2025 (22 Jan Shift 2) JEE Main Previous Year Paper

JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q1. For a 3 × 3 matrix M , let trace (M ) denote the sum of all the diagonal elements of M . Let A be a 3 × 3 matrix
such that |A| = 1

2
and trace (A) = 3. If B = adj(adj(2A)), then the value of |B|+ trace (B) equals :
(1) 56 (2) 132
(3) 174 (4) 280

Q2. In a group of 3 girls and 4 boys, there are two boys B and B . The number of ways, in which these girls and 1 2

boys can stand in a queue such that all the girls stand together, all the boys stand together, but B and B are 1 2

not adjacent to each other, is :

(1) 96 (2) 144
(3) 120 (4) 72

Q3. Let α, β, γ and δ be the coefficients of x 7 5

,x ,x
3
and x respectively in the expansion of
5 5
αu + βv = 18
(x + √ x − 1)
3
+ (x − √ x − 1) , x > 1
3
. If u and v satisfy the equations then u + v equals :
γu + δv = 20

(1) 5 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 8

Q4. Let a line pass through two distinct points P (−2, −1, 3) and Q, and be parallel to the vector 3^i + 2^j + 2k
^
. If the
distance of the point Q from the point R(1, 3, 3) is 5 , then the square of the area of △P QR is equal to :
(1) 148 (2) 136
(3) 144 (4) 140

Q5. If A and B are two events such that P (A ∩ B) = 0.1, and P (A ∣ B) and P (B ∣ A) are the roots of the equation
–
–

, then the value of is :

2 P(A∪B)
12x − 7x + 1 = 0
–
–
P(A∩B)

(1) 4

3
(2) 7

(3) 5

3
(4) 9

Q6. If ∫ e
x
(
x sin
−1
x
+
sin
−1
x
+
x
)dx = g(x) + C , where C is the constant of integration, then g ( 1
) equals
3/2 2
√ 1−x 2 2 1−x 2
(1−x )

:
(1) π
√
e
(2) π
√
e

4 3 6 3

(3) π

4
√
2
e
(4) π

6
√
e

Q7. The area of the region enclosed by the curves y = x 2

− 4x + 4 and y 2
= 16 − 8x is :
(1) 8

3
(2) 4

(3) 8 (4) 5
2

Q8. Let f (x) = ∫

2

. Then the numbers of local maximum and local minimum points of f ,

x t −8t+15
t dt, x ∈ R
0 e

respectively, are :
(1) 2 and 3 (2) 2 and 2
(3) 3 and 2 (4) 1 and 3

Q9. Let P(4, 4√3) be a point on the parabola y 2

= 4ax and PQ be a focal chord of the parabola. If M and N are the
foot of perpendiculars drawn from P and Q respectively on the directrix of the parabola, then the area of the
quadrilateral PQMN is equal to :
2025 (22 Jan Shift 2) JEE Main Previous Year Paper
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

(1) 17√3 (2) 263√ 3

(3) 34√ 3

3
(4) 343√ 3

→ and →b be two unit vectors such that the angle between them is
Q10. Let a π

3
→ + 2→b and 3a
. If λa → − λ→b are
perpendicular to each other, then the number of values of λ in [−1, 3] is :
(1) 2 (2) 1
(3) 0 (4) 3
x
Q11. If lim , then the value of equals :
e 1 x log α
e
x→∞ (( )( − )) = α
1−e e 1+x 1+log α
e

(1) e −1
(2) e 2

(3) e −2
(4) e

Q12. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4} and B = {1, 4, 9, 16}. Then the number of many-one functions f : A → B such that
1 ∈ f ( A) is equal to :
(1) 151 (2) 139
(3) 163 (4) 127

Q13. Suppose that the number of terms in an A.P. is 2k, k ∈ N . If the sum of all odd terms of the A.P. is 40 , the sum
of all even terms is 55 and the last term of the A.P. exceeds the first term by 27, then k is equal to :
(1) 6 (2) 5
(3) 8 (4) 4

Q14. The perpendicular distance, of the line from the point P(2, −10, 1), is :
x−1 y+2 z+3
= =
2 −1 2

(1) 6 (2) 5√2

(3) 4√3 (4) 3√5

Q15. x + y + 2z = 6

If the system of linear equations : 2x + 3y + az = a + 1 where a, b ∈ R, has infinitely many solutions, then
− x − 3y + bz = 2 b

