VIJAYA PU COLLEGE Gottikere, B.

M Road, Kunigal, Tumkur

Class-12 NEET Date: 15-03-2025

(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35
questions from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the
total score. Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other
rubbing material on the Answer sheet

2de 2dm
Physics: Electric Charges and Fields (a) (b)
Chemistry: Solutions mE Ee
Botany: Sexual Reproduction in Flowering 2dE 2Ee
Plants (c) (d)
me dm
Zoology: Human Reproduction
4. Which one of the following is not a property
PHYSICS of electrostatic field lines?
1. The distance between a proton and electron (a) Two liens cannot cross each other
both having a charge 1.6 1019 C of a (b) Field line start form negative and ends at
positive charge
hydrogen atom is 1012 metre. The value of
(c) They cannot form closed loop
intensity of electric field produced on
(d) None of the above
electron due to proton will be
5. A charged oil drop is suspended in uniform
(a) 14.4 1014 N/C (b) 12.2 1014 N/C
field of 3104 V/m . So that it neither falls nor
(c) 11.4 1014 N/C (d) 13.2 1014 N/C rises. The charge on the drop will be
2. In which of the following cases the electric
field at the centre is not zero?  m  9.9 10 13
kg   g  10m/s2 
(a) 3.31018 C (b) 3.2 1018 C
(c) 1.6 1018 C (d) 4.81018 C
(a) (b) 6. The electric field inside a spherical shell of
uniform surface charge density is
(a) Zero
(b) Constant less than zero
(c) Density proportional to the distance from
the centre
(c) (d) (d) None of the above
7. A circular disc of radius ' r ' is placed along
the plane of paper. A uniform electric field E
is also present in the plane of paper. What
3. A proton of mass ' m ' charge ' e ' is released
amount of electric flux is associated with it?
from rest in a uniform electric field of
strength ' E ' . The time taken by it to travel a
distance ' d ' in the field is

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NUCLEII Educational Academy
 13. What is the flux link through a cube of side
' l ' if a charge 2q is placed at one vertices of
cube?
q q 2q q
(a) (b) (c) (d)
0 8 0 0 4 0
14. The figure shows some of the electric field
lines corresponding to an electric field. The
figure suggests
(a) E r 2 (b) Zero
 r 2q
(c) 2E r 2 (d)
E
8. Electric flux enaminating through a surface
element ds  5iˆ placed in an electric field
E  4iˆ  4 ˆj  4kˆ is
(a) 10 units (b) 20 units (a) EA  EB  EC (b) EA  EB  EC
(c) 4 units (d) 16 units
9. Electric filed intensity at a point in between (c) EA  EC  EB (d) EA  EC  EB
two parallel sheets with like charges of same 15. A hollow cylinder has a charge q within it. If
surface charge densities   is  is the electric flux in unit of volt meter
associated with the curved surface B, the flux
 3 2
(a) (b) (c) (d) Zero linked with the plane surface A in unit of
2 0 0 0
volt meter will
10. An electric charge q is placed at the center of
a cube of side l . The electric flux on one of its
faces will be
6q q q 2q
(a) (b) (c) (d)
0 0 6 0 3 0 1 q  q
(a)   (b)
2  0   2 0
11. Gauss’s law should be invalid if
 q
(a) There were magnetic monopoles (c) (d) 
(b) The inverse square law were not exactly 3 0
true 16. Eight charges,1C,  7 C,  4 C,10 C,
(c) The velocity of light were not a universal 2 C,  5 C,  3 C and 6 C are situated at
constant the eight corners of a cube of side 20 cm. A
(d) None of these spherical surface of radius 80 cm encloses
12. The flux of electric field due these charge this cube. The centre of the sphere coincides
through the surface S is with the centre of the cube. Then the total
outgoing flux from the spherical surface (in
unit of volt meter) is:
(a) 36 103 (b) 684 103
(c) Zero (d) None of the above
17. The electric field components in the given
figures a Ex   x , Ey  Ez  0 in which
1/2

  800 NC1m1/2 . The charge within the

2q 3q 5q cube is if net flux through the cube is
(a) (b) (c) (d) q 0
0 0 0 1.05 N m2C1 (assume a  0.1m )

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 (a) Is less
(b) Is more
(c) Remains unchanged
(d) Starts fluctuating
23. ABC is an equilateral triangle. Charges q
are placed at each corner. The electric field
intensity at the centroid of triangle will be

