ZONE OF EDUCATION ACADEMY 03328055905 Naeem Ullah Farooqi

Assessment
1. Instrument used for measuring 9. The first step in measurement is:
sample of behavior is: o (a) Decision of what to
o (a) Test measure
o (b) Measurement o (b) Development of the test
o (c) Assessment o (c) Administering the test
o (d) Evaluation o (d) Marking of the test
2. Limited to quantitative description 10. The purpose of formative
of pupils' performance is: evaluation is:
o (a) Evaluation  (a) Monitoring progress of students
o (b) Measurement  (b) Selecting students
o (c) Test  (c) Promotion to next grade
o (d) Examination  (d) Check final status
3. The purpose of the evaluation is to 11. To assess achievement at the end of
make: instructions is:
o (a) Decision  (a) Placement assessment
o (b) Prediction  (b) Formative assessment
o (c) Judgment  (c) Summative assessment
o (d) Opinion  (d) Diagnostic assessment
4. The purpose of evaluation is to 12. Vast of all in scope?
make judgment about educational:  (a) Test
o (a) Quantity  (b) Measurement
o (b) Quality  (c) Assessment
o (c) Time period  (d) Evaluation
o (d) Age 13. The right sequence is:
5. Evaluation that monitors learning  (a) Test, Assessment, Evaluation,
progress is: Measurement
o (a) Placement evaluation  (b) Assessment, Measurement,
o (b) Formative evaluation Evaluation, Test
o (c) Diagnostic evaluation  (c) Test, Measurement, Assessment,
o (d) Summative evaluation Evaluation
6. A formal and systematic procedure  (d) Evaluation, Test, Measurement,
of getting information is: Assessment
o (a) Assessment 14. The least in scope is:
o (b) Test  (a) Test
o (c) Measurement  (b) Measurement
o (d) Evaluation  (c) Assessment
7. The process of obtaining numerical  (d) Evaluation
value is: 15. Permanent difficulties in learning are
o (a) Test investigated in:
o (b) Measurement  (a) Summative evaluation
o (c) Assessment  (b) Diagnostic evaluation
o (d) Evaluation  (c) Formative evaluation
8. A sum of questions is:  (d) None of the above
o (a) Test 16. Broader in meaning is:
o (b) Testing  (a) Aims
o (c) Assessment  (b) Objectives
o (d) Examination  (c) Instructional objectives
 (d) Specific objectives

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ZONE OF EDUCATION ACADEMY 03328055905 Naeem Ullah Farooqi

17. Procedures used to determine a  (d) Interest tests

person's abilities is: 25. In a multiple-choice item, the stem of
 (a) Maximum performance test the items should be:
 (b) Typical performance test  (a) Large
 (c) Norm Referenced test  (b) Small
 (d) Criterion referenced test  (c) Meaningful
18. The purpose of evaluation is to:  (d) Relevant
 (a) Make judgment about the quality 26. Which appropriate verb will you use
of something to make an objective behavioral?
 (b) Assign a mark or score to a  (a) To know
student  (b) To appreciate
 (c) Measure the achievement of  (c) To understand
students  (d) To construct
 (d) Test the student in a subject 27. Objectives representing the purposes
19. In norm-referenced tests, the of instruction of a teacher are called:
comparison is between:  (a) Performance
 (a) Groups  (b) Instructional
 (b) Individuals  (c) Attainment
 (c) Areas  (d) Terminal objectives
 (d) Interests 28. The main advantage of essay type
20. In which question marking will be questions is:
more reliable?  (a) They can measure complex
 (a) Completion learning outcomes which cannot be
 (b) Short answer measured with other types of
 (c) Multiple choice question questions
 (d) Essay  (b) The student can guess the answer
21. Facility value of less than 0.20 means:  (c) Are easy to mark
 (a) Item is too easy  (d) Can diagnose the learning
 (b) Item is easy difficulties of students
 (c) Item is acceptable 29. Running description of active
 (d) Item is difficult behavior of a student as observed by
22. Objective type questions have an the teacher is:
advantage over essay type because  (a) Anecdotal record
such questions:  (b) Autobiography
 (a) Are easy to prepare  (c) Interview
 (b) Are easy to solve  (d) Questionnaire
 (c) Are easy to mark 30. A test very popular with classroom
 (d) Test critical thinking teachers is:
23. Discrimination value of more than 0.4  (a) True False Test
means:  (b) Completion Test
 (a) Item is good  (c) Matching items
 (b) Item is acceptable  (d) Multiple choice
 (c) Item is weak 31. Frequently used tools of summative
 (d) Item discriminating negatively evaluation are:
24. Tests involving the construction of  (a) Test
certain patterns or solving problems  (b) Teacher observation
in terms of concrete materials are  (c) Daily assignment
called:  (d) Oral questioning
 (a) Intelligence tests 32. Which of the following statements is a
 (b) Performance tests criterion-referenced interpretation:
 (c) Scholastic aptitude tests

