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 CONTENTS

UNIT I: PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY................................................................. 1-108

1. UNIVERSE AND SOLAR SYSTEM...................................................................................... 3
2. GEOMORPHOLOGY........................................................................................................... 9
3. CLIMATOLOGY................................................................................................................. 49
4. OCEANOGRAPHY............................................................................................................ 77
5. SOILS................................................................................................................................ 94
6. NATURAL VEGETATION................................................................................................ 100
7. WORLD MAPPING......................................................................................................... 104

UNIT II: INDIAN GEOGRAPHY................................................................ 109-186

1. INDIA: LOCATION.......................................................................................................... 111
2. STRUCTURE AND PHYSIOGRAPHY............................................................................. 125
3. INDIAN CLIMATE........................................................................................................... 155
4. NATURAL VEGETATION OF INDIA............................................................................... 168
5. INDIAN SOIL.................................................................................................................. 176
6. NATURAL HAZARDS AND DISASTERS........................................................................ 183

UNIT III: HUMAN AND ECONOMIC GEOGRAPHY................................. 187-246

1. RESOURCES AND LAND USE........................................................................................ 189
2. HUMAN DEVELOPMENT AND POPULATION STUDIES.............................................. 205
3. SETTLEMENTS AND URBAN GEOGRAPHY................................................................. 217
4. AGRICULTURE AND CROPPING SYSTEM.................................................................... 220
5. INDUSTRIES AND ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT.......................................................... 231
6. TRADE, TRANSPORT AND COMMUNICATION........................................................... 239
 UNIT-I:
PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY
 1 Universe and Solar
System

Objective Questions for Practice

1. With reference to the origin of our Universe and the 2. The transformation of cold primordial matter into a
Solar System, consider the following pairs: hot nebula is attributed to friction-induced heating
caused by the collision of particles.
Idea Proposition
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Nebular The planets were formed from a (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Hypothesis cloud of material associated with the
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
youthful sun.
2. B
 ig Bang The universe is continuously expanding. Ans: (c)
Theory Statement 1 is correct: One of the assumptions of the
Gaseous Hypothesis, as Emanuel Kant proposed, was
3. Binary Planets were formed after the collision that supernaturally created primordial matter, initially
theory of the sun with another star. cold and motionless, existed in the Universe.
How many of the pairs given above are correct? Statement 2 is correct: The Gaseous Hypothesis suggests
(a) Only one (b) Only two that particles, influenced by gravitational forces as per
(c) All three (d) None Newton’s law, collide with each other, leading to an
increase in temperature. This temperature rise, caused
Ans: (c)
by friction-induced heating, results in the transformation
Pair 1 is correct: Nebular Hypothesis - This hypothesis of cold primordial matter into a hot nebula.
was first proposed by Immanuel Kant. The nebular
hypothesis is a widely accepted scientific explanation for 3. Consider the following:
the formation of our solar system. It proposes that our 1. Observations of Supernovae
solar system originated from a giant cloud of gas and dust 2. Redshift of Galaxies
called a nebula, and planets were formed out of gaseous 3. Theory of general relativity
matter associated with the Sun in the early stages. How many of the above supports the concept of
Pair 2 is correct: Big Bang theory- Edwin Hubble gives expansion of the Universe?
evidence about the expanding universe. The Big Bang (a) Only one (b) Only two
theory is the prevailing scientific explanation for the (c) All three (d) None
origin and evolution of the universe. It suggests that
Ans: (c)
the universe began as a singularity—an infinitely hot
‰ Observations of Supernovae: Certain types of
and dense point that exploded violently, resulting in the
formation of the expanding Universe. supernovae, known as Type Ia (Type One-a)
supernovae, are used as “standard candles” to
Pair 3 is correct: Binary Theory- This theory, also called
measure distances in the universe. Observations of
the Planetesimal hypothesis, was given by Chamberlain
these supernovae have shown that the expansion of
and Moulton in 1900. According to this theory, a star
the universe is accelerating, a discovery that led to
collided with the Sun. As a result, some matter separated
the concept of dark energy. Hence, Statement 1 is
from the Sun. After the star moved away, the separated
correct.
material gradually formed the planets.
‰ Redshift of Galaxies: The light from distant galaxies
2. With reference to the Gaseous Hypothesis, consider the is observed to be redshifted, which means the light
following statements: is stretched to longer wavelengths. This redshift is
1. According to the Gaseous Hypothesis, the primordial interpreted as a result of the galaxies moving away
matter in the Universe was supernaturally created, from us, indicating the expansion of the universe.
cold, and motionless. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
 ‰ General relativity predicts an expanding universe 3. Degassing because of continuous volcanic eruptions.
through the application of Einstein’s field equations, 4. Flooding of the atmosphere by oxygen.
which describe the relationship between matter, 5. Formation of the oceans
energy, and spacetime. These equations show that
Which one of the following depicts the correct chronological
the curvature of spacetime is directly related to the
order of the above events from past to present?
distribution of matter and energy in the universe.
Hence, Statement 3 is correct. (a) 2-1-3-4-5 (b) 3-4-5-2-1
(c) 2-3-5-1-4 (d) 3-1-2-5-4
4. With reference to the formation of planets, consider the
following statements: Ans: (c)
1. Stars are formed from localised lumps of gas within a There are three stages in the evolution of the present
atmosphere. The loss of the primordial atmosphere
nebula.
marks the first stage. The earth’s hot interior in the second
2. Planetesimals are formed through the cohesion of stage contributed to the atmosphere’s evolution. Finally,
small rounded objects. the composition of the atmosphere was modified by the
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? living world through the process of photosynthesis.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only ‰ The early atmosphere, with hydrogen and helium,
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is supposed to have been stripped off as a result of
Ans: (d) the solar winds. This happened not only in the case
of the Earth but also in all the terrestrial planets,
Statement 1 is correct: A nebula is a vast cloud of
which are supposed to have lost their primordial
hydrogen gas and dust in space. Stars form when localized
atmosphere through the impact of solar winds.
clumps within the nebula collapse due to gravitational
attraction, leading to the creation of dense cores that ‰ During the cooling of the earth, gases and water
eventually ignite nuclear fusion, giving rise to stars. vapour were released from the interior solid earth.
The early atmosphere largely contained water vapour,
Statement 2 is correct: Planetesimals are the result of
nitrogen, carbon dioxide, methane, ammonia and
smaller particles in a protoplanetary disc coming together
very little free oxygen. The process through which
through cohesion and collisions. Over time, these the gases were outpoured from the interior is called
planetesimals grow larger, and through further collisions degassing. Continuous volcanic eruptions contributed
and gravitational attraction, they eventually form planets. water vapour and gases to the atmosphere.
5. Consider the following statements: ‰ As the earth cooled, the water vapour released
1. The first stage of the evolution of the earth is marked started getting condensed. The carbon dioxide in the
by the loss of primordial atmosphere. atmosphere dissolved in rainwater, and the temperature
2. The early atmosphere largely contained water vapor, further decreased, causing more condensation and
nitrogen, methane, argon and abundant free oxygen. more rain. The rainwater falling onto the surface got
collected in the depressions to give rise to oceans. The
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
earth’s oceans were formed within 500 million years
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only from the formation of the earth.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 ‰ Sometime around 3,800 million years ago, life began
Ans: (b) to evolve. However, around 2,500-3,000 million years
Statement 1 is correct: There are three stages in the before the present, the process of photosynthesis
evolution of the present atmosphere. The first stage evolved. Life was confined to the oceans for a long
is marked by the loss of primordial atmosphere. In the time. Oceans began to have the contribution of
second stage, the hot interior of the earth contributed to oxygen through the process of photosynthesis.
the evolution of the atmosphere. Finally, the composition ‰ Eventually, oceans were saturated with oxygen, and
of the atmosphere was modified by the living world 2,000 million years ago, oxygen began to flood the
through the process of photosynthesis. atmosphere.
Statement 2 is incorrect: During the cooling of the earth, 7. With reference to Earth’s Moon, consider the following
gasses and water vapour were released from the interior statements:
solid earth. This started the evolution of the present 1. The earth and the moon formed at the same time as
atmosphere. The early atmosphere largely contained a single rotating body.
water vapour, nitrogen, carbon dioxide, methane, 2. Regolith is the residual material that lies over a layer
ammonia and very little of free oxygen. of solid bedrock on the moon.
6. Consider the following events with reference to the 3. Selenography is the scientific study of the Moon.
evolution of the atmosphere: How many of the above given statements are correct?
1. Initiation of photosynthesis. (a) Only one (b) Only two
2. Loss of the primordial atmosphere of the earth. (c) All three (d) None

4 Physical Geography
Ans: (b) Statement 2 is correct: The inner or terrestrial planets
Statement 1 is incorrect: The moon is the only natural (Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars) formed closer to the
satellite of the Earth. Like the origin of the earth, there Sun where temperatures were higher, preventing lighter
have been attempts to explain how the moon was formed. gases from condensing. As a result, these planets have
In 1838, Sir George Darwin suggested that initially, the solid, rocky surfaces and higher densities due to their
Earth and the moon formed a single rapidly rotating body. composition of heavier elements like iron and silicon.
The whole mass became a dumbbell-shaped body, and 9. Which of the following statements is correct regarding
eventually, it broke. It was also suggested that the material the planets of the solar system?
forming the moon was separated from what we have at (a) Mercury is the smallest and hottest planet with a thick
present the depression occupied by the Pacific Ocean. atmosphere composed mainly of carbon dioxide.
However, the present scientists do not accept either of (b) Jupiter has an atmosphere composed primarily of
the explanations. It is now generally believed that the hydrogen and ammonia.
formation of the moon, as a satellite of the Earth, is an
(c) Venus and Uranus rotate in the same direction as all
outcome of a ‘giant impact’ or what is described as “the
other planets in the solar system.
big splat”. A body of the size of one to three times that of
Mars collided with the Earth sometime shortly after the (d) Venus has a much hotter atmosphere than Earth and
Earth was formed. It blasted a large part of the earth into rich in carbon dioxide and clouds of sulfuric acid.
space. This portion of blasted material then continued to Ans: (d)
orbit the earth and eventually formed the present moon Option (a) is incorrect: While Mercury is the smallest
about 4.44 billion years ago. planet in the solar system, it is not the hottest. Venus, not
Statement 2 is correct: Regolith is the residual material Mercury, holds that title due to its dense atmosphere, which
that lies over a layer of solid bedrock on the Moon, or traps heat through the greenhouse effect. Additionally,
any other celestial body, including Earth. Regolith on Mercury has a very thin atmosphere, composed mostly of
the moon is slightly compressible but firm enough to be oxygen, sodium, hydrogen, helium, and potassium.
supportive for landing aircraft. Option (b) is incorrect: Jupiter is the largest planet in the
Statement 3 is correct: Selenography came to be used solar system and its atmosphere is primarily composed of
for the science of the physical features of the moon and hydrogen and helium, with traces of methane, ammonia,
its geography. It is the scientific study of the moon. and other gases.
Option (c) is incorrect: Both Venus and Uranus have
8. Consider the following statements about planets in the unusual rotations. Venus rotates in the opposite direction
solar system: (retrograde rotation) to most planets, meaning if viewed
1. Outer planets are smaller in size and have a gaseous from above, it spins clockwise rather than counterclockwise.
surface. Uranus also has an extreme axial tilt of about 98 degrees,
2. Inner planets have higher densities and solid rocky causing it to roll along its orbital path. Thus, they do not
surfaces. rotate in the same direction as other planets.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Option (d) is correct: Venus is often referred to as Earth’s
twin because of its similar size (both are terrestrial
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
planets). However, Venus has a very thick atmosphere,
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 with almost 96% composed of carbon dioxide, leading to
Ans: (b) extremely high surface temperatures, often cited as the
The solar system is a gravitationally bound system hottest planet in the solar system due to the greenhouse
comprising the Sun and various celestial bodies, including effect. The presence of sulfuric acid clouds further
eight planets, asteroids, comets, and gases. It is located contributes to its hostile environment.
in the Milky Way Galaxy’s outer spiral arm, known as 10. With reference to outer or Jovian planets, consider the
Orion. The planets are classified into two categories: following statements:
inner terrestrial planets, which are denser and rocky, 1. Jovian planets have larger sizes and lower densities
and outer Jovian planets, which are gaseous and larger. compared to terrestrial planets.
The formation of these planets was influenced by their
2. These planets formed at greater distances from the
proximity to the Sun and the effect of solar winds.
Sun, where less intense solar winds allowed for the
Statement 1 is incorrect: The outer or Jovian planets retention of gases.
(Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune) are much larger in
3. All Jovian planets have solid rocky surfaces due to
size compared to the inner planets. They are composed
their formation in cold regions.
mainly of hydrogen and helium, with gaseous surfaces.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Their formation at greater distances from the Sun
allowed them to retain lighter gases, unlike the smaller, (a) Only one (b) Only two
denser inner planets. (c) All three (d) None

Universe and Solar System 5

Ans: (b) 2. Solar eclipses can only be total, while lunar eclipses
Statement 1 is correct: Jovian planets (Jupiter, Saturn, can be partial or total.
Uranus, and Neptune) are significantly larger in size and Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
have lower densities than the terrestrial planets (Mercury, (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Venus, Earth, and Mars). This is because they are primarily
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
composed of gases and ices, rather than solid rock.
Statement 2 is correct: Jovian planets formed in the Ans: (c)
colder outer regions of the solar system, where the solar Statement 1 is incorrect: Solar eclipses occur during the
wind was less intense. This allowed them to retain the new moon phase when the Moon is positioned between
lighter gases (like hydrogen and helium) that make up the Earth and the Sun, blocking sunlight from reaching the
their thick atmospheres. Earth. In contrast, lunar eclipses happen during the full moon
Statement 3 is incorrect: While there may be a solid core phase when the Earth is positioned between the Sun and the
in some of the Jovian planets, they do not have solid rocky Moon, causing the Earth’s shadow to fall on the Moon.
surfaces like terrestrial planets. Instead, they are primarily Statement 2 is incorrect: Solar eclipses can be categorized
gas giants, with no well-defined solid surface. For example, as total, partial, or annular.
Jupiter and Saturn are mostly gaseous, and their “surfaces” ‰ A total solar eclipse occurs when the Moon
are actually the tops of their thick atmospheres. completely covers the Sun.
11. Which of the following statements is/are correct ‰ A partial solar eclipse happens when only a part of
regarding the types of eclipses? the Sun is obscured.
1. A lunar eclipse can only occur during a new moon phase. ‰ An annular solar eclipse occurs when the Moon
2. The sun is completely blocked by the moon during a passes directly between the Earth and Sun, but does
total solar eclipse. not completely cover the Sun’s disk.
3. Syzygy refers to the alignment of three celestial bodies Lunar eclipses can also be total (when the entire Moon
in a straight line. enters the Earth’s shadow) or partial (when only a part of
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: the Moon enters the shadow).
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only 13. Which of the following best describes the term ‘Ejecta
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 halo’ sometimes mentioned in the news?
Ans: (c) (a) A term used to describe the bright halo around the
Earth, visible from space, caused by atmospheric
Statement 1 is incorrect: A lunar eclipse occurs when the
scattering of sunlight.
Earth comes between the Sun and the Moon, casting its
shadow on the Moon. This event can only happen during (b) A phenomenon of shielding enclosure was established
the full moon phase (not the new moon), as that is when around a spacecraft during its descent through the
the Moon is directly opposite the Sun, relative to Earth. Earth’s atmosphere.
During a new moon, the Moon is between the Earth and (c) A phenomenon observed when a meteorite or
the Sun, making a lunar eclipse impossible at that phase. asteroid collides with the Moon’s surface, creating a
Statement 2 is correct: A total solar eclipse occurs when crater and a surrounding halo of ejected material.
the Moon passes directly between the Earth and the Sun, (d) A term used to describe the ring of debris and dust
completely blocking the Sun’s light. The alignment of the that is formed around a planet due to the gravitational
Sun, Moon, and Earth (in syzygy) must be nearly perfect. pull of its moon or moons.
The observer on Earth sees the Sun’s outer corona as the Ans: (c)
Moon covers the Sun completely. Such eclipses are rare
Chandrayaan-3’s Vikram, which was carrying the rover
and last only a few minutes in any one location.
Pragyan, kicked off a storm of lunar dust on the surface
Statement 3 is correct: Syzygy is an astronomical term thanks to its landing thrusters, creating a halo on the
that refers to the alignment of three celestial bodies in a surface, which is described as ‘ejecta halo’.
straight line in a gravitational system. This configuration
‰ Ejecta halo can be understood by this simple
is critical for eclipses to occur.
example: When a meteorite or asteroid collides
‰ During a solar eclipse, the Sun, Moon, and Earth with the Moon’s surface, it creates a crater, and the
must be in syzygy. material excavated from the impact site is referred
‰ During a lunar eclipse, the Earth must be aligned to as ejecta. The ejecta can be made up of rock, soil,
between the Sun and the Moon, with all three and dust from the lunar surface.
bodies forming a straight line in space. ‰ The ejecta from the impact is often thrown out in
12. Consider the following statements with reference to the all directions and can create a distinctive pattern
solar eclipse and a lunar eclipse: around the crater. This pattern is known as the ejecta
1. Solar eclipses happen during the full moon phase, halo. It typically consists of debris and material that
whereas lunar eclipses occur during the new moon has been displaced from the impact site and can
phase. extend for some distance around the crater.

6 Physical Geography
 14. With reference to Zero Shadow Day, consider the Option (c) is incorrect: Volcanic eruptions can produce
following statements: light due to lightning or molten lava, but this is not
1. Zero Shadow Day occurs once every year at all related to auroras. Auroras are caused by solar wind
locations between the two tropics. particles, while volcanic activity has no direct connection
to the polar light phenomenon.
2. The Earth’s axial tilt plays a role in the observance of
Option (d) is correct: Auroras occur when charged particles
the Zero Shadow. from the solar wind interact with Earth’s magnetic field
Which of the statements given above are incorrect? and are funneled toward the poles by the earth’s magnetic
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only field. These particles collide with nitrogen and oxygen
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 molecules in the upper atmosphere, exciting them and
causing the emission of light, which we see as auroras.
Ans: (a)
‰ This phenomenon when visible in the Northern
Zero shadow day occurs when the sun aligns directly Hemisphere around the Arctic is known as Aurora
overhead, causing shadows to virtually disappear. The borealis or the northern lights. It can be seen in
exact date for zero shadow days depends on latitude; places like Alaska, Canada, Iceland, Greenland,
observers on the Tropic of Cancer (23.5° north of the Scandinavia, Scotland, and Russia.
equator) experience a zero shadow day on the June ‰ The same phenomenon when visible in the Southern
solstice, and observers on the Tropic of Capricorn Hemisphere around the Antarctic is known as Aurora
(23.5° south of the equator) get their zero shadow australis or the southern lights. It can be seen in
day on December’s solstice. Observers on the equator places like Australia, New Zealand, Antarctica, and
experience two zero shadow days, being exactly in parts of southern South America.
between these two lines of latitude; equatorial zero
shadow days fall on the March and September equinoxes.
Statement 1 is incorrect: “Zero shadow day” is a unique
astronomical occurrence that happens twice a year for
locations situated between the Tropic of Cancer and the
Tropic of Capricorn.
Statement 2 is correct: The phenomenon of Zero Shadow
Day is caused by the tilt of Earth’s axis and its revolution
around the sun. The Earth’s axial tilt of about 23.5 degrees
plays an important role in the zero shadow phenomenon.
This tilt contributes to the sun’s shadow effects. 16. Consider the following statements regarding the
geomagnetic storm:
15. Which of the following phenomenon is responsible for
the occurrence of ‘Auroras’, also known as polar lights? 1. It occurs due to coronal mass ejection.
(a) Reflection of sunlight by ice crystals in the polar 2. It results in an increase in Earth’s magnetic field strength.
regions. 3. It has no impact on satellite communications and
(b) Scattering of light by water droplets in the polar power grids.
atmosphere. How many of the statements given above are incorrect?
(c) Emission of light from volcanic eruptions near the (a) Only one (b) Only two
poles. (c) All three (d) None
(d) The excitation of atmospheric molecules is caused Ans: (b)
by solar wind particles that are directed towards the A geomagnetic storm is a temporary disturbance of Earth’s
poles by the Earth’s magnetic field. magnetosphere caused by solar wind shock waves and
Ans: (d) magnetic fields interacting with Earth’s magnetic field.
Option (a) is incorrect: Reflection of sunlight by ice Statement 1 is correct: Coronal mass ejections are
crystals in the polar regions are caused by “sun dogs” massive bursts of solar wind and magnetic fields released
or “halo”, not auroras. Sun dogs are caused by the from the Sun’s corona. When these ejections reach
refraction, reflection, and scattering of sunlight through Earth, they can interact with the magnetosphere, leading
ice crystals in the atmosphere, typically creating bright to geomagnetic storms and enhancing auroral activity by
spots around the sun, not the colorful lights of auroras. injecting charged particles into the atmosphere.
Option (b) is incorrect: Scattering of light by water Statement 2 is incorrect: A geomagnetic storm results
droplets is the principle behind rainbows, not auroras. in a decrease (not an increase) in Earth’s magnetic field
Rainbows occur when sunlight is refracted, reflected, strength. When solar wind and magnetic fields from a
and dispersed by water droplets in the atmosphere. This coronal mass ejection interact with the magnetosphere,
process has no connection to the charged particles and they cause fluctuations and a temporary reduction in
magnetic fields that cause auroras. magnetic field intensity.

Universe and Solar System 7

 Statement 3 is incorrect: Geomagnetic storms can severely 2. A supernova results in the production of elements
disrupt satellite communications and power grids. The heavier than iron.
intense magnetic activity interferes with satellite signals, Which of the above statements is/are correct?
affecting GPS accuracy and communications. Additionally, (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
it induces electric currents in power lines, potentially
causing voltage spikes and widespread blackouts, (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
impacting infrastructure and technology systems. Ans: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: A nova is an astronomical event
17. Consider the following statements regarding trojans:
in which a strong explosion occurs temporarily on the
1. These are asteroids found in the main asteroid belt stellar surface, increasing the brightness by hundreds to
between Mars and Jupiter. millions of times, then slowly darkening over weeks or
2. These are called Earth-crossers as they cross the months. It occurs in a binary system consisting of a white
Earth’s orbit. dwarf and a main sequence star.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Statement 2 is correct: A supernova occurs when a star
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only reaches the end of its life and explodes in a brilliant
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 burst of light. Supernovas can briefly outshine entire
galaxies and radiate more energy than our sun will in its
Ans: (d) entire lifetime. They’re also the primary source of heavy
Asteroids are rocky objects that orbit the Sun, much elements in the universe. Supernovae are responsible
smaller than planets. They are also called minor planets. for creating and dispersing elements heavier than iron,
According to NASA, there are 994,383 known asteroids, enriching the interstellar medium and contributing to
the remnants from the formation of the solar system the formation of new stars and planets.
over 4.6 billion years ago.
Asteroids are divided into three classes. First are those PW Only IAS Extra Edge
found in the main asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter, ‰ Main sequence star: A star that is fusing hydrogen
which is estimated to contain somewhere between to helium in its core. Main sequence stars make up
1.1-1.9 million asteroids. around 90% of the universe’s stellar population.
The second group is that of trojans, which are asteroids ‰ A red giant is a dying star in the final stages of
that share an orbit with a larger planet. NASA reports the stellar evolution.
presence of Jupiter, Neptune and Mars trojans. In 2011, ‰ After a red giant has shed all its atmosphere, only
they reported an Earth trojan as well. The Trojan asteroids the core remains. Scientists call this kind of stellar
move in the same orbit as Jupiter, though they keep either remnant a white dwarf. A white dwarf is about the
well ahead of or well behind the Giant Planet and are in size of Earth—roughly 12,000 kilometers (7,500
no danger of being engulfed. Mars has several Trojans, and miles) in diameter. The mass of a white dwarf
Neptune one. No true Earth Trojans are known, though ranges from about 0.17 to 1.4 times the mass
3753 Cruithne has almost the same orbital period and of the Sun. The upper limit, 1.4 solar masses, is
describes a curious sort of ‘horseshoe’ path with respect known as the Chandrasekhar Limit. If a white dwarf
to the Earth. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. exceeds this limit, it will collapse further, potentially
The third classification is Near-Earth Asteroids (NEA), becoming a neutron star or triggering a supernova.
which have orbits that pass close to the Earth. Those that A white dwarf produces no new heat of its own, so
cross the Earth’s orbit are called Earth-crossers. More it gradually cools over billions of years.
than 10,000 such asteroids are known, out of which over ‰ Neutron stars are the remains of the cores of
1,400 are classified as potentially hazardous asteroids massive stars that have reached the end of their
(PHAs). Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. lives.
PW Only IAS Extra Edge ‰ Red dwarfs are the smallest main sequence stars –
just a fraction of the Sun’s size and mass. They’re
Ryugu is also classified as a PHA and was discovered
also the coolest and appear more orange in colour
in 1999 and was given the name by the Minor Planet
than red.
Center in 2015. It is 300 million kilometres from Earth
and it took Hayabusa-2 over 42 months to reach it. ‰ Brown dwarfs aren’t technically stars. They’re
more massive than planets but not quite as
18. With reference to astronomical events, consider the massive as stars. Generally, they have between 13
following statements: and 80 times the mass of Jupiter. They emit almost
1. A nova explosion occurs in a binary system consisting no visible light, but scientists have seen a few in
of a white dwarf and a main sequence star. infrared light.

8 Physical Geography
 2 Geomorphology

Objective Questions for Practice

1. Consider the following statements about the interior of 2. The structure of the Earth can be broadly classified into
the Earth: the crust, mantle, and core. In this context, consider the
1. The continental crust is primarily made up of silica following statements:
and magnesium. 1. The inner core is the densest part of all the layers of
2. The upper portion of the mantle is called the the Earth.
Asthenosphere. 2. The mantle comprises more than two-thirds of Earth’s
3. The core forms the most of the volume of the Earth. volume.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? 3. The crust is made of primarily Iron and Nickel metals.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) 2 only (d) 1 only
(c) All three (d) None
Ans: (b)
Statement 1 is incorrect: The uppermost layer over the Ans: (b)
earth’s surface is called the crust. It is the thinnest of all Statement 1 is correct: Our planet Earth is composed of
the layers. It is about 35 km on the continental masses several layers. Each layer has a unique density (density =
and only 5 km on the ocean floors. The main mineral mass/volume). Scientists believe that all planets formed
constituents of the continental mass are silica and on the basis of gravity. Therefore, the layering of Earth
alumina. It is thus called sial (si-silica and al-alumina). The is a result of gravitational pull. The densest layer (inner
core) is at the center and the least dense layer (crust)
oceanic crust mainly consists of silica and magnesium; it
is the outermost layer. The atmosphere, composed of
is called sima (si-silica and ma-magnesium).
gases, can technically be considered a layer as well and is
Statement 2 is correct: The portion of the interior beyond obviously lighter than the crust.
the crust is called the mantle. The mantle extends from
Statement 2 is correct: The portion of the interior beyond
Moho’s discontinuity to a depth of 2,900 km. The upper
the crust is called the mantle. The mantle is about 2,900
portion of the mantle is called the asthenosphere.
kilometers (1,802 miles) thick and makes up a whopping
The word astheno means weak. It is considered to be
84 percent of Earth’s total volume. The major constituent
extending up to 400 km. It is the main source of magma
elements of the mantle are Silicon and Magnesium and
that finds its way to the surface during volcanic eruptions. hence it is also termed as SIMA.
The crust and the uppermost part of the mantle are
called lithosphere. Its thickness ranges from 10-200 km.
The lower mantle extends beyond the asthenosphere. It
is in solid state.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The radius of the earth is 6371
km. The crust forms only 1 percent of the volume of the
earth, 84 percent consists of the mantle, and 15 percent
makes the core. The innermost layer is the core with a
radius of about 3500 km. It is mainly made up of nickel
and iron and is called nife (ni – nickel and fe – ferrous,
i.e. iron). The central core has very high temperature and
pressure. The outer core is in liquid state, while the inner
core is in solid state.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: It is the outermost solid part of The mean thickness of the oceanic crust is 5 km,
the earth, normally about 8-40 kms thick. It is brittle in whereas that of the continental is around 30 km.
nature. Nearly 1% of the earth’s volume and 0.5% of the The continental crust is thicker in the areas of major
earth’s mass are made of the crust. Major constituent mountain systems. It is as much as 70 km thick in the
elements of crust are Silica (Si) and Aluminium (Al) and Himalayan region.
thus, it is often termed as SIAL. ‰ The crust and the uppermost part of the mantle are
3. With reference to the Earth’s interior, consider the called lithosphere. Its thickness ranges from 10-200 km.
following statements: All natural earthquakes take place in the lithosphere.
1. The mantle is rich in magnesium and iron. ‰ The core-mantle boundary is located at a depth of
2. The upper mantle’s plasticity allows tectonic plates to 2,900 km. The outer core is in a liquid state, while
move. the inner core is in a solid state. The core is made
up of very heavy material mostly composed of nickel
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
and iron. It is sometimes referred to as the nife layer.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
‰ Immediately beneath the crust or lithosphere is the
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 mantle(or mesosphere) about 1800 miles thick,
Ans: (c) composed mainly of a very dense rock rich in Olivine. The
The mantle is the mostly solid bulk of Earth’s interior. The upper portion of the mantle is called the asthenosphere.
mantle lies between Earth’s dense, superheated core ‰ The innermost layer is the core with a radius of
and its thin outer layer, the crust. about 3500 km. It is mainly made up of nickel and
Statement 1 is correct: The rocks that makeup Earth’s iron and is called nife (ni – nickel and fe – ferrous
mantle are mostly silicates—a wide variety of compounds i.e. iron). The central core has very high temperature
that share a silicon and oxygen structure. Common silicates and pressure. Option (d) is incorrect.
found in the mantle include olivine, garnet, and pyroxene. 5. Consider the following statements:
The other major type of rock found in the mantle is 1. Silicon makes up 27% of the Earth’s crust, representing
magnesium oxide. Other mantle elements include iron, the highest proportion by weight among its components.
aluminium, calcium, sodium, and potassium. 2. A mineral is always composed of two or more elements.
‰ Seismic waves, especially P-waves, generally increase 3. The basic source of all minerals is the hot magma in
in velocity as they travel deeper into the mantle the interior of the earth.
due to higher pressure and density. However, in the How many of the statements given above are correct
asthenosphere, seismic waves slow down slightly with respect to the minerals present in the Earth’s crust?
due to partial melting of rocks. Overall, the trend
(a) Only one (b) Only two
is an increase in velocity as waves pass through the
denser regions of the mantle. (c) All three (d) None
Statement 2 is correct: The upper mantle, particularly Ans: (a)
the asthenosphere, exhibits plasticity due to the partial Statement 1 is incorrect: The earth is composed of
melting of its rocks. This allows it to behave in a ductile various kinds of elements. These elements are in solid
manner, making it flexible and capable of flowing slowly form in the outer layer of the earth and in hot and molten
over geological time. This plasticity is crucial for plate form in the interior. About 98 per cent of the total crust
tectonics, as it allows the rigid lithospheric plates (which of the earth is composed of eight elements like oxygen,
include the Earth’s crust and the uppermost mantle) to silicon, aluminium, iron, calcium, sodium, potassium
move over the softer asthenosphere. This movement and magnesium (Table 1), and the rest is constituted by
is responsible for tectonic activity such as earthquakes, titanium, hydrogen, phosphorous, manganese, sulphur,
volcanic eruptions, and the formation of mountain ranges. carbon, nickel and other elements.
4. Which of the following statements regarding Earth’s Sr.No. Element By Weight(%)
interior is incorrect?
1. Oxygen 46.1
(a) The Oceanic crust is thinner than the Continental crust.
2. Silicon 28.2
(b) The crust and uppermost part of the mantle is called
the Lithosphere. 3. Aluminium 8.23
(c) The outer core is in a liquid state while the inner core 4. Iron 5.63
is in the solid state. 5. Calcium 4.15
(d) The core is composed of very dense rocks rich in olivine. 6. Sodium 2.36
Ans: (d) 7. Magnesium 2.33
‰ The Crust is the outermost solid part of the earth. It
8. Potassium 2.0
is brittle in nature. The thickness of the crust varies
under the oceanic and continental areas. The oceanic 9. Others 1.1
crust is thinner as compared to the continental crust. Table 1: The Major Elements of the Earth’s Crust

10 Physical Geography
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The elements in the earth’s crust are Ans: (c)
rarely found exclusively but are usually combined with other The interior of the Earth is a realm of profound geological
elements to make various substances. These substances are and physical complexity. It is divided into several distinct
recognised as minerals. Thus, a mineral is a naturally occurring layers, each with its unique properties and significance in
organic and inorganic substance, having an orderly atomic the planet’s overall dynamics
structure and a definite chemical composition and physical Direct evidences for the interior of the earth
properties. A mineral is composed of two or more elements.
‰ Surface Rock and Mining: Surface rock and materials
But, sometimes single-element minerals like sulphur, copper,
obtained from mining areas serve as easily accessible
silver, gold, graphite etc. are found.
sources for studying the Earth’s composition.
Statement 3 is correct: Though the number of elements
‰ Volcanic Eruptions: Volcanic eruptions supply
making up the lithosphere is limited they are combined in
molten material (magma) that becomes available for
many different ways to make up many varieties of minerals.
laboratory analysis. (Hence, point 1 is incorrect.)
There are at least 2,000 minerals that have been named and
identified in the earth’s crust, but almost all the commonly ‰ However, determining the magma’s source depth
occurring ones are related to six major mineral groups can be challenging.
that are known as major rock-forming minerals. The basic Indirect evidences for the interior of the earth
source of all minerals is the hot magma in the interior of the ‰ Meteors: At times, meteors reach Earth, providing
earth. When magma cools, crystals of minerals appear and material for analysis. (Hence, point 2 is correct.)
a systematic series of minerals are formed in sequence to • While this material does not originate from the
solidify so as to form rocks. Minerals such as coal, petroleum interior of the earth, it shares similarities with
and natural gas are organic substances found in solid, liquid the Earth’s composition, offering insights into our
and gaseous forms respectively. planet’s composition.
‰ Gravitation: Gravitational force (g) varies at different
6. Which of the following are the direct sources of
latitudes due to the Earth’s shape, with greater
information about the Earth’s interior?
values near the poles and lesser values at the
1. Mining 2. Meteors
equator. (Hence, point 3 is correct.)
3. Volcanic eruption 4. Seismic activity • Uneven distribution of mass within the interior
5. Gravitation of the Earth affects gravity readings, resulting in
Select the correct answer using the code given below: gravity anomalies that reveal information about
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only the distribution of materials in the Earth’s crust.
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 ‰ Magnetic Field: Magnetic surveys help identify the
distribution of magnetic materials in the interior of
Ans: (a) earth(crust).
Direct sources of information about Earth’s interior: • These surveys provide valuable information about
‰ The most readily available solid earth material is surface the distribution of materials in the crustal portion.
rock or the rocks we get from mining areas. Gold mines ‰ Seismic Activity: Seismic activity is a pivotal source of
in South Africa are as deep as 3 - 4 km. Going beyond information about the interior of the Earth. (Hence,
this depth is not possible as it is scorching at this depth. point 4 is correct.)
‰ Besides mining, scientists have taken up a number • Seismic waves generated by earthquakes help
of projects to penetrate deeper depths to explore scientists determine the Earth’s internal structure
the conditions in the crustal portions. Scientists and composition through their behavior and
worldwide are working on two significant projects: interactions with different layers.
the “Deep Ocean Drilling Project” and the “Integrated 8. Consider the following pairs:
Ocean Drilling Project”.
Name of
‰ Volcanic eruption forms another source of obtaining Description
Discontinuity
direct information. When the molten material
(magma) is thrown onto the surface of the earth, 1. Gutenberg Transition zone between upper
during volcanic eruption, it becomes available mantle and lower mantle.
for laboratory analysis. However, it is difficult to 2. Repetti Transition zone between outer and
ascertain the depth of the source of such magma. inner cores.
7. Consider the following: 3. Mohorovicic Boundary between lower crust and
1. Volcanic eruptions 2. Meteors upper mantle.
3. Gravitation 4. Seismic activity 4. Lehmann Transition zone between lower mantle
How many of the above are indirect sources for the and outer core.
interior of the earth? How many of the pairs given above are correct:
(a) Only one (b) Only two (a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Only three (d) All four (c) Only three (d) All four

Geomorphology 11
Ans: (a) not the primary processes in the initial differentiation of
The structure of the Earth’s interior is made up of several Earth’s layers. (Hence, statement 4 is incorrect).
concentric layers. Broadly, three layers can be identified:
‰ Crust: This is Earth’s outermost layer which is solid
and brittle.
• Conrad discontinuity is the boundary between
upper crust and lower crust.
‰ Mantle: It extends from Moho’s discontinuity to a
depth of 2,900 km.
• Upper portion of the mantle is called the
asthenosphere (main source of magma).
• Its density is higher than the continental crust.
• Mohorovicic Discontinuity: boundary between lower
crust and upper mantle. Hence, pair 3 is correct.
• Repetti Discontinuity: transition zone between upper
mantle and lower mantle. Hence, pair 2 is incorrect.
‰ Core: It starts at a depth of 2,900 km; The outer core Fig: Interior of the Earth
is liquid, mainly because of its high temperature,
10. Consider the following statements with reference to the
while the inner core remains solid despite even
seismic wave velocity:
greater temperatures due to the immense pressures
1. The Mohorovicic Discontinuity (Moho) marks a
at this depth.
significant increase in seismic wave velocity downwards.
• Gutenberg Discontinuity: transition zone
between lower mantle and outer core. Hence, 2. Seismic wave velocities are uniform in all directions
pair 1 is incorrect. in the lower mantle.
• Lehmann Discontinuity: transition zone between 3. Temperature is the primary reason for the variation
outer and inner cores.Hence, pair 4 is incorrect. in seismic wave velocity within the upper mantle of
the Earth.
9. Which of the following key processes were involved in
the initial differentiation of the earth’s layers? 4. The discontinuity in the seismic velocity at the
1. Heating and melting of materials. boundary between the mantle and the inner core
2. Gravitational settling of heavy elements. indicates a transition from solid to liquid.
3. Volcanic activity. Which of the statements given above are correct?
4. Chemical reactions with the atmosphere. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only Ans: (b)
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only Statement 1 is correct: The Mohorovičić Discontinuity
Ans: (d) (Moho) marks a significant increase in seismic wave
The differentiation of the Earth’s layers refers to the velocity due to the transition from the Earth’s crust to
process by which the Earth separated into distinct layers the mantle. This discontinuity represents a shift from
(core, mantle, crust) based on density and composition the less dense crust to the denser mantle, resulting in
during its early formation. This process involved: increased seismic wave velocities. The lower mantle
‰ Heating and melting of materials: Intense heat from does not exhibit isotropic behavior.
radioactive decay and residual heat from planetary Statement 2 is incorrect: Seismic velocities in the lower
formation caused the Earth’s materials to melt. mantle can vary due to the anisotropic properties
This allowed heavier elements to sink and lighter related to mineral structures and orientations. As density
elements to rise. (Hence, statement 1 is correct). changes in different directions, seismic velocity will not
‰ Gravitational settling of heavy elements: Once the Earth be uniform in all directions.
was in a molten state, gravity caused heavier elements Statement 3 is correct: The variation in seismic wave
like iron and nickel to sink towards the core, while lighter velocities within the Earth’s upper mantle is primarily
elements remained at the surface and formed the due to temperature changes, which affect the material’s
mantle and crust. (Hence, statement 2 is correct). density and viscosity, rather than differences in the
‰ Volcanic activity: Volcanic eruptions brought composition of the materials.
materials from the interior to the surface and Statement 4 is incorrect: The presence of a seismic velocity
contributed to the formation of the Earth’s crust and discontinuity at the boundary between the mantle and
atmosphere. (Hence, statement 3 is correct). the inner core is not indicative of a transition from solid
Chemical reactions with the atmosphere played a role to liquid. The correct transition from solid to liquid occurs
later in the evolution of the Earth’s surface but were at the boundary between the mantle and the outer core.

12 Physical Geography
 known as the dynamo effect. This magnetic field plays a
PW Only IAS Extra Edge
crucial role in shielding the planet from solar radiation and
Different types of earthquake waves travel in different undergoes periodic reversals over geological time scales.
manners. As they move or propagate, they cause vibration
Statement 1 is correct: The Earth’s outer core is composed
in the body of the rocks through which they pass.
primarily of molten iron and nickel. The differences in
P-waves vibrate parallel to the direction of the wave.
temperature, pressure, and composition within the core
This exerts pressure on the material in the direction of
the propagation. As a result, it creates density differences create convection currents in this liquid metal. As the
in the material leading to stretching and squeezing of the liquid iron moves, it generates electric currents, which in
material. Other three waves vibrate perpendicular to turn produce magnetic fields. This process, known as the
the direction of propagation. The direction of vibrations dynamo effect, is responsible for creating and maintaining
of S-waves is perpendicular to the wave direction in the the Earth’s magnetic field. Without this motion in the
vertical plane. Hence, they create troughs and crests in outer core, the geomagnetic field would not exist.
the material through which they pass. Surface waves are Statement 2 is incorrect: The strength of the geomagnetic
considered to be the most damaging waves. field varies (not uniform) across the Earth. It is strongest
near the magnetic poles where the field lines are more
11. With reference to Plate Tectonics, consider the following
concentrated and enters the Earth nearly vertically.
statements:
Conversely, the field is weaker near the equator,
1. Subduction zones at convergent boundaries result in the
where the field lines are more spread out and closer to
formation of ocean trenches and volcanic mountains.
horizontal. The magnetic field is dynamic and can vary
2. Transform boundaries are responsible for the formation
due to several factors, including changes in the flow of
of mid-ocean ridges.
molten metal in the outer core.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Statement 3 is correct: A geomagnetic reversal is when the
Earth’s magnetic poles switch positions, so the magnetic
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 north becomes south and vice versa. This reversal does
Ans: (a) not occur on a precise schedule but tends to happen over
Statement 1 is correct: Subduction zones occur when long periods, typically every few hundred thousand years.
an oceanic plate is forced beneath another plate at a The last major reversal, known as the Brunhes-Matuyama
convergent boundary. They typically form deep ocean reversal, occurred about 780,000 years ago. Evidence
trenches (e.g., the Mariana Trench) and volcanic arcs of these reversals is found in the alignment of magnetic
(e.g., the Andes or the Aleutian Islands). These areas minerals in volcanic rocks and sediments, which record the
are also prone to significant seismic activity, including direction of the Earth’s magnetic field when they formed.
earthquakes and volcanic eruptions. 13. Consider the following statements with reference to the
‰ When there is a convergence between continental- geomorphic processes:
continental plates, fold mountains are formed. 1. Diastrophism includes orogenic and epeirogenic
Statement 2 is incorrect: Mid-ocean ridges form at movements.
divergent boundaries, where tectonic plates move apart, 2. The movement of tectonic plates is classified as an
allowing magma to rise and create new oceanic crust (e.g., exogenic process.
the Mid-Atlantic Ridge). Transform boundaries, on the Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
other hand, are characterized by plates sliding past each (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
other horizontally, creating fault systems such as the San
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Andreas Fault. They do not form mid-ocean ridges.
Ans: (a)
12. With reference to the Earth’s magnetic field, consider Statement 1 is correct: Diastrophism refers to all
the following statements: processes that deform, elevate, or move the Earth’s crust.
1. The geomagnetic field is generated by the motion of This includes both orogenic processes (mountain-building
molten iron alloys in the Earth’s liquid outer core. through folding and faulting) and epeirogenic processes
2. The strength of the geomagnetic field is uniform (uplift or warping of large areas). These movements are
across the Earth’s surface. primarily driven by tectonic forces and are essential in
3. Geomagnetic reversals occur in cycles of a hundred shaping geological features over geological time scales.
thousand years. Statement 2 is incorrect: The movement of tectonic plates is
How many of the above statements are correct? classified as an endogenic process, not exogenic. Endogenic
(a) Only one (b) Only two processes originate from within the Earth and include tectonic
(c) All three (d) None activities such as earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, and plate
Ans: (b) movements that reshape the Earth’s crust internally. Exogenic
The Earth’s magnetic field is a dynamic force generated by processes, on the other hand, are driven by external forces
such as weathering, erosion, and sedimentation.
the movement of molten iron in the Earth’s outer core,

Geomorphology 13
 14. Consider the following statements: 3. Erosion comprises acquisition and transportation of
1. Diastrophic forces are very slow forces whose effects rock debris.
are observable only after thousands of years. How many of the statements given above are correct?
2. They are a part of exogenetic forces. (a) Only one (b) Only two
3. They are restricted to a small area under the influence
(c) All three (d) None
of local weathering agents.
How many of the above statements are correct regarding Ans: (c)
diastrophic forces? Statement 1 is correct: The crust is severely deformed
(a) Only one (b) Only two into folds. Orogeny is a mountain building process
whereas epeirogeny is continental building process.
(c) All three (d) None
Statement 2 is correct: Gravity also being a directional
Ans: (a) force activating all downslope movements of matter
Statement 1 is correct: Diastrophic forces are caused due also causes stresses on the earth’s materials. Indirect
to energy originating from within the Earth. They operate gravitational stresses activate wave and tide induced
very slowly and their effects become recognizable only currents and winds. Without gravity and gradients
after thousands and millions of years. there would be no mobility and hence no erosion,
Statement 2 is incorrect: Diastrophic force is a subpart of transportation and deposition are possible.
Endogenetic forces along with sudden forces. These are Statement 3 is correct: Erosion involves acquisition and
created by forces deep inside the earth’s surface. It is also transportation of rock debris. When massive rocks break
subdivided into epeirogenic and orogenic movements. into smaller fragments through weathering and any
Statement 3 is incorrect: Diastrophic forces are also other process, erosional geomorphic agents like running
called as constructive forces which affect larger areas of water, groundwater, glaciers, wind and waves remove
the globe and produce meso-level reliefs e.g. mountains, and transport it to other places depending upon the
plateaus, plains lakes, big faults, etc. dynamics of each of these agents.
PW Only IAS Extra Edge 17. Consider the following statements with respect to
1. S udden Forces: Volcanic Eruption, Earthquakes etc. mountain building:
1. A mountain ridge is a system of short, wide, and low hills.
2. Diastrophic forces: Epeirogenetic forces-like
2. The compression of the tectonic plates forms fold
emergence and submergence and Orogenetic
mountains while block mountains are formed by the
forces- tensional forces (cracking and faulting) and
action of the tensile forces.
compressional forces (warping and folding).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
15. Consider the following options:
1. Radioactivity (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. Rotational and tidal friction (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Primordial heat from the origin of the earth Ans: (b)
How many of the above sources of energy drive the Statement 1 is incorrect: A mountain ridge is a system of long,
endogenic geomorphic processes within the Earth? narrow, and high hills. In which the slope of one side is steep
(a) Only one (b) Only two while the other side is moderate slope but ridge may also
(c) All three (d) None have a symmetrical slope on both sides. A mountain range is
a system of mountains and hills having several ridges, peaks,
Ans: (c) and a summit and valley. It stretches in a linear manner.
The energy emanating from within the earth is the main
Statement 2 is correct: Fold mountains are formed by
force behind endogenic geomorphic processes. This energy is
the compression of the tectonic plates. Block mountains
mostly generated by radioactivity, rotational and tidal friction
are originated by tensile forces leading to the formation
and primordial heat from the origin of the earth. This energy
of rift valleys. They are also called as Horst Mountains.
due to geothermal gradients and heat flow from within
induces diastrophism and volcanism in the lithosphere. 18. Which of the following observations was crucial in
Due to variations in geothermal gradients and heat supporting the sea floor spreading hypothesis?
flow from within, crustal thickness and strength, the 1. The rocks of the oceanic crust are significantly older
action of endogenic forces is not uniform and hence the than continental rocks.
tectonically controlled original crustal surface is uneven. 2. Rocks equidistant from the mid-oceanic ridges show
(Hence, option (c) is correct.) similarities in magnetic properties and chemical
composition.
16. With reference to the Geomorphic Processes, consider
the following statements: 3. Sediments on the ocean floor are thicker than expected.
1. Orogeny is a mountain building process. Select the correct answer using the codes below:
2. Gravity is also a directional force activating all (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
downslope movements of matter. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only

14 Physical Geography
Ans: (b) chemical composition. This observation is crucial because
The sea floor spreading hypothesis, proposed by Harry it demonstrates that new crust is forming at mid-oceanic
Hess in 1961, suggests that a new oceanic crust is created ridges and spreading outward. The symmetrical magnetic
at mid-oceanic ridges through volcanic eruptions. striping on either side of the ridges confirms that new rock is
continuously created and that the ocean floor is spreading.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The oceanic crust rocks are
Statement 3 is incorrect: It was found that sediments on
significantly younger (not older) than continental rocks.
the ocean floor are unexpectedly very thin (not thick).
The age of rocks in the oceanic crust is nowhere more Scientists were expecting, if the ocean floors were as
than 200 million years old. Some of the continental rock old as the continent, to have a complete sequence
formations are as old as 3,200 million years. of sediments for a period of much longer duration.
Statement 2 is correct: Rocks equidistant from the mid- However, nowhere was the sediment column found to
oceanic ridges show similarities in magnetic properties and be older than 200 million years.

Fig: Sea floor speading

19. Which one of the following landform is formed as a • Of coastal land near the coast called submergence
result of subsidence or downward movement? • Features = Ria, fjord, Dalmatian and drowned
(a) Malabar coast lowlands
(b) Coromandel coast • The Andamans and Nicobars is the visible part of
(c) Konkan coast the submerged Arakan range. (Hence, option (d)
(d) Andaman and Nicobar islands is correct.)
Ans: (d) • A part of the Rann of Kachchh was submerged as
Epeirogenic-or-continent forming movements are radial a result of an earthquake in 1819.
movements (act along the radius of the earth). It causes 20. Consider the following continents:
upliftment and subsidence of continental masses through
1. North America 2. Europe
upward and downward movements. Movements are
vertical and they affect a larger part. 3. Greenland 4. Antarctica
Vertical movements are mainly associated with the How many of the above were part of the Laurasian
formation of continents and plateaus (continental building supercontinent?
process). Upward movement can be of two types: (a) Only one (b) Only two
‰ Upward movement or upliftment (c) Only three (d) All four
• Of whole continent or part thereof Ans: (c)
• Of coastal land of the continents called as emergence Laurasia was a northern supercontinent that existed
• Coromandel coast (Tamil Nadu Coast) during the late Paleozoic and early Mesozoic eras,
approximately 300 to 200 million years ago. It was
• Malabar coast (Kerala Coast)
formed by the collision of several smaller landmasses,
• Konkan coast (Maharashtra and Goa Coast) including North America, Greenland, Europe, and parts
‰ Downward movement or subsidence of Asia. The southernmost continent, Antarctica, was
• Of whole continent or part thereof part of Gondwanaland.

Geomorphology 15
 21. With reference to the ‘erosional processes’, consider the ‰ Sheet erosion refers to the uniform removal of thin
following statements: layers of soil across a broad area. It occurs when water
1. Hydraulic action is the mechanical loosening and flows over a surface without forming distinct channels.
removal of materials of rocks by water alone without Statement 2 is correct: The biggest hotspot for soil
the help of erosion tools. erosion in the country is the Brahmaputra Valley in
2. Attrition is the process of removing, lifting and blowing Assam. Data accessed and quantified by Down to Earth
away dry and loose particles of sand and dust by winds. shows that the northeastern state of Assam lost close to
3. Deflation refers to the wearing down and rounding 31 per cent of its surface soil to “catastrophic” erosion.
of sediment particles as they collide with each other PW Only IAS Extra Edge
during transport.
Gully erosion occurs when soil is removed along
How many of the statements given above are correct? drainage lines by surface water runoff. As rills expand,
(a) Only one (b) Only two they develop into gullies, which continue to grow
(c) All three (d) None through headward erosion or the slumping of side walls.
Ans: (a) Extensive gully formation leads to badland topography,
Erosion is the acquisition and transportation of rock such as the Chambal Ravines. Further headward erosion
debris by geomorphic agents like running water, the wind, deepens the gully bed, flattening it into a ravine, which
waves, glaciers, etc. Though weathering aids erosion, it is can reach depths of 30 meters or more. With continued
not a precondition for erosion to take place. (i.e., erosion erosion, ravines can evolve into canyons, which are
can take place in unweathered conditions also). hundreds of meters deep and wide, like the Grand
Statement 1 is correct: The breakdown of rocks due to Canyon on the Colorado River.
pressure exerted by water currents of the rivers and sea 23. Geomorphic processes are the natural forces and
waves is termed Hydraulic action. It is the mechanical actions that contribute to the formation, development
loosening and removal of materials of rocks by water and alternation of the Earth’s landforms, in this regard
alone without the help of erosion tools. The rivers erode consider the following statements:
their valley walls through hydraulic action. 1. Exfoliation is the term used to describe the removal
Statement 2 is incorrect: Attrition refers to mechanical of sheets of rock from a rock’s surface due a range of
tear and wear of erosion tools suffered by themselves. physical and chemical processes during weathering.
The boulders, cobbles, pebbles, etc, while moving 2. Corrasion is the chemical or solvent action of water on
downstream with water, collide against each other and soluble or partly soluble rocks while coming in contact
thus are fragmented into smaller and finer pieces in transit. with them.
Attrition by wind involves the mechanical breakdown of 3. Solifluction is a type of mass movement which involves
rock particles while they are transported by wind through the gradual downslope movement of water saturated
the processes of saltation and surface creep. rock debris.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Deflation is the process of Which of the above given statements is/are correct?
removing, lifting, and blowing away dry and loose
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
particles of sand and dust by winds. It happens in semi-
arid or arid regions. Congelifraction (frost weathering), (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
Congelifluction (soil creep), nivation (snow patch erosion), Ans: (c)
etc. are significant weathering and transportation Statement 1 is correct: Exfoliation is the term used to
mechanisms performed by periglacial agents. describe the removal of sheets of rock from a rock’s
22. Consider the following statements about soil erosion. surface due a range of physical and chemical processes
1. Rill erosion is the uniform removal of a thin soil layer during weathering.
over a large area due to rainfall. Statement 2 is incorrect: Corrasion or Abrasion: Corrasion
2. The biggest hotspot for soil erosion in the country is (also known as abrasion) refers to the mechanical scraping,
the Brahmaputra valley in Assam. grinding, and wearing away of rocks by friction and impact
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? from particles carried by water, wind, or ice.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only There are two types:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 ‰ Vertical corrasion which acts downward
Ans: (b) ‰ Lateral corrasion which acts on both sides
Statement 1 is incorrect: Rill erosion involves the The chemical action of water on rocks is called solution
formation of small, parallel channels in the soil due to or chemical weathering.
concentrated water flow rather than uniform removal Statement 3 is correct: Solifluction is a type of mass
over a large area. It is considered an intermediate stage movement which involves the gradual downslope
between sheet erosion and gully erosion. movement of water saturated rock debris.

