English

(6001CMD30302123009) *6001CMD30302123009* Test Pattern

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET (UG)

MINOR
(Academic Session : 2023-2024) 16-08-2023

PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST_WD-MORNING_PHASE: 1 & 2_IT-05

Test Booklet Code This Booklet contains 27 pages.

Q2 Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Important Instructions :
1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and
fill in the particulars on ORIGINAL Copy carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four options with a
single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Biology-I and Biology-II). 50 questions in each subject are
divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below :
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos - 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151
to 185). All questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos - 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to
200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start attempting the question paper.
In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be
evaluated.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
4. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses on Answer Sheet.
5. Rough work is to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
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Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
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write your Form No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
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10. No candidate, without special permission of the Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
11. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and
sign (with time) the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases, where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time,
will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an Unfair Means case.
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Room/Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per the Rules and Regulations of this examination.
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15. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.
16. Compensatory time of one hour five minutes will be provided for the examination of three hours and 20 minutes duration,
whether such candidate (having a physical limitation to write) uses the facility of scribe or not.

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) :

Form Number : in figures
: in words
Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :
Candidate's Signature : Invigilator's Signature :
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2024
 2 English

Topic : Magnetic Effects Of Current & Magnetism

SECTION-A ( PHYSICS ) 6. A rectangular coil 20 cm × 20 cm has 100 turns

and carries a current of 1 A. It is placed in a
1. Two long straight wires, each carrying a current uniform magnetic field B = 0.5 T with the
I in opposite direction are seperated by a direction of magnetic field parallel to the plane
distance R. The magnetic induction at a point of the coil. The magnitude of the torque required
midway between the wire is :- to hold this coil in this position is :-
(2) μ0 I (1) Zero (2) 200 N-m
(1) Zero
πR (3) 2 N-m (4) 10 N-m
(3) 2μ0 I (4) μ0 I
πR 4πR 7. Dip angle are 30° & 45° at two different places,
2. A proton is moving along y-axis with then ratio of horizontal component of earth
velocity 200 m/s & magnetic field of magnitude magnetic field at these place will be (considering
1 µT is acting at 30° angle to the y-axis. Then earth's magnetic field is same on both places) :-
radius of circle in its helical path will be :- (1) √ 3 : √2 (2) 1 : √2

(1) 2m (2) 1 cm (3) 1 m (4) 0.1 m (3) 1 : √3 (4) 1 : 2

3. A charge + Q is moving upwards vertically. It 8. A bar magnet of length ' ℓ ' and magnetic dipole
enters a magnetic field directed to the north. The moment 'M' is bent in the form of an arc as
force on the charge will be towards shown in figure. The new magnetic dipole
(1) North (2) South (3) East (4) West moment will be :

4. Proton, Deuteron and alpha particle of the same

kinetic energy are moving in circular trajectories
in a constant magnetic field. The radii of proton,
deuteron and alpha particle are respectively rp,
rd and r α . Which one of the following relations (1) 2M (2) √ 2M
is correct ? π π
(3) 2√2M (4) 4√2M
(1) r α = rd > rp (2) r α = rd = rp
π π
(3) r α = rp < rd (4) r α > rd > rp 9. Curie temperatures is the temperature above
5. A cyclotron is used to accelerate charged which
particles. Time period of the revolving proton, if (1) Ferromagnetic material becomes
magnetic field is 1T :- paramagnetic material
(1) 20 π ns (2) Paramagnetic material becomes
(2) 40 π ns diamagnetic material

(3) 10 π ns (3) Paramagnetic material becomes

ferromagnetic material
(4) 5 π ns
(4) Ferromagnetic material becomes
( ∴ ns = nanoseconds)
diamagnetic material

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10. A current flows through a long straight wire. At 15. The wire in the figure carries a current i and
a distance of 5 cm from the wire, the magnetic consists of a circular arc of radius R and central
field is B. The magnetic field at a distance of 20 angle π rad, and two straight sections whose
2
cm from the wire will be extensions intersect the centre C of the arc. The
(1) B (2) B →
magnetic field B that the current produces at C
6 4
is:-
(3) B (4) B
3 2
11. The shape of the magnetic field lines due to an
infinite long, straight current carrying conductor
is :
(1) A straight line (2) Circular
(3) Elliptical (4) A plane
12. A coil of one loop is made by a wire of length L (1) ∣
→∣ μ0 i
∣ B∣= into the plane of the figure
and there after a coil of two loops is made by same ∣ ∣ 8R
(2) →∣ μ0 i
wire. The ratio of magnetic field at the centre of ∣
∣ B∣= out of the plane of the figure
coils respectively :- ∣ ∣ 8R
(3) ∣
→∣ μ0 i
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 1 ∣B ∣ = into the plane of the figure
∣ ∣ 8πR
(3) 1 : 8 (4) 4 : 1 (4) ∣
→∣ μ0 i
∣ B∣= out of the plane of the figure
∣ ∣ 8πR
13. 2 A current is flowing in a circular loop of radius
1m. Magnitude of magnetic field at the centre of 16. Two wires with currents 2 A and 1 A are
circular loop will be :- enclosed in a circular loop. Another wire with
current 3 A is situated outside the loop as shown.
(1) μ0
(2) 2 μ 0 → d→ℓ around the loop is
2 The ∮ B.
(4) μ0
(3) μ 0
2π
14. The magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil
of radius r carrying current is B1. The field at the
centre of another coil of radius r is B2, then
2
ratio of B1/B2 is :-
(1) μ 0 (2) 3 μ 0
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 6 μ 0 (4) 2 μ 0
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
17. If length and number of turns becomes half for a
solenoid then value of magnetic field becomes:-
(1) Twice (2) Same
(3) Half (4) One fourth