7a + 3b is equal to :
(1) 16 (2) 12
(3) 22 (4) 9

Q16. If x = f (y) is the solution of the differential equation (1 + y 2

) + (x − 2e
tan
−1
y
)
dy

dx
= 0, y ∈ (−
π

2
,
π

2
) with
f (0) = 1 , then f ( 1

√3
) is equal to :
(1) e π/12
(2) e π/4

(3) e π/3
(4) e π/6

Q17. Let α and β be the distinct roots of 2x

θ θ
2
+ (cos θ)x − 1 = 0, θ ∈ (0, 2π) . If m and M are the minimum and
the maximum values of α 4
θ
+ β
4
θ
, then 16(M + m) equals :
(1) 24 (2) 25
(3) 17 (4) 27

Q18. The sum of all values of θ ∈ [0, 2π] satisfying 2 sin 2

θ = cos 2θ and 2 cos 2
θ = 3 sin θ is
2025 (22 Jan Shift 2) JEE Main Previous Year Paper
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

(1) 4π (2) 5π

(3) π (4) π

Q19. Let the curve z(1 + i) + z̄(1 − i) = 4, z ∈ C, divide the region |z − 3| ≤ 1 into two parts of areas α and β.
Then |α − β| equals :
(1) 1 + π

2
(2) 1 + π

(3) 1 + π

6
(4) 1 + π

2 2

Q20. Let E :
2 2
x

a
2
+
y

b
2
= 1, a > b and H : x

A
2
−
y

B
2
= 1 . Let the distance between the foci of E and the foci of H
be 2√3. If a − A = 2, and the ratio of the eccentricities of E and H is 1

3
, then the sum of the lengths of their
latus rectums is equal to:
(1) 10 (2) 9
(3) 8 (4) 7
2

Q21. If ∑
2 30
r ( Cr )
30

r=1 30
C r−1
= α × 2
29
, then α is equal to ______

Q22. Let A = {1, 2, 3}. The number of relations on A, containing (1, 2) and (2, 3), which are reflexive and
transitive but not symmetric, is ______ -

Q23. Let A(6, 8), B(10 cos α, −10 sin α) and C(−10 sin α, 10 cos α), be the vertices of a triangle. If L(a, 9) and
G(h, k) be its orthocenter and centroid respectively, then (5a − 3h + 6k + 100 sin 2α) is equal to ______ -.
6

Q24. Let y = f (x) be the solution of the differential equation dy

dx
+
xy
2
x −1
=
x +4x
, −1 < x < 1 such that
√ 1−x 2

. If 6 ∫ then α is equal to _______ .

1/2
2
f (0) = 0 f (x)dx = 2π − α
−1/2

Q25. Let the distance between two parallel lines be 5 units and a point P lie between the lines at a unit distance
from one of them. An equilateral triangle P QR is formed such that Q lies on one of the parallel lines, while R
lies on the other. Then (QR) is equal to _______ -. 2

Q26.

A B Y

0 0 1

0 1 1

1 0 0

1 1 1

To obtain the given truth table, following logic gate should be placed at G:
2025 (22 Jan Shift 2) JEE Main Previous Year Paper
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

(1) OR Gate (2) AND Gate

(3) NOR Gate (4) NAND Gate

Q27. A small rigid spherical ball of mass M is dropped in a long vertical tube containing glycerine. The velocity of
the ball becomes constant after some time. If the density of glycerine is half of the density of the ball, then the
viscous force acting on the ball will be (consider g as acceleration due to gravity)
(1) 2 Mg (2) Mg
(3) 3

2
Mg (4) Mg

Q28. The torque due to the force (2^i + ^j + 2k)

^
about the origin, acting on a particle whose position vector is
^ ^ ^
(i + j + k) , would be
(1) ^ ^
i − k (2) ^i + k
^

(3) ^j + k
^ (4) ^i − ^j + k
^

Q29. A symmetric thin biconvex lens is cut into four equal parts by two planes AB and CD as shown in figure. If
the power of original lens is 4 D then the power of a part of the divided lens is

(1) D (2) 8D
(3) 2D (4) 4D

Q30. For a short dipole placed at origin O, the dipole moment P is along x-axis, as shown in the figure. If the
electric potential and electric field at A are V and E , respectively, then the correct combination of the electric
0 0

potential and electric field, respectively, at point B on the y-axis is given by

2025 (22 Jan Shift 2) JEE Main Previous Year Paper
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

(1) V and
0
E0

4
(2) zero and E0

16

(3) zero and E0

8
(4) V0

2
and E0

16

Q31. A transparent film of refractive index, 2.0 is coated on a glass slab of refractive index, 1.45. What is the
minimum thickness of transparent film to be coated for the maximum transmission of Green light of
wavelength 550 nm . [Assume that the light is incident nearly perpendicular to the glass surface.]
(1) 137.5 nm (2) 275 nm
(3) 94.8 nm (4) 68.7 nm