(a) 9.27 1012 C (b) 9.27 1012 C

(c) 6.97 1012 C (d) 6.97 1012 C
18. A hollow metal sphere of radius R is
uniformly charged. The electric field due to
the sphere at a distance r from the centre
(a) Increase as r increases for r  R and for 1 q 1 3q
(a)  (b) 
rR 4 0 r 2 4 0 r2
(b) Zero as r increases for r  R , decreases as
1 q
r increases for r  R (c)  (d) Zero
(c) Zero as r increases for r  R , increases as
4 0 r
24. Two charges e and 3e are placed at a
r increases for r  R
distance r . The distance of the point where
(d) Decreases as r increases for r  R and for
the electric field intensity will be zero is
rR
19. Two parallel infinite line charges with linear
r
(a) from 3e charge
charge densities  C/m and  C/m are 
1 3 
placed at a distance of 2R in free space. r
(b) from e charge
What is the electric field mid-way between
the two lien charges?
1  3 
2 r
(c) from 3e charge
(a) Zero (b)
 0 R
N/C
1  3 
  r
(c) N/C (d) N/C (d) from e charge
 0 R 2 0 R
1
20. A charge Q is enclosed by a Gaussian 1
3
spherical surface of radius R . If the radius is 25. Figure shows electric lines of forces due to
doubled, then the outward electric flux will: charges Q1 and Q2 . Hence
(a) Increase four times
(b) Be reduced to half
(c) Remain the same (d) Be doubled
21. The electric field intensity at a point in
vacuum is equal to
(a) Zero
(b) Force a proton would experience there
(c) Force an electron would experience there
(d) Force a unit positive charge would
experience there
(a) Q1 and Q2 both are negative
22. A positively charged pendulum is oscillating
in a uniform electric field pointing upwards. (b) Q1 and Q2 both are positive
Its time period as compared to that when it (c) Q1  Q2
oscillates without electric field (d) Both (b) and (c)

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26. A charge Q is placed at the centre of the 32. The electric field intensity at P and Q , in the
open end of a cylindrical vessel. Electric flux shown arrangement, are in the ratio
through the surface of the vessel is
q q 2q
(a) (b) (c) (d) Zero
2 0 0 0
27. A charged body has an electric flux F
associated with it. Now if the body is placed
inside a conducting shell
then the electric flux outside the shell is
(a) Zero (b) Greater than F
(3) Less than F (d) Equal to F (a) 1: 2 (b) 2 :1 (c) 1:1 (d) 4 : 3
33. For two infinitely long charged parallel
28. A rectangular surface of sides 10 cm and
sheets, the electric field at P will be
15 cm is placed inside a uniform electric
field of 25 V/m, such that the surface makes
an angle of 30 with the direction of electric
field. Find the flux of the electric field
through the rectangular surface
2 2
(a) 0.1675 N/m C (b) 0.1875 Nm /C
2
(c) Zero (d) 0.1075 Nm /C
29. There is uniform electric field of
3ˆ
8 10 j N / C . What is the net flux (in SI
   
(a)  (b) 
units) of the uniform electric field through a 2x 2r  x 2 0 x 2  r  x   0
cube of side 0.3 m oriented so that its faces 
(c) (d) Zero
are parallel to the coordinate plane? 0
(a) 2  8 103 (b) 0.3  8 103 34. If the electric field intensity in a fair weather
(c) Zero (d) 8 10  6 6 atmosphere is 100 V/m, then the total charge
30. A charge Q is kept at the corner of a cube. on the earth’s surface is (radius of the earth is
Electric flux passing through one of those 6400 km)
faces not touching that charge is (a) 4.55 107 C (b) 4.55 108 C
Q Q Q Q (c) 4.55 105 C (d) 4.55 106 C
(a) (b) (c) (d)
24 0 3 0 8 0 6 0 35. If the number of electric lines of force
31. An isolated solid metal sphere of radius R is emerging out of a closed surface is 1000, then
given an electric charge. Which of the graphs the charge enclosed by the surface is
below best shows the way in which the (a) 8.854 109 C (b) 8.854 104 C
electric field E varies with distance x from
the centre of the sphere? (c) 8.854 101 C (d) 8.854 C
36. Figure shows electric field lines due to a
charge configuration, from this we conclude
that
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

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 (a) q1 and q2 are positive and q2  q1
(b) q1 and q2 are positive and q1  q2
(c) q1 and q2 are negative and q1  q2
(d) q1 and q2 are negative and q2  q1
37. An infinite line charge is at the axis of a
cylinder of length 1 m and radius 7 cm. If
electric field at any point on the curved
(a) 3E along OK (b) 3E along KO
surface of cylinder is 250 NC 1 , then net
(3) E along OK (d) E along KO
electric flux through the cylinder is 43. A square surface of side L metre is in the
(a) 1.1102 Nm2 C1 plane of the paper. A uniform electric field
(b) 9.74 106 Nm2 C1 E (volt/m), also in the plane of the paper, is
limited only to the lower half of the square
(c) 5.5 106 Nm2 C1
surface (see figure). The electric flux in SI
(d) 2.5 102 Nm2 C1 units associated with the surface is
38. A charge q is placed at the centre of the open
end of a cylindrical vessel. The flux of the
electric field through the surface of the vessel
is
q q 2q
(a) Zero (b) (c) (d)
0 2 0 0
39. If atmospheric electric field is approximately
150 volt/m and radius of the earth is
6400 km, then the total charge on the earth’s
EL2 EL2
surface is (a) (b) (c) Zero (d) EL2
2 0 2
(a) 6.8 105 coulomb (b) 6.8 106 coulomb
44. Electric field at centre O of semicircle of
(c) 6.8 104 coulomb (d) 6.8 109 coulomb radius a having linear charge density  is
40. The dimensional formula of linear charge given as
density  is
(a)  M 1L1T 1 A (b)  M 0 L1T 1 A
   