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18. Three identical long solenoids P, Q and R 23. A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady
connected to each other as shown in figure. If the current I . The current is uniformly distributed
magnetic field at the centre of P is 4.0 T, what over its cross-section. The ratio of the magnetic
would be the field at the centre of Q ? fields B and B', at radial distances a and 3a
2
respectively, from the axis of the wire is
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 6
2 3
(1) 2.0 T (2) 1.0 T 24. Two particle A and B of masses mA and
(3) 4.0 T (4) None of these mB respectively and having the same charge
are moving in a plane. A uniform magnetic field
19. Mean radius of a toroid is 10 cm and number of
turns are 500. If current flowing through it is 0.1 exists perpendicular to this plane. The speeds of
ampere then value of magnetic field (in tesla) for the particles are vA and vB respectively and the
toroid :- trajectories are as shown in the figure. Then

(1) 10 – 2 (2) 10 – 5
(3) 10 – 3 (4) 10 – 4
20. In Thomson mass spectrograph E⊥ → B → &V → ⊥B
→
(1) mAvA < mBvB
then the velocity of unaccelerated electron beam
will be :- (2) mAvA > mBvB
→∣ →∣ (3) mA < mB and vA < vB
∣
B E2
∣
E
(1) → ×B
E → (2) ∣ ∣
(3) (4) ∣ ∣

∣→ ∣
E B2 ∣→ ∣
B
(4) mA = mB and vA = vB
∣ ∣ ∣ ∣

21. Two identically charged particles A and B 25. Under the influence of a uniform magnetic
initially at rest, are accelerated by a common field a charged particle is moving in a circle
potential differene V. They enters into a uniform of radius R with constant speed V. The
transverse magnetic field B and describe a time period of the motion:
circular path of radii r1 and r2 respectively then (1) Depends on V and not on R
their mass ratio is :- (2) Depends on both R and V
2 2
(1) r1 (2) r2 (3) Independent of both R and V
( ) ( )
r2 r1
r1 r2
(4) Depends on R and not on V
(3) ( )
(4) ( )
r2 r1 26. A wire of length 2 m is placed in uniform
22. When a charged particle enters in a uniform magnetic field of 2 tesla. It makes 30° with the
magnetic field its kinetic energy :- field. If 10 A current is flowing in the wire, then
force per unit length on wire is
(1) Remains constant (2) Increases
(1) 1 N (2) 0.5 N
(3) Decreases (4) Becomes zero
(3) 5 N (4) 10 N

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27. A current carrying wire AC is placed in uniform 30. A magnet of magnetic moment 50 ^i A-m2 along
transverse magnetic field then the force on wire x-axis where magnetic field is B→ = (0.5i^ + 3.0j^)
AC :- tesla. The torque acting on magnet is :
(1) 175 k^ N – m (2) 150 k^ N – m
(3) 75 k^ N – m (4) 25 √
^
37 k N – m

31. Correct relation between magnetic field B,

(1) 3N (2) 4.2N (3) 6N (4) 4N magnetic intensity H and intensity of
magnetisation I is:
28. Two long parallel wires having current I and 3I
are placed at a distance d apart as shown in (1) B = µ0(H + I) (2) I = µ0(B + H)
figure. The net magnetic field at point P is zero, (3) H = µ0(B + I) (4) B = 2H(1 + I)
then distance x is 32. According to Curie's law, the magnetic
susceptibility of a paramagnetic substance at an
absolute temperature T is proportional to :-
(1) 1/T (2) T
(3) 1/T2 (4) T2

(1) d (2) d 33. The magnetic susceptibility is negative for :

3 4 (1) Diamagnetic material only
(3) d (4) d
6 8 (2) Paramagnetic material only
29. P, Q and R long parallel straight wires in air, (3) Ferromagnetic material only
carrying currents as shown. The direction of
(4) Paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials
resultant force on R is :-
34. An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected to a
magnetising field of 1200 A m – 1. The
permeability of the material of the rod is :
(µ0 = 4 π × 10 – 7 T m A – 1)

(1) Towards left (1) 2.4 π × 10 – 7 T m A – 1

(2) Towards right (2) 2.4 π × 10 – 4 T m A – 1

(3) The same as that of current in Q (3) 8.0 × 10 – 5 T m A – 1

(4) Perpendicular to plane of paper (4) 2.4 π × 10 – 5 T m A – 1

35. When 2A current is passed through a tangent
galvanometer, it gives a deflection of 30°. For
60° deflection, the current must be :-
(1) 1A (2) 2 √3 A (3) 4A (4) 6A

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SECTION-B ( PHYSICS ) 41. A magnet of magnetic moment 4A – m2 is held in