Q32. Given are statements for certain thermodynamic variables, (A) Internal energy, volume (V) and mass (M) are
extensive variables. (B) Pressure (P), temperature (T) and density ( ρ ) are intensive variables. (C) Volume (V),
temperature (T) and density ( ρ ) are intensive variables. (D) Mass (M), temperature (T) and internal energy
are extensive variables. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (B) and (C) Only (2) (C) and (D) Only
(3) (D) and (A) Only (4) (A) and (B) Only

Q33. An electron projected perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field B moves in a circle. If Bohr's quantization is
applicable, then the radius of the electronic orbit in the first excited state is :
(1) √ h (2) √ 2h

πeeB πeB

(3) √ h (4) √ 4 h

2πeB πeB

Q34. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : In Young's double slit experiment, the fringes produced by red light are closer as compared to
those produced by blue light. Reason (R): The fringe width is directly proportional to the wavelength of light.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the (2) (A) is true but (R) is false
correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
explanation of (A)

Q35. A rectangular metallic loop is moving out of a uniform magnetic field region to a field free region with a
constant speed. When the loop is partially inside the magnate field, the plot of magnitude of induced emf (ε)
with time (t) is given by
2025 (22 Jan Shift 2) JEE Main Previous Year Paper
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q36. A ball of mass 100 g is projected with velocity 20 m/s at 60 with horizontal. The decrease in kinetic energy
∘

of the ball during the motion from point of projection to highest point is
(1) 5 J (2) 15 J
(3) 20 J (4) zero

Q37. A body of mass 100 g is moving in circular path of radius 2 m on vertical plane as shown in figure. The
velocity of the body at point A is 10 m/s. The ratio of its kinetic energies at point B and C is :

(Take acceleration due to gravity as 10 m/s )2

(1) 2+√ 2

3
(2) 2+√ 3

(3) 3+√ 3

2
(4) 3−√ 2

Q38. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : A simple pendulum is taken to a planet of mass and radius, 4 times and 2 times, respectively,
than the Earth. The time period of the pendulum remains same on earth and the planet. Reason (R): The mass
2025 (22 Jan Shift 2) JEE Main Previous Year Paper
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

of the pendulum remains unchanged at Earth and the other planet. In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true (2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the
explanation of (A) correct explanation of (A)

Q39. A series LCR circuit is connected to an alternating source of emf E. The current amplitude at resonant
frequency is I . If the value of resistance R becomes twice of its initial value then amplitude of current at
0

resonance will be
(1) 2I 0 (2) I 0

(3) I0

2
(4) I0

√2

Q40. Which one of the following is the correct dimensional formula for the capacitance in F ? M, L, T and C stand
for unit of mass, length, time and charge,
(1) [F] = [C 2
M
−1
L
−2
T ]
2
(2) [F] = [C 2
M
−2
L
2 2
T ]

(3) [F] = [CM −2

L
−2
T
−2
] (4) [F] = [CM −1
L
−2 2
T ]

Q41.

A tube of length L is shown in the figure. The radius of cross section at the point (1) is 2 cm and at the point
(2) is 1 cm , respectively. If the velocity of water entering at point (1) is 2 m/s, then velocity of water leaving
the point (2) will be
(1) 4 m/s (2) 2 m/s
(3) 6 m/s (4) 8 m/s

Q42. A light source of wavelength λ illuminates a metal surface and electrons are ejected with maximum kinetic
energy of 2 eV . If the same surface is illuminated by a light source of wavelength λ

2
, then the maximum
kinetic energy of ejected electrons will be (The work function of metal is 1 eV )
(1) 3 eV (2) 2 eV
(3) 6 eV (4) 5 eV

Q43. The maximum percentage error in the measurment of density of a wire is [Given, mass of wire
= (0.60 ± 0.003)g radius of wire = (0.50 ± 0.01)cm length of wire = (10.00 ± 0.05)cm]
(1) 8 (2) 5
(3) 4 (4) 7

Q44. For a diatomic gas, if γ 1 = (

Cp

Cv
) for rigid molecules and γ 2 = (
Cp

Cv
) for another diatomic molecules, but
also having vibrational modes. Then, which one of the following options is correct ? (Cp and Cv are specific
heats of the gas at constant pressure and volume)
2025 (22 Jan Shift 2) JEE Main Previous Year Paper
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

(1) γ 2 = γ1 (2) 2γ 2 = γ1

(3) γ 2 < γ1 (4) γ 2 > γ1

Q45. A force →
F = 2i + bj + k is applied on a particle and it undergoes a displacement i − 2j − k. What will be the
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^

value of b, if work done on the particle is zero.