   
(c)  M L T A  (d)  M L T A1 
1 1 1 1 0 1 1
   
3R
41. The electric field at a distance from the
2
centre of a charged conducting spherical shell
of radius R is E . The electric field at a
2 
distance
R
from the centre of the sphere is (a) (b)
2  0a  0a
E E  
(a) Zero (b) E (c) (d) (c) (d)
2 3 2 0 a  0 a
42. A thin conducting ring of radius R is given a 45. A charge q is located at the centre of a cube.
charge Q . The electric field at the centre O The electric flux through any face of the cube
of the ring due to the charge on the part AKB is
of the ring is E . The electric field at the 2 q 4 q
(a) (b)
centre due to the charge on the part ACDB of 6  4 0  6  4 0 
the ring is
q q
(c) (d)
6  4 0  6  4 0 
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 CHEMISTRY (a) B evaporates more readily than A
46. Which of the following conditions is not (b) B evaporates less readily than C
satisfied by an ideal solution? (c) A and B evaporate at the same rate
(a) Hmix  0 (b) Smix  0 (d) A evaporates more readily than C
(c) Vmix  0 56. An aqueous solution of methanol in water
(d) Raoult's law is obeyed has vapour pressure
47. Which of the following liquid pairs will (a) equal to that of water
exhibit a positive deviation from Raoult's (b) equal to that of methanol
law? (c) more than that of water
(a) Water - Hydrochloric acid (d) less than that of water
(b) Cyclohexane - Ethanol 57. If an ideal solution is made by mixing 2
(c) Acetone - Chloroform moles of benzene  p  266 mm and 3 moles
(d) Water - Nitric acid of another liquid  p  236 mm . The total
48. The azeotropic mixture of water and HCl vapour pressure of the solution at the same
boils at 108.5C . When this mixture is temperature would be
distilled, it is possible to obtain (a) 502 mm (b) 248 mm
(a) Pure HCl (b) Pure water (c) 600 mm (d) 250.6 mm
(c) neither pure HCl nor pure water 58. If C2 H5OH and H2O solution is example
(d) both pure HCl and pure water
representation is correct?
49. A solution is non-ideal when
(a)  P sol.  0 (b)  H sol.  0
(c)  Gsol.  0 (d)  V sol.  0 (a) (b)
50. Vapour pressure is the pressure exerted by
vapours
(a) in equilibrium with liquid
(b) in any condition
(c) in an open system
(d) in atmospheric conditions (c) (d)
51. The pair of solutions which shows positive
deviation in non ideal solution
(a) CCl4  C6 H6 (b) CHCl3  C6 H6 59. For an ideal solution with PA0  PB0 , which of
(c) CCl4  CHCl3 (d) both a and c the following is true?
52. The pair of solutions which shows negative (a)  Al   AV  (b)  Al   AV 
deviation in non-ideal solution (c)  Al   AV 
(a) CHCl3  CH3COCH3
(d) No relationship in their mole fraction
(b) CH3COCH3  C6 H5 NH2 (c) CHCl3  C6 H6 60. Vapour pressure diagram for a solution is
(d) All the above given below if dotted line represents
53. Azeotropy is the property of deviation
(a) all the solutions
(b) non-ideal solution
(c) gas in liquid solution
(d) ideal solution
54. Pure water boils at 373K and pure nitric acid
boils at 359K. The azeotropic mixture of
water and nitric acid boils at T.K.
(a) T < 359 K (b) T > 359 K
(c) T < 373 K but > 359 K (d) unpredictable Correct observation for this solution
55. Which of the following statements is correct, (a) Hmix : ve (b) Smix : ve
if the intermolecular force in liquids A, B and (c) Vmix :  ve (d) All of these
C are in the order A < B < C?
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61. For a solution of two liquids A and B, it 69. Which one is not equal to zero for an ideal
proves that P  XA  P  P   P . The solution

A

B

B
solution?
is (a) Vmix (b) P  Pobserved  PRaoult
(a) Ideal (b) Non ideal (c) Hmix (d) Smix
(c) both a and b (d) none of these 70. Which one of the following is incorrect for
62. Which of the following plots does not ideal solutions
represent the behaviour of an ideal binary (a) Hmix  0 (b) Umix  0
liquid solution (c) P  Pobs  P Calculated by Raoult's law
(a) plot of PA versus X A (Mole fraction of A 0
in liquid phase) is linear (d) Gmix  0
(b) plot of PB versus XB is linear 71. The mixture that forms maximum boiling
(c) plot PTotal versus X A (or XB ) is linear azeotrope is
(d) plot PTotal versus X A is non linear (a) Water + Nitric acid (b) Ethanol + Water
63. Which of the following liquid pairs shows a (c) Acetone + Carbon disulphide
positive deviation from Raoult's law? (d) Heptane + Octane
(a) water-nitric acid 72. For an ideal solution, the correct option is
(b) water-sulphuric acid (a) mix S  0 at constant T and P
(c) water-hydrochloric acid (b) at constant T and P
(d) Acetone-chloroform (c) mix H  0 at constant T and P
64. An ideal solution is obtained by mixing (d) mix G  0 at constant T and P
CH3 CHBr2 and CH2 Br  CH2 Br in the ratio 2 : 1 73. Which of the following statements is correct
CHBr  173 , BrCH Br  127 . Thus total regarding a solution of two compounds A
0 0
PCH
3 2
PCH
2 2

