Details
• Supreme Court directs Patanjali Ayurveda to record its
apology in newspapers.
• Court hears contempt case against Patanjali for allegedly
flouting orders.
• Court wants to compare the size of the apology published
in newspapers to misleading advertisements.
Allegations Against Patanjali
• The Issue: The Indian Medical Association (IMA) filed
a complaint in August 2022 against Patanjali. This arose
from an advertisement that criticized allopathic medicine.
• The Advertisement: The advertisement’s title was
“Misconceptions Spread by Allopathy: Save Yourself
and the Country.” The IMA argued this title promoted
negative views of allopathic medicine.
Legal Arguments Against Patanjali
• The Indian Medical Association (IMA) accused Patanjali
of making illegal claims in their ads. These claims go
against two laws: The Drugs & Other Magical Remedies
Act (DOMA) and the Consumer Protection Act (CPA).
• The DOMA law says it’s illegal to publish false drug ads.
This includes making claims that aren’t true, misleading
Conclusion people about the medicine, or overstating its benefits.
If someone breaks this law, they could be fined or even
Sustained clinical presentations of viral agents reveal unique
jailed.
features, necessitating the development of effective prevention
and treatment strategies to combat these infections. • The CPA law is even stricter on false advertising,
especially when it hurts consumers.
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
• There were also agreements in place to prevent misleading
Prelims MCQ ads for Ayurvedic products. Patanjali ignored these
Q. Consider the following statements with reference to the agreements, breaking the rules set by the government’s
Monkeypox disease: Ministry of AYUSH and the Advertising Standards
1. It can be transmitted from animals to humans as Council of India.
well as from humans to humans. Response of the Supreme Court in Patanjali Case
2. It has been eradicated from Central and West Africa. • The Court banned Patanjali from advertising cures
for certain diseases and told them to avoid criticizing
How many of the above statements are correct?
established medicine.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
• Court observed that Fast-Moving Consumer
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Goods(FMCG) firms should also misleading
Answer: (a) advertisments for baby foods so that there is no mistrust
among the public.

MISCELLANEOUS  124
 Descriptive Question

Q. Enumerate specific directives which the court issued to

Patanjali? How might this case impact the regulation
of traditional or alternative medicine in India?
[15 Marks] [250 words]

ASIA DEVELOPMENT OUTLOOK

REPORT 2024
Why in News: Recently, Asian Development Bank has
released the Asia Development Outlook Report 2024.

Key Findings from the Report

• The GDP growth prediction for India for FY 2024 and

FY 2025 has been updated by the Asian Development
Bank (ADB) to 7.2% and 7%, respectively, due to strong
services sector development and significant public and
private investment.

• It is anticipated that retail inflation will decrease to 4.6%

in the current fiscal year and then to 4.5% in 2025–2026.

• Normal monsoon weather is predicted to improve

rural consumption, which was negatively impacted by
inconsistent rainfall in the previous year.

• A possible renaissance in rural economies is indicated by

the expected increase in demand for employment under
programs such as the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
Employment Guarantee Act.

Reasons behind India’s increased GDP projection

• India’s manufacturing sector grew well in 2023; the S&P

Global India Manufacturing PMI increased from 55.5 in
October 2023, an eight-month low, to 56.0 in November
2023.

• India’s economic growth in FY2024 and FY2025 is

anticipated to be driven by both consumption demand
and investment.
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
• For 2023–2024, the RBI has maintained the repo rate
Prelims MCQ at 6.5%, concentrating on removing accommodation
to guarantee that inflation gradually approaches the
Q. Consider the following acts,
objective while fostering growth.
1. Consumer Protection Act
• Improving industrial competitiveness and spurring
2. The Drugs & Other Magical Remedies Act future growth are anticipated outcomes of government
initiatives to support infrastructure development and
3. The Food Safety and Standards Act create a supportive business climate.
How many of the above acts can be used against fake
• ADB admits the members of the UN Economic and
advertisements?
Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP,
(a) Only one (b) Only two formerly the Economic Commission for Asia and the Far
(c) All three (d) None East or ECAFE), and non-regional developed countries. It
Answer: (c) have been blessing for Indian development projects.