a uniform magnetic field 5 × 10 – 4T with the
36. A square current carrying loop is suspended in a magnetic moment vector makes an angle 30°
uniform magnetic field acting in the plane of the with the field. Work done in increasing the angle
loop. If the force on one arm of the loop is F→ , the from 30° to 45°:-
net force on the remaining three arms of the loop (1) 3.2 × 10 – 4 J (2) 1.6 × 10 – 4 J
is :-
(3) 1.6 × 10 – 3 J (4) 3.2 × 10 – 3 J
(1) →
F (2) 3F→ (3) – F→ (4) – 3F→
42. A thin ring of radius R meter has charge q
37. Due to the flow of current in a circular loop of coulomb uniformly spread on it. The ring rotates
radius R, the magnetic field produced at the about its axis with a constant frequency of f
centre of the loop is B. The manetic moment of revolutions/s. The value of magnetic induction in
the loop is :- Wb/m2 at the centre of the ring is :-
(1) BR3/2 π μ 0 (2) 2 π BR3/ μ 0 (1) μ0 qf (2) μ0 qf
(3) BR2/2 π μ 0 (4) 2 π BR2/ μ 0 2R 2πR
(3) μ0 q (4) μ0 q
38. A wire of length L metre carrying a current of I 2πfR 2fR
ampere is bent in the form of a circle. Its 43. At a place the earth's horizontal component of
magnetic moment is, magnetic field is 0.36 × 10 – 4 weber/m2. If the
(1) I L2/4 A m2 (2) I π L2 /4 A m2 angle of dip at that place is 60°, then the vertical
component of earth's field at that place in
(3) 2 I L2/ π A m2 (4) I L2/4 π A m2
weber/m2 will be approximately
39. The ratio of the magnetic field due to a small bar (1) 0.12 × 10 – 4 (2) 0.24 × 10 – 4
magnet at distance r in end on position (axial
position) to broad side on position (equatorial) is :- (3) 0.40 × 10 – 4 (4) 0.62 × 10 – 4
(1) 1 (2) 1 44. A wire carrying a current i is placed in a uniform
(3) 1 (4) 2
4 2 magnetic field in the form of the curve
40. A metallic rod of mass per unit length 1 kg m – 1 y = a sin(
πx
), 0 ⩽ x ⩽ 2L. The force acting on
is lying horizontally on a smooth inclined plane L
the wire is :-
which makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal.
The rod is not allowed to slide down by flowing
a current through it when a magnetic field of
induction 0.5T is acting on it in the vertical
direction. The current flowing in the rod to keep
it stationary is
(1) 11.32 A (2) 7.14 A (1) iBL (2) iBLπ
π
(3) 5.98 A (4) 14.76 A (3) 2iBL (4) Zero

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45. A current i (clock wise) flows in a square loop of 49. A wire carrying current I has the shape as shown
side 'a'. At the centre of the loop, value of B is in adjoining figure. Both linear parts of the wire
(2) μ0 i are very long and parallel to X-axis while
(1) Zero ⊗
2πa semicircular portion of radius R is lying in Y-Z
(3) 2√2μ0 i (4) 2√2μ0 i plane. Magnetic field at point O is
⊙ ⊗
2πa πa
46. Radius of a current carrying coil is ‘R’. The ratio
of magnetic field at a axial point which is R
distance away from the centre of the coil to the
magnetic field at the centre of the coil :-
(1) 1/2
1 (2) 1
( )
2 2
(3) 3/2
1 (4) 1
( )
2 4 (1) → = μ0 I (πi^ + 2k^ )
B
47. A long solenoid has length L, average diameter 4R
D and n layer of turns. Each layer contains N (2) → = − μ0 I (πi^ − 2k^ )
B
turns. If current flowing through the solenoid is 4R
i the value of magnetic field at the centre :- (3) → = − μ0 I (πi^ + 2k^ )
B
4R
(1) Does not depend on D (4) → = μ0 I (−i^)
B
(2) Proportional to D 4R
50. Identify the correct statement from the
(3) Inversely proportional to D
following.
(4) Proportional to L (1) Cyclotron frequency is dependent on speed
48. A horizontal current carrying wire is placed in a of charged particle
magnetic field which is perpendicular to length (2) Final kinetic energy of charged particle in
of wire. If wire is in equilibrium, find the value cyclotron is independent of its mass
of magnetic field
(3) Cyclotron frequency is independent of
(1) Mg (2) Mg
speed of charged particle
Iℓ 2Iℓ
(3) 2Mg (4) 3Mg (4) Final kinetic energy of charged particle in
Iℓ 2Iℓ cyclotron is independent of its charge

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Topic : Nitrogen Containing Compound, Biomolecules, Polymers, Chemistry in Everyday Life

SECTION-A ( CHEMISTRY ) 55. In the reaction sequence:

51.
A, B and C are:
KOH C2 H5 Br
−−−→ A −−−−−→ B (1) Benzene, nitrobenzene, aniline
(2) Nitrobenzene, aniline and diazonium salt
HOH (3) Nitrobenzene, benzene, aniline
−−−
+
→C+D
H
C and D in the above sequence are (4) Benzene, amino compound, aniline
(1) Benzoic acid + aniline 56. Methylamine on treatment with chloroform and
(2) Phthalic acid + ethylamine ethanolic caustic alkali gives foul smelling
compound, the compound is
(3) Phthalic acid + aniline
(1) CH3 NCO (2) CH3 CNO​
(4) Benzoic acid + ethylamine
(3) CH3 CN (4) CH3 NC
52. How many primary amines can be formulated by
C3H9N. 57. Hinsberg reagent is used to distinguish between
(1) Four primary amines (1) −CHO, ⟩C = O

(2) One primary amine (2) −CH2 OH, ⟩CHOH, −⟩C − OH

(3) Three primary amines (3) – O – , – OH

(4) Two primary amines (4)

53.
58. Reaction of RCONH2 with a mixture of Br2 and
KOH gives RNH2 as the main product. The
intermediate involved in the reaction is:

Which product' is a Schiffs base (1)

(2) R − NHBr
(1) a (2) b (3) c (4) d
54. The end-product in the reaction sequence would (3)
be: (4) R−C =N =0
HNO2 P Cl5 AgCN
Ethyl amine −−−−→ A −−−→ B −−−−→ C
59. N – Ethyl phthalimide on hydrolysis gives:
(1) Ethyl cyanide (2) Ethyl isocyanide
(1) Methyl alcohol (2) Ethyl amine
(3) Methyl amine (4) Acetamide
(3) Dimethyl amine (4) Diethyl amine

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60. The polymer containing strong intermolecular 64. Which one of following reaction is active H
forces e.g. hydrogen bonding is reaction of amine.
(1) Teflon (2) Nylon 6, 6 (1) Acetylation of RNH2
(3) Polystyrene (4) Natural rubber (2) Acylation of RNH2
61. Alkylamine dissolve in hydrochloric acid to form (3) Benzoylation of RNH2
alkylammonium chloride. The nitrogen in the (4) All of them
latter salt is:
65. Which one of the following is not an example of
(1) Quadricovalent only chain growth polymer ?
(2) Tricovalent only (1) Neoprene (2) Buna-S
(3) Unielectrovalent only (3) PMMA (4) Glyptal
(4) Quadricovalent. Unielectrovalent 66. Sn/HCl NaNO2 /HCl
C6 H5 NO2 −−−−−→ A −−−−−−−−→ B; to obtain
62. Identify the product in the following benzene from B, the suitable reagent is:
(1) SnCl2 + HCl (2) H3 P O2

(3) C2 H5 N2 Cl (4) CuCl/HCl

67. Which of the following is the monomer of

(1) (2) ?