vapour pressure is and B exhibiting positive deviation from

(a) 158 (b) 257 (c) 137 (d) 197 ideal behaviour?
65. A solution containing components A and B (a) Intermolecular attractive forces between
exhibits positive deviation from Raoult's law A-A and B-B are stronger than those
only when between A-B
(a) Vmixing  ve (b) Hmixing  ve (b) mix H  0 at constant T and P
(c) mixV  0 at constant T and P
(c) A-B attraction forces < A - A and > B - B
attraction forces (d) Intermolecular attractive forces between
(d) A-B attraction forces > A - A and > B - B A-A and B-B are equal to those between A-B
attraction forces 74. How much water is needed to dilute 10 ml of
66. Which of the following azeotropic solutions 10 N hydrochloric acid to make it exactly
has the boiling point higher than boiling decinormal (0.1 N)?
point of the constituents A and B? (a) 990 ml (b) 1000 ml
(a) CHCl3 and CH3COCH3 (c) 1010 ml (d) 100 ml
75. Which of the following methods of
(b) CS2 and CH3COCH3
expressing concentration is independent of
(c) CH3CH2OH and CH3COCH3
temperature?
(d) CH3CHO and CS2 (a) Molarity (b) Molality
67. Azeotropic mixture of HCl and water has (c) Formality (d) Normality
(a) 80% HCl (b) 20.2% HCl 76. Number of moles of solute dissolved in
(c) 60% HCl (d) 40.8% HCl 1000g. of the solvent is called
68. A non-ideal solution was prepared by mixing (a) Molarity (b) Molality
30 mL chloroform and 50 mL acetone. The (c) Formality (d) Normality
volume of mixture will be 77. Which of the following has no units?
(a) > 80 mL (b) < 80 mL (a) Molarity (b) Normality
(c) = 80 mL (d)  80 mL (c) Molality (d) Mole fraction

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78. If 250 ml of 0.25 M NaCl solution is diluted (a) pB  xA  pB  pA  (b) pB  xA  pA  pB 
with water to a volume of 500 ml, the new (c) pA  xA  pB  pA  (d) pA  xA  pA  pB 
concentration of solution is
89. At 25C for a given solution M  m, then at
(a) 0.167 M (b) 0.0167 M
(c) 0.125 M (d) 0.0833 M 50C the correct relationship is
79. 250 ml of a calcium carbonate solution (a) M  m (b) M  m
contains 2.5 grams of CaCO3 . If 10 ml of this (c) M  m (d) M  2M
90. A tablet of vitamin ‘C’ is analysed for its
solution is diluted to one litre, what is the
ascorbic acid content. One tablet reacts
concentration of the resultant solution?
exactly with 20 ml of 0.1 N NaOH solution.
(a) 0.1 M (b) 0.001 M
The equivalent weight of ascorbic acid is 176.
(c) 0.01 M (d) 104 M The tablet contains __________ mg of
80. Number of milli equivalents of solute in 0.5 ascorbic acid
litres of 0.2 N solution is (a) 0.352 (b) 3.52 (c) 35.2 (d) 352
(a) 10 (b) 1 (c) 100 (d) 1000
81. The mole fraction of NaCl in a solution BOTANY
containing 1 mole of NaCl in 100 g of water is 91. Which of the following is an exclusive feature
(a) 0.0177 (b) 0.001 of angiosperms?
(c) 0.5 (d) 0.244 (a) Double fertilisation & Pollination
82. Four gases like H2 , He , CH4 and CO2 have (b) Triple fusion & Haploid endosperm
Henry’s constant values  KH  are 69.16, (c) Haploid endosperm & Pollination
144.97, 0.413 and 1.67. The gas which is more (d) Triploid endosperm & Double
soluble in liquid is fertilisation
(a) He (b) CH 4 (c) H 2 (d) CO2 92. The central cell after triple fusion becomes
(a) Zygote
83. Henry’s law constant for the solubility of N 2
(b) Primary endosperm cell (PEC)
gas in water at 298 K is 1.0 105 atm . The mole (c) Triploid endosperm tissue
fraction of N 2 in air is 0.6. The number of (d) Free nuclear endosperm
moles of N 2 from air dissolved in 10 moles of 93. After double fertilisation, a mature ovule
water at 298 K and 5 atm pressure is would have
(a) 3.0 104 (b) 4.0 105 (a) 1 diploid and 1 haploid cells
(b) 1 diploid and 1 triploid cells
(c) 5.0 104 (d) 6.0 106
(c) 2 haploid and 1 triploid cells
84. The molarity of a glucose solution containing
(d) 1 haploid and 1 triploid cells
36 g of glucose per 400 mL of the solution is:
94. Primary endosperm nucleus (PEN) is formed
(a) 1.0 (b) 0.5 (c) 2.0 (d) 0.05
by the fusion of
85. To prepare 0.1 M KMnO4 solution in 250 L
(a) 2 polar nuclei + 1 synergid cell nucleus
flask, the weight of KMnO4 required is: (b) 1 polar nucleus + 1 antipodal cell nucleus
(a) 4.80 g (b) 3.95 g (c) 39.5 g (d) 0.48 g + 1 synergid cell nucleus
86. The weight of solute present in 200 mL of (c) 2 polar nuclei + 1 male gamete nucleus
0.1 M H 2 SO4 : (d) 2 antipodal cell nuclei + 1 male gamete
(a) 2.45 g (b) 4.9 g (c) 1.96 g (d) 3.92 g nucleus
87. If 250 mL of a solution contains 24.5 g H 2 SO4 95. If the cells of nucellus in the angiosperm
the molarity and normality respectively are: ovule contain 24 chromosomes, what will be
(a) 1 M, 2 N (b) 1 M, 0.5 M the number of chromosomes in the
(c) 0.5 M, 1 N (d) 2 M, 1 N endosperm of a self-pollinated flower?
88. p A and pB are the vapour pressure of pure (a) 12 (b) 24 (c) 36 (d) 48
liquid components, A and B , respectively of
an ideal binary solution. If x A represents the
mole fraction of component A, the total
pressure of the solution will be.
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96. Given below is the structure of fertilized 101. LS of grass embryo (monocot) is given. Label
embryo sac Label A to E. A to G.