16 Physical Geography
 24. Consider the following statements: Statement 2 is correct: Physical or mechanical weathering
1. Regolith is the organic remains of dead animals and processes depend on some applied forces. The applied
plants. forces could be Gravitational forces such as overburden
2. Weathering is actively wearing away of the earth’s pressure, load and shearing stress, Expansion forces due to
surface by moving agents like running water. temperature changes, crystal growth or animal activity, and
3. Erosion is a process by which rocks are disintegrated Water pressures controlled by wetting and drying cycles.
and decomposed in situ. Many of these forces are applied both at the surface and
within different earth materials leading to rock fracture.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two 26. Consider the following statements:
(c) All three (d) None 1. Biological weathering is the process of removal of
minerals from the weathering environment due to
Ans: (d) the activities of microorganisms on decaying plants.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Regolith is not the organic
2. Anthropological activity can contribute to biological
remains of dead animals and plants, but rather a loose weathering.
covering of dust, broken rocks, and other materials on
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
top of solid rock.When the surface of a rock is weathered,
some of the material which is loosened is removed (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
by erosive agents such as wind or running water thus (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
exposing a fresh surface to weathering, but much of the Ans: (c)
weathered material or regolith (remains of the rock) There are three major groups of weathering processes:
may stay in position forming the basis of soil. Regolith is
(i) chemical
simply the mineral remains of decomposed rocks, but soil
(ii) physical or mechanical
contains organic materials, such as the roots of plants,
(iii) biological weathering processes
fallen leaves, small animals such as worms, bacteria and
Very rarely does any one of these processes ever operate
so on. It is the organic content of the soil which makes it
completely by itself, but quite often a dominance of one
fertile and allows crops to be grown.
process can be seen.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Weathering refers to the Statement 1 is correct: Biological weathering is the
breakdown of rocks and minerals into smaller particles process of contribution to or removal of minerals and
due to physical, chemical, or biological processes. It ions from the weathering environment and physical
happens in situ (without movement), whereas erosion changes due to the growth or movement of organisms.
involves the movement of these particles by agents like Burrowing and wedging by organisms like earthworms,
water, wind, or ice. termites, rodents etc., help in exposing the new surfaces
Statement 3 is incorrect: The removal of soil at a greater to chemical attack and assist in the penetration of
rate than its replacement by natural agencies (water, moisture and air. Decaying plant and animal matter helps
wind etc.) is known as soil erosion. Erosion is the active in the production of humic, carbonic and other acids
wearing away of the earth’s surface by moving agents which enhance decay and solubility of some elements.
like running water, wind, ice and waves. Plant roots exert tremendous pressure on the earth’s
25. With reference to the physical weathering of the rocks, materials mechanically breaking them apart.
consider the following statements: Statement 2 is correct: Human beings by disturbing
vegetation, ploughing and cultivating soils, also help in
1. Physical weathering involves the mechanical mixing and creating new contacts between air, water and
disintegration of rocks. minerals in the earth’s materials. These new surfaces get
2. Temperature changes and freeze-thaw cycles are some exposed to Weathering, thus anthropogenic activities
of the factors responsible for physical weathering. contribute to biological weathering.
Which of the statements given above are incorrect? 27. Consider the following forms of weathering:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. Burrowing by organisms 2. Acids produced by algae
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Cryo fracturing 4. Exfoliation
Ans: (d) 5. Carbonation
Statement 1 is correct: Physical weathering involves How many of the above are the forms of biological
mechanical disintegration of rocks due to temperature weathering?
changes, freeze-thaw cycles, wet-dry cycles, crystallisation (a) Only two (b) Only three
of salts, etc. Most of the physical weathering processes are
(c) Only four (d) All five
caused by thermal expansion and pressure release. These
processes are small and slow but can cause great damage Ans: (a)
to the rocks because of the continued fatigue the rocks Biological weathering involves the alteration or removal
suffer due to the repetition of contraction and expansion. of minerals and ions from the weathering environment

Geomorphology 17
 due to the activities of organisms. It includes physical weathered material, such as soil, rocks, and organic matter.
changes resulting from the growth or movement of This causes the material to flow downhill, often through
plants and other organisms. existing stream channels, much like a flowing river of mud.
Point 1 is correct: Burrowing animals like moles, Mudflows can move slowly or rapidly, depending on the
squirrels, and rabbits can create fissures in rocks through slope and the volume of water involved. These are commonly
their digging activities. These animals extract nutrients observed in regions prone to intense rainfall.
from the rocks via these fissures, which gradually leads Statement 3 is incorrect: Debris avalanches are faster
to the rock breaking into larger fragments. than mudflows, not slower. They occur on steep slopes
Point 2 is correct: Microbial activity involves microscopic and involve a rapid downhill movement of a mixture of
organisms like algae, moss, lichens, and bacteria producing rock, soil, and other debris. The movement is extremely
fast, resembling snow avalanches, and they often travel
organic acids. These acids alter the chemical composition of
in narrow tracks, making them highly destructive. Debris
rocks, leading to the gradual erosion of their outer layers.
avalanches can exceed speeds of several kilometers per
Point 3 is incorrect: Cryo-fracturing is a mechanical hour, especially on very steep slopes, whereas mudflows
weathering process where water, in its liquid or solid form, tend to be slower.
plays a crucial role. For example, liquid water can infiltrate
cracks in rocks. When temperatures drop, this water freezes 29. Match the following pairs:
and expands, acting as a wedge that gradually widens the Geomorphic agent Landform (Depositional/Erosional)
cracks and splits the rock. As the ice melts, the resulting liquid
A. Winds 1. Doline
water carries away the small rock fragments. This freeze-
thaw cycle is known as frost weathering or cryo fracturing. B. Ground water 2. Pediments
Point 4 is incorrect: Exfoliation occurs due to thermal stress, C. Glacier 3. Point Bars
where temperature fluctuations contribute to mechanical D. Running water 4. Cirque
weathering. As temperatures rise, rocks expand, and as they
cool, they contract. This cycle of expansion and contraction, Choose the code for the correct pair:
especially prevalent in rocky desert landscapes, leads to the (a) A-2; B-3; C-1; D-4 (b) A-2; B-1; C-4; D-3
peeling or flaking of rock layers. (c) A-1; B-4; C-3; D-4 (d) A-4; B-3; C-1; D-2
Point 5 is incorrect: Chemical weathering involves the Ans: (b)
interaction of rock with mineral solutions (chemicals) to Doline: A doline, also known as a collapse sink or
change the composition of rocks. Carbonation is a type sinkhole, forms when the roof of an underground cavity
of chemical weathering. Carbonation is the mixing of or cave collapses, creating a depression or hole on the
water with carbon dioxide to make carbonic acid. surface. This is an erosional landform associated with
the activity of ground water in karst topography. These
28. Consider the following statements regarding rapid mass
features are common in areas where soluble bedrock,
movements:
such as limestone, is prone to dissolution by water.
1. Earthflow refers to the movement of water-saturated
Pediments: Gently inclined rocky floors close to the
clay or silty materials down gentle slopes or hillsides. mountains at their foot with or without a thin cover
2. Mudflows occur when intense rainfall saturates thick of debris, are called pediments. These are erosional
layers of weathered materials, allowing them to flow landforms associated with the activity of wind in desert
down channels like a stream of mud. area. Such rocky floors form through the erosion of
3. Debris avalanches are fast-moving mass movements mountain front through a combination of lateral erosion
on steep slopes that occur in narrow tracks and are by streams and sheet flooding.
typically slower than mudflows. Point bars: These are depositional landforms associated
How many of the above statements are correct? with running water as an geomorphic agent. These
(a) Only one (b) Only two are also known as meander bars. They are found on
the concave side of meanders of large rivers and are
(c) All three (d) None sediments deposited in a linear fashion by flowing waters
Ans: (b) along the bank. They are almost uniform in profile and in
Statement 1 is correct: Earthflows occur when soil, rich width and contain mixed sizes of sediments.
in clay or silt, becomes saturated with water, reducing the Cirques: These are the most common of landforms in
internal friction that normally holds the material in place. glaciated mountains. The cirques quite often are found
This leads to a slow to moderately rapid downhill movement at the heads of glacial valleys. The accumulated ice cuts
of the saturated soil. These flows are commonly observed these cirques while moving down the mountain tops.
in regions with gentle to moderate slopes, especially after They are deep, long and wide troughs or basins with very
heavy rainfall. Earthflows typically occur in humid climates steep concave to vertically dropping high walls at its head
where the soil has a high water content. as well as sides. A lake of water can be seen quite often
Statement 2 is correct: Mudflows are rapid mass movements within the cirques after the glacier disappears. Such lakes
that occur when heavy rainfall or snowmelt saturates loose, are called cirque or tarn lakes.

18 Physical Geography
 30. Consider the following statements with reference to the Statement 2 is incorrect: Igneous rocks normally have a
rocks present in the Earth: crystalline structure. They do not occur in strata. They
1. Feldspar and Quartz are the most common minerals do not contain any fossils either. This is because because
found in rocks. they are formed directly from lava or magma, not
2. Ice-deposited sedimentary rocks are called tillite. sediment. Sedimentary rocks have a rich fossil presence.
3. Argillaceous rocks form the best reservoirs for liquids Statement 3 is correct: Volcanic rocks (extrusive igneous
like groundwater and petroleum. rocks) are formed due to the solidification of lava at the
Which of the statements given above are correct? surface of the Earth. They solidify rapidly and as a result,
it has a small crystal size. Basalt is a common example of
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
it. Whereas in plutonic rocks (intrusive igneous rocks), the
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above solidification of magma is at great depths and the rate of
Ans: (a) cooling is much slow as a result of which the size of the
Approximately 98% of the Earth’s crust is indeed crystal is very large. Granite is an example of plutonic rock.
composed of just eight elements: oxygen, silicon, 32. Consider the following statements:
aluminium, iron, calcium, sodium, potassium, and 1. Plutonic rocks are extrusive igneous rocks that include
magnesium. These elements are the primary constituents products of lava, such as pyroclasts.
of the most common minerals found in the crust.
2. Volcanic rocks are intrusive igneous rocks that have
Statement 1 is correct: Feldspar and quartz are among solidified or cooled below the earth’s crust.
the most abundant minerals in the Earth’s crust. Feldspar
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
makes up about 60% of the crust, while quartz is also very
common in many igneous and sedimentary rocks. Together, (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
they form a significant portion of rock compositions. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 2 is correct: Sedimentary rocks are created Ans: (d)
through lithification, which involves the consolidation Statement 1 is incorrect: The lava that is released during
and compaction of sediments. As a result, they are volcanic eruptions on cooling develops into igneous
typically layered or stratified with varying thicknesses. rocks. The cooling may take place either upon reaching
Sedimentary rocks formed from ice-deposited sediments the surface or also while the lava is still in the crustal
are known as till or tillite, while those formed from wind- portion. Volcanic rocks (also called extrusive igneous
deposited sediments are referred to as loess. rocks) include all the products resulting from eruptions
Statement 3 is incorrect: Arenaceous sedimentary of lava (flows and fragmented debris called pyroclasts).
rocks contain a higher proportion of sand and larger Statement 2 is incorrect: Plutonic rocks (also called
particles, making them hard and porous. They serve as intrusive igneous rocks) are those that have solidified
excellent reservoirs for liquids such as groundwater and below ground; plutonic comes from the word Pluto, the
petroleum, with sandstone being a prime example. In Greek god of the underworld.
contrast, argillaceous rocks have a higher clay content
and are fine-grained, softer, and mostly impermeable, Plutonic Rocks Volcanic Rocks
featuring very small pores. Claystone and shales are Plutonic rocks are a type Volcanic rocks are a type
predominantly argillaceous. of igneous rocks that form of igneous rocks that
31. Consider the following statements with respect to under the surface of Earth form upon exposure to
Igneous rocks: crust air
1. Felsic igneous rocks are denser and darker in colour Underneath the Earth crust Above ground
than Mafic rocks. Mineral content is low Mineral content is high
2. They occur in strata and have a rich fossil presence. Medium to large grains Fine grains
3. As compared to Volcanic rocks, Plutonic rocks have a Solidifies due to slow cooling Solidifies due to
larger crystal size. underneath the Earth exposure to air
How many of the statements given above are correct?
33. Which of the following statements regarding acidic and
(a) Only one (b) Only two basic rocks is/are correct?
(c) All three (d) None 1. Acidic rocks are characterized by a high silica content.
Ans: (a) 2. Basic rocks have a higher density than acidic rocks.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Felsic igneous rocks are made 3. Acidic rocks are fine-grained, while basic rocks have
up of acidic lava and have a high portion of silica which large crystal sizes.
makes them less dense and lighter in colour as compared Select the correction answer using the code given below:
to mafic rocks. Mafic rocks are made of basic lava and
have higher portions of aluminium and iron, these are (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
denser and darker in colour than felsic rocks. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above

Geomorphology 19
Ans: (a) Which one of the following is correct in respect of the
Statement 1 is correct: Acidic rocks (or felsic rocks) are above statements?
indeed characterized by a high silica content, typically (a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct,
greater than 65%. Granite is a common example of an and Statement–II is the correct explanation for
acidic rock, composed mainly of quartz and feldspar. Statement–I
Quartz itself is a mineral that is also rich in silica. (b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct,
Statement 2 is correct: Basic rocks (or mafic rocks) generally and Statement–II is not the correct explanation for
have a higher density compared to acidic rocks because they Statement–I
contain higher amounts of heavier minerals such as iron
(c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is incorrect.
and magnesium. For instance, basalt, a common mafic rock,
has an average density around 2.9 g/cm³, while granite (an (d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is correct.
acidic rock) has a typical density of about 2.7 g/cm³ . Ans: (b)
Statement 3 is incorrect: The texture of igneous rocks is Statement- I is correct: Rocks do not remain in their
determined by how quickly they cool, not by their acidity original form for long but may undergo transformation.
or basicity. Acidic magma typically cools slowly beneath Rock cycle is a continuous process through which old
the Earth’s surface (intrusive), leading to larger crystals rocks are transformed into new ones.
(as seen in granite). In contrast, basic magma can cool Statement-II is correct: The fragments derived out of
more rapidly when erupted at the surface (extrusive), igneous and metamorphic rocks form into sedimentary
resulting in fine-grained textures (like basalt). When rocks. Sedimentary rocks themselves can turn into
basic magma cools slowly underground, it can form fragments, and the fragments can be a source for the
larger crystals (as seen in gabbro). formation of sedimentary rocks.
34. Consider the following statements: However, Statement II is not the direct explanation
Statement-I: Sedimentary rocks can contain fossils. for Statement I, as the rock cycle encompasses
transformations between all rock types (igneous,
Statement-II: Sedimentary rocks typically occur in layers.
sedimentary, and metamorphic), not just the recycling of
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the sedimentary rocks. Therefore, the correct option is (b).
above statements?
36. With reference to sedimentary rocks, consider the
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and
following statements:
Statement-II is a correct explanation of Statement-I.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct 1. Hydrological system creates sedimentary rocks in Karst
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation of topography.
Statement-I. 2. Fossil fuels are not present in sedimentary rocks.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. Which of the statements given above are incorrect?
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct. (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only
Ans: (a) (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Fossils are the preserved remains of ancient plants and Ans: (b)
animals. Sedimentary rocks contain fossils. Statement 1 is correct: The hydrological systems of the
Mudstone, shale, and limestone are examples of earth transform the rocks that are present there into
sedimentary rocks likely to contain fossils. As the layers sediments. For instance, when rocks are carbonated
of sediment build up on top of one another, they create by groundwater, they are transformed into sediments,
a physical timeline. The oldest layers, along with the and when those sediments are lithified, they create
organisms that were fossilized as they formed, are sedimentary rocks in limestone or Karst topography.
deepest. The youngest layers are found at the top. Statement 2 is incorrect: Sedimentary rocks have layers
Fossils typically occur in layers, or strata, separated one due to the continuous lithification and compaction of
from the other by bedding planes. In many sedimentary sediments. These layers trap, organic molecules, and
rocks, the layers of deposits retain their characteristics under pressure and heat, these materials transform into
even after lithification. fossil fuels like coal and petroleum, among others. As a
(Hence, both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct result, these rocks contain fossil fuels.
and Statement-II is a correct explanation of Statement-I.) 37. Consider the following statements regarding
35. Consider the following statements: metamorphism and metamorphic rock systems :
Statement–I: The Rock cycle is a continuous process 1. Metamorphism is a process by which already
through which old rocks are transformed into new ones. consolidated rocks undergo recrystallisation and
Statement–II: Sedimentary rocks themselves can turn reorganization of materials within original rocks.
into fragments, and the fragments can be a source for 2. In some metamorphic rocks, minerals get arranged in
the formation of sedimentary rocks. layers or lines by a process known as foliation.

20 Physical Geography
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? Ans: (a)
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Option (a) is correct: A tillite is a sedimentary rock
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 formed out of deposits or lithification of glacial till/
glaciers. Gondwana-type tillite sediments are also found
Ans: (c)
in Africa, Falkland Island, Madagascar, Antarctica, and
Statement 1 is correct: The word metamorphic means Australia. These sediments clearly demonstrate that
‘change of form’. These rocks form under the action these landmasses had remarkably similar histories.
of pressure, volume and temperature (PVT) changes. The glacial tillite provides unambiguous evidence of
Metamorphism occurs when rocks are forced down to
palaeoclimates and also of the drifting of continents.
lower levels by tectonic processes or when molten magma
rising through the crust comes in contact with the crustal Option (b) is incorrect: The submarine trenches are long,
rocks or the underlying rocks are subjected to great narrow, and steep depressions on the abyssal plain. The
amounts of pressure by overlying rocks. Metamorphism deeper trenches (> 5500 metres) are called deeps.
is a process by which already consolidated rocks undergo Option (c) is incorrect: Canyons are deep concave gorges
recrystallisation and reorganization of materials within on the continental shelf, slope or rise.
original rocks. Option (d) is incorrect: Abyssal plains, or deep sea plains,
Statement 2 is correct: In some metamorphism activities, are undulating plains 2-3 miles below sea level that cover
rocks undergo recrystallisation due to deformation caused 2/3rd of the ocean floor. Lying generally between the
by tectonic shearing together with high temperature foot of a continental rise and a mid-ocean ridge, abyssal
or pressure or both. In the process of metamorphism plains cover more than 50% of the Earth’s surface.
in some rocks grains or minerals get arranged in layers 40. Consider the following statements regarding ‘salt
or lines. Such an arrangement of minerals or grains in weathering’:
metamorphic rocks is called foliation or lineation.
1. It is a geological process that involves the breakdown
38. Consider the following pairs: of rocks and minerals due to the crystallisation of salts
Rocks Sedimentary Type within their pores and fissures.
2. It primarily occurs in coastal regions, where the
1. Sandstone Mechanically formed
ocean spray deposits salt on rocks, leading to the
2. Geyserite Organically formed formation of salt crystals that exert pressure and
3. Halite Chemically Formed cause mechanical weathering.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) All three pairs (d) None of the pairs (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c) Ans: (a)
Sedimentary rocks are formed by the process of Statement 1 is correct: Salt weathering is a geological
lithification of the soil under the heat and pressure of process involving the breakdown of rocks and minerals
the upper layers of the soil. They can be mechanically due to the crystallization of salts within their pores
formed as well as organically formed. and fissures. This process can lead to the gradual
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Mechanically formed — disintegration of rocks over time.
Sandstone, Conglomerate, Limestone, Shale, Loess etc. Statement 2 is incorrect: Salt weathering primarily
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Organically formed— occurs in arid climates, where the evaporation of water
Geyserite, Chalk, Limestone, Coal etc. leaves behind concentrated salt deposits in rocks. As the
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Chemically formed — Chert, water evaporates, the salt crystals begin to form within
Limestone, Halite, Potash etc. They are normally related the rock’s pores and cracks. The expansion of these salt
to the igneous rocks. crystals exerts pressure on the rock, leading to its gradual
weathering and disintegration.
39. Which of the following statements most appropriately
describes the term ‘tillite’? 41. Consider the following statements:
(a) A consolidated or indurated sedimentary rock formed 1. Lineation is the process where materials of different
by lithification of glacial till. groups are arranged into alternating thin to thick
(b) They are long, narrow and steep depressions on the layers appearing in light and dark shades.
abyssal plain of the sea 2. Lithification is the process of formation of rocks
(c) They are deep concave gorges on the continental shelf through compaction of sediments.
and slope. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(d) They are undulating regions lying between the foot (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
of the continental rise and mid oceanic ridge. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Geomorphology 21
Ans: (b) 43. Consider the following forces:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Banding occurs when minerals 1. Convection current from the interior of the earth.
or materials of different groups are arranged into 2. The gravitational pull between the Moon and the Earth.
alternating thin to thick layers appearing in light and dark
shades. They are structures found in metamorphic rocks. 3. Compressional force between two plates.
While the rocks displaying banding are called banded 4. Rotational force by the earth.
rocks. Types of metamorphic rocks depend upon the How many of the forces given above are responsible for
original rocks that were subjected to metamorphism. the drifting of the continents as per the continental Drift
Statement 2 is correct: Rocks (igneous, sedimentary Theory of Alfred Wenger?
and metamorphic) of the earth’s surface are exposed to (a) Only one (b) Only two
denudational agents, and are broken up into various sizes (c) Only three (d) All four
of fragments. Such fragments are transported by different
exogenous agencies and deposited. These deposits Ans: (b)
through compaction turn into rocks. This process is called The Earth’s surface comprises 29% land and 71% water. Over
lithification. In many sedimentary rocks, the layers of time, these formations have shifted and evolved, leading us
deposits retain their characteristics even after lithification. to the significant theory of Continental Drift. Continental
Hence, we see a number of layers of varying thickness in drift theory was given by Alfred Wegener in 1912 to explain
sedimentary rocks like sandstone, shale etc. the present arrangement of continents and oceans.
42. Which one of the following best describes the term Wegener’s Proposition on Drifting Forces :
“Petrology” sometimes seen in the news? ‰ Pole-Fleeing Force: This force emanates from the
(a) The study of minerals and their physical characteristics. Earth’s rotation. As the Earth isn’t a perfect sphere and
(b) The process of rock formation through geological has an equatorial bulge, this force relates to the effects
processes. of this bulge which occurs due to Earth’s rotation.
‰ Tidal Force: Attributable to the gravitational pull
(c) The study of the internal arrangement of molecules
in minerals. exerted by the moon and the sun, this force is
responsible for the oceanic tides. Despite Wegener’s
(d) The study of rocks and their classification based on
theories, many scholars felt these forces were
mineral composition and formation
insufficient to drive continental drift over long periods.
Ans: (d) Hence, statement 2 and 4 are correct.
Option (a) is incorrect: “The study of minerals and
their physical characteristics” (Mineralogy) is related 44. Consider the following:
to petrology but not an accurate definition. While 1. Tillite deposits
mineralogy focuses on the study of minerals themselves, 2. Tidal force of the moon and sun
petrology is more concerned with the rocks that contain 3. Lemuria
these minerals and their formation.
4. Convection currents
Option (b) is incorrect: “The process of rock formation
through geological processes” describes how rocks How many of the above are correct with respect to evidence
are formed but doesn’t encompass the broader scope and forces mentioned in the continental drift theory?
of petrology, which also involves the study of rock (a) Only one (b) Only two
classification and mineral composition. (c) Only three (d) All four
Option (c) is incorrect: “The study of the internal Ans: (c)
arrangement of molecules in minerals” (Crystallography)
Point 1 is correct: Tillite is the sedimentary rock formed
is a specific area within mineralogy that deals with the
out of deposits of glaciers. The Gondawana system of
atomic and molecular structures of minerals. While it
sediments from India is known to have its counterparts
is related to petrology, it doesn’t encompass the entire
field of petrology, which includes the study of rocks as a in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.
whole and their broader geological context. Point 2 is correct: The second force that was suggested by
Option (d) is correct: Petrology is the branch of geology Wegener — the tidal force — is due to the attraction of the
that deals with the study of rocks, their origin, and their moon and the sun that develops tides in oceanic waters.
classification based on mineral composition and formation Point 3 is correct: The observations that Lemurs occur
processes. It involves examining the physical and chemical in India, Madagascar and Africa led some to consider
properties of rocks, identifying the minerals they contain, a contiguous landmass, ‘Lemuria’ linking these three
and understanding the geological processes that led to landmasses. Mesosaurus was a small reptile adapted to
their formation. Petrologists study various types of rocks, shallow brackish water.
such as igneous, sedimentary, and metamorphic rocks, to Point 4 is incorrect: The shorelines of Africa and South
gain insights into the Earth’s history, tectonic processes, America facing each other have a remarkable and
and the conditions prevailing during their formation. unmistakable match. This is known as Jig saw fitting of

22 Physical Geography
 the shorelines of the continents. Convection currents are Plate is drifting away from the Eurasian Plate and the
not mentioned in the Continental drift theory. African Plate. This process leads to the formation of
oceanic ridges and new ocean floors.
45. With respect to the Seafloor spreading, consider the
Statement 2 is incorrect: At convergent boundaries, it is
following statements:
the oceanic plate that subducts (or is pushed beneath)
1. Paleomagnetism is strong evidence to refute the the continental plate, not the other way around. The
theory of seafloor spreading. oceanic plate is denser than the continental plate,
2. Seafloor spreading occurs along the mid-oceanic ridges. which leads to its subduction. This process can lead to
3. Seafloor spreading is the movement of just continental the formation of volcanic arcs and mountain ranges. An
plates relative to one another. example is the subduction of the Nazca Plate beneath the
4. The constant eruption at the crest of oceanic ridges causes South American Plate, resulting in the Andes mountains.
the rupture of the oceanic crust, and the new lava wedges Statement 3 is correct: Transform boundaries are
into it, pushing the oceanic crust on either side. characterized by two plates sliding past one another
How many of the above statements are correct? horizontally. This lateral movement does not create new crust
(a) Only one (b) Only two or destroy existing crust. The friction between the sliding
(c) Only three (d) All four plates can lead to earthquakes. A well-known example of a
transform boundary is the San Andreas Fault in California.
Ans: (b)
Convergent plate boundary: subduction zone
Statement 1 is incorrect: Paleomagnetism is the study Trench
of magnetic fields preserved in rocks, sediment, or
Subducting plate Overriding plate
archaeological materials as a record of the earth’s magnetic
Crust
field. Thus, it is possible to identify the polarity of the Earth’s
magnetic field and magnetic field reversals by looking at Lithospheric mantle
rocks of various ages. Paleomagnetism is a compelling piece Subducting slab
of evidence for plate tectonics and seafloor spreading. Asthenosphere

Statement 2 is correct: Seafloor Spreading occurs along Divergent plate boundary

the mid-oceanic ridges. The newest, thinnest crust on
Spreading center
Earth is located near the centre of mid-ocean ridges. The
Plate 2
age, density, and thickness of the oceanic crust increase Plate 1
with distance from the mid-ocean ridge.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Seafloor spreading refers
specifically to the process where new oceanic crust is Asthenosphere
formed at mid-oceanic ridges and moves outward, causing
the ocean floor to expand. Seafloor spreading involves
oceanic plates moving apart, not continental plates. Transform plate boundary
Statement 4 is correct: The constant eruptions at the crest
Plate 2
of oceanic ridges cause the rupture of the oceanic crust,
Plate 1
and the new lava wedges into it, pushing the oceanic crust
on either side. The ocean floor thus spreads.
46. Consider the following statements regarding types of
Asthenosphere
plate boundary interactions:
1. A new crust is formed as plates drift apart at divergent Fig: Plate Boundaries
boundaries.
47. With reference to Plate boundaries, consider the
2. Convergent boundaries between oceanic and continental
following pairs:
plates result in subduction of the continental plate.
3. Transform boundaries involve the horizontal sliding of Type of Plate
Associate impact
plates, where the crust is neither created nor destroyed. boundaries
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1. Divergent Boundaries Destruction of new crust
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only 2. Convergent Formation of new crust
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Boundaries
Ans: (a)
3. Transform Boundaries Crust is neither Produced
Statement 1 is correct: Divergent boundaries occur nor Destroyed
where tectonic plates move away from each other. As
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
the plates separate, magma from the mantle rises to fill
the gap, solidifying to create a new crust. An example of (a) Only one (b) Only two
this is the Mid-Atlantic Ridge, where the North American (c) All three (d) None

Geomorphology 23
Ans: (a) (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
Pair 1 is incorrect: Divergent Boundaries are regions (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
where new crust is generated as the plates pull away Ans: (b)
from each other. The sites where the plates move away
Statement- I is correct: Two oceanic plates may converge
from each other are called spreading sites.
at the destructive plate boundary where one oceanic
Pair 2 is incorrect: Convergent Boundaries are regions plate, which is heavier and denser compared to other
where the crust is destroyed as one plate dives under oceanic plates, subducts in the trench beneath the
another. The location where the sinking of a plate occurs lighter low density plate. The resultant compression
is called a subduction zone leads to the formation of island festoons and Island-arcs.
Pair 3 is correct: Transform Boundaries are regions where The best examples of this type are the Japanese Islands
the crust is neither produced nor destroyed as the plates and Philippines Island.
slide horizontally past each other. Statement- II is correct: When convergence and
48. With reference to the Earth’s plates, consider the collision takes place between the continental plates
following statements: and the plate having denser materials is subducted
under the continental plate having relatively lighter
1. Oceanic plates are less buoyant than continental
materials. This brings about huge lateral compression
plates.
in the sediment deposited in the geosyncline situated
2. Nazca Plate is purely an oceanic plate. between two converging continental plates as well as
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? the sediment laying on the margins of the continents.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only This compressional force squeezes the fold due to which
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 the folded mountains are formed. The Alpine -Himalayan
mountain system provides the best example in the
Ans: (c) formation of mountains by continent-continent collision.
Statement 1 is correct: Both oceanic and continental Hence, both statements are correct but statement II is
plates are primarily composed of silicate minerals. The not the correct explanation for statement I.
key difference lies in the types of silicates they contain:
oceanic plates are primarily composed of basalt, which 50. Consider the following pairs of Tectonic plates and their
is denser, while continental plates consist mainly of locations:
granite, which is less dense. Thus, The lower buoyancy of Tectonic Plates Located between
oceanic plates compared to continental plates is due to
the higher density of basalt than that of granite. 1. Coco plate : Philippines and New Guinea
Statement 2 is correct: The Nazca Plate is a largest of 2. Nazca plate : North America and Pacific Plate
all minor plates composed of oceanic crust underneath 3. Caroline plate : South America and Pacific Plate
the Pacific Ocean adjacent to the western coast of South Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
America. It is bounded by the Cocos, Pacific, Antarctic, (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
and South American tectonic plates. The new crust in the
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) None
Nazca Plate forms at spreading centres along its eastern
and northern boundaries. It subducts beneath the South Ans: (d)
American Plate. This movement has resulted in the The theory of plate tectonics proposes that the earth’s
formation of the Andes Mountains and has generated lithosphere is divided into seven major and some minor
some of the world’s most powerful earthquakes. plates:
Major tectonic plates
49. Consider the following statements:
‰ Antarctica and the surrounding oceanic plate
Statement-I: Convergence of two oceanic plates at a
convergent zone leads to the formation of island arcs. ‰ North American plate
Statement-II: Convergence of two continental plates ‰ South American plate
at a convergent zone leads to the formation of Folded ‰ Pacific plate
Mountains. ‰ India-Australia-New Zealand plate
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the ‰ Africa with the eastern Atlantic floor plate
above statements? ‰ Eurasia and the adjacent oceanic plate
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Minor tectonic plates
Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I ‰ Cocos Plate: Between Central America and the
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct Pacific Plate; Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched.
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for ‰ Nazca Plate: Between South America and the Pacific
Statement-I Plate; Hence, pair 2 is incorrectly matched.

24 Physical Geography
 ‰ Arabian plate: Mostly the Saudi Arabian landmass EURASIAN
‰ Philippine plate: Between the Asiatic and Pacific PLATE
plate
‰ Caroline Plate: Between the Philippine and Indian INDIA
plates (North of New Guinea). Hence, pair 3 is TODAY
incorrectly matched.
10 milion
‰ Fuji Plate: North-east of Australia. year ago
‰ Aegean plate (Mediterranean region)
‰ Caribbean plate: lies to the north of South America 38 milion
and south of the islands of Cuba and Jamaica year ago
‰ Juan de Fuca plate (between Pacific and North Equator
American plates)
‰ Iranian plate
51. Consider the following statements regarding the 55 milion
movement of the Indian Plate: year ago
1. The Indian Plate collided with the Asian continent INDIAN
about 40-50 million years ago. OCEAN

2. The Tethys Sea separated India from the Asian

continent until about 225 million years ago when 71 million
India started its northward journey after the breakup years ago
EARLY
of Pangaea. INDIA
3. The Deccan Traps formed from lava outpouring during
the Indian Plate’s movement toward the Eurasian
Plate.
4. The spreading site along the eastern margin of the 52. Consider the following statements regarding Mid-
Indian Plate lies to the west of Australia. Oceanic Ridges:
How many of the statements given above are correct? 1. It is the longest mountain chain on the surface of the
(a) Only one (b) Only two earth, submerged under oceanic waters.
(c) Only three (d) All four 2. Rocks closer to the mid-oceanic ridges have normal
polarity and are the oldest.
Ans: (c) 3. It is a zone of intense volcanic activity.
Statement 1 is correct: The collision between the Indian How many of the statements given above are correct?
Plate and the Asian continent occurred about 40-50 (a) Only one (b) Only two
million years ago, resulting in the rapid uplift of the (c) All three (d) None
Himalayas. This collision is a significant geological event
Ans: (b)
shaping the present landscape of the region.
Mid-oceanic ridges are underwater mountain ranges
Statement 2 is correct: Until about 225 million years that are formed as a result of tectonic plate movements.
ago, India was separated from the Asian continent by the They play a crucial role in plate tectonics and the process
Tethys Sea. The movement of the Indian Plate towards of seafloor spreading.
the north began after the breakup of Pangaea, altering Statement 1 is correct: Mid-oceanic ridges form an
the geological configuration of the region. interconnected chain of mountain systems within the
Statement 3 is correct: During the movement of the ocean. It is the longest mountain chain on the surface of
Indian plate towards the Eurasian plate, a major event the earth, submerged under oceanic waters.
that occurred was the outpouring of lava and the Statement 2 is incorrect: The rocks equidistant on either
formation of the Deccan Traps. This started somewhere side of the crest of mid-oceanic ridges show remarkable
around 60 million years ago and continued for a long similarities in terms of the period of formation, chemical
compositions, and magnetic properties. Rocks closer to
period of time.
the mid-oceanic ridges have normal polarity and are the
Statement 4 is incorrect: The spreading site along the youngest. (Rocks farther from mid-oceanic ridges are older.)
eastern margin of the Indian Plate lies to the east of Statement 3 is correct: Mid-Oceanic Ridges are
Australia, not the west. It takes the form of an oceanic associated with volcanic activity, as magma rises and
ridge in the Southwest Pacific, contributing to the cools, forming a new basaltic crust. The rift system at the
complex geological dynamics in the region. crest is a zone of intense volcanic activity.

Geomorphology 25
 53. Consider the following statements regarding the Reverse Fault:
tectonic evolution of India: ‰ A dip-slip fault in which the upper block, above the
1. The Himalayas continue to rise due to the ongoing fault plane, moves up and over the lower block.
northward movement of the Indian tectonic plate. ‰ This type of faulting is common in areas of
2. The formation of the Deccan Traps occurred as a result compression. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.)
of the collision between the Indian and Asiatic plates. ‰ When the dip angle is shallow, a reverse fault is often
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? described as a thrust fault.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only ‰ Occurs where the “hanging wall” moves up or is
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 thrust over the “footwall”.
Ans: (b) Strike-slip fault:
India was originally a part of the supercontinent ‰ Strike slip fault is common in the regions where the
Gondwana, which included present-day Africa, South two blocks slide past one another. (Hence, statement
America, Australia, and Antarctica. However, India was 3 is correct.)
specifically positioned off the coast of Australia, before ‰ The San Andreas Fault is an example of a right lateral
it broke off and drifted northward. It was separated from fault.
the Asian continent by the Tethys Sea. Left-lateral strike-slip fault:
Statement 1 is correct: The Indian plate continues to
‰ If you were to stand on the fault and look along its
move northward and pushes against the Eurasian plate,
length, this is a type of strike-slip fault where the left
resulting in the uplift of the Himalayas. This process is
block moves toward you and the right block moves away.
ongoing, which is why the height of the Himalayas is still
Right-lateral strike-slip fault:
increasing. This movement also causes frequent seismic
activity (earthquakes) in the region. ‰ If you were to stand on the fault and look along its
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Deccan Traps were formed length, this is a type of strike-slip fault where the right
due to massive volcanic eruptions and lava outpouring block moves toward you and the left block moves away.
that occurred around 65 million years ago, before the 55. With reference to earthquake waves, consider the
Indian plate collided with the Eurasian plate. This event following statements:
is not linked to the collision but occurred during the 1. The hypocenter is the point on the surface that lies
northward movement of the Indian plate towards Asia. directly above the focus.
54. With reference to ‘faults’, consider the following 2. The epicentre is the point deep inside the earth where
statements: the energy of an earthquake is released.
1. A normal fault occurs in response to compression. 3. P-waves travel faster than S-waves.
2. Reverse fault generally occurs in the regions of Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
extension. (a) 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
3. A strike-slip fault occurs when two blocks slide past (c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only.
one another.
How many of the statements given above are incorrect? Ans: (a)
Statement 1 is incorrect: The point where the energy
(a) Only one (b) Only two
is released is called the focus of an earthquake;
(c) Only three (d) None alternatively, it is called the hypocentre.
Ans: (b) Statement 2 is incorrect: The point on the surface
About Faults: nearest to the focus of energy is called the epicentre. It is
‰ A surface along which a rock body has broken and been the first one to experience the waves. It is a point directly
displaced is known as a fault. Based on the elasticity above the focus.
of the rocks and the force, fractures are seen.
‰ Fault plane: The plane along which the rocks are
displaced by tensional and compressional forces Fault plane
acting vertically and horizontally is known as a fault
epicenter
plane. The fault plane may be vertical, horizontal,
inclined, curved, or any other form.
Normal Fault:
‰ A dip-slip fault in which the block above the fault has
moved downward relative to the block below.
‰ This type of faulting occurs in response to extension.
( Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.) hypocenter
‰ Occurs when the “hanging wall” moves down relative
to the “footwall”. Fig: Epicentre and Hypocenter

26 Physical Geography
 Statement 3 is correct: P waves move faster and are during an earthquake because they travel along the
the first to arrive at the surface. These are also called Earth’s surface, where structures are located.
‘primary waves’ while S-waves arrive at the surface with ‰ Love waves are a major type of surface wave having
some time lag. These are called secondary waves. a horizontal motion that is shear or transverse to the
56. Consider the following statement: direction of propagation.
‰ Rayleigh waves roll along the ground like ocean
1. S-waves arrive at the surface with some time lag and
waves, moving the ground up, down, and side-to-
they can travel only through solid materials.
side in the wave’s direction. They cause most of the
2. P-waves are longitudinal in nature, while S-waves are
shaking and damage during an earthquake.
transverse in nature.
Which of the following is/are correct regarding 58. Consider the following statements about the Earthquake
‘earthquake waves’? Waves:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. Body and Surface waves both form shadow zones.
2. The shadow zone of the S-wave is smaller than that
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
of the P-wave.
Ans: (c) 3. The shadow zones of P-wave and S-wave overlap with
Statement 1 is correct: There are two types of body one another.
waves. They are called P and S-waves. S-waves arrive How many of the above statements are correct?
at the surface with some time lag. These are called (a) Only one (b) Only two
secondary waves. The S wave is slower than the P wave,
(c) All three (d) None
and it can travel only through solid materials.
Statement 2 is correct: When waves move or propagate, Ans: (a)
they cause vibration in the bodies of the rocks through Statement 1 is incorrect: Only body waves (P and S
which they pass. P-waves vibrate parallel to the direction waves) from the shadow zone on the earth’s surface.
of the wave (to and fro) or longitudinal in nature, while Surface waves do not form a shadow zone.
S-waves are transverse in nature. Longitudinal waves or P Statement 2 is incorrect: The shadow zone of the S-wave
waves exert pressure on the material in the propagation is much larger than that of the P-waves. The shadow zone
direction. As a result, it causes density inequalities in of P-waves appears as a band around the earth between
the material, causing stretching and squeezing. While S 105° and 145° away from the epicentre. The shadow
waves or Transverse waves or shear waves mean that the zone of S-waves is not only larger in extent but it is also a
direction of vibrations of the particles in the medium is little over 40 percent of the earth’s surface.
perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave. Statement 3 is correct: There are two types of body
Hence, they create troughs and crests in the material waves - S and P. The shadow zone of S waves is larger and
through which they pass (they distort the medium). covers around 40 % of the earth’s surface. The shadow
zone of P waves is smaller (105 - 145 degrees). These
57. Consider the following statements regarding seismic waves: shadow zones overlap with each other between 105 and
1. Primary waves (P-waves) can travel through both solid 145 degrees.
and liquid layers of the Earth. P-wave shadow zone S-wave shadow zone
2. The motion of secondary waves (S-waves) is transverse
in nature.
3. Love waves travel faster than both P and S waves.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of the above
Ans: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: P-waves (Primary waves) are the
Fig: P-wave and S-wave shadow zone
fastest seismic waves and can travel through both solid and
liquid layers of the Earth, such as the crust, mantle, and 59. Consider the following statements about earthquakes:
outer core. These waves are compressional, meaning they 1. Earthquakes occur primarily due to the sudden release
move particles in the direction of the wave propagation. of stress along fault lines in the Earth’s crust.
Statement 2 is correct: S-waves (Secondary waves) are 2. The intensity of an earthquake is measured by the
slower than P-waves and have a transverse motion, Richter Scale.
meaning they move perpendicular to the direction of 3. Earthquake-prone areas are predominantly located
wave propagation. S-waves can only travel through solid along tectonic plate boundaries.
materials, not liquids.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 3 is incorrect: Surface waves (such as Love
waves and Rayleigh waves) are slower than both P-waves (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
and S-waves, but they tend to cause the most destruction (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3

Geomorphology 27
Ans: (b) Mercalli Intensity, or MMI, Scale. It measures the strength
Statement 1 is correct: An earthquake is any sudden of an earthquake’s shaking at specific locations around its
shaking of the ground caused by the passage of seismic epicenter – the spot on Earth’s surface directly above a
waves through the Earth’s rocks. Seismic waves are quake’s underground origin.
produced when some form of energy stored in Earth’s Statement 3 is correct: The major fault lines of the world
crust is suddenly released, usually when masses of rock are located at the fringes of the huge tectonic plates
straining against one another suddenly fracture and “slip”. that make up Earth’s crust. All known faults are assumed
Earthquakes occur most often along geologic faults, narrow to have been the seat of one or more earthquakes in
zones where rock masses move in relation to one another. the past, though tectonic movements along faults are
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Richter scale is a logarithmic often slow, and most geologically ancient faults are
scale that measures the magnitude of an earthquake. It now aseismic. The actual faulting associated with an
provides an objective measure of the energy an earthquake earthquake may be complex, and it is often not clear
releases by quantifying the seismic waves produced. The whether in a particular earthquake the total energy
intensity of an earthquake is measured using the Modified issues from a single fault plane.

Fig: Earthquake map of world

60. Consider the following statements with respect to Ans: (b)
earthquakes: Statement 1 is incorrect: Most of the earthquakes
1. All the earthquakes in the world are caused due to are caused by the movement of the earth’s plates.
the movement of the earth’s plates. However, not all earthquakes are directly caused by
2. In India, the areas most vulnerable to earthquakes the movement of the tectonic plates. They can also be
include the Western and Central Himalayas, the Rann caused when a volcano erupts, a meteor hits the earth,
of Kutch, Rajasthan, and the Indo–Gangetic Plains. or an underground nuclear explosion is carried out.
Which of the statements given above are correct? E.g.- Human-induced earthquakes due to intense mining
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only activity, which causes collapse earthquakes, reservoir-
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 induced earthquakes, etc.

28 Physical Geography
 Statement 2 is correct: The boundaries of the earth’s plates Statement 2 is correct: The intensity scale is named after
are the weak zones where earthquakes are more likely to Mercalli, an Italian seismologist. The intensity scale takes
occur. These weak zones are also known as seismic or fault into account the visible damage caused by the event. The
zones. In India, the most vulnerable zones are Kashmir, the range of intensity scale is from 1 - 12.
Western and Central Himalayas, the Northeast, Rann of
Kutch, Rajasthan, and the Indo–Gangetic Plains. 63. Consider the following statements regarding tectonic
earthquakes:
61. Consider the following statements: 1. An earthquake cannot be identified as a foreshock
1. Richter scale is a linear scale which measures the until after a larger earthquake in the same area occurs.
magnitude of an earthquake expressed in numbers 1-10.
2. Foreshocks represent minor readjustments along the
2. Seismographs can record only surface waves and not
portion of a fault that slipped at the time of the mainshock.
body waves.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 3. Shallow earthquakes are much less likely to be
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only followed by aftershocks than Deep earthquakes.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Ans: (d) (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: The earthquake events are (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
scaled either according to the magnitude or intensity of Ans: (a)
the shock. The magnitude scale is known as the Richter Earthquakes are generally classified into 3 types
scale. The magnitude relates to the energy released
during the quake. The magnitude is expressed in numbers, ‰ The most common ones are tectonic earthquakes.
0-10. The Richter Scale is open-ended and logarithmic, These are generated due to the sliding of rocks along
i.e. each whole number on the scale represents a 10-fold a fault plane.
increase in the measured wave amplitude. Translated ‰ A special class of tectonic earthquakes is sometimes
into energy, each whole number demonstrates a 31.5- recognised as volcanic earthquakes. However, these
fold increase in the amount of energy released. are confined to areas with active volcanoes.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Seismic waves emanate as a ‰ The earthquakes that occur in areas with large reservoirs
result of sudden faulting move out from the focus. They are referred to as reservoir-induced earthquakes.
are recorded by an instrument called a Seismograph. Statement 1 is correct: Foreshocks and aftershocks
Seismographs record all three types of seismic waves are terms often associated with tectonic earthquakes.
and are extremely helpful in delineating the location of Foreshocks are earthquakes that precede larger
the epicentre and focus of an earthquake. The velocity earthquakes in the same location. An earthquake
relationship between the three types of seismic waves is
cannot be identified as a foreshock until after a larger
used to calculate the distance of an epicentre from the
earthquake in the same area occurs, or a foreshock is a
seismic observatory where a seismograph is housed.
smaller earthquake before a larger earthquake.
62. Consider the following statements: Statement 2 is incorrect: Smaller earthquakes, known as
1. The magnitude of the Earthquake is measured by “aftershocks”, are those that happen in the same general
means of the Mercalli scale. area days to years after a larger occurrence, known as a
2. The range of intensity scale is from 1-12. “mainshock”. They occur within 1-2 fault lengths away and
Which of the statements given above are correct? during the period of time before the background seismicity
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only level has resumed. As a general rule, aftershocks represent
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 minor readjustments along the portion of a fault that
slipped at the time of the mainshock.
Ans: (b)
Earthquake magnitude is a measure of the “size,” Statement 3 is incorrect: The frequency of the aftershocks
or amplitude, of the seismic waves generated by an decreases with time. Historically, deep earthquakes
earthquake source and recorded by seismographs. (>30 km) are much less likely to be followed by aftershocks
The Modified Mercalli scale is designed to describe the than shallow earthquakes.
effects of an earthquake, at a given place, on natural 64. With reference to earthquakes, consider the following
features, on industrial installations and on human statements:
beings. The intensity differs from the magnitude which is 1. Shadow zones are specific areas where seismic waves
related to the energy released by an earthquake. There are not reported.
are multiple versions of the MM scale. 2. The shadow zone of the P-wave is much larger than
Statement 1 is incorrect: The earthquake events are that of the S-wave.
scaled either according to the magnitude or intensity of
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
the shock. The magnitude scale is known as the Richter
scale. The magnitude relates to the energy released during (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
the quake. The magnitude is expressed in numbers, 0-10. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Geomorphology 29
Ans: (a) Pair 2 is incorrect: The highest point of a wave is called the
Statement 1 is correct: While recording earthquake waves crest, and the lowest point of a wave is known as the Trough.
in seismographs (located at far-off locations), there exist Pair 3 is incorrect: The wavelength is the horizontal
some specific areas where waves are not detected, known distance between two successive crests.
as ‘shadow zones’. When earthquakes generate seismic Wave amplitude is one-half of the wave height (not wave
waves, seismographs located at various distances record frequency). The Wave speed is the rate at which the
their arrival times. For both P-waves (primary waves) and wave moves through the water, and is measured in knots
S-waves (secondary waves), a significant shadow zone exists (not wave length).
between 105° and 145° from the earthquake’s epicenter. Crest
Amplitude Wavelength
Within 105° from the epicenter, both P and S-waves are
detected, but beyond 145° only P-waves are recorded,
indicating that S-waves do not reach this distant zone due to
their inability to propagate through the Earth’s liquid outer
core. The entire zone beyond 105° does not receive S-waves
thus the shadow zone for S-waves is notably larger than that Trough
for P-waves (Statement 2 is incorrect), covering more than 66. Consider the following:
40 percent of the Earth’s surface. This phenomenon allows 1. Faulting of the seafloor 2. Landslide
scientists to map out the shadow zones for any earthquake 3. Volcanic eruption 4. Large meteoroid impact
by pinpointing its epicenter location, demonstrating the How many of the above can cause a Tsunami?
variability and extent of wave propagation across different
seismic events. (a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Only three (d) All four
65. With reference to waves, consider the following pairs:
Ans: (d)
Terms Description
Tsunamis are giant waves caused by earthquakes or
1. Wave frequency It is one-half of the wave height. volcanic eruptions under the sea. Out in the depths of
2. Wave Crest The lowest point of a wave. the ocean, tsunami waves do not dramatically increase
in height. But as the waves travel inland, they build up
3. Wave length The rate at which the wave moves
to higher and higher heights as the depth of the ocean
through the water.
decreases. These waves which often affect distant shores
How many of the above pairs are not correctly matched? are caused by:
(a) Only one (b) Only two ‰ Rapid displacement of water from the lake or the sea
(c) All three (d) None either by seismic activity or Fault movements on the
Ans: (c) sea floor. Hence, point 1 is correct.
Pair 1 is incorrect: The Wave frequency is the number of ‰ Hence, point 2 is correct.
waves passing a given point during a unit time interval. It ‰ Volcanic eruptions. Hence, point 3 is correct.
is usually expressed in waves per second. ‰ Large meteoroid impacts. Hence, point 4 is correct.
4. Approach
As the tsunami waves approach the coastline 5. Impact
of a landmass they are slowed dramatically Finally, with the wavelength compressed and heightened
How a by the friction of their collision with the rising
seabed. As the velocity lessens, however, the
to large levels (often between five and ten metres, the
giant waves collide with the shore causing massive
tsunami wavelengths become shortened and amplitude
increases.
damage. The succeeding outflow of water then continues
the destruction, uprooting trees and washing away

forms people and property.

1. Tectonic
Tectonic upthrust in the
form of earthquakes and 2. Build
ocean floor volcanoes The energy from the quake or 3. Travel
cause vast quantities of impulse causes a train of simple, The wavelengths of the tsunami continue to grow,
water to be displaced in a progressive oscillatory waves to with the waves’ periods |the lengths of time for
very short space of time, propagate over the ocean surface successive crests or troughs to pass a single point)
generating a massive in ever-widening circles at speeds varying from five minutes to more than an hour.
amount of energy. as fast as 500mph.

30 Physical Geography
 67. The Earthquake Early Warning (EEW) System in India is Structure of a Composite Volcano
based on which of the following waves? Ash cloud Crater
(a) P-wave (b) S-wave Layers of ash Vent
Parasitic cone
(c) Love wave (d) Rayleigh wave Lava Flow
Alternating layers of lava
Ans: (a) Sill and pyroclastic material
Laccolith
Earthquake Early Warning (EEW) System was developed
in India for the issue of earthquake alert/warning
based on P-wave arrival time after the occurrence of
an earthquake. The warning time will range from a
few seconds to a little more than a minute and will Magma chamber
primarily be a function of the distance of the user from
the epicenter. There are instruments available to sense Statement 3 is correct: Calderas are the most explosive
the primary waves of an earthquake and with the help of the earth’s volcanoes. They are usually so explosive
of suitable/fast communication systems in place, the that when they erupt they tend to collapse on themselves
Earthquake Early Warning may be issued at farther rather than building any tall structure. The collapsed
depressions are called calderas. Their explosiveness
locations before the arrival of secondary waves/surface
indicates that the magma chamber supplying the lava is
waves which might cause critical shaking or damage.
not only huge but is also in close vicinity.
The development and deployment of such systems may
be useful for the issue of warning for shutting critical 69. With reference to the types of volcanoes, consider the
operations/industries and safeguarding human lives. following pairs:

68. Consider the following statements with reference to the Volcanoes Features
different types of volcanoes and landforms associated 1. C
 omposite Pyroclastic material accumulates
with them: Volcanoes near the vent opening
1. Shield volcanoes are primarily formed from highly 2. M
 id-Oceanic Basaltic lava is a major
viscous basaltic lava and have steep slopes. Ridge Volcanoes component of these volcanoes
2. Composite volcanoes are made of layers of andesitic 3. S hield Hawaiian volcanoes are
lava and pyroclastic materials. Volcanoes examples of Shield Volcanoes
3. Caldera lakes form when a volcanic cone collapses
4. D
 ormant
into an emptied magma chamber. Not erupted in a very long time
Volcanoes
Which of the statements given above are correct?
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Only three (d) All four
Ans: (b) Ans: (d)
Volcano is a place where gasses, ashes, and/or molten Pair 1 is correctly matched: Composite Volcanoes are
rock material – lava – escape to the ground. They are characterised by the eruption of cooler and viscous lavas,
classified on the basis of the nature of the eruption and often resulting in explosions. These explosive eruptions
the form developed at the surface. lead to the accumulation of large quantities of pyroclastic
Statement 1 is incorrect: Barring the basalt flows, the shield material and ashes near the vent openings. These
volcanoes are the largest of all the volcanoes on the Earth. continuous deposits of pyroclastic materials lead to the
formation of layers, giving the volcanoes a mountain shape.
The Hawaiian volcanoes are the most famous examples.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Mid-Oceanic Ridge Volcanoes
These volcanoes are mostly made up of basalt, a type of
are a part of the Mid-Oceanic Ridge System and are formed
lava that is very fluid when erupted. For this reason, these in oceanic areas. The central portion of this ridge experiences
volcanoes are not steep. They become explosive if somehow frequent eruptions as a result of Seafloor Spreading. As
water gets into the vent; otherwise, they are characterized the plates separate, the molten rock rises to the seafloor,
by low explosivity. The upcoming lava moves in the form of producing enormous volcanic eruptions of basalt.
a fountain and throws out the cone at the top of the vent Pair 3 is correctly matched: Shield volcanoes are mostly
and develops into a cinder cone. made up of basalt, a type of lava that has a lower viscosity
Statement 2 is correct: Composite volcanoes are and it is because of this reason that these volcanoes are not
characterized by eruptions of cooler and more viscous steep. They become explosive if water somehow gets into
lavas than basalt. These volcanoes often result in explosive the vent; otherwise, they are characterised by low explosivity.
The upwelling lava moves in the form of a fountain, throws
eruptions. Along with lava, large quantities of pyroclastic
out the cone at the top of the vent, and develops into a Shield
material and ashes find their way to the ground.
Cone. Ex- Hawaiian volcano is an example of a shield volcano.

Geomorphology 31
 Pair 4 is correctly matched: Dormant Volcanoes are those ‰ These mantle plumes are almost like lava lamps
that have not erupted in a very long time. Dormancy consisting of a rising bulging head fed by a long,
occurs because magma from the Earth’s mantle can no narrow tail that originates from the mantle.
longer reach the volcano due to the continuous shifting ‰ As the plume head reaches the lithosphere, it
of the tectonic plates. spreads into a mushroom shape. These features
70. With reference to hotspot volcanism, consider the are called diapirs.
following statements: ‰ Melting take place when the head of a plume
1. This type of volcanism occurs at the margins of the encounters the base of the lithosphere resulting in
lithospheric plates. formation of large volumes of basalt magma.
2. Hotspot refers to the areas in the mantle where ‰ The magma finds its way to the earth surface when
plumes rise upwards. an explosion takes place.
3. Hotspot volcanism leads to formation of chain of
volcanoes. 71. Consider the following statements with respect to
How many of the statements given above are incorrect? Hotspot Volcanism:
(a) Only one (b) Only two 1. They occur near divergent plate boundaries.
(c) All three (d) None 2. Reunion Island in the Indian Ocean is an example of
Ans: (a) a hotspot.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Hotspot Volcanism is somewhat Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
different from the other types because this type of (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
volcanism occurs not at the margins but at the interior (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
parts of the lithospheric plates. Well known examples
Ans: (b)
include Hawaiian Hotspot Volcanism, Yellowstone
Hotspot Volcanism and Reunion Hotspot Volcanism. Statement 1 is incorrect: Hot spot volcanism is unique
because it does not occur at the boundaries of Earth’s
Statement 2 is correct: “Hotspot” refers to an area in the tectonic plates, where all other volcanism occurs. Hotspot
Earth’s mantle from where hot plumes rise upward through volcanism typically occurs away from plate boundaries, at
the process of convection and form volcanoes on the locations where plumes of hot mantle material rise towards
overlying crust. This heat facilitates the melting of rock at the the surface. Hot spot volcanoes occur at abnormally hot
base of the lithosphere. The melted rock, known as magma, centres known as mantle plumes. Scientific models depict
often pushes through cracks in the crust to form volcanoes. these plumes of molten rock almost like a lava lamp, with a
Hot-spots are relatively fixed in comparison to the plates. rising bulbous head fed by a long, narrow tail that originates
Statement 3 is correct: Due to the tectonic plate in the mantle. As the plume head reaches the lithosphere, it
movement over the stationary hot spot, the volcanoes spreads into a mushroom shape. These features are called
are rafted away and new ones form in their place diapirs. A volcano above a hot spot does not erupt forever.
resulting in the formation of a chain of volcanoes, such Attached to the tectonic plate below, the volcano moves
as the Hawaiian Islands, Island in bering strait etc. and is eventually cut off from the hot spot. Without any
source of heat, the volcano becomes extinct and cools.
PW Only IAS Extra Edge
Statement 2 is correct: Major hot spots include the
‰ Hotspot volcanism occurs at abnormally hot
Iceland hotspot; the Réunion hot spot and the Afar
centres known as the mantle plume.
hotspot, located under northeastern Ethiopia. Volcanic
‰ Mantle plumes are the exceptionally hot areas activity at hotspots can create submarine mountains
fixed deep below the Earth’s crust. known as seamounts.