(1) Caprolactum
(2) Terphthalic acid
(3) Glyptal
(3) (4)
(4) Ethylene glycol
68. In a set of reactions propionic acid yielded a
compound (D) ;
SOCl2 NH3
CH3 CH2 COOH (A) −−−−
→ (B) −−
−→ (C)
63. Bakelite is obtained from phenol by reacting KOH
Δ

with −−−→ (D) , What is the structure of (D)

Br2

(1) CH3 CHO (2) CH3 COCH3 (1) CH3 CH2 CH2 NH2 (2) CH3 CH2 CONH2

(3) HCHO (4) (CH2 OH)2 (3) CH3 CH2 NHCH3 (4) CH3 CH2 NH2

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69. Which of the following statements about primary 72. The electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in
amines is 'False' ? strongly acidic medium produces :-
(1) Alkyl amines are stronger bases (1) Azoxybenzene
than ammonia (2) Azobenzene
(2) Alkyl amines are stronger bases than aryl (3) Aniline
amines
(4) p-Aminophenol
(3) Alkyl amines react with nitrous acid
73. NH3 Δ Br2
to produce alcohols A −−
−→ B −→ C −−−→ CH3 CH2 NH2 A is:
KOH
(4) Aryl amines react with nitrous acid to (1) CH3 COOH
produce phenols
(2) CH3 CH2 CH2 COOH
70. Which of the following statements is false ?
(3)
(1) The repeating unit in natural rubber is from
isoprene
(2) Both starch and cellulose are polymers (4) CH3 CH2 COOH
glucose
74. Bieuret test is not given by
(3) Artificial silk is derived from cellulose
(1) Proteins (2) Carbohydrates
(4) Nylon-66 is an example of elastomer
(3) Polypeptide (4) Urea
71. In the following reaction, the product (A) H2 NOH
75. A −−−−−→ B −−−−−→ C
reduction NOCl
−−−→ CH3 CH2 Cl A
and C in the above sequence respectively are
(1) Methanal, methylamine
(2) Acetone, ethanamine

(1) (3) Ethanal, dimethylamine

(4) Acetaldehyde, ethylamine
(2) 76. Glucose as well as gluconic acid both on
oxidation with nitric acid gives -
(1) Saccharic acid (2) n-Hexane
(3)
(3) Fructose (4) Glucosazone
77. The spontaneous change in specific rotation of
(4) an optically active compound is called -
(1) Mutarotation (2) Rearrangements
(3) Inversion (4) Retention

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78. Hydrolysis of sucrose brings about a change in 84. which one of the following statements is not ture –
sign of rotation from dextro (+) to Laevo(-) and
(1) Buna-S is a copolymer of butadiene and
such a sign change is known as -
styrene
(1) Racemization (2) Inversion
(2) Natural rubber is a 1, 4-polymer of
(3) Mutarotation (4) None of these isoprene
79. DNA contains following purines bases - (3) In vulcanization, the formation of sulphur
(a) Adenine bridges between different chains make
(b) Guanine rubber harder and stronger
(c) Thymine (4) Natural rubber has the trans-configuration
(d) Cytosine
at every double bond
(1) a, c (2) a, b 85.
(3) a, c, d (4) a, b, c, d
80. RNA on translation gives - (1) α− amino acid
(1) Protein (2) DNA
(2) γ− amino acid
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) None of these
(3) Amino acid synthesised
81. The nitrogenous base having two possible
(4) β− amino acid
hydrogen bonding sites is -
(1) Thymine (2) Cytosine SECTION-B ( CHEMISTRY )
(3) Guanine (4) None of these 86. Which is correct in following
82. The hormone that helps in the conversion of (1) Monosaccharides known as sugars
glucose to glycogen is - (2) Polysaccharides are non sugars
(1) Bile acids (2) Adrenaline (3) Maltose and Lactose are reducing sugar
(3) Insulin (4) Cortisone (4) All of these
83. Which functional group participates in 87. Which of the following gives osazone different
disulphide bond formation in proteins - from the other three:
(1) Thioether (2) Thiol (1) Glucose (2) Mannose
(3) Thioester (4) Thiolactone (3) Galactose (4) Fructose
88. Sucrose in presence of invertase on hydrolysis
give-
(1) Glucose (2) Fructose
(3) Ethyl alcohol (4) (1) & (2) both

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89. Assertion : Dacron is a condensation polymer of 93. Assertion : Dettol is a mixture of terpeneol and
ethane-1, 2-diol and benzene-1, 2-dicarboxylic chloroxylenol.
acid Reason : Paracetamol is an example of broad
Reason : Dacron is a polyester. spectrum antibiotic.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion Reason is correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and but (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and but
Reason is not the correct explanation of Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion Assertion
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true (3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
90. Statement-1 : 3-hydroxybutanoic acid and 3 - 94. Which of the following one is mood Elevator ?
hydroxypentanoic acid are the monomers of (1) Luminol (2) Seconal
PHBV
Statement-2 : Nylon 2-nylon 6 is a biodegradable (3) Benzedrine (4) Aspirin
polymer 95. The following compound is used as -
(1) Both statement-I and II are correct
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
correct (1) An anti-inflammatory compound
(4) Both statement-I and II are incorrect (2) Analgesic
91. Chloroamphenicol is an :- (3) Hypnotic
(1) Antiseptic and disinfectant (4) Antiseptic
(2) Antibiotic broad spectrum 96. Consider the following statements
(3) Antifertility drug (a) Use of chemicals for therapeutic effect is
called chemotherapy
(4) Antihistaminic
(b) Analgesics have pain killing effect
92. Which of the following is not used as an antacid ? (c) Proteins which perform the role of biological
(1) Magnesium hydroxide catalysts in the body are called enzymes
The correct statements are
(2) Sodium carbonate
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) Sodium bicarbonate
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) Aluminium phosphate