(a) A- scutellum, B- coleorhiza, C- shoot

(a) A- Degenerating synergids, B- Zygote, apex, D-epiblast, E- radicle, F- root cap,
C- PEC, D- PEN, E- Degenerating G- coleoptile
antipodal cells (b) A- shoot apex, B- coleoptile,
(b) A- Degenerating antipodal cells, C- scutellum, D-epiblast, E- radicle,
B- Zygote, C-PEN, D- PEC, F- root cap, G- coleorhiza
E- Degenerating synergids (c) A- shoot apex, B- coleorhiza,
(c) A- Degenerating synergids, B- PEC, C- scutellum, D-epiblast, E- radicle,
C- PEN, D-Zygote, E- Degenerating F- root cap, G-coleoptile
antipodal cells (d) A- scutellum, B- coleoptile, C- shoot
(d) A- Degenerating antipodal cells, B - PEN, apex, D-epiblast, E- radicle, F- root cap,
C- PEC, D- Zygote, E- Degenerating G- coleorhiza
synergids 102. In angiosperm ................... is the final product
97. Liquid endosperm is present in of sexual reproduction
(a) Castor (b) Coconut (a) Fruit (b) Flower
(c) Beans (d) Ground nut (c) Seed (d) Endosperm
98. Endosperm becomes cellular due to 103. Examples of plants with Non-albuminous
formation of (Ex-albuminous) seeds are
(a) Cell wall (b) Vacuole (a) Pea, groundnut and beans
(c) Nucleus (d) Reserve food (b) Wheat, maize, barley, castor and coconut
99. Select the false statement (c) Castor, coconut and groundnut
(a) In angiosperms, embryo develops at (d) All the above are non-albuminous
micropylar end of the embryo sac 104. Occasionally in some seeds such as black
(b) Most zygotes divide only after the pepper and beet, remnants of nucellus are
formation of some endosperm. also persistent. This residual, persistent
(c) Cotyledon of grass family is called nucellus is called
scutellum. (a) Endosperm (b) Perisperm
(d) In monocots & dicots, embryogeny and (c) Hilum (d) Raphae
seeds differ greatly. 105. The inability of a seed to germinate can be
100. The correct sequence of embryonic called as
development in angiosperms is (a) Dormancy (b) Fertility
(a) Zygote → Pro-embryo → Globular → (c) Viability (d) Antibiosis
Heart-shaped → Mature embryo. 106. There are several records of very old yet
(b) Zygote → Globular → Pro-embryo → viable seeds. The oldest is that of ..............
Heat-shaped → Mature embryo. excavated from ............ The seed germinated
(c) Zygote → Heart-shaped → Pro-embryo and flowered after an estimated record of
→ Globular → Mature embryo. .......... years of dormancy.
(d) Zygote → Globular → Heart-shaped → (a) Helianthus annus, tundra, 1000
Pro-embry → Mature embryo. (b) Myristica fragraus, antartic, 10000