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 (a) Asjad can state Newton's 2nd Law  (a) Multiple Choice
of motion  (b) Essay Type
 (b) Ahmad got the highest score  (c) Matching list
 (c) Dawood's GRE score is 350  (d) Short answers
 (d) Rimsha's percentile in math test is 41. Which questions are difficult to mark
35 with reliability:
33. The most commonly used guessing  (a) Multiple type questions
correction formula to predict and  (b) Short answer
control is:  (c) Structured essays
 (a) S=R-W  (d) Unstructured essays
 (b) S=R-w/2-1 42. Projective techniques are used to
 (c) S=R-W/N-1 measure:
 (d) S=R-W/1  (a) Aptitude
34. The summative evaluation is:  (b) Intelligence
 (a) Diagnostic  (c) Knowledge
 (b) Certifying judgment  (d) Personality
 (c) Continuous 43. Tests meant for prediction on a
 (d) Ongoing certain criterion are called:
35. The difference between maximum  (a) Achievement test
and minimum values is:  (b) Aptitude test
 (a) Mean  (c) Personality tests
 (b) Mode  (d) Non-standardized test
 (c) Range 44. The Kuder-Richardson method is used
 (d) Quartiles to estimate:
36. The number of scores lying in a class  (a) Reliability
interval is:  (b) Validity
 (a) Midpoint  (c) Objectivity
 (b) Quartiles  (d) Usability
 (c) Class boundaries 45. Value that divides the data into two
 (d) Frequencies equal parts is:
37. A multiple-choice question is  (a) Mean
composed of a question or statement  (b) Median
referred to as:  (c) Mode
 (a) Stem  (d) Mean deviation
 (b) Distracter 46. The test measures what we intend to
 (c) Foil measure. This quality of the test is
 (d) Response called:
38. In a norm-referenced test, which item  (a) Validity
is best? Whose:  (b) Reliability
 (a) Item difficulty is near zero  (c) Usability
 (b) Item difficulty is near 100  (d) Objectivity
 (c) Item difficulty is near 70 47. The length of a test is an important
 (d) Item difficulty is near 50 factor in obtaining a representative:
39. Which question has increasing  (a) Mode
objectivity of marking:  (b) Sample
 (a) Unstructured essays  (c) Group
 (b) Structured essays  (d) Factor
 (c) Short answer 48. Median of 1, 6, 4, 5, 2, 3, is:
 (d) Multiple type questions  (a) 2
40. The most widely used format on  (b) 2.5
standardized tests in the USA is:  (c) 3

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 (d) 3.5 a- list of instructional objectives

49. The formula for Mean is used: b- Draft o course content
 (a) X=LL+UL/2 c- two way chart
 (b) M-N+1/2 d- All
 (c) X=Σx/N Answer: All
 (d) N=ΣF 57. The supply type test item is:
50. The test made to compare the (a) True/False items
performance of a student with other (b) Matching items
students is called: (c) M.C.Q items
 (a) Criterion reference (d) Completion items
 (b) Norm reference Answer: (d) Completion items
 (c) Achievement 58. Alternative response item is:
 (d) Diagnostic
(a) True/False
51. Summative evaluation is used: (b) Right/Wrong
 (a) At the start of the program
(c) Correct/Incorrect
 (b) At the end of the program
(d) All above
 (c) During the program
Answer: (d) All above
 (d) At all times
59. How many columns matching items
52. The appearance of a normal curve
have:
resembles:
(a) One column
 (a) U
 (b) Bell
(b) Two columns
 (c) V
(c) Four columns
 (d) Skewness (d) Five columns
Answer: (b) Two columns
60. The item in the column for which a
match is sought is:
53. The alternative name of the "table of
(a) Premise
specification" is:
(b) Response
(a) Test Blue Print
(c) Distracter
(b) Test Construction
(d) None of above
(c) Test Administration
Answer: (a) Premise
(d) Test Scoring
61. Identifying relationship between two
Answer: (a) Test Blue Print
things is demonstrated by:
54. "Table of specification" helps in:
(a) True/False
(a) Test Development
(b) Completion item
(b) Test Administration
(c) Matching item
(c) Test Scoring
(d) Short answer
(d) Test Reporting
Answer: (c) Matching item
Answer: (a) Test Development
62. The statement of problem in M.C.Qs
55. The purpose of table of specification
is:
is:
(a) Stem
(a) To develop integration between
(b) Option
contents
(c) Distracter
(b) To develop a balanced test
(d) Premise
(c) To help the teacher for sampling
Answer: (a) Stem
questions from all contents
63. The list of suggested answers in
(d) All above
M.C.Qs is:
Answer: (d) All above
(a) Alternatives
56. Table of specification is prepared
(b) Choices
by:
(c) Options