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97. Find out the incorrect statement from the 99. Incorrect statement regarding α − amino acids is
following during discussion between Ravi and (1) In Zwitter ionic form, these show
Saima. amphoteric behaviour
(1) Aspirin inhibits the synthesis of (2) Except glycine, all naturally occurring
prostaglandins α − amino acids optically active
(2) Morphine when administered in medicinal (3) These are water soluble and high melting
dose, relieve pain solids
(3) Veronal is a derivative of barbituric acid (4) Most naturally occurring amino acids have
(4) Antihistamines and analgesics are D-configuration
neurologically active drugs 100. Vulcanized rubber used for making tyre rubber,
98. Consider the following statements it contains sulphur in which of the following
(a) Anionic detergents are sodium salts of percentage?
sulphonated long chain alcohols or (1) 5% (2) 10%
hydrocarbons
(b) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide is a (3) 20% (4) 30%
cationic detergent
(c) Calcium stearate is soluble in water but
sodium stearate is not
The incorrect statement(s) among the following
is/are
(1) (b) only
(2) (c) only
(3) (a) and (b) only
(4) (b) and (c) only

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Topic : Genetics (Principles of inheritance & variations) (5. Polygenic inheritance 6. Cytoplasmic inheritance 7.
Chromosomal theory of inheritance 8. Linkage 9. Sex linkage)

SECTION-A ( BOTANY ) 105. Match the columns (w.r.t frequency of

phenotypes produced in mating between two
101. Term linkage is coined by mulattos)
(1) Bateson (2) Morgan Column - I Column - II
(Phenotype) (Frequency)
(3) Mendel (4) Punnet i Mulatto a Fifteen
102. Which of the following statements is not true of ii Very light brown b One
two genes that show 50% recombination
iii Dark brown c Twenty
frequency?
iv Negro black d Six
(1) The genes show independent assortment
(1) i - d ; ii - a; iii - b ; iv - c
(2) The genes are tightly linked
(2) i - c ; ii - d ; iii - a ; iv - b
(3) If the genes are present on the same
chromosome, they undergo more than one (3) i - a ; ii - d; iii - c ; iv - b
crossovers in every meiosis (4) i - c ; ii - d; iii - b ; iv - c
(4) The genes may be on different 106. Who carried out several dihybrid crosses in
chromosomes Drosophila to study genes that were sex-linked ?
103. A person with genotype AABBCC for skin (1) Morgan (2) Bateson
colour will have _____ coloured skin
(3) Boveri (4) Sutton
(1) Lightest (2) Intermediate
107. Match the columns (I with II & III) w.r.t
(3) Darkest (4) Albino Drosophila characters and find the correct
104. Mendel's studies mainly described those traits option:
that have _______
(1) No distinct alternate forms
(2) Only one form
(3) Distinct alternate forms
108. Skin colour in man is controlled by
(4) Only three alternate forms (1) Supplementary genes
(2) Complementary genes
(3) Polygenes
(4) Epistatic genes
109. In which year Mendel's result's were
rediscovered ?
(1) 1884 (2) 1900 (3) 1901 (4) 1902

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110. Cytoplasmic inheritance was first discovered by 115. Who proposed that the pairing and separation of
(1) Sutton & Boveri (2) Correns pair of chromosomes during meiosis would lead
to the segregation of a pair of factors they
(3) Hugo De Vries (4) Bateson carried?
111. What is the probability of formation of (1) Sutton and Morgan
a white skin coloured progeny, if both the
parents genotypes are AaBbCc for human skin (2) Sutton and Punnet
colour ? (3) Bateson and Punnet
(1) 20/64 (2) 1/64 (4) Sutton and Boveri
(3) 6/64 (4) 15/64 116. Find the odd one w.r.t. rediscoverers of medel's
112. Statement - I : Holandric genes are present in results ?
males only (1) de Vries (2) Correns
Statement - II : Inheritance of x - linked (3) Boveri (4) Tschermak
characters may be through the males or females
117. Two genes R and Y are located on different
(1) Statement I only correct chromosomes. A plant with genotype RrYy
(2) Statement II only correct produce 4 types of gametes. RY and ry gametes
(3) Both the statement I and II are correct in one possibility of arrangement of
chromosomes. What are the types of gametes
(4) Both the statement I and II are incorrect produced in other possibility of arrangement of
113. Find the incorrect statement for polygenic traits chromosomes ?
(1) They are so distinct in their occurrence and (1) Rr & Yy (2) Ry & rY
do not spread across the gradient (3) RR & YY (4) RY & ry
(2) Effect of each allele is additive 118. Read the following statements. State whether
(3) Influenced by environment they are true (T) or false (F). Then choose is
(4) “Result in a bell shaped curve” (if a graph correct option
is plotted from the frequencies of (A) Linkage is physical association of genes on a
phenotypes in F2 generation) chromosome
(B) Recombination is the generation of non-
114. Experimental verification of the chromosomal parental gene combination
theory of inheritance was done by (C) Genetic maps show the position of genes on
(1) Thomas Hunt Morgan the chromosome
(2) R.C.Punnet (1) A - T ; B - F ; C - T
(3) Gregor Mendel (2) A - T ; B - T ; C - T
(4) Bateson (3) A - T ; B - F ; C - F
(4) A - F ; B - F ; C - F