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 (c) Lupinus articus, Artic tundra, 10000 (b) It develops from thalamus after
(d) Hibiscus, tundra, 50000 fertilisation.
107. A recent record of ........... old viable seed is (c) It develops from the ovary without
obtained from date palm, scientifically called fertilisation.
as .................... discovered during the (d) It develops from thalamus without
archeological excavation at king’s Herod’s fertilisation.
palace near the Dead se(a) 114. Which out of the following is correct for an
(a) 1000, Phoenix dactylifera artificial hybridisation program?
(b) 2000, Phoenix dactylifera (a) Emasculation is done in unisexual
(c) 2000, Tectona grandis flowers.
(d) 4000, Phoenix dactylifera (b) Bagging is done before emasculation.
108. Structure of a typical monocot seed is given (c) Emasculation is done to prevent
below. Observe this and select the false unwanted self-pollination and
statement. contamination.
(d) Rebagging is done just after
emasculation.
115. Which out of the following statements is
correct about perisperm?
(a) It is a degenerated secondary nucleus.
(b) It is peripheral part of endosperm
(c) It is degenerated synergid
(d) It is remnant of nucellus
116. Castor seed is different from groundnut seed
as
(a) G is radicle and it becomes root tip (a) Castor seed has many embryos while
(b) B is endosperm and so it is an albuminous groundnut seed has 1 embryo
seed (b) Castor seed is Ex albuminous while
(c) D is coleoptile and it is a hollow foliar groundnut seed is albuminous.
structure (c) Castor seed is albuminous while
(d) C is scutellum and it is the cotyledon of groundnut seed is Exalbuminous
monocot (d) Castor seed has perisperm which is
109. After fertilization, pericarp is derived from absent in groundnut seed
(a) Ovule (b) Nucellus 117. Which of the following is/are outbreeding
(c) Walls of ovary (d) Outer integument device?
110. The fruits which develop from the region (a) Unisexuality in plants
other than ovary is called (b) Presence of stigma and anther at
(a) Pericarp (b) Pseudocarp different positions.
(c) Mesocarp (d) Endocarp (c) Self – Incompatibility
111. Examples for plants with pseudocarp are (d) All of above
(a) Apple, coconut, guava 118. In apomixis
(b) Coconut, mango, cashew (a) Seed is produced after fertilisation
(c) Apple, strawberry, cashew (b) Seed is produced without fertilisation
(d) Strawberry, cashew, mustard (c) Fruit is produced with fertilisation
112. Development of fruits without fertilization is (d) Fruit is produced without fertilisation
called 119. Products of triple fusion and syngamy
(a) Parthenocarpy (b) Parthenogenesis respectively in double fertilisation are
(c) Polyspermy (d) Polyembryony (a) Zygote (n), PEN (2n)
113. Apple is false fruit while mango is true fruit (b) PEN (2n), Zygote (2n)
as (c) PEN (3n), Zygote (2n)
(a) It develops from the ovary after (d) Zygote (3n), PEN (3n)
fertilisation.

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120. Which cell of the embryo sac helps the pollen 128. Which of the following is function of funicle?
tube to enter the embryo sac? (a) Provide support to the body of ovule
(a) Persistent synergid (b) Supplying nutrition to the body from the
(b) Antipodal cells palcenta
(c) Degenerated synergid (c) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(d) Egg cell (d) None of the above
121. Which out of the following are an 129. More than thousands of years old viable seed
albuminous seed and non-albuminous seed of Lupinus arcticus excavated from
respectively? (a) Arctic Tundra
(a) Beans and Wheat (b) King Herod’s palace near the Death Sea
(b) Ground nut and castor (c) Rohtang Pass near Manali
(c) Castor and Pea (d) Midway Islands
(d) Maize and Castor 130. Albuminous seeds are found in
122. Milky water of tender coconut is (a) Wheat, maize and barley
(a) Liquid gametes (b) Castor
(b) Liquid nucellus (c) Orchid
(c) Liquid female gametophyte (d) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Free nuclear endosperm 131. The record of oldest seed dormancy is of
123. Following double fertilization, events of (a) 2,000 years (b) 3,000 years
endosperm and embryo development, (c) 10,000 years (d) 15,000 years
maturation of ovules into seeds and ovary 132. In plants, seed dormancy allows to
into fruit are collectively termed as (a) Overcome unfavourable climatic
(a) Pollen-pistil interaction conditions
(b) Artificial Hybridization (b) Produce healthy seeds
(c) Embryogenesis (c) Reduce viability of seeds
(d) Post-fertilization events (d) Prevent deterioration of seeds
124. Which of the following show double 133. When the seeds becomes dry, the percentage
fertilization? of moisture present by mass is
(a) Liverworts (b) Pteridophytes (a) 10-15% (b) 25-30%
(c) Gymnosperms (d) Angiosperms (c) 90-95% (d) 60-70%
125. Which of the follwoing part forms pericarp 134. Coleoptile is present at
after fertilization? (a) Shoot apex and few leaf promordia
(a) Nucellus (b) Outer integument enclosed in solid foliar structure
(c) Inner integument (d) Ovary wall (b) Shoto apex and all leaf promordia
126. One of the major approaches of crop enclosed in solid foliar structure
improvement programme artificial (c) Root apex and all leaf promordia
hybridisation. For the bisexual flower is enclosed in hollow foliar structure
includes the following steps in correct order. (d) Shoot apex and few leaf promordia
(a) Bagging, pollination, rebagging enclosed in hollow foliar structure
(b) Emasculation, pollination, bagging, 135. After removal of covering in pea, the seed
rebagging consists of
(c) Emasculation, bagging, pollination, (a) Cotyledons (b) Embryo
rebagging (c) Cotyledons + Endosperm
(d) Bagging, emasculation, pollination, (d) Cotyledons + Endosperm + Pericarp
rebagging
127. In cross self fertilised plants, the flowers are ZOOLOGY
first emasculated. Which organ of the plant is 136. The part of female reproductive system that
removed in this process? looks like finger like projections and is a part
(a) Ovary (b) Ovules of the oviduct is
(c) Stigmas (d) Stamens or anthers (a) Infundibulum (b) Ampulla
(c) Fimbriae (d) Uterus