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(d) All above applying the guessing correction

Answer: (d) All above formula will be:
64. The correct option in M.C.Q is: (a) 30
(a) Answer (b) 40
(b) Distracters (c) 50
(c) Response (d) 60
(d) None of above Answer: (d) 60
Answer: (a) Answer 71. The Analysis of items is necessary
65. The incorrect options in M.C.Q are: in:
(a) Answers (a) Teacher Made Test
(b) Distracters (b) Standardized Test
(c) Responses (c) Both a & b
(d) None of above (d) None of a & b
Answer: (b) Distracters Answer: (b) Standardized Test
66. The most widely applicable test item 72. Which one is not the type of test by
is: purpose:
(a) Short Answers (a) Essay Type Test
(b) Completion (b) Standardized Test
(c) Matching (c) Criterion referenced test
(d) M.C.Q (d) Norm referenced test
Answer: (d) M.C.Q Answer: (a) Essay Type Test
67. The type of essay item in which 73. The type of the test by method is:
contents are limited is: (a) Standardized test
(a) Restricted Response Questions (b) Norm referenced test
(b) Extended Response Questions (c) Objective type test
(c) M.C.Q (d) Criterion referenced test
(d) True/False Answer: (c) Objective type test
Answer: (a) Restricted Response 74. Students' performance is compared
Questions with other students in:
68. The ability to select, organize, (a) Norm referenced test
integrate and evaluate ideas is (b) Criterion referenced test
demonstrated by: (c) Objective referenced test
(a) Restricted Response (d) None of above
(b) Extended Response Question Answer: (a) Norm referenced test
(c) M.C.Q 75. Student's performance is compared
(d) True/False with clearly defined learning tasks in:
Answer: (b) Extended Response Question (a) Norm referenced test
69. The score of a student getting 70 (b) Criterion referenced test
correct and 30 incorrect answers in (c) Objective referenced test
True/False items by applying the (d) None of above
guessing correction formula will be: Answer: (b) Criterion referenced test
(a) 30 76. Test that measures learning outcome
(b) 40 of students is:
(c) 50 (a) Aptitude Test
(d) 60 (b) Intelligence Test
Answer: (b) 40 (c) Achievement Test
70. The score of a student getting 70 (d) Diagnostic Test
correct and 30 incorrect answers in Answer: (c) Achievement Test
M.C.Q items having four options by 77. The tests designed to predict future
performance is:

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(a) Aptitude Test 84. If the scoring of the test is not

(b) Intelligence Test affected by any factor, quality of test is
(c) Achievement Test called:
(d) Diagnostic Test (a) Reliability
Answer: (a) Aptitude Test (b) Validity
78. The founder of modern intelligence (c) Objectivity
tests was: (d) Differentiability/Discrimination
(a) Alfred Binet Answer: (c) Objectivity
(b) Terman 85. The quality of test to give same
(c) Stern scores when administered at different
(d) Gulford occasions is:
Answer: (a) Alfred Binet (a) Reliability
79. The formula to determine I.Q was (b) Validity
presented by: (c) Objectivity
(a) Alfred Binet (d) Differentiability
(b) Terman Answer: (a) Reliability
(c) Stern 86. If the sample of the question in the
(d) Gulford test is sufficiently large enough, the
Answer: (c) Stern quality of test is:
80. I.Q of a student having the same (a) Validity
physical and mental age will be: (b) Usability
(a) 90 (c) Adequacy
(b) 100 (d) Objectivity
(c) 110 Answer: (c) Adequacy
(d) 120 87. The quality of test showing ease of
Answer: (b) 100 time, cost, administration and
81. The I.Q of a student having twelve interpretation is called:
years mental age and ten years physical (a) Validity
age will be: (b) Usability
(a) 90 (c) Adequacy
(b) 100 (d) Objectivity
(c) 110 Answer: (b) Usability
(d) 120 88. Item Analysis focuses to find out:
Answer: (d) 120 (a) Facility index
82. The quality of test that measures (b) Discrimination power
"what it claims to measure" is: (c) Effectiveness of Distracters
(a) Reliability (d) All above
(b) Validity Answer: (d) All above
(c) Objectivity 89. Facility index (Difficulty level) of an
(d) Differentiability item determines:
Answer: (b) Validity (a) Ease or difficulty
83. The characteristic of a test to (b) Discrimination Power
discriminate between high achievers (c) Effectiveness of distracters
and low achievers is: (d) All above
(a) Reliability Answer: (a) Ease or difficulty
(b) Validity 90. High and low achievers are sorted
(c) Objectivity out by:
(d) Differentiability (a) Facility Index
Answer: (d) Differentiability (b) Discrimination power