125 MISCELLANEOUS
 EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
Prelims MCQ
UNDP’S HUMAN DEVELOPMENT
Q. 
Consider the following statements about Asian
REPORT 2023-24
Development Bank, Why in News: The United Nations Development Programme’s
1. It releases Asian Development Outlook report every (UNDP) Human Development Report (HDR) 2023-24 paints
year a concerning picture of rising global inequalities and a world
2. It is headquartered in Manilla, Phillipines off track from achieving its Sustainable Development Goals
(SDGs).
3. Japan and USA is the largest shareholder of the bank
How many of the above statements are correct? The Human Development Index (HDI)
(a) Only one (b) Only two • HDI is a crucial metric for measuring a country’s
development.
(c) All three (d) None
Answer: (c) • It considers three key aspects: Life expectancy, education
levels, and Gross National Income (GNI) per capita.
Descriptive Question
• These annual reports were devised and launched by
Q. What are the key economic projections and forecasts
outlined in the Asia Development Outlook Report Pakistani economist Mahbub ul-Haq in 1990, and had
2024? Discuss the economic prospects which vary the explicit purpose "to shift the focus of development
across different countries and subregions in Asia? [15 economics from national income accounting to people-
Marks] [250 words] centered policies

MISCELLANEOUS  126
 India’s Remarkable Journey (Since 1990)
A World Divided
• Life expectancy: Increased by 9.1 years.
The report reveals a disturbing trend after two decades of
• Education: Expected years of schooling rose by 4.6 years,
convergence, the gap between developed and developing
and mean years of schooling grew by 3.8 years.
nations is widening. This means:
• Economic Growth: GNI per capita has risen by
• Richer Nations Soar: Developed countries are approximately 287%.
experiencing unprecedented levels of human
development. India in the Neighbourhood
• Poorest Countries Struggle: However, nearly half of • South Asian Comparison: Compared to India, Sri Lanka
the world’s poorest nations haven’t recovered from the (78) and China (75) rank higher in the “high human
COVID-19 pandemic’s setbacks, hindering their HDI development” category. Bhutan (125) and Bangladesh
progress. (129) are positioned nearby.
• Regional Standing: Nepal (146) and Pakistan (164) trail
The SDG Challenge
India in the rankings.
• Before the pandemic, the world was on track to achieve
an average “very high” HDI by 2030, aligning with the Global Leaders and Laggards
SDG deadline. • Top Performers: Switzerland reigns supreme, followed
by Norway and Iceland.
• However, this goal is now out of reach, with all regions
• Bottom of the Ladder: Central African Republic, South
falling short of pre-pandemic projections.
Sudan, and Somalia occupy the unenviable positions at
India’s Performance: Progress Amidst Disparity the bottom of the index.
India’s ranking has improved slightly to 134th out of 193 Conclusion
countries, placing it in the “medium human development” The UNDP’s HDR presents a stark reality check. While some
category. While this indicates progress, India still faces nations prosper, many are falling behind. Concerted global
significant challenges: efforts are crucial to address rising inequalities, achieve
• Positive Signs: India saw improvements in all HDI the SDGs, and ensure a future where all nations and
indicators: life expectancy, education, and GNI per capita. individuals can thrive.
The report also acknowledges progress in reducing EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
gender inequality, with India’s Gender Inequality Index
(GII) value exceeding global and South Asian averages. Prelims MCQ
Q. Human Development Index Report is published by
• Persistent Challenges: Despite strides in education, which of the following?
India grapples with a massive gender gap in labor force
(a) World Bank
participation a staggering 47.8% difference between
women and men. (b) World Health Organization

127 MISCELLANEOUS
 • A low PMI number is considered unfavourable since it
(c) United Nations Development Programme
suggests that the manufacturing and services sectors are
(d) None of the above having difficulties and can be lowering the state of the
economy as a whole.
Answer: (c)