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137. Odd man out 142. Analyze the following statements
(a) Epididymis (b) Bartholin’s glands (A) Hymen is a reliable indicator of virginity
(c) Seminal vesicle (d) Prostate gland (B) Milk is stored in alveoli
138. Diagrammatic representation of male (C) Clitoris is the counterpart of penis
reproductive system is given below. Identify (D) The release of ovum is called oogenesis
the labelled parts in the sequence A, B, C, D, (a) B & C are true (b) A & B are true
E, F, G. (c) A & D are true (d) only A is true
143. Optimum temperature for sperm production
is
(a) 25  30C (b) 40  50C
(c) 33  35C (d) 20  22C
144. Function of seminal plasma is
(a) Transport of sperms
(b) Nourishment of sperms
(c) Neutralize the acidity in the uterus
(d) All the above
145. Duct system of female reproductive system
includes
(a) Oviduct, uterus and vagina
(a) Fore skin, glans penis, epididymis, (b) Ovaries, oviduct and vagina
urinary bladder, vas deferens, testicular (c) Uterus, vulva and vagina
lobules, urethra (d) Mons pubis, vestibule and clitoris
(b) Glans penis, fore skin, urinary bladder, 146. Testosterone is produced by
vas deferens, epididymis, testicular (a) Sertoli cells in seminiferous tubules
lobules, urethra (b) Sertoli cells in interstitial spaces of testes
(c) Glans penis, fore skin, epididymis, (c) Leydig cells in interstitial spaces of testes
urinary bladder, vas deferens, testicular (d) Leydig cells in seminiferous tubules
lobules, urethra 147. Select the correct order from outer to inner
(d) Glans penis, fore skin, epididymis, (a) Perimetrium – Endometrium –
urinary bladder, vas deferens, urethra, Myometrium
testicular lobules (b) Endometrium – Myometrium –
139. Select the wrong statement Perimetrium
(a) Ovum produces estrogen and (c) Endometrium – Perimetrium –
progesterone Myometrium
(b) Ovary contains many groups of ovarian (d) Perimetrium – Myometrium –
follicles Endometrium
(c) Glans penis is covered by prepuce 148. Select the correct sequence
(d) Outer wall of uterus is perimetrium (a) Mammary tubule – mammary alveolus –
140. In most mammals, the testes are located in mammary Ampulla – mammary duct –
scrotal sac for lactiferous duct
(a) Sex differentiation (b) Mammary alveolus – mammary tubule –
(b) Spermatogenesis (sperm production) mammary duct – mammary Ampulla –
(c) More space to visceral organs lactiferous duct
(d) Independent functioning of kidneys (c) Mammary Ampulla – mammary duct–
141. Labia minora is mammary tubule – mammary alveolus –
(a) Highly sensitive organ lactiferous duct
(b) A part of oviduct (d) Mammary alveolus – lactiferous duct –
(c) An accessory gland mammary tubule – mammary Ampulla –
(d) Hairless inner folds of vagina mammary duct

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149. The mammary glands are paired structures
that contain _____ and variable amount of
_____
(a) Areolar tissue, fat
(b) Adipose tissue, sugars
(c) Epithelial tissue, proteins
(d) Glandular tissue, fats
150. For producing 1000 sperms and 250 eggs they
require
(a) 250 primary spermatocytes & 250 (a) P, Q, R, T, S (b) T, S, P, Q, R
primary oocytes (c) P, Q, T, S, R (d) P, S, Q, R, T
(b) 1000 spermatids & 250 secondary oocytes 158. Release of ovum from Graafian follicle is
(c) 500 sec. spermatocytes & 250 sec. oocytes called
(d) All above (a) Oogenesis (b) Menstruation
151. Select the odd one out (c) Oncogenesis (d) Ovulation
(a) Primary spermatocyte 159. Which is true about the cytoplasm of sperm
(b) Spermatid and ovum?
(c) Secondary spermatocyte (a) Ovum = sperm (b) Ovum > sperm
(d) Spermatozoa (c) Sperm > ovum
152. The stage seen closest to the lumen of (d) Both have no cytoplasm
seminiferous tubule is 160. A secondary oocyte undergoes second
(a) Spermatogonia (b) spermatids meiosis to form
(c) Spermatozoa (a) Two ova (b) Four ova
(d) primary spermatocytes (c) One ovum and one polar body
153. Both corpus luteum and macula lutea are (d) Two ova and one polar body
(a) Found in human ovaries 161. Which is not suitable for spermatogenesis?
(b) Concerned with vision (a) Limited growth phase
(c) Characterized by yellow colour (b) Each secondary spermatocyte produces
(d) Contributory in maintaining pregnancy two spermatids
154. Select the wrong statement (c) Spermatogonia undergo first meiotic
(a) Spermatids undergo mitosis to form division
sperms (d) No polar bodies
(b) Acrosome is formed from Golgi complex 162. In oogenesis, second meiotic division occurs
and has lytic enzymes such as (a) At embryonic stage
hyaluronidase & zonalysine (b) Soon after birth
(c) Human male ejaculates about 200-300 (c) Prior to ovulation
million sperms during a coitus (d) During fertilization
(d) Theca externa and theca interna is the 163. Ovum released from Graafian follicle will be
peculiarity of Tertiary follicle at the stage of
155. In male, FSH acts on (a) Primary oocyte (b) Secondary oocyte
(a) Leydig cells (b) Sertoli cells (c) Ootid (d) Oogonia
(c) Spermatogonia (d) All the above 164. Which of the following is in the correct
156. Differentiation of spermatids into sperms is order?
called (a) LH → GnRH → Androgen →
(a) Spermiation (b) Spermiogenesis Spermatogenesis
(c) Spermatocytogenesis (b) Androgen → GnRH → LH →
(d) Spermatogenesis Spermatogenesis
157. Diagrammatic sectional view of a (c) GnRH → LH → Androgen →
seminiferous tubule is given below. Identify Spermatogenesis
the correct sequence for cells becoming (d) LH → Androgen → GnRH →
differentiated. Spermatogenesis