32 Physical Geography
 72. Consider the following pairs related to types of lava and a lower viscosity, meaning it is more fluid and flows more
their characteristics: easily. This characteristic allows it to spread over large
Type of Lava Characteristics areas. Due to the higher silica content, acidic lava has a
higher viscosity, meaning it is thicker and flows less easily.
1. Basaltic Lava It has low viscosity and forms shield
This makes it more likely to form steep-sided volcanoes.
volcanoes
Statement 3 is correct: The Volcanic Explosive Index
2. Andesitic Lava It has intermediate viscosity and is (VEI) is a logarithmic scale, ranging from 0 to 8, used to
associated with explosive eruptions measure the explosiveness of volcanic eruptions. It was
3. Rhyolithic Lava It has a high viscosity and forms devised by Chris Newhall of the United States Geological
volcanic domes Survey and Stephen Self at the University of Hawaii
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? in 1982. The VEI is a relative scale that measures the
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only explosiveness of volcanic eruptions based on factors such
as eruption cloud height, volume of ejected material,
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
and other qualitative observations.
Ans: (d)
Pair 1 is correct: Basaltic lava is known for its low PW Only IAS Extra Edge
viscosity, which allows it to flow easily and rapidly. This About Volcanism at Mid-Ocean Ridges:
type of lava is typically associated with shield volcanoes, ‰ Nature of Eruptions: Volcanic eruptions at mid-
which have gentle slopes due to the extensive flow of ocean ridges are generally less violent and more
low-viscosity lava. An example is the Hawaiian Islands, continuous compared to those at subduction
where such volcanoes are prominent. zones. The eruptions are primarily characterized by
Pair 2 is correct: Andesitic lava has an intermediate effusive activity, where magma steadily flows out to
viscosity, making it thicker than basaltic lava but less form new oceanic crust.
viscous than rhyolitic lava. It is often associated with
‰ Lava Type: The lava produced is predominantly
explosive eruptions, resulting from the higher gas
content and more viscous nature. These eruptions basaltic, which is low in silica. This low-silica
are characteristic of stratovolcanoes (or composite content results in lower viscosity, allowing the lava
volcanoes), which are steep-sided and found in volcanic to flow more easily and cover large areas.
arcs, such as the Andes mountain range. ‰ Eruption Style: Due to the low viscosity of basaltic
Pair 3 is correct: Rhyolitic lava is characterized by high lava, the eruptions at mid-ocean ridges are
viscosity, which means it flows slowly and does not travel typically not explosive. The magma reaches the
far from the source. This type of lava is often associated surface through fissures, creating new seafloor as
with volcanic domes, formed when thick lava piles up it cools and solidifies.
near the vent, creating steep-sided structures. A notable ‰ Tectonic Setting: Mid-ocean ridges are divergent
example is the lava dome formed at Mount St. Helens plate boundaries, where tectonic plates are moving
after its eruption in 1980. apart. As the plates separate, magma rises from the
73. With regarding Volcanism and associated phenomenon mantle to fill the gap, resulting in continuous volcanic
consider the following statements: activity and the formation of new oceanic crust.
1. Mid-oceanic ridges are the region of non-continuous but 74. Consider the following statements:
intensive and violent volcanic eruptions on the earth. 1. It is rich in silica and has high viscosity.
2. Basic lava has poor silica content whereas acidic lava 2. It is slow-moving and forms a gently sloping flattened
is rich in silica. shield.
3. The strength of a volcano is measured by the volcanic 3. Pyroclast is a feature of this type of lava volcanic
explosive Index. eruption.
How many of the statements given above are correct? Which of the statements given above are correct with
(a) Only one (b) Only two respect to acidic lava?
(c) All three (d) None (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
Ans: (b) (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: Mid-ocean ridges are indeed Ans: (b)
sites of volcanic activity, but the eruptions are typically Lava is a magma (molten rock) emerging as a liquid onto
less violent compared to those at subduction zones. The Earth’s surface. The term lava is also used for the solidified
eruptions at mid-ocean ridges are usually more continuous rock formed by the cooling of a molten lava flow. They can
and produce basaltic lava that forms new oceanic crust. be classified as acidic and basic lava on the basis of their
Statement 2 is correct: Basic (or mafic) lava, such as basalt, content. Some features of the acidic lava are:
has lower silica content (around 45-55%), whereas acidic ‰ Acidic lavas are highly viscous with a high melting
(or felsic) lava, such as rhyolite, has higher silica content point. They are rich in silica, have a light color and
(above 65%). Due to the lower silica content, basic lava has low density. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

Geomorphology 33
 ‰ Due to their high viscosity, acidic lavas are slow How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
moving. As a result, the cones formed by them are (a) Only one (b) Only two
steep-sided. It is basic volcanic eruption in which (c) All three (d) None
the lava is highly fluid and forms flattened shields or
Ans: (b)
domes. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
‰ Another feature of acidic lavas is that they are
Pair 1 is correctly matched: A laccolith is a dome-shaped
igneous intrusion that forms when magma pushes
explosive in nature. Highly viscous lava sometimes
between layers of rock, creating a bulging, flat-bottomed
solidifies inside the vents and creates an obstruction
structure. This underground formation is typically
to out pouring lava resulting in loud explosions,
connected to a magma conduit and resembles surface
throwing out many volcanic bombs or pyroclasts.
volcanic domes but is found deeper underground.
Spine or plug is another feature which is formed due
to highly viscous lava. Hence, Statement 3 is correct. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: A lopolith is not a vertical
structure rather is a saucer-shaped igneous intrusion
Acid Lava Cone formed when magma spreads horizontally between rock
Layers of
lava layers. It accumulates in a concave, basin-like shape, not
in a vertical wall-like structure. Lopoliths are typically
Higher in Convex, large and found in tectonically weak zones.
height steep slope
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Phacoliths are wavy, lens-
shaped bodies of intrusive igneous rock located at the
base of synclines and the crest of anticlines. They form
Earth’s crust
from magma intrusions along folded rock structures and
are commonly connected to deeper magma chambers.
Narrow base

Fig: Acidic lava cone 77. Consider the following:

1. Lapilli 2. Volcanic dust
75. Consider the following statements: 3. Volcanic bombs 4. Volcanic ash
1. Andesitic lava is sticky in nature due to the high Which of the following is the correct ascending order of
concentration of silica. the size of the given pyroclastic materials?
2. Andesitic lava is also called Felsic lava due to the (a) 4, 1, 2, 3 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4
presence of Feldspar minerals.
(c) 2, 4, 1, 3 (d) 3, 1, 4, 2
3. Andesitic lava is found below the crust at a temperature
greater than 1000 degrees celsius. Ans: (c)
How many of the statements given above are correct? Pyroclastic materials thrown during the explosive type of
(a) Only one (b) Only two eruption are grouped into three categories,
(c) All three (d) None (i) Essential materials include consolidated forms of live
Ans: (b) lavas. These are also known as tephra, which means
Statement 1 is correct: More than 65% of the silica is ash. Essential materials are unconsolidated, and their
present in the andesitic lava which is a very high content. size is up to 2 mm.
Hence, this lava is sticky in nature. (ii) Accessory materials are formed of dead lavas,
Statement 2 is correct: In this lava, feldspar minerals are (iii) Accidental materials include fragmental materials of
present. Hence it is called Felsic rocks or lava. crustal rocks.
On the basis of size, pyroclastic materials are grouped into
Statement 3 is incorrect: Andesitic lava or Acidic lava forms
at 70 km below the crust at a temperature of 600-700 (i) volcanic dust (finest particles),
degrees Celsius subduction takes place and the magma (ii) volcanic ash (2 mm in size),
gets partially melted, causing viscous magma. Examples of (iii) lapilli (of the size of peas) and
this type of lava are Stromboli volcanoes in Italy, Krakatoa (iv) volcanic bombs (6 cm or more in size), which are of different
in Indonesia, Mount Vesuvius in Italy, and Mt Pelee. shapes viz. ellipsoidal, discoidal, cuboidal, and irregularly
rounded. The dimension of average volcanic bombs
76. With reference to landforms formed due to igneous
ranges from the size of a baseball or basketball to a giant
intrusions, consider the following pairs:
size. Sometimes, the volcanic bombs weigh 100 tonnes in
Formation type Description weight and are thrown up to a distance of 10 km.
1. Laccolith Dome-shaped underground 78. Consider the following statements with reference to the
formation with a flat underside. volcanic activity:
2. Lopolith Vertical igneous body resembling a 1. Tephra is a destructive mudflow composed of volcanic
wall, perpendicular to the ground. ash and water.
2. A fumarole is an opening in the Earth’s crust that emits
3. Phacolith Wavy masses of intrusive rocks are
steam and volcanic gases.
found at the base of synclines or on
3. Lahar refers to all rock fragments ejected into the air
top of anticlines.
by an erupting volcano.

34 Physical Geography
 How many of the statements given above are correct? ones are called sheets while the thick horizontal deposits
(a) Only one (b) Only two are called sills. However, Dyke, in geology, is a tabular or
(c) All three (d) None sheet like igneous body that is often oriented vertically or
steeply inclined to the bed of preexisting intruded rocks.
Ans: (a)
Statement 4 is correct: Depending on the location of
Statement 1 is incorrect: Tephra is a general term for all
the cooling of the lava, igneous rocks are classified as
volcanic ejections, ranging from tiny ash particles to large
volcanic rocks (cooling at the surface) and plutonic rocks
volcanic bombs, which are expelled into the air during an
(cooling in the crust).
eruption. The size of the tephra particles can influence
the distance they travel and their potential hazard to Intrusive igneous rocks solidify within Earth. These rocks are
nearby areas. also known as plutonic rocks—named for Pluto, the Roman
Statement 2 is correct: A fumarole is an opening near a god of the underworld. Intrusive igneous rocks are generally
volcano where steam and gases such as sulfur dioxide, wholly crystalline and characterized by large crystal sizes
carbon dioxide, and hydrogen sulfide are released. These visible to the naked eye because they cool slowly.
vents are often located in geothermal areas and can 80. Match the following pairs:
continue to emit gases long after an eruption. Volcano Country
Statement 3 is incorrect: A lahar is a type of volcanic
1. Mount Kanlaon a. United States of America
mudflow or debris flow that occurs when volcanic ash
mixes with water, often from rain or melting snow. Lahars 2. Mount Erebus b. Antarctica
can be extremely destructive, flowing down the slopes of 3. Mauna Loa c. Philippines
a volcano and burying everything in their path, as seen in 4. Mount Ruang d. Indonesia
the 1985 Nevado del Ruiz disaster in Colombia.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
79. Consider the following statement with respect to (a) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d (b) 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b
volcanic landforms:
(c) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-d (d) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
1. The Deccan Traps in India is one of the largest flood
basalt provinces in the world. Ans: (a)
2. Laccoliths are large dome-shaped intrusive bodies On June 3, 2024, Mount Kanlaon on Negros Island exploded,
connected by a pipe-like conduit from below. leading to the displacement of thousands of families.
3. Horizontal bodies of the intrusive igneous rocks are ‰ Mount Kanlaon is an active stratovolcano in the
called Dykes. Philippines, located on Negros Island. It is the highest
4. Intrusive igneous rocks are also called plutonic rocks. peak in the Visayas, known for its biodiversity and
How many of the statements given above are correct? frequent volcanic activity.
(a) Only one (b) Only two ‰ Mount Erebus is an active volcano located on Ross
(c) Only three (d) All four Island in Antarctica. It’s the southernmost active
Ans: (c) volcano on Earth, featuring a persistent lava lake and
Statement 1 is correct: Flood Basalt Provinces outpour unique geological features.
highly fluid lava that flows for long distances. Some parts of ‰ Mauna Loa, situated on Hawaii’s Big Island, is the
the world are covered by thousands of sq. km of thick basalt largest active shield volcano in the USA, characterized
lava flows. The Deccan Traps in India, currently covering by its broad slopes and most recently erupting in 2022.
most of the Maharashtra plateau, form a vast flood basalt ‰ Mount Ruang is an active stratovolcano in Indonesia,
province or lava plateau. The Deccan Volcanic Province situated on Sumbawa Island. Known for its significant
(DVP) in the central part of Peninsular India covering an eruptions, it features a steep profile and contributes
area of 500,000 sq km is one of the largest flood basalt to the region’s volcanic landscape.
provinces in the world. It has been hypothesised that 81. Consider the following statements regarding Volcanic
the flood basalt has been erupted within a narrow time Vortex Rings:
span at or near the Cretaceous/Tertiary boundary when 1. They form as a result of the interaction between volcanic
the Indian subcontinent moved over the Reunion hotspot ash and magnetic fields within the Earth’s atmosphere.
(Morgan, 1972; White and McKenzie, 1989). 2. Their generation is commonly associated with
Statement 2 is correct: Laccoliths are large dome-shaped stratovolcanoes.
intrusive bodies with a level base and connected by a 3. Mount Etna is famous for generating volcanic vortex rings.
pipe-like conduit from below. It resembles the surface How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
volcanic domes of composite volcanoes, only these (a) Only one (b) Only two
are located at deeper depths. It can be regarded as the
localized source of lava that finds its way to the surface. (c) All three (d) None
Statement 3 is incorrect: The near horizontal bodies Ans: (b)
of the intrusive igneous rocks are called sill or sheet, ‰ Statement 1 is incorrect: Volcanic vortex rings primarily
depending on the thickness of the material. The thinner form due to the interaction of ejected volcanic material

Geomorphology 35
 and gases with the atmosphere during explosive ‰ Philippine Plate: Between the Asiatic and Pacific
eruptions, driven by the dynamics of gas release and its Plate;
interaction with the surrounding air. Seventy-five percent of Earth’s volcanoes (more than 450
‰ Statement 2 is correct: Stratovolcanoes, volcanoes) are located along the Ring of Fire. Ninety percent
characterized by their steep, conical shape and of Earth’s earthquakes occur along its path, including the
periodic explosive eruptions, are known for planet’s most violent and dramatic seismic events.
generating impressive volcanic vortex rings as a result
of the rapid ejection of gas and volcanic material
during such eruptions. However, it’s noteworthy that
other types of volcanoes can also produce vortex
rings under specific conditions.
‰ Statement 3 is correct: Mount Etna is renowned for
its production of volcanic vortex rings, earning it the
nickname “Lady of the Rings” for its ability to emit
these rare and visually striking formations.
82. Consider the following statements:
1. Mount Etna is the largest active volcano in Europe.
2. It is located on the largest island in the Mediterranean
Sea.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: Mount Etna, situated on the
east coast of Sicily, Italy, is the largest volcano in Europe
and one of the most active worldwide. With its summit
boasting five craters and numerous flank vents, Etna has 84. Consider the following statements about the
been continuously active for centuries, with frequent Distribution of Volcanoes in the world:
eruptions both at its summit and along its slopes. 1. There are only a few volcanoes located in the interior
Designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site since 2013. regions of continents worldwide.
Statement 2 is correct: Sicily is the largest and most 2. The ‘Pacific Ring of Fire’ hosts more than half of the
populous island in the Mediterranean Sea and one of the world’s volcanoes.
20 regions of Italy. Mount Etna is located on Sicily. Etna’s 3. Volcanoes of the Mediterranean region are mainly
eruptive history spans back over 500,000 years, with associated with the Alpine folds.
documented activity for at least 2,700 years. Which of the statements given above are correct?
83. Which of the following tectonic plates are located along (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
the Pacific Ring of Fire region? (c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of the above
1. Nazca 2. Cocos Ans: (d)
3. Anatolian 4. Juan de Fuca Statement 1 is correct: Volcanoes are located in a fairly clearly
Select the correct answer using the code given below: defined pattern around the world, closely related to regions
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only that have been intensely folded or faulted. They occur along
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) All of the above coastal mountain ranges, as off-shore islands and in the midst
Ans: (c) of oceans, but there are few in the interiors of continents.
The Pacific Ring of Fire, also referred to as the Circum- Statement 2 is correct: The greatest concentration of
Pacific Belt, is a path along the Pacific Ocean characterized volcanoes is probably that in the Circum-Pacific region,
by active volcanoes and frequent earthquakes. popularly termed the ‘Pacific Ring of Fire, which has been
The plates located along the Pacific Ring of Fire region: estimated to include two-thirds of the world’s volcanoes.
‰ The Pacific Plate The chain of volcanoes extends for almost 2000 miles.
‰ Juan de Fuca Plate: Between the Pacific and North ‰ It is largely a result of Plate Tectonics, where
American plates. massive Pacific Plate interacts with less-dense plates
‰ Cocos Plate: Between Central American and the surrounding it.
Pacific Plate; Statement 3 is correct: Volcanoes of the Mediterranean
‰ Indian-Australian Plate, region are mainly associated with the Alpine folds. Eg:
‰ Nazca Plate: Between South America and the Pacific Vesuvius, Etna, Stromboli, Vulcano and those of the
‰ North American Plate, Aegean Islands.

36 Physical Geography
 ‰ The volcanism in this region is primarily caused and slope of all ocean margins. These landforms serve as
by the interaction of the Eurasian Plate and the preferential particle-transport conduits that connect the
African Plate, which is moving northward. The coastal zone with the deep-sea.
Mediterranean plate breaks up into multiple plates Statement 2 and 3 are correct: These are associated
as a result of this interaction. with straight coasts rather than indented ones. These
85. Which of the following processes are associated with are rarely found on coasts having faulted scarps or with
vulcanicity? coasts having too many islands.
1. Gradual increase in temperature with increasing 87. With reference to types of sand dunes, consider the
depth due to heat generated from the disintegration following pairs:
of radioactive elements.
Dune type Description
2. Origin of gases and vapour due to heating of water which
reaches underground through percolation of rainwater. 1. Barchans Crescent-shaped dunes with
3. Ascent of magma forced by enormous volume of gases wings pointing towards the
and vapour. direction of the wind.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 2. Parabolic Dunes Crescent-shaped dunes with
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only wings pointing away from the
direction of the wind.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Longitudinal Dunes Long ridges formed
Ans: (d) perpendicular to the wind
The mechanism of vulcanicity (vulcanism) and direction.
volcanic eruptions is closely associated with several
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
interconnected processes such as
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(i) Gradual increase of temperature with increasing depth
at the rate of 1°C per 32 m due to heat generated from (c) All three (d) None
the disintegration of radioactive elements deep within Ans: (d)
the earth. Sand dunes are mounds formed by loose grains of sand
(ii) The origin of magma because of the lowering of melting blown by the wind and gathered in one place creating
point caused by reduction in the pressure of overlying a small hill. Sand dunes cannot be formed without sand
superincumbent load due to fracture caused by splitting and wind. Most sand dunes form in deserts and sandy
of plates and their movement in opposite directions. beaches. Enormous sand dunes in the Sahara Desert are
(iii) Origin of gases and vapour due to heating of water called sand seas.
which reaches underground through percolation of Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: A barchan sand dune is a
rainwater and melt-water (water derived through the crescent-shaped dune. It has a steep slip face whose tips
melting of ice and snow). point away from the wind. The dunes are separated from
(iv) The ascent of magma forced by enormous volume of each other and keep moving along the surface of the
gases and vapour and barren deserts. In most cases, the creation of barchans
(v) Finally the occurrence of volcanic eruptions of either takes place where there are limited portions of sand. In
violent explosive central type or quiet fissure type fact, deserts that experience many barchan dunes are
depending upon the intensity of gases and vapour inland and open like the Turkistan Desert. Barchans are
and the nature of crustal surface. the most common sand dune compared to the other
sand dunes found both on Earth and Mars.
Hence, statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: A parabolic sand dune is
86. Consider the following statements regarding Submarine an inverted crescent-shaped dune that has vegetation-
Canyons: anchored tips. Sometimes, it seems like it is U-shaped.
1. These are extensive flat plains found between The tips of the parabolic dune point towards the upwind
continental slope and oceanic abyss. direction. On the other hand, its steep slip face points to the
2. These are usually associated with straight coasts downwind side. The longest known parabolic dune ever
rather than indented ones. recorded has a trailing arm almost 12 km long. Parabolic
3. These are rarely found on coasts having faulted scarps. dunes form when little vegetation begins to grow on the
ends of a sand dune. Its formation requires moderate
How many of the statements given above are correct?
amounts of sand and strong winds. Most parabolic sand
(a) Only one (b) Only two dunes form near lake shore areas known as the “seas.
(c) All three (d) None Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Longitudinal dunes are
Ans: (b) long ridges that form parallel to the wind direction (not
Statement 1 is incorrect: Submarine canyons are deep, perpendicular). They occur in areas with limited sand
large-scale incisions that occur on the continental shelf supply and consistent wind direction.

Geomorphology 37
 (d) A permanent freshwater lake formed in desert regions
with underground water sources.
Barchan Self
Ans: (b)
A playa is a flat-bottomed depression located in interior
desert basins and near coasts, commonly found in arid
or semi-arid regions. These lakes retain water for a short
time due to high evaporation rates, allowing them to dry

Transverse
Parabolic up rapidly after rainfall. As the water evaporates, it leaves
behind dissolved salts and minerals, forming crusty salt
deposits on the surface. Playas can remain dry for long
periods but may temporarily fill with water from runoff
or seasonal flooding, showcasing their transient nature
and distinctive features in desert environments.
90. With reference to landscape evolution in deserts,
consider the following statements:
1. Pediments are depositional landforms.
Longitudinal
2. Inselbergs are remnants of mountains.
88. Consider the following statements with reference to Loess: Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. Loess plains are made up of deposition of very fine (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
unconsolidated and unstratified particles picked by wind. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. All loess-covered plains in the world are infertile Ans: (b)
agricultural regions. Statement 1 is incorrect: Gently inclined rocky floors close
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? to the mountains at their foot with or without a thin cover of
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only debris, are called pediments. Such rocky floors form through
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 the erosion of the mountainfront through a combination of
lateral erosion by streams and sheet flooding.
Ans: (a)
Statement 2 is correct: An inselberg is an isolated hill
The soils are formed from the weathered material which
that stands above well-developed plains and appears not
is transported and deposited away from the site of origin.
unlike an island rising from the sea. The early German
Depending upon the nature of the transporting agent,
explorers of southern Africa were impressed by such
the transported soils are called:
features, and they dubbed the domed or castlelike
(i) Colluvial, (ii) Alluvial,
highlands inselbergs. Spectacular examples include
(iii) Glacial and (iv) Aeolian. Uluru/Ayers Rock and the Olga Rocks in central Australia.
Aeolian Soils: Wind transported materials constitute this Inselbergs are remnants of mountains. Inselbergs are
category. This can be further divided into dunes or loess. relict features. They have maintained their relief as the
Statement 1 is correct: Loess is a deposit of very fine adjacent surrounding landscape was lowered.
unconsolidated and unstratified particles which have 91. Consider the following statements regarding gorges and
been picked up and transported some distance by wind canyons:
and, therefore, is more fine-textured than dune soil. 1. A gorge is a deep valley with very steep to straight
These deposits when deposited by winds lead to the sides, and the canyon is characterised by steep step-
formation of Loess Plains.
like side slopes.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Loess may help in levelling 2. A gorge is significantly wider at its top than at its
undulating plains by filling up grooves and depression. bottom, and a canyon is almost equal in width at its
Many of loess-covered plains in the world are fertile top as well as its bottom.
agricultural regions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
89. Which of the following statements is correct with (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
reference to a ‘Playa’? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) A deep freshwater lake formed in coastal regions with Ans: (a)
abundant rainfall.
Statement 1 is correct: A gorge and a canyon are
(b) A shallow lake formed in interior desert basins that both geological landforms associated with erosional
retains water for a short duration only due to high features of rivers with deep valleys, but they have some
evaporation rates. distinguishing characteristics. A gorge is a deep valley
(c) A large reservoir formed in river valleys for irrigation with very steep to straight sides, and the canyon is
purposes. characterised by steep step-like side slopes.

38 Physical Geography
 Statement 2 is incorrect: A gorge is almost equal in width For example: The Sutlej Gorge in Himachal Pradesh and
at its top and bottom. In contrast, a canyon is wider at its the Bhagirathi Gorge in Uttarakhand.
top than its bottom. Point 6 is incorrect: Natural levees are typically formed
in the mature to old stages of a river’s development. In
these stages, rivers have a broad floodplain, and frequent
flooding causes the deposition of sediments along the
riverbanks, creating elevated ridges.
93. Consider the following statements with reference to
meanders formed in rivers:
1. Meanders are the landforms formed in the youthful
stage of the river’s flow.
Fig: Gorge (left) and Canyon (right).
2. The Coriolis force plays a vital role in the meandering
92. Which of the following landforms are typically of rivers.
developed in the youthful stage of a river? 3. Ox-bow lakes are created by the meandering rivers.
1. V-shaped valleys 2. Waterfalls
How many of the statements given above are correct?
3. Meanders 4. Rapids
(a) Only one (b) Only two
5. Gorges 6. Natural Levees
(c) All three (d) None
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 6 only Ans: (b)
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only (d) 3, 4, 5 and 6 only Statement 1 is incorrect: A meander is when water
flows in a curvy, bendy path, like a snake. As a river
Ans: (c) makes its way through an area that is relatively flat, it
Youthful stage of a river often develops bends as it erodes its way through the
Streams are few during this stage with poor integration path of least resistance. Once a meander starts, it often
and flow over original slopes showing shallow V-shaped becomes more and more exaggerated. A meander is not
valleys with no floodplains or with very narrow a landform but only a type of channel pattern that is
floodplains along trunk streams. Streams divide are associated with the mature stage of the river.
broad and flat with marshes, swamp and lakes. Meanders Statement 2 is correct: The reasons for the formation of
if present develop over these broad upland surfaces. meanders in rivers are:
These meanders may eventually entrench themselves
‰ The Coriolis force’s action on the fluid water deflects
into the uplands. Waterfalls and rapids may exist where
local hard rock bodies are exposed. it like the wind.
‰ Water’s propensity to exert pressure laterally on the
Point 1 is correct: V-shaped valleys are narrow, steep-sided
valleys formed by river erosion in the youthful stage. The river banks when flowing over very gentle gradients
cuts downward rapidly, creating a pronounced “V” shape. ‰ The unconsolidated nature of the alluvial deposits that
This landform is typically found in the mountainous regions. make up the banks which have numerous irregularities
For example: The Indus River Valley in Pakistan. that water can use to exert pressure laterally.
Statement 3 is correct: Meanders may get cut off by
Point 2 is correct: Waterfalls are steep descents of a river
erosion at the inflection points as they develop into deep
over a rocky ledge, creating a cascade. In India, notable
loops, leaving behind oxbow lakes.
examples include Jog Falls in Karnataka, the highest
plunge waterfall in India, and Athirappilly Falls in Kerala,
known as the “Niagara of India.” These features typically
form in the youthful stage of rivers.
Point 3 is incorrect: Meanders are winding curves in
a river, common in its mature stage, formed by lateral
erosion and deposition. In India, rivers like the Ganges
and Yamuna display meandering paths, creating fertile
floodplains and oxbow lakes across the plains.
Point 4 is correct: Rapids are sections of a river characterized
by turbulent and fast-moving water, often due to steep
gradients or obstacles like rocks. In India, notable examples
include the rapids of the Ganges River at Rishikesh and the
Brahmaputra River in Arunachal Pradesh.
Point 5 is correct: Gorges are deep, narrow valleys with
steep sides, formed by a river cutting through resistant rock.
These landforms are typical of rivers in their youthful stage. Fig: Meanders and Ox-bow lakes

Geomorphology 39
 94. Which one of the following is the most appropriate reason The Plunge Pool is formed on the river bed mostly because
for the formation of badlands in the Chambal Valley? of hydraulic action where the water falls from height and
1. The Chambal River carries a lot of sediment, which causes bedrock erosion. (Hence, point 2 is correct.)
clogs the soil, making it more susceptible to erosion. Rapids formed in areas of shallow fast-flowing water in
2. The wind erosion in the Chambal Valley is the main younger streams. There are many tiny waterfalls created
cause of the formation of badlands. within the stream. (Hence, point 3 is correct.)
3. The badlands have scrub vegetation, which does not Crevasses are cracks which appear on the top of the glaciers
have deep roots. and headwalls of cirques. (Hence, point 4 is incorrect.)
4. This valley is located in a seismically active region, 96. ‘It is a resistant residual rock hummock. The surface is
which can cause the soil to collapse and form gullies. striated by ice movement. Its upstream side is smoothed
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? by abrasion, and its downstream side is roughened by
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2, and 4 plucking.’
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 3 only Which of the following terms best describes the passage
given above?
Ans: (b) (a) Mesas (b) Nunataks
Badlands are areas of land that are characterised by
(c) Roche Moutonnee (d) Tombolos
steep ravines and gullies. They are formed by the rapid
erosion of soil and bedrock. Ans: (c)
Statement 1 is incorrect: The sediment carried by the Option (a) is incorrect: Mesas is a flat, table-like land
Chambal River is not likely to clog the soil. The sediment mass with a very resistant horizontal top layer and very
is mostly sand and gravel, which are relatively coarse steep sides. Continued denudation through the ages may
materials. These materials are not likely to clog the soil reduce mesas in the area so that they become isolated
and make it more susceptible to erosion. flat-topped hills called buttes.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The wind erosion in the Chambal Option (b) is incorrect: Nunataks are Isolated peaks or
Valley is not the main cause of the formation of badlands. mounds surrounded by glacial ice. They resemble small
As badlands are created by the erosion of the water. islands within the ice mass and decrease in size over time
due to glacial lateral erosion and frost action.
Statement 3 is correct: The lack of vegetation with deep
roots is the most appropriate factor. The badlands have Option (c) is correct: Roche Moutonnee is a resistant
scrub vegetation, which does not have deep roots. The residual rock hummock. The surface is striated by ice
vegetation helps to hold the soil in place and prevent movement . Its upstream side is smoothed by abrasion
it from eroding. Thus, a lack of vegetation with deeper and its downstream side is roughened by plucking.
roots leads to the loss of topsoil. This creates conditions Option (d) is incorrect: Tombolos connects an island
suitable for erosion. When the rains come, the water to the mainland or another island. it is created by the
washes away the soil and exposes the bedrock. This deposition of sediments by waves and tides, which
process is further accelerated by the presence of ravines gradually build up to connect the two land masses.
and gullies, which provide channels for the water to flow 97. The landforms Eskers and Moraines associated with
at a rapid speed, aiding erosion. which of the geomorphic processes ?
Statement 4 is incorrect: Earthquakes are not a common (a) Depositional landforms associated with aeolian process.
occurrence in the Chambal Valley. The earthquakes that (b) Erosional landforms associated with the aeolian process.
do occur are not strong enough to cause the soil to (c) Erosional landforms associated with glacial activities.
collapse and form gullies. (d) Depositional landforms associated with glacial activities.
95. Consider the following options: Ans: (d)
1. Gorges 2. Plunge Pools Eskers: Eskers are sinuous ridges formed by meltwater
3. Rapids 4. Crevasses currents depositing glacial material, primarily sands and
gravel, in glacial tunnels. Subglacial meltwater streams
How many of the above are erosional landforms formed
were once channeled through glacial tunnels.
by the running water?
Moraines: They are long ridges of deposits of glacial till.
(a) Only one (b) Only two
Terminal moraines are long ridges of debris deposited
(c) Only three (d) All four at the end (toe) of the glaciers. Lateral moraines form
Ans: (c) along the sides parallel to the glacial valleys. The lateral
Erosional Landforms formed by the running water: moraines may join a terminal moraine forming a horse-
Hard and resistant bedrock hinder the widening of the shoe-shaped ridge.
valley at the top but down cutting process continues with 98. Consider the following statements about ‘Cirque’:
the vigour of the river which can lead to the formation 1. It is the most common depositional landform in
of gorge. The narrow and very deep gorge or the canyon mountainous regions.
with vertical walls is also known as the ‘I’ shaped valley. 2. Cirques are deep, long and wide troughs.
(Hence, point 1 is correct.) 3. Horns landforms are associated with Cirques.

40 Physical Geography
 Which of the statements given above are correct? cirque or tarn lakes. There can be two or more cirques one
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only leading into another down below in a stepped sequence.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Horns and Serrated Ridges: Horns form through head
Ans: (b) ward erosion of the cirque walls. If three or more
Horn radiating glaciers cut headward until their cirques meet,
Aretes high, sharp pointed and steep sided peaks called horns
Rock basin Cirque form. The divides between cirque side walls or head
lakes walls get narrow because of progressive erosion and turn
into serrated or saw-toothed ridges sometimes referred
to as arêtes with very sharp crest and a zig-zag outline.
Glacial Valleys/Troughs: Glaciated valleys are trough-like
and Ushaped with broad floors and relatively smooth,
Rock step and steep sides. The valleys may contain littered debris
Hanging or debris shaped as moraines with swampy appearance.
valley U-shaped There may be lakes gouged out of rocky floor or formed
valley by debris within the valleys. There can be hanging valleys
Rock basin
lakes at an elevation on one or both sides of the main glacial
Fig: Glacial Erosional Landforms valley. The faces of divides or spurs of such hanging valleys
opening into main glacial valleys are quite often truncated
Statement 1 is incorrect: Cirques are the most common
to give them an appearance like triangular facets. Very
of landforms in glaciated mountains. The cirques quite
deep glacial troughs filled with sea water and making up
often are found at the heads of glacial valleys. Cirques
shorelines (in high latitudes) are called fjords/fiords.
are erosional landforms. The accumulated ice cuts these
cirques while moving down the mountain tops. Point 2 and 3 are incorrect: Drumlins and eskers are the
depositional landforms of glacier.
Statement 2 is correct: Cirques are deep, long and wide
troughs or basins with very steep concave to vertically Eskers: When glaciers melt in summer, the water flows on
dropping high walls at its head as well as sides. A lake of the surface of the ice or seeps down along the margins
water can be seen quite often within the cirques after the or even moves through holes in the ice. These waters
glacier disappears. Such lakes are called cirque or tarn lakes. accumulate beneath the glacier and flow like streams in a
Statement 3 is correct: Horns form through headward channel beneath the ice. Such streams flow over the ground
erosion of the cirque walls. If three or more radiating (not in a valley cut in the ground) with ice forming its banks.
glaciers cut headward until their cirques meet, high, Very coarse materials like boulders and blocks along with
sharp pointed and steep sided peaks called horns form. some minor fractions of rock debris carried into this stream
settle in the valley of ice beneath the glacier and after the
99. Consider the following landforms: ice melts can be found as a sinuous ridge called esker.
1. Serrated Ridges 2. Drumlins
Drumlins: Drumlins are smooth oval shaped ridge-like
3. Eskers 4. Cirque
features composed mainly of glacial till with some masses
How many of the landforms given above are the erosional
of gravel and sand. The long axes of drumlins are parallel
landforms of glacier?
to the direction of ice movement. They may measure up
(a) Only one (b) Only two
to 1 km in length and 30 m or so in height. One end of the
(c) Only three (d) All four
drumlins facing the glacier called the stoss end is blunter
Ans: (b) and steeper than the other end called tail. The drumlins
Masses of ice moving as sheets over the land (continental form due to dumping of rock debris beneath heavily
glacier or piedmont glacier if a vast sheet of ice is spread over loaded ice through fissures in the glacier. The stoss end
the plains at the foot of mountains) or as linear flows down the gets blunted due to pushing by moving ice. Drumlins give
slopes of mountains in broad trough-like valleys (mountain an indication of direction of glacier movement.
and valley glaciers) are called glaciers. The movement of
glaciers is slow unlike water flow. The movement could be a 100. Consider the following statement with reference to
few centimetres to a few metres a day or even less or more. different types of moraines:
Glaciers move basically because of the force of gravity. 1. Terminal moraines are long ridges of debris deposited
Point 1 and 4 are correct: Erosional Landforms of Glacier: at the end of glaciers.
2. Lateral moraines form along the sides of glacial valleys
Cirque: Cirques are the most common of landforms in
and may join terminal moraines to create a horse-shoe
glaciated mountains. The cirques quite often are found
shaped ridge.
at the heads of glacial valleys. The accumulated ice cuts
3. Medial moraines are formed when two glaciers meet
these cirques while moving down the mountain tops. They
and their lateral moraines combine in the center of
are deep, long and wide troughs or basins with very steep
the new, larger glacier.
concave to vertically dropping high walls at its head as well
as sides. A lake of water can be seen quite often within the 4. Ground moraines are created from glacio-fluvial
cirques after the glacier disappears. Such lakes are called waters depositing materials on the valley floor.

Geomorphology 41
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Statement 1 is correct: Karst topography, often referred
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only to simply as “karst,” is a distinctive landscape that
results from the dissolution of soluble rocks, primarily
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
limestone, gypsum, and dolomite. It has various unique
Ans: (d) surface features, including sinkholes, caves, disappearing
A moraine is material left behind by a moving glacier. streams, underground drainage systems, and limestone
This material is usually soil and rock. Just as rivers carry pavements. Any limestone or dolomitic region showing
along all sorts of debris and silt that eventually builds typical landforms produced by the action of groundwater
up to form deltas, glaciers transport all sorts of dirt and through the processes of solution and deposition is called
boulders that build up to form moraines. Moraines are Karst topography.
divided into four main categories:
Statement 2 is incorrect: In Karst topography, both
‰ Lateral moraines erosional and depositional factors are active in the
‰ Medial moraines formation of landforms like poljes, sinkholes, lapies,
‰ Supraglacial moraines limestone pavements, stalactites, stalagmites, pillars, etc.
‰ Terminal moraines. 102. Consider the following statements with reference to the
Statement 1 is correct: A terminal moraine is also Karst topography:
sometimes called an end moraine. It forms at the very 1. The work of underground water gives rise to distinctive
end of a glacier. At a terminal moraine, all the debris that Karst landforms.
was scooped up and pushed to the front of the glacier is
2. The formation of solution valley is associated with
deposited as a large clump of rocks, soil, and sediment.
Karst topography.
Statement 2 is correct: Lateral moraines form along the
Which of the statements given above are incorrect?
sides of glacial valleys and can join terminal moraines to
create a horse-shoe shaped ridge. They accumulate as (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
the glacier moves and carries debris along its sides. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 3 is correct: Medial moraines are formed when Ans: (d)
two glaciers meet and their lateral moraines combine in Statement 1 is correct: The work of underground water
the center of the new, larger glacier. They often appear as is important in the areas of limestone rocks, where it
a ridge running down the middle of the valley floor. gives rise to distinctive landforms. Like running water,
Statement 4 is incorrect: Ground moraines are actually underground water also erodes, transports and deposits.
formed from debris left behind by retreating glaciers rather Statement 2 is correct: Slow-moving groundwater
than from glacio-fluvial waters. They create a rough and can dissolve huge quantities of soluble rocks and carry
uneven surface on the valley floor as the glacier retreats. them away in solution. In some areas, it is the dominant
101. With reference to Karst topography, consider the agent of erosion and produces Karst topography, which
following statements: is characterised by sinkholes, solution valleys, and
1. It is mainly produced by the action of groundwater. disappearing streams. Initially, water follows surface
2. It is a landform formed only by erosional processes. drainage until a large river cuts a deep valley below the
limestone layer. Groundwater then moves through joints
Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?
and emerges at river banks. With the passage of time,
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only the water emerges at the river banks. Finally, the roofs of
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 the caves collapse, so numerous sinkholes are produced.
Ans: (a) This process ultimately develops solution valleys.

Fig: Karst Topography

42 Physical Geography
103. Consider the following factors: • Collapse Sinks or dolines, occur when the roof of
1. Scarce rainfall an underground void or cave collapses, leaving a
2. Lesser vegetation cover noticeable depression or hole on the surface.
3. Presence of porous rock system ‰ Valley Sinks or Uvalas: When sinkholes and dolines
How many of the above factors promote the formation of merge due to slumping of materials or collapse of cave
Karst Topography in a geographical region? roofs, they form long, narrow to wide trenches known
(a) Only one (b) Only two as valley sinks or uvalas. Hence, option (c) is correct.
(c) All three (d) None ‰ Lapies or ridges: These are irregular limestone surfaces
Ans: (a) characterised by a maze of points, grooves, and ridges.
Any limestone or dolomitic region showing typical They develop due to differential solution activity along
landforms produced by the action of groundwater parallel or subparallel joints in the limestone.
through the processes of solution and deposition is called ‰ Caves or caverns: Caves form in areas with alternating
Karst topography. It refers to a geological area primarily rock layers (like limestone sandwiched between
composed of limestone, which is alternatively known as other rock types). Some caves even have openings at
chalk or calcium carbonate. As limestone is a relatively both ends, earning them the name “tunnels.”
softer rock, it erodes when rainwater seeps into the rock. ‰ Ponores: Vertical pipe-like chasms or passages
Statement 1 is incorrect: Although Karst regions can be connecting caves and swallow holes formed through
found in various climatic zones, from arid to humid, and the downward extension of sinkholes via the
from cold to hot, it is more pronounced in regions where continuous solution of carbonate rocks.
there is a high rainfall and dissolution. On the other hand, ‰ Natural Bridges: These form in limestone areas
in arid regions, karst features may be less pronounced due to cave roof collapses or the transformation of
due to low rainfall and high evaporation. Thus, scarce surface streams into subterranean streams, creating
rainfall limits the formation of Karst topography. valleys below the ground surface.
Statement 2 is correct: Less vegetation cover can contribute
to faster water infiltration and increased exposure of soluble
rocks to dissolving water, thus promoting karst formation.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The primary requirement
of Karst formation is the presence of soluble rocks like
limestone, dolomite, or gypsum. These rocks dissolve
readily in water containing carbonic acid, a weak acid
formed by the combination of carbon dioxide and water,
Fig: Sinkholes and Uvalas.
leading to karst topography. If limestones are porous,
water may pass through the rock mass, making the entire 105. Which of the following are examples of Erosional
rock mass unstable and liable to collapse. landforms in coastal areas?
104. Sinkholes may expand in diameter and as a result, they 1. Capes 2. Bergschrund
unite to form a compound sinkhole. Sometimes these 3. Sea Stacks 4. Stumps
may be developed from the surface to join the passage 5. Tombolos
already made. This leads to the collapse of a certain part Select the correct answer using the code given below:
of the roof resulting in the formation of large depressions. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 4 and 5 only
Which of the following terms best describes the passage
given above? (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 5 only
(a) Polje (b) Blind Valley Ans: (c)
(c) Uvalas (d) Doline Coastal landforms are shaped by coastal erosion and
deposition and are driven by factors such as wave action,
Ans: (c)
tides, currents, and sediment availability.
Karst landscapes are characterised by rugged terrains
with features like solution holes, ravines, gullies, Coastal Erosional Landforms
clefts,narrow valleys, caves, stalagmites, and stalactites. ‰ Capes and Bays: On exposed coasts, the continual
‰ Swallow Holes: Small to medium sized round to sub- action of waves on rocks of varying resistance causes
rounded shallow depressions formed on the surface the coastline to be eroded irregularly. Hence, point
of limestones through solution. 1 is correct.
‰ Sinkholes: Depressions that are circular at the top • Capes and Bays are particularly pronounced
and funnel shaped at the bottom. Formed in 2 ways: where hard rocks, like granites and limestones,
• Solution Sinks are formed solely through the occur in alternate bands with softer rocks.
solution process, where limestone dissolves over • Softer rocks are worn back into inlets, coves or bays
time, creating depressions. and the harder ones persist as headlands or capes.

Geomorphology 43
 ‰ Wave-cut cliffs: Waves break forcefully against rocky 107. Consider the following :
coasts, forming cliffs; Constant wave impact causes 1. Blow holes 2. Gloups
cliffs to recede, creating wave-cut platforms where 3. Spits and bars 4. Stack and Stump
eroded material is deposited. 5. Beaches
‰ Wave cut terraces: Flat platforms made of rock debris
How many of the above represent depositional features
at the base of cliffs, elevated above the average
in coastal landforms?
wave height. Wave-cut cliffs and terraces are major
(a) Only two (b) Only three
landforms where erosion is the dominant process.
‰ Caves: Hollows formed by the impact of waves (c) Only four (d) All five
and rock debris against cliffs. Roofs of these caves Ans: (a)
collapse, giving way for stacks. Coastal landforms are the relief features present
‰ Sea Stacks: Resilient rock masses, originally part along any coast and are the result of a combination of
of cliffs or hills, standing alone just off the shore. processes, sediments, and the geology of the coast itself.
Hence, point 3 is correct. Erosional Features
‰ Stumps: In the course of time, these ‘stubborn’ stacks ‰ Blow Holes: Erosional features where sea waves
will gradually be removed. The vertical rock pillars are force air and water through cracks in coastal rock.
eroded, leaving behind only the stumps, which are just
‰ Stack and Stump: Stacks are remnants of eroded sea
visible above the sea level. Hence, point 4 is correct.
arches, and stumps are the remnants of stacks after
‰ Wave-Cut Platforms: Flat surfaces created by wave
further erosion.
pounding in front of cliffs. These flat, slightly concave
surfaces are formed in front of cliffs due to the ‰ Capes and Bays: Capes are points of land that extend
relentless pounding of waves. into the sea, formed by erosion of the surrounding
‰ Arches: Natural arches are formed when caves on
softer material. Bays are recessed coastal areas
opposite sides of a headland merge over time. where the land has eroded away.
Tombolos is a coastal depositional landform that ‰ Cliffs and Wave Cuts: Cliffs are steep rock faces
connects an island to the mainland or another island. It formed by coastal erosion. Wave-cut platforms are
is created by the deposition of sediments by waves and flat areas formed at the base of cliffs as waves erode
tides, which gradually build up to connect the two land the rock.
masses. Hence, point 5 is incorrect. ‰ Geos and Gloups: Geos are deep inlets or gullies
Bergschrund is a glacial landform. At the head of a glacier, formed by erosion.
where it begins to leave the snowfield of a corrie, a deep Depositional Features
vertical crack opens up called a bergschrund (in German) ‰ Beaches: Formed by the accumulation of sediments
or rimaye (in French). Hence, point 2 is incorrect. along the shoreline.
106. Consider the following statements: ‰ Spits and Bars: Spits are narrow landforms extending
1. A strait is a narrow strip of land that connects two from the coast, and bars are submerged mounds or
larger landmasses. ridges created by sediment accumulation.
2. An isthmus is a naturally formed waterway that ‰ Marine Dunes and Dune Belts: Coastal sand dunes
connects two large water bodies. and dune belts formed by the deposition of sand.
3. Gulfs are generally larger than bays and have a more
108. Consider the following statements with reference to
open connection to the ocean or sea compared to bays.
landforms associated with waves and currents:
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two 1. A barrier bar that gets keyed up to the headland of a
bay is called a sea stack.
(c) All three (d) None
2. A spit is a resistant mass of rock that was originally
Ans: (a) part of a cliff or hill.
Statement 1 is incorrect: A strait is a naturally occurring
3. Erosional landforms dominate on the west coast of India.
narrow water passage that connects two larger water bodies,
such as seas or oceans. For example, the Strait of Gibraltar How many of the statements given above are correct?
connects the Atlantic Ocean and the Mediterranean Sea. (a) Only one (b) Only two
Statement 2 is incorrect: An isthmus is a narrow strip of (c) All three (d) None
land that connects two larger landmasses and has water Ans: (a)
on both sides. A well-known example is the Isthmus of Statement 1 is incorrect: Bars are submerged features,
Panama, which connects North and South America and and when they rise above water, they are called barrier
has the Pacific Ocean on one side and the Atlantic Ocean bars. A barrier bar that gets keyed up to the headland of
on the other. a bay is called a spit. When barrier bars and spits form
Statement 3 is correct: Gulfs are typically larger and at the mouth of a bay and block it, a lagoon forms. The
deeper than bays, and they tend to have a broader lagoons gradually fill up with sediments from the land,
opening to the ocean or sea. giving rise to a coastal plain.

44 Physical Geography
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Retreat of the cliff near the coast Ans: (d)
may leave some remnants of rock standing isolated as Statement 1 is correct: A slump is a type of landslide
small islands just off the shore. Such resistant masses of characterized by the movement of a mass of rock or
rock, originally parts of a cliff or hill, are called sea stacks. soil that slips downward along a curved surface. The
Like all other features, sea stacks are also temporary and key feature of a slump is the backward rotation of the
eventually coastal hills and cliffs will disappear because material. As the debris moves down the slope, it rotates
of wave erosion giving rise to narrow coastal plains, and backward, which can create a distinctive scarp (a steep
with the onrush of deposits from over, the land behind bank or cliff) at the top of the slide and a bulging lobe
may get covered up by alluvium or may get covered up at the bottom. Slumps often occur in cohesive materials,
by shingle or sand to form a wide beach. like clay, which can hold together during the movement
Statement 3 is correct: The west coast of our country is but eventually fail due to gravitational forces.
a high, rocky retreating coast. Erosional forms dominate Saturated soil
slups along a
on this coast. The east coast of India is a low sedimentary curved surface.
coast. Depositional forms dominate on this coast. Note: The sloping
surface can alos
109. Consider the following statements with respect to soil be straight
forming factors:
1. Soils are thick on steep slopes and thin over flat upland
areas.
2. Humus is high in soil in humid tropical regions due to
high bacterial growth and intense bacterial action. Curved plane
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 2 is correct: A debris slide involves the swift
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
movement of loose earth materials (soil, rock fragments,
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 and organic matter) down a slope. Unlike a slump, there
Ans: (d) is no backward rotation of the debris; it moves more like
Statement 1 is incorrect: The influence of topography is a flow, rolling or sliding down the slope. Debris slides can
felt through the amount of exposure of a surface covered occur quickly and can be triggered by factors like heavy
by parent materials to sunlight and the amount of surface rainfall, earthquakes, or human activities. The absence of
and sub-surface drainage over and through the parent rotation makes debris slides different from other types of
materials. Soils will be thin on steep slopes and thick landslides, leading to a more straightforward downward
over flat upland areas. Over gentle slopes where erosion movement of the material.
is slow and percolation of water is good, soil formation is Statement 3 is correct: Rockfall refers to the rapid free fall
very favorable. Soils over flat areas may develop a thick of individual rock blocks from steep slopes. In a rockfall,
layer of clay with good accumulation of organic matter the rocks detach from their position due to gravity
giving the soil dark color. and fall away from the slope, often maintaining some
distance from the surface as they fall. This movement is
Statement 2 is incorrect: In humid tropical and equatorial
characterized by the rocks falling vertically and sometimes
climates, bacterial growth and action is intense and dead
bouncing or rolling once they hit the ground.
vegetation is rapidly oxidized leaving very low humus
content in the soil. Further, bacteria and other soil 111. Which of the following statements best describes the
organisms take gaseous nitrogen from the air and convert term ‘Nunataks’?
it into a chemical form that can be used by plants. This (a) Deep vertical crack at the head of the glacier.
process is known as nitrogen fixation. (b) A type of glacial lake.
110. Which of the following statements regarding types of (c) The higher peaks and mounds that are surrounded by
landslides is/are correct? ice from all sides.
1. Slump involves the backward rotation of rock debris (d) A pyramidal peak formed due to the intersection of
as it slips over a slope. three or more plateaus.
2. Debris slide refers to the rapid rolling or sliding of Ans: (c)
earth debris without any backward rotation. ‰ Nunataks: The higher peaks and mounds surrounded
3. Rockfall involves the rapid free fall of rock blocks over by ice from all sides are called nunataks. They
steep slopes. look like scattered small islands amid extensive
ice masses. That is why they are also called glacial
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
islands. They decrease in size due to erosion caused
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only by glacial lateral erosion and frost action. Hence,
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 option (c) is correct.

Geomorphology 45
 ‰ Bergschrund: At the head of a glacier, where it begins 3. Kilimanjaro 4. Mount Kosciuszko
to leave the snowfield of a corrie, a deep vertical Which of the following is the correct order from North to
crack opens up called a bergschrund (in German) or South for the above Mountains?
rimaye (in French). Hence, option (a) is incorrect.
(a) 4-3-2-1 (b) 4-2-1-3
‰ A Ribbon lake/ Finger lake/ Trough lake is a long and
very deep, finger-shaped lake, usually found in a (c) 2-1-3-4 (d) 2-4-1-3
glacial trough. Hence, option (b) is incorrect. Ans: (c)
‰ Aretes: When two corries cut back on opposite sides Correct order from North to South:
of a mountain, knife-edged ridges are formed called
‰ Mount Logan (Canada)
Aretes.
• Where three or more cirques cut back together, ‰ Mont Blanc (Located in the Alps, the massif lies
their ultimate recession will form an angular horn along the French-Italian border and reaches into
or pyramidal peak. Hence, option (d) is incorrect. Switzerland)
112. Consider the following: ‰ Kilimanjaro(Tanazania)
1. Mont Blanc 2. Mount Logan ‰ Mount Kosciuszko (Australia)

Fig: Major Mountain Peaks of the World

113. Consider the following statements: Statement 1 is correct: Peneplain is a gently undulating
1. Peneplains are formed as a result of river erosion. and virtually featureless plain formed by river erosion
which reduces the land over time almost to base level
2. Unlike Peneplain, Pediplains are formed due to glacial (sea level). The erosion by river leaves so little gradient
erosion. that no more erosion could occur. The concept of a
Which of the statements given above are correct? peneplain (the word meaning “almost a plain”) emerged
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only from W.M. Davis’ cyclic view of landscape evolution.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Statement 2 is incorrect: Pediplains are formed in arid and
semi-arid regions due to mechanical weathering. The hills
Ans: (a) undergo wear and tear to form a gently sloping plain.

46 Physical Geography
 A Ans: (a)
alluvial fans
Represented in the map below: Laurentian–Columbia-
Snake-Colorado-Mexican

B marginal
pedimentation of horst
playa lake
development

C
inselbergs aggradation plain
Fig: Major Plateaus of the World
pediplain
Point 1: Laurentian Plateau-Lying in the eastern part of
Canada, it is a part of the Canadian Shield; Fine quality of
iron-ore is found here.
Point 2: Colorado Plateau-It is lying to the western part of
the U.S.A. It is the largest plateau in America. It is divided
by the Colorado River and the Grand Canyon. This plateau is
an example of intermontane plateau. Mesas and buttes are
found here in many places [Arid Landforms]. The plateau is
known for the groundwater which is under positive pressure
Fig: Diagram of Pediplain (top image) and Peneplain and causes the emergence of springs called Artesian wells.
(bottom image) Point 3: Columbia - Snake Plateau - River Columbia and
its tributary Snake meet in this plateau. It is bordered by
114. Consider the following with respect to plains and plateaus:
1. The Eastern and the Western Ghats meet each other the Cascade Range and the Rocky Mountains and divided
at the Nilgiri hills. by the Columbia River. This plateau has been formed
2. The new alluvial deposits are known as the Bhangar. as the result of volcanic eruptions with a consequent
3. The ‘Molassis basin’ is made up of soft unconsolidated coating of basalt lava (Flood Basalt Plateau).
deposits. Point 4: Mexican plateau-It is called a ‘Mineral Store’.
How many of the above statements are correct? Different types of metallic minerals like silver, copper etc.
(a) Only one are obtained from here. The world’s biggest silver mine
Chihuahua is situated on the plateau.
(b) Only two
116. Kaas plateau was recently seen in news, it is located in
(c) All three
which of the following states?
(d) None
(a) Kerala (b) Jharkhand
Ans: (b) (c) Maharashtra (d) Karnataka
Statement 1 is correct: The Eastern and the Western
Ghats meet each other at the Nilgiri hills. Ans: (c)
Statement 2 is incorrect: The new alluvial deposit is Recently, a new study of the sediments from a seasonal
known as Khadar in the northern plain. While the older lake in the Kaas Plateau has indicated a major shift
alluvial deposits are known as Bhangar. These deposits in the Indian Summer Monsoons towards dry and
are found in the river shores and flood plains of the river. stressed conditions with low rainfall during the Early-
Statement 3 is correct: Mizoram which is also known Mid–Holocene, around 8664 years BC. Study indicated a
as the ‘Molassis basin’ which is made up of soft relatively reduced rainfall and weak southwest monsoon
unconsolidated deposits. This is the reason for the during the late Holocene (around 2827 years BP).
formation of small ridges. About Kaas Plateau
115. Consider the following options given below: ‰ Location: Kaas Pathar is a plateau made from
1. Laurentian Plateau 2. Colorado Plateau volcanic rocks in the Satara district of Maharashtra.
3. Columbia Snake Plateau 4. Mexican Plateau ‰ Etymology: Known as Kaas Pathar in Marathi, its name
Which one of the following represents the correct is derived from the Kaasa tree, botanically known as
arrangement of the above given Plateaus in North to Elaeocarpus glandulosus (rudraksha family).
South direction? ‰ Ecological importance: Kaas Plateau is a UNESCO World
(a) 1-3-2-4 (b) 1-2-3-4 Natural Heritage Site, under the name the Western
(c) 4-3-2-1 (d) 4-2-1-3 Ghats. It falls in the biosphere of the Western Ghats.

Geomorphology 47
 ‰ Designated as a biodiversity hotspot, the Kaas ‰ It becomes wet water-logged cool in monsoon rains,
Plateau comes to life with various seasonal flowers very dry, barren hot summer (45 degree C) and dry
forming a floral carpet over the entire lateritic crust winter (5 degree C).
‰ The soil we find in the Kaas Plateau is a thin layer on
during August and September.
top of Deccan rock, with varying quality of nutrients.
‰ The plateau of Kaas experiences a natural cycle of ‰ Kaas Pathar is home to 1500 plant species, 450
extreme conditions. wildflower species out of which 33 are endangered.

48 Physical Geography
 3 Climatology

Objective Questions for Practice

1. With reference to ‘Spatial Distribution of Insolation at of the 24-hour-long solar day. At the winter solstice, the
the earth’s surface’, consider the following statements: sun does not rise above the horizon north of about 66.5°,
1. The subtropical deserts receive maximum insolation where solar insolation is zero.
on the Earth. Insolation v. Latitude Tilt Angle 23.45°
600
Dec 12

Average Daily Insolation W/m2

2. The amount of insolation received by the equator is winter solstice June 21
500 summer solstice
more as compared to the tropics.
3. The middle and higher latitudes receive less insolation 400 vg
ual a
in the winter season than in the summer. Ann
300
4. The solar insolation is zero at the poles during the
equinoxes. 200

Which of the following statements given above are correct? 100

(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only
0
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only –80 –60 –40 –20 0 20 40 60 80
southern hemisphere Latitude northern hemisphere
Ans: (c)
The amount of insolation received on the earth’s surface 2. Consider the following statements:
is not uniform everywhere. It varies from place to place 1. The speed of Earth’s rotation causes the variation in
and from time to time. The tropical zone receives the the duration of day and night across latitudes.
maximum annual insolation. It gradually decreases 2. Regions beyond the Arctic and Antarctic Circles
towards the poles. Insolation is more in summers and experience continuous daylight or darkness for about
less in winters. six months due to Earth’s axial tilt.
Statement 1 is correct: Maximum insolation is received Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
over the subtropical deserts, where the cloudiness is the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
least. The cloudless skies allow for maximum insolation
in the subtropical deserts as compared to other cloudy (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither nor 2
regions that reflect sunlight. Ans: (b)
Statement 2 is incorrect: The equator receives a Statement 1 is incorrect: The speed of Earth’s rotation is
consistent amount of insolation year-round due to its faster at the equator and slower at the poles, but this has
position directly under the sun. However, the tropics little influence on the duration of day and night. The length
(which include regions from the equator to about 23.5° of day and night is primarily determined by the Earth’s axial
north and south) receive higher insolation on average, tilt and its revolution around the Sun, not by rotational
especially during their respective summer solstices. speed. The tilt causes different parts of the Earth to receive
Statement 3 is correct: The middle and higher latitudes varying amounts of sunlight throughout the year.
receive less insolation in the winter season than in the Statement 2 is correct: The Earth’s axial tilt (approximately
summer. Seasonal change has an impact on insolation 23.5°) is responsible for the phenomenon of continuous
in this region, hence, dissimilarities are found in the daylight (midnight sun) and continuous darkness
amount of solar radiation. (polar night) in regions beyond the Arctic and Antarctic
Statement 4 is correct: At the equinoxes, solar insolation Circles. As the Earth orbits the Sun, these regions are
is at a maximum at the equator and is zero at the poles. tilted toward the Sun for about six months, resulting in
At the summer solstice of the northern hemisphere, daily continuous daylight, and away from the Sun for the other
insolation reaches a maximum at the North Pole because six months, resulting in continuous darkness.
 3. With reference to isotherms, consider the following How many of the above factors affect the general
statements: circulation of the atmosphere?
Statement-I: The Isotherms are lines joining places (a) Only one (b) Only two
having equal temperatures. (c) Only three (d) All four
Statement-II: In the southern hemisphere, the isotherms Ans: (d)
are more or less parallel to the latitudes.
The pattern of the movement of the planetary winds is
Which of the following is correct with respect to the called the general circulation of the atmosphere. The
above statements? general circulation of the atmosphere also sets in motion
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and the ocean water circulation, which influences the earth’s
Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I climate. The pattern of planetary winds depends mainly on:
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct ‰ Latitudinal variation in insolation. Hence, statement
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for 1 is correct.
Statement-I ‰ Existence of pressure belts. Hence, statement 2 is
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect correct.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct ‰ Migration of belts following the apparent path of the
Ans: (b) Sun.
‰ Distribution of continents and oceans. Hence,
Statement-I is correct: The temperature distribution is
generally shown on the map with the help of isotherms. statement 3 is correct.
The Isotherms are lines joining places having equal ‰ Rotation of earth. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
temperatures. In general, the effect of the latitude on
temperature is well pronounced on the map, as the
isotherms are generally parallel to the latitude. The
deviation from this general trend is more pronounced in
January than in July, especially in the northern hemisphere.
Statement-II is correct: In the northern hemisphere, the
land surface area is much larger than in the southern
hemisphere. Hence, the effects of land mass and ocean
currents are well-pronounced. In January, the isotherms
deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the
continent. The effect of the ocean is well pronounced in the
southern hemisphere. Here, the isotherms are more or less
parallel to the latitudes, and the variation in temperature is
more gradual than in the northern hemisphere.
Fig: General circulation of the atmosphere.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and
Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. 5. Consider the following statements regarding the
International Date Line (IDL):
1. The International Date Line follows the 180° meridian
without any deviations.
2. A traveler loses a day when he crosses the International
Date Line from East to West, they lose a day.
3. The time and date on the western side of the
International Date Line are behind those on the
eastern side by a full 24 hours.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None
Ans: (a)
Statement 1 is incorrect: While the International Date
Fig: Map Showing the Extent of Isotherms Line is primarily based on the 180° meridian, it does not
follow this line exactly. The IDL has several deviations to
4. Consider the following:
accommodate various island groups and countries. For
1. Latitudinal variation in insolation instance, it curves around the Aleutian Islands in Alaska
2. Existence of pressure belts and avoids splitting countries such as Fiji and Tonga
3. Distribution of continents and oceans to prevent confusion regarding the day and date for
4. Rotation of the earth. residents of those islands.