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119. In tomato, genotype aabbcc produces 100 gr 125. Gene of male sterility in Maize plant is present in
tomatoes and genotype AABBCC produces 160 (1) Chloroplast
gr tomatoes. What is the contribution of each
dominant allele in the production of tomatoes? (2) Mitochondria
(1) 20 grams (2) 10 grams (3) Nucleus
(3) 40 grams (4) 30 grams (4) More than one option is correct
120. Polygenic inheritance is also known as 126. Find the incorrect statement w.r.t cytoplasmic
inheritance from the following
(1) Pleiotropic inheritance
(1) Total cytogenes present in cytoplasm
(2) Blending inheritance is called Plasmon
(3) Quantitative inheritance (2) Reciprocal cross results are different
(4) Qualitative inheritance (3) Also called as paternal inheritance
121. Formation of recombinants is due to (4) Also called as organellar inheritance
(1) Crossing over 127. Inheritance of colour of skin in human was
(2) Linkage studied by
(3) Lack of independent assortment (1) Henking (2) Stevens
(4) More than one options correct (3) Davenport (4) F. Meisher
122. Complete linkage is not found in 128. Number of linkage groups in human male and
(1) Male Drosophila (2) Female silk worm female respectively

(3) Female Drosophila (4) Both (1) & (2) (1) 23 & 23 (2) 24 & 24

123. Find the odd one out (3) 24 & 23 (4) 23 & 24

(1) Haemophilia 129. F2 generation phenotypic ratio is 1:4:6:4:1 in

(2) Colourblindness (1) Complementary genes

(3) Duchenne muscular dystrophy (2) Supplementary genes

(4) Hypertrichosis (3) Polygenic inheritance controlled by 2 genes

124. Formula used to find types of phenotypes (4) Polygenic inheritance controlled by 3 genes
obtained in the F2 generation of polygenetic 130. Extranuclear inheritance is a consequence of
inheritance is presence of genes in :-
(1) 2n-1 (2) 2n+1 (1) Lysosomes and ribosomes
(3) n-1 (4) n+1 (2) Mitochondria and chloroplasts
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria
(4) Ribosomes and chloroplasts

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131. In maize coloured endosperm (C) is 135. When Morgan crossed yellow bodied. White
dominant over colourless (c) and full endosperm eyed females with wild type males, the
(R) is dominant over shrunken (r). When a recombinant progeny in F2 generation was
dihybrid of F1 generation was test crossed it (1) 37.2% (2) 1.3%
produces four phenotypes in the following
percentage (3) 98.7% (4) 27.3%
Coloured and Full = 45% SECTION-B ( BOTANY )
Coloured - Shrunken =5%
Colourless-Full =4% 136. In which year, Mendel published his work on
Colourless - Shrunken = 46% inheritance of characters
From these data what would be distance between (1) 1865 (2) 1857
the two non allelic genes :-
(3) 1863 (4) 1884
(1) 48 units (2) 9 units
137. Find the incorrect label for the following figure
(3) 4 units (4) 12 units
132. What would be the nature of children if a colour
blind woman marries a normal man ?
(1) Colourblind daughter & normal sons
(2) Colourblind sons and carrier daughters
(3) Normal sons & carrier daughters
(4) Normal sons & Normal daughters (1) A - G1 phase
133. A gene located on Y-chromosome and (2) B - G2 phase
transmitted from father to son is known as:- (3) C - Bivalent
(1) Supplementary gene (4) D - Meiosis II anaphase
(2) Complementary gene 138. Statement - I : In pea plant genes controlling
(3) Duplicate gene stem height, flower position and pod shape show
(4) Holandric gene linkage
Statement - II : In pea plant these genes for stem
134. A colourblind daughter is born when : height, flower position and pod shape present on
(1) Father is colourblind, mother homozygous same chromosome
normal (1) Statement I and II are true
(2) Mother is colourblind, father is normal (2) Statement I and II are false
(3) Mother is carrier, father is normal (3) Statement I only correct
(4) Mother is carrier, father is colourblind (4) Statement II only correct

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139. Depending upon the distance between any two 142. In a plant two non-allelic genes present on the
genes on the same chromosome, percentage of same chromosome and have 5 cM distance
recombinants will be between between them, what percentage of gametes
(1) 50 – 100% (2) 0 – 50% produced by that plant will have parental
combination genes?
(3) 75 – 100% (4) 100 – 150%
(1) 5% (2) 2.5%
140. Statement A : Mendel work suggest that factors
or genes were discrete units. (3) 95% (4) 47.5%
Statement B : Mendel provided the physical 143. Arrangement of linked genes in the given figure
proof for the existence of factors. is
(1) Both statement A and B are correct
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(3) Statement B is correct
(4) Statement A is correct
141. How many statement(s) given below are correct
for the following figures? (1) Cis / Coupling
(2) Trans / Repulsion
a. (3) Trans / Coupling
(4) Cis / Repulsion
144. Assertion (A): Mendel's work could not be
widely publicized
b. Reason (R): Communication was not easy in
those days

i) (a) and (b) are female and male flies (1) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correctly
respectively explaining (A)
ii) They complete their life cycle in about two (2) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correctly
weeks explaining (A)
iii) They can't be grown on simple synthetic (3) (A) is true, while (R) is wrong
medium in the laboratory
iv) They have many hereditary variations that (4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
can be seen with low power microscope
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four