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165. Function of spiral mitochondria in the sperm (b) Endometrium regenerates: 5-13th day
is (c) Corpus luteum develops: 10-17th day
(a) To release antifertilizin (d) Rise in progesterone level: 1-15th day
(b) To provide energy for tail movement 173. In human testis cells producing testosterone
(c) Takes part in 2nd meiotic division during are
fertilization (a) Leydig cells (b) Interstitial cells
(d) To produce axial filament (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Sertoli cells
166. First menstruation during puberty is 174. If a male testis fails to slip into scrotal sacs
(a) Menopause (b) Diapedesis may have infertility. Choose the possible
(c) Menarche (d) Diakinesis reason behind the condition.
167. Progesterone is secreted by (a) Scrotal sacs have higher temperature than
(a) Corpus luteum & Graafian follicle abdominal cavity
(b) Placenta & Graafian follicle (b) Scrotal sacs have temperature 2  2.5C
(c) Graafian follicle & Pituitary lesser than normal body temperature
(d) Corpus luteum & Placenta (c ) In scrotal sacs enough space is present for
168. Pick the odd one out high number of sperm production
(a) Regeneration of endometrium (d) Wall of scrotal sacs secrete hormones
(b) Maturation of ovarian follicles necessary for sperm production
(c) Rupture of Graafian follicle 175. The function of germinal and Sertoli cells
(d) Formation of corpus luteum present in testis is
169. Menstruation occurs (a) to produce sperms and to nourish
(a) As there is no fertilization of ovum developing sperms respectively
(b) Due to the rupture of endometrial lining (b) to secrete hormones and to nourish
(c) Due to the rupture of Graafian follicle developing sperms respectively
(d) Both (a) & (b) (c) both types of cells secrete different
170. Match the following hormones
Column I Column II (d) to nourish sperms by secreting 60% and
(A) FSH 1. Prepare 30% seminal fluid respectively
endometrium for 176. Which statement/s is/are incorrect ?
implantation (i) Urethra in human males acts as a
(B) LH 2. Develops female urogenital canal.
secondary sexual (ii) In human males’ testis are extra
characters abdominal
(C) Progesterone 3. Contraction of (iii) The region outside seminiferous tubules
uterine wall is called interstitial space and contains
(D) Estrogen 4. Development of Leydig cells
corpus luteum (iv) In human male’s testis slips down into
5. Maturation of the scrotal sacs during certain breeding
Graafian follicles seasons only.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (iv) only
(a) A-5, B-4, C-1, D-2 (b) A-4, B-5, C-2, D-1 (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-5 (d) A-5, B-1, C-2, D-4 177. Due to high levels of ……………. during 13th
171. In proliferative phase to 14th day of menstrual cycle ovulation
(a) Primary follicle becomes Graafian follicle occurs
(b) FSH and progesterone increases (a) Estrogen (b) Progesterone
(c) Oestrogen and progesterone increases (c) LH (d) FSH
(d) Formation of corpus albicans occurs 178. In human females at which stage of
172. Which of the following events is correctly oogenesis, ovulation occurs?
matched with the time period in a normal (a) Primary oocyte (b) Ovum
menstrual cycle? (c) Secondary oocyte (d) Oogonium
(a) Release of egg: 5th day
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179. What is the ploidy level of primary
spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte and
spermatid?
(a) 2n, 2n, 2n (b) 2n, 3n, n
(c) 2n, n, 2n (d) 2n, n, n
180. Acrosome is filled with
(a) Water
(b) Proteins
(c) Oxidising enzymes
(d) Hydrolytic enzymes

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