50 Physical Geography
 Statement 2 is correct: When traveling from east to west 3. They do not form over oceans and can be formed over
across the IDL, a traveler effectively moves into a time lands only.
zone that is 24 hours ahead of the time zone they were Which of the statements given above are correct?
previously in. As a result, they “lose” a day, which means (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
they must adjust their calendar to reflect this loss. For
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
example, if someone crosses the IDL on a Wednesday, it
will be Thursday on the other side. Ans: (b)
Statement 3 is incorrect: The time and date on the When the air remains over a homogeneous area for a
western side of the IDL are actually ahead of those on sufficiently long time, it acquires the characteristics of
the eastern side by 24 hours. When you cross from the that area. The air with distinctive characteristics in terms
west to the east, you would “gain” a day, which is why of temperature and humidity is called an air mass.
it is essential to adjust your calendar accordingly. For Statement 1 is incorrect: An Air Mass is a large volume
instance, if it is Monday on the eastern side, it would be of atmospheric air that has almost homogenous (not
Tuesday on the western side of the line. greatly varying) characteristics such as temperature and
6. Consider the following statements about Coriolis force: moisture throughout a significant horizontal distance.
A “Front” is formed when 2 air masses meet. It is typically the
1. It deflects the wind to the left direction in the northern
narrow region where two different types of air masses meet.
hemisphere and to the right in the southern hemisphere.
2. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator. Statement 2 is correct: For an air mass to form, a large
volume of air must remain undisturbed over a specific
3. It is directly proportional to the angle of latitude.
area of land or water for an extended period, allowing
4. The deflection is more when the wind velocity is low. it to aquire the temperature and other characteristics
How many statements given above are correct? of the underlying source region. This condition is only
(a) Only one (b) Only two achievable when wind speeds are low or nonexistent,
(c) Only three (d) All four preventing disturbance of the air mass.
Ans: (b) Statement 3 is incorrect: Air masses are identified based
on whether they form over land or over water. Maritime
The Rotation of the earth about its axis affects the
direction of wind. The Force exerted by the rotation of air masses form over water and are humid. Continental
the earth is known as the Coriolis force after the French air masses form over land and are dry.
Physicist who described it in 1844. An Air Mass often brings changes to the weather in
destinations where it ends up. For example, a tropical
‰ It deflects the wind to the right direction in the
continental air mass moving from North Africa to Europe
northern hemisphere to the left in the southern
hemisphere. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. will bring dry and warm conditions to the otherwise cold
climate over there. Similarly, when two different types of air
‰ The deflection is more when the wind velocity is
masses, such as warm and humid and cold and dry meet, it
high. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect
gives rise to a Front where a rapid change in temperature,
‰ The Coriolis force is directly proportional to the angle humidity, etc gives rise to storm like conditions.
of latitude. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
‰ It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the PW Only IAS Extra Edge
equator. Hence, statement 2 is correct. ‰ Air masses can extend thousands of kilometers
The Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the pressure across the surface of Earth, and can reach from
gradient force. The pressure gradient force is perpendicular ground level to the stratosphere-16 kilometers
to an isobar. The higher the pressure gradient force, the (10 miles) into the atmosphere.
more is the velocity of the wind and the larger is the ‰ Following types of air masses are recognised: (1)
deflection in the direction of wind. As a result of these two Maritime tropical (mT); (2) Continental tropical
forces operating perpendicular to each other, in the low- (cT); (3) Maritime polar (mP); (4) Continental polar
pressure areas the wind blows around it. At the equator, (cP); (5) Continental arctic (CA). Tropical air masses
the Coriolis force is zero and the wind blows perpendicular are warm and polar air masses are cold.
to the isobars. The low pressure gets filled instead of
8. With reference to heating and cooling of the atmosphere,
getting intensified. That is the reason why tropical cyclones
consider the following statements:
are not formed near the equator.
1. The process of vertical heating of the atmosphere is
7. With respect to the Air Masses, consider the following known as advection.
statements: 2. The transfer of heat through the horizontal movement
1. They are very small packets of atmospheric air of air is called convection.
showing great changes in temperature and moisture. Which of the statements given above are correct?
2. They are formed when wind speeds are sufficiently (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
low. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Climatology 51
Ans: (d) Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect: The earth, after being heated (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
by insolation, transmits the heat to the atmospheric (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
layers near to the earth in the long waveform. The air in
contact with the land gets heated slowly, and the upper Ans: (d)
layers in contact with the lower layers also get heated. Main gasses of the atmosphere are nitrogen, oxygen,
This process is called conduction. water vapor, carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide,
and ozone. These gases are extremely important to the
The air in contact with the earth rises vertically on heating
health of the Earth’s biosphere.
in the form of currents and further transmits the heat
of the atmosphere. This process of vertical heating of Statement 1 is correct: Water vapour is a variable gas
the atmosphere is known as convection. The convective in the atmosphere that decreases with altitude. It
transfer of energy is confined only to the troposphere. decreases from the equator towards the poles. The
highest concentrations of water vapour are found near
Statement 2 is incorrect: The transfer of heat through
the equator over the oceans and tropical rainforests.
the horizontal movement of air is called advection. The
Cold polar areas and subtropical continental deserts
horizontal movement of the air is relatively more important
are locations where the volume of water vapour can
than the vertical movement. In middle latitudes, most approach zero per cent.
diurnal (day and night) variations in daily weather are
Statement 2 is correct: Water vapour is Earth’s most
caused by advection alone. In tropical regions, particularly
abundant greenhouse gas, responsible for about half
in northern India, during the summer season, local winds
of the greenhouse effect by trapping the Sun’s heat. It
called ‘loo’ are the outcome of the advection process.
absorbs solar energy and retains Earth’s radiated heat,
9. Consider the following statements with reference to acting like a blanket to maintain a stable temperature,
water vapour present in the atmosphere: making the planet habitable.
1. The amount of water vapour present in the atmosphere Statement 3 is correct: Water vapour has several very
generally decreases with an increase in altitude. important functional roles on our planet. It redistributes
2. A decrease in the amount of water vapour in the air heat energy on the Earth through latent heat energy
from the equator towards the pole is a general trend. exchange. Heat radiated from the Earth’s surface is
3. It acts like a blanket for the earth thus preventing it absorbed by water vapour molecules in the lower
from becoming too hot or too cold. atmosphere. The water vapour molecules, in turn, radiate
heat in all directions. Some of the heat returns to the
How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Earth’s surface. Thus, water vapour is a second source of
(a) Only one (b) Only two warmth (in addition to sunlight) at the Earth’s surface.
(c) All three (d) None
11. With reference to the carbon dioxide, consider the
Ans: (c) following statements:
Statement 1 is correct: Water vapour is also a variable gas 1. It is found in all the layers of the atmosphere.
in the atmosphere, which decreases with altitude. In the
2. Carbon dioxide remains in the atmosphere for
warm and wet tropics, it may account for four per cent of
hundreds of years.
the air by volume, while in the dry and cold areas of deserts
and polar regions, it may be less than one percent of the air. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 2 is correct: Water vapour decreases from the (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
equator towards the poles because insolation decreases (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
as we move from the tropics to the poles, and due to Ans: (b)
this, evaporation also decreases, which results in the Carbon dioxide (CO2) is an important greenhouse gas. It
decrease of vapour in the atmosphere. is naturally available and also released through human
Statement 3 is correct: It also absorbs parts of the insolation activities such as deforestation and burning fossil.
from the sun and preserves the earth’s radiated heat. It, Statement 1 is incorrect: Carbon dioxide and water vapour
thus, acts like a blanket allowing the earth neither to become are found only up to 90 km from the surface of the earth
too cold nor too hot. Water vapour also contributes to the (and not all layers) as the proportion of gases changes in
stability and instability of the atmosphere. the higher layers of the atmosphere. Similarly, oxygen will
10. With reference to ‘Water Vapour in atmosphere’, be almost in negligible quantity at the height of 120 km.
consider the following statements: Statement 2 is correct: Carbon dioxide is the most
1. It is a variable gas in the atmosphere. important of Earth’s long-lived greenhouse gasses. Carbon
dioxide is not destroyed over time, but instead moves
2. It is responsible for about half of Earth’s greenhouse
among different parts of the ocean-atmosphere-land
effect.
system. Some of the excess carbon dioxide is absorbed
3. It redistributes heat energy on the Earth through quickly (for example, by the ocean surface), but some will
latent heat energy exchange. remain in the atmosphere for thousands of years.

52 Physical Geography
 12. In the context of the structure of the atmosphere of the Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Earth, consider the following statements: (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only
1. The activity of convectional currents at the equator (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) All of the above
affects the thickness of the troposphere.
Ans: (d)
2. The air temperature at the tropopause is lower over Statement 1 is correct: While turbulence can occur in the
the equator than over the poles. troposphere and is one of the reasons why commercial
3. The ionosphere is located above the mesopause. jets may avoid certain altitudes within this layer, it’s also
How many of the above statements are correct? true that jets typically cruise at higher altitudes, often
(a) Only one (b) Only two in the lower stratosphere, to reduce turbulence and
improve fuel efficiency.
(c) All three (d) None
Statement 2 is correct: The troposphere contains
Ans: (c) approximately 80% of the mass of the atmosphere of
the earth. The troposphere is closest to the Earth’s
surface, where the gravitational pull is strongest. This
gravitational force keeps the heavier gases, such as
nitrogen and oxygen, closer to the ground.
Statement 3 is correct: The troposphere holds most of
the Earth’s atmospheric moisture, making it the wettest
layer. Weather patterns, clouds, and precipitation are all
found in this layer.
Statement 4 is correct: Its average height is 13km while
it is 8 km near the poles and about 18km at the equator
due to the transportation of heat to the greatest height
by strong convection current.
Fig: Atmospheric Layers of the Earth
Statement 1 is correct: The troposphere is the lowermost 14. Consider the following statements:
layer of the atmosphere. Its average height is 13 km and Statement 1: The thickness of the troposphere is more at
extends roughly to a height of 8 km near the poles and the Equator than at the poles.
about 18 km at the equator. Thickness of the troposphere Statement 2: Heat difference on Earth’s surface causes
is greatest at the equator because heat is transported to the convection currents to rise at greater heights at
great heights by strong convectional currents. warmer places.
Statement 2 is correct: The zone separating the troposphere Which one of the following is correct in respect of the
from stratosphere is known as the tropopause. The air above statements?
temperature at the tropopause is about minus 80 degrees (a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and
Celsius over the equator and about minus 45 degrees Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.
Celsius over the poles. The temperature here is nearly (b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct
constant, and hence, it is called the tropopause. but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for
Statement 3 is correct: The mesosphere lies above the Statement 1.
stratosphere, which extends up to a height of 80 km. In (c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is not correct.
this layer, once again, temperature starts decreasing with (d) Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct.
the increase in altitude and reaches up to minus 100°C
at the height of 80 km. The upper limit of mesosphere Ans: (a)
is known as the mesopause. The ionosphere is located The atmosphere is a vital layer of gases surrounding
between 80 and 400 km above the mesopause. It contains the Earth, essential for sustaining life and influencing
electrically charged particles known as ions, and hence, climate and weather patterns. It is divided into different
it is known as ionosphere. Radio waves transmitted from layers like the Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere,
the earth are reflected back to the earth by this layer. Thermosphere, and Exosphere.
The troposphere is the lowermost layer of the atmosphere.
13. Which of the following statements is/are correct
Its average height is 13 km and extends roughly to a height
regarding the Troposphere? of 8 km near the poles and about 18 km at the equator.
1. Commercial jet aircraft avoid flying in this region The troposphere is thickest at the equator, and much
because of the turbulence present there. thinner at the North and South Poles because the equator
2. Most of the mass of the atmosphere is present in this is warmer and heat is transported to great heights by strong
layer. convection currents. Thus, convection currents transport
3. It is the wettest layer of the atmosphere. heat to greater heights at the equator than the poles due to
4. The height of this layer is highest at the equator and heat differences on Earth. This also implies that the warmer
lowest over the poles. the weather, the thicker the troposphere is.

Climatology 53
 So, Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and 16. With reference to the structure of the atmosphere,
Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1. consider the following statements:
15. Consider the following statements regarding the 1. In the Mesosphere, temperature increases with
Stratosphere: increasing altitude.
2. Radio waves transmitted from the earth are reflected
1. The temperature in this layer decreases at the rate of
back to the earth by the Ionosphere.
1° C for every 165 m of height.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
2. It contains the ozone layer.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
3. All changes in climate and weather take place in this
layer. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Less turbulence in the air makes it ideal for flying Ans: (a)
aircraft. The atmosphere consists of different layers with varying
density and temperature. Density is highest near the
How many of the statements given above are correct?
surface of the earth and decreases with increasing
(a) Only one (b) Only two altitude. The column of the atmosphere is divided into
(c) Only three (d) All four five different layers depending upon the temperature
Ans: (b) condition.
Statement 1 is incorrect: In the troposphere, the Statement 1 is incorrect: Mesosphere is the third layer
temperature decreases with height, but in the of the atmosphere which extends up to a height of 80
stratosphere, it actually increases with height due to the km. In this layer, temperature decreases with increasing
altitude and can drop down up to minus 100°C at the
absorption of UV radiation by the ozone layer.
height of 80 km. The upper limit of the mesosphere is
Statement 2 is correct: The ozone layer, which protects us known as the mesopause.
from harmful solar radiation, is found in the stratosphere.
Statement 2 is correct: The ionosphere is located
between 80 and 400 km above the mesopause. It contains
electrically charged particles known as ions, and hence,
it is known as ionosphere. Radio waves transmitted from
the earth are reflected back to the earth by this layer.
The temperature here starts increasing with height.
The uppermost layer of the atmosphere above the
thermosphere is known as the exosphere.
17. With reference to thermosphere, consider the following
statements:
1. Temperature inversion is one of the features of this
layer of atmosphere.
2. Aurora borealis can be observed in this layer.
3. Meteors vapourise on entering this layer of
atmosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
(a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: Temperature inversion is an
atmospheric condition in which the temperature
increases vertically through a given layer. This
phenomenon can be observed in the stratosphere and
Statement 3 is incorrect: Most weather phenomena occur thermosphere.
in the troposphere, the layer below the stratosphere. Statement 2 is correct: The aurora borealis (or northern
The stratosphere is much more stable and calm. lights) in the Northern Hemisphere, and the aurora
Statement 4 is correct: The stable and laminar airflow in australis (the southern lights) in the Southern Hemisphere
the stratosphere makes it ideal for cruising altitudes for are brilliant natural spectacles that can be seen in the
airplanes, as it experiences less turbulence compared to evening sky, especially in higher latitudes. These occur in
the troposphere. the thermosphere.

54 Physical Geography
 Cause of auroras
The Sun’s corona which is the outermost region of the
Sun’s atmosphere, consisting of plasma (hot ionized
gas)—drives the solar wind (a particle flux of protons
and electrons) away from the Sun. Some of these high-
energy particles strike Earth’s magnetic field and follow
magnetic field lines down into Earth’s atmosphere at the
North and South magnetic poles.
Earth’s atmosphere is mostly made up of nitrogen
and oxygen. Once the solar particles reach Earth’s
atmosphere, they collide with atoms of nitrogen and
oxygen, stripping away their electrons to leave ions
in excited states. These ions emit radiation at various
wavelengths, creating the characteristic colors. Collisions
of solar particles with oxygen produce red or green light;
collisions with nitrogen produce green and purple light.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Meteors burn up in the
Mesosphere because, in the Mesosphere, there are
enough gases to cause friction and create heat. They make
it through the exosphere and thermosphere without much
trouble because those layers don’t have much air. Fig: Vertical Cross Section of the Earth’s atmosphere

18. Consider the following statements regarding the 19. Which of the following will result from the absence of
Ionosphere, present in the atmosphere: ozone in the atmosphere?
1. Many of the low-Earth orbiting satellites are located 1. Photosynthesis would become impossible.
in the ionosphere. 2. Extra-terrestrial objects like meteors would reach
Earth unfiltered.
2. In this layer, the temperature starts decreasing with
increasing height. 3. Cataracts in eyes.
3. Radio waves transmitted from the Earth are reflected 4. Disruption in the marine food chain.
back to the Earth by this layer of atmosphere. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 1 and 4 only
(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
(c) All three (d) None Ans: (a)
Ans: (b) The ozone layer is a thin part of the Earth’s atmosphere
that absorbs almost all of the sun’s harmful ultraviolet
The ionosphere is located within the thermosphere and
light. It is found in the lower stratosphere at a height of
extends from 37 to 190 miles (60-300 km) above the
roughly 20-40 km.
Earth’s surface. It is divided into three regions or layers:
the F-Layer, E-Layer, and D-Layer. Statement 1 is correct: Within days of the ozone layer’s
disappearance, the intensity of the sun’s radiation would
Statement 1 is correct: The ionosphere is home to many make photosynthesis - a process by which plants convert
low-Earth orbiting satellites, including the International light energy into chemical energy to fuel their growth an
Space Station. It also acts as a conduit for many of our impossibility for all. And even these holdouts, primarily
communications signals, such as radio waves and the massive trees, would eventually die, too. Without plants,
signals that make GPS systems work. the food chain would collapse.
Statement 2 is incorrect: In the ionosphere, temperature Statement 2 is incorrect: The mesosphere (and not the
starts increasing with height. The sun’s radiation is so ozone layer) takes care of extraterrestrial objects like
powerful that it ionizes or breaks electrons free from meteors which get burnt up while passing through this
different atoms present in the atmosphere. Ionization layer due to friction.
processes release energy, which heats up the upper Statements 3 and 4 are correct: Stratospheric ozone is
atmosphere. So, temperature increases with height in a naturally occurring gas that filters the sun’s ultraviolet
the ionosphere region by 150-200 km. (UV) radiation. A diminished ozone layer allows more
Statement 3 is correct: Due to the ability of ionized UV radiation to reach the Earth’s surface. For people,
atmospheric gases to refract high frequency, the overexposure to UV rays can lead to skin cancer, cataracts
ionosphere can reflect and modify radio waves directed in the eyes, and weakened immune systems. Increased
into the sky back towards the earth, which helps in UV can also lead to reduced crop yield and disruptions in
communication and navigation over long distances. the marine food chain.

Climatology 55
 20. Consider the following statements with reference to Ans: (d)
terrestrial radiation: Normally, temperature decreases with increase in
1. Earth’s surface is heated up by the long wave solar elevation. It is called normal lapse rate. At times, the
radiation. situations is reversed and the normal lapse rate is
2. The reflected amount of radiation is called the albedo inverted. It is called Inversion of temperature.
of the earth. Option (a) is correct: A long winter night with clear skies
3. Greenhouse gases absorb long-wave radiations. and still air is ideal situation for inversion. The heat of the
Which of the statements given above are incorrect? day is radiated off during the night, and by early morning
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 only hours, the earth is cooler than the air above.
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Option (b) is correct: Over polar areas, temperature
Ans: (b) inversion is normal throughout the year.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The insolation received by the Option (c) is correct: Surface inversion promotes stability
earth is in short waveforms and heats up its surface. in the lower layers of the atmosphere. Smoke and dust
Statement 2 is correct: The reflected amount of radiation particles collect beneath the inversion layer and spread
is called the albedo of the earth. A surface with a high horizontally to fill the lower strata of the atmosphere.
albedo will reflect more sunlight than a surface with low Dense fogs in the mornings are common occurrences,
albedo. Surfaces with high albedos include sand, snow especially during the winter season. This inversion
and ice and some urban surfaces, such as concrete or light- commonly lasts for a few hours until the sun comes up
colored stone. Surfaces with low albedos include forests, and begins to warm the earth.
the ocean, and some urban surfaces, such as asphalt. Option (d) is incorrect: Temperature inversion is not a
Statement 3 is correct: The earth after being heated rare phenomenon; it occurs relatively frequently under
itself becomes a radiating body, and it radiates energy certain conditions, such as clear, calm nights or in areas
to the atmosphere in long wave form. This energy heats with specific topographical features. Hence, Option (d)
up the atmosphere from below. This process is known as is the Answer.
terrestrial radiation. The long wave radiation is absorbed
The inversion takes place in hills and mountains due
by the atmospheric gases particularly by carbon dioxide
to air drainage. Cold air at the hills and mountains,
and the other green house gases. Thus, the atmosphere
is indirectly heated by the Earth’s radiation. produced during the night, flows under the influence of
gravity. Being heavy and dense, the cold air acts almost
21. Consider the following statements with reference to the like water and moves down the slope to pile up deeply in
rate of evaporation of water: pockets and valley bottoms with warm air above. This is
1. It increases with an increase in temperature. called air drainage. It protects plants from frost damage.
2. It increases with a decrease in humidity.
23. Arrange the following surfaces in increasing order of
Which of the statements given above are correct?
their albedo:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
1. Old snow 2. Forest
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Thick cloud 4. Thin Cloud
Ans: (c)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Statement 1 is correct: The rate of evaporation increases
with an increase in temperature. This is because, with (a) 2-4-1-3 (b) 3-2-4-1
an increase in temperature, more particles get enough (c) 2-3-4-1 (d) 2-3-1-4
kinetic energy to go into the vapour state. Ans: (a)
Statement 2 is correct: Humidity is the amount of water Albedo is the portion of solar energy reflected from the
vapour present in the air. The air around us cannot hold surface of the Earth back into space.
more than a definite amount of water vapour at a given
temperature. If the amount of water in the air is already It is a reflection coefficient and has a value of less than
high, the rate of evaporation decreases; thus, the rate of one.
evaporation increases with a decrease in humidity. Option (a) is correct: When solar radiation passes
through the atmosphere, a certain amount of it is
22. With reference to temperature inversion, which of the
following options is incorrect? scattered, reflected and absorbed. The reflected sum
(a) A long winter night with clear skies and still air is an of radiation is called the albedo of the earth. Albedo is
ideal situation for inversion. an important concept in climatology, astronomy, and
environmental management. It plays a major role in
(b) It is normal throughout the year over polar areas.
the energy balance of the earth’s surface, as it defines
(c) The formation of dense fog is the result of this the rate of the absorbed portion of the incident solar
phenomenon. radiation. Different surfaces have different values which
(d) This is quite a rare phenomenon are given in the table below:

56 Physical Geography
 Albedo (reflectivity) of various surfaces- scattered and absorbed. Only the remaining part reaches
the earth surface. Roughly 35 units are reflected back to
Surface Percent Reflected
space even before reaching the earth’s surface.
Fresh snow 80-90 ‰ The remaining 65 units are absorbed, 14 units within
Old snow 50-60 the atmosphere and 51 units by the earth’s surface.
Sand (beach, desert) 20-40 The earth radiates back 51 units in the form of
terrestrial radiation.
Grass 5-25
‰ Of these, 17 units are radiated to space directly and the
Dry soil (plowed field) 15-25 remaining 34 units are absorbed by the atmosphere
Wet earth (plowed field) 10 (6 units absorbed directly by the atmosphere, 9 units
through convection and turbulence and 19 units
Forest 5-10
through latent heat of condensation).
Water (Sun near horizon) 50-80 ‰ The total radiation returning from the earth and the
Water (Sun near zenith) 5-10 atmosphere respectively is 17+48=65 units which
balance the total of 65 units received from the sun.
Thick cloud 70-85
This is termed the heat budget or heat balance of the
Thin cloud 25-30 earth. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
Earth and atmosphere (overall total) 30 26. Consider the following statements:
24. Consider the following statements regarding solar radiation: Statement I: The latitudinal extent of 40°north to 40°
1. Subtropical deserts receive maximum insolation due south is a zone of heat surplus.
to high cloudiness. Statement II: Earth maintains a constant temperature as the
amount of heat received in the form of insolation equals the
2. Continents receive less insolation than oceans at the
amount lost by the Earth through terrestrial radiation.
same latitude.
Which of the following is correct with respect to the
3. Middle and higher latitudes receive less radiation in
above statements?
winter compared to summer.
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and
How many of the statements given above are incorrect?
Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(c) Only three (d) None and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Ans: (b) Statement-I.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Subtropical deserts are known (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
for having very low cloud cover, which allows for more (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
sunlight to reach the ground, contributing to their aridity. Ans: (b)
Statement 2 is incorrect: At the same latitude, continents Statement 1 is correct: There is a surplus (incoming solar
generally receive more insolation than oceans as clouds radiation is greater than outgoing terrestrial radiation)
over the ocean reflect back the sunlight between solar radiation and terrestrial radiation
Statement 3 is correct: Middle and higher latitudes between the 40°north to 40°south and the region near
receive less radiation in winter compared to summer. the poles has a deficit ( terrestrial radiation is greater
This is due to the tilt of the Earth’s axis, which causes the than incoming solar radiation). The surplus heat energy
sun’s rays to hit the poles at an angle in winter, reducing from the tropics is redistributed polewards, and as a
the amount of energy received. result, the tropics do not get progressively overheated.
25. Which of the following statements is not correct Statement 2 is correct: The entire planet does not store
or release heat. It keeps its temperature constant. This
regarding the ‘Heat Budget’ of the Earth?
is only possible if the heat lost by the earth through
(a) Nearly 35 % of insolation does not reach the Earth’s terrestrial radiation is equivalent to the heat absorbed
surface. as insolation. Some energy is reflected, dispersed, and
(b) Earth radiates more than 50 % of received insolation absorbed as it travels through the atmosphere. Only the
in the form of terrestrial radiation. remainder reaches the surface of the earth.
(c) The atmosphere absorbs most terrestrial radiation. (Hence, both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and
Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.)
(d) The total radiation returning from the Earth and the
atmosphere is more than what is received from the Sun. 27. Consider the following statements:
Ans: (d) 1. Infrared rays (IR) possess a longer wavelength than
Consider that the insolation received at the top of the visible light.
atmosphere is 100 percent. While passing through 2. Ultraviolet-C cannot penetrate the earth’s surface as
the atmosphere some amount of energy is reflected, it is absorbed by the ozone layer.

Climatology 57
 Which of the statements given above are correct? The Chlorine-catalyzed ozone depletion is dramatically
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only enhanced in the presence of polar stratospheric clouds
(PSCs). These polar stratospheric clouds provide a
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
surface on which chlorine nitrate formed gets hydrolyzed
Ans: (c) to form hypochlorous acid. It also reacts with hydrogen
Solar radiation represents the energy emitted by the Sun, chloride produced to give molecular chlorine. Hence,
disseminated in all directions through space in the form PSCs don’t prevent the spread of the ozone hole, rather
of electromagnetic waves. Originating from the Sun’s they promote ozone depletion.
surface, this energy significantly influences atmospheric Statement 3 is correct: The thickness of the ozone
and climatological processes. in a column of air from the ground to the top of the
Infrared rays (IR) possess a longer wavelength than visible atmosphere is measured in terms of Dobson units (DU).
light, emitting heat and being radiated by any body with One Dobson unit is equivalent to a layer of pure ozone
a temperature greater than 0º Kelvin. Visible rays (VI), 0.01 mm thick at standard temperature and pressure.
on the other hand, emit light and are the colors (red,
orange, yellow, green, cyan, blue, and violet) perceived 29. With reference to Fog, consider the following statements:
by the human eye. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. 1. Fog are common where warm and cold air currents
Ultraviolet (UV) rays, invisible to the human eye, have the come into contact with each other.
most pronounced impact on the skin, causing burns, spots, 2. Fog contains more moisture than mist.
and wrinkles. They are categorized into three subtypes: Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
‰ Ultraviolet A (UV-A): Easily passing through the (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
atmosphere, with a significant portion reaching the (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
planet’s surface. It can penetrate into the deeper
Ans: (a)
layers of the skin and is responsible for the immediate
Statement 1 is correct: The fog is a cloud with its base
tanning effect. Furthermore, it also contributes to
at or very near the ground in which condensation takes
skin ageing and wrinkling.
place around nuclei provided by the dust, smoke, and
‰ Ultraviolet B (UV-B): Less penetrative through
salt particles. They are prevalent where warm currents
the atmosphere, but still reaching the surface and of air come into contact with cold currents.
responsible for severe skin damage.
Statement 2 is incorrect: One of the differences between
‰ Ultraviolet C (UV-C): This form of ultraviolet radiation
mist and fog is that mist contains more moisture than
cannot penetrate the atmosphere as it is absorbed fog. Mists are frequent over mountains as the rising
by the ozone layer. Hence, Statement 2 is correct. warm air up the slopes meets a cold surface.
28. Consider the following statement regarding the ozone
30. Consider the following factors:
layer:
1. Long winter night with clear skies
1. The ozone layer serves as a shield against UV radiation.
2. Strong vertical winds
2. The polar stratospheric clouds stop the ozone hole
from expanding. 3. Reversal in normal lapse rate
3. Dobson units (DU) are used to measure the thickness How many of the above are responsible for the occurrence
of the ozone layer. of temperature inversion?
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) All three (d) None
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans: (b)
Temperature inversion is a phenomenon in which the
Ans: (c)
normal temperature gradient in the atmosphere is
Statement 1 is correct: The ozone layer is present in the
reversed. Instead of temperatures decreasing with
upper stratosphere as a protective layer against harmful
altitude, as is typical, temperatures increase with altitude
Ultraviolet rays. It is also present in the troposphere as
over a specific layer of the atmosphere. The following are
a pollutant. In the stratosphere, it is a product of UV
the causes of Temperature inversion:
radiations acting on dioxygen (O2) molecules. The UV
radiations split apart molecular oxygen into free oxygen ‰ Long winter nights with clear skies (Hence, statement
(O) atoms. These oxygen atoms combine with the 1 is correct.)
molecular oxygen to form ozone. ‰ Calm and still vertical winds to prevent intermixing
Statement 2 is incorrect: In winter, a special type of of distinct temperature layers (Hence, statement 2
cloud called polar stratospheric clouds is formed over is incorrect.)
Antarctica. They contain water, nitric acid and/or sulfuric ‰ Reversal in normal lapse rate (Hence, statement 3
acid. They are formed mainly during the event of the is correct.)
polar vortex in winter; more intense at the south pole. The inversion takes place in hills and mountains due

58 Physical Geography
 to air drainage. Cold air in the hills and mountains, and organisms. Water covers a very large area of the
produced during the night, flows under the influence of earth’s surface, and this area is called the Hydrosphere.
gravity. Being heavy and dense, the cold air acts almost The Hydrosphere comprises water in all its forms, namely,
like water and moves down the slope to pile up deeply in ice, water, and water vapour. Whereas the gaseous layers
pockets and valley bottoms with warm air above. This is that surround the earth is called the Atmosphere.
called air drainage. 33. Consider the following statements with reference to
31. Consider the following statements: warm temperate eastern margins:
1. In general, the amount of water vapour present in the 1. These areas receive more rainfall than western
air decreases from equator to poles. margins and continental interiors.
2. High concentration of dust particles is prominent in 2. Highland regions in these areas feature broadleaf
the equatorial region due to strong descending winds. deciduous trees akin to tropical monsoon forests.
3. The carbon dioxide gas present in the air absorbs 3. Temperate Eucalyptus forests are prevalent in the
infrared rays, causing global warming. Australian Alps and the Blue Mountains.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 , 2 and 3. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a) Ans: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: In general, water vapour present Statement 1 is correct: The eastern margins of warm
in air decreases from the equator towards poles. In warm temperate latitudes have a much heavier rainfall than
and wet tropics, water vapour may account for four either the western margins or the continental interiors
percent while in dry and cold areas of desert and polar and thus have luxuriant vegetation.
regions it may be less than one percent of air. Statement 2 is incorrect: The lowlands carry both
Statement 2 is incorrect: Higher concentration of dust evergreen broadleaved forests and deciduous trees quite
particles is found in subtropical and temperate regions similar to those of the tropical monsoon forests. On the
due to dry winds in comparison to equatorial and polar highlands, are various species of conifers, such as pines
regions. Dust particles are generally concentrated in and cypresses, which are important soft-woods.
lower layers of the atmosphere, yet conventional Air Statement 3 is correct: Warm temperate eastern margins
currents may transport them to higher altitudes . are the homes of a number of valuable timber species.
Statement 3 is correct: Carbon dioxide present in the In eastern Australia, the most important are eucalyptus
atmosphere soaks up infrared energy, it vibrates and trees, with scanty foliage and thick fern undergrowth.
re-emits the infrared energy back in all directions and Some of the eucalyptus are very tall, over 250 feet and
contributes to the ‘greenhouse effect’ which further they, make hardy timber. The Australian Alps of Victoria
causes global warming. and the Blue Mountains of New South Wales have great
reserves of temperate eucalyptus forests that make up
32. Consider the following statements about the
part of the timber exports of Australia.
Hydrological cycle of the Earth:
1. It renews and recycles the freshwater in ecosystems. 34. Consider the following statements:
2. There is a water exchange between the atmosphere 1. Insolation received during perihelion is more than
and the organisms. aphelion.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? 2. The dew point is below the saturation point of the air.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 3. Intense convection on moist days can produce
thunderstorms.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Ans: (d)
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
Statement 1 is correct: Freshwater is mainly obtained
from precipitation (rain, snow, sleet, or hail that falls (c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only
to or condenses on the ground), surface runoff (the Ans: (d)
unconfined flow of water over the ground surface), Statement 1 is correct: During its revolution around the
and groundwater (subsurface water). It is continually sun, the Earth is farthest from the sun ( 152 million km) on
renewed and recharged through the hydrological cycle. 4th July. This position of the earth is called aphelion. On 3rd
All water moves within the hydrological cycle, ensuring January, the earth is closest to the sun (147 million km) this
that water is a renewable resource. position is known as perihelion. Therefore, the insolation
Statement 2 is correct: The Hydrological cycle is the received by the earth on 3rd January(or perihelion) is slightly
circulation of water within the earth’s hydrosphere in more than the amount received on 4th July (aphelion).
different forms, i.e., liquid, solid, and gaseous phases. It Statement 2 is incorrect: The dew point is the
also refers to the continuous exchange of water between temperature the air needs to be cooled to (at constant
the oceans, atmosphere, land surface and subsurface, pressure) in order to achieve a relative humidity (RH) of

Climatology 59
 100%. At this point, the air cannot hold more water in the 36. Consider the following statements with reference to Fronts:
gaseous form (or saturation point of air). The presence 1. These can occur at all latitudes.
of hygroscopic nuclei is a must for precipitation to start. 2. A stationary front is also referred to as an occluded front.
Statement 3 is correct: A thunderstorm is a well-grown Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
cumulonimbus cloud producing thunder and lightning.
They are of short duration, occurring over a small area (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
but are violent. They are caused by intense convection (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
on moist hot days. Ans: (d)
35. Consider the following pairs: When two different air masses meet, the boundary zone
Fronts Description between them is called a front. The process of forming
fronts is known as frontogenesis.
1. Cold Cold air mass moves towards the warm
Statement 1 is incorrect: The fronts occur in middle latitudes
air mass.
and are characterised by steep gradients in temperature
2. Warm Warm air mass moves towards the cold and pressure. They bring abrupt changes in temperature,
air mass. cause the air to rise to form clouds, and cause precipitation.
3. Occluded Air mass is fully lifted above the land Statement 2 is incorrect: There are four types of fronts:
surface. (a) Cold; (b) Warm; (c) Stationary; (d) Occluded. When
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? the front remains stationary, it is called a stationary front.
(a) Only one (b) Only two When the cold air moves towards the warm air mass, its
(c) All three (d) None contact zone is called the cold front, whereas if the warm
air mass moves towards the cold air mass, the contact
Ans: (c)
zone is a warm front. If an air mass is fully lifted above
When two different air masses meet, the boundary zone
the land surface, it is called the occluded front.
between them is called a front. The process of formation
of the fronts is known as frontogenesis. There are four 37. Consider the following statements about Planetary Winds:
types of fronts: Cold, Warm, Stationary and Occluded. 1. Trade winds constantly blow from the subtropical
‰ When the front remains stationary, it is called a
high-pressure belts to equatorial low-pressure belts.
stationary front. 2. In the northern hemisphere, the westerly winds blow
‰ When the cold air moves towards the warm air mass,
from the southeastern to the northwestern direction.
its contact zone is called the cold front. Hence, Pair 1 3. Polar winds blow from polar high-pressure belts
is correctly matched. towards sub-polar low-pressure belts.
‰ When warm air mass moves towards the cold air How many of the statements given above are correct?
mass, the contact zone is a warm front. Hence, Pair (a) Only one (b) Only two
2 is correctly matched. (c) All three (d) None
‰ When an air mass is fully lifted above the land Ans: (b)
surface, it is called the occluded front. Hence, Pair 3 The winds blowing in more or less similar direction
is correctly matched. throughout the year between the specific pressure belts
The fronts occur in middle latitudes and are characterised are called Planetary winds or Permanent Winds.
by steep gradients in temperature and pressure. They Statement 1 is correct: Trade winds constantly blow from
bring abrupt changes in temperature and cause the air to the subtropical high-pressure belts to equatorial low-
rise to form clouds and cause precipitation. pressure belts in the northern and southern hemispheres.
On account of Coriolis force, they are deflected from
nt
their path (towards right in the northern hemisphere and
Fro towards left in the southern hemisphere).
4000 m rm
Warm air Wa Cold air Statement 2 is incorrect: The planetary winds blowing
Km 600 400 200 0 200 400 600 800 km from the subtropical high-pressure belts towards the
sub-polar low-pressure belts in both hemispheres are
called Westerly winds or westerlies. In the northern
Co

hemisphere, the westerly winds blow from the

ld

4000 m
Fr

Warm air southwestern direction to the northeastern direction.

on

Cold air
t

Km 600 400 200 0 200 400 600 800 km In the southern hemisphere, they blow from the
northwestern direction to the southeastern direction.
Cold Front Statement 3 is correct: Polar winds blow from polar
warm air ont
Fr high-pressure belts towards sub-polar low-pressure
Cold air Warm belts in both the hemispheres between the poles and
Cold air
Occluded Front 60° latitude. The direction of the wind in the northern
hemisphere is from the northeast and in the southern
Fig: Vertical sections of (a) Warm front, (b) Cold front,
hemisphere is from the South-east.
(c) Occluded front

60 Physical Geography
 39. Consider the following pairs:

Type of Wind Characteristics

1. Geostrophic wind Blows parallel to the isobar
2. Foehn wind Cool air of high plateaus and ice
fields draining into the valley
3. Katabatic wind Dry and relatively warm
downslope wind on the lee
side of mountain.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None
Ans: (a)
The pattern of wind circulation is modified in different
Fig: Planetary Winds seasons due to shifting of regions of maximum heating,
38. Consider the following statements about the Planetary pressure and wind belts. Some type of wind explained
winds: below:
1. Trade winds being onshore on the east coast causes Name Description
aridity and formation of deserts.
2. Westerlies plays very crucial role in carrying warm tropical 1. Geostrophic When isobars are straight and when
water and air to western coast of temperate lands. wind there is no friction, the PGF force is
3. Polar easterlies are very weak due to less insolation balanced by coriolis force and resultant
and lesser air mass in higher latitude. wind blows parallel to the isobar.
How many statements given above are correct? Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
(a) Only one (b) Only two 2. Foehn wind. Dry, relatively warm downslope
(c) All three (d) None wind in the lee (downward side) of
Ans: (b) a mountain range. Hence, pair 2 is
‰ Trade winds are the most regular of all the planetary incorrectly matched.
winds. These blow with great force and relatively 3. Katabatic During the night, the slopes get cooled
constant direction. But during summer in South Asia, wind and the dense air descends into the
these winds change drastically and result in South valley as mountain winds. The cool air
west monsoon. Since trade winds blow from the of high plateaus and ice fields draining
Subtropical latitude to further lower latitudes, they into the valley is called Katabatic wind.
have got capacity for holding moisture. In this passage Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched.
across the oceans, they gather moisture and bring Dry, relatively warm downslope
heavy rainfall to the east coast of the continent. As wind in the lee (downward side) of
these are offshore on the west coast, these regions a mountain range. Hence, pair 3 is
suffer from great aridity and form the hot deserts incorrectly matched.
of the world. (Sahara, Atacama, Kalahari, the great
Australian desert). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. 4. Sea breeze During the day the land heats up faster
‰ Westerlies are much less constant and persistent and becomes warmer than the sea.
than the trade winds. These are more variables in Therefore, over land the air rises giving
the northern hemisphere because of the complex rise to a low-pressure area, whereas the
mixture of land and water. Westerlies play a valuable sea is relatively cool and the pressure
role in carrying warm tropical water and air to western over sea is relatively high. Thus, pressure
coast of temperate lands. Westerlies bring much gradient from sea to land is created and
precipitation to the western coast of temperate land the wind blows from the sea to the land
- especially between 40°S and 60°S (because of large as the sea breeze.
oceanic expansion). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
5. Land breeze In the night the reversal of condition
‰ Polar Easterlies are highly variable winds because takes place. The land loses heat
there are large seasonal fluctuations of insolation faster and is cooler than the sea. The
in higher latitude. These are very weak because of pressure gradient is from the land to
lesser amount of insolation and lesser mass of air in the sea and hence land breeze results.
higher latitude. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Climatology 61
 40. In Northern India during summer season, local winds called phenomenon in Kerala and coastal areas of Karnataka.
‘loo’ can be observed to be blown. This wind is mainly the Locally, they are known as mango showers since they
outcome of which one of the following processes? help in the early ripening of mangoes. Hence, Pair 1
(a) Conduction (b) Radiation is correctly matched.
(c) Advection (d) Convection ‰ Blossom Shower: With this shower, coffee flowers
blossom in Kerala and nearby areas. Hence, Pair 2 is
Ans: (c) incorrectly matched.
The Loo is a strong, dusty, gusty, hot and dry summer ‰ Nor Westers: These are dreaded evening thunderstorms
wind from the west which blows over the Indo-Gangetic in Bengal and Assam. Their notorious nature can
Plain region of North India. It is especially strong in be understood from the local nomenclature of
the months of May and June. It is the outcome of the ‘Kalbaisakhi’, a calamity of the month of Baisakh. These
advection process. Advection is a lateral or horizontal showers are useful for tea, jute, and rice cultivation. In
transfer of mass, heat, or other property. Accordingly, Assam, these storms are known as “Bardoli Chheerha.”
winds that blow across Earth’s surface represent Hence, Pair 3 is correctly matched.
advectional movements of air.
‰ Loo: Hot, dry, and oppressing winds blowing in the
Advectional Movements of Air Northern plains from Punjab to Bihar, with higher
Advective winds move from areas of higher temperature intensity between Delhi and Patna. Hence, Pair 4 is
toward areas of lower temperature. In contrast, convection, correctly matched.
the vertical movement of mass or transfer of heat, manifests
42. Consider the following local winds:
itself as air currents. Accordingly, winds are a result of
advection, while air currents are a result of convection. 1. Pampero 2. Bora
3. Foehn or Föhn 4. Mistral
5. Chinook
How many of the above are an example of cold winds?
(a) Two only (b) Three only
(c) Four only (d) All five
Conduction Convection Advection Terrestrial Ans: (b)
Heat is Heated air Horizontal radiation
transferred to expands & transfer of Heat is Local differences in temperature and pressure produce
that part of the rises up heat by wind transferred from local winds. Such winds are local in extent and are
atmosphere the surface of
close to the the earth ot the confined to the lowest levels of the troposphere.
outer space in
hot surface of
the from of long
Cold Winds
the earth
waves ‰ Pampero: A west or southwest wind in Southern
Fig: Types of Heat Transfer Argentina. Hence, point 1 is correct.
‰ Bora: Cold, dry wind; Blows from Hungary to North
41. Consider the following pairs with reference to local
Italy. Hence, point 2 is correct.
storms of the hot weather season in India:
‰ Mistral: very cold and dry with a high speed,
Local storms State channelled through the Rhine valley. It brings blizzards
into southern France. Hence, point 4 is correct.
1. Mango Shower Kerala
Warm Winds
2. Blossom Shower Andhra Pradesh
‰ Loo: Harmful and Warm wind in the plains of
3. Nor Westers West Bengal northern India and Pakistan.
4. Loo Northern Plains ‰ Chinook: It oves down the eastern slopes of the
How many of the pairs given above are incorrectly matched? Rockies (U.S.A. and Canada). It is beneficial to
(a) Only one (b) Only two ranchers east of the rockies as it keeps the grasslands
clear of snow during much of the winter. Hence,
(c) Only three (d) All four
point 5 is incorrect
Ans: (a) ‰ Sirocco: It is a Mediterranean wind that comes from the
The northern portion of the country experiences a period Sahara and reaches hurricane speeds in North Africa
of extreme heat and lowered air pressure during the and Southern Europe. It causes dusty dry conditions
summer. In July, the ITCZ advances northward, assuming along the northern coast of Africa, storms in the
a position centred around 25°N, due to the heating up of Mediterranean Sea and cool wet weather in Europe.
the subcontinent. ‰ Foehn or Fohn: It is a strong, gusty, dry and warm
Some of the important local storms that develop in India are: wind that develops on the leeward side of Alps.It
‰ Mango Shower: Towards the end of summer, there helps animal grazing by melting snow and aids in
are pre-monsoon showers, which are a common ripening of grapes. Hence, point 3 is incorrect.

62 Physical Geography
 43. Consider the following statements regarding Jet stream: Statement 2 is incorrect: These are Upper Tropospheric
1. Eastern jet stream impact southwest monsoon leading Winds. Thus, Jet streams flow just below the Tropopause.
to low rainfall. For example, Polar jet streams flow 6–9 km above the
2. It is characterized by robust vertical and lateral wind shear. ground, and Sub-tropical jet streams flow 10–16 km
above the ground.
3. It flows from east to west due to the earth’s rotation.
Statement 3 is correct: Jet streams play a significant
How many statements given above are correct?
role in determining the weather conditions in the lower
(a) Only one (b) Only two atmosphere. The path followed by temperate cyclones or
(c) All three (d) None mid-altitude weather disturbances is largely controlled
Ans: (a) by these upper circulations. The movement of jet streams
Statement 2 is correct: A jet stream refers to a potent, narrow is also important in determining prolonged periods of
and focused current that exists along a quasi-horizontal axis floods or droughts. Jet streams also affect the regularity
in the upper troposphere and stratosphere. It is recognized by of monsoonal winds.
robust vertical and lateral wind shear and typically includes
one or more regions of maximum wind velocity.
There are two main jet streams that flow near the Himalayas:
‰ Western jet stream to the north.
‰ Eastern jet stream to the South.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The eastern jet stream can
sometimes extend as far South as 15 degree north
latitude. When this happens, it has a big impact on the
southwest monsoon and can lead to heavy rainfall. 45. Consider the following statements regarding the upper
Statement 3 is incorrect: The jet streams circulate air circulation and jet streams in the atmosphere:
from west to east due to the Earth’s rotation, typically 1. Upper air circulation is exactly the same as that of the
observed between the poles and 20 degree latitude in near-surface circulation.
both hemispheres. These jet streams are called westerly 2. Jet streams in Western and Central Asia blow in a
jet streams. Since an easterly jet stream is observed west-to-east direction.
only over southern Asia (and Africa), but not over the 3. Tibetan highlands split the jet stream coming from
Pacific and Atlantic oceans, it is suggested that the Central & Western Asia.
current originates in connection with the large-scale
Which of the statements given above are correct?
arrangement of land masses and oceans, and with the
elevated heat source of the Tibetan plateau. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
44. Consider the following statements with reference to Jet
Streams: Ans: (b)
1. The meandering of jet streams depends upon the Statement 1 is incorrect: Temperature, atmospheric
temperature gradient. pressure and air circulations are quite different in upper
2. Jet streams flow only above the tropopause. part of troposphere as compared with those prevailing
near the earth’s surface. The pattern of air circulation
3. The path of temperate cyclones is largely controlled
near the Earth’s surface is witnessed only at the lower
by Jet streams.
level of the atmosphere near the surface of the Earth.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: Higher up in the lower troposphere, about three km
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only above the surface of the earth, a different pattern of air
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 circulation is observed. The variations in the atmospheric
Ans: (c) pressure closer to the surface of the earth have no role to
Jet streams are bands of strong wind that generally play in the making of upper air circulation.
blow from west to east all across the globe. They impact
weather, air travel and many other things that take place
in our atmosphere.
Statement 1 is correct: When the temperature contrast
reaches its peak, the jet stream tends to flow along a
nearly straight trajectory. However, as the temperature
contrast diminishes, the jet stream begins to adopt a
winding course. Therefore, the degree of meandering is
contingent upon the temperature gradient. If a meander
points towards the poles, it’s termed a peak or ridge, while
if it points towards the equator, it’s referred to as a trough.

Climatology 63
 Statement 2 is correct: All of Western and Central Asia for the formation of white frost are the same as those for
remains under the influence of westerly winds along the formation of dew, except that the air temperature
an altitude of 9-13 km from west to east. These winds must be at or below the freezing point.
blow across the Asian continent at latitudes north of Statement 2 is incorrect: Sleet is frozen raindrops and
the Himalayas roughly parallel to the Tibetan highlands refrozen melted snow water. When a layer of air with a
These are known as jet streams. temperature above freezing point overlies a subfreezing
Statement 3 is correct: Tibetan highlands act as a barrier layer near the ground, precipitation takes place in the
in the path of jet streams from Central and Western Asia. form of sleet. Raindrops, which leave the warmer air,
As a result, jet streams get bifurcated. One of its branches encounter the colder air below. As a result, they solidify
blows to the north of the Tibetan highlands, while the and reach the ground as small pellets of ice not bigger
southern branch blows in an eastward direction, south than the raindrops from which they are formed.
of the Himalayas. It has its mean position at 25°N in
Sometimes, drops of rain, after being released by the
February at 200-300 mb level.
clouds become solidified into small rounded solid pieces
46. Consider the following statements regarding polar vortex: of ice and which reach the surface of the earth are called
1. The polar vortex is a large area of high pressure and hailstones. These are formed by the rainwater passing
cold air surrounding both of the Earth’s poles. through the colder layers. Hailstones have several
2. It always exists near the poles, but weakens in summer concentric layers of ice, one over the other.
and strengthens in winter. 48. Consider the following statements about Indian Ocean
3. It is often associated with large outbreaks of Arctic air Dipole (IOD):
in the United States. 1. The Eastern Indian ocean is warmer than normal water
How many of the above statements are correct? during its positive phase.
(a) Only one (b) Only two 2. The western Indian ocean is warmer than normal
(c) All three (d) None during its negative phase.
Ans: (b) 3. Negative IOD negates the effect of El-Nino in India while
Statement 1 is incorrect: The polar vortex is a large area Positive IOD enhances the effect of EL-Nino in India.
of low pressure and cold air surrounding both of the Which of the following statements given above are correct?
Earth’s poles. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Statement 2 is correct: It always exists near the poles,
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of the above
but weakens in summer and strengthens in winter. The
term “vortex” refers to the counter-clockwise flow of air Ans: (d)
that helps keep the colder air near the Poles. Indian Ocean Dipole is an oceano-atmospheric oscillation
Statement 3 is correct: Many times during winter in system in the Indian ocean where the temperature
the northern hemisphere, the polar vortex will expand, patterns of eastern and western Indian ocean change. It
sending cold air southward with the jet stream (see has three phases: Neutral, Positive and Negative.
graphic below). This occurs fairly regularly during ‰ Neutral Phase: During this Phase water flows from the
wintertime and is often associated with large outbreaks Pacific between Indonesia’s islands, keeping seas warm
of Arctic air in the United States. The one that occurred to northwest of Australia. Air rises above this area and
January 2014 is similar to many other cold outbreaks falls across the western half of the Indian ocean basin,
that have occurred in the past, including several notable blowing westerly winds along the equator.
colder outbreaks in 1977, 1982, 1985 and 1989.
‰ Positive IOD: During this, western Indian ocean is
47. Consider the following statements: warmer than normal while the eastern Indian ocean
1. Frost forms when the dew point is at or below the is cooler. During Positive IOD, there is a rainfall excess
freezing point. in south Asia including India thus negating the effect
2. Sleet is a type of precipitation that has several of El-Nino while during negative IOD, there is rainfall
concentric layers of ice. deficit in India While excess in Australia. Hence,
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Statement 1 and 3 are incorrect.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only ‰ Negative IOD: During this, eastern Indian ocean is
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 warmer than normal and western Indian ocean is
cooler than normal. The negative phase of the IOD
Ans: (a)
brings about the opposite conditions, with warmer
Statement 1 is correct: Frost forms on cold surfaces
water and greater precipitation in the eastern Indian
when condensation takes place below the freezing point
Ocean, and cooler and drier conditions in the west.
i.e. the dew point is at or below the freezing point. The
The IOD weekens the strength of monsoons over the
excess moisture is deposited in the form of minute ice
crystals instead of water droplets. The ideal conditions Indian subcontinent. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

64 Physical Geography
 49. Match the following: 50. Consider the following statements with reference to the
Clouds Features type of clouds:
1. Shelf clouds are commonly associated with strong
1. Cirrus A. Cotton wool appearance and flat base.
storm systems.
2. Nimbus B. Extensive, layered clouds covering 2. Wall clouds rotate on a vertical axis and are usually
significant sky sections. under a rain-free cloud base.
3. Stratus C. Dark, shapeless, dense, sun- Which of the statements given above are correct?
blocking opacity. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
4. Cumulus D. Thin, feather-like appearance, (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
composed of ice crystals.
Ans: (c)
Which of the following options is correct?
Statement 1 is correct: Shelf clouds, also known as Arcus
(a) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A (b) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B clouds, are commonly associated with strong storm systems
(c) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D (d) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B and are often mistaken for wall clouds, funnel clouds, or
Ans: (a) signs of rotation. These clouds typically form beneath
‰ Cirrus clouds: cumulonimbus clouds, the towering formations responsible
for heavy rain and severe weather. Shelf clouds usually
• These clouds are thin and separate, exhibiting a
precede powerful thunderstorms that bring intense rainfall,
delicate, feather-like appearance. They develop at
strong winds, and sometimes hail or tornadoes.
elevated heights ranging from 8,000 to 12,000 meters
and are always white, composed of ice crystals. When a cold downdraft from a cumulonimbus cloud hits
‰ Nimbus clouds:
the ground, it spreads out quickly, displacing warm, moist
air upwards. This rising warm air condenses as it cools,
• Forming at intermediate altitudes or extremely
leading to the formation of clouds. This process creates
close to the Earth’s surface, nimbus clouds lack
the shelf cloud’s characteristic horizontal structure.
specific shapes. They possess a dark, black, or
deep grey coloration and exhibit exceptionally Statement 2 is correct: Wall clouds rotate on a vertical
dense, sun-blocking opacity. axis, sometimes strongly. They are much smaller and
• Nimbus clouds appear as shapeless masses of more compact than shelf clouds and are usually under a
thick vapor, with cumulonimbus clouds extending rain-free cloud base.
into high levels due to strong vertical updrafts. 51. With reference to the sources of fresh water on Earth,
consider the following:
1. Glacials and ice caps 2. Groundwater
3. Lakes and reservoir
Which one of the following correctly represents the
decreasing order of fresh water availability from the
above-mentioned sources?
(a) 1-2-3 (b) 2-3-1
(c) 3-2-1 (d) 2-1-3
Ans: (a)
The distribution of water on Earth is vast, with various
reservoirs containing different percentages of the total
water
‰ Oceans: Oceans contain about 96.5% of the Earth’s
water (Saline and Fresh combined). They are by far
the largest reservoir of water.
Fig: Common types of clouds in troposphere
‰ Glaciers and Ice Caps: Glaciers and ice caps,
‰ Stratus clouds: collectively known as ice masses, hold around 68.7%
• These are extensive, layered clouds that cover of the Earth’s water (fresh). They are the second-
significant portions of the sky. largest reservoir (overall) and the largest reservoir of
• They form due to the loss of heat or the mixing of fresh water.
air masses with different temperatures. ‰ Groundwater: Groundwater represents about 30.1%
‰ Cumulus clouds: of the Earth’s water(fresh). It is stored in underground
• Resembling cotton wool with a flat base, cumulus aquifers and is a vital source of freshwater.
clouds typically form at heights ranging from ‰ Ground Ice and Permafrost: These are the third
4,000 to 7,000 meters and exist in patches. largest reservoir of fresh water on earth having
‰ Thus, Option (a) is the correct answer. 0.83% of fresh water.