Descriptive Question
Conclusion
Q. What are the root causes of rising global inequalities?
The Purchasing Managers Index (PMI) serves as a vital
Elaborate the potential consequences of unchecked
inequalities for human development, social cohesion, economic indicator, offering valuable insights into business
and global stability? [15 Marks] [250 words] sentiment and activity. However, its reliance on subjective
survey responses, potential sample size limitations, timing
delays, sectoral biases, and interpretation challenges
MANUFACTURING PURCHASING underscore the need for caution in its use.
MANAGERS’ INDEX
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
Why in news: India’s Manufacturing Purchasing Managers’
Prelims MCQ
Index (PMI) hit a 16-year high of 59.1 in March 2024,
according to a study conducted by Hong Kong and Shanghai Q. Consider the following statements about Purchasing
Banking Corporation Limited (HSBC). Managers Index (PMI)
1. The PMI ranges from 0 to 1000 as numbers
Purchasing Managers Index
2. 
A score of less than 500 indicates contraction in
• This survey-based metric inquired about how
economic activity
respondents’ perceptions of important business variables
have changed from the previous month. 3. A score of more than 500 indicates expansion in
economic activity
• The PMI’s main goal is to inform investors, analysts,
and decision-makers within the company about the state How many of the above statements are correct?
of the business both now and in the future. a) Only one b) Only two
• In addition to being computed independently for the c) All three d) None
industrial and services sectors, a composite index is also Answer: (d)
created.
Descriptive Question
• The PMI ranges from 0 to 100 as a number.
Q. Explain factors contributing to the significant increase
¾ A score of less than 50 indicates contraction, whilst a in India's Manufacturing PMI to a 16-year high of 59.1 in
print above 50 indicates expansion. March 2024? Examine sector-specific trends or challenges
¾ A reading of 50 denotes no variation. reflected in the PMI data? [15 Marks] [250 words]
• The economy is said to be declining if the PMI for the
prior month is greater than the PMI for the current
month.
INFRASTRUCTURE INVESTMENT
• It is typically made available at the beginning of each
TRUST (INVIT)
month. As a result, it is regarded as a reliable leading Why in News: In order to raise $700–800 million, IndoSpace,
indicator of economic activity. an Indian company that develops industrial and logistics
• IHS Markit compiles PMI for more than 40 economies parks, plans to establish an infrastructure investment trust
globally. (InvIT).
¾ IHS Markit is leading the way in information, Key Details
analytics, and solutions for the main markets and
industries that propel economies around the world. • In the industrial and logistics sector in India, this will be
the largest InvIT.
¾ A division of S&P Global is IHS Markit.
• 52 industrial logistics parks spread over 11 Indian cities
Significance of Purchasing Managers’ Index
are owned by IndoSpace.
• Since the manufacturing and services sectors are major
contributors to economic growth, the PMI is frequently Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvIT)
used as a gauge of the state of the economy.
• Similar to mutual funds, InvITs are financial products.
• A high PMI rating is generally regarded as good news Their purpose is to combine modest funds from several
for the economy since it shows that the manufacturing investors to purchase assets that generate steady income
and services sectors are doing well and driving economic over time. An investor dividend would be paid out of
growth. some of this cash flow.

MISCELLANEOUS  128
• High net worth individuals, institutional investors, and • The Indian InvIT sector is still in its infancy.
non-institutional investors can all participate in InvITs • India Grid Trust and IRB InvIT Fund are the InvITs that
because the minimum investment amount required for are listed on the stock exchange.
an IPO is Rs 10 lakh. • The Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs)
• Through IPOs, invITs are listed on markets in the same Regulations, 2014 of the Securities and Exchange Board
manner as stocks. of India (SEBI) govern InvITs.

Structure of InvIT • Investors must get 90% of the net cash flows generated
• Trustees, sponsors, investment managers, and project by InvITs.
managers are all there just like in mutual funds. • A minimum of 80% of the InvIT’s investment must go
• It is the duty of a trustee to review an InvIT’s performance. toward revenue-generating infrastructure.
• The company that established the InvIT is promoted by Conclusion
the sponsor(s).
InvITs offer diversification, regular income, liquidity, and
• The responsibility of overseeing the InvIT’s assets and tax benefits, managed by professionals. However, regulatory
investments falls on the investment manager. changes and market fluctuations pose risks.
• The project manager is in charge of seeing that the
project is carried out. EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
Investor Protection Measures
Prelims MCQ
• In order to protect investors, InvIT issuers are required
to abide by a number of regulations. Three-year lock-in Q. Investments in InvIT’s provide benefits such as,
requirement requires the sponsor to own at least 15% of (1) Diversification of investments
the InvIT units.