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(c) Effectiveness of distracters (a) Attracts high achievers more than low
(d) All above achievers
Answer: (b) Discrimination power (b) Attracts low achievers more than high
91. Test item is acceptable when its achievers
facility index/difficulty level ranges (c) Attracts equally high and low achievers
from: (d) Does not attract
(a) 20-60% Answer (b) Attracts low achievers more
(b) 30-70% than high achievers
(c) 40-80% 98. Bad distracter is that which
(d) 10-50% (a) Attracts high achievers more than low
Answer: (b) 30-70% achievers
92. Test item is very easy when value of (b) Does not attract at all to any student
facility index/difficulty level is higher (c) Attracts high achievers and low
than: achievers equally
(a) 70% (d) All above
(b) 60% Answer: (a) Attracts high achievers more
(c) 50% than low achievers
(d) 30% 99. The type of interview when
Answer: (a) 70% interviewee is one:
93. Test item is very difficult when value (a) Individual Interview
of facility index/difficulty level is less (b) Single Interview
than: (c) Structural Interview
(a) 20% (d) Focused Interview
(b) 30% Answer: (a) Individual Interview
(c) 40% 100. What is interview called when
(d) 50% interviewees are more than one:
Answer: (b) 30% (a) Group Interview
94. Discrimination power of an item is (b) Panel Interview
acceptable when its value ranges from: (c) Structural Interview
(a) 0.30-1 (d) Focused Interview
(b) 0.2-1 Answer: (a) Group Interview
(c) 0.1-1 101. The planned interview is:
(d) 10-1 (a) Group Interview
Answer: (a) 0.30-1 (b) Panel Interview
95. Test item discriminates 100% when (c) Structural Interview
its value for discrimination is: (d) Focused Interview
(a) 1 Answer: (c) Structural Interview
(b) 0.1 102. Discussion is concentrated on one
(c) 0.01 problem in:
(d) 10 (a) Group Interview
Answer: (a) 1 (b) Panel Interview
96. Test item cannot discriminate low (c) Structural Interview
achievers and high achievers when its (d) Focused Interview
value is lower than: Answer: (d) Focused Interview
(a) 0.10 103. The collection of productive work
(b) 0.20 called to evaluate the performance of
(c) 0.30 students is:
(d) 0.40 (a) Port Folio
Answer: (c) 0.30 (b) Project
97. Good distracter is that which:

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(c) Assignment Answer: (b) Reliability

(d) All above 111. Alfred Binet's major contribution
Answer: (a) Port Folio was testing in the field of:
104. The type of marking and reporting (a) Mental
system is: (b) Achievement
(a) Traditional marking system (c) Diagnosis
(b) Pass-fail system (d) None of above
(c) Letters to the parent Answer: (a) Mental
(d) All above 112. The series which divides the
Answer: (d) All above distribution in two equal halves is
105. What is the Average of 20, 21, 22, called:
23: (a) Mean
(a) 20 (b) Median
(b) 21 (c) Mode
(c) 21.5 (d) Range
(d) 22 Answer: (b) Median
Answer: (c) 21.5 113. The score in a distribution which
106. What is the Mode of 5, 6, 3, 5, 7, 2, has maximum frequency is called:
5, 7: (a) Mean
(a) 2 (b) Median
(b) 5 (c) Mode
(c) 6 (d) Range
(d) 7 Answer: (c) Mode
Answer: (b) 5 114. Accuracy of measurement is called:
107. What is the Median of 3, 4, 5, 7, 1, (a) Validity
9, 2, 6, 8: (b) Reliability
(a) 1 (c) Practicability
(b) 3 (d) All of the above
(c) 5 Answer: (a) Validity
(d) 7 115. Which type of test tends to have the
Answer: (c) 5 lowest reliability?
108. What is the Median of 1, 6, 4, 5, 2, (a) True-false
3: (b) Completion
(a) 2 (c) Matching
(b) 2.5 (d) Essay
(c) 3 Answer: (d) Essay
(d) 3.5 116. Most of the tests used in our
Answer: (d) 3.5 schools are:
109. Item with difficulty index of 5% is: (a) Intelligence tests
(a) Very easy (b) Achievement tests
(b) Easy (c) Aptitude tests
(c) Acceptable (d) Personality tests
(d) Difficult Answer: (b) Achievement tests
Answer: (d) Difficult 117. ____ involves professional
110. Quality of a test to give same scores judgment of the value or worth of
at two times is called: measured performance.
(a) Validity (a) Test
(b) Reliability (b) Evaluation
(c) Objectivity (c) Assessment
(d) Usability (d) Measurement

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Answer: (b) Evaluation (a) Achievement, aptitude & attitude