Climatology 65
 ‰ Lakes and Reservoirs: These are the fourth largest 53. The average annual rainfall of this region is more than
source of fresh water on earth comprising around 200 cm. It receives most of its rainfall from the Arabian
0.25% of fresh water. (Hence, option (a) is correct.) stream of the South-West Monsoon. Its average annual
range of temperature lies around 4°C. The annual range
of temperature increases from south to north.
Which of the following regions is best described in the
above para?
(a) Konkan coast
(b) Tamil Nadu coast
(c) Areas of Gujarat and Maharashtra
(d) Areas of Orissa and West Bengal
Ans: (a)
The Konkan coast stretches from the mouth of Tapi river
to Goa. The average annual rainfall is more than 200 cm,
of which over 90 per cent is recorded from the Arabian
stream of the South-West Monsoon. The mean January
temperature remains around 24°C while the mean July
temperature reads about 27°C. The average annual range
Fig: Distribution of Water on Earth of temperature varies between 3°C to 6°C depending on
the distance from the coast and the equator. The annual
52. With reference to Relief rainfall, consider the following range of temperature increases from south to north.
statements: Hence, Option (a) is the correct answer.
1. This type of rainfall is closely associated with warm ‰ On the Tamil Nadu coast, average annual rainfall
and cold fronts. varies between 100-150 cm. Most of the rainfall is
2. The leeward slopes receive greater rainfall. recorded during the season of retreating monsoon
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? (October to December).
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only ‰ The regions of Gujarat, south-western Madhya
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka and greater parts
of Andhra Pradesh. Being in the rain-shadow area
Ans: (c) of the Western Ghats, this region receives relatively
Statement 1 is incorrect: Orographic or Relief rain occurs less rainfall of about 75 cm.
when a saturated air mass is lifted across a topographic
54. Consider the following statements:
barrier, e.g., a mountain. Convergence or Cyclonic Rainfall
1. A cyclone is preceded by an increase in the atmospheric
is associated with warm and cold fronts (not Orographic/
pressure of a region.
Relief Rain).
2. An Anticyclone is characterised by a clear sky and calm
Statement 2 is incorrect: The air mass is forced to rise air.
and expand as air mass rises against the windward slope.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
As a result, the temperature falls below the dew point
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
and the moisture condenses to form clouds, causing
widespread rain on the windward slopes of the mountain (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
range. However, when these winds descend along the Ans: (b)
leeward slopes, they get warm and cause very little rain. Statement 1 is incorrect: A cyclone is a large-scale
The region lying on the leeward side of the mountain system of air that rotates around the centre of a low-
receives little rainfall and is called the rainshadow area. pressure area. As a cyclone approaches, atmospheric
pressure typically decreases, not increases. It is usually
accompanied by violent storms and bad weather. A
cyclone is characterised by inward spiralling winds that
rotate anti-clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and
clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.
Statement 2 is correct: An anticyclone is an area of high
pressure in the centre. The pressure gradient is gentle
and the winds are light. Anticyclones normally herald
fine weather. It is characterised by clear skies and calm
air is calm and temperatures are high in summer but cold
in winter. Anticyclonic conditions may last for days or
Fig: Diagram of Orographic/Relief Rainfall weeks and then fade out quietly.

66 Physical Geography
 55. Consider the following statements about tropical cyclones: Statement 2 is correct: Tropical cyclones are those that
1. They form over warm ocean waters with temperatures develop in the regions between the Tropics of Capricorn
above 27°C. and Cancer. They are the most devastating storms on Earth.
Such cyclones develop when thunderstorm activity starts
2. The Coriolis effect causes cyclones to spin anticlockwise
building close to the centre of circulation, and the strongest
in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the
winds and rain are no longer in a band far from the centre.
Southern Hemisphere.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The process of naming cyclones
3. They are more strong over land compared to oceans.
in the Indian Ocean region began in 2000, following a
Which of the above statements are correct? decision by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO)
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only and its regional bodies. The naming of cyclones is done by
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 countries on a rotational basis, following certain existing
Ans: (a) guidelines. The naming of cyclones in the Indian Ocean
Tropical cyclones are important on Earth for transferring follows a set of guidelines established by the WMO’s
heat and energy between the equator and the poles. Low Regional Specialized Meteorological Center in New Delhi,
pressure occurs on either side of the equator and together India, known as the Tropical Cyclone Warning Center.
with the air heated over the warm tropical ocean, results in 57. Consider the following statements:
thundery showers. Occasionally, these thundery showers Statement I: Tropical cyclones are not formed at the equator.
group together creating rapidly rising warm air which Statement II: The Coriolis force is zero at the equator, which
leads to the development of a low pressure centre. Several prevents the intensification of the low-pressure areas.
conditions are needed for a tropical cyclone to form: Which one of the following is correct in respect of the
‰ High sea temperatures of at least 27°C. Hence, above statements?
statement 1 is correct. (a) Both statements are correct and statement and II is
‰ Converging winds near the ocean surface forcing air the correct explanation of statement I
to rise and form storm clouds. (b) Both statements are correct but statement and II is
‰ Winds that do not vary greatly with height - known not the correct explanation of statement I.
as low wind shear. This allows the storm clouds to (c) Statement I is correct, and statement II is incorrect.
rise vertically to high levels; (d) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is correct.
‰ Sufficient distance from the equator for a spin such Ans: (a)
as the Coriolis force to take effect. The Coriolis The Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the pressure
effect causes cyclones to spin anticlockwise in the gradient force. The pressure gradient force is perpendicular
Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern to an isobar. The higher the pressure gradient force, the
Hemisphere. Hence, statement 2 is correct. more is the velocity of the wind and the larger is the
Statement 3 is incorrect: Tropical cyclones are weaker deflection in the direction of wind. As a result of these two
over land compared to oceans primarily due to several forces operating perpendicular to each other, in the low-
key factors: pressure areas, the wind blows around it. This flow of air
‰ Lack of Moisture in a circular fashion is called a cyclone. As the Coriolis force
‰ Rough Terrain at the equator is zero, it prevents the intensification of the
‰ Loss of Heat low pressure in the tropical regions. Thus tropical cyclones
‰ Increased Friction are not formed at the equator.
‰ Drier Air 58. Which among the following conditions are favourable
56. Consider the following statements: for the formation of tropical cyclones?
1. The cyclone gets most of its energy from the latent 1. Large sea surface with temperature higher than 27°C
heat released from water vapour. 2. Absence of Coriolis force
2. Tropical cyclones develop in the regions between the 3. High variations in the vertical wind speed
Tropics of Capricorn and Cancer. 4. Weak low pressure area
3. The naming of cyclones in the Indian Ocean region is
Select the correct answer using codes given below:
done by the World Meteorological Organization.
How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
(c) All three (d) None Ans: (c)
Ans: (b) Tropical cyclones are violent storms that originate over
Statement 1 is correct: A tropical cyclone gets most of oceans in tropical areas and move over to the coastal areas
its energy from the ‘latent heat’ released when water bringing about large scale destruction caused by violent
vapour that has evaporated from warm ocean waters winds, very heavy rainfall and storm surges. This is one of
condenses into liquid water. Moreover, warm fronts or the most devastating natural calamities. They are known
cold fronts aren’t associated with tropical cyclones. as Cyclones in the Indian Ocean, Hurricanes in the Atlantic,

Climatology 67
 Typhoons in the Western Pacific and South China Sea, and 1. The extra-tropical cyclones have a clear frontal system
Willy-willies in the Western Australia. Tropical cyclones which is not present in the tropical cyclones.
originate and intensify over warm tropical oceans. 2. The extra tropical cyclones move from east to west
The conditions favourable for the formation and but tropical cyclones move from west to east.
intensification of tropical storms are: 3. Tropical cyclones can originate only over the seas
‰ Large sea surface with temperature higher than 27° while extra tropical cyclones can originate at both
C. Hence, statement 1 is correct. land and sea.
‰ Presence of the Coriolis force. Hence, statement 2 Which of the statements given above are correct?
is incorrect.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
‰ Small variations in the vertical wind speed. Hence,
statement 3 is incorrect. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
‰ A pre-existing weak low-pressure area or low-level- Ans: (b)
cyclonic circulation. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Extra tropical cyclones:
‰ Upper divergence above the sea level system. The systems developing in the mid and high latitude,
The energy that intensifies the storm, comes from the beyond the tropics are called the middle latitude or extra
condensation process in the towering cumulonimbus tropical cyclones. The passage of the front causes abrupt
clouds, surrounding the centre of the storm. With changes in the weather conditions over the area in the
continuous supply of moisture from the sea, the storm is middle and high latitudes. Extra tropical cyclones form
further strengthened. On reaching the land the moisture along the polar front. Initially, the front is stationary.
supply is cut off and the storm dissipates. The place In the northern hemisphere, warm air blows from the
where a tropical cyclone crosses the coast is called the south and cold air from the north of the front. When
landfall of the cyclone. The cyclones, which cross 20° N the pressure drops along the front, the warm air moves
latitude and recurve, they are more destructive. northwards and the cold air moves towards, south
59. Which one of the following statements is incorrect setting in motion an anticlockwise cyclonic circulation.
regarding the extra-tropical cyclones? The cyclonic circulation leads to a well developed extra
(a) These systems develop in the mid and high latitudes, tropical cyclone, with a warm front and a cold front. The
beyond the tropics. processes of wind circulation both at the surface and
(b) They affect a much larger area as compared to the aloft are closely interlinked.
tropical cyclone. The extra tropical cyclone differs from the tropical
(c) They have a clear frontal system which is not present cyclone in number of ways:
in tropical cyclones. ‰ The extra tropical cyclones have a clear frontal
(d) They originate only over the seas and on reaching the system which is not present in the tropical cyclones.
land they dissipate. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Ans: (d) ‰ The extra tropical cyclones can originate both over
Option (a) is correct: The systems developing in the mid the land and sea Whereas the tropical cyclones
and high latitude, beyond the tropics are called the middle originate only over the seas and on reaching the land
latitude or extra tropical cyclones. The passage of front they dissipate. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
causes abrupt changes in the weather conditions over the ‰ The extra tropical cyclone affects a much larger area
area in the middle and high latitudes. Extra tropical cyclones as compared to the tropical cyclone.
form along the polar front. Initially, the front is stationary. ‰ The wind velocity in a tropical cyclone is much higher
The extra tropical cyclone differs from the tropical and it is more destructive.
cyclone in number of ways.
‰ The extra tropical cyclones move from west to east
Option (b) is correct: The extra tropical cyclones have a clear but tropical cyclones move from east to west. Hence,
frontal system which is not present in the tropical cyclones.
statement 2 is incorrect.
Option (c) is correct: The extra tropical cyclone affects a
much larger area as compared to the tropical cyclone. The PW Only IAS Extra Edge
wind velocity in a tropical cyclone is much higher and it is Tropical Extra-Tropical
more destructive. The extra tropical cyclones move from Feature
Cyclone Cyclone
west to east but tropical cyclones, move from east to west.
Formation Over warm At the boundary of
Option (d) is incorrect: They cover a larger area and can
ocean waters warm and cold air
originate over the land and sea. Whereas the tropical
near the masses
cyclones originate only over the seas and on reaching the
land they dissipate. equator
Energy Warm ocean Temperature contrast
60. Consider the following statements with reference to
Source water between air masses
Tropical and Extra tropical cyclones:

68 Physical Geography
 Ans: (b)
Structure Well-defined Less organized Option (b) is correct: Landfall is the event of a tropical
eye, spiral structure, with fronts cyclone coming onto land after being over water. As per the
bands of and pressure systems IMD, a tropical cyclone is said to have made landfall when
clouds and the centre of the storm – or its eye – moves over the coast.
thunderstorms Crucially a landfall should not be confused with a ‘direct hit’,
Wind Higher wind Generally lower wind which refers to a situation where the core of high winds (or
Speed speeds speeds eyewall) comes onshore but the centre of the storm may
Size Smaller in size Larger in size remain offshore. As per the US’s National Oceanic and
Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), because the strongest
Movement Generally west Can move in various
winds in a tropical cyclone are not located precisely at the
to east directions
centre, it is possible for a cyclone’s strongest winds to be
Occurrence Primarily in Common in mid- experienced over land, even if landfall does not occur.
tropical and latitudes
subtropical 63. Consider the following:
regions 1. Coastal belt plantation 2. Hazard Mapping
Examples Hurricanes, Nor’easters, winter 3. Land Use Control 4. Engineered structures
typhoons, storms How many of the above techniques can be used to reduce
cyclones the impact of a Cyclone?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
61. Which of the following statements are correct about
thunderstorms? (c) Only three (d) All four
1. It is produced by a well grown cumulonimbus cloud. Ans: (d)
2. It is caused by intense convection on moist hot days. Cyclone is a region of low atmospheric pressure
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: surrounded by high atmospheric pressure resulting
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only in swirling atmospheric disturbance accompanied by
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 powerful winds blowing in anticlockwise direction in the
Ans: (c) Northern Hemisphere and in the clockwise direction in
the Southern Hemisphere.
Thunderstorm are a violent short-lived weather
disturbance that is almost always associated with They cause a lot of Damage to the lives and property
lightning, thunder, dense clouds, heavy rain or hail, and of human beings. Therefore, to reduce the impact of
strong gusty winds. cyclones, we need to take the following measures:
Statement 1 is correct: Thunderstorms arise when layers ‰ Coastal belt plantation: Green belt plantation along
of warm, moist air rise in a large, swift updraft to cooler the coastal line in a scientific interweaving pattern
regions of the atmosphere. There the moisture contained can reduce the impact of a cyclone. Forests act as a
in the updraft condenses to form towering cumulonimbus buffer zone against strong winds and Storm surges.
clouds and, eventually, precipitation. Columns of cooled Hence, statement 1 is correct.
air then sink earthward, striking the ground with strong ‰ Hazard mapping: Cyclones can be predicted several
downdrafts and horizontal winds. At the same time, days in advance. Past records and paths can give the
electrical charges accumulate on cloud particles (water pattern of occurrence, and a hazard map prepared
droplets and ice). Lightning discharges occur when the accordingly is useful in estimating the severity of the
accumulated electric charge becomes sufficiently large. cyclone and in planning mitigation strategies. Hence,
Statement 2 is correct: A thunderstorm is characterised statement 2 is correct.
by intense updraft of rising warm air (Intense convection), ‰ Land use control: Land use control is designed so that
which causes the clouds to grow bigger and rise to greater the least critical activities are placed in vulnerable
height. This causes precipitation. Later, downdraft brings areas. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
down to earth the cool air and the rain. These violent storms
‰ Engineered structures: Sturdy structures with built-
are the manifestation of the atmosphere’s adjustments to
varying energy distribution. The potential and heat energies in fail-safes can help in disaster risk reduction in
are converted into kinetic energy in these storms and the cyclone prone areas. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
restless atmosphere again returns to its stable state. 64. Consider the following pairs regarding the different
62. In the context of cyclones, the term ‘Landfall’ refers to regional names of cyclones:
(a) It denotes heavy rainfall in a particular place. Regional Name Associated Region
(b) It denotes an event when a tropical cyclone comes 1. Hurricane Australia
onto land after being over water.
2. Typhoons Atlantic
(c) It refers to the situation of flash floods in urban areas.
3. Willie-Willie Eastern Pacific
(d) None of the above

Climatology 69
 How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? ‰ During some years, trade winds weaken and warm
(a) Only one (b) Only two water from the coast of Australia moves towards the
(c) All three (d) None south American coast. This changes the temperature
and pressure conditions in some parts of the Pacific.
Ans: (d) This phenomenon is known as El-Nino. El-Nino has
Cyclones occur mainly in the tropical and temperate a profound impact on summer monsoonal rainfall
regions of the world. Cyclones are called by various across India, as most major droughts occur during El
names in different parts of the world such as: nino events. But it has also been observed that El-
‰ Cyclones in the Indian Ocean, Nino is positively related to the north-east monsoon.
‰ Hurricanes in the Atlantic, For example- 2015 was the El-nino year when the
‰ Typhoons in the Western Pacific and South China Sea, southwest monsoon had a deficit of 14% while
‰ and Willy-willies in Western Australia.
northeast monsoon had a surplus of 32%. Hence,
statement 1 is incorrect.
65. Which of the following are implications of El Nino in the
‰ La-nina is the opposite of El-nino, where the trade
Eastern Pacific region?
winds strengthen and a low pressure along the
1. Distortion in equatorial atmospheric circulations.
Australian coast intensifies. It is a positive extreme
2. Irregularities in the evaporation of seawater. of Walker cell, which is caused by pressure gradient
3. Reduction in the amount of plankton. force that results from a high pressure system over
Select the correct answer using the code given below. the eastern Pacific ocean, and a low pressure system
(a) 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only system over Indonesia and nearby regions. During La-
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3. Nina events, above average rainfall is witnessed in the
Indian sub-continent. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Ans: (d)
‰ El-Nino Modoki is the temperature anomaly in the
Every three to seven years, a complicated weather
central Pacific where the temperature of central
system called EI-Nino causes droughts, floods, and other
Pacific fluctuate w.r.t. Eastern and western Pacific.
extreme weather conditions in many parts of the world.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
With the emergence of warm currents off the coast of Peru
in the Eastern Pacific, the system encompasses both oceanic Feature El Niño La Niña
and atmospheric processes and influences weather in many Meaning Spanish for Spanish for “The
countries, including India. EI-Nino is an extension of the “The Little Boy” Little Girl”
warm equatorial current, which gets replaced temporarily
by the cold Peruvian current or Humboldt current. The Sea Surface Warmer than Cooler than average
water temperature along the Peruvian coast is raised by Temperature average in the in the eastern Pacific
about 10°C. This results in the following implications: eastern Pacific
‰ The distortion of equatorial atmospheric circulation. Trade Winds Weakened Strengthened
‰ Irregularities in the evaporation of sea water. Atmospheric Higher pressure Lower pressure in
‰ Reduction in the amount of plankton, which further Pressure in the eastern the eastern Pacific,
reduces the number of fish in the sea. Pacific, lower higher in the western
in the western Pacific
66. El Nino Southern Oscillation (ENSO) is a recurring
Pacific
oceano-atmospheric condition in the south equatorial
Pacific. In light of this Consider the following statements Upwelling Reduced Increased upwelling
1. El nino is negatively related to north-east monsoon upwelling off off South America
and summer monsoon. South America
2. La- Nina is the negative extreme of the walker cell. Rainfall Increased Decreased rainfall
3. El- Nino Modoki is the temperature anomaly of central Patterns rainfall in the in the central and
Pacific where the temperature of central Pacific central and eastern Pacific,
fluctuate w.r.t. Eastern and western pacific. eastern Pacific, increased in the
How many of the above statements are correct? decreased in western Pacific
(a) Only one (b) Only two the western
(c) All three (d) None Pacific
Ans: (a) Global Can lead to Can lead to different
Under normal conditions, the trade winds blow offshore Impacts droughts, weather patterns
from the Pacific coast of South America. It takes warm floods, and than El Niño, often
tropical surface water towards the Pacific coast of extreme with opposite effects
Australia. As a result, a warm western Pacific pool forms weather events
along the Australian coast while the South American in various
coast becomes the zone of upwelling. regions

70 Physical Geography
 67. These forests thrive in regions with high humidity and Tropical evergreen forests are not only vital for the
consistent temperatures, typically between 15 to 30 environment but also hold immense cultural and
degrees Celsius. The soils in these forests are often poor economic value for many communities around the world.
in nutrients due to the rapid decomposition of organic
68. It is extensively found to the north and south of the
matter and leaching caused by heavy rainfall. Common
Amazon forest in Brazil. The wet season is shorter and
tree species include mahogany, teak, and various types
the dry season is longer with the drought being more
of palms and hardwoods.
severe. Temperature is high throughout the year and
Which one of the following forests is best described by
diurnal ranges of temperature are the greatest in the dry
the above passage?
season. Deciduous forest and tree-shredded grasslands
(a) Moist deciduous forest are the vegetation found in this climate.
(b) Tropical evergreen forest Which of the following types of climate is described in
(c) Montane forest the above passage?
(d) Littoral and swamp Forest (a) Subtropical steppe
Ans: (b) (b) Subtropical Desert
Tropical evergreen forests are lush, dense, and vibrant (c) Tropical Wet and Dry Climate
ecosystems found near the equator, where temperatures are (d) Mediterranean Climate
consistently warm and rainfall is abundant throughout the Ans: (c)
year. Here are some key features and aspects of these forests: The tropical group is divided into three types:
‰ Biodiversity: These forests are incredibly rich in ‰ Af- Tropical wet climate
species. They are home to a wide variety of plants, ‰ Am - Tropical monsoon climate
animals, fungi, and microorganisms. The diversity
‰ Aw- Tropical wet and dry climate:
includes many species of trees, shrubs, vines, and
epiphytes, as well as a myriad of animals such as Option (c) is correct: Tropical wet and dry climate occurs
insects, birds, mammals, and reptiles. north and south of Af type climate regions. It borders
with dry climate on the western part of the continent
‰ Vegetation: Tropical evergreen forests are
and Cf or Cw on the eastern part. Extensive Aw climate
characterized by a dense canopy of trees that remain
is found to the north and south of the Amazon forest
green year-round. Common tree species include
in Brazil and adjoining parts of Bolivia and Paraguay in
mahogany, teak, and various types of palms and
South America, Sudan and south of Central Africa. The
hardwoods. The forest layers include the emergent
annual rainfall in this climate is considerably less than
layer, the canopy, the understory, and the forest floor,
that in Af and Am climate types and is variable also. The
each supporting different types of plants and animals.
wet season is shorter and the dry season is longer with
‰ Climate: These forests thrive in regions with high the drought being more severe. Temperature is high
humidity and consistent temperatures, typically throughout the year and diurnal ranges of temperature
between 15 to 30 degrees Celsius. They receive a high are the greatest in the dry season. Deciduous forest and
amount of rainfall, often exceeding 2,000 mm (79 tree-shredded grasslands occur in this climate.
inches) annually, which supports their lush vegetation.
Option (d) is incorrect: Mediterranean climate occurs
‰ Soil: The soils in tropical evergreen forests are often around the Mediterranean sea, along the west coast
poor in nutrients due to rapid decomposition of of continents in subtropical latitudes between 30° - 40°
organic matter and leaching caused by heavy rainfall. latitudes e.g. Central California, Central Chile, along
However, the rapid nutrient cycling supports the the coast in south eastern and south western Australia.
dense vegetation. These areas come under the influence of subtropical
‰ Ecological Role: These forests play a crucial role high in summer and westerly wind in winter. Hence, the
in regulating global climate, carbon storage, and climate is characterised by hot, dry summers and mild,
water cycles. They also provide habitat for countless rainy winters. Monthly average temperature in summer
species and help maintain biodiversity. is around 25° C and in winter below 10°C. The annual
‰ Threats: Tropical evergreen forests face significant precipitation ranges between 35 - 90 cm.
threats from deforestation, logging, agriculture, Option (a) and (b) are incorrect: Subtropical steppe (BSh)
and climate change. These activities can lead to and subtropical desert (BWh) have common precipitation
habitat loss, reduced biodiversity, and disruption of and temperature characteristics. Located in the transition
ecological balance. zone between humid and dry climates, subtropical steppe
‰ Conservation: Efforts to conserve these forests receives slightly more rainfall than the desert, adequate
include establishing protected areas, promoting enough for the growth of sparse grasslands. The rainfall
sustainable land use practices, and engaging in in both the climates is highly variable. The variability in
reforestation and restoration projects. International the rainfall affects the life in the steppe much more than
cooperation and local community involvement are in the desert, more often causing famine. Rain occurs in
also vital for effective conservation. short intense thunderstorms in deserts and is ineffective

Climatology 71
 in building soil moisture. Fog is common in coastal deserts currents may be warm or cold. Some of the cold currents
bordering cold currents. Maximum temperature in the are as follows- Labrador Current, Falkland Current,
summer is very high. The highest shade temperature of 58° Humboldt Current, Oyashio Current, Canary Current etc.
C was recorded at Al Aziziyah, Libya on 13 September 1922. Some of the Warm ocean currents are- The Gulf Stream,
The annual and diurnal ranges of temperature are also high. Kuroshio current, Agulhas Current, Alaska Current,
69. “Winters are long and very severe; summers are cool Florida Current, etc.
and brief. In some areas of this climate, there are weeks 71. Which of the following statements(s) is/are correct
of continuous darkness.” regarding the climate in the Amazon basin?
Which one of the following climatic regions is best
1. The Amazon Basin lies along the equator and is
described by the above paragraph?
known for its consistently warm and moist weather
(a) Polar Climate throughout the year.
(b) Cool temperate Eastern margin 2. Rainfall occurs nearly every day, as thundershowers
(c) Cool temperate Western margin in the afternoon.
(d) Humid Subtropical climate Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Ans: (a) (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
The polar type of climate and vegetation is found mainly (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
north of the Arctic Circle in the northern hemisphere. The
ice caps are confined to Greenland and to the highlands Ans: (c)
of these high-latitude regions, where the ground is Statement 1 is correct: The Amazon River Basin lies
permanently snow-covered. The lowlands, with a few along the equator, covering multiple South American
months ice-free, have tundra vegetation. countries, and is renowned for its consistently warm and
In the southern hemisphere, the virtually uninhabited moist climate year-round.
continent of Antarctica is the greatest single stretch of icecap Statement 2 is correct: The Amazon Basin is known for
where the layers of permanent ice are as thick as 10,000 feet. its frequent rainfall, often occurring daily without much
The polar climate is characterized by a very low mean advance warning. This region experiences heavy and
annual temperature and its warmest month is June (in sudden rain showers, contributing to its lush rainforest
Northern hemisphere). Normally not more than four ecosystem. These rain showers are a key component of
months have temperatures above freezing-point. the region’s unique climate and biodiversity.
Winters are long and very severe; summers are cool and 72. ‘In these regions the cyclonic rainfall is prevalent due to
brief. Within the Arctic and Antarctic Circles, there are westerlies; sun is overhead between the tropics during
weeks of continuous darkness. At the North Pole, there summer months; and almost all the rainfall is received
are six months without light in winter. Despite the long during the winters.’
duration of sunshine in summer, when the sun does not
set, temperatures remain low because the sun is low in Which of the following regions is described in the above
the sky and much of the warmth of its faint rays is either passage?
reflected by the ground snow, or used up in melting the (a) China type climate (b) Tropical monsoon climate
ice. It has little power left to raise the air temperature. (c) Savannah climate (d) Mediterranean climate
Water in the soil is frozen to great depths and the summer
Ans: (d)
heat can only thaw the upper six inches of the soil.
Warm Temperate/Mediterranean Climate:
The ground remains solidly frozen for all but four months,
inaccessible to plants. Frost occurs at any time and blizzards, Characteristics and Influences
reaching a velocity of 130 miles an hour are not infrequent. Distribution of Warm Temperate/Mediterranean Climate
They can be very hazardous for the polar inhabitants. ‰ It is confined between 30 – 45º latitudes on the
In coastal districts, where warmer water meets cold land western margins of the continents.
thick fogs may develop. They last for days, and in many ‰ It is caused by shifting of pressure belts and comes
instances it is not possible to see for more than a few feet. under the effect of trade winds during summers
70. Consider the following ocean currents: (continental trades and hence dry) and westerlies
1. Labrador Current 2. Gulf Stream during winters (onshore winds and hence wet).
3. Falkland Current 4. Oyashio Current ‰ Temperature of Warm Temperate/Mediterranean
Which of the above currents is/are cold ocean currents? Climate
(a) 1 only (b) 3 and 4 only ‰ Highest temperatures are experienced as we move
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 inland away from maritime influence.
‰ Climate is not extreme because of the cooling effect
Ans: (c)
by water bodies.
Ocean currents are streams of water flowing constantly
on the ocean surface in definite directions. The ocean ‰ Rainfall of Warm Temperate/Mediterranean Climate

72 Physical Geography
‰ Cyclonic rainfall is prevalent from westerlies. The 73. With reference to Siberian type climate, which one of
rain comes as heavy showers and only on a few days the following correctly depicts ‘Buran’?
with bright sunny intervening days. (a) Cold ocean currents
‰ The region experiences dry warm summers and wet
(b) Northerly polar winds
cold winters.
‰ Dry, warm summers with offshore Tradewinds
(c) The annual cycle of river freezing
‰ The sun is overhead between the Tropic of Cancer (d) A type of precipitation
and Tropic of Capricorn during the summer months. Ans: (b)
‰ The belt of influence of the Westerlies is shifted a The term “Buran” in the Siberian type climate refers to
little polewards. Rain bearing winds are therefore northerly polar winds of Eurasia that cause violent blizzards
not likely to reach the Mediterranean lands. with temperatures plummeting below freezing point.
‰ Hence the regions are practically rainless in summers ‰ These winds, similar to the blizzards of Canada, blow
and remain dry. at speeds of 50 mph or more and at a temperature
‰ The heat is intense, and the days are excessively warm. of 50°F below freezing-point, creating challenging
‰ In the interiors, prolonged droughts are common. conditions with visibility greatly reduced.
The relative humidity is generally low. ‰ With extreme temperatures, such as those recorded
‰ Wet, cold winters with on-shore Westerlies in Verkhoyansk, where -90°F was once recorded,
‰ The Westerlies belt shifts equator wards in the Siberia is often referred to as the ‘cold pole of the
winter and the Mediterranean regions are under the earth.’ These harsh conditions contribute to the
influence of on-shore Westerlies. sparse population of the region, although it is
‰ Hence, these lands receive almost all of their gradually being developed.
precipitation during the winter months. 74. Consider the following statements:
‰ The rain comes in heavy downpours and causes
1. Various climatic regions can lead to the development of
floods in the months of September and October in
different types of soils from the same parent material.
Mediterranean Europe.
Local Winds of Warm Temperate/Mediterranean Climate 2. The tropical soils with higher temperatures contain
largely mechanically broken materials as compared
‰ Sirocco: They are the south-westerlies blowing from
the Sahara Desert into the Mediterranean climate. to the frozen tundra.
They are hot and dry and remain dry even after 3. The layers of peat develop in sub-arctic and tundra
passing above the Mediterranean Sea. It is most climates due to the accumulation of Humus in the
frequent during spring and is bad for crops. cold climates.
‰ Mistral: It is a cold wind from north in the Alps Which of the statements given above are correct?
region which rushes down in winter into the valleys (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
to fill the low pressure towards the sea.It is fast and
(c) 1 only (d) 2 and 3 only
may take the temperature below the freezing point.
‰ Bora: In the Adriatic coast, the cold winds blowing Ans: (a)
from the continent to the sea in winters are called Statement 1 is correct: Climate is the most important
Bora. They are very fast. factor which tends to reduce the difference caused by
Vegetation of Warm Temperate/Mediterranean Climate the parent rock material but also influences biological
‰ Mediterranean evergreen forests: They are found in activities within the soil. Due to this factor, two different
regions of high rainfall. Cork oak trees are common parent materials may develop the same type of soil in
in Europe while eucalyptus are grown in Australia. one type of climatic region. For example, granite and
‰ Evergreen coniferous forests: They are found in sandstone have developed into sandy soil in the dry
highlands. Rajasthan desert. On the other hand, two different types
‰ Mediterranean shrubs: They are the dominant of soils may develop from the same parent material in
vegetation. two climatic regions. For example, the crystalline granites
‰ Orchard farming: Fruit trees have long roots have developed laterite soils in monsoon regions and
enabling them to fetch water in the hot summer non-laterite soils in sub-humid regions.
season as well. The thick leathery skin of the fruits Statement 2 is incorrect: Temperature acts in two ways
also prevents transpiration. — increasing or reducing chemical and biological activity.
Agriculture of Warm Temperate/Mediterranean Climate Chemical activity is increased in higher temperatures,
‰ Summer is dry hence monsoon crops are not grown. reduced in cooler temperatures (with the exception of
‰ This region is not suitable for agriculture, but some carbonation) and stops in freezing conditions. That is
regions are cultivated using irrigation methods. why, tropical soils with higher temperatures show deeper
‰ Citrus fruits are mostly grown and viticulture (wine profiles and in the frozen tundra regions soils contain
making) is mostly done here. largely mechanically broken materials.

Climatology 73
 Statement 3 is correct: The intensity of bacterial North American region is its uniformity in precipitation
activity shows differences between soils of cold and (about 3 to 4 inches monthly) with a late summer maximum.
warm climates. Humus accumulates in cold climates as ‰ No month is really dry, and the driest month,
bacterial growth is slow. With undecomposed organic November, has 2.5 inches of rain.
matter because of low bacterial activity, layers of peat ‰ This uniformity of precipitation is largely due to the
develop in sub-arctic and tundra climates. In humid Atlantic influence and that of the Great Lakes.
tropical and equatorial climates, bacterial growth and ‰ The warm Gulf Stream increases the moisture
action is intense and dead vegetation is rapidly oxidised content of easterly winds from the open Atlantic.
leaving very low humus content in the soil. ‰ The prevailing Westerlies which penetrate across the
75. Consider the following statements: Rockies carry depressions over the Great Lakes to the
New England states. These winds thus promote wet
Statement-I: The Laurentian type of climate has cold, dry conditions, especially in winter, which are vital for the
winters.
agricultural activites of north- eastern North America.
Statement-II: In the Laurentian climate, the winter winds Pair 2 is correct: In contrast, the rainfall distribution of the
are dry Westerlies that blow out from the continental Asiatic region is far less uniform. Winters are cold and very
interiors. dry while summers are very warm and exceptionally wet.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the Pair 3 is correct: In the southern hemisphere, this climatic
above statements? type is absent because only a small section of the southern
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and continents extends south of the latitude of 40°S.
Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I 77. Consider the following statements with reference to the
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct natural vegetation of the British type of climate:
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for 1. It is a temperate evergreen forest.
Statement-I 2. It is not suitable for the lumbering industry.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Which of the statements given above are correct?
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Ans: (a) (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
The Laurentian type of climate has cold, dry winters and
Ans: (d)
warm, wet summers. Winter temperatures may be well
below freezing point and snow falls to quite a depth. Statement 1 is incorrect: The natural vegetation of the
Summers are as warm as the tropics and if it were not British type of climate is deciduous forest. The trees shed
for the cooling effects of the off-shore cold currents from their leaves in the cold season. This is an adaptation for
the Arctic, the summer might be even hotter. protecting themselves against the winter snow and frost.
Shedding begins in autumn, during which the leaves fall and
Though rain falls throughout the year, there is a distinct
are scattered by the winds. When the deciduous trees have
summer maximum from the easterly winds from the oceans.
leaves, they have thick trunks and outspreading branches
Of the annual precipitation, two- thirds come in the summer.
that yield valuable temperate hardwood. Some of the more
Winter is dry and cold, because the winds are dry common species include oak, elm, ash, birch and poplar. In
Westerlies that blow out from the continental interiors. the wetter areas grow willows, alder and aspen.
Hence, both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement 2 is incorrect: Unlike the equatorial forests,
Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. the deciduous trees in the British climate occur in pure
76. With reference to the regional variations of the stands and have greater lumbering value from the
Laurentian type of climate, consider the following pairs: commercial point of view. The open nature of the forests
with spare undergrowth is useful in logging operations.
Region Broad Climatic feature Easy penetration helps in the movement of the logs and
North America Uniformity in precipitation can save much of the cost.
Asia Dry winters and wet summers 78. Consider the following statements with reference to the
southern hemisphere Absent/Negligible British-type climate:
How many of the above pairs are incorrectly matched? 1. It is primarily influenced by the Easterlies throughout
the year.
(a) Only one (b) Only two
2. It is confined mainly to the coastlands of British
(c) All three (d) None
Columbia in North America.
Ans: (d) 3. It is characterised by minimal oceanic influence.
The variations of the Laurentian type of climate between
Which of the statements given above are incorrect?
the North American region and the Asiatic region.
Pair 1 is correct: The North American region: The most (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
remarkable characteristic of the Laurentian climate of the (c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of the above

74 Physical Geography
Ans: (c) a nomadic way of life. During winter, they live in compact
Cool Temperate Western Margin (British Type): igloos and in summer when they move out to hunt they
‰ Found in Britain, North West Europe, British pitch portable tents of skins by the side of streams. Their
Columbia(USA), Southern Chile, Tasmania and most food is derived from fish, seals, walruses and polar bears.
parts of New Zealand (between 40° and 65° latitude Other Eskimos hunt caribou (the name given to reindeer
in the Northern Hemisphere). Hence, statement 2 is in America) and other animals to secure a steady supply
correct. of their daily meat, milk, fat, skins and bones.
‰ Climate 80. Consider the following assertions regarding the China
• They are under the permanent influence of Type Climate:
westerlies throughout the year; Hence, statement 1. It is found in central continental warm temperate zones.
1 is incorrect. 2. It has higher summer rainfall compared to the
• Regions of frontal cyclonic activity typical of Mediterranean climate.
Britain, and are thus said to experience the British 3. The Gulf Type of Climate in the southeastern USA
type of climate.
resembles this climate type.
• High maritime influence on temperature and
Which of the statements given above are correct?
precipitation. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
‰ Temperature: Mild winters and cool summers (Mean
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
annual temperature - 5 to 150C). (c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of the above
‰ Rainfall: Throughout the year, with a tendency Ans: (b)
towards a slight winter or autumn maximum from Warm Temperate Eastern Margin (China Type):
cyclonic sources. Statement 1 is incorrect: It is a modified form of
‰ Seasons are very distinct. Winter - short duration monsoonal climate, found on the eastern margins of
and mild (due to the warming effect of North Atlantic continents in warm temperate latitudes. In summer,
Drift ); Spring is driest; summer and autumn. the regions are under the influence of moist, maritime
‰ Vegetation airflow from the subtropical anti- cyclonic cells.
• Deciduous trees occur in pure stands. ‰ Climate: Warm moist summer and cool, dry winter;
• Higher up the mountains, deciduous trees (which strong maritime influence; small annual temperature
Shed their leaves in winter to protect against snow range.
and frost) are generally replaced by conifers. ‰ Rainfall occurs throughout the year (60 to 150 cm);
• Valuable temperate hardwood: oak, elm, birch, Rainfall from Convectional sources or as orographic
beech, poplar, Willows, Alder, Aspen, etc. rain in summer, or from depressions in winter.
79. Consider the following statements: Statement 2 is correct: This climate type exhibits more
1. Human activities of the tundra are largely confined to rainfall than the Mediterranean climate in the same latitudes,
high altitude regions. with the precipitation mainly occurring during the summer.
2. The Eskimos live in Greenland, northern Canada and ‰ Local storms: Typhoons (tropical cyclones), and
Alaska regions. Hurricanes, also occur.
Which of the statements given above are correct? Subdivided Into Three Main Types
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only ‰ China Type (Central and North China, South Japan):
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 temperate monsoonal; great annual temperature
range; rain in summer and winter; occurrence of
Ans: (b)
typhoons in late summer;
Statement 1 is incorrect: Human activities of the tundra
‰ Gulf Type (South Eastern USA): slight monsoonal;
are largely confined to the coast. Where plateaux and
no distinct dry period; occurrence of hurricanes and
mountains increase the altitude, it is uninhabitable, for
tornadoes.
these are permanently snow-covered. The few people
who live in the tundra live a semi-nomadic life and have ‰ Natal type: Natal, Eastern Australia, Southern Brazil,
to adapt themselves to the harsh environment. Paraguay, Uruguay and Northern Argentina and all
Statement 2 is correct: In Greenland, northern Canada warm eastern temperate margins of the southern
and Alaska live the Eskimos, numbering less than hemisphere; Dominance of maritime influence.
28,000 today. They used to live as hunters, fishers and ‰ Statement 3 is correct: In the south-eastern U.S.A.,
food gatherers, but in recent years, more and more of bordering the Gulf of Mexico, continental heating
them are settling in permanent huts. The Polar Eskimos, in summer induces an inflow of air from the cooler
living around Thule in northwest Greenland, still lead Atlantic Ocean. Though less pronounced, the overall
an uncertain life, not very much different from their climatic features resemble those of the China type. It
forefathers. The seasonal changes in climate necessitate is sometimes referred to as the Gulf type of climate.

Climatology 75
 81. Consider the following: 2. B Average temperature of the coldest
1. Rice 2. Tea month is minus 3°C or below 18°C
3. Mulberries 3. E The average temperature of the coldest
Which of the above crops are extensively grown in China month is minus 3°C or below.
during the monsoon period? How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) All three (d) None
Ans: (d) Ans: (a)
The warm temperate eastern margins are one of the The most widely used classification of climate is the
most productive parts of the middle latitudes. There empirical climate classification scheme developed by
is adequate rainfall, no prolonged drought, and the V. Köppen. Köppen identified a close relationship between
cold season is warm enough for most crops to survive. the distribution of vegetation and climate. He selected
Thus the growing season is almost continuous, though certain values of temperature and precipitation and
summer is the busiest part of the farming year. Rice, tea related them to the distribution of vegetation and used
and mulberries are grown in monsoon China. these values for classifying the climates. It is an empirical
82. Consider the following statements: classification based on mean annual and mean monthly
1. The snow line corresponds to the level where the temperature and precipitation data. He introduced the
average temperature is always below the freezing use of capital and small letters to designate climatic
point during the warmest month of the year. groups and types. Although developed in 1918 and
modified over a period of time, Köppen scheme is still
2. The snow line is at the lowest height in the equatorial
popular and in use. Köppen recognised five major
regions.
climatic groups, four of them are based on temperature
Which of the statements given above are correct? : and one on precipitation.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Group Characteristics
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a) A - Tropical Average temperature of the coldest
Statement 1 is correct: Glaciers are formed due to the month is 18°C or higher; Hence, pair
accumulation of ice above the snow-line under extreme 1 is correctly matched.
cold climates. In fact, a snowline denotes the height B - Dry Climates Potential evaporation exceeds
above which there is permanent snow cover, and thus, it precipitation; Hence, Pair 2 is
corresponds to the level where the average temperature incorrectly matched.
is always below the freezing point during the warmest
C- Warm The average temperature of the
month of the year.
Temperate coldest month of the (Mid-Latitude)
Statement 2 is incorrect: The snowline is at the lowest climates years is higher than minus
height (O m or sea-level) in the polar region and increases 3°C but below 18°C
equatorward, where it tends to occur between 500 to
6000 m. The snowline is found at the highest elevation in D - Cold Snow The average temperature of the
the drier part of the Tibetan plateau and Andes (6500 m). Forest Climates coldest month is minus 3°C or below.
83. Consider the following pairs with reference to the Hence, Pair 3 is incorrectly matched.
Köppen’s Scheme of classification of climate:
E - Cold Climate Average temperature for all months
Group Characteristics is below 10°C;
1. A Average temperature of coldest month
is 18°C or higher H - High land Cold due to elevation

76 Physical Geography
 4 Oceanography

Objective Questions for Practice

1. Consider the following pairs: Ans: (b)

Pair 1 is correct: The mid-oceanic Ridges exist in the
Ocean Topography Features
middle of the ocean basins, where the divergent plate
1. Mid-oceanic ridges Zone of intense volcanic boundaries are located. These zones are tectonically
activity active and the most active volcanic regions on Earth.
2. Seamounts Zone of low biological Pair 2 is incorrect: Seamounts are undersea mountains
productivity formed by volcanic activity. Seamounts often have a high
3. Submarine canyons Deep valleys in the level of biological productivity because they provide
continental shelves habitats for many species of plants and animals.
4. Guyots Mountains in the ocean Pair 3 is correct: Submarine Canyons are deep valleys
with pointed summits cutting across the continental shelves and slopes, often
How many of the pairs given above are correctly extending from the mouths of large rivers.
matched? Pair 4 is incorrect: Guyot is an isolated submarine
(a) Only one (b) Only two volcanic mountain with a flat summit more than 200
metres (660 feet) below sea level.
(c) Only three (d) All four

Fig: Ocean Floor Features

2. Consider the following statements regarding the oceans: shelf break. The shelf break marks the transition from the
1. The boundary line between the continental slope and gently sloping continental shelf to the steeper continental
the shelf is called the continental shelf break. slope. The depth of water over the continental slopes
varies from 200 m to 2000 m are indented by numerous
2. Sediment deposits are thickest close to the continents
submarine canyons and mounds.
and thin or nonexistent in the middle oceanic ridges.
Statement 2 is correct: Various types of bottom
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
sediments, deposits of mineral grains and rock fragments
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only from the continents, mixed with dissolved shells and
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 bones of marine organisms are found on the bottom of the
Ans: (c) ocean. Generally, the continental rocks are disintegrated
Statement 1 is correct: The boundary line between the and decomposed due to various types of weathering and
continental slope and the shelf is called the continental thus a fine to coarse sediments are formed. Sediment
 deposits are thin or absent on the newly formed crust Statement 3 is correct: An area that is drained by a river
of mid oceanic ridges and are thickest on the older crust and all of its tributaries is known as a river drainage
and near the continents. basin. Many diverse watersheds make up a river basin.
3. Consider the following statements regarding Submarine Statement 4 is correct: There is a drainage basin for each
Canyons: river. A watershed divides two or more river basins from
one another.
1. They are undersea mountains formed by volcanic
activity that rise hundreds or thousands of feet from 5. Consider the following statements:
the sea floor. 1. Dendritic drainage is the most commonly found
2. These are usually associated with straight coasts drainage pattern in nature; it resembles a tree.
rather than indented ones. 2. Centripetal rivers are rivers that flow towards a central
3. These are rarely found on coasts having faulted scarps. point, such as a lake or depression.
How many of the statements given above are correct? Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) All three (d) None (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b) Ans: (c)
Statement 1 is incorrect: Submarine Canyons are Statement 1 is correct: A dendritic drainage pattern is
relatively narrow, deep valleys with vertical side walls characterized by a river or stream system that resembles
and steep slopes resembling land valleys and are found the branching of tree roots. It is one of the most common
in continental shelf and slope areas. They are usually drainage patterns observed in nature. In a dendritic
found either in front of large rivers and may have pattern, smaller tributaries join larger rivers in a manner
been carved by them which in the course of time got similar to the way tree branches and twigs merge into
submerged into the sea. While seamounts are undersea larger limbs.
mountains formed by volcanic activity that rise hundreds
Statement 2 is correct: Centripetal rivers flow towards
or thousands of feet from the sea floor. They are found
a central point, such as a lake or depression. They are
near plate boundaries and also at mid-plates.
formed in areas where the land slopes gently towards
Statements 2 and 3 are correct: These are associated the centre. The rivers flow in a circular pattern, with the
with straight coasts rather than indented ones. These water always flowing towards the centre. This type of
are rarely found on coasts having faulted scarps or with
drainage pattern is common in areas with a depression,
coasts having too many islands.
such as a volcano crater or a sinkhole.
4. Consider the following statements with reference to the
rivers:
1. Ephemeral rivers are those that have water in them
throughout the year.
2. A river’s catchment area refers to the region from
which it collects water.
3. A drainage basin is a region that is drained by a river
and its tributaries. 6. Which of the following are located in the Indian Ocean?
4. A watershed is the boundary line that separates one 1. Socotra-Chagos Ridge 2. Reunion Island
drainage basin from another.
3. Diamantina Trench 4. Mariana Trench
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) Only three (d) All four
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) All of the above
Ans: (c)
Ans: (b)
Statement 1 is incorrect: According to the presence of
water in river through the year, rivers are divided into Point 1 is correct: The Socotra-Chagos Ridge is a
two categories: (a) perennial rivers, which have water submarine ridge in the Indian Ocean that runs between
present throughout the entire year; and (b) ephemeral the Chagos Archipelago and the African Plate.
rivers, which have seasonal water presence. ‰ Submarine ridges in the Indian Ocean include the
Statement 2 is correct: A catchment is a region of land Lakshadweep-Chagos Ridge [Reunion Hotspot], the
that gathers water during rainstorms, often enclosed by Socotra Chagos Ridge, the Seychelles Ridge, the
hills. The water finds its way into streams and into the South Madagascar Ridge, Carlsberg Ridge etc.
ground as it travels across the terrain, eventually feeding Point 2 is correct: Réunion is a French island in the Indian
the river. In periods of low rainfall, some of this water Ocean, east of Madagascar, about 200 km (125 miles)
remains underground and gradually feeds the river. southwest of Mauritius.

78 Physical Geography
 ‰ The islands of the Indian Ocean include the Andaman surfaces of undersea rises. The extraction of metals
and Nicobar, Sri Lanka, Madagascar, and Zanzibar. from these crusts can provide essential resources for
The Lakshadweep and Maldives are coral islands, and high-tech industries, including electronics and green
Mauritius and the Reunion Islands are volcanic islands. technologies like batteries for electric vehicles.
Point 3 is correct: The Diamantina trench (Diamantina 8. Consider the following statements:
Fracture Zone) is a rift valley in the Indian Ocean that
extends westward from the southwest coast of Australia. 1. The backshore represents the beach zone, starting from
It was formed when Australia separated from Antarctica the limit of frequent storm waves to the cliff base.
between 60 and 50 million years ago. 2. The foreshore extends from low tide water to high
tide water.
‰ Trenches of the Indian Ocean include Sunda and
3. Offshore represents the zone of shallow bottom of
Diamantina. the continental slope.
Point 4 is incorrect: The Mariana Trench, located in How many of the above-given statements is/are correct
the western North Pacific Ocean, is the Earth’s deepest regarding the sea coast and the seashore?
known trench, stretching over 1,580 miles (2,540 km)
with an average width of 43 miles (69 km). It lies east and (a) Only one (b) Only two
south of the Mariana Islands, in a subduction zone where (c) All three (d) None
tectonic plates collide. Its deepest point, Challenger Ans: (c)
Deep, is southwest of Guam. Designated a U.S. national Generally, sea coast and seashore are taken as synonyms,
monument in 2009, the trench falls within the U.S. but geomorphologically these two terms have quite
territories of the Northern Mariana Islands and Guam. different meanings. The sea shore represents the zone of
7. Polymetallic sulphides found in the deep sea are land between high tide water (HTW ) and low tide water
primarily formed around which of the following (LTW) while the shoreline represents the actual landward
geological features? limit of seawater at a given moment. ‘The shoreline is the
(a) Coral reefs (b) Continental shelves line of demarcation between land and water. It fluctuates
from moment to moment influenced by waves and tides’
(c) Hydrothermal vents (d) Oceanic plateaus
(A. Bloom, 1979). The coast represents the land zone
Ans: (c) immediately behind the cliff. The coastline represents the
Recently, the Ministry of Mines has notified the Offshore cliffline or the margin of land rising above the seawater.
Areas (Existence of Mineral Resources) Rules, 2024. The shore zone or simply shore is divided into 3 zones:
These have been issued under the Offshore Areas ‰ Back shore represents the beach zone starting from
Mineral (Development and Regulation) Act, 2002. The the limit of frequent storm waves to the cliff base.
Rules pertain to identifying offshore areas for granting
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
mineral concessions.
‰ Foreshore extends from low tide water to high tide
In the deep sea, valuable minerals are found in
water. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
three main forms: polymetallic nodules, polymetallic
sulphides, and metal-rich crusts. ‰ Offshore represents the zone of shallow bottom of
the continental slope. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
‰ Polymetallic Nodules: These are potato-sized, Coast
mineral-rich concretions found on the ocean floor, Backshore
Foreshore
primarily composed of manganese, nickel, copper, Offshore
and cobalt. They form over millions of years from the
accumulation of metals precipitating from seawater. High tide water
The minerals extracted from these nodules are Low tide water
crucial for various industries, including electronics,
batteries, and renewable energy technologies. Load
‰ Polymetallic Sulphides: These deposits form around
hydrothermal vents, where seawater meets magma. Fig: sea coast and sea shore
The superheated water carries dissolved metals, 9. Which of the following statements best describes the
which precipitate as the water cools, forming sulphide term ‘tillite’?
minerals rich in copper, gold, silver, and zinc. Polymetallic
(a) A consolidated or indurated sedimentary rock formed
sulphides are valuable for their high concentrations of
by lithification of glacial till.
precious and base metals, which can be economically
extracted. Hence, option (c) is correct. (b) They are long, narrow and steep depressions on the
‰ Metal-Rich Crusts: These are also known as Cobalt
abyssal plain of the sea
crusts. These are a promising resource on the sea (c) They are deep concave gorges on the continental shelf
floor because they contain large amounts of cobalt, and slope.
nickel, manganese and other metals that could exceed (d) They are undulating regions lying between the foot
the content in land deposits. They form on the rocky of the continental rise and the mid-oceanic ridge.

Oceanography 79
Ans: (a) seas and gulfs. It is the shallowest part of the ocean
Option (a) is correct: A tillite is a sedimentary rock showing an average gradient of 1° or even less. The
formed from deposits or lithification of glacial till/ shelf typically ends at a very steep slope, called the shelf
glaciers. Gondwana-type tillite sediments are also found break. The width of the continental shelves vary from
in Africa, Falkland Island, Madagascar, Antarctica, and one ocean to another. The average width of continental
Australia. These sediments clearly demonstrate that shelves is about 80 km. The shelves are almost absent or
these landmasses had remarkably similar histories. very narrow along some of the margins like the coasts of
The glacial tillite provides unambiguous evidence of Chile, the west coast of Sumatra, etc. On the contrary,
palaeoclimates and also of the drifting of continents. the Siberian shelf in the Arctic Ocean, the largest in the
Option (b) is incorrect: The submarine trenches are long, world, stretches to 1,500 km in width. The depth of the
narrow, and steep depressions on the abyssal plain. The shelves also varies. It may be as shallow as 30 m in some
deeper trenches (> 5500 metres) are called deeps. areas while in some areas it is as deep as 600m.
Option (c) is incorrect: Canyons are deep concave gorges The continental shelves are of great geographical
on the continental shelf, slope, or rise. significance for the following reasons :
Option (d) is incorrect: Abyssal plains, or deep sea plains, ‰ Their shallowness enables sunlight to penetrate
are undulating plains 2-3 miles below sea level that cover through the water which encourages the growth of
2/3rd of the ocean floor. Lying generally between the minute plants and other microscopic organisms. Thus
foot of a continental rise and a mid-ocean ridge, abyssal they are rich in plankton on which millions of surface
plains cover more than 50% of the Earth’s surface. and bottom feeding fishes thrive. The continental
shelves are therefore the richest fishing grounds in
10. Which one of the following statements is not correct the world. Eg. The Grand Banks off Newfoundland,
regarding Atolls? the North Sea and Sunda Shelf. (Hence, Statement
(a) They are low islands consisting of coral reefs. 1 is correct.)
(b) They are minor relief features of the oceans. ‰ Their limited depth and gentle slope keep out cold
(c) They are found in tropical oceans. under-currents and increase the height of tides. This
sometimes hinders shipping and other activities
(d) They are mountains with pointed summits that reach
since ships can only enter and leave port on the tide.
the surface of the ocean.
‰ Most of the world’s greatest sea ports including
Ans: (d) Southampton, London, Hamburg, Rotterdam, Hong
Some of the Minor relief features of the oceans are - Kong and Singapore are located on Continental
Seamount, Atolls, Submarine Canyons, guayots, Mid shelves. Thus they do have polluted waters. (Hence,
oceanic ridges, etc. Statement 3 is incorrect.)
‰ Atolls are low islands found in the tropical oceans, Mixing of cold and hot water takes place in various parts
consisting of coral reefs surrounding a central of the world. They are indeed the rich fishing grounds in
depression. the world. However, this is not the reason to make the
‰ It may be a part of the sea (lagoon) or sometimes continental shelves as the richest fishing grounds in the
form a barrier enclosing a body of fresh, brackish, or world. (Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.)
highly saline water. Most of the atolls in the world 12. Which of the following statements most appropriately
are in the Pacific Ocean. describes the term ‘Shelf Break’?
‰ A seamount is a mountain with pointed summits (a) The eroded portion of the continental shelves having
rising from the seafloor that does not reach the uneven and degraded regions.
surface of the ocean.
(b) The extended margins of the continental shelves
11. Consider the following statements: having bays and gulfs.
The continental shelves are the richest fishing grounds in (c) The regions along the coasts where continental shelf
the world due to is absent.
1. Sunlight encourages the growth of plankton. (d) Steeply sloping areas where the continental shelf ends
2. Mixing of cold and hot water takes place in this area. and slope begins
3. This area is devoid of any commercial polluting Ans: (d)
activities A continental shelf is the edge of a continent that
How many of the statements given above are correct? lies under the ocean. It is an extended margin of the
(a) Only one (b) Only two continents consisting of shallow parts of the sea and
(c) All three (d) None gulfs. A continental shelf extends from the coastline of
a continent to a drop-off point called the shelf break,
Ans: (a) where the continental shelf ends and the shelf descends
Continental Shelf: The continental shelf is the extended towards the deep ocean floor in what is called the
margin of each continent occupied by relatively shallow continental slope.

80 Physical Geography
 Fig: Shelf Break
13. Which of the following statements is correct regarding 14. With reference to Atlantic Meridional Overturning
Tombolo? Circulation (AMOC), which of the following statements
(a) Tombolo is a connecting bar formed when bars extend is/are correct?
and join two headlands. 1. It is the Atlantic branch of the Thermohaline
(b) A tombolo becomes a connecting bar when it connects Circulation (THC).
the two islands. 2. It carries warm surface waters from the tropics
(c) Tombolo acts as a bridge between the coast and an towards the Northern Hemisphere.
island. 3. It does not have any effect on the El Nino.
(d) Tombolo is observed along the eastern coast of India. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Ans: (c) (a) Only one (b) Only two
Connecting bars are formed when bars are so extended (c) All three (d) None
that they either join two headlands or two islands.
Ans: (b)
Connecting bars are variously named on the basis of their
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The Atlantic Meridional
shapes and forms. For example, a bar connecting two
Overturning Circulation (AMOC) is a large system of ocean
headlands is called a connecting bar while a bar becomes
a tombolo when it connects the mainland with an island currents. It is the Atlantic branch of the ocean conveyor
or connects a headland with the island. Thus a tombolo belt or Thermohaline circulation (THC), and distributes
acts as a bridge between the coast and an island. A few heat and nutrients throughout the world’s ocean basins.
examples of tombolo are observed along the western AMOC carries warm surface waters from the tropics
coast of India between Ratnagiri and Malvan. towards the Northern Hemisphere, where it cools and
sinks. It then returns to the tropics and then to the South
Atlantic as a bottom current. From there it is distributed
lo

Land
bo

to all ocean basins via the Antarctic circumpolar current.

m
To

Statement 3 is incorrect: an AMOC shutdown would

cool the northern hemisphere and decrease rainfall over
Island Europe. It can also have an effect on the El Nino. AMOC
collapse brings about large, markedly different climate
olo
d

responses: a prominent cooling over the northern North

dlan

Sea Atlantic and neighbouring areas, sea ice increases over

Tom
Hea

the Greenland-Iceland-Norwegian seas and to the south

of Greenland, and a significant southward rain-belt
Fig: Tombolo migration over the tropical Atlantic.