129 MISCELLANEOUS
 (2) Liquidity for investors in accordance with the 1967 Unlawful Activities
(3) Regular income via dividends (Prevention) Act. ISIS has been added by the Central
Government to the Act’s First Schedule.
Choose the correct option
(a) Only 2 (b) Only 1 & 3
(c) Only 3 (d) All of the above
Answer: (d)

Descriptive Question
Q. 
Explain concerns with respect to Infrastructure
Investment Trusts? What are the key objectives and
motivations behind IndoSpace's decision to establish
an InvIT for raising funds? [15 Marks] [250 words]

ISLAMIC STATE-KHORASAN (IS-K)

Why in news: The March 22 terror incident at the Crocus City
Hall outside of Moscow, which resulted in the deaths of at
least 137 people, highlights the worries that the Islamic State
(IS), which lost its physical caliphate in Syria and Iraq six
years ago, may be headed toward a revival.
Origin and Ideology
• The group was founded in the Nangarhar province of
Afghanistan in 2015. The majority of the fighters in the
IS-K are from Central Asia.
• IS-K emerged in 2015 when former Tehrik-i-Taliban
Pakistan (TTP) commanders pledged allegiance to
ISIS.
• Its name “Khorasan” refers to a historical region that
includes parts of modern-day Afghanistan, Pakistan, Iran,
and Central Asia.
• The group consists a radical Salafi jihadist ideology,
seeking to establish a strict Islamic caliphate governed by
Sharia law.
Conclusion
• Following the Taliban’s coming to power in Afghanistan
Efforts to counter ISIS-K require international cooperation,
in August 2021, this branch increased activities.
robust intelligence sharing, and a comprehensive approach
• Since then, the IS-K has targeted the Shia minority in addressing the root causes of extremism.
Afghanistan and attempted to create a network of cells
with young, radicalized people from Central Asia and EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
the Tajik and Uzbek minorities in Afghanistan who were
upset with the Pashtun government of the Taliban. Prelims MCQ

Q. 
Which are the terrorist organizations are active in
Islamic State
Jammu & Kashmir,
• The Islamic State (IS) is a violent Salafi-Jihadist group
1. Lashkar-e-Taiba
that is also known by the names Islamic State of Iraq
and Syria (ISIS) and Islamic State in Iraq and the 2. Harkat-ul-Mujahideen
Levant (ISIL). 3. Islamic State-Khorasan
• It is a transnational Sunni rebel group that mostly
operates in eastern and western Syria and Iraq with Choose the correct option
the goal of establishing an Islamic caliphate and a
(a) Only 2 (b) Only 1 & 2
worldwide Salafi-Jihadist movement.
• IS asserted the creation of the “Wilayah of Hind,” a (c) Only 3 (d) All of the above
“province” in India. Answer: (b)
• India has recognized ISIS as an illegal organization

MISCELLANEOUS  130
 Descriptive Question EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
Q. Assess the implications of Islamic State-Khorasan (IS-
Prelims MCQ
K) for peace and reconciliation efforts in Afghanistan,
including the intra-Afghan dialogue and efforts to
achieve a political settlement? [15 Marks] [250 words] Q. Code of Ethics for elections by Social Media Platforms
was introduced by:

(a) Executive order

VOLUNTARY CODE OF ETHICS
FOR ELECTIONS BY SOCIAL (b) Legislation by centre
MEDIA PLATFORMS (c) Legislation by states
Why in News: A recent agreement by a social media platform
(d) Election Commission of India and the Internet and
to follow the ‘Voluntary Code of Ethics’ for elections has Mobile Association of India (IAMAI) collaboration.
reignited discussions on the role of social media in ensuring
a free and fair electoral process.
Answer: (d)