118. The term evaluation usually covers: (b) Aptitude, attitude and interest
(a) Students' performance (c) Attitude, interest & intelligence
(b) Teacher performance (d) Achievement, aptitude & intelligence
(c) Instruction performance Answer: (d) Achievement, aptitude &
(d) All of above intelligence
Answer: (d) All of above 126. We use simulation as a teaching
119. Multiple choice questions provide a technique in:
broad sampling of: (a) Short answers
(a) Knowledge (b) Completion items
(b) Learning (c) Performance test
(c) Content (d) Matching exercises
(d) Comprehension Answer: (c) Performance test
Answer: (c) Content 127. The main purpose of classroom
120. Norm reference tests are designed testing is:
to rank pupil: (a) Compare students' performance
(a) Learning (b) Measure teachers' effectiveness
(b) Effort (c) Reporting to parents
(c) Achievement (d) Improve instruction
(d) Knowledge Answer: (d) Improve instruction
Answer: (c) Achievement 128. Diagnostic evaluation is done:
121. Reliability is concerned with the (a) Before Teaching
____ of students. (b) After Teaching
(a) Consistency (c) In Between Teaching
(b) Stability (d) None of the above
(c) Dependability Answer: (a) Before Teaching
(d) All of above 129. What the individual can perform in
Answer(a) Consistency future is measured by:
122. Project is concerned with: (a) Intelligence test
(a) Practical work (b) Personality test
(b) Theoretical work (c) Achievement test
(c) Physical work (d) Aptitude test
(d) Mental work Answer: (d) Aptitude test
Answer: (a) Practical work 130. The best measure to avoid guessing
123. ____ is calculated by adding all the in a structured test is to use:
scores in distribution and then dividing (a) True/false items
that sum by the number of scores. (b) Completion items
(a) Mean (c) Matching items
(b) Mode (d) Multiple-choice items
(c) Median Answer: (b) Completion items
(d) Standard deviation 131. The first and most important step
Answer: (a) Mean in making a test is:
124. The primary determinant of a (a) Collecting content
grade is the student's: (b) Defining objectives
(a) Knowledge (c) Determining process
(b) Learning (d) Proper planning
(c) Performance Answer: (b) Defining objectives
(d) Assessment 132. The final product of measurement
Answer: (c) Performance is:
125. An ability test includes:

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(a) Test item Answer: (a) Effective testing of higher

(b) Scores cognitive levels
(c) Interpretation of scores 139. When constructing multiple-choice
(d) Performance items, it is best to:
Answer: (b) Scores (a) Make all options of same length
133. Essay tests have advantage over the (b) Put main idea in items
objective tests because they: (c) Use only two options
(a) Are free from opportunities of bluffing (d) Repeat key words of stem in options
(b) Have high consistency in marking Answer: (a) Make all options of same
(c) Provide adequate representation length
(d) Provide opportunities to organize 140. Use of many selected responses in a
knowledge test can provide good:
Answer: (d) Provide opportunities to (a) Level of difficulty
organize knowledge (b) Objectivity
134. The basic function of educational (c) Context sampling
measurement is to find out student's: (d) Time sampling
(a) Achievement Answer: (b) Objectivity
(b) Attitudes 141. Variation in the scores of an
(c) Habits individual from time to time could be
(d) Interests best judged by reliability techniques of:
Answer: (a) Achievement (a) Parallel test forms
135. If a criterion-referenced test is (b) Rational equivalence
reliable, then scores from the test are: (c) Split half
(a) Useful (d) Test-retest
(b) Standardized Answer: (d) Test-retest
(c) Consistent 142. The most significant advantage of
(d) Valid true-false items is:
Answer: (c) Consistent (a) Wide sampling
136. Construct validity is established (b) Item validity
through: (c) Ease of construction
(a) Logical analysis (d) Elimination of guessing
(b) Standardized analysis Answer(a) Wide sampling
(c) Both a & b 143. Improvement of scores on a post-
(d) Neither a nor b test after having the pre-test, the threat
Ans. (a) Logical analysis affecting the results is referred to as:
137. The standard error of (a) Instrumentation
measurement is a measure of: (b) History
(a) Location (c) Testing
(b) Central tendency (d) Mortality
(c) Variability Answer: (c) Testing
(d) Association 144. The most comprehensive term used
Answer: (c) Variability in the process of educational testing is
138. Which of the following is not a called:
strength of multiple-choice items: (a) Test
(a) Effective testing of higher cognitive (b) Interview
levels (c) Evaluation
(b) Content sampling (d) Measurement
(c) Score reliability Answer: (c) Evaluation
(d) Allows for educated guessing