Oceanography 81
 15. Consider the following statements regarding the Ocean (a) Kuroshio Current and Oyashio Current.
Gyres: (b) California Current and Alaska Current.
1. They are the large systems of circular ocean currents. (c) Falkland Current and Humboldt Current.
2. They are most prominent at the equator.
(d) Labrador Current and Gulf Stream.
3. All the Ocean Gyres flow in a clockwise direction.
How many of the statements given above are correct? Ans: (a)
(a) Only one (b) Only two In the Pacific Ocean, near Hokkaido, Japan, the colder
(c) All three (d) None Oyashio Current converges from the north with the
warmer Kuroshio Current, which flows from the south.
Ans: (a) The Kuroshio and Oyashio Currents are the western
Statement 1 is correct: An ocean gyre is a large system of boundary currents in the wind-driven, subtropical and
circular ocean currents formed by global wind patterns subarctic circulations of the North Pacific Ocean. The
and forces created by Earth’s rotation. Earth’s continents subarctic North Pacific Ocean, on the other hand, is
and other landmasses (such as islands) can influence the dominated by upwelling. The upwelled, nutrient-rich
creation of ocean gyres. water feeds the Oyashio from the north.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Coriolis force is one of The confluence of these currents is marked by fogbanks
the important factors in causing ocean gyres. Earth’s and has a great influence on fisheries and climate in the
rotation deflects or changes the direction of the ocean western North Pacific.
currents. The Coriolis effect is not present at the Equator,
and winds are the primary creators of currents. For this PW Only IAS Extra Edge
reason, the currents in the equatorial region tend to ‰ California Current: It is a southward extension of
flow in an east-west pattern instead of a circular pattern. the Aleutian Current along North America’s west
Thus, we cannot say that the Gyres are most prominent coast, is part of the North Pacific Gyre and a region
at the equator, as compared to higher latitudes. of strong upwelling.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Generally, in the Northern ‰ The Labrador Current flows south from the Arctic Ocean
Hemisphere the gyres rotate in clockwise direction, while and meets the warm northward-moving Gulf Stream,
in the Southern Hemisphere the gyres rotate in counter- creating one of the world’s richest fishing grounds.
clockwise direction.
‰ The Alaskan Current forms from the northward
16. “These are the western boundary ocean currents in the deflection of part of the North Pacific Ocean.
wind-driven, subtropical and subarctic circulations of ‰ The Gulf Stream is a wind-driven, western-
the North Pacific Ocean. One of them is downwelling-
intensified current that splits into the North
dominant, low in biological productivity and is devoid of
Atlantic Drift, affecting Northern Europe, and the
detritus and other organic material in the surface water,
Canary Current, recirculating off West Africa.
whereas the other is dominated by upwelling and fed by
nutrient-rich waters. The confluence of these currents ‰ The Falkland Current, a branch of the Antarctic
is marked by fog banks and has a great influence on Circumpolar Current, mixes with the warm Brazil
fisheries and climate in the western North Pacific”. Current, forming the Brazil-Malvinas Confluence Zone,
These currents are: which influences the region’s temperate climate.

Fig: Major Ocean Currents

82 Physical Geography
 17. “It is a warm Ocean current carrying tropical water 18. Consider the following pairs:
towards the pole. It flows in the southwest Indian
Desert Associated Cold Current
Ocean along the east coast of Africa.” The ocean current
described is: Namib Desert Benguela Current
Mohave Desert Californian Current
(a) Benguela current
Gobi Desert Oyashio Current
(b) Falkland current
Sahara Desert Canaries Current
(c) Canaries current
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched
(d) Agulhas current with reference to deserts around the world?
Ans: (d) (a) Only one (b) Only two
‰ Agulhas current is the warm current that flows through (c) Only three (d) All four
the east coast of Africa in the southwest Indian Ocean. Ans: (c)
It finally merges with the west wind drift. Pair 1 is correct: Namib Desert is linked with Benguela
‰ Benguela current is a cold current that flows near current which is a cold current.
the western coast of Africa in the southeast Atlantic Pair 2 is correct: Mohave Desert is linked with the
Ocean. It is associated with the Namib desert. Californian current which is a cold current.
‰ Falkland current is a cold current that flows near the Pair 3 is incorrect: Gobi Desert is a rain shadow desert,
Argentinian coast in the southwest Atlantic Ocean. formed by the Tibetan Plateau blocking precipitation
from the Indian Ocean reaching the Gobi territory. It is
‰ Canaries current is a cold current that flows near the
rainless because of continentality.
Spain-Portugal coast and North-Western Africa in
Pair 4 is correct: Sahara Desert is linked with Canaries
the Atlantic Ocean. current which is a cold current.

Fig: Hot and mid-latitude deserts of the world

19. Consider the following Ocean Currents: Polar Pacific towards the east coast of Japan. (Hence,
1. Labrador current 2. Oyashio current point 2 is correct.)
3. Agulhas current 4. Kamchatka current Agulhas Current: It is the warm current flowing from the
How many of the above Ocean Currents are found in the Equatorial Indian Ocean towards the east of the African
North Pacific Ocean? continent. (Hence, point 3 is incorrect.)
Kamchatka Current: It is the cold current flowing through
(a) Only one (b) Only two the east coast of the Kamchatka Peninsula (Russia) in the
(c) Only three (d) All four Pacific Ocean. (Hence, point 4 is correct.)
Ans: (b) 20. Consider the following statements:
Labrador Current: It is the cold current in the Atlantic 1. These zones experience foggy weather.
Ocean, present off the east coast of Canada. (Hence, 2. These zones provide the best routes for navigation.
point 1 is incorrect.)
3. These zones are one of the best fishing grounds of the
Oyashio Current: It is the cold current flowing from the world.

Oceanography 83
 How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct How many of the above statements are correct?
regarding the mixing zones of warm and cold ocean currents? (a) Only one (b) Only two
(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None
(c) All three (d) None Ans: (a)
Ans: (b) Statement 1 is correct: While all other seas in the world
The mixing of warm and cold currents helps to replenish are defined at least in part by land boundaries, the
oxygen and favour the growth of plankton, the primary Sargasso Sea is defined only by ocean currents.
food for the fish population. Thus, the best fishing Statement 2 is incorrect: Sargasso sea lies within the
grounds in the world are mainly found in these mixing Northern Atlantic Subtropical Gyre. The Gulf Stream
zones. For example- the Grand Banks of Newfoundland. establishes the Sargasso Sea’s western boundary, while
Moreover, in these mixing zones, the air above the cold the Sea is further defined to the north by the North
current causes the water vapour of the warm current to Atlantic Current, to the east by the Canary Current, and
condense and form fog. This dense fog reduces visibility, to the south by the North Atlantic Equatorial Current.
making navigation challenging. (Hence statement 1 and Statement 3 is incorrect: The Sargasso Sea is a vast patch
3 are correct and statement 2 is incorrect). of ocean named after a genus of free-floating seaweed
21. Consider the following statements regarding the Pacific called Sargassum.
Decadal Oscillation (PDO): 23. With reference to the upwelling process of the ocean
1. PDO is a long-term ocean fluctuation of the Pacific water, consider the following statements:
Ocean. 1. It occurs when the wind blows towards the shore.
2. Recently, both ‘warm’ and ‘cool’ PDO phases have 2. The upwelling region offers one of the best fishing
been consistently longer than in the past. grounds across the world.
3. Fog near the coastal area is a likely indicator of this zone.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) All three (d) None
Ans: (a)
Ans: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: The Pacific Decadal Oscillation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The winds blowing from the
(PDO) is a long-term ocean fluctuation of the Pacific
land towards the oceans drive warm surface water away
Ocean. The PDO waxes and wanes approximately every
from the coast resulting in the upwelling of ocean. Water
20 to 30 years. The ‘cool’ phase is characterized by a cool
then rises to replace the water that was pushed away,
wedge of lower than normal sea-surface heights or ocean
and this process is known as upwelling.
temperatures in the eastern equatorial Pacific and a warm
horseshoe pattern of higher than normal sea-surface ‰ Downwelling occurs when wind blows towards the
heights connecting the north, west and southern Pacific. shore and causes surface water to build up along
During the ‘warm’ or ‘positive’ phase, the western Pacific a coastline. During this process, the surface water
Ocean becomes cooler while the eastern Pacific warms. eventually sinks toward the bottom. This water will
be warmer and poor in nutrients.
Statement 2 is incorrect: A ‘cool’ phase occurred from
1947 to 1976 (29 years), and a ‘warm’ phase from 1977 to Statement 2 is correct: Subsurface water that rises to
1999 (22 years). However, more recently, the ‘warm’ and the surface as a result of upwelling is typically colder, rich
‘cold’ phases have been much shorter. In 1999, we entered in nutrients, and biologically productive. Good fishing
into a ‘cold’ phase for about 4 years (1999-2002) followed grounds typically are found where upwelling is common.
by a ‘warm’ phase that continued for 3 years. The phase Statement 3 is correct: During upwelling the water
was then neutral until 2007 when we entered into a ‘cold’ that rises to replace the water that has been pushed
phase that lasted through 2013. The last PDO phase shift away is typically colder. This will lead to fog near coastal
was in 2014 when it turned strongly positive (‘warm’). zones. For example, upwelling in the San Francisco area
contributing to the frequent summer fogs.
‰ The term PDO was coined in about 1996 by Steven
Hare at the University of Washington. 24. With reference to the coral ecosystem, consider the
‰ The change in location of the cold and warm water following statements:
masses alters the path of the jet stream. 1. Most of the world’s coral reefs are found in tropical
and subtropical waters.
22. Consider the following statements about Sargasso Sea: 2. Freshwater is essential for the growth of corals.
1. It has no land boundary and is defined by ocean 3. Sunderbans have an abundance of coral reef
currents. distribution in India.
2. It is located in the Pacific Ocean. How many of the statements given above are correct?
3. It is named after critically endangered tortoise species (a) Only one (b) Only two
called Sargassum. (c) All three (d) None

84 Physical Geography
Ans: (a) water from the depths, which cools the surface water.
Statement 1 correct: The majority of reef-building corals This explains why coral reefs are generally absent on the
are found within tropical and subtropical waters. These western coasts of continents.
typically occur between 30 degree north and 30 degree (Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.)
south latitudes. ‰ On the other hand, the warming effect of the warm
Statement 2 is incorrect: Conditions necessary for currents, e.g. the Gulf Stream, means that corals
growth of coral reefs: are found far to the north of the West Indies in the
1. Transparent, shallow, and warm water is needed for Atlantic Ocean.
the growth of corals ‰ The Pacific and the Indian Oceans, however, have the
2. The water temperature must not fall below 68°F. most numerous coral reefs.
(20°C.). This virtually limits the areal distribution of
26. Consider the following statements regarding Rip Current:
corals to the tropical, and sub-tropical zones.
1. They are longshore currents that flow parallel to the
3. The water should be saltish and free from sediment.
Corals therefore survive best in the moving ocean water beach and are caused primarily by the alignment of
well away from the silty coasts or muddy mouths of the shoreline.
streams. The corals are best developed on the seaward 2. The best way to escape a rip current is by swimming
side of the reef, where constantly moving waves, tides, parallel to the shore instead of towards it.
and currents maintain an abundant supply of clear, Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
oxygenated water. They also bring an adequate supply (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
of food in the form of microscopic organisms.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Sundarbans are primarily
known for their mangrove forests and unique deltaic Ans: (b)
ecosystems, not for the abundance of coral reefs. Statement 1 is incorrect: Rip current is a narrow,
powerful current of water that flows perpendicular to
the beach and out into the ocean. They typically extend
from the shoreline to the surf zone and beyond the line
of breaking waves. Rip currents move along the water’s
surface, pulling one straight out into the ocean. They are
caused when longshore currents, which flow parallel to
the shoreline, encounter coastal structures like jetties,
piers, or groins and are deflected offshore. Rip currents
can also form around low spots or breaks in sandbars.
Rip currents are not longshore currents; they do not flow
parallel to the beach.
Statement 2 is correct: Rip currents can be more than
150 feet wide, but most are less than 30 feet wide, and
can move at speeds of up to 5 miles per hour. Because rip
currents move perpendicular to shore and can be very
Fig. Distribution of corals in India strong, beach swimmers need to be careful. A person
caught in a rip can be swept away from shore very quickly.
25. Consider the following statements: The best way to escape a rip current is by swimming
Statement-I: Coral reefs are generally absent on the parallel to the shore instead of towards it, since most rip
western coasts of continents. currents are less than 80 feet wide. A swimmer can also
Statement-II: The western coasts of continents comes let the current carry him or her out to sea until the force
under the influence of cold ocean currents. weakens, because rip currents stay close to shore and
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the usually dissipate just beyond the line of breaking waves.
above statements? 27. Consider the following statements regarding the tides:
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and 1. The Bay of Fundy harbours the highest tides in the
Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I world which is located in the USA.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct 2. The range of tides is more than their average heights
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for during the perigee period.
Statement-I 3. Spring tide occurs when the sun and moon are at right
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect angles.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Which of the following statements given above is/are
Ans: (a) correct?
Statements I and II are correct: Coral reefs do not flourish (a) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
in areas with cold currents due to the upwelling of cold (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Oceanography 85
Ans: (a) A neap tide refers to a period of moderate tides when
The periodical rise and fall of the sea level, once or twice the sun and moon are at right angles to each other. It
a day, mainly due to the attraction of the sun and the occurs seven days after a spring tide.
moon, is called a tide.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Bay of Fundy in Nova Spring Tide
Scotia, Canada, is renowned for having the world’s Lunar Tide Solar Tide
highest tides, which can reach up to 16 meters. This
natural phenomenon results from the unique shape of
the bay and its interaction with ocean currents. Sun
Statement 2 is correct: Perigee is the point in the orbit of
the Moon where it is closest to Earth. Since in this period
the moon is the closest to the Earth, the gravitational
forces are stronger, therefore the tidal range is greater New Moon Full Moon
than normal. On the contrary, during the apogee, the
tidal ranges are less than their average heights because Fig: The occurrence of a Spring tide.
the moon is farthest from the Earth. 29. Consider the following statements with reference to
Statement 3 is incorrect: Spring tides occur when the tides:
position of both the sun and the moon in relation to the 1. The ‘tide-generating’ force is the difference between
Earth has a direct bearing on tide height. When the sun, the the gravitational attraction of the moon and the
moon, and the earth are in a straight line, the height of the centripetal force.
tide will be high. They occur twice a month, one during the
full moon period and another during the new moon period. 2. Neap tides occur when the sun, the moon and the
earth are in a straight line.
3. The tidal bulges on wide continental shelves, have
greater height.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only
Ans: (d)
The periodical rise and fall of the sea level, once or twice
a day, mainly due to the attraction of the sun and the
moon, is called a tide.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The moon’s gravitational pull to
a great extent and to a lesser extent the sun’s gravitational
pull, are the major causes for the occurrence of tides.
Fig: Spring Tides Another factor is centrifugal force, which is the force
28. Which one of the following statements is incorrect with that acts to counter balance the gravity. Thus the ‘tide-
respect to Spring Tides? generating’ force is the difference between these two
(a) These tides occur during the full moon and new moon forces; i.e. the gravitational attraction of the moon and
periods. the centrifugal force.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Tides are based on the Sun,
(b) These tides occur when the sun, the earth and the
Moon, and the Earth’s Position.
moon are in a straight line.
‰ Spring tides: When the sun, the moon and the earth
(c) These tides are caused by the indentations in the are in a straight line, the height of the tide will be
coastlines. higher. These are called spring tides and they occur
(d) There is a seven-day interval between the spring tides twice a month, one on full moon period and another
and neap tides. during new moon period.
Ans: (c) ‰ Neap tides: Normally, there is a seven day interval
Spring tides are not caused by indentations in the between the spring tides and neap tides. At this time
coastlines. They occur when the sun, the moon, and the sun and moon are at right angles to each other
the earth are in a straight line. During spring tides, the and the forces of the sun and moon tend to counteract
sun’s tidal force works with the moon’s tidal force, and one another. The Moon’s attraction, though more
the combined pull can cause the highest and lowest than twice as strong as the sun’s, is diminished by the
tides. They occur twice a month, one during the full counteracting force of the sun’s gravitational pull.
moon period and another during the new moon period. Statement 3 is correct: Together, the gravitational pull
Normally, there is a seven-day interval between the and the centrifugal force are responsible for creating the
spring tides and the neap tides. two major tidal bulges on the earth. On the side of the

86 Physical Geography
 earth facing the moon, a tidal bulge occurs while on the astronomical data. Surges refer to sudden and temporary
opposite side though the gravitational attraction of the increases in sea level, often caused by meteorological
moon is less as it is farther away, the centrifugal force factors such as storms, hurricanes, or intense low-
causes tidal bulge on the other side. The tidal bulges on pressure systems. Surges can also be caused by tsunamis,
wide continental shelves, have greater height. When underwater earthquakes, or volcanic eruptions.
tidal bulges hit the mid-oceanic islands they become low. 32. With reference to tidal occurrences, consider the
30. With reference to different types of tides, consider the following statements :
following pairs: 1. The abnormally high and unusually low tides occur
Tides Characteristics during the Apogee.
2. During the Perihelion, tidal ranges are greater than
1. Spring tides Occurs once a month during the
normal.
full moon.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2. Diurnal tide The successive high and low tides
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
are approximately of the same
height. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Neap tides The sun and moon are at right Ans: (b)
angles to each other. Statement 1 is incorrect: During Perigee, when the moon’s
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? orbit gets closest to the Earth once a month, extremely
high and low tides occur, and the tidal range is wider than
(a) Only one (b) Only two usual at this time. During Apogee, when the moon is at
(c) All three (d) None its farthest distance from Earth, its gravitational power is
Ans: (b) limited, which leads to lower tides and tidal ranges that
Pair 1 is incorrect: When the sun, the moon, and the are shorter than their typical heights.
earth are in a straight line, the height of the tide will be Statement 2 is correct: In perihelion, the earth is closest
higher. These are called spring tides, and they occur twice to the sun. It occurs around January 3rd each year. During
a month, one during the full moon period and another Perihelion, the tidal ranges are substantially greater,
during the new moon period. with abnormally high and unusually low tides. Thus,
Pair 2 is correct: Tides are classified on the basis of tidal ranges are greater than the normal range. During
frequency of occurrence as Semi-diurnal, diurnal, and aphelion (when the earth is farthest from the sun), tidal
mixed tides. In the Diurnal tide pattern, there is only one ranges are substantially lower than normal, which occurs
high tide and one low tide each day. The successive high around July 4th each year.
and low tides are approximately the same height. 33. Consider the following statements with respect to
Pair 3 is correct: Neap tides are low tides. The sun and effects of ocean currents:
moon are at right angles to each other, and the forces of 1. West coasts of the continents in tropical and
the sun and moon tend to counteract one another. The subtropical latitudes have relatively high average
Moon’s attraction is diminished by the counteracting force temperatures.
of the sun’s gravitational pull. Hence, we have low tides. 2. West coasts of the continents in the middle and
31. Consider the following statements regarding Tides and higher latitudes are characterised by cool summers
Surges: and relatively mild winters.
1. Tides are movements of water caused by winds and Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
atmospheric pressure changes, whereas surges are (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
the periodical rise and fall of the sea level, mainly due
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
to the attraction of the sun and the moon.
2. Tides and surges are predicted in advance, as both Ans: (a)
occur regularly in a rhythmic pattern. Ocean currents have a number of direct and indirect
influences on human activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect: West coasts of the continents
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
in tropical and subtropical latitudes (except close to the
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 equator) are bordered by cool waters. Their average
Ans: (d) temperatures are relatively low with a narrow diurnal
Statement 1 is incorrect: The periodical rise and fall of the and annual ranges. These areas often experience fog but
sea level, once or twice a day, mainly due to the attraction are generally arid.
of the sun and the moon, is called a tide. Movements Statement 2 is correct: West coasts of the continents in
of water caused by meteorological effects (winds and the middle and higher latitudes are bordered by warm
atmospheric pressure changes) are called surges. waters which cause a distinct marine climate. They
Statement 2 is incorrect: Tides occur with a regular are characterised by cool summers and relatively mild
rhythm and can be predicted well in advance using winters with a narrow annual range of temperatures.

Oceanography 87
 are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two
PW Only IAS Extra Edge
continents lay side by side. This supports the concept of
‰ Warm currents flow parallel to the east coasts of
continental drift.
the continents in tropical and subtropical latitudes.
This results in warm and rainy climates. These Statement 5 is correct: Mesosaurus, a small reptile
areas lie in the western margins of the subtropical adapted to shallow brackish water, is found in the
anti-cyclones. Southern Cape province of South Africa and Iraver
formations of Brazil, currently separated by an ocean.
‰ The mixing of warm and cold currents help to
This observation supports the theory of continental drift,
replenish the oxygen and favour the growth of
as it indicates that these regions were once connected.
planktons, the primary food for fish population.
‰ The best fishing grounds of the world exist mainly 35. The ‘Diel Vertical Migration’ sometimes mentioned in
in these mixing zones. the news corresponds to which of the following?

34. Consider the following statements, with reference to (a) Atmospheric phenomenon related to jet streams
evidence supporting continental drift : (b) Agricultural practice to optimise crop growth cycles
1. Bullard’s 1964 map showed a perfect match between (c) Movement of marine organisms in the ocean’s water
the shorelines of Africa and South America. column
2. Radiometric dating of rocks suggests that the ocean (d) Geological process leading to the formation of
between South America and Africa existed before the underground aquifers
Jurassic Age. Ans: (c)
3. Gondwana sediments are found in India and six Driven by the need for food and to avoid predators,
Southern Hemisphere landmasses. deep-sea marine animals – especially tiny free-floating
4. Gold deposits in the Ghana coast are derived from the zooplankton – swim up to the surface at night. This
Brazil plateau, indicating past adjacency. synchronised movement is called Diel Vertical Migration
5. The discovery of Mesosaurus skeletons in both South (DVM), and it makes for a captivating display of nature’s
Africa and Brazil supports the idea of continental drift. ingenuity. It is also a crucial player in the Earth’s carbon
cycle.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
DVM is also more than a survival strategy: it plays a
(a) Only two (b) Only three
pivotal role in sequestering carbon, a process vital for
(c) Only four (d) All five regulating the Earth’s climate. Animals dwelling in the
Ans: (c) mesopelagic layer actively remove substantial amounts
Statement 1 is correct: The map produced by Bullard of carbon from the upper ocean as they feed on surface-
in 1964, utilizing a computer program to find the best dwelling plankton. When these organisms return to
fit of the Atlantic margin, presented a remarkable and deeper waters, they carry the carbon with them.
unmistakable match between the shorelines of Africa 36. Consider the following statements regarding the Ekman
and South America. This observation provides strong Spiral:
support for the theory of continental drift.
1. Ekman Spiral is mostly a result of salinity and
Statement 2 is incorrect: The radiometric dating temperature differences in the ocean.
methods developed in the recent period have facilitated
2. It is associated with the upper oceanic layers only like
correlating the rock formation from different continents
ocean currents.
across the vast ocean. The belt of ancient rocks of 2,000
3. The movement of water in the Ekman Spiral is to the
million years from Brazil’s coast matches with those from
right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in
western Africa. The earliest marine deposits along the
the Southern Hemisphere.
coastline of South America and Africa are of the Jurassic
age. This suggests that the ocean did not exist prior to How many of the above statements are incorrect?
that time. (a) Only one (b) Only two
Statement 3 is correct: The Gondwana system of (c) All three (d) None
sediments, including thick tillite indicating glaciation, Ans: (b)
is found in India and six different landmasses of the Statement 1 is incorrect: The Ekman spiral, named
Southern Hemisphere. This overall resemblance of after Swedish scientist Vagn Walfrid Ekman (1874-1954)
Gondwana-type sediments supports the idea that these who first theorised it in 1902, is a consequence of the
landmasses had remarkably similar histories, providing Coriolis effect. When the wind pushes the water in its
evidence of continental drift. direction, the surface layer begins to move but gets
Statement 4 is correct: The occurrence of rich placer deflected towards the right (in the northern hemisphere)
deposits of gold in the Ghana coast, with an absence of a due to Coriolis Effect. This surface layer pulls along the
source rock in the region, suggests that the gold deposits layer immediately below it. But as that layer moves, it

88 Physical Geography
 gets deflected further to right. Successive layers move
progressively right until a layer moves 90° to the direction
of the wind. This is called Ekman spiral.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The upper surface layer, under
the influence of coriolis force and wind, tends to move
perpendicular to the direction of wind (as shown in the
figure). The surface layer drags the lower layer, which
bends, but to a lesser extent than the surface layer. This
continues, creating a vertical spiral in the water. Thus, its
effect is present at deeper levels of the ocean.
Statement 3 is correct : Like the surface water in the
Fig: Sea breeze and Land breeze
Oceans, the deeper water is deflected by the Coriolis
effect—to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to 38. Consider the following:
the left in the Southern Hemisphere. 1. In the Red Sea, the average salinity is higher than the
average salinity of the ocean.
2. The temperate oceans have higher salinity.
3. The equatorial waters have lower salinity.
How many of the above statements are correct regarding
the salinity of ocean water?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None
Ans: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: Generally speaking, the average
salinity of the oceans is 35.2 %, about 35 parts of salt in 1
,000 parts of water. In the Red Sea, where there is much
surface evaporation and fewer rivers to bring in fresh
Fig: Ekman Spiral water, the average salinity increases to 39 %.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The temperate oceans have
37. Consider the following statements:
lower salinity due to the lower temperature and a lower
Statement I: The wind blows during the day from the sea rate of evaporation.
to the land as the land breeze. Statement 3 is correct: The amount of fresh water added
Statement II: There is low pressure over the land and by precipitation, streams and icebergs. Salinity is lower
high pressure over the sea in the daytime. than the average (35%) in equatorial waters because of
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the the heavy daily rainfall and high relative humidity. Oceans
above statements? into which huge rivers like the Amazon, Congo, Ganges,
Irrawaddy and Mekong drain, have much of their saltness
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and
diluted and have a lower salinity. The Baltic, Arctic and
Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
Antarctic waters have a salinity of less than 32% because
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct of the colder climate with little evaporation and because
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for much fresh water is added from the melting of icebergs,
Statement-I. as well as by several large poleward-bound rivers, e.g.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. Ob, Lena, Yenisey, and Mackenzie.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct. 39. Consider the following factors:
Ans: (d) 1. Sediments carried by rivers
During the day, the land heats up faster and becomes 2. Submarine volcanism at Oceanic Ridge
warmer than the sea. Therefore, over the land, the air 3. Chemical reaction between rocks of geothermal vent
rises giving rise to a low-pressure area, whereas the of the volcano and cold water
sea is relatively cool and the pressure over the sea is How many of the above factors are sources of salts in
relatively high. Thus, a pressure gradient from sea to land ocean water?
is created and the wind blows from the sea to the land
(a) Only one (b) Only two
as the sea breeze. In the night the reversal of condition
takes place. The land loses heat faster and is cooler than (c) All three (d) None
the sea. The pressure gradient is from the land to the sea, Ans: (c)
resulting in land breeze. (Hence, Statement-I is incorrect The sources of salts in ocean water are primarily related
but Statement-II is correct.) to natural geological processes and human activities.

Oceanography 89
 Major sources of salts in oceanic water can be Pair 2 is incorrect: The area in the ocean with rapid
summarised as : changes in salinity is called the Halocline. Salinity and
‰ Sediments carried by rivers. density share a positive relationship, as the amount
‰ Submarine volcanism at Oceanic Ridge. of salt in water (also known as salinity) increases, the
density also increases.
‰ Chemical reaction between rocks of geothermal vent
of a volcano and cold water. Pair 3 is correct : Within the layers of the ocean, the
temperature declines rapidly between the depths of
‰ Erosion of oceanic rocks.
about 200 meters to 1000 meters. This region of the
Volcanic eruptions release gases and minerals, including
steep temperature gradient is known as the thermocline.
various salts, into the atmosphere. These substances
eventually find their way into the ocean through rainfall, Pair 4 is correct : The movement of deep-ocean currents
runoff, and direct deposition. is caused by differences in the water’s density, which is
The erosion and weathering of rocks on the Earth’s controlled by temperature (thermo) and salinity (haline).
surface release various minerals containing salts into This phenomenon is known as thermohaline circulation.
rivers and streams. These salts are then transported to 42. Consider the following statements:
the oceans by river runoff and other water flow, gradually 1. Thermoclines are the areas of rapid change in density
increasing the salinity of seawater. and salinity.
40. Which of the following water bodies has the highest 2. A seasonal thermocline is formed when surface water
salinity? is heated and sinks to the bottom of the sea.
(a) Red Sea (b) Dead Sea Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) Lake Baikal (d) Aral Sea (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Ans: (b) (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Salinity is a measure of dissolved salts in a concentration Ans: (d)
of water. Salts in seawater include not just sodium When a layer undergoes rapid changes in temperature,
chloride (table salt) but other elements such as calcium, density, or salinity, it is termed as a cline.
magnesium, and potassium. These substances get into
the ocean through complex processes including volcanic ‰ Thermoclines, which are characterized by swift
eruptions and hydrothermal vents as well as less complex temperature variations, are well-known to those
ways such as the wind and rocks on land, which dissolve who enjoy swimming in the ocean. They play a crucial
into sand and then salt. Seawater has an average of 35 role in impacting planktonic ecosystems and primary
parts of dissolved salt per thousand parts of water or producers. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.)
35 ppt. By comparison, tap water has a salinity level of ‰ Pycnoclines are regions of rapid density change, while
100 parts per million (ppm). Salinity levels can affect the haloclines denote areas with swift salinity changes.
movement of ocean currents. They can also affect marine Offshore, thermoclines manifest themselves shortly
life, which may need to regulate its intake of saltwater. beyond the coast as the sun heats the shallow surface
The Dead Sea, located between Israel and Jordan, is the water. This leads to warmer, less dense water staying
saltiest body of water (among the given options) with a at the surface, while colder, denser water sinks.
salinity level of 330,000 ppm, or 330 ppt, making it nearly ‰ Seasonal thermoclines occur when surface water
10 times saltier than the other oceans. cools, sinking to the bottom and causing a mixing of
41. Consider the following pairs regarding areas in oceans: the layers. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.)
43. Consider the following statements:
Terms Characteristics
Statement I: The ocean temperature records a relatively
1. Pycnocline Rapid change in the salinity lower temperature in the southern hemisphere than the
2. Halocline Rapid change in density of water northern hemisphere.
3. Thermocline Rapid change in Temperature Statement II: There is an unequal distribution of land and
4. T hermohaline Ocean circulation due to differences water in the northern and southern hemispheres.
circulation in water density of layers Which one of the following is correct with respect to the
How many of the above pairs are incorrectly matched? above statements?
(a) Only one (b) Only two (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and
Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Only three (d) All four
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
Ans: (b)
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Pair 1 is incorrect: When the temperature, density, or Statement-I
salinity of a layer changes rapidly, this region is referred
to as a cline. The area with rapid changes in the density (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
of ocean waters is called the Pycnocline. (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

90 Physical Geography
Ans: (a) ‰ Local variations in weather conditions like storms,
Statement-I is correct: The ocean has horizontal cyclones, etc., also affect the ocean temperature.
temperature variations. The average temperature of ‰ Submarine ridges also affect the temperature of
surface water of the ocean is about 27 °C. The average oceans, as there is less mixing of water on the
temperature gradually decreases from the equator opposite side of the ridges.
towards the poles. The ocean temperature records 45. Latitude, land mass and ocean currents have a
relativity lower temperatures in the southern hemisphere pronounced effect on distribution of temperature.
than the northern hemisphere. Which of the following effects are seen because of these
Statement-II is correct: There is an unequal distribution of on Earth’s temperature distribution?
land and water in the northern and southern hemispheres. 1. In January the isotherms deviate to south over the
The Northern Hemisphere has a greater percentage of the ocean and to the north over the continent.
Earth’s landmass compared to the Southern Hemisphere.
2. The highest range of temperature is more than 60
The oceans in the northern hemisphere receive more heat
degree celsius over the north-eastern part of the
due to their contact with a larger extent of land than the
Eurasian continent.
oceans in the southern hemisphere.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Hence, Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and
Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
44. Which of the following factors affects the horizontal
distribution of temperature in the oceans? Ans: (b)
1. Amount of Insolation Temperature distribution is represented using
isotherms, which are lines connecting points with equal
2. Location of the sea
temperatures. In general the effect of the latitude on
3. Prevailing Ocean currents and Winds temperature is well pronounced on the map, as the
4. Shape of the sea isotherms are generally parallel to the latitude. The
5. Submarine Ridges deviation from this general trend is more pronounced
6. Cyclone in the area in January than in July, especially in the northern
hemisphere.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
‰ In the northern hemisphere the land surface area is
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 1, 2, 4, and 5 only
much larger than in the southern hemisphere. Hence,
(c) 2, 3, 5 and 6 only (d) All of the above the effects of land mass and the ocean currents are
Ans: (d) well pronounced. In January the isotherms deviate
The following factors affect the horizontal distribution of to the north over the ocean and to the south over
temperature in the oceans: the continent. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
‰ Amount of insolation decreases from the equator ‰ This can be seen on the North Atlantic Ocean. The
towards the poles. Hence, the temperature of presence of warm ocean currents, Gulf Stream and
surface water decreases from the equator towards North Atlantic drift, make the Northern Atlantic
the poles. Ocean warmer and the isotherms bend towards
‰ Location and shape of the sea also control the the north. Over the land the temperature decreases
temperature conditions and their distribution. sharply and the isotherms bend towards south in
Oceans in the northern hemisphere receive more Europe. It is much pronounced in the Siberian plain.
heat due to their contact with huge landmasses The mean January temperature along 60° E longitude
compared to the oceans located in the southern is minus 20° C both at 80° N and 50°N latitudes. The
hemisphere, where there is a dominance of water mean monthly temperature for January is over 27° C,
with great uniformity. in equatorial oceans over 24° C in the tropics and 2°
C - 0° C in the middle latitudes and –18° C to –48° C
‰ Prevailing winds and ocean currents also affect the
in the Eurasian continental interior.
temperature of the oceans. Onshore winds pile up
‰ The Highest range of temperature is more than 60
warm water near the coast, while offshore winds
push warm surface water away from the coast, degree celsius over the north-eastern part of Eurasian
continent due to continentality. The least range of
resulting in the upwelling of cold water from below.
temperature, 3 degree celsius is found between 20°S
Hence the temperature rises and falls according
and 15°N. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
to the course, with onshore and offshore winds,
respectively. Similar is the case with ocean currents, 46. Which of the following is the primary factor exploited
where warm ocean currents raise the temperature in ocean-thermal-energy conversion plants to generate
of their joining coastal area and cold ocean currents energy?
reduce the temperature of the coastal area visited (a) Salinity difference (b) Temperature difference
by them. (c) Pressure difference (d) Wind speed difference

Oceanography 91
Ans: (b) How many of the statements given above are incorrect?
The water at the surface of the sea or ocean is heated by (a) Only one (b) Only two
the sun, while the water in deeper sections is relatively (c) All three (d) None
cold. This difference in temperature is exploited to obtain
Ans: (d)
energy in ocean-thermal-energy conversion plants.
The temperature structure of oceans over middle and
‰ These plants require a minimum temperature low latitudes can be described as a three-layer system
difference of 20°C between surface water and deep from surface to the bottom.
water (up to 2 km) to operate effectively. Statement 1 is correct: The first layer represents the top
‰ The warm surface water is used to boil a volatile layer of warm oceanic water and it is about 500m thick
liquid like ammonia. The vapours of the liquid are with temperatures ranging between 20° and 25° C. This
then used to run the turbine of the generator. The layer, within the tropical region, is present throughout
cold water from the depths of the ocean is pumped the year but in mid latitudes it develops only during
up and condenses vapour again into a liquid. summer.
Statement 2 is correct: The third layer is very cold and
47. Which of the following statements are correct about the
extends upto the deep ocean floor. In the Arctic and
early oceans on Earth? Antartic circles, the surface water temperatures are close
1. They formed from the condensation of water vapour. to 0° C and so the temperature change with the depth
2. The salinity of oceans is due to the dissolution of is very slight. Here, only one layer of cold water exists,
minerals. which extends from surface to deep ocean floor.
3. Oceans play a crucial role in the completion of the Statement 3 is correct: The second layer called the
carbon cycle. thermocline layer lies below the first layer and is
characterised by rapid decrease in temperature with
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: increasing depth. The thermocline is 500 -1,000 m thick.
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
49. Consider the following statements regarding Mean
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ocean Temperature (MOT):
Ans: (d) 1. MOT is generally higher in the equatorial regions
The early oceans formed as the Earth cooled and water compared to the polar regions.
vapor in the atmosphere condensed to form liquid water. 2. MOT affects the formation and intensity of monsoon
This process, along with interactions with minerals and winds over landmasses.
biological processes, shaped the oceans we know today. Which of the statements above is/are correct?
‰ They formed from the condensation of water vapor: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
As the Earth cooled, water vapor in the atmosphere (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
condensed to form liquid water, creating the early Ans: (c)
oceans. (Hence, statement 1 is correct). Statement 1 is correct: Solar radiation is more direct near
‰ They became saline due to the dissolution of the equator which leads to higher ocean temperatures
minerals: As water interacted with rocks and in equatorial regions. The sun’s rays strike the equator
minerals on the Earth’s surface, it dissolved salts and at a steeper angle, causing intense heating. Warm water
other minerals, leading to the salinity of the oceans. moves poleward via ocean currents but cools down due
(Hence, statement 2 is correct). to lower solar input and heat loss. Consequently, polar
‰ They played a crucial role in the carbon cycle: The regions are cooler. While equatorial temperatures remain
early oceans absorbed carbon dioxide from the high year-round, they do vary seasonally, whereas polar
temperatures experience more significant seasonal
atmosphere and played a key role in regulating the
fluctuations but stay cooler overall. The “thermal equator”
Earth’s climate and carbon cycle. (Hence, statement
consistently has the highest sea surface temperatures.
3 is correct).
Statement 2 is correct: The ocean’s differential heating
48. Consider the following statements with reference to the compared to land creates pressure differences, leading
temperature structure of the oceans: to monsoon winds. Warm ocean surfaces generate low-
1. The top layer of warm oceanic water develops only pressure areas by heating the air, causing it to rise. Oceans
during summer in mid latitudes. also provide moisture through increased evaporation,
which is carried inland by these winds. The pressure
2. Only one layer of cold water exists in Arctic and
difference between low-pressure ocean areas and high-
Antarctic circles.
pressure land areas drives the monsoon. Latent heat
3. Thermocline represents a boundary region from released from condensation intensifies the winds, creating
where there is a rapid decrease in temperature. a feedback loop that strengthens the monsoon system.

92 Physical Geography
 (b) Hadalpelagic Zone > Abyssopelagic Zone > Bathypelagic
PW Only IAS Extra Edge
Zone > Mesopelagic Zone > Epipelagic Zone
The average temperature of surface water of the
oceans is about 27°C and it gradually decreases from (c) Epipelagic Zone > Mesopelagic Zone > Bathypelagic
the equator towards the poles. The rate of decrease of Zone > Abyssopelagic Zone > Hadalpelagic Zone
temperature with increasing latitude is generally 0.5°C (d) Mesopelagic Zone > Epipelagic Zone > Bathypelagic
per latitude. The average temperature is around 22°C at Zone > Abyssopelagic Zone > Hadalpelagic Zone
20° latitudes, 14° C at 40° latitudes and 0° C near poles. Ans: (b)
The oceans in the northern hemisphere record relatively
‰ Epipelagic Zone:
higher temperature than in the southern hemisphere.
The highest temperature is not recorded at the equator • Extends from the surface to 200 meters, known as
but slightly towards north of it. The average annual the sunlight zone supporting photosynthesis and
temperatures for the northern and southern hemisphere a diverse range of marine life.
are around 19° C and 16° C respectively. This variation is ‰ Mesopelagic Zone:
due to the unequal distribution of land and water in the • Ranges from 200 meters to 1000 meters,
northern and southern hemispheres. recognized as the twilight zone inhabited by
50. Which of the following is the correct sequences of the adapted marine animals.
oceanic vertical zones, when a person moves from ‰ Bathypelagic Zone:
bottom most part of the ocean to the surface waters? • Spans from 1000 meters to 4000 meters, referred
(a) Abyssopelagic Zone > Bathypelagic Zone > Mesopelagic to as the midnight zone featuring extreme
Zone > Hadalpelagic Zone > Epipelagic Zone conditions and deep-sea vents.

‰ Abyssopelagic Zone:
• Extends from 4000 meters to 6000 meters, identified as the abyssal zone with sparse marine animal life and
accumulation of marine snow.
‰ Hadalpelagic Zone:
• Lies deeper than 6000 meters, encompasses the deepest trenches, and experiences extreme pressure, temperature,
and isolation.

Oceanography 93
 5 Soils

Objective Questions for Practice

1. Consider the following pairs: enhances the processes of eluviation and leaching causes
the removal of soluble base cations and aluminium and
Process of Soil Formation Climatic Types iron compounds from the A horizon. This process creates
1. Lateralization Tropical Rainforest a sub layer in the A horizon comprising of silica sand and
region ash gray in color. The coniferous forests of these climate
2. Calcification Desert region regions are an integral part of the podzolization process.
3. Podzolisation Taiga region 2. In the context of soil formation, consider the following
How many of the above pairs are incorrectly matched? statements:
(a) Only one (b) Only two 1. Texture and Permeability of the soil is determined by
(c) All three (d) None the parent rock.
2. The rate of Humus formation is affected by the flora
Ans: (d)
and fauna in the region.
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Laterite soil is also called Brick
soil and is widely used for brick production as laterite soil 3. Higher relief leads to the greater thickness of the soil
becomes soft when wet and becomes very hard when profile.
dry. Ideally, it is developed in an equatorial type climate 4. Rainfall mainly determines the accumulation of the soil.
with high temperature and high rainfall, however, it is How many of the statements given above are correct?
also developed in tropical rainforest regions apart from (a) Only one (b) Only two
the equatorial region. Laterite soil formed through the
process of Lateralization. The suitable climatic condition (c) Only three (d) All four
for the lateralization process is high temperature and Ans: (b)
heavy precipitation. The laterite soil is both soil and Statement 1 is correct: The major factors of soil
rock type and contains around 90 % of Iron, aluminum, formation are the nature of the parent rock and climatic
titanium, and manganese oxides. It has a lower content factors. The nature of the parent rock determines the
of nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, lime, and magnesia, colour, texture, chemical properties mineral, content and
which makes it less fertile. permeability of the soil.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Calcification occurs when Statement 2 is correct: Humus is the organic content in
evapotranspiration exceeds precipitation causing the the soil. It is formed by the activity of microbes upon the
upward movement of dissolved alkaline salts from the
dead matter. The rate of formation of humus is affected
groundwater generally in desert regions. At the same
by the plants, animals, vegetation, and microorganisms
time, the movement of rainwater causes a downward
in the region.
movement of the salts. The net result is the deposition of
the translocated cations in the B horizon. In some cases, Statement 3 is incorrect: Soil profile includes all layers of
these deposits can form a hard layer called Caliche. the soil ranging from parent rock to topsoil. Its thickness
The most common substance involved in this process is is determined by the time factor. Whereas factors like
calcium carbonate. relief, altitude, and slope determine the accumulation of
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Podzolization is associated the soil.
with Taiga Region, which is a humid cold mid-latitude Statement 4 is incorrect: Climatic factors like temperature
climate having short, cool summers and long, severe and rainfall influence the rate of weathering and humus
winters and coniferous vegetation. Decomposition of formation. On the other hand, topographic factors like
coniferous litter and heavy summer precipitation create a relief, altitude, and slope affect the accumulation of the
soil solution that is strongly acidic. This acidic soil solution soil.
 3. In the context of processes in geography, ‘Pedogenesis’ deposited alluvium or glacial till are considered young
refers to and they exhibit no horizons or only poorly developed
(a) Formation of landforms due to volcanic eruption horizons. No specific length of time in absolute terms can
be fixed for soils to develop and mature.
(b) Change in the ecosystem from pioneer species to
climax community Point 5 is incorrect: Biological activity is an active factor in
soil formation. The vegetative cover and organisms that
(c) Evolution of the atmosphere of Earth occupy the parent materials from the beginning and also
(d) Formation of soil by process of weathering at later stages help in adding organic matter, moisture
Ans: (d) retention, nitrogen etc. Dead plants provide humus, the
Pedogenesis refers to the process of soil formation. It finely divided organic matter of the soil. Some organic
depends first on weathering. It is this weathering mantle acids which form during humification aid in decomposing
(depth of the weathered material) which is the basic input the minerals of the soil parent materials.
for soil to form. First, the weathered material or transported 5. Which of the following factors are responsible for soil
deposits are colonized by bacteria and other inferior formation?
plant bodies like mosses and lichens. Also, several minor 1. Climate 2. Biotic organisms
organisms may take shelter within the mantle and deposits. 3. Time 4. Parent rock
The dead remains of organisms and plants help in humus Select the correct answer using the code given below:
accumulation. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
4. Consider the following options: (c) 1, 3, and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. Parental material 2. Climate Ans: (d)
3. Topography 4. Time The process of formation of soil is called pedogenesis. It
5. Biological activity depends on several factors:
How many of the above are passive control factors in soil 1. Climate: Determines weathering intensity, moisture
formation? availability, and temperature fluctuations.
(a) Only two (b) Only three 2. Biotic organisms: Contribute organic matter, humus,
(c) Only four (d) All five and aid in the decomposition of minerals.
3. Time: Longer time periods allow soil horizons to
Ans: (b)
develop and mature.
Point 1 is correct: Parent material is a passive control
4. Parent rock: Provides the base mineral and chemical
factor in soil formation. Parent materials influence soil
composition for soil development.
formation through their mineralogical composition, their
texture and their stratification. Parent materials can be
any in-situ or on-site weathered rock debris (residual
soils) or transported deposits (transported soils). Soil
formation depends upon the texture (sizes of debris) and
structure (disposition of individual grains/particles of
debris) as well as the mineral and chemical composition
of the rock debris/deposits.
Point 2 is incorrect: Climate is an important active factor
in soil formation. The climatic elements involved in soil
development are: (i) moisture in terms of its intensity,
frequency and duration of precipitation - evaporation
and humidity; (ii) temperature in terms of seasonal and
diurnal variations.
Point 3 is correct: Topography like parent materials
is another passive control factor. The influence of
topography is felt through the amount of exposure of a
Fig: Factors responsible for Pedogenesis.
surface covered by parent materials to sunlight and the
amount of surface and sub-surface drainage over and 6. Which among the following is/are primary components
through the parent materials. of soil ?
Point 4 is correct: Time is an important passive factor 1. Mineral 2. Water
in soil formation. The length of time the soil forming 3. Air 4. Decaying bacteria
processes operate, determines maturation of soils and 5. Organic matter
profile development. A soil becomes mature when all Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
soil-forming processes act for a sufficiently long time (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
developing a profile. Soils developing from recently (c) 1, 2 ,3 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Soils 95
Ans: (c) Ans: (b)
Soil composition is an important aspect of nutrient
management. While soil minerals and organic matter
hold and store nutrients, soil water is what readily
provides nutrients for plant uptake. Soil air, too, plays an
integral role since many of the microorganisms that live
in the soil need air to undergo the biological processes
that release additional nutrients into the soil.
The primary components of soil are :
‰ Minerals (45%)
‰ Water (20-30%)
‰ Air (20-30%)
Statement 1 is correct: A horizon or surface soil,
‰ Organic matter (5%)
‰ It is part of topsoil.
These percentages are only generalisations at best. In
‰ In this layer, organic matter is mixed with mineral
reality, the soil is very complex and dynamic, and the
matter.
actual amount of these factors depends on the type of
‰ It is the layer of mineral soil with the most organic
soil, relief, climate, vegetation and the type of life forms matter accumulation and soil life.
surrounding the soil . ‰ Nutrients like iron, aluminum, clay, and organic
While decaying bacteria is a modification factor, it is not matter are sometimes dissolved and carried out in
the primary component of soil . this layer.
‰ This layer is depleted of (eluviated of) iron, clay,
aluminum, organic compounds, and other soluble
constituents.
‰ When depletion is pronounced, a lighter colored “E”
subsurface soil horizon is apparent at the base of the
“A” horizon.
Statement 2 is incorrect: B Horizon or Subsoil,
‰ It is a subsurface layer reflecting chemical or physical
alteration of the parent material.
‰ This layer accumulates all the leached minerals from
the A and E horizon.
‰ Thus iron, clay, aluminum, and organic compounds
accumulate in this horizon [This is called as illuviation
(opposite of eluviation)].
Statement 3 is correct: C Horizon or Parent rock
‰ Partially Weathered parent material accumulates in this
layer, i.e. the parent material in sedimentary deposits.
‰ It is the least weathered horizon. Also known as the
saprolite, it is unconsolidated, loose parent material.
Fig: Various components of soil ‰ This layer may accumulate more soluble compounds
(inorganic material).
7. Consider the following statements regarding different
layers in the Soil profile : 8. In which one of the following processes is there an
in-situ breakdown of rocks and minerals into smaller
1. Horizon A layer is depleted of iron, clay, aluminum, particles?
organic compounds, and other soluble constituents.
(a) Lithification (b) Erosion
2. B horizon is completely devoid of organic matter.
(c) Deposition (d) Weathering
3. C horizon is the layer of partially weathered parent
Ans: (d)
material. Option (a) is incorrect: Lithification is the process in
How many of the statements given above are correct? which sediments compact under pressure, expel connate
(a) Only one (b) Only two fluids, and gradually become solid rock. Essentially,
lithification is a process of porosity destruction through
(c) All three (d) None compaction and cementation.

96 Physical Geography
 Option (b) is incorrect: Erosion is the process where 10. Consider the following statements about Khadar and
rocks are broken down and transported by the natural Bhangar, the types of Alluvial soils found in the upper
forces such as wind or water. It is of two types: chemical and middle Ganga plains:
and physical. 1. Bhangar is the new alluvium deposited by floods
‰ Chemical erosion occurs when a rock’s chemical annually.
composition changes. Ex: Limestone dissolves and 2. Khadar represents a system of older alluvium,
gets eroded due to carbonation. deposited away from the flood plains.
‰ Physical erosion, the rock breaks down but its 3. Both the Khadar and Bhangar soils contain calcareous
chemical composition remains the same. Ex: concretions.
Landslide or bioerosion(when plants develop roots How many of the statements above is/are correct?
in rock and crack rocks). (a) Only one (b) One two
Weathering is the mechanical and chemical hammer that
(c) All three (d) None
breaks down and sculpts the rocks. Erosion transports
the fragments away. Ans: (a)
Option (c) is incorrect: Deposition is the laying down of Statement 1 is incorrect: In the Upper and Middle
sediment carried by wind, flowing water, the sea or ice. Ganga plains, two different types of alluvial soils have
Sediment can be transported as pebbles, sand and mud, developed, i.e.Khadar and Bhangar. Khadar is the new
or as salts dissolved in water. Salts may later be deposited alluvium (not Bhangar) and is deposited by floods
by organic activity (e.g. as sea shells) or by evaporation. annually, which enriches the soil by depositing fine silts.
Option (d) is correct: Weathering is breaking down rocks, Statement 2 is incorrect: Bhangar (Not Khadar)
soil, and minerals, woods or even artificial materials into represents a system of older alluvium, deposited away
from the flood plains. These areas are less fertile as they
smaller pieces . Weathering takes place in situ(i.e. in the
are less prone to flooding (which act as the primary
same place), with little or no movement. It can be of 2
source of nutrient enrichment for the soil).
types: physical weathering or chemical weathering :
Statement 3 is correct: Both Khadar and Bhangar soils
‰ Physical or mechanical weathering is breakdown
contain calcareous concretions (Kankars) or impure
of rock and soil by direct contact with atmospheric calcium carbonate nodules. The Bhangar soil has more
conditions such as heat, water, ice and pressure. kankars than the Khadar soil. These soils are loamy and
‰ Chemical weathering: involves breakdown of clayey in the lower and middle Ganga plain and the
rocks due to chemicals - biological or as present in Brahmaputra valley.
atmosphere.
11. It is the most common form of soil erosion. It occurs
9. The process by which water moves upward from the when water flows over a wide area in a thin sheet. It
groundwater table into the soil is called: can be caused by a variety of factors, including rainfall,
(a) Infiltration (b) Leaching wind, and overgrazing. It can lead to the loss of topsoil,
(c) Capillarity (d) Percolation which can reduce crop yields and make the land more
susceptible to flooding.
Ans: (c)
Option (a) is incorrect: Infiltration is the downward entry Which of the following soil erosion processes is best
of water into the soil. The velocity at which water enters described by the passage given above?
the soil is infiltration rate. Infiltration is an indicator of the (a) Sheet erosion (b) Rill erosion
soil’s ability to allow water movement into and through (c) Gully erosion (d) Wind erosion
the soil profile. Ans: (a)
Option (b) is incorrect: Leaching, in geology, is the loss of Sheet erosion is the most common form of soil erosion.
soluble substances and colloids from the top layer of soil It occurs when water flows over a wide area in a thin
by percolating precipitation. It is the loss of water-soluble sheet. It can be caused by various factors such as rainfall,
plant nutrients from the soil, due to rain and irrigation. wind, and overgrazing. It can lead to the loss of topsoil,
Option (c) is correct: Capillarity refers to surface tension- which can reduce crop yields and make the land more
driven phenomena appearing at fluid–fluid interfaces. susceptible to flooding.
In soil the water moves upwards through a tube Some examples of sheet erosion are:
against gravity; water moves upwards from the ground ‰ In agricultural fields, sheet erosion can be caused by
water table through soil pores or the spaces between heavy rains or irrigation without proper drainage.
soil particles. The height to which the water rises is ‰ In grasslands, sheet erosion can be caused by
dependent upon pore size. overgrazing, which removes vegetation that helps
Option (d) is incorrect: Percolation is the process by which protect the soil from water.
water moves downward through the soil under gravitational ‰ In forests, sheet erosion can be caused by clear-
forces. The rate of percolation depends on the water cutting, which removes trees that help intercept
content and the hydraulic conductivity of the soil. rainfall and reduce runoff.

Soils 97
 Sheet erosion can be prevented by: Planting trees and Land slippage also known as mudslide or landslide or
shrubs to help protect the soil from water, Using cover mass erosion occurs on wet sloping lands as saturated
crops to help protect the soil from water and wind, soil with water slips down the hillside or mountain slopes.
Practising no-till agriculture, which helps to keep the 13. Consider the following phenomena:
soil in place, Building terraces to slow down the flow of
1. Decreasing of soil moisture
water, Contour farming, etc.
2. Loss of agricultural productivity
3. Scientific rotation of crops
4. Mulching
5. Silting of rivers
How many of the above phenomena are consequences
of soil erosion?
(a) Only two (b) Only three
(c) Only four (d) All five
Ans (b)
Soil erosion refers to the removal of top soil. It is
responsible for the removal of productive nutrients from
the soils and causes ecological imbalances. Some of the
adverse consequences from soil erosion are:
‰ Loss of fertile topsoil from the top layer leading
to gradual loss of soil-fertility and agricultural
Fig: Types of Soil Erosion
productivity. Loss of important nutrients from soil
12. Consider the following pairs: through leaching and water-logging and lowering of
the underground water-table and decrease in soil
Erosions Define
moisture. Soil erosion also leads to silting of rivers
1. Rill Erosion Mass erosion occurs and canal beds. Hence, point 1, 2 and 5 are correct.
on wet sloping lands ‰ Soil conservation is needed to prevent soil erosion.
2. Sheet Erosion Removal of a thin Soil conservation can be done through afforestation,
layer of soil from a practice of ‘Mulching’ in which bare ground between
large area plants is covered with a layer of organic matter like
3. Gully Erosion Create numerous tiny straw and scientific rotation of crops which can
channels in depth reduce the rate of erosion.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? 14. Consider the following statements:
(a) Only one (b) Only two 1. Terracing is a type of soil conservation that involves
(c) All three (d) None creating a series of steps on a slope.
2. Contour plowing is a type of soil conservation that
Ans: (a)
involves ploghing along the contours of a slope.
Pair 1 is incorrect: Rill erosion refers to the removal of
3. Strip cropping is a type of soil conservation that
surface material, usually soil, by the action of running
involves planting different crops in alternating strips.
water. The processes create numerous tiny channels
(rills) a few centimetres in depth, most of which carry How many of the above statements are correct?
water only during storms. (a) Only one (b) Only two
Pair 2 is correct: Water when moved as a sheet takes (c) All three (d) None
away thin layers of soil. This type of erosion is called sheet Ans: (c)
erosion. Such type of erosion is most common along the Statement 1 is correct: Terracing is a type of soil
river beds and areas affected by floods. In the long run, conservation that involves creating a series of steps on
the soil is completely exhausted due to the removal of a slope. This helps to slow down the flow of water and
topsoil and becomes infertile. prevent erosion. Terraces are often used in mountainous
Pair 3 is incorrect: When water moves as a channel down areas and other areas with steep slopes.
the slope, it scoops out the soil and forms gullies which Statement 2 is correct: Contour plowing is a type of soil
gradually multiply and in the long run spread over a wide conservation that involves plowing along the contours
area. This type of erosion is called gully erosion. The of a slope. This prevents water from running downhill
land thus dissected is called badlands or ravines. In our and eroding the soil. Contour plowing is often used in
country, the two rivers Chambal and Yamuna are famous combination with other soil conservation practices, such
for their ravines in U.P. and M.P. states. as terracing and strip cropping.