About the Voluntary Code of Ethics Descriptive Question

• Recognizing the growing influence of social media
Q. How has social media influenced the outcomes of recent
in political campaigning, the Election Commission of elections and what measures can be implemented to
India (ECI) collaborated with the Internet and Mobile ensure fair and unbiased information dissemination in
Association of India (IAMAI) to develop the Voluntary the context of democratic processes? [15 Marks] [250
Code of Ethics in 2019. words]
• This code aims to ensure the ethical use of social media
platforms during elections to safeguard the integrity of
the process.
IRDAI CELEBRATES 25 YEARS OF
ITS ESTABLISHMENT
Why in News: The Insurance Regulatory and Development
Authority of India (IRDAI) commemorated its Silver Jubilee
on April 19, 2024.

Key Details

• It was established in 1999 on recommendations of the

Malhotra Committee report and formally constituted in
2000 under the IRDA Act 1999.
• Prior to 1999, the Indian insurance sector was dominated
by state-owned entities. Consequently, IRDAI was setup
as an autonomous entity under the Ministry of Finance.
IRDAI’s Core Functions and Achievements
Challenges
Empowered by the Insurance Act (1938), IRDAI wields
• Voluntary Nature: The code’s effectiveness hinges on significant authority. It frames regulations covering
voluntary participation by social media platforms. various aspects, from registering insurance companies to
• Defining “Harmful Content”: Striking a balance between safeguarding policy holder interests. IRDAI has played a
free speech and removing content that could influence crucial role in:
elections is crucial.
• Promoting Competition and Protecting Consumers:
• Fake News and Misinformation: The code needs to be IRDAI prioritizes policyholder protection. It has
adapted to address the growing problem of fake news framed regulations on grievance redressal, product
during elections. standardization, and disclosure norms, ensuring
Conclusion transparency and fair treatment for consumers.
The Voluntary Code of Ethics represents a significant step • Enhancing Efficiency: IRDAI’s initiatives like Bima
towards a healthier online environment during elections. By Sugam, a single platform connecting stakeholders,
addressing the challenges and implementing the suggested and mandatory e-insurance policies have streamlined
measures, India can ensure a more robust and democratic processes and improved accessibility for policyholders
electoral process in the digital age. and insurers alike.

131 MISCELLANEOUS
India’s Insurance Sector Conclusion
The Indian insurance sector presents a picture of By addressing these areas, IRDAI can continue to be a
contrasting realities. On the one hand, it exhibits robust catalyst for a robust and inclusive insurance sector in India,
growth potential, ranking 10th globally and projected to ensuring greater financial protection and security for all
be 6th by 2032. Economic Survey 2022-23 indicates a rise citizens.
in insurance penetration from 3.76% (2019-20) to 4.20%
(2020-21) and life insurance density reaching USD 91 (2021- EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
22). However, these figures remain well below global
averages, highlighting significant challenges that need to Prelims MCQ
be addressed.
Q. Consider the following statements,
Growth Indicators and Positive Trends
• Rising Insurance Density and Penetration:Life insurance 1. 
Recently India observed increase in insurance
density has grown from USD 11.1 (2001) to USD 91 penetration among its population
(2021), reflecting a wider insurance net. Similarly,
2. 
Recently India observed increase in insurance
insurance penetration has witnessed an upward
density among its population
trajectory.
• Emerging Market Leader: India boasts the fastest- 3. 
India’s insurance density is well above global
growing insurance market globally, poised for average
significant expansion in the coming decade.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Way Forward
• Deepening Insurance Penetration and Product (a) Only one (b) only two
Innovation: Encouraging insurers to develop innovative
and customized products that cater to diverse needs (c) All three (d) None
is crucial. This could involve micro-insurance plans, Answer: (b) (1 and 2)
disease-specific covers, and personalized risk-based
premiums. Descriptive Question
• Cybersecurity and Data Privacy: As the industry
embraces digitalization, robust cybersecurity measures Q. What are the IRDAI’s core functions and Achievements?
and stringent data privacy regulations are essential to Explain the challenges faced by it in achieving universal
safeguard policyholder information. insurance coverage in India. [15 Marks] [250 words]
• Dispute Resolution Mechanisms and Technological
Integration: Further integration of Artificial Intelligence
and Big Data can enhance risk assessment, personalize
customer service, and facilitate faster claim settlements.