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145. Monitoring the outcomes with (c) 37

reference to the objectives, the term (d) 49
used is called: Answer: (c) 37
(a) Test 151. Spearman-Brown Prophecy
(b) Interview formula is:
(c) Evaluation (a) R=2r1+r
(d) Measurement (b) S=R−WS = R - WS=R−W
Answer: (c) Evaluation (c) S=R−WN−1S = \frac{R - W}{N -
146. Learning difficulties during 1}S=N−1R−W
instruction can be checked with the help (d) ρ=1−6ΣD2N(N2−1)\rho = 1 -
of an evaluation type called: \frac{6\Sigma D^2}{N(N^2 -
(a) Placement 1)}ρ=1−N(N2−1)6ΣD2
(b) Summative Answer: (a) R=2r1+r
(c) Diagnostic 152. An aptitude test measures:
(d) Formative (a) Overall mental ability
Answer: (c) Diagnostic (b) Attained ability
147. Test designed to measure the (c) Present attainment
number of items an individual can (d) Potential ability
attempt correctly in a given time is Answer: (d) Potential ability
referred type of test as: 153. The first step in constructing a test
(a) Power is to:
(b) Supply (a) Select a variety of items from which to
(c) Achievement choose
(d) Speed (b) Define the objectives of the course
Answer: (d) Speed (c) Delimit the content to be covered by
148. Test designed to measure the the test
learning during a specific time of an (d) Decide what kind of test to use
individual is referred type of test as: Answer: Decide what kind of test to use
(a) Power 154. Other things being equal, which
(b) Supply type of test tends to have the lowest
(c) Achievement reliability:
(d) Speed (a) True - false
Answer: (a) Power (b) Completion
149. 27% of the papers with the highest (c) Matching
scores = lowest score 10. When H=8, (d) Essay
L=3 for item No. 10. What is the index Answer: (d) Essay
of difficulty for item No. 10? 155. The chief point of distinction
(a) 0.5 between teacher-made test and
(b) 1.1 standardized tests lies in the area of:
(c) 0.25 (a) Objectivity
(d) 0.2 (b) Norms
Answer: (d) 0.2 (c) Overall quality
150. In a multiple-choice test, the (d) Sampling
number of alternatives (N) is 4. What Answer: (b) Norms
would be the score of a candidate who 156. Seventy-fifth percentile may also be
has done 40 items correctly and 9 items termed as:
wrongly? (a) Q1
(a) 43 (b) Q2
(b) 31 (c) Q3
(d) Q4

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ZONE OF EDUCATION ACADEMY 03328055905 Naeem Ullah Farooqi

Answer: (c) Q3 (a) Test

157. The quality testing in education is (b) Content
only possible by using: (c) Assessment
(a) Achievement test (d) Evaluation
(b) Intelligence test Answer: (a) Test
(c) Aptitude test 165. Measurement is the:
(d) Standardized achievement test (a) Qualitative value
Answer: (d) Standardized achievement test (b) Value judgement
158. Achievement Test batteries are (c) Numerical value
widely used at: (d) None of the above
(a) Elementary School level Answer: (c) Numerical value
(b) Secondary School level 166. Evaluation is:
(c) Intermediate level (a) Numerical Value
(d) Degree level (b) Value Judgement
Answer(d) Degree level (c) Qualitative Value
159. The scale that is used for attitude (d) None of the above
measurement is named as: Answer: (b) Value Judgement
(a) Technical Scale 167. The scores of a student in a paper
(b) Ordinal Scale is:
(c) Likert Scale (a) Test
(d) Projective Scale (b) Measurement
Answer: (c) Likert Scale (c) Evaluation
160. The type of test used for obtaining (d) All of the above
dependable ranking of the students is: Answer: (b) Measurement
(a) Norm reference 168. A test answers the question:
(b) Diagnostic (a) How well
(c) Prognostic (b) How much
(d) Criterion reference (c) How good
Answer: (a) Norm reference (d) None of the above
161. The most significant advantage in Answer: (a) How well
the true-false test is: 169. Measurement answers the
(a) Wide sampling question:
(b) Items validity (a) How well
(c) Elimination of guessing (b) How much
(d) None of the above (c) How good
Answer: (a) Wide sampling (d) None of the above
162. A test designed to know the Answer: (b) How much
student's position in a group is called: 170. Evaluation answers the question:
(a) Criterion reference (a) How well
(b) Norm reference (b) How much
(c) Achievement (c) How good
(d) Aptitude (d) None of the above
Answer: (b) Norm reference Answer: (c) How good
163. A sum of questions is: 171. A symbol indicating the
(a) Test performance of the student is:
(b) Measurement (a) Test
(c) Assessment (b) Grade
(d) Evaluation (c) Report
Answer: (a) Test (d) Measurement
164. The instrument to measure is: Answer: (b) Grade