98 Physical Geography
 Statement 3 is correct: Strip cropping is a type of soil Point 1 is correct: Prevention of over-irrigation, use of
conservation that involves planting different crops in efficient irrigation methods, such as drip irrigation and
alternating strips. This helps to break up the flow of micro irrigation, etc., prevent unwanted soil degradation
water and prevent erosion. Strip cropping is often used outcomes like secondary salinization and solidification of
in combination with other soil conservation practices, fields.
such as terracing and contour plowing.
Point 2 is correct: The practise of crop rotation by
Additional facts and figures about soil conservation
alternating the types of crops grown in particular fields
practices:
each season, helps to break pest and disease cycles,
‰ Soil conservation practices are important for
enhance soil fertility, and reduce the risk of nutrient
protecting our soil resources and preventing erosion.
depletion.
‰ Soil erosion can have a significant impact on agricultural
Point 3 is correct: Rationalisation of fertiliser subsidies
productivity, water quality, and the environment.
will lead to the application of the right amount of fertiliser.
‰ There are a number of different soil conservation
VRA (variable rate application) based on soil diagnostics
practices that can be used, including terracing,
contour plowing, and strip cropping. and satellite imagery analytics can help determine how
much fertiliser is needed in each zone to achieve the
15. Consider the following practises:
desired yield without causing harm to the land and the
1. Micro Irrigation Techniques surrounding environment.
2. Practise of crop rotation Point 4 is correct: Practise of terrace farming on the
3. Rationalisation of fertiliser subsidies slopes: Agricultural terraces can be used to reduce
4. Practising terrace farming on slopes the slope of the land, minimising the erosive power
5. Repeated soil compaction of surface water flow. Furthermore, terrace farming
How many of the above can check soil degradation? enhances pedogenetic processes.
(a) Only two (b) Only three Point 5 is incorrect: Soil Compaction: Repeated runs of
(c) Only four (d) All five heavy agricultural machines over the same areas enhance
Ans: (c) soil compaction. Plant roots can’t sprout through such a
Soil degradation is the physical, chemical, and biological thick mass. Thus, compaction has a devastating effect on
degradation of soil quality. It can be the loss of organic agricultural crop growth and development and leads to
matter, decline in soil fertility, etc. soil degradation too.

Soils 99
 6 Natural Vegetation

Objective Questions for Practice

1. Consider the following trees: Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. Teak 2. Khejri (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
3. Babool (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
How many of the above are tropical thorn trees?
Ans: (a)
(a) Only one (b) Only two
Statement 1 is correct: Tropical rainforests occur near
(c) All three (d) None the equator. They are among the most diverse and rich
Ans: (b) communities on the earth. Both temperature and rainfall
Tropical Thorn Forests: remain high and more or less uniform. The annual rainfall
exceeds 200 cm and is generally distributed throughout the
‰ Location: Tropical Thorn Forests occur in the areas
year. Temperate rainforests are found along some coasts
which receive rainfall less than 50 cm. in temperate zones such as Pacific coast of North America,
‰ Found in semi-arid areas of south west Punjab, Southeast coast of South America and also in some parts of
Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and the U.K., New Zealand, Japan, South Australia and Norway.
Uttar Pradesh. They receive annual rainfall around 200 cm but exhibit a
‰ Characteristics of Natural Vegetation: Grasses, marked seasonality with regard to temperature and rainfall.
Succulents, and Wildlife in Thorn Forests Statement 2 is incorrect: In tropical rainforests, the flora is
‰ These consist of a variety of grasses and shrubs. highly diversified. The extremely dense vegetation of the
tropical rain forests remains vertically stratified with tall
‰ Roots: Trees are scattered and have long roots
trees often covered with vines, creepers, lianas, epiphytic
penetrating deep into the soil in order to get moisture.
orchids and bromeliads. Undergrowth is restricted in many
‰ Leaves and Stems: The stems are succulent to areas by the lack of sunlight at ground level. As opposed
conserve water. Leaves are mostly thick and small to to tropical rainforests, temperate rainforests consist of
minimize evaporation. mainly 3 layers of vegetation; canopy, understory, and
‰ In these forests, plants remain leafless for most part forest floor. The undergrowth in temperate rainforests is
of the year and give an expression of scrub vegetation. lush, consisting mainly of mosses, lichens, and ferns.
‰ Flora: Important species found are babool, ber, and 3. Which of the following plant species are found in the
wild date palm, khair, neem, khejri, palas, Acacias, Tropical Dry Deciduous forests?
palms, euphorbias and cacti etc. 1. Teak 2. Rosewood
• Tussocky grass grows up to a height of 2 meters, 3. Red sanders 4. Laurel
forming the undergrowth. 5. Satinwood
‰ Fauna: In these forests, the common animals are Select the correct answer using the code given below:
rats, mice, rabbits, fox, wolf, tiger, lion, wild ass, (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
horses and camels. (c) 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
‰ Teak is the most dominant species of Moist Ans: (d)
Deciduous Forest. Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests:
2. Consider the following difference between Tropical and The Tropical Deciduous Biome are also known as Monsoon
Temperate rainforests: Forest or Dry Tropical Forest. These trees are well-adapted
1. Temperate rainforests have seasonality in temperature to the seasonal rainfall patterns typical of tropical regions.
and rainfall, whereas tropical rainforests have uniformity. Some important characteristics of the forests are:
2. Both tropical and temperate rainforests have extensive ‰ These lose their leaves throughout the dry season,
undergrowth of small trees and shrubs. much like moist deciduous woods.
 ‰ Their canopy is irregular but closed. Statement 1 is correct: Cloud forests are mountain forests
‰ The ground receives enough light for climbers and defined and limited by the persistent presence of clouds
grass to flourish. and mists. The term tropical montane cloud forest is used
‰ They are found in a broad, erratic swath that stretches to include all forests in the humid tropics that are frequently
from the base of the Himalayas to Kanniyakumari, covered in clouds or mist. In addition to rainfall, they capture
with the exception of West Bengal, Rajasthan, and water droplets that condense on the vegetation.
the Western Ghats. Statement 2 is correct: The distribution of cloud forests
‰ This forest has seen significant clearing for agricultural use. could also potentially be determined from the occurrence
‰ The important species that flourish in this kind of of indicator species restricted to cloud forests. Mosses
forests are: Teak, Rosewood, Red sanders, Laurel, and other bryophytes have been suggested as such
Satinwood etc. indicators because they are particularly sensitive to
levels of atmospheric humidity.
4. Consider the following pairs:
Statement 3 is incorrect: These forests tend to occur
Climatic Regions Associated characteristics at higher altitudes on higher mountains and at lower
1. Tropical wet Rainfall in winters altitudes in coastal and island areas.
2. Mountain climate Heavy snowfall in winters 6. Consider the following statements with reference to
3. Subtropical humid Moderate summer Mangroves:
climate 1. They thrive in coastal saline or brackish water.
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 2. They possess specialized breathing root systems
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only known as pneumatophores.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only 3. They have a viviparity mode of reproduction.
Ans: (b) How many of the statements given above are correct?
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Tropical wet is most common (a) Only one (b) Only two
in the country and prevails mainly in the inland peninsular (c) All three (d) None
region of the country except for some portion of the Ans: (c)
Western Ghats. The summers are extremely hot and the Statement 1 is correct: Mangroves are indeed a type of
rainy season extends from the month of June to September. littoral plant formation typically found along tropical and
Pair 2 is correctly matched: The Mountain climate is subtropical sheltered coastlines worldwide, primarily
prevalent in the trans-Himalayan belt, which is the between the latitudes of 25° N and 25° S. They thrive
northern side of the western Himalayas, is cold, arid and in coastal saline or brackish water, displaying various
windswept. There is less rain in the leeward side of the adaptations to survive in these environments, such
mountains whereas heavy rainfall is received by the well as specialized root systems and salt tolerance. The
exposed slopes. Heaviest snowfall occurs between the requirement of freshwater is not primarily a condition.
months of December to February. Statement 2 is correct: Mangroves have special roots
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: The Subtropical humid called breathing roots or pneumatophores that collect
climate witnessed by most of the North and Northeast oxygen from the atmosphere. Because the oxygen
India. Summers are very hot, while in winters, content in the soil is low in the mangrove habitat, the
temperature can plunge to as low as 0°C. Rainfall mainly root system absorbs oxygen from the atmosphere.
occurs in summers but snowfall or occasional rainfall in
winters is also witnessed in some areas.
5. With reference to the ‘Cloud forests’, consider the
following statements:
1. It includes all forests in the humid tropics that are
frequently covered in mist.
2. Mosses and other bryophytes are indicator species of
cloud forests.
3. These forests occur only at lower altitudes in coastal
and island areas.
How many of the above statements are correct? Statement 3 is correct: Avicennia officinalis, Rhizophora
(a) Only one (b) Only two mucronata, Sonneratia alba, Avicennia alba, Bruguiera
cylindrica, Heritiera littoralis, Phoenix paludosa, and
(c) All three (d) None
Morinda citrifolia are all important species of mangrove
Ans: (b) forest in India. Mangroves survive in hostile conditions
According to a recent report, a Cloud Forest Bond will such as excessive salt, muddy water, low oxygen levels,
motivate governments to maintain their cloud forests, high temperature and high water tides. Mangrove forests
which are located on top of tropical mountains and are have a viviparity mode of reproduction meaning tree
mostly shrouded in mist. seeds germinate within the tree before falling.

Natural Vegetation 101

 7. Consider the following: 1. It is found in higher reaches of mountains, above the
1. Halophytic adaptability 2. Pneumatophores climatic tree line.
3. Stilt roots 2. This vegetation is characterised by short, stunted trees
and shrubs that have adapted to the harsh climate.
How many of the above adaptations are found in the
mangrove ecosystem? 3. The trees in alpine vegetation have needle-like leaves
that help reduce water loss.
(a) Only one (b) Only two
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
(c) All three (d) None
(a) Only one (b) Only two
Ans: (c)
(c) All three (d) None
Mangroves ecosystem
Ans: (d)
‰ Mangroves are littoral plants like trees and bushes
Statement 1 is correct: Alpine areas are high-elevation
having exceptional capacity for salt water tolerance ecosystems that occupy the higher reaches of mountains
(Halophytic adaptability), growing below high-water above the climatic tree line. Alpine vegetation is found in
level of spring tides. Hence, point 1 is correct. areas with an altitude of more than 3,600 metres above
‰ They have ability to absorb fresh water from saline sea level. This is because the temperature at this altitude
water and require high solar radiation. is too cold for most trees and shrubs to grow.
‰ Mangroves also produce pneumatophores/blind ‰ Alpine vegetation is found in the mountains of many
roots to overcome respiratory problems. Hence, parts of the world, including the Himalayas, the
point 2 is correct. Andes, and the Rockies.
‰ They have adventitious roots, also called stilt roots or Statement 2 is correct: This vegetation is characterised by
prop roots. As with banyan trees, certain mangrove short, stunted trees and shrubs that have adapted to the
species have roots that branch off from stems and harsh climate. The short stature of these plants helps them to
branches and encroach on the ground a distance conserve heat and water. It is home to a variety of plant and
from the main stem. They are known as stilt roots animal species, including mountain goats, ibex, and pikas.
due to their outward appearance and the fact that Statement 3 is correct: The trees in alpine vegetation
they serve as the major physical support for these. have needle-like leaves that help to reduce water loss.
Hence, point 3 is correct. The needle-like leaves have a small surface area, which
‰ The Mangroves have lot of ecological and local reduces the amount of water that the plant loses through
benefits for communities as they: evaporation. Alpine vegetation is under threat from climate
• Reduce inundation and moderate monsoonal change and human activities, such as tourism and mining.
tidal floods. 9. Consider the following statements with reference to
• Prevent coastal soil erosion and enhance nutrient boreal forests:
recycling. 1. The annual precipitation is moderate, ranging from
• Source of firewood, medicinal plants and edible 200 to 600 mm, with most precipitation occurring in
plants to locals. the summer months.
• Provides employment opportunities. 2. Leaching in boreal forests is high due to the strong
PW Only IAS Extra Edge acidity of the soil and the climate.
Mangroves in India: How many of the statements given above is/are correct
reasons for the low fertility of soil in boreal forests?
‰ Sunderbans are the largest mangroves in India.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
‰ Sunderbans is home to the Royal Bengal Tiger and
crocodiles. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
‰ Odisha’s Bhitarkanika mangroves are the 2nd Ans: (c)
largest in the Indian subcontinent. Statement 1 is correct: The boreal forest, also known
‰ Others are found at Godavari-Krishna deltaic as the taiga, is a biome that encircles the globe in the
regions of Andhra Pradesh. subarctic and Northern Hemisphere regions. This
‰ In Gujarat, they are found in the Gulf of Kachchh type of forest is found in Cool Temperate Continental
and Kori creek. climate or Siberian climate. Boreal forests experience
long, cold winters with average temperatures ranging
‰ Andaman & Nicobar Islands possess diverse
from -20°C to 10°C. Summers are short and cool, with
undisturbed mangrove flora.
average temperatures below 20°C (68°F). The annual
‰ Condition of mangroves in some parts of India precipitation is moderate, ranging from 200 to 600 mm,
is improving while in some other places is with most precipitation occurring in the summer months.
experiencing degradation.
Statement 2 is correct: The podzolized soils of boreal
8. With reference to Alpine vegetation, consider the forests or coniferous forest are low in fertility because of
following statements: the following reasons:

102 Physical Geography

 ‰ Slow weathering of rocks: Cold temperatures in continental heating. The conifers are conical in shape. The
boreal regions lead to slower chemical and physical sloping branches of the trees prevent snow accumulation
weathering of rocks, limiting the formation of readily which may snap the branches.
available mineral nutrients. 11. Consider the following pairs:
‰ Leaching of nutrients due to frequent rains: Leaching
in boreal forests is high due to the strong acidity of the Grassland Associated Region
soil and the climate. The soil is generally strongly acidic 1. Pustaz Hungary
and the main soil process under this dominantly leaching
2. Velds New Zealand
climate is ‘podzolization’ leading to podzolic soils.
‰ Trees do not shed their leaves frequently: Evergreen 3. Pampas Argentina
trees in boreal forests do not shed their leaves 4. Prairies Brazil
annually. The same leaf remains on the tree for as How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched
long as five years. with reference to the Temperate Grasslands of the world?
‰ Decomposition process is slow: Cold temperatures (a) Only one (b) Only two
and low microbial activity hinder the decomposition
(c) Only three (d) All four
of organic matter, slowing the release of nutrients
like nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium back into Ans: (b)
the soil. There are two types of grasslands – Tropical and
Temperate. The most important characteristic of the
10. In which of the following ways do trees in the coniferous
Temperate Grasslands is that they have almost no trees
forests adapt to survive the Siberian climate?
and large shrubs and have grasses as the dominant
1. Thick bark 2. Needle shaped leaves vegetation. Temperate grasslands have hot summers and
3. Conical shaped trees 4. Sloping branches cold winters. Rainfall is moderate.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Pair 1 is correct: Pustaz is found in Hungary. The steppes
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only of Europe are interrupted by highlands. Pustaz are the
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 isolated sections of these steppes.
Pair 2 is incorrect: Velds are found in South Africa.
Ans: (d)
They are sandwiched between the Drakensberg and
Coniferous forests are also known as ‘Taiga’. They extend the Kalahari Desert. They are characterized by grasses
as a belt across North America and North Eurasia below and scattered trees. They are divided into different
the Arctic tundra. There is no counterpart of these forests types depending on the specific grasses and trees that
in the southern hemisphere as there is no land at this dominate the area.
latitude. The climate is cold with long, harsh winters, and
Pair 3 is correct: Pampas are found in South America and
with mean annual temperature below 0 degrees Celsius.
are characterized by tall grasses and scattered shrubs.
The soils are acidic and poor in nutrients.
They are found in parts of Argentina, Uruguay, and Brazil.
Coniferous forests are characterized by evergreen, drought-
Pair 4 is incorrect: Prairies are the extensive grasslands
resistant and woody Conifers (gymnosperms) e.g. spruce, fir
found in North America. They lie in the foothills of the
and pine trees, which bear naked seeds in cones. They have
Rockies and Great Lakes.
thick bark to protect against the cold. The leaves are small,
thick, leathery and needle-shaped. This is to check excessive Other important temperate grasslands: Downs in
transpiration. The leaf surface is reduced to the minimum as Australia, Manchuria grasslands of Mongolia, Steppes in
transpiration can be rapid in warm summer due to intense Europe and Canterbury grasslands of New Zealand.

Fig: Distribution of temperate grasslands

Natural Vegetation 103

 7 World Mapping

Objective Questions for Practice

1. Straits are formed when a narrow strip of land breaks 3. Consider the following pairs:
apart, connecting two bodies of water. In this context Major River Tributary
consider the following statements:
1. Amazon Madeira River
Straits Adjoining countries/region
2. Nile Atbara
1. Strait of Malacca Java and Sumatra islands
3. Zambezi Kabompo
2. Strait of Hormuz Iran and Saudi Arabia
4. Yellow Black
3. Bab-el-Mandeb Yemen and Djibouti How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two
(a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs (c) Only three (d) All four
(c) All three pairs (d) None of the pairs
Ans: (d)
Ans: (a) Pair 1 is correct: Amazon has the greatest drainage area
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Strait of malacca is located of any river system. Its watershed borders Brazil, Peru,
between Malaysia and Indonesia. Connects the Andaman Ecuador, Colombia, Venezuela, and Bolivia. Brazil has
Sea and the South China Sea. One of the busiest and almost two-thirds of the Amazon’s mainstream and by far
most important shipping lanes in the world, facilitating the majority of its basin. Among the numerous notable
trade between Asia, Europe, and the Middle East. tributaries are the Rio Negro, the Madeira River, and the
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Strait of Hormuz is located Xingu River. The Amazon Rainforest, which accounts for
between Iran and Oman and connects the Persian Gulf almost half of the world’s remaining rainforest, is also the
and the Gulf of Oman. It is one of the world’s most planet’s single biggest storehouse of biological resources.
strategic waterways, through which a significant portion Pair 2 is correct: The Nile has a length of about 6,695
of global oil shipments pass. kilometers (4,160 miles). The Nile basin is huge and
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Bab-el-Mandeb is located includes parts of Tanzania, Burundi, Rwanda, Congo
between Yemen and Djibouti. It connects the Red Sea (Kinshasa), Kenya. The Nile River forms an arcuate
and the Gulf of Aden. It is important for international delta as it empties into the Mediterranean Sea. Deltas
shipping and serves as a gateway to the Suez Canal. with triangular or fan-shape are called arcuate (arc-like)
deltas. The Nile is formed by three principal streams: the
2. Which of the following straits connects Black Sea with
Blue Nile, the Atbara, and the White Nile.
the Sea of Marmara?
(a) Bosphorus Strait (b) Strait of Hormuz Pair 3 is correct: Zambezi River drains a large portion of
south-central Africa. The river either crosses or forms the
(c) Bass Strait (d) Bab-El-Mandeb Strait
boundaries of six countries—Angola, Zambia, Namibia,
Ans: (a) Botswana, Zimbabwe, and Mozambique—and the use of
The Bosphorus strait connects the Black Sea and the its waters has been the subject of a series of international
Sea of Marmara and separates parts of Asian Turkey agreements. The main tributaries intersecting the river along
(Anatolia) from European Turkey. In its centre a rapid the plains are the Kabompo River from the east and the larger
current flows from the Black Sea to the Sea of Marmara, Lungwebungu River from the west. Lake nyasa, Lake Kariba,
but a countercurrent below the surface carries water of lake Kahora Bassa etc. are part of this river system.
greater salinity from the Sea of Marmara to the Black Pair 4 is correct: The Yellow River (Huang He) is the
Sea. The Bosphorus is heavily fished, since the channel is second longest river in China (after the Yangtze). It’s the
a seasonal migration route for fish to and from the Black fifth-longest river in the world. Black River, White River,
Sea. Both shores are well wooded and are dotted with Tao River, Huangshui, Fen River, Luo River, Wei River are
villages, resorts, and fine residences and villas. its tributaries. Qinghai Lake is present on this river.
 4. Consider the following pair: Ans: (b)
Rivers Drains Into About River Nile
1. Colorado Caribbean Sea ‰ Length → Approximately 6,650 km (4,130 miles) →
Making it the longest river in the world.
2. Mekong South China Sea
‰ Major tributaries:
3. Danube Black Sea • Blue Nile → Originates from Lake Tana in Ethiopia.
4. Rhine North Sea Hence, statement 1 is correct.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? • White Nile → Originating from Lake Victoria.
(a) Only one (b) Only two Hence, statement 2 is correct.
(c) Only three (d) All four • White and Blue Niles merge at Khartoum, the
capital of Sudan.
Ans: (c)
‰ Delta → Forms an arcuate delta (triangular or fan-
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: The Colorado River, a major
shape) → As it empties into the Mediterranean Sea.
river of North America, rising in the Rocky Mountains of
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Colorado, U.S., and flowing generally west and south for
1,450 miles (2,330 kilometres) drains into the Gulf of
California in northwestern Mexico. For 17 miles, the river
forms the international boundary between the U.S. state
of Arizona and Mexico.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: The Mekong River is the
longest river in Southeast Asia, the 7th longest in Asia,
and the 12th longest in the world. Rising in southeastern
Qinghai province, China, it flows through the eastern part
of the Tibet Autonomous Region and Yunnan province,
after which it forms part of the international border
between Myanmar (Burma) and Laos, as well as between
Laos and Thailand. The river then flows through Laos,
Cambodia, and Vietnam before draining into the South
China Sea, south of Ho Chi Minh City (formerly Saigon).
Vientiane (Viangchan), the capital of Laos, and Phnom
Penh, the capital of Cambodia, both stand on its banks.
The Mekong River flows through six countries [China,
Myanmar, Thailand, Laos, Cambodia, and Vietnam].
Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Danube River is the
second longest in Europe after the Volga. It rises in the
Black Forest mountains of western Germany and flows
for some 1,770 miles (2,850 km) to its mouth at the Black
Sea. Along its course, it passes through 10 countries
[Germany, Austria, Slovakia, Hungary, Croatia, Serbia,
Bulgaria, Romania, Moldova, and Ukraine].
Pair 4 is correctly matched: The Rhine River is culturally and
historically one of the great rivers of Europe and among the
most important arteries of industrial transport in the world. 6. Consider the following countries:
It flows from two small headways in the Alps of east-central 1. Norway 2. Belarus
Switzerland, north and west, to the North Sea, into which 3. Finland 4. Sweden
it drains through the Netherlands. Important cities on its 5. Russia
bank include - Basel, Switzerland; Strasbourg, France; and How many of the above countries border the Baltic Sea?
Worms, Mainz, and Cologne, Germany.
(a) Only two (b) Only three
5. With reference to “Nile River”, consider the following (c) Only four (d) All five
statements: Ans: (b)
1. Blue Nile originates from Lake Tana in Ethiopia.
‰ The Baltic Sea is a shelf sea and marginal sea of the
2. White Nile originating from Lake Victoria.
Atlantic with limited water exchange between the
3. Nile River forms an arcuate delta (triangular or fan-
two, making it an inland sea. The Baltic Sea drains
shape) as it empties into the Red Sea.
through the Danish Straits into the Kattegat by way
How many of the above statements are correct?
of the Oresund, Great Belt, and Little Belt. It includes
(a) Only one (b) Only two
the Gulf of Bothnia, the Gulf of Finland, the Gulf of
(c) All three (d) None Riga, and the Bay of Gdańsk.

World Mapping 105

 ‰ Denmark, Germany, Poland, Lithuania, Latvia, Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Estonia, Russia, Finland, and Sweden are the nine (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only (b) 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
countries that border the Baltic Sea. (Hence, points
(c) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
3, 4, and 5 are correct.)
‰ In 1974, the Baltic Sea States signed the Convention on
Ans: (a)
the Protection of the Marine Environment of the Baltic The Red Sea, narrow strip of water extending
Sea Area, also known as the ‘Helsinki Convention’. southeastward from Suez, Egypt, for about 1,200 miles
(1,930 km) to the Bab el-Mandeb Strait, which connects
7. Consider the following countries: with the Gulf of Aden and then with the Arabian Sea. The
1. Cameroon 2. Niger Red Sea contains some of the world’s hottest and saltiest
3. Algeria 4. Nigeria seawater. With its connection to the Mediterranean Sea
5. Mali 6. Gabon via the Suez Canal, it is one of the most heavily travelled
How many of the above-mentioned countries border waterways in the world, carrying maritime traffic
Lake Chad? between Europe and Asia. Its name is derived from
(a) Only two (b) Only three the colour changes observed in its waters. Normally,
(c) Only four (d) Only five the Red Sea is an intense blue-green; occasionally,
Ans: (b) however, it is populated by extensive blooms of the algae
‰ A humanitarian organisation’s analysis underlined Trichodesmium erythraeum, which, upon dying off, turn
the dangerous relationship between climate change the sea a reddish brown colour.
and conflict in Lake Chad Basin nations such as Asian countries bordering the Red Sea:
Cameroon, Chad, Niger, and Nigeria. 1. Saudi Arabia 2. Yemen
‰ Lake Chad is a freshwater lake located in the Sahelian African countries bordering the Red Sea:
zone of west-central Africa at the conjunction of 1. Egypt 2. Sudan
Chad, Cameroon, Nigeria, and Niger. It is situated in
3. Eritrea 4. Djibouti
an interior basin formerly occupied by a much larger
ancient sea that is sometimes called Mega-Chad.
Historically, Lake Chad has ranked among the largest
lakes in Africa, though its surface area varies greatly
by season, as well as from year to year. (Hence,
points 1, 2, and 4 are correct.)
‰ Natural resource scarcity as a result of extreme
weather is raising tensions between communities
and displacing people, according to a study released
on January 19, 2023, by Refugees International.
Approximately 3 million people have been displaced,
and another 11 million require humanitarian aid.

9. Consider the following countries:

1. Egypt 2. Turkey
3. Jordan 4. Libya
How many of the above countries have direct access to
both the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Only three (d) All four
Ans: (a)
‰ Countries bordering Mediterranean Sea: Spain,
France, Monaco, Italy, Slovenia, Croatia, Bosnia and
Herzegovina, Montenegro, Albania, Greece, Turkey,
Syria, Lebanon, Israel, Palestine, Egypt, Libya, Tunisia,
Fig: Lake Chad Bordering Countries. Algeria, Morocco, Malta and Cyprus.
8. The Red Sea has made headlines recently. Which of the ‰ Countries bordering Red Sea: Saudi Arabia, Yemen,
following African countries border the Red Sea? Egypt, Sudan, Eritrea, Djibouti. Israel has access to
1. Egypt 2. Djibouti the Red Sea via its port in Eilat and Jordan via Aqaba
3. Ethiopia 4. Sudan on the Gulf of Aqaba.
5. Eritrea 6. Yemen Hence, only point 1 is correct.

106 Physical Geography

 10. Consider the following pairs: Ans: (c)
Island Location Mount Everest, located in Nepal and Tibet, is usually said to
be the highest mountain on Earth. Reaching 8,850 meters at
1. Agalega Mauritius its summit, Everest is indeed the highest point above global
2. Addu Atoll Seychelles mean sea level—the average level for the ocean surface
3. Eagle Chagos Archipelago from which elevations are measured. But the summit of Mt.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Everest is not the farthest point from Earth’s centre.
(a) Only one (b) Only two Earth is not a perfect sphere, but is a bit thicker at the
Equator due to the centrifugal force created by the
(c) Only three (d) None
planet’s constant rotation. Because of this, the highest
Ans: (b) point above Earth’s centre is the peak of Ecuador’s
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Agalega Islands, a two-island Mount Chimborazo, located just one degree south of
dependency of Mauritius, are in the western Indian Ocean. the Equator where Earth’s bulge is greatest. The summit
It consists of the North Island and the South Island. They of Chimborazo is 6,268 meters 20,564 feet above sea
lie about 600 miles (1,000 km) north of Mauritius and level. However, due to the Earth’s bulge, the summit of
have a total land area of 27 square miles (70 square km). Chimborazo is over 2,072 meters 6,800 feet farther from
the centre of the Earth than Everest’s peak. That makes
Chimborazo the closest point on Earth to the stars.

Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Addu Atoll, also known as

Seenu Atoll, is the southernmost atoll of the Maldives.
Addu Atoll, together with Fuvahmulah, located 40 12. Which of the following are together referred to as the
km north of Addu Atoll, extends the Maldives into the ‘Lithium Triangle’?
Southern Hemisphere. Addu Atoll is located 540 km (a) Chile, Argentina, and Bolivia
south of Malé, the country’s capital. (b) Uruguay, Chile and Brazil
(c) Brazil, Argentina and Paraguay
(d) Argentina, Brazil and Chile
Ans: (a)
South America has the highest concentration of lithium
in the world. The so-called Lithium Triangle will surely
become a hub for the sought mineral, often known as
“white gold.” The Lithium Triangle is a lithium-rich area
in South America’s Andes southwest quadrant, covering
Argentina, Bolivia, and Chile and forming a physical
triangle of lithium deposits beneath their salt flats. These
three countries contain around 58 percent of the world’s
lithium deposits.

Pair 3 is correctly matched: Eagle Islands is a group of

two islands in the Chagos Archipelago. They are located
on the central-western rim of the Great Chagos Bank,
which is the world’s largest coral atoll structure.
11. Which of the following is the highest point on Earth as
measured from Earth’s centre?
(a) Mount Everest (b) Mauna Kea
(c) Mount Chimborazo (d) Mount Aconcagua Fig: Lithium Triangle.

World Mapping 107

 13. Consider the following pairs: Pair 2 is correctly matched: Lake Toba is a large volcanic
Wheat Basket Area Country lake located in the northern part of the Indonesian island
of Sumatra.
1. Saskatchewan : Russia
‰ During a volcanic explosion the top of the cone
2. San Joaquin Valley : USA may be blown off leaving behind a natural hollow
3. Parana : Argentina called a crater. This may be enlarged by subsidence
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? into a caldera. These depressions are normally dry,
(a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs bounded by steep cliffs and roughly circular in shape.
‰ In dormant or extinct volcanoes, rain falls straight
(c) All three pairs (d) None of the pairs
into the crater or caldera which has no superficial
Ans: (a) outlet and forms a crater or caldera lake.
Pair 1 is incorrect: The Canadian Prairies made up of Alberta, Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Lake Scutari, also known
Manitoba, and Saskatchewan provinces, are very important as Lake Shkodra or Skadar Lake, is a large freshwater lake
in the world due to their grain production. The Prairies located on the border of Montenegro and Albania. It is
export a lot of agricultural food products to other nations the largest lake in Southern Europe. It is named after the
in the world. In 2012 alone, for example, Saskatchewan, city of Shkodër in northern Albania. It is a karst lake.
which is considered the breadbasket of Canada, exported
over $11 billion worth of agricultural produce. 15. It is the largest ice shelf in Antarctica, about the same
size as the country of France. It extends into the Southern
Pair 2 is correct: The state of California is important to
the total agricultural production of the United States. It Ocean. The ice shelf is named after a British explorer, who
accounts for 12.8% of the country’s agricultural yield. discovered it in the 19th century. It is found that it shakes
Most of this produce comes from the San Joaquin Valley, at least once or twice every day. Scientists found that the
which is referred to as a breadbasket globally. entire Ice Shelf is moved out of place by ice streams on a
daily basis. The whole shelf suddenly moves about 6 to 8
Pair 3 is incorrect: Brazil is the largest country in South
centimetres (or 3 inches) once or twice a day, triggered by
America. The southern states of Parana and Rio Grande do
a slip on an ice stream that flows into the ice shelf.
Sul account for almost 90% of the wheat production in Brazil.
The above passage refers to which of the following?
14. With reference to Lakes, consider the following pairs:
(a) Ward Hunt Ice Shelf (b) Larsen Ice Shelf
Lakes Formed by (c) Ross Ice Shelf (d) Ellesmere Ice Shelf
1. Lakes Tanganyika : Faulting Ans: (c)
2. Lake Toba : Volcanic Activity Ross Ice Shelf is the largest ice shelf in Antarctica, about the
3. Lake Scutari : Subsidence of land same size as the country of France. It is located in the Ross
Sea and extends into the Southern Ocean. The ice shelf
How many of the above pairs are incorrectly matched?
is named after British explorer Sir James Clark Ross, who
(a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs
discovered it in the 19th century. The current estimate of
(c) All three pairs (d) None of the pairs its area is about 182,000 square miles (472,000 square
Ans: (a) km), making it roughly the size of the Yukon Territory in
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Lake Tanganyika is a deep Canada. The shelf has served as an important gateway
African rift lake situated in the Great Rift Valley. Due for explorations of the Antarctic interior, including those
to faulting, a rift valley is formed by the sinking of land carried out by many of the most famous expeditions.
between two parallel faults, deep, narrow and elongated It is found that it shakes at least once or twice every day.
in character. Water collects in these troughs and their Scientists found that the entire Ice Shelf is moved out
floors are often below sea level. of place by ice streams on a daily basis. The whole shelf
The best-known example is the East African Rift Valley suddenly moves about 6 to 8 centimetres (or 3 inches)
which runs through Zambia, Malawi, Tanzania, Kenya once or twice a day, triggered by a slip on an ice stream
and Ethiopia and extends along the Red Sea to Israel and that flows into the ice shelf.
Jordan over a total distance of 3,000 miles. It includes
such lakes as Lakes Tanganyika, Malawi, Rudolf, Edward, PW Only IAS Extra Edge
Albert, as well as the Dead Sea. Ward Hunt Ice Shelf:
water collects rift valley lakes
in trough faulting ‰ The Ward Hunt Ice Shelf is the largest ice shelf in
the Arctic, located on the north coast of Ellesmere
Island, Nunavut, Canada.
‰ It’s made up of compacted, thickened sea ice
that’s hundreds of years old and covers the mouth
of the Disraeli Fiord.
‰ The Ward Hunt Ice Shelf is between 40 and 100
Fig: Rift Valley Lakes meters thick and encompasses Ward Hunt Island.

108 Physical Geography

 UNIT-II:
INDIAN GEOGRAPHY
 1 India: Location

Objective Questions for Practice

1. Consider the following statements: country into almost two equal parts. To the southeast
1. The longitudinal extent of India is more than its and southwest of the mainland lie the Andaman and
latitudinal extent in kilometres. Nicobar islands and the Lakshadweep islands in the Bay
2. India’s latitudinal extent far exceeds its longitudinal of Bengal and Arabian Sea respectively.
extent in degrees. Statement 2 is incorrect: The longitudinal extent (not
3. In terms of area, India is the seventh largest country Latitudinal extent) of the Indian mainland is between 68°7’
in the world. E and 97°25’ E. This means that India extends from the Bay
How many of the above given statements are incorrect? of Bengal in the east to the Arabian Sea in the west. The
Bay of Bengal is an arm of the Indian Ocean that lies to
(a) Only one (b) Only two
the south-east of India. The Arabian Sea is an arm of the
(c) All three (d) None Indian Ocean that lies to the south-west of India.
Ans: (b)
37°6 North Latitude
Statement 1 is incorrect: India’s location lies entirely in
the northern hemisphere, where the extension of the
mainland is between latitudes 8° 4’ and 37° 6’ north,
longitudes 68° 7’ and 97° 25’ east. When measured in
97°25’
kilometres, it is about 3,214 km from north to south East
68°7’
between the extreme latitudes and about 2,933 km from East Longitude
Longitude
east to west between the extreme longitudes.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It is an obvious fact that when
compared in degrees the longitudinal and latitudinal extent
of India are roughly about 30 degrees. Hence, the latitudinal
extent doesn’t far exceed the longitudinal extent.
Statement 3 is correct: India in terms of area, is the 7th
largest country in the world. Russia, Canada, China, USA,
Brazil and Australia occupy a larger area than India. While
the 8th largest country is Argentina.
2. Consider the following statements:
1. The longitudinal extent of the Indian mainland is
between 8°4’ N and 37°6’ N.
8°4’ North Latitude
2. The latitudinal extent of the Indian mainland is
between 68°7’ E and 97°25’ E.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct? Fig: Latitudinal and Longitudinal Extent of India
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
3. With reference to India, which one of the following
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 statements is correct?
Ans: (d) (a) The country has three time zones.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The latitudinal extent (not (b) There is one hour of time lag between western most
Longitudinal extent) of the Indian mainland is between and easternmost state.
8°4’ N and 37°6’ N (extent of Indian mainland , Southern (c) The standard meridian passes through Mirzapur,
most point of India is Indira point in Andaman and Nicobar Andhra Pradesh and Orissa.
Island group ). The Tropic of Cancer (23° 30’N) divides the (d) The standard meridian of the country is 82°30’W.
Ans: (c) Statement 2 is incorrect: India shares its longest
Option (a) is incorrect: India does not have three time border with Bangladesh, not China. The border between
zones. It has a single standard time for the whole country. India and Bangladesh is 4,096 kilometres long. The
Option (b) is incorrect: From India’s westernmost state, border between India and China is 3,488 kilometers
Gujarat to easternmost state, Arunachal Pradesh, there long. India is bordered by Afghanistan and Pakistan to
is a time lag of two hours. the northwest, China, Nepal and Bhutan to the north,
Option (c) is correct: The standard meridian of India Bangladesh and Myanmar to the east, and Sri Lanka and
passes through Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Maldives to the south.
Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Orissa and Andhra Pradesh. India and Pakistan are the world’s most heavily militarized
Option (d) is incorrect: India’s Standard Meridian is border. India and China are disputed in some areas.
82°30’E and not the 82°30’W. India and Nepal is the world’s highest border. India and
Bhutan is the world’s longest unfenced border. India and
Bangladesh is the world’s fifth-longest land border.
Statement 3 is correct: India has a coastline of over 7,500
kilometres. The coastline of India stretches from the Gulf
of Kutch in the west to the Bay of Bengal in the east. The
coastline of India is the world’s 10th-longest coastline.
5. Consider the following statements regarding the
location of India:
1. The Southern part lies within the tropics, while the
Northern part lies in the warm temperate zone.
2. The latitudinal extent of India has an impact on the
natural vegetation and climate variations.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
4. Consider the following statements regarding India: (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. India is the seventh largest country in the world by area. Ans: (d)
2. It shares its longest border with China to the north Statement 1 is correct: India’s location lies entirely in
and northeast of India. the northern hemisphere, where the extension of the
3. It has a coastline of over 7,500 kilometres. mainland is between latitudes 8° 4’ and 37° 6’ North,
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? longitudes 68° 7’ and 97° 25’ East. Looking at the latitudinal
(a) Only one (b) Only two extent, the southern part of the country is situated within
(c) All three (d) None the tropics, and the northern half is situated in the sub-
Ans: (a) tropical zone or the warm temperate zone.
Statement 1 is correct: India is the seventh largest Statement 2 is correct: India has a vast latitudinal extent
country in the world by area, with a land area of which ranges more than 3000 km, from Kashmir to
3,287,263 square kilometres. Kanyakumari. As a result, there are variations in natural
20 vegetation, climate, landforms etc., across India.
17.09
18 6. Consider the following statements:
16 1. India has nearly ten percent of the total geographical
area of the world.
14
2. It is the fifth largest country in terms of territorial expansion.
12
3. India’s East-West expansion is larger than its North-
9.98 9.83 9.60
South expansion.
Area (in Sq. Km.)

10
8.51
8
7.69 How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
6
(c) All three (d) None
4 3.28
Ans: (d)
2 Statement 1 is incorrect: India has a geographical area of
0 3.28 million square kilometres. India’s total area is 2.4%
Russia Canada USA China Brazil Australia India
Country of the total geographical area of the world. Its area is not
Fig: Seven Largest Countries in the World ten percent of the total geographical area of the world.

112 Indian Geography

 Statement 2 is incorrect: India is the world’s seventh ‰ Maximum length of Tropic of Cancer is in Madhya
largest country with a land boundary of about 15,200 Pradesh and shortest is in Rajasthan. Hence,
km, with a total length of the coastline being 7,516.6 km. statement 3 is correct.
It is not the fifth largest in terms of territorial extension. ‰ Mahi River is the only river to cross the Tropic of
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Indian mainland extends Cancer twice.
between 8°4’N to 37°6’ N latitudes and from 68°7’ E to ‰ Ranchi (Jharkhand) is the closest capital city to the
97°25’ E longitudes. Thus, the latitudinal and longitudinal Tropic of Cancer. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
extent of India is about 29 degrees. It measures about
‰ Capital cities north of Tropic of Cancer: Jaipur
3,214 km from north to south, and 2,933 km from east
(Rajasthan), Agartala (Tripura), Aizawl (Mizoram).
to west.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
7. Consider the following statements: ‰ Capital cities south of Tropic of Cancer: Gandhinagar
Statement-l: The sun rises in Dibrugarh, Assam, around (Gujarat), Bhopal (Madhya Pradesh), Raipur
two hours earlier than in Jaisalmer, Rajasthan. (Chattisgarh), Ranchi (Jharkhand) and Kolkata (West
Statement-ll: There is a variation of around 30 degrees Bengal).
between the extremes of longitudes in India.
Which of the following is correct with respect to the
above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and
Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
23°27’ N
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. Tropic of
Cancer
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
Ans: (a)
Statement-I is correct: The sun rises around 2 hours
earlier in Dibrugarh and other North-East States as
compared to Jaisalmer or the westernmost states of
Gujarat and Rajasthan.
Statement-II is correct: Longitudinal extent of India
is nearly 30 degrees between the easternmost and
westernmost extremes. This results in a time difference
of nearly two hours between the easternmost and the
westernmost parts of our country. The time along the 9. Consider the following statements:
Standard Meridian of India (82°30’E) passing through 1. The Tropic of Cancer passes through 8 Indian States.
Mirzapur (in Uttar Pradesh) is taken as the standard time
2. The Tropic of Cancer passes through the states of
for the whole country.
Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand,
Hence, both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, Odisha, West Bengal, Mizoram, and Tripura.
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
3. The Tropic of Cancer passes through the city of Kolkata
Statement-I.
in West Bengal.
8. Consider the following statements with reference to the How many of the above statements are correct?
Tropic of Cancer and the states through which it passes:
(a) Only one (b) Only two
1. The capital of Jharkhand is the closest capital city to it.
(c) All three (d) None
2. The capital of Tripura is situated south of it.
Ans: (a)
3. The shortest length of it is in Rajasthan.
Statement 1 is correct & Statement 2 is incorrect: The
How many of the statements given above are incorrect?
Tropic of Cancer passes through 8 Indian states: Gujarat,
(a) Only one (b) Only two Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand,
(c) All three (d) None West Bengal, Mizoram, and Tripura. It does not pass
Ans: (a) through Odisha.
Tropic of Cancer (23°27′ N) Statement 3 is incorrect: The Tropic of Cancer does not
It passes through Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, pass through the city of Kolkata. It passes through the
Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Krishnanagar district of West Bengal, which is about 100
Mizoram. km away from Kolkata.

India: Location 113

 10. With reference to Tropic of Cancer, consider the Which of the above given cities lies to the west of the
following statements: Standard Meridian of India?
1. Mahi River is the only river in India to cross the Tropic (a) 1, 3 and 5 only (b) 2 and 5 only
of Cancer twice. (c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (d) 3 and 5 only
2. The Tropic of Cancer crosses the Manipur Hills. Ans: (a)
3. The Tropic of Cancer passes through the Narora The longitude of 82°30’E is considered the Standard
Nuclear reactor. Meridian of India. The time at the Standard Meridian is
How many of the above statements are incorrect? regarded as the time for the whole country and is called
(a) Only one (b) Only two the Indian Standard Time or IST.
The cities of Lucknow, Raipur and Hyderabad lie on the
(c) All three (d) None
western side of the Standard Meridian of India. Some
Ans: (b) major state capitals to the east of the IST meridian are
Statement 1 is correct: The Mahi River is the only Patna, Kolkata, Bhubaneswar, Ranchi etc.
river in India to cross the Tropic of Cancer twice. The
river originates in Madhya Pradesh and flows through
Rajasthan and Gujarat before flowing into the Gulf of
Khambhat (Arabian Sea). It is also one of the five west-
flowing rivers of India. Mahi Bajaj Sagar Dam and Kadana
Dam are constructed across the Mahi River. SIKKIM

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Tropic of Cancer passes

through eight Indian states, namely Rajasthan, Gujarat,
Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal, Tripura and TRIPURA

Mizoram. The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through

Manipur.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Narora Nuclear Reactor is
located in the Bulandshahar district of Uttar Pradesh
on the bank of the Ganga. The Tropic of Cancer passes
through eight Indian states, namely Rajasthan, Gujarat,
Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal, Tripura and
ANDMAS & NICOBAR ISLANDS

Mizoram. The tropic of cancer does not pass through

Uttar Pradesh. Fig. Indian Standard Meridian
12. Consider the following pairs:
Name Location
1. Guhar Moti Western most point of India
2. Kibithu Eastern most point of India
3. Pygmalion point Northern most point of India
4. Indira Col Southern most point of India
How many of the above given pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Only three (d) All four
Ans: (b)
India stretches from snow-capped Himalayas in the north
to sun drenched coastal villages of the south and the
humid tropical forests on the south-west coast, from the
fertile Brahmaputra valley on its east to Thar desert in
the west. It covers an area of 32,87,263 sq. km. India is
the seventh largest in the world in terms of area. Some
points about its extent are as follows:
India Maps
‰ Latitude: 6°45’N to 37°6’N
11. Consider the following cities in India:
‰ Longitude: 68°7’E to 97°25’E
1. Lucknow 2. Ranchi
3. Raipur 4. Bhubaneshwar ‰ North to south: 3214 km (mainland extent)
5. Hyderabad ‰ East to west: 2933 Km

114 Indian Geography

 ‰ Kibithu: in Arunachal Pradesh, the Easternmost (a) 6 (b ) 7
point of India: Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched. (c) 5 (d ) 4
‰ Guhar Moti: Sir Creek, Gujrat, Westernmost point of Ans: (a)
India; Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched. If you travel by road from Aizwal, which is the capital
‰ Indira Col: in Jammu and Kashmir, the northernmost of Mizoram, to Shimla, which is the capital of Himachal
point of India under administrative control of India. If Pradesh, you have to travel through Mizoram, Assam,
we include Gilgit-Baltistan then northernmost point is West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh and Himachal Pradesh.
east of Kilik Pass. Hence, pair 4 is incorrectly matched. So the minimum number of states within India through
‰ Pygmalion Point or Indira Point: In Andaman and which you can travel is six.
Nicobar Islands, the southernmost point of India.
Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched.

(Northen) Indira
Extreme Point of India
Col Siachin Glacier, (Eastern)
northernmost Kibithu
point under Arunachal Pradesh
administrative
control of India.

(Western)
Guhar Moti
(Gujarat)

(Kanyakumari)
(Tamil Nadu) (Southern)
(Southern most Indira point
on the Mainland Great Nicobar
15. If you travel by road from Haridwar to Kodaikanal, what is
Fig. Extreme Point of India
the minimum number of States within India through which
13. Consider the following Indian States: you can travel, including the origin and the destination?
1. Rajasthan 2. Madhya Pradesh (a) 5 (b ) 6
3. Uttar Pradesh 4. Maharashtra (c) 7 (d ) 8
Which of the following is the correct sequence of arrangement Ans: (a)
of the above states, in increasing order of their area? Haridwar lies in Uttarakhand and Kodaikanal is a town in
(a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 3-4-2-1 Tamil Nadu.
(c) 2-4-1-3 (d) 4-3-2-1 Dehradun (Uttarakhand) → Uttar Pradesh → Chhattisgarh
Ans: (b) → Andhra Pradesh → Erode(Tamil Nadu)
Rajasthan is the largest state in India by area, followed by 16. Consider the following Indian States:
Madhya Pradesh, Maharastra, and Uttar Pradesh. 1. Odisha 2. Chattishgarh
Rajasthan is the largest state in India by area, with a total 3. Jharkhand 4. Andhra Pradesh
area of 342,239 square kilometers. Madhya Pradesh is 5. Uttar Pradesh
the second largest state in India by area, with a total area From how many of the above States the Standard
of 308,252 square kilometers. The other states in India Meridian of India passes?
ranked by area are-
(a) Only two (b) Only three
‰ Maharashtra (307,713 sq km) (3rd rank)
(c) Only four (d) All five
‰ Uttar Pradesh (240,928 sq km).( 4th rank)
Ans: (c)
‰ Gujarat (196,244 sq km) The Standard Meridian of India is 82°30’E. A standard
14. If you travel by road from Aizwal to Shimla, what is the meridian aims to bring uniformity in time across the
minimum number of States through which you need to country. The Standard Meridian of India passes through
travel, including the origin and the destination states? the following States:

India: Location 115

 ‰ Mirzapur and Allahabad in Uttar Pradesh, Statement 2 is correct: The northernmost point of India
‰ Satna in Madhya Pradesh, under Indian administration is near Indira Col, located
‰ Bilaspur in Chhattisgarh, in the Siachen Glacier region in the eastern Karakoram
‰ Raipur in Chhattisgarh, range. The southernmost point in India is Indira Point on
Nicobar Island.
‰ Jagdalpur in Chhattisgarh,
‰ Koraput in Odisha, 18. Among the following cities, which one lies on a latitude
‰ Vijayawada in Andhra Pradesh. closest to that of Jodhpur?
(a) Bhopal (b) Dhanbad
(c) Dibrugarh (d) Kanpur
Ans: (d)
Standard Meridian of India Lines of latitude, also called parallels, are imaginary lines
that divide the Earth. They run east to west, but measure
82.30° E

(Y) your distance north or south. The equator is the most

(X)
Bomdila Pass
well known parallel.
Mirzapur
Uttar Pradesh Jodhpur is the second largest city in the Indian state
of Rajasthan and has long been a popular destination
among international tourists. It is also called “the blue
(Z)
city”.
Chilka Lake
in Orrisa The latitude of Jodhpur, Rajasthan, India is 26.263863,
and the longitude is 73.
The latitude of Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh, India is
23.259933.
Dhanbad is situated in Jharkhand and lies between
23°37’3” N and 24°4’ N latitude.
Dibrugharh district extends from 27° 5’ 38” N to 27° 42’
30” N latitude.
Fig. Standard Meridian of India The latitude of Kanpur, Uttar Pradesh, India is 26.449923.
17. Consider the following statements: 19. With reference to the Indian State of Himachal Pradesh,
1. The location of India is such that it is present in the consider the following statements:
northern as well as southern hemisphere. 1. Himachal Pradesh is located in the western Himalayas.
2. The northernmost point, which comes under Indian 2. It is bordered by the U.T of Jammu and Kashmir, state
administrative control, is near Indira col. of Uttarakhand, Punjab, and Haryana only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct 3. The major rivers are the Satluj, Beas, Chenab, and Ravi.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only How many of the above statements are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Only one (b) Only two
Ans: (b) (c) All three (d) None
Statement 1 is incorrect: India’s mainland extends Ans: (b)
between 8°4’N and 37°6’N latitudes, and 68°7’E and
Statement 1 is correct: Himachal Pradesh is located in
97°25’E longitudes. The Tropic of Cancer (23°30’N)
the western Himalayas. It is bordered by the Tibetan
divides India into two almost equal parts. India lies
Autonomous Region of China to the east, the Union
entirely in the Northern Hemisphere.
Territory (UT) of Jammu and Kashmir and UT of Ladakh
to the north, Uttarakhand to the southeast, Haryana to
the south, and Punjab to the west and southwest.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Himachal Pradesh also shares a
border with Uttar Pradesh to the south. Further erstwhile
Jammu &Kashmir state has now been divided into two
Union Territories- Ladakh and Jammu& Kashmir.
Statement 3 is correct: The major rivers in Himachal
Pradesh are the Satluj, the Beas, the Chenab and the
Ravi. Shipki La pass is an important pass. River Sutlej
enters from Tibet via this pass.

116 Indian Geography

 20. Consider the following pairs: Chhattisgarh is a state in the central part of India that
shares its border with Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra
Name of the Hill station Location
in the west, Uttar Pradesh in the north, Odisha and
1. Ooty Nilgiri Hills Jharkhand in the east, and Andhra Pradesh in the south.
2. Kodaikanal Annamalai Hills Varanasi is a city on the Ganges river in northern India that
3. Munnar Palani Hills has a central place in the traditions of pilgrimage, death,
and mourning in the Hindu world. Located in the middle-
4. Nainital Shiwalik Ganges valley in the southeastern part of the state of Uttar
Which of the pairs given above are correct? Pradesh, Varanasi lies on the left bank of the river.
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1 and 3 only 22. Consider the following statements regarding the
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above location of Manipur:
Ans: (a) 1. Manipur is bordered by Nagaland to the North, Tripura
‰ Ooty is a town and a municipality in the Nilgiris to the South and Myanmar to the East.
district of the Indian state of Tamil Nadu, officially 2. The tropic of Cancer passes through Imphal, the
known as Udhagamandalam.It is situated in Nilgiri capital city of Manipur.
hills. Hence, pair 1 is correct. 3. Manipur shares its borders with the maximum number
‰ Kodaikanal, often called the “Princess of Hill of states in the North East.
Stations,” is situated at an elevation of 2,100 meters How many of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
in the Palani Hills, part of the Western Ghats, in Tamil (a) Only one (b) Only two
Nadu. Hence, pair 2 is incorrect. (c) All three (d) None
‰ Munnar hill station is referred to as the “Kashmir Ans: (c)
of South India”. It is situated in the Idukki district of
Statement 1 is incorrect: The state of Manipur is
Kerala. Munnar is also known for Neelakurinji, a rare bordered by Nagaland to the North, Mizoram to the
plant which flowers only once in twelve years. It is South and Assam to the West. It shares its international
situated on Annamalai hill also known as Elephant borders with Myanmar, which lies towards its east.
mountains. Hence, pair 3 is incorrect. Manipur doesn’t share its borders with Tripura.
‰ Nainital, often referred to as the ‘Lake District,’ lies Statement 2 is incorrect: Among the North East states,
in the Siwalik (Shiwalik) Range. It is a hill station in the tropic of cancer passes only through the states of
Uttarakhand state. Hence, pair 4 is correct Tripura and Mizoram. The capital of Manipur - Imphal, is
PW Only IAS Extra Edge located far away from it.
Western Ghats has various local names: Sahyadri in Statement 3 is incorrect: The state of Assam shares its
Maharashtra, Nilgiri Hills in Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, borders with the maximum number of states in the North
and Anaimalai Hills and Cardamom Hills in Kerala. East. Manipur shares its borders with only the states of
Assam, Nagaland and Mizoram.
21. If you travel by road from Vishakhaptanam to Varanasi,
what is the minimum number of states within India 23. Arrange the following locations from west to east:
through which you can travel, including the origin and 1. Lipulekh 2. Kalapani
destination? 3. Susta 4. Limpiyadura
(a) 3 (b ) 4 Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(c) 5 (d ) 7 (a) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 (b ) 1 – 4 - 2 - 3
Ans: (a) (c) 2 – 4 – 1- 3 (d ) 4 – 2 - 1 - 3
The minimum number of states one would likely traverse Ans: (d)
depends on the specific route chosen. The minimum Option (d) is correct:These regions were in the news due
number of states one would need to cross from to the new disputed political map of Nepal. The Treaty of
Visakhapatnam to Varanasi by road are Three states. Sugauli located the Kali River as Nepal’s western boundary
‰ Andhra Pradesh (starting from Visakhapatnam)- with India. King of Nepal gave up his claims over the
‰ Chhattisgarh region west of the river Kali which originates in the High
Himalayas and flows into the great plains of the Indian
‰ Uttar Pradesh (ending in Varanasi)
subcontinent. The source of Kali River according to Nepal
Visakhapatnam is a metropolitan city in the Indian state of
is in the mountains near Limpiyadhura, which is higher
Andhra Pradesh. It is between the Eastern Ghats and the
in altitude than the rest of the river’s flow. Nepal claims
coast of the Bay of Bengal. It is one of the four smart cities
that a land mass, high in the mountains that falls to the
of Andhra Pradesh selected under the Smart Cities Mission.

India: Location 117

 east of the entire stretch starting from Limpiyadhura. The Pair 3 is correctly matched: Palghat is also known as the
dispute is mainly because of the varying interpretation Palakkad Gap It lies to the south of Nilgiri Hills. It joins
of the origin of the river. The treaty recognized Gandak the state of Tamil Nadu with the seaports of Kerala. It
as the international boundary between India (Bihar) and connects Coimbatore with Kochi and Kozhikode.
Nepal. The right bank of Gandak came under Nepal’s Pair 4 is correctly matched: Thal ghat is located in the
control and the left bank became Indian Territory. At the Sahyadri Ranges. It Joins Nasik and Mumbai. The National
time the treaty was signed, Susta (Bihar) was on the right Highway No. 3 and the Bhopal Indore Railway Line pass
bank of the Gandak and a part of Nepal. But, over the through the Thal Ghat.
years, the Gandak changed its course and Susta moved
to the left bank that is on the Indian side of the river.