(1) 0 (2) 1

(3) 2 (4) 1

Q46. A proton is moving undeflected in a region of crossed electric and magnetic fields at a constant speed of
2 × 10
5
ms
−1
. When the electric field is switched off, the proton moves along a circular path of radius 2 cm .
The magnitude of electric field is x × 10 4
N/C . The value of x is _______ Take the mass of the proton
= 1.6 × 10
−27
kg.

Q47. The net current flowing in the given circuit is_______ A.

Q48. A parallel plate capacitor of area A = 16 cm and separation between the plates 10 cm , is charged by a DC
2

current. Consider a hypothetical plane surface of area A 0

= 3.2 cm
2
inside the capacitor and parallel to the
plates. At an instant, the current through the circuit is 6A. At the same instant the displacement current through
A0 is ________ mA .

Q49. A tube of length 1 m is filled completely with an ideal liquid of mass 2 M , and closed at both ends. The tube is
rotated uniformly in horizontal plane about one of its ends. If the force exerted by the liquid at the other end is
F then angular velocity of the tube is √ F

αM
in SI unit. The value of α is __________.

Q50. Two long parallel wires X and Y , separated by a distance of 6 cm , carry currents of 5A and 4A, respectively,
in opposite directions as shown in the figure. Magnitude of the resultant magnetic field at point P at a distance
2025 (22 Jan Shift 2) JEE Main Previous Year Paper
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

of 4 cm from wire Y is x × 10 −5
T . The value of x is__________ . Take permeability of free space as

μ 0 = 4π × 10
−7
SI units.

Q51. Given below are two statements : Statement (I) : Nitrogen, sulphur, halogen and phosphorus present in an
organic compound are detected by Lassaigne's Test. Statement (II) : The elements present in the compound are
converted from covalent form into ionic form by fusing the compound with Magnesium in Lassaigne's test. In
the light of the above statements, choose the correct anower from the options given below :
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false (4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Q52. Density of 3 M NaCl solution is 1.25 g/mL. The molality of the solution is :
(1) 1.79 m (2) 2.79 m
(3) 2 m (4) 3 m

Q53. The correct order of the following complexes in terms of their crystal field stabilization energies is :
(1) [Co(NH 3 )4 ]
2+
< [Co(NH 3 ) ]
6
2+
< [Co(en) 3 ]
3+
< [Co(NH 3 ) ]
6
3+

(2) [Co(NH 3 )6 ]
2+
< [Co(NH 3 ) ]
6
3+
< [Co(NH 3 ) ]
4
2+
< [Co(en) 3 ]
3+

(3) [Co(en) 3]
3+
< [Co(NH 3 ) ]
6
3+
< [Co(NH 3 ) ]
6
2+
< [Co(NH 3 ) ]
4
2+

(4) [Co(NH 3 )4 ]
2+
< [Co(NH 3 ) ]
6
2+
< [Co(NH 3 ) ]
6
3+
< [Co(en) 3 ]
3+

Q54. Given below are two statements : Statement (I) : Corrosion is an electrochemical phenomenon in which pure
metal acts as an anode and impure metal as a cathode. Statement (II) : The rate of corrosion is more in alkaline
medium than in acidic medium. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the
options given below :
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
2025 (22 Jan Shift 2) JEE Main Previous Year Paper
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q55.

Consider the given figure and choose the correct option :

(1) Activation energy of both forward and backward (2) Activation energy of forward reaction is E 1 + E2

reaction is E 1 + E2 and reactant is more stable and product is less stable than reactant.
than product.
(3) Activation energy of backward reaction is E and (4) Activation energy of forward reaction is E
1 1 + E2

product is more stable than reactant. and product is more stable than reactant.

Q56.

The maximum number of RBr producing 2-methylbutane by above sequence of reactions is ________ -
(Consider the structural isomers only)
(1) 5 (2) 4
(3) 3 (4) 1

Q57. The species which does not undergo disproportionation reaction is :

(1) ClO −
3
(2) ClO −

(3) ClO −
2
(4) ClO −
4

Q58. The molar solubility(s) of zirconium phosphate with molecular formula (Zr 4+
) (PO
3
3−
4
)
4
is given by relation :
1 1

(1) K sp 3 (2) K sp 7

( ) ( )
9612 6912

1 1

(3) ( K sp
)
7 (4) ( K sp
)
6

8435 5348

Q59. Identify the homoleptic complex(es) that is/are low spin. (A) [Fe(CN) 5 NO]
2−
(B) [CoF 6]
3−
(C) [Fe(CN) 6]
4−

(D) [Co(NH 3 )6 ]
3+
(E) [Cr(H 2 O) ]
6
2+
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (C) only (2) (C) and (D) only
(3) (A) and (C) only (4) (B) and (E) only
2025 (22 Jan Shift 2) JEE Main Previous Year Paper
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q60.