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172. Evaluation Techniques are selected Answer: (b) Performs an experiment

on the basis of: 179. Ability to develop a life style based
(a) Usability upon the preferred value system is:
(b) Reliability (a) Responding
(c) Validity (b) Valuing
(d) Objectivity (c) Organizing
Answer: (c) Validity (d) Characterizing
173. CRT is clearly defined and Answer: (d) Characterizing
delimited domain of: 180. Example of cognitive domain is:
(a) Knowledge (a) Describe a topic
(b) Performance (b) Develop an X-ray film
(c) Learning Task (c) Type a letter
(d) Evaluation (d) Take responsibility for tools
Answer: (c) Learning Task Answer: (a) Describe a topic
174. Evaluation is the systematic 181. At the highest level of hierarchy is:
process of collecting and analyzing data (a) Understanding
in order to make: (b) Application
(a) Prediction (c) Evaluation
(b) Judgments (d) Analysis
(c) Decisions Answer: (c) Evaluation
(d) Results 182. Student can design a laboratory
Answer: (b) Judgments according to certain specifications in
175. Instructional objectives must which category of objective?
include: (a) Analysis
(a) Action verb (b) Synthesis
(b) Learning resources (c) Evaluation
(c) Learning activities (d) Knowledge
(d) Teaching strategies Answer: (b) Synthesis
Answer: (a) Action verb 183. The number of domains in
176. The first draft of objectives needs taxonomies of educational objectives is:
to be: (a) Two
(a) Tested (b) Three
(b) Assessed (c) Five
(c) Measured (d) Six
(d) Evaluated Answer: (b) Three
Answer: (d) Evaluated 184. The highest level of cognitive
177. Usually NRT is not used for: domain is:
(a) The measure of achievement (a) Synthesis
(b) Objective type item (b) Analysis
(c) Mastery testing domain (c) Comprehension
(d) Subjective item (d) Evaluation
Answer: (c) Mastery testing domain Answer: (d) Evaluation
178. Example of psychomotor domain is 185. The process of determining the
that student: value or worth of anything is:
(a) Demonstrates awareness to (a) Test
environmental pollution (b) Measurement
(b) Performs an experiment (c) Assessment
(c) Can compare results of two (d) Evaluation
experiments Answer: (d) Evaluation
(d) Can narrate a story

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186. Educational objectives have been Evaluation, Application, Analysis,

divided into: Synthesis
(a) Two domains (d) Knowledge, Comprehension,
(b) Three domains Application, Analysis, Synthesis,
(c) Four domains Evaluation
(d) Five domains Answer: (d) Knowledge, Comprehension,
Answer: (b) Three domains Application, Analysis, Synthesis,
187. Taxonomy of educational Evaluation
objectives was presented in: 193. Knowing/memorizing and recalling
(a) 1946 is concerned with:
(b) 1956 (a) Comprehension
(c) 1966 (b) Application
(d) 1976 (c) Knowledge
Answer: (b) 1956 (d) Evaluation
188. The classification of cognitive Answer: (c) Knowledge
domain was presented by: 194. To grasp the meaning of the
(a) Benjamin S. Bloom material is:
(b) Skinner (a) Comprehension
(c) Krathwhol (b) Application
(d) Simpson (c) Knowledge
Answer: (a) Benjamin S. Bloom (d) Synthesis
189. Cognitive domain has: Answer: (a) Comprehension
(a) Three subgroups 195. To use previous learning in new
(b) Four subgroups situations is:
(c) Five subgroups (a) Comprehension
(d) Six subgroups (b) Application
Answer: (d) Six subgroups (c) Knowledge
190. The lowest level of learning in the (d) Analysis
cognitive domain is: Answer: (b) Application
(a) Comprehension 196. To break down material into
(b) Application component parts to know its
(c) Knowledge organizational structure is:
(d) Synthesis (a) Comprehension
Answer: (c) Knowledge (b) Application
191. The highest level of learning in the (c) Analysis
cognitive domain is: (d) Synthesis
(a) Evaluation Answer: (c) Analysis
(b) Synthesis 197. To put ideas together to form a new
(c) Analysis whole is:
(d) Application (a) Evaluation
Answer: (a) Evaluation (b) Synthesis
192. The right sequence of subgroups of (c) Analysis
the cognitive domain is: (d) Application
(a) Knowledge, Comprehension, Answer: (b) Synthesis
Application, Synthesis, Analysis, 198. To know the worth or value of
Evaluation material is:
(b) Knowledge, Comprehension, (a) Analysis
Application, Evaluation, Analysis, (b) Application
Synthesis (c) Knowledge
(c) Knowledge, Comprehension, (d) Evaluation

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ZONE OF EDUCATION ACADEMY 03328055905 Naeem Ullah Farooqi