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145. Two alleles of a gene pair are located on 147. The recombination frequency between the
(1) Homologous sites on non-homologous genes a & c is 5%, b & c is 15%, b & d is 9%, a
chromosomes & b is 20%, c & d is 24% and a & d is 29%.
What will be the sequence of these genes on a
(2) Non homologous sites of homologous linear chromosome ?
chromosomes
(1) d, b, a, c (2) a, b, c, d
(3) Homologous sites on homologous
chromosomes (3) a, c, b, d (4) a, d, b, c
(4) Non-homologous sites on non-homologous 148. Who among the following used the frequency of
chromosomes recombination between gene pairs on the same
chromosome as a measure of distance between
146. Given below are two statements, one is labelled genes and mapped their position?
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) (1) Davenport (2) Sturtevant
Assertion (A): Mendel's law of independent (3) Morgan (4) Nillson
assortment does not hold good for the genes that
149. Colour blindness occurs in about _______.
are located closely on the same chromosome
Reason (R) : Closely located genes assort (1) 0.4 % females and 8 % of males
independently (2) 8 % of males and 0.4 % of females
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) 50 % of males and 50% of females
correct answer from the
Options given below: (4) Many descendents of queen victoria
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not 150. Select the correct statement from the following
the correct explanation of (A) options
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (1) When genes are grouped on the same
chromosome, some genes are very tightly
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
linked and show very low recombination
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(2) When genes are loosely linked show very
correct explanation of (A)
low recombination
(3) When genes are tightly linked show higher
recombination
(4) When genes are loosely linked show no
recombination

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Topic : Evolution: Theories & Evidences

SECTION-A ( ZOOLOGY ) 154. Evolution by anthropogenic action includes:

(1) Natural selection of herbicide and pesticide
151. The Miller's experiment gave the evidence for resistant varieties of weeds and insects
the theory of : respectively
(1) Chemical evolution (2) Drug resistant microorganisms
(2) Big bang (3) Antibiotic resistant microbes
(3) Biogenesis (4) All of the above
(4) Spontaneous generation 155. Sweet potato and potato:
152. The study of fossils: (1) Represent analogous structures
(1) Shows that life-forms varied over time and (2) Represent divergent evolution
certain life forms are restricted to certain
geological time-spans (3) Represent homologous structures
(2) Shows that new forms of life arose at the (4) Both (1) and (3)
same time in the history of earth 156. Read the following statements:
(3) Confirms the 'theory of Panspermia' (i) Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt
and get selected by nature
(4) Confirms the 'theory of Spontaneous
(ii) Some organisms are better adapted to survive
generation'
in hostile environment
153. Find the true(T)/false(F) statements and choose (iii) Adaptive ability is inherited but has no
the correct option genetic basis
I. The universe is about 20 billion years old (iv) Branching descent and natural selection are
II. Life appeared 500 million years after the the two key concepts of Darwinian theory of
formation of earth evolution
III. Extra terrestrial origin of life was proposed (v) Charles Darwin was influenced by the work
by the 'theory of Panspermia'. of Thomas Malthus on populations
IV. The first non-cellular forms of life could Which of the above statements are correct?
have originated 3 billion years back
(1) (i),(ii),(iv),(v) (2) (ii),(iii),(iv),(v)
Options I II III IV
(3) (i) and (ii) only (4) (ii) and (v) only
(1) T F T F
157. Speciation in geographically separated region is:
(2) T T F T
(1) Allopatric (2) Geopatric
(3) F F T T
(3) Sympatric (4) Sibling formation
(4) T T F F

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158. The correct sequence of stage in evolution of 163. Genetic drift operates only in:
modern man(Homo sapiens sapiens) is:
(1) Larger populations
I. Home erectus
II. Neanderthal man (2) Mendelian populations
III. Modern man
(3) Island population
IV. Australopithecus
V. Cro-Magnon man (4) Smaller population
(1) IV → II → I → III → I 164. If a population is in genetic equilibrium the sum
(2) IV → I → II → V → III
total of all allelic frequencies is

(3) IV → II → III → I → V
(1) Less than 1 (2) Equal to 1

(4) IV → V → III → I → II
(3) Greater than 1 (4) Zero

159. Which type of selection is industrial melanism 165. Darwin's finches are example of:
observed in moth, Biston bitularia: (1) Biogeographical evidence
(1) Stabilising (2) Directional (2) Palaeontological evidence
(3) Disruptive (4) Artificial (3) Embryological evidence
160. Fitness, according to Darwin, refers ultimately (4) Analogous organs
and only to
166. In post-zygotic barrier of hybridisation if the
(1) Physically dominant over other hybrid adults do not produce functional gametes,
(2) Ability to defend from others it is termed as
(3) Strategy of obtaining food (1) Hybrid inviability (2) Hybrid sterility

(4) Number of offspring produced (3) Hybrid breakdown (4) Hybrid vigour

161. “Evolution of life forms had occured but driven 167. Choose the odd one w.r.t. eras in the geological
by use and disuse of organ” stated by time scale.
(1) Malthus (2) Sewall Wright (1) Coenozoic (2) Mesozoic

(3) Jean Baptist Lamarck (4) Charles Darwin (3) Paleozoic (4) Silurian

162. Select the correct statement among the 168. The skull of which two organisms shown below
is most alike?
following.
(1) The universe is very old – almost 20,000
million year old
(2) Huge clusters of galaxies comprise the
universe. Galaxies contain stars and clouds
of gas and dust
(3) The Big Bang theory attempts to explain to
us the origin of non cellular form of life
(4) Both (1) and (2) (1) A and B (2) B and C
(3) A and C (4) A, B and C
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169. The organism that arose in the ice age between 174. When more than one adaptive radiation appeared
75,000 - 10,000 years ago was to have occured in an isolated geographical area
(1) Homo erectus (2) Dryopithecus (representing different habitats), can be called as