MISCELLANEOUS  132
 SECTION

ARTICLE FROM YOJANA (APRIL 2024)

K Soil Ecosystem

INTRODUCTION of nutrients and energy, crucial for soil fertility and

The soil ecosystem is an intricate and fascinating web of life structure.
and non-living elements that interact dynamically beneath the • Microorganisms: Microorganisms like bacteria, fungi,
surface. Ranging from tiny bacteria to burrowing mammals, protozoa, and others are plentiful in soil, playing critical
soils host a wide variety of organisms, all crucial for the roles in nutrient cycling, decomposition, and maintaining
health of terrestrial ecosystems and human society. This soil health. They decompose organic matter, fix nitrogen,
article delves into the components and functions of the soil and aid in soil aggregation.
ecosystem, emphasizing its importance and interconnected • Macro organisms: Macro organisms, such as earthworms,
nature. insects, nematodes, and small mammals, dwell in soil,
contributing diverse functions in nutrient cycling,
Components of Soil Ecosystem soil aeration, and shaping soil structure. Their actions
• Physical Environment: This encompasses soil texture, significantly impact soil fertility and the functioning of
structure, and moisture levels, shaping the habitat and ecosystems.
activities of organisms within the soil. • Plants Roots: Plant roots extend into the soil, securing
plants in place and extracting water and nutrients.
• Organic Matter: Comprising deceased plant and animal Through root exudates, plants provide energy sources for
matter, along with living organisms like microbes, fungi, microbial life, fostering soil organic matter and influencing
and earthworms, organic matter serves as a vital source microbial communities and nutrient cycling dynamics.

Soil Functions

ARTICLE FROM YOJANA (APRIL 2024)  133

Functions of the Soil Ecosystem mammals. The quality of soil structure and its organic
• Nutrient Cycling: Soil organisms decompose organic content directly influences the health and diversity of
matter, liberating essential nutrients like nitrogen, ecosystems by providing homes and sustenance for
phosphorus, and potassium into the soil. Plants utilize various species.
these nutrients for growth and productivity, ensuring a Interconnections within the Soil Ecosystem
continuous cycle of nutrient replenishment.
• The soil ecosystem operates through intricate networks
• Decomposition: Microorganisms and detritivores of relationships and feedback mechanisms. For instance,
play a crucial role in breaking down organic matter, plant roots release sugars and other compounds,
recycling nutrients, and reintroducing them into the soil. nourishing soil microbes, which in turn aid in nutrient
This decomposition process enhances soil fertility and absorption by plants and contribute to soil structure
contributes to the accumulation of organic matter, vital formation.
for sustaining soil health and productivity.
• Additionally, earthworms play a crucial role by ingesting
• Soil Formation: Soil undergoes continuous development organic matter and minerals, enriching and aerating
through weathering and the activities of soil organisms, the soil as they burrow through it. Figure 1 provides
such as earthworms and microorganisms. Their actions a schematic representation of these soil functions,
mix and transform soil materials, contributing to the illustrating the interconnectedness of its components.
formation process over time.
Conclusion
• Water Management: Soil serves as a crucial reservoir
for water, regulating its storage and release. The The soil ecosystem represents a dynamic and diverse
composition and structure of soil influence how water community of living organisms and non-living factors that
is absorbed, retained, and drained, impacting plant sustain life on Earth. From nutrient cycling to providing
growth, groundwater replenishment, and the prevention habitat, soil plays a critical role in terrestrial ecosystems
of floods. and human welfare. Recognizing the complexity of the
soil ecosystem is vital for implementing sustainable land
• Biodiversity Support: Soil offers a rich habitat for a
management practices and conserving ecosystems, ensuring
diverse range of organisms, from tiny bacteria to larger
the ongoing vitality and productivity of soils for future
generations.

134 ARTICLE FROM YOJANA (APRIL 2024)