Answer: (d) Evaluation 206. Which is placed at the highest level

199. The intellectual skills are reflected of learning in the affective domain:
by: (a) Attending
(a) Cognitive Domain (b) Responding
(b) Affective Domain (c) Organization
(c) Psychomotor Domain (d) Characterization
(d) None of the above Answer: (d) Characterization
Answer: (a) Cognitive Domain 207. Right order of sub-groups of
200. Attitudes, values, and interests are affective domain is:
reflected by: (a) Attending, Responding, Valuing,
(a) Cognitive Domain Characterization, Organization
(b) Affective Domain (b) Attending, Responding,
(c) Psychomotor Domain Characterization, Valuing, Organization
(d) None of the above (c) Attending, Valuing, Responding,
Answer: (b) Affective Domain Organization, Characterization
201. Which domain is concerned with (d) Attending, Responding, Valuing,
physical and motor skills? Organization, Characterization
(a) Cognitive Domain Answer: (d) Attending, Responding,
(b) Affective Domain Valuing, Organization, Characterization
(c) Psychomotor Domain 208. Willingness to attend to a
(d) None of the above particular phenomenon is:
Answer: (c) Psychomotor Domain (a) Attending/Receiving
202. The focus of the cognitive domain (b) Responding
is: (c) Valuing
(a) Physical and Motor Skills (d) Organization
(b) Intellectual Skills Answer: (a) Attending/Receiving
(c) Attitudes and Interests 209. Which sub-group of affective
(d) None of the above domain focuses on active participation
Answer: (b) Intellectual Skills in:
203. The affective domain was classified (a) Attending/Receiving
by: (b) Responding
(a) Benjamin S. Bloom (c) Valuing
(b) Simpson (d) Organization
(c) Krathwhol Answer: (b) Responding
(d) Bruner 210. Bringing together different values
Answer: (c) Krathwhol into a consistent value system is:
204. The affective domain is divided (a) Attending/Receiving
into: (b) Responding
(a) Four subgroups (c) Valuing
(b) Five subgroups (d) Organization
(c) Six subgroups Answer: (d) Organization
(d) Seven subgroups 211. Affective domain focuses on
Answer: (b) Five subgroups adoption of a value system as a part of
205. The lowest level of learning in the lifestyle in:
affective domain is: (a) Responding
(a) Responding (b) Valuing
(b) Valuing (c) Organization
(c) Attending (d) Characterization
(d) Organization Answer: (d) Characterization
Answer: (c) Attending

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212. The psychomotor domain was (c) Student values honesty

classified by Simpson in: (d) Student can write a letter
(a) 1962 Answer: (c) Student values honesty
(b) 1972 218. Bringing together scientific ideas to
(c) 1982 form a unique idea is:
(d) 1992 (a) Application
Answer: (b) 1972 (b) Analysis
213. The affective domain was divided (c) Synthesis
into subgroups by Krathwhol in: (d) Evaluation
(a) 1954 Answer: (c) Synthesis
(b) 1964 219. The surface category in SOLO
(c) 1974 Taxonomy consists of:
(d) 1984 (a) Five Stages
Answer: (b) 1964 (b) Four Stages
214. Psychomotor domain was divided (c) Three Stages
by Simpson in: (d) Two Stages
(a) Four subgroups Answer: (d) Two Stages
(b) Five subgroups 220. The 'Surface' Category in SOLO
(c) Six subgroups Taxonomy consists of:
(d) Seven subgroups (a) Prestructural and Unistructural
Answer: (d) Seven subgroups (b) Unistructural and Multistructural
215. The characteristic of behavioural (c) Multistructural and Relational
objective is: (d) Relational and Extended Abstract
(a) Observable and Immeasurable Answer: (a) Prestructural and
(b) Non-observable and measurable Unistructural
(c) Observable and measurable 221. The 'deep' category in SOLO
(d) None of the above Taxonomy consists of:
Answer: (c) Observable and measurable (a) Prestructural and Unistructural
216. The right sequence of sub-groups (b) Unistructural and Multistructural
of the psychomotor domain is: (c) Multistructural and Relational
(a) Perception, Set, Guided response, (d) Relational and Extended Abstract
Mechanism, Complex overt response, Answer: (d) Relational and Extended
Adaptation, Origination Abstract
(b) Perception, Complex overt response, 222. Synthesis requires:
Set, Guided response, Mechanism, (a) Formulation of new structural material
Adaptation, Organization (b) Understanding the structure of the
(c) Set, Origination, Guided response, material
Mechanism, Complex overt response, (c) Judge the value of material
Adaptation, Perception (d) Use the material in a new situation
(d) Guided response, Mechanism, Answer: (a) Formulation of new structural
Perception, Set, Adaptation, Organization, material
Complex overt response 223. "The students will be able to
Answer: (a) Perception, Set, Guided translate a paragraph of English into
response, Mechanism, Complex overt Urdu." This objective fits in the
response, Adaptation, Origination category of cognitive domain:
217. Objective related to affective (a) Knowledge
domain is: (b) Comprehension
(a) Student can paint a picture (c) Application
(b) Student can draw a graph (d) Analysis
Answer: (b) Comprehension

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ZONE OF EDUCATION ACADEMY 03328055905 Naeem Ullah Farooqi

224. SOLO Taxonomy provides a

systematic way of describing the
learner's:
(a) Ability
(b) Understanding
(c) Performance
(d) Skill
Answer: (b) Understanding

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