Match List - I with List - II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III) (4) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)

Q61. Identify the number of structure/s from the following which can be correlated to D-glyceraldehyde.

(1) four (2) one

(3) two (4) three

Q62. Given below are two statements : Statement (I) : A spectral line will be observed for a 2p x → 2p y transition.
Statement (II) : 2P and 2p are degenerate orbitals. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
x y

answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false (4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Q63. Given below are two statements : Statement (I) : An element in the extreme left of the periodic table forms
acidic oxides. Statement (II) : Acid is formed during the reaction between water and oxide of a reactive
element present in the extreme right of the periodic table. In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
2025 (22 Jan Shift 2) JEE Main Previous Year Paper
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q64.

Residue (A) + HCl (dil) → Compound (B) Structure of residue (A) and compound (B) formed respectively is

:
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q65. The alkane from below having two secondary hydrogens is :

(1) 4-Ethyl-3,4-dimethyloctane (2) 2,2,3,3-Tetramethylpentane
(3) 2,2,4,5-Tetramethylheptane (4) 2,2,4,4-Tetramethylhexane

Q66. When sec-butylcyclohexane reacts with bromine in the presence of sunlight, the major product is :
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q67. The most stable carbocation from the following is :

2025 (22 Jan Shift 2) JEE Main Previous Year Paper
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q68. Match the Compounds (List - I) with the appropriate Catalyst/Reagents (List - II) for their reduction into

corresponding amines.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I) (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Q69. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their dipole moment : HBr, H 2 S, NF 3 and CHCl 3

(1) H 2 S < HBr < NF 3 < CHCl 3 (2) NF 3 < HBr < H 2 S < CHCl 3

(3) HBr < H 2 S < NF 3 < CHCl 3 (4) CHCl 3 < NF 3 < HBr < H 2 S

Q70. The maximum covalency of a non-metallic group 15 element ' E ' with weakest E − E bond is :
(1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 3 (4) 5

Q71. The compound with molecular formula C 6 H6 , which gives only one monobromo derivative and takes up four
moles of hydrogen per mole for complete hydrogenation has ________ = electrons.
2025 (22 Jan Shift 2) JEE Main Previous Year Paper
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

Q72. 20 mL of 2 M NaOH solution is added to 400 mL of 0.5 M NaOH solution. The final concentration of the
solution is _______ ×10 −2
. (Nearest integer)
M

Q73. Consider the following cases of standard enthalpy of reaction (ΔH in kJmol ∘
r
−1
)

7
∘
C 2 H 6 ( g) + O 2 ( g) → 2CO 2 ( g) + 3H 2 O(l)ΔH = −1550
1
2

C (graphite) + O 2 ( g) → CO 2 ( g) ΔH
∘
2
= −393.5 The magnitude of ΔH ∘

f C 2 H 6 ( g)
is _______
1
∘
H 2 ( g) + O 2 ( g) → H 2 O(l) ΔH 3 = −286
2

kJmol
−1
(Nearest integer).

Q74. Niobium ( Nb ) and ruthenium (Ru) have " x " and " y " number of electrons in their respective 4 d orbitals.
The value of x + y is ______ -.

Q75. The complex of Ni 2+

ion and dimethyl glyoxime contains ________ number of Hydrogen (H) atoms.
2025 (22 Jan Shift 2) JEE Main Previous Year Paper
JEE Main 2025 January MathonGo

ANSWER KEYS
1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (1) 8. (1)
9. (4) 10. (3) 11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (4) 15. (1) 16. (4)
17. (2) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (3) 21. (465) 22. (3) 23. (145) 24. (27)
25. (28) 26. (3) 27. (4) 28. (1) 29. (3) 30. (2) 31. (1) 32. (4)
33. (1) 34. (4) 35. (4) 36. (2) 37. (3) 38. (4) 39. (3) 40. (1)
41. (4) 42. (4) 43. (2) 44. (3) 45. (2) 46. (2) 47. (1) 48. (1200)
49. (1) 50. (1) 51. (4) 52. (2) 53. (4) 54. (3) 55. (2) 56. (2)
57. (4) 58. (2) 59. (2) 60. (3) 61. (4) 62. (2) 63. (4) 64. (4)
65. (2) 66. (3) 67. (3) 68. (4) 69. (2) 70. (1) 71. (8) 72. (57)
73. (95) 74. (11) 75. (14)