(3) Ramapithecus (4) Homo sapiens (1) Adaptive radiation

170. Mammals have originated from which of the (2) Convergent evolution
following? (3) Divergent evolution
(1) Pisces (2) Reptilia (4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) Amphibia (4) Aves 175. Lemur is the placental mammal in Australia.
171. Which is the correct order of timeline Which is the corresponding marsupial to it with
in geological time scale for a hypothetical reference to convergent evolution ?
vertebrate evolution? (1) Numbat (2) Flying phalanger
(1) Coenozoic, mesozoic, palaeozoic, (3) Spotted cuscus (4) None of these
precambrian 176. Germplasm theory, given by August Weisman
(2) Coenozoic,palaeozoic, mesozoic, criticises mainly which theory of organic
precambrian evolution?
(3) Precambrian, coenozoic, palaeozoic, (1) Lamarckism (2) Darwinism
mesozoic (3) Neo-Darwinism (4) Mutation theory
(4) Precambrian, palaeozoic, mesozoic,
177. The first human like being the hominid was
coenozoic
called:
172. Find out incorrect evolutionary sequence
(1) Australopithecus (2) Home erectus
(1) Chlorophyte→ Tracheophyte→ Rhynia
(3) Homo habilis (4) Homo sapiens
(2) Tracheophyte→ Rhynia→Psilophyton
178. Which of the following is considered as direct
(3) Progymnosperm→Seed Fern→Dicots ancestor of Homo sapiens ?
(4) Psilophyton→Bryophytes→Fern (1) Cro-magnon man (2) Neanderthal man
173. How many of the following are examples of (3) Homo erectus (4) Australopithecus
homologous structures in plants ?
179. 2 mya, Australopithecus probably lived in
(a) Eyes of octopus and mammal
(b) Potato and sweet potato (1) America (2) West Africa
(c) Forelimbs of whale, bat, cheetah and human (3) East Africa (4) Asia
(d) Vertebrate heart
180. Single step large mutation leading to speciation
(e) Thorn of bougainvillea and tendril of
is also called
cucurbita
(1) Founder effect (2) Saltation
(1) Three (2) One
(3) Branching descent (4) Natural selection
(3) Two (4) Four

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181. In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belongs SECTION-B ( ZOOLOGY )
to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the
remaining 160 to aa. Based on this data, the 186. Fishes with stout and strong fins could move on
frequency of allele A in the population is land and go back to water. This phase of
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.5 (3) 0.6 (4) 0.7 evolution occured about
182. The most apparent change during the (1) 350 mya (2) 200 mya
evolutionary history of Homo sapiens is traced in (3) 65 mya (4) 150 mya
(1) Loss of body hair 187. The extinct human who lived 1,00,000 to 40,000
(2) Walking upright years ago, in East and Central Asia, used hides to
protect their bodies and had brain capacity
(3) Shortening of the jaws
of 1400 cc were
(4) Remarkable increase in the brain size
(1) Homo habilis (2) Neanderthal man
183. Natural selection in which more individuals
(3) Cro-Magnon man (4) Ramapithecus
acquire mean character value is known as
____while the one wherein more individuals 188. Hugo de Vries mutations are A while Darwinian
acquire peripheral character value at both ends variations are B . Options
of the distribution curve is____ (1) A → small and directional B → random
(1) Stabilizing selection; disruptive selection and directionless
(2) disruptive selection; stabilizing selection (2) A →small and directional B → random and
(3) disruptive selection; directional selection directional

(4) Stabilizing selection; directional selection (3) A → random and directionless B→ small
and directional
184. Unit of Natural Selection is
(4) A →random and directional B→ small and
(1) Individual (2) Population directional
(3) Species (4) Mutation 189. The earliest fossil form in the phylogeny of
185. Five factors are known to affect Hardy – horse is
weinberg equilibrium. These five factors in (1) Merychippus (2) Mesohippus
given list:
(a) Genetic drift (3) Eohippus (4) Equus
(b) Natural selection 190. The extinct human ancestor who ate only fruits
(c) Adaptive evolution and hunted with stone weapons was
(d) Mutation
(e) Convergent evolution (1) Ramapithecus (2) Australopithecus
(f) Gene migration (3) Neanderthals (4) Homo habilis
(g) Genetic recombination
(h) Branching descent
Options:
(1) a, b, c, d, e (2) a, b, d, e, f
(3) a, c, d, g, h (4) a, b, d, f, g
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191. According to Oparin, which one of the following 195. Identify the geographical periods (A, B, C) in the
was not present in free form in the primitive given diagram
atmosphere of the earth?
(1) Methane (2) Oxygen
(3) Hydrogen (4) Water vapour
192. Lamarck was a___
(1) French physicist (2) German botanist
(3) French naturalist (4) British naturalist
193. Match the following w.r.t Evolution

Disappearance of 500
A. (i)
dinosaurs mya
350
B. Invertebrates (ii)
mya
C. Jawless fishes (iii) 65 mya
200
D. Fish like reptiles (iv)
mya

(1) A – Tertiary, B – Jurassic, C – Permian

(2) A – Tertiary, B – Permian, C – Jurassic
(3) A – Permian, B – Jurassic, C – Tertiary
(4) A – Permian, B – Tertiary, C – Permian
194. Time gap in between formation of earth and
origin of life
(1) 0.5 billion years (2) 1 billion years
(3) 4.5 billion years (4) 4 billion years

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196. Assertion(A): Evolution is not a directed process 198. Assertion(A): Continental drift caused survival
in the sense of determination of pouched mammals of Australia.
Reason(R): It is a stochastic process based on Reason(R): It was due to lack of competition
chance events in nature and chance mutation in from any other mammal.
the organisms. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
correct explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
correct explanation of (A) (3) (A) is true statements but (R) is false
(3) (A) is true statements but (R) is false (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false 199. A form of adaptation in which two or more
197. Assertion(A): Analogous structures are a result inedible or unpalatable species resemble each
of convergent evolution. other is called
Reason(R): Different structures evolving for the (1) Batesian mimicry
same function and hence having similarity.
(2) Mullerian mimicry
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A) (3) Reproductive isolation
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the (4) Temporal isolation
correct explanation of (A) 200. Assertion(A): Among primates, chimpanzee is
(3) (A) is true statement but (R) is false closest relative to the present day humans.
Reason(R): The banding pattern of autosomes 3
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
and 6 of humans and chimpanzee is remarkably
similar
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true statement but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

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