24. Which one of the following pairs of states of India

indicate the easternmost and westernmost states?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat
(b) Tripura and Rajasthan
(c) Mizoram and Rajasthan
(d) Assam and Gujarat
Ans: (a)
India is a large country that is located entirely in the
Northern Hemisphere. Its primary land area lies between
the longitudes (68°7’E and 97°25’E) and latitudes
(parallels) 8°4’N and 37°6’N.
The state of Arunachal Pradesh is the easternmost state
in India, located at longitude 97°25’E. Gujarat is the
westernmost state of India, however, as it is located at
the westernmost longitude 68°7’E.
25. Consider the following pairs 26. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the
Ghats Region connected by it Westward flowing rivers of peninsular India from North
to South?
1. Bhor Ghat Mumbai and Pune
(a) Damodar, Ajay, Narmada and Mahi.
2. Goram Ghat Udaipur and Sirohi (b) Luni, Sabarmati, Mahi and Narmada.
3. Pal Ghat Tamil Nadu and Kerala (c) Narmada, Ajay, Krishna and Sabarmati.
4. Thal Ghat Nashik and Mumbai (d) Pennar, Wardha, Sabarmati and Narmada.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Ans: (b)
(a) Only one (b) Only two The correct sequence of the westward flowing rivers of
peninsular India from north to south are Luni, Sabarmati,
(c) Only three (d) All four
Mahi and Narmada.
Ans: (d) ‰ Luni: It is the largest river in the Thar Desert of
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Bhor ghat Joins Mumbai with northwest India. It originates in the Pushkar valley of
Pune. It is about 1000 meters above sea level. It is one of the Aravalli Range, near Ajmer, passes through the
the most busy passes in the Western Ghats. The frequency southeastern portion of the Thar Desert, and ends in
of trains and commercial vehicles is enormous here. the marshy lands of Rann of Kutch in Gujarat. It is first
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Goram ghat lies to the south of known as Sagarmati, then after passing Govindgarh,
Mount Abu. It connects the city of Udaipur with Sirohi and it meets its tributary Sarasvati, which originates from
Jalore in Rajasthan. It is about 1200 meters above sea level. Pushkar Lake and from then on it is called Luni

118 Indian Geography

 ‰ Sabarmati: It originates in the Aravalli Range of the (a) 5 States (b) 6 States
Udaipur District of Rajasthan and meets the Gulf of (c) 8 States (d) 4 States
Khambhat of Arabian Sea. The Dharoi dam is located
on the main river. The river flows through Rajasthan Ans: (b)
and Gujarat. To move from Imphal (Manipur) to the city of Shimla
‰ Mahi: It rises in Madhya Pradesh and, after flowing
(Himachal Pradesh), one has to move through a minimum
through the Vagad region of Rajasthan, enters Gujarat of 6 states, including origin and destination States, namely:
and flows into the Arabian Sea. It is one of the relatively 1. Manipur (origin State)
few west-flowing rivers in India, alongside the endorheic 2. Assam
Luni River, the Sabarmati River, the Tapi River and the 3. West Bengal
Narmada River. The silt brought down by the Mahi has
4. Bihar
contributed to the shallowing of the Gulf of Khambhat.
5. Uttar Pradesh
‰ Narmada: It is the 5th longest river and overall
longest west-flowing river in India. It is also the 6. Himachal Pradesh (destination State)
largest flowing river in the state of Madhya Pradesh. The state of Himachal Pradesh shares its borders with
This river flows through the states of Madhya Pradesh the union territories of Ladakh and Jammu and Kashmir
and Gujarat in India. The Narmada River rises from to its north and with Punjab, Haryana, and Uttarakhand.
the Amarkantak Plateau in Madhya Pradesh. It forms Himachal Pradesh also shares a very narrow border with the
the traditional boundary between North India and state of Uttar Pradesh between Behat tehsil, Saharanpur
South India and flows westwards before draining district (UP)and Paonta Sahib tehsil, Sirmaur district (HP).
through the Gulf of Khambhat into the Arabian Sea.
29. Consider the following capital cities in north-east India:
1. Imphal 2. Aizawl
3. Shillong 4. Dispur
What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the
following cities as one proceeds from south to north,
moving along these capitals?
(a) 2-1-3-4 (b) 1-2-4-3
(c) 4-2-3-1 (d) 2-3-1-4
Ans: (a)

27. Among the following cities, which one lies to the

longitude farthest to that of Mumbai?
(a) Chennai (b) Thiruvananthapuram
(c) Jaipur (d) Bengaluru
Ans: (a)
Longitude measures distance east or west of the prime
meridian. Lines of longitude, also called meridians, are
imaginary lines that divide the Earth. They run north to
south from pole to pole, but they measure the distance
east or west. Longitude is measured in degrees, minutes,
and seconds. The knowledge of the location of major
Indian cities is important for spatial understanding of India.
‰ The longitude of Jaipur is 75.7873° E. Fig: Capital of the North-Eastern States
‰ The longitude of Chennai is 80.2707° E. Looking at the above administrative map of India it can
‰ The longitude of Thiruvananthapuram is 76.9270° E. be clearly observed: The South to North arrangement
is Aizawl (Mizoram), Imphal (Manipur), Shillong
‰ The longitude of Mumbai is 72.8833° E.
(Meghalaya) and Dispur (Assam).
‰ The longitude of Bengaluru is 77.5946° E.
Hence, Chennai lies farthest from the longitude of Mumbai. 30. Which one of the following channels lies between India
and Maldives?
28. Which among the following is the minimum number
(a) Eight Degree Channel (b) Ten Degree Channel
of states one has to cross while moving from Imphal to
Shimla, including origin and destination states? (c) Nine Degree Channel (d) Duncan Passage

India: Location 119

Ans: (a)
Option 1 is correct: The Eight Degree Channel is a strait
that lies between India’s Lakshadweep Islands (Minicoy)
and the Maldives. It is about 100 kilometres wide and is
named after its approximate latitude of 8 degrees north.
The channel is a popular route for shipping and fishing.
Option 2 is incorrect: The Ten Degree Channel is a strait
that lies between Little Andaman and Great Nicobar
Island. It is about 150 kilometers wide and is named after
its approximate latitude of 10 degrees north.
Option 3 is incorrect: The Nine Degree Channel is a strait
that lies between the Lakshadweep islands and Minicoy Map: India and the neighbouring countries.
Islands. It is about 50 kilometres wide and is named after 32. Arrange to following countries in terms of decreasing
its approximate latitude of 9 degrees north. the length of the border with India:
Option 4 is incorrect: Duncan Passage is a strait that 1. China 2. Bangladesh
lies between the Little Andaman and South Andaman 3. Pakistan 4. Nepal
Islands. It is about 48 kilometers wide and is named after Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
the British explorer John Duncan.
(a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 2-1-3-4
(c) 2-3-1-4 (d) 1-3-4-2
Ans: (b)
Countries having an International border with India are
Afghanistan and Pakistan to the North-west, China, Bhutan
and Nepal to the north, Myanmar to the far east, and
Bangladesh to the east. Sri Lanka is separated by a narrow
channel of sea formed by the Palk Strait and the Gulf of
Mannar. The country can be divided into six zones mainly
north, south, east, west, central, and north-east zone.
Fig: various water channels across India Country Length of Border (Km) % of total length
31. Consider the following pairs: Bangladesh 4096 26.95
Countries Bordering States
China 3917 25.77
1. Nepal Sikkim and West Bengal
2. Bangladesh Tripura and Manipur Pakistan 3310 21.78
3. Bhutan Assam and Arunachal Pradesh Nepal 1752 11.53
4. China Uttar Pradesh and Himachal Pradesh
Myanmar 1458 9.59
Which of the above given pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
(a) 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only Bhutan 587 3.86
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1 and 3 only Afghanistan 80 0.52
Ans: (d)
Hence, the correct order of the countries in terms
Pair 1 is correctly matched: The states sharing borders
of decreasing the length of the border with India is
with Nepal are Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, West
Bengal and Bihar. Bangladesh > China > Pakistan > Nepal.
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: The states of Assam, 33. With reference to the passes of North India, consider
Meghalaya, Tripura, West Bengal, and Mizoram share the following statements:
their borders with Bangladesh. Manipur doesn’t share its 1. The Karakoram Pass connects Ladakh with Xinjiang
borders with Bangladesh. province of China.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Bhutan shares its borders 2. Banihal Pass, in the Shivalik Range, held strategic
with 4 states of India i.e. Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, importance for Mughal emperors during their Kashmir
Assam and West Bengal. campaigns.
Pair 4 is incorrectly matched: The state of Uttar Pradesh Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
doesn’t share its border with China. The states sharing
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
their borders with China are Uttarakhand, Himachal
Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, and Sikkim. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

120 Indian Geography

Ans: (a) has historically been significant because it connects
Statement 1 is correct: The Karakoram Pass is located in the the Kashmir Valley with the outer Himalayas. It was of
Karakoram Range, which is part of a complex of mountain great strategic importance during the Mughal period,
ranges that also includes the Hindu Kush, Himalaya, and especially for emperors like Akbar and Jahangir, during
Pamir ranges. The pass is located between the Ladakh area their campaigns and travels to Kashmir. The construction
of India and the Xinjiang autonomous region of China. of the Jawahar Tunnel in the 20th century, which runs
Statement 2 is incorrect: Banihal Pass is located in under this pass, further highlights its strategic relevance
the Pir Panjal Range, not the Shivalik Range. This pass in connecting Jammu to Srinagar.

PW Only IAS Extra Edge

Pass Location Siginificance
Zoji La Kashmir-Ladakh Border Connects Srinagar to Leh; vital for all-weather road access to Ladakh.
Banihal Pass Pir Panjal Range Connects Jammuu to Srinagar; Strategic for Mughal campaigns and current raod link.
Khardung La Ladakh (Leh) One of the highest motorable passes; gateway to the Nubra Valley.
Chang La Ladakh Access to Pangong Lake; important for military and tourism.
Pansi La Zanskar Range Connects Kargill to Zanskar Valley; crucial for local connectivity
Fotu La Zanskar Range Highest point on the Srinagar-Leh Highway; Key for natinal highway NH1D.
Namika La Ladakh Located on Srinagar-Leh route; important for road connectivity in the region.
Rezang La Ladakh (near Chushul) Historically important in 1962 Sino-Indian War; strategic military location.

34. In the context of the Passes of India, consider the pass” or the “listening ears pass”. Nathu La is one of the
following pairs: three frequently-used passes between Sikkim and the
Passes State or Union Territories Chumbi Valley, the other two being Cho La and Jelep La.

Zoji-La Jammu and Kashmir

Shipki-La Himachal Pradesh
Nathu-La Arunachal Pradesh
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs (d) None of the pairs
Ans: (a)
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Zoji La pass is a high mountain
pass in the Himalayas. It is in the Kargil district, Indian Union 35. With respect to the Mountain passes of India, consider
territory of Ladakh. Located in the Dras subdivision, the pass the following pairs:
connects the Kashmir Valley to its west with the Dras and Passes Significance
Suru valleys to its northeast and the Indus valley further east.
National Highway 1 between Srinagar and Leh in the western 1. Sela Pass Carries NH 13 connecting Tawang with
section of the Himalayan mountain range, traverses the pass. the rest of India.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Shipki La is a mountain pass on 2. Pangsau located on the trijunction of India-
Pass China-Afghanistan
the India-China border. The pass is on the border between
the Kinnaur district in the state of Himachal Pradesh, India, 3. Aghil Pass links Jammu with the Kashmir Valley
and the Ngari Prefecture in Tibet, China. The pass is one of How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
India’s border trading points with Tibet along with NathuLa in (a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs
Sikkim, and Lipulekh in Uttarakhand. The National Highway (c) All three pairs (d) None of the pairs
5 (NH5) is a major highway in India that runs from Firozpur in Ans: (a)
Punjab to Shipki La. It is an important link that connects the Pair 1 is correct: The Sela Pass is a high-altitude mountain
northern plains of India with the remote Himalayan region. pass located on the border between the Tawang and
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Nathu La is a mountain pass West Kameng districts in the Indian state of Arunachal
Pradesh. It connects the Indian Buddhist town of Tawang
between Tibet and the Indian states of Sikkim, India. The
to Dirang and Guwahati. The pass carries the National
pass connects the towns of Kalimpong and Gangtok to the Highway 13 connecting Tawang with the rest of India.
villages and towns of the lower Chumbi Valley. The name Sela pass is one of the highest motorable mountain
“Nathu La” is traditionally interpreted as “the whistling passes in the world.

India: Location 121

 China-Bhutan tri-junction. It was a key battleground
during the 1962 Sino-Indian War and remains an
area of military interest today.

Yunggya Pass

Tunga Pass
Dipher Pass
Nathu La Dihang Pass
Bum La
Kumjawng Pass

Bom Di La Chaukan
Jelep La Pass

Pair 2 is incorrect: Pangsau Pass lies on the crest of the 37. With respect to the islands of India, consider the
Patkai Hills on the India–Myanmar border. The pass offers following pairs:
one of the easiest routes into Burma from the Assam plains. Islands Location
The Pangsau Pass Winter Festival is a global village event
organised every year in Nampong, Arunachal Pradesh. 1. Vypin Karnataka
Pair 3 is incorrect: The Aghil Pass is located in the Karakoram 2. Netrani Kerala
Range at an elevation of about 4,805 m above sea level in 3. Van Tivu Goa
the Jammu & Kashmir state of India northwards from the How many of the above pairs are incorrectly matched?
K2 peak. The mountain pass separates the Ladakh region (a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs
in India with the Shaksgam Valley in China.
(c) All three pairs (d) None of the pairs
Banihal Pass is located in the Pir Panjal Range between
Ramban and Anantnag. It links Jammu with the Kashmir Ans: (c)
Valley. Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Vypin is one of the group of
Aghil
islands that form part of the city of Kochi in the Indian state
][
Bu
rzi
l
Karakoram Pass
][
of Kerala. Vypin forms a barrier island which lies between
][ ] [
][ Zozi La
][ Khardung La the Arabian Sea in the west and the Cochin backwaters
Pir Panjal ][
Banihal
][
][
Bara Lacha formed by the various distributaries of Periyar river, in the
Rohtang Pass
east. It is one of the heaviest dense islands in the world.
Narakkal is the business capital of Vypin. It is one of the
islands that makes up the urban agglomeration of Kochi.
36. Consider the following passes in the North Eastern Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: The Netrani Islands is located
region of India: off the Murudeshwara coast in Karnataka. It is located in
1. Jelep La 2. Bomdi La the Arabian Sea. It is also known as Murudeshwar and
3. Bum La Pigeon Island. It is one of the best sites for scuba diving.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the It is a coral island suitable for snorkelling and diving. It is
above-mentioned passes from West to East? used by the Indian Navy for target practice.
(a) 1-2-3 (b) 2-3-1 Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Van Tīvu or Church Island
(c) 1-3-2 (d) 2-1-3 is an island in Tamil Nadu, Southern India. It is one of
Ans: (c) the 21 islands of the Gulf of Mannar. One-fourth of the
‰ Jelep La, a mountain pass in the eastern Himalayas island is sinking under water due to coral mining that
on the India-Tibet border, is strategically important was rampant in the past. The island is protected as it falls
for trade and cultural exchange. Located in Sikkim, under the Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park.
it historically served as a key route on the Old Silk
38. Consider the following ports:
Route, connecting India and China.
1. Kolkata port 2. Haldia port
‰ Bomdi La, a mountain pass in Arunachal Pradesh, India,
3. Paradip port 4. Visakhapatnam port
is located in a mountainous region and holds local
importance for connectivity and travel within the state. 5. Dahej
How many of the above are classified as Major Port?
‰ Bum La, a border pass between Tibet (China) and
Tawang district in Arunachal Pradesh, India, holds (a) Only two (b) Only three
strategic significance due to its proximity to the India- (c) Only four (d) All five

122 Indian Geography

Ans: (c) to Kanyakumari). The Eastern coast runs along the Bay
India has a sprawling coastline of over 7,500 kilometers of Bengal. It is wider than the western coastal plain. The
with one of the largest exclusive economic zones in the northern part of the coast is called Northern Circar and the
world. As a result, trade by sea has always been of high southern part is called Coromandel Coast.
importance to the Indian economy. Even today, seaborne Statement II is incorrect: The Eastern coast of India,
trade constitutes 70% of India’s total trade volume. This especially its south-eastern part (Tamil Nadu coast),
trade occurs through 13 major (Vadhavan Port is being appears to be a coast of emergence. The western coast of
developed as an all-weather greenfield deep draft major India, on the other hand, is both emergent and submergent.
port, 13th major port of India) and 205 minor ports spread The northern portion of the coast is submerged due to
along the Indian mainland and its oceanic territories. Any faulting, while the southern portion, which includes the
port under the control of the Central Government through Kerala coast, is an example of an emergent coast.
the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways is known 40. Consider the following statements with reference to
as a major port of India. This ministry was formerly known different Indian states:
as the Ministry of Shipping until its name was changed in 1. Andhra Pradesh has the longest coastline among all
2020. Some of the major ports of India are: the Indian States.
Major ports on the eastern coast: 2. The rock cut caves of Khandagiri and Udayagiri are
‰ Kolkata port (West Bengal) located in the state of Uttarakhand.
3. Goa became the state of India in the year 1961
‰ Haldia port (West Bengal)
following its liberation from Portuguese.
‰ Paradip port (Orissa) How many of the statements given above are correct ?
‰ Visakhapatnam port (Andhra Pradesh) (a) Only one (b) Only two
‰ Kamarajar port (Tamil Nadu) (c) All three (d) None
‰ Chennai port (Tamil Nadu) Ans: (d)
‰ Chidambaram or Tuticorin port (Tamil Nadu) Statement 1 is incorrect: The Indian coastline which is
Major ports on the western coast: 7516.6 km long covers 6100 km of mainland coastline along
‰ Cochin port (Kerala) with the Andaman, Nicobar and the Lakshadweep islands.
‰ New Mangalore port (Karnataka) The coastline of India touches 13 states and Union Territories.
It passes through 13 states and union territories (UTs) in total.
‰ Mormugao port (Goa)
Andhra Pradesh indeed ranks second in terms of coastline
‰ Mumbai port (Maharashtra) length among Indian states. It has a coastline of approximately
‰ Jawaharlal Nehru port (Maharashtra) 974 kilometers along the eastern coast of India, making it the
‰ Deendayal port (Gujarat) state with the second-longest coastline after Gujarat.
‰ Dahej is a minor port in the state of Gujarat. Statement 2 is incorrect: The rock-cut caves of Khandagiri and
Udayagiri were built by Jain monks during the reign of King
39. Consider the following statements:
Kharavela of the Mahameghavahana dynasty. King Kharavela
Statement-I: The Eastern coast plain of India is wider
ruled the Kalinga region, which is present-day Odisha, around
than the Western coastal plain.
the 1st century BCE. The caves served as residence and
Statement-II: Western Coastal Plains are submerged
meditation spaces for Jain monks, and they contain intricate
plains while Eastern Plains are emergent plains. carvings, inscriptions, and sculptures depicting various
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the aspects of Jainism and the life of King Kharavela.
above statements?
Statement 3 is incorrect: In 1961, Goa was liberated
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and from Portuguese colonial rule by the Indian Armed Forces
Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I through Operation Vijay. However, it was only in 1987 that
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement- II are correct and Goa attained statehood and became a full-fledged state
Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I of the Indian Union. Before that, it was administered as a
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Union Territory by the Government of India.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct 41. Consider the following statements with respect to India:
Ans: (c) 1. Narcondam Island, located in the Bay of Bengal, has
Statement I is correct: The coastal plains in India run parallel a volcanic origin.
to the Arabian Sea & Bay of Bengal along the Peninsular 2. Barren Island is the only active volcano of South Asia.
Plateau. The western coastal plain is a narrow belt along 3. Baratang Island contains the only known examples of
the Arabian Sea. It stretches from Rann of Kachchh to Kanya mud volcanoes in India.
Kumari. The Western coastal plains comprise three sectors How many of the above statements are correct?
(i) Konkan Coast (Mumbai to Goa), (ii) Karnataka coast (a) Only one (b) Only two
from Goa to Mangalore (iii) Malabar Coast (Mangalore (c) All three (d) None

India: Location 123

Ans: (c) How many of the above statements are correct?
Statement 1 is correct: Narcondam Island is an oceanic (a) Only one (b) Only two
island of volcanic origin located about 240 km northeast (c) All three (d) None
of Port Blair in the Andaman Islands, in the Bay of Bengal.
Ans (b)
The proximity to Myanmar lends it a great strategic and
geopolitical significance. It is the easternmost point of Statement 1 is correct: Kanha National Park is nestled
the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. It was classified as in the Maikal range of Satpuras in Madhya Pradesh, the
a dormant volcano by the Geological Survey of India. heart of India that forms the central Indian highlands. The
Narcondam Island’s volcanic mountain, is the second national park is being popularised as the Tiger reserve and
tallest point in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, the interestingly is being declared as one of the finest wildlife
first being Saddle Peak, North Andaman Island. areas in the world. This vivacious land has been the source
Statement 2 is correct: Barren Island is located in the of inspiration for Rudyard Kipling, a famous writer for
Andaman Sea, south of the Narcondam Island. It is the his outstanding creation- “The Jungle Book”. The Kanha
only active volcano of India and South Asia and the only National Park is the ideal home for wide ranges of wild
active volcano along a chain of volcanoes from Sumatra creatures from tigers to the most populated Barasingha and
to Myanmar. There is about 2 km wide caldera at the top the countless species of plants, birds, reptiles and insects.
of the Barren Island that was formed by the Pleistocene Statement 2 is incorrect: River Dhansiri is the left bank
collapse of a primitive cone of a stratovolcano. The island tributary of the Brahmaputra rises from the Barail Range
is a protected area under Barren Island WildLife Sanctuary. and joins the Brahmaputra just downstream of the
Statement 3 is correct: The Baratang Island belongs to the Majuli Island. It flows east of the Rengma Hills and the
Great Andaman Chain, adjoining the Andaman Sea. The Mikir Hills where the Kaziranga National Park is situated.
Island has Middle Andaman to its north, and South Andaman Banas is the most important left bank tributary of the
to the south. Baratang contains the only known examples of Chambal. It rises from the southeastern part of the
mud volcanoes in India. These mud volcanoes have erupted Aravallis and meets the Chambal at the Rajasthan and
sporadically. The locals call this mud volcano ‘Jalki’. Madhya Pradesh border. The Ranthambore National Park
42. With reference to the National Park and Biosphere is situated at the confluence of the Banas and the Chambal.
Reserves of India, consider the following statements: Statement 3 is correct: The Great Nicobar Biosphere
1. Kanha National Park is located in the Maikal range of Reserve incorporates two National parks of India : the
Satpuras in Madhya Pradesh. larger Campbell Bay National Park on the northern part
2. River Dhansari passes through the Ranthambore of the island, and Galathea National Park in the southern
National Park. interior. The environment is classified by the World Wide
3. The Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve incorporates Fund for Nature as tropical and subtropical moist broadleaf
the Galathea National Park. forests biome, and located in the Indo-malayan realm.

124 Indian Geography

 2 Structure and
Physiography

Objective Questions for Practice

1. Which of the following plate boundary exists between Ans: (b)

the Indian plates and Eurasian plate at Himalaya Beyond the Dihang Gorge (Brahmaputra), the Himalayas
Mountain? bend sharply to the south. They are known as the
(a) Transform boundary Purvanchal or the Eastern hills and mountains. General
alignment is from north to south direction.
(b) Continent-continent convergence
‰ They are known by different names (North to South)
(c) Ocean-continent convergence
- Patkai Bum (forms the border between Arunachal
(d) Divergent boundary Pradesh and Myanmar), Naga Hills (forms watershed
Ans: (b) between India and Myanmar), Manipur Hills (Border
Option (a) is incorrect: Transform Boundaries- Where between Manipur and Myanmar), and Mizo or
the crust is neither produced nor destroyed as the plates Lushai Hills (Highest Peak- Blue Mountain), inhabited
slide horizontally past each other. Transform faults are the by tribal groups practising Jhum cultivation. Hence,
planes of separation generally perpendicular to the mid pair 1 and 3 are correct and Pair 2 is incorrect.
oceanic ridges. It exists near Gujarat at Alahaband Fault. ‰ Mizoram is also known as the ‘Molassis basin’. It is
Option (b) is correct: Continent to continent Convergent made up of soft, unconsolidated deposits.
Boundaries- The movement of the Indian plate towards 3. Consider the following mountain peaks:
the Eurasian plate, a major event that occurred was the 1. Nag Tibba 2. Mansalu
outpouring of lava and formation of the Deccan Traps. 3. Nanda Devi 4. Kamet
Option (c) is incorrect: Oceanic to oceanic Convergent How many of the above peaks are part of the Great
Boundaries- Where the two ocean crust is destroyed Himalayas?
as one plate dives under another. When sinking of
(a) Only one (b) Only two
one oceanic plate occurs to another oceanic plate
that boundary is called oceanic to oceanic convergent (c) Only three (d) All four
boundary. Ans: (c)
Option (d) is incorrect: Divergent Boundaries- Where The Himalayas consist of three main parallel ranges: the
new crust is generated as the plates pull away from each Great Himalayas (Himadri), Lesser Himalayas (Himachal),
other. The sites where the plates move away from each and Shiwaliks.
other are called spreading sites. The best-known example ‰ Nag Tibba is a peak in Uttarakhand which is a part of
of divergent boundaries is the Mid-Atlantic Ridge. lesser Himayas. Hence, point 1 is incorrect.
2. Consider the following pairs: ‰ Mansalu (Nepal), Nanda Devi (Uttarakhand) and
Kamet (Uttarakhand) are the peaks of Great
Mountain Range Description Himalayas. Hence, point 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
1. Patkai Bum Forms border between Myanmar
and Arunachal Pradesh
2. Manipur Hills Separate Manipur and Nagaland
3. Naga Hills Form watershed between India and
Myanmar
Which of the pairs given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
 9. Nanga Parbat - 8125 - Pak. occupied Kashmir
PW Only IAS Extra Edge
10. Annapurna - 8091 - Nepal
‰ Great Himalayas
11. Gasherbrum I - 8068 - Pak./China occupied Kashmir
• It is the northernmost or the innermost of all
the Himalayan ranges. 12. Broad Peak - 8047 - Pak./China occupied Kashmir
• It is composed of central crystallines (granites 13. Shisha Pangma - (Xixabangma Feng/Gosainthan) -
8046 - Nepal/Tibet
and gneisses) overlain by metamorphosed
sediments. 14. Gasherbrum II - 8035 - Pak./China occupied Kashmir
• Folds are asymmetrical (steep southern slope PW Only IAS Extra Edge
and gentle northern slope) giving ‘hogback’ ‰ The Himalayas cross five countries: Bhutan, India,
topography. Nepal, China, and Pakistan.
• Shape is convex to the south, terminates ‰ The Himalayan range is bordered on the northwest
abruptly at Nanga Parbat (north-west) and by the Karakoram and Hindu Kush ranges, on the
Namcha Barwa (north-east). north by the Tibetan Plateau, and on the south by
• Peaks: The highest is Mount Everest; other the Indo-Gangetic Plain.
important peaks in descending order of ‰ Some of the world’s major rivers, the Indus, the
altitude - Kanchenjunga, Lhotse, Makalu, Ganges, and the Tsangpo–Brahmaputra, rise in
Dhaulagiri, Manaslu, Nanga Parbat, Annapurna, the vicinity of the Himalayas, and their combined
Gosainthan or Shisha Pangma. drainage basin is home to some 600 million
• Some of the important peaks between 7,100 people; 53 million people live in the Himalayas
and 8,000 m elevation - Nanda Devi, Kamet,
5. Which of the following statements is incorrect with
Namcha Barwa, Gurla Mandhata, Badri Nath,
reference to the Himalayan Mountain Ranges?
Trisul, etc.
‰ Ranges of Middle or Lesser Himalayas (Himachal (a) The Himalayan ranges are devoid of igneous rocks.
or Lower Himalayas) include Pir Panjal, Dhaola (b) Tethys Geosynclines accumulated rocks that were
Dhar, Mussoorie Range, Nag Tiba, Kumaon Range folded to form the Himalayan ranges.
and Mahabharat Lekh. (c) The Duns are the longitudinal valleys that run between
the Lesser Himalayas and the Shiwaliks.
4. Consider the following mountain peaks:
(d) The folds of the Great Himalayas are asymmetrical in
1. Cho Oyu 2. Lhotse nature.
3. Manaslu 4. Gasherbrum I
Ans: (a)
How many of the above peaks fall under the Himalayan
‰ The Himalayas comprise three parallel ranges, with
Mountain ranges? the largest called “Himadri” or the Great Himalayas.
(a) Only one (b) Only two Notable for asymmetrical folds, its core is made
(c) Only three (d) All four of granite. Two main rock zones feature igneous
plutonic rocks like pegmatite, monazite, diorite,
Ans: (d)
gabbro, tonalite, and the rare extrusive rock alunite.
Boasting jagged summits, massive glaciers, stunning (Hence, option (a) is incorrect.)
mountain vistas, and the highest peak on Earth, the
‰ The Gondwana land included India, Australia, South
Himalayas are the loftiest mountain range in the
Africa, South America and Antarctica as one single land
world. Covering a vast swath of south-central Asia, the
mass. The convectional currents split the crust into a
Himalayas contain 3,411 named peaks, the highest and
number of pieces, thus leading to the drifting of the
most prominent of which is the mighty Mount Everest Indo-Australian plate after being separated from the
(Sagarmāthā/Chomolungma) at 8,848 m (29,032 ft). Gondwana land, towards the north. The northward
Some of the top Himalayan Peaks are given below: drift resulted in the collision of the plate with the
1. Everest - (Sagarmatha/Qomolangma) - 8850 - Nepal- much larger Eurasian Plate. Due to this collision,
Tibet the sedimentary rocks which were accumulated in
2. K2 - (Godwin Austen) - 8611 - (Pak./China occupied the geosyncline known as the Tethys were folded to
Kashmir) form the mountain system of western Asia and the
Himalayas. (Hence, option (b) is correct.)
3. Kanchenjunga - 8598 - Nepal-India
4. Lhotse - 8501 - Nepal/Tibet ‰ The longitudinal valley lying between the Lesser
Himalayas and the Shiwaliks are known as Duns.
5. Makalu - 8463 - Nepal/Tibet
Dehra Dun, Kotli Dun and Patli Dun are some of the
6. Cho Oyu - 8201 - Nepal/Tibet well-known Duns. (Hence, option (c) is correct.)
7. Dhaulagiri - 8167 - Nepal ‰ The folds of the Great Himalayas are asymmetrical in
8. Manaslu - 8163 - Nepal nature. (Hence, option (d) is correct.)

126 Indian Geography

 6. Which of the following glaciers are found on the of Uttarakhand on the northern border with Tibet region
Karakoram range? held by China. The Old Lipulekh Peak or Old Lipulekh Pass,
1. Biafo 2. Zemu a Mount Kailash viewing point at 17,500 ft elevation,
lies west of Lipulekh Pass. The Lipulekh pass is near
3. Rongbuck 4. Baltoro
the trading town of Taklakot (Purang) in Tibet and used
5. Hispar since ancient times by traders, mendicants and pilgrims
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: transiting between India and Tibet.
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only (b) 1, 4 and 5 only
8. Which one of the following best describes the term
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only ‘Bugyals’?
Ans: (b) (a) Below sea level rice cultivation system in Kerala.
The Karakoram Range is a Trans- Himalayan mountain that (b) Large pieces of lands that are used as salt pans in Rann
starts from the Pamir Knot. Because of their great height, of Kutch.
the Karakorams exhibit heavy glaciation, particularly on
(c) Hill slopes in Darjeeling used for tea cultivation.
the southern, more humid slopes. They are a heavily
glaciated part of the world outside the polar regions. The (d) Alpine meadows in the higher reaches of Uttarakhand.
Glaciers of the Karakoram range include Hispar, Chogo Ans: (d)
Lungma, Batura, Biafo, Baltoro and Siachen. In the native Uttarakhandi dialect, bugyal refers to a
‰ Hispar Glacier: It is the third largest glacier of the meadow or pasture. These are alpine meadows in the
Karakoram region. It occupies a tributary of the higher reaches. Dayara Bugyal, located 12000 feet above
Hunza River. It combines with Biafo Glacier occupying sea level, is one of the state’s most pristine meadows. In
about 65 sq. km of Braldoh Valley. the Great Himalayan range, the valleys are used by the
‰ Biafo Glacier: It is located between Hispar and Bhotias. These are nomadic groups who migrate to these
Baltoro glaciers, and occupies the Braldoh Valley. It is bugyals during the summer months and return to the
the 4th largest glacier of the Karakoram region. valleys during winter.
‰ Baltoro Glacier: It is found on the Karakoram range,
west of the Siachen glacier. It gives rise to the Shigar
river, a tributary of the Indus river
7. Consider the following pairs:
Passes States
1. Nathu La Arunachal Pradesh
2. Shipki La Ladakh
3. Lipulekh Uttarakhand
How many of the pairs given above are correctly
matched?
(a) Only one (b) Only two Fig: A Bugyal.
(c) All three (d) None 9. With reference to Indian geography, which one of the
Ans: (a) following best describes Karewas?
Pair 1 is incorrect: Nathu La is a mountain pass in the (a) The region of the Kashmir Himalayas that contains
Dongkya Range of the Himalayas between China’s Yadong substantial amounts of glacial clay and other minerals.
County in Tibet, and the Indian states of Sikkim and (b) The alluvial fans in the Northwest of India created by
West Bengal in Bengal, South Asia. The pass, at 4,310 m the Indus River’s tributaries.
(14,140 ft), connects the towns of Kalimpong and Gangtok (c) The narrow, moist, heavily wooded areas in the
to the villages and towns of the lower Chumbi Valley. foothills of the Himalayas that have poor drainage
Pair 2 is incorrect: Shipki La is a mountain pass and (d) The thar desert’s oases
border post with a dozen buildings of significant size on
the India-China border. The river Sutlej, which is called Ans: (a)
Langqên Zangbo in Tibet, enters India (from Tibet) near Karewas, found in the Kashmir Himalayas, are dense
this pass. The pass is on the border between the Kinnaur deposits of glacial clay mixed with moraines.
district in the state of Himachal Pradesh, India, and the ‰ Geographically, they lie between the Pir Panjal Range
Ngari Prefecture in Tibet, China. The pass is one of India’s and the Great Himalayan Range in Northwest India.
border trading points with Tibet along with Nathu La in ‰ These lacustrine formations, specifically known as
Sikkim and Lipulekh in Uttarakhand. the Karewa Formation, consist of glacial-fluvial-
Pair 3 is correct: Lipulekh La or Lipulekh Pass is a lacustrine and aeolian loess, dating back to the Plio-
Himalayan pass in border between Nepal & Indian state Pleistocene era.

Structure and Physiography 127

 ‰ Karewas, renowned for their cultivation of Zafran, a Pradesh, Nagaland and Upper Burma region of Myanmar.
local variety of saffron, play a vital role in the region’s They were created by the same tectonic processes that
agricultural landscape, contributing significantly to created the Himalayas in the Mesozoic.
its prosperity. The Pangsau Pass offers the most important route
10. Consider the following statements: through the Patkai. The Ledo Road was built through
Pangsau Pass as a strategic supply road over the duration
1. Almora Fault is a high angle west-northwest-east-
of World War II to link India with the Burma Road and
southeast to northwest-southeast trending tectonic
finally onto China.
plane.
Naga hills: The Naga hills are a mountain range located
2. It is a sharp break in the crustal rocks.
in the northeastern Indian state of Nagaland. The highest
3. The Minister of Earth Sciences is responsible for point of the Naga hills is Mount Saramati .
assessment of earthquakes in this region. Manipur hills: The Manipur hills are a mountain range
How many of the above statements are correct with located in the northeastern Indian state of Manipur.
respect to Almora Fault? Mizo hills: The Mizo hills, also known as the Lushai hills,
(a) Only one (b) Only two are a mountain range located in the northeastern Indian
(c) All three (d) None state of Mizoram. The Mizo hills are a part of the Patkai
Ans: (c) mountain range system. Phawngpui, also known as Blue
Mountain, is the highest mountain peak in the Mizo Hills.
Statement 1 is correct: Tectonic Plates Separating
Lesser Himalayas: The Almora Fault is a high angle
west-northwest-east-southeast to northwest-southeast
trending tectonic plane. It separates the Garhwal group
of inner lesser Himalayas in the north from Jaunsar and
Dudhatoli Groups of outer lesser Himalayas in the south.
Statement 2 is correct: It is a sharp break in the crustal
rocks. Rocks along a fault tend to move in opposite
directions. As the overlying rock strata press them, the
friction locks them together. However, their tendency to
move apart at some point of time overcomes the friction
and the blocks get deformed and eventually, they slide
past one another abruptly.
Statement 3 is correct: Union Minister of Earth Sciences
has informed Lok Sabha that the earthquake activity in
the year 2023 increased and it was mainly attributed to
the activation of the Almora fault in Western Nepal.
11. Which of the following hills comprise the ‘Purvanchal’? 12. Consider the following statements with respect to
1. Patkai hills 2. Naga hills 3. Gir hills frequent earthquakes occurrence in Afghanistan:
4. Manipur hills 5. Mizo hills 6. Bhanrer hills 1. The northward movement of the Indian Plate towards
Select the correct answer from using the codes given the Eurasian Plate causes earthquakes.
below: 2. Afghanistan is crisscrossed by various active fault
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 6 only (b) 2, 3, 5 and 6 only systems like the Chaman Fault and the Main Pamir
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 Thrust.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Ans: (c)
The Brahmaputra marks the easternmost boundary of (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
the Himalayas. Beyond the Dihang gorge, the Himalayas (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
bend sharply to the south and spread along the eastern Ans: (c)
boundary of India. They are known as the Purvanchal Statement 1 is correct: Afghanistan is located over
or the Eastern hills and mountains. These hills running multiple fault lines in the region where the Indian and
through the north-eastern states are mostly composed the Eurasian tectonic plates meet. These plates collide
of strong sandstones, which are sedimentary rocks. often, leading to significant tectonic activity in the
Covered with dense forests, they mostly run as parallel region. The northward movement of the Indian Plate
ranges and valleys. The Purvanchal comprises the Patkai towards the Eurasian Plate causes compression, uplifting
hills, the Naga hills, the Manipur hills and the Mizo hills. the Himalayas and generating tectonic stress that
Patkai hills: They are located in the Indo-Myanmar border deforms the crust and creates earthquakes through fault
falling in the north-eastern Indian states of Arunachal movements.

128 Indian Geography

 Statement 2 is correct: Active Fault Systems: Afghanistan belt. This region is characterised by the deposition
is also crisscrossed by various active fault systems like of coarse sediments, such as pebbles and gravel,
the Chaman Fault and the Main Pamir Thrust. These as rivers descend from the mountains. Hence,
faults are the sources of many earthquakes in the region. statement 1 is incorrect.
Afghanistan is situated in the Hindu Kush Mountain • In contrast, the Khadar region, which lies further
range, which is one of the most seismically active regions downstream, receives finer alluvium, making it
in the world. more fertile than the Bhabhar region.
13. Consider the following statements with reference to the ‰ Terai: Streams and rivers re-emerge without proper
Great Indian Plains: demarcated channels and create a wet, swampy and
marshy region. This was a thickly forested region
1. All the streams disappear in this bhabar belt.
with wildlife. Dudhwa National Park is situated in the
2. The largest part of the northern plain is formed of Terai region.
older alluvium. • This is good for agriculture because of its flat land,
3. The newer, younger deposits of the floodplains are fertile soil, and warm, humid climate. The Terai
called khadar. region is often called the granary of Nepal. Hence,
How many of the statements given above are correct? statement 2 is incorrect.
(a) Only one (b) Only two ‰ Bhangar constitutes older alluvium deposits. Soil
(c) All three (d) None contains calcareous deposits, locally known as
kankar. Khadar contains Younger floodplain deposits.
Ans: (c) Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct: The Northern plains can be
15. Consider the following statements in the context of
divided into four regions. The rivers, after descending
Duars:
from the mountains deposit pebbles in a narrow belt
of about 8 to 16 km in width lying parallel to the slopes 1. These are the alluvial floodplains situated in the outer
of the Shiwaliks. It is known as bhabar. All the streams foothills of the Himalayas.
disappear in this bhabar belt. South of the Bhabar belt, 2. This is characterized by a substantial soil cover rich in
the streams and rivers re-emerge and create a wet, organic content conducive to the cultivation of tea.
swampy and marshy region known as terai. This is a Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
thickly forested region full of wildlife. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Statement 2 is correct: The largest part of the northern (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
plain is formed of older alluvium. It lies above the
Ans: (c)
floodplains of the rivers and presents a terrace-like
Statement 1 is correct: The Dooars (or Duars) are
feature. This part is known as bhangar. The soil in this
expansive alluvial floodplains situated in eastern and
region contains calcareous deposits, locally known as
northeastern India and southern Bhutan, forming a
kankar.
crucial geographical region. They lie between the outer
Statement 3 is correct: The newer, younger deposits foothills of the Himalayas (Terai region) to the north and
of the floodplains are called khadar. They are renewed the Brahmaputra River basin to the south.
almost every year and so are fertile, thus, ideal for
Statement 2 is correct: Capitalizing on favourable
intensive agriculture.
conditions like a gentle slope, abundant soil with high
14. Consider the following statements: organic content, consistent year-round rainfall, and
1. The Bhabhar region is characterised by the deposition mild winters, the British established tea plantations in
of finer alluvial soil than that of the Khadar region. this area. Renowned globally, Darjeeling and Assam tea
2. Terai region is not suitable for agriculture. gardens are celebrated for the exceptional quality of
their tea leaves.
3. Bangar contains older alluvial deposits.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 16. Consider the following statements with reference to the
tributaries of the Indus River:
(a) 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Ravi flows through the Chamba Valley of Himachal
Pradesh.
Ans: (a)
2. Beas flows through the Kullu Valley, and forms gorges
Northern Plains can be divided into three major zones
in the Dhauladhar range.
from north to south: Bhabar, Tarai and alluvial plains
(Bhangar & Khadar). 3. Sutlej is an antecedent river known as Langchen
Khambab in Tibet.
‰ Bhabar: The rivers, after descending from the
Which of the statements given above are correct?
mountains, deposit rocks and boulders in a narrow
belt of about 8 to 16 km lying parallel to the slopes (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
of the Shiwaliks. Streams disappear in this Bhabar (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Structure and Physiography 129

Ans: (d) Statement 3 is incorrect: The Western Ghats runs parallel
Statement 1 is correct: The Ravi is an important tributary to the western coast for about 1600 km. The average
of the Indus. It rises west of the Rohtang Pass in the Kullu elevation of the Western Ghats is 1000 metres. The famous
hills of Himachal Pradesh and flows through the Chamba peaks in this area are Doda Betta, Anamudi, and Makurti.
valley of the state. Before entering Pakistan and joining The highest peak in this region is Anaimudi (2695 m).
the Chenab near Sarai Sidhu, it drains the area lying Western ghats are continuous and can be crossed through
between the southeastern part of the Pir Panjal and the passes like Pal Ghat, Thal Ghat, and Bhor Ghat.
Dhauladhar ranges. 18. Consider the following:
Statement 2 is correct: The Beas is also an important
1. Temperature
tributary of the Indus, originating from the Beas Kund
near the Rohtang Pass at an elevation of 4,000 m above 2. Air pressure
mean sea level. The river flows through the Kullu valley, 3. Direction and speed of wind
and forms gorges at Kati and Largi in the Dhauladhar 4. Amount and distribution of rainfall
range. It enters the Punjab plains, where it meets the Which of the above are affected by the physiography or
Satluj near Harike. relief of India?
Statement 3 is correct: The Satluj originates in the (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only
‘Raksas tal’ near Mansarovar at an altitude of 4,555 m in
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Tibet, where it is known as Langchen Khambab. It flows
almost parallel to the Indus for about 400 km before Ans: (d)
entering India and comes out of a gorge at Rupar. It The physiography or relief of India significantly
passes through Shipki La on the Himalayan ranges and influences all the factors mentioned.
enters the Punjab plains. It is an antecedent river. It is a ‰ Temperature:
very important tributary as it feeds the canal system of • Physiographic features like the Himalayas block
the Bhakra Nangal project. cold winds from Central Asia, keeping northern
17. Consider the following statements: India warmer in winter. Similarly, coastal areas
have moderate temperatures due to proximity
1. The River Indus flows northwest between the Zanskar
to the sea, while interior regions experience
and Ladakh ranges.
extreme temperatures.
2. The Nallamala hills have the highest peak in the
‰ Air Pressure:
Eastern Ghats region.
• Relief features like plateaus, mountains, and valleys
3. The Doddabetta is the highest peak in the Western
affect air pressure patterns. For instance, the
Ghats region.
Himalayas create a high-pressure zone in winter
How many of the statements given above are correct? and influence the monsoonal low-pressure system.
(a) Only one (b) Only two ‰ Direction and Speed of Wind:
(c) All three (d) None • The Western Ghats and Himalayas deflect
Ans: (a) monsoon winds, influencing their direction and
Statement 1 is correct: There are some mountain speed. The Himalayas channelize northwesterly
ranges north of Himadri in Jammu and Kashmir. The winds, while the Western Ghats affect the
range extending to the north of the Himadri and running southwest monsoon winds.
parallel to it is called the Zanskar range. North of the ‰ Amount and Distribution of Rainfall:
Zanskar range is the Ladakh range. The river Indus flows • Relief features like the Western Ghats cause
northwest between the Zanskar and Ladakh ranges. orographic rainfall on the windward side while
Many scholars treat the Zanskar and Ladakh ranges as creating rain shadows on the leeward side. Similarly,
parts of the Great Himalayas and include them in Kashmir the Himalayas force monsoon winds to rise, causing
Himalayas. heavy rainfall in the northeastern states.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Eastern Ghats are All four factors —Temperature, Air Pressure, Wind, and
discontinuous low belts. Their average elevation is 600 Rainfall—are influenced by India’s physiography.
m. They run parallel to the east coast from the south
19. With reference to the geological features of Peninsular
of Mahanadi valley to the Nilgiri hills. The highest peak
India, consider the following statements:
in this region is Mahendragiri (1501 m). The famous
hills are Mahendragiri Hills, Niyamgiri Hills in Orissa, 1. The Deccan Plateau is predominantly composed of
Nallamala Hills in Southern Andhra Pradesh, Kollimalai, basaltic lava flows.
and Pachaimalai in Tamilnadu. The Mahanadi, Godavari, 2. The Western Ghats are younger than the Eastern
Krishna, and Kaveri river systems drain the area and fall Ghats but are taller due to recent tectonic uplift.
into the Bay of Bengal. The Nilgiri hills join the Western 3. The highest peak in the Eastern Ghats surpasses the
and Eastern Ghats in the south. height of the highest peak in the Western Ghats.

130 Indian Geography

 Which of the statements given above is/are correct? above the river plains. The general elevation of the
(a) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only plateau is from the west to the east, which is also proved
by the pattern of the flow of rivers.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of the above
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Peninsular Plateau, an
Ans: (b)
ancient and stable geological structure, has undergone
Statement 1 is Correct: The Deccan Plateau is primarily
cycles of upliftment and submergence, resulting in
made up of basaltic rock, which was formed due to
crustal faulting and fractures. Notably, the Bhima fault, a
extensive volcanic activity around 65 million years ago
prominent tectonic feature, is characterized by frequent
(Cretaceous period). This volcanic activity resulted in
the Deccan Traps, which are large layers of solidified lava seismic activity. These tectonic processes have influenced
flows. the plateau’s landscape, contributing to the formation of
rift valleys, drainage patterns, and the region’s overall
Statement 2 is correct: The Western Ghats are indeed
geomorphology.
younger than the Eastern Ghats. While the Eastern Ghats
are older and have undergone significant erosion, the Statement 3 is correct: Its outer limits include the Delhi
Western Ghats have experienced more recent tectonic Ridge (extension of Aravalis) in the northwest, Rajmahal
uplift, which accounts for their higher elevation and steep Hills in the east, Gir Range in the west, Cardamom Hills
slopes. This uplift is a result of the continued interaction in the south. Additionally, in the northeast, an extension
of tectonic plates along the western margin of India. is observed with the Shillong and Karbi-Anglong plateau.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Mahendragiri (1,501 metres) 21. Which of the following mineral belts of India contains
is the highest peak in the Eastern Ghats. However, Anai almost one hundred percent of Kyanite reserves?
mudi, the highest peak in the Western Ghats, stands at
(a) Chotanagpur Belt (b) Southern Belt
2,695 meters, making it much taller.
(c) Himalayan Belt (d) Western Belt
Ans: (a)
The Chotanagpur Belt stretches over Jharkhand,
Chhattisgarh, Orissa, Bihar and West Bengal. It is rich in
coal, mica, manganese, chromite, ilmenite, bauxite, iron,
uranium phosphate, copper, dolomite, china-clay, and
limestone. It contains almost 100% of Kyanite reserves,
93% of iron ore, 84% of coal, and 70% of chromite in the
country.
‰ The Southern Belt stretches over the states of
Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. It is
rich in gold, iron ore, chromite, manganese, lignite,
mica, bauxite, gypsum, asbestos, dolomite, ilmenite,
china-clay, and limestone.
‰ The Himalayan belt is poor in metallic minerals.
valuable pockets of minerals, like copper, lead, zinc,
bismuth, bauxite, antimony, nickel, cobalt, tungsten,
precious stones, gold, silver, gypsum, limestone, and
dolomite in the Himalayas.
20. In the context of the Peninsular Plateau, consider the
‰ The Western Belt stretches over the states of
following statements:
Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Maharashtra. rich in non-
1. The Peninsular Plateau is generally elevated from West ferrous metals like copper, lead, zinc, uranium, mica,
to East. manganese, salt, asbestos, building stones, precious
2. There are no crustal faults or fractures on the plateau. stones, mineral oil, and natural gas. Hence, option
3. The Peninsular Plateau extends to the Karbi-Anglong
(a) is the correct answer.
and Shillong plateaus.
How many of the statements given above are correct? 22. Consider the following statements with respect to the
(a) Only one (b) Only two Meghalayan Plateau:
(c) All three (d) None 1. It is separated from the Rajmahal hill via a fault called
the Malda gap.
Ans: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: The Peninsular plateau, forming 2. It is a mineral-deficient region.
an irregular triangle, rises from 150 m to 600-900 m 3. It is an extension of the peninsular plateau.

Structure and Physiography 131

 How many of the statements given above are correct? has extensions in North Eastern India, known as the
(a) Only one (b) Only two Meghalaya Plateau, Karbi-Anglong Plateau and North
Cachar Hills. The northeastern parts are separated by
(c) All three (d) None
the Malda fault in West Bengal from the Chotanagpur
Ans: (b) plateau.
Meghalayan Plateau is a part of the North Eastern Statement 2 is incorrect: Since the Cambrian period,
Plateau. Important points about the North Eastern the Peninsula has been standing like a rigid block with
Plateau: the exception of some of its western coast which is
‰ It is an extension of the main Peninsular plateau. submerged beneath the sea and some other parts which
Hence, statement 3 is correct. changed due to tectonic activity without affecting the
‰ The northeastward movement of the Indian plate original craton. As a part of the Indo-Australian Plate, it
at the time of the Himalayan formation led to the has been subjected to various vertical movements and
development of a huge fault (Malda gap) between block faulting. The rift valleys of the Narmada, the Tapi,
Rajmahal hills and the Meghalaya plateau that was the Mahanadi, and the Satpura block mountains are
later filled by river deposition. Hence, statement 1 some examples of it.
is correct. Horst
‰ It includes Meghalaya, Karbi-Anglong Plateau and
North Cachar Hills. Graben
‰ Three prominent hill ranges from the west to the
east are the Garo, the Khasi and the Jaintia Hills.
‰ Meghalaya plateau is subdivided into three: Garo
Hills, Khasi Hills and Jaintia Hills, named after local
tribal groups.
‰ An extension of this plateau is observed in the Karbi
Anglong hills of Assam.
‰ Meghalaya plateau is rich in mineral resources,
24. The plateau is made from volcanic rocks. It is part of a
including coal, iron ore, sillimanite, limestone, and
World Natural Heritage site. It has a relatively thinner
uranium. This region receives maximum rainfall from
layer of soil than other plateaus.
the southwest monsoon, resulting in a highly eroded
surface. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Which one of the following plateaus is described in the
above statements?
‰ Cherrapunji (Meghalaya plateau) has a bare rocky
surface without a permanent vegetation cover due (a) Kaas Plateau (b) Kolar Plateau
to heavy rainfall. (c) Vallam Plateau (d) Hazaribagh plateau
‰ Kopili River separates the Mikir, Regma and Barail Ans: (a)
hills from the Meghalaya plateau. A new study of the sediments from a seasonal lake in the
23. Consider the following statements: Kaas Plateau in the Satara district of Maharashtra has
1. Karbi-Anglong Pleateau and the Meghalaya Plateau indicated a major shift in the Indian Summer Monsoons
are extensions of the Peninsular Plateau. towards dry and stressed conditions with low rainfall
2. The valleys through which Tapi and Mahanadi flow during the Early-Mid-Holocene, around 8664 years BP.
have formed only as a result of the erosional activities Sediment profile dating back to 8000 years which helped
of these rivers. decode climatic signatures, indicated a relatively reduced
rainfall and weak southwest monsoon during the late
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Holocene (around 2827 years BP).
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Kaas Plateau, nestled in the Western Ghats is about 140 km
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 from Pune, was included in the UNESCO World Natural
Ans: (a) Heritage Site in 2012. Known as Kaas Pathar in Marathi,
The northern boundary of the Peninsular Block may be its name is derived from the Kaasa tree, botanically
taken as an irregular line running from Kachchh along the known as Elaeocarpus glandulosus (rudraksha family).
western flank of the Aravali Range near Delhi and then Kaas Pathar is a plateau made from volcanic rocks in
roughly parallel to the Yamuna and the Ganga as far as the Satara district of Maharashtra and comes under the
the Rajmahal Hills and the Ganga delta. biosphere of the Western Ghats. Unlike other plateaus
Statement 1 is correct: The Deccan Plateau is higher in or tablelands in the region, Kaas has a relatively thin
the west and slopes gently eastwards. The Plateau also layer of soil. Designated as a biodiversity hotspot, the

132 Indian Geography

 Kaas Plateau comes to life with various seasonal flowers temples linked to the Mahabharata. Mahendragiri is a
forming a floral carpet over the entire lateritic crust significant site for ecological conservation, pilgrimage,
during August and September. Control measures have and eco-tourism
been implemented by the forest authorities to handle Statement 2 is incorrect: The Western Ghats cause
the pressure of nature lovers visiting the Kaas Plateau. orographic rain by facing the rain-bearing moist winds to
25. Consider the following geological events: rise along the western slopes of the Ghats. The Western
1. The subsidence of the western flank of the peninsular Ghats are known by different local names. The height of
in the tertiary period. the Western Ghats progressively increases from North
to South. The highest peaks include the Anamudi (2,695
2. The upheaval of the Himalayas and the formation of
rifts. metres) and the Doda Betta (2,637 metres).
3. A slight tilting of the peninsular block from northwest
to southeast orientation.
How many of the above geological events influence the
present drainage system of Peninsular India?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None
Ans: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: Firstly, the subsidence of the
western flank of the Peninsula led to its submergence
below the sea during the early Tertiary period. This
disturbance disrupted the symmetrical plan of rivers on
either side of the original watershed. Previously, the area
to the west of the Western Ghats was also a landmass, 27. Consider the following pairs:
and rivers flowed in both directions from the water Mountain Ranges Origin of River
divide formed by the Ghats, resulting in a symmetrical
distribution of rivers. 1. Balaghat Range Manjra river
Statement 2 is correct: Secondly, the upheaval of the 2. Ajanta Range Narmada river
Himalayas caused subsidence and consequent trough
3. Barail Range Purna river
faulting in the northern flank of the Peninsular block.
The Narmada and Tapi rivers flow through these trough How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
faults, filling the original cracks with their detritus (a) Only one (b) Only two
materials, which explains the lack of alluvial and deltaic
(c) All three (d) None
deposits in these rivers.
Statement 3 is correct: Lastly, a slight tilting of the Ans: (a)
Peninsular block from northwest to southeast orientation Pair 1 is correctly matched: Balaghat Range is a series
influenced the entire drainage system to flow towards of hills in western Maharashtra originating from the
the Bay of Bengal during the same period. Western Ghats. It forms a border between Maharashtra
and Karnataka. It is a source of the Manjra River. Godavari
26. Consider the following statements with respect to
River has one of its major tributaries named Manjira
Western and Eastern Ghats of India:
River, which is one of the huge waterways in Andhra
1. Mahendragiri is the highest peak in the Eastern Ghats.
Pradesh. One of the biggest Dams “Nizam Sagar” was
2. The height of the Western Ghats progressively built over the Manjira River in the Nizamabad region of
decreases from North to South. Andhra Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above are incorrect? Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: The Ajanta range is a
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only mountain range in the state of Maharashtra in Central
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 India. It serves as a watershed between the Godavari
Ans: (b) and Tapi rivers’ tributaries and forms the northern edge
Statement 1 is correct: Mahendragiri (1,501 meters), of the Deccan plateau. The Purna river originate from
the highest peak in the Eastern Ghats, is located in the the Ajanta range and form part of the Tapi river system.
Gajapati district of Odisha. Renowned for its biodiversity, Narmada originates at Amarkantak plateau in Maikala
it is home to tropical forests, rare wildlife, and ancient range.

Structure and Physiography 133

 • Passes through Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil
Nadu and parts of Karnataka and Telangana.
• Hill ranges (North to South): Malaygiri,
Mahendragiri Hills (Odisha; the highest peak
in the Eastern Ghats); Nallamala, Velikonda &
Palkonda (Andhra Pradesh); Javadi Hills, Shevaroy
Hills, Pachamalai Hills & Sirumalai Hills.
• Eastern and Western Ghats converge at the Nilgiri
Hills.

29. Consider the following statements:

1. Peninsular soils are generally less fertile than the soils
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: The Barail Range is a tertiary of the Northern Plains of India.
mountain range in northeastern India that stretches 2. The Northern Plains are made up of ancient igneous
from Assam and Meghalaya to the west and Nagaland and metamorphic rocks.
and Manipur to the east. It acts as a watershed between Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
the Brahmaputra and Barak rivers. The topography (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
varies from rugged with sharp hills to gently rolling in
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
river valleys. The region experiences a tropical monsoon
climate with yearly rainfall ranging from 2,000 to over Ans: (a)
6,000 mm. The Barail woodlands are home to several Statement 1 is correct: The Northern Plains, characterized
endangered species and are significant biologically. by alluvial soil, are known for their high fertility due to the
deposition of nutrient-rich sediments from major rivers
28. Arrange the following mountain peaks according to like the Indus, Ganga, and Brahmaputra. This region is
their location from north to south: often referred to as the “granaries of India” because of
1. Malaygiri 2. Mullayanagiri its agricultural productivity. In contrast, the Peninsular
3. Mahendragiri 4. Shevroy soils, which include red and black soils, are generally less
5. Anaimudi fertile and less suitable for agriculture compared to the
alluvial soils of the Northern Plains.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Northern Plains are not
(a) 1-2-3-4-5 (b) 1-3-2-4-5
composed of ancient igneous or metamorphic rocks.
(c) 3-1-2-5-4 (d) 2-1-3-4-5 Instead, they are formed by alluvial deposits, which are
Ans: (b) sediments accumulated over time from river systems.
‰ Mullayyanagiri is the highest peak in Karnataka, India. These sediments consist of a mixture of clay, silt, sand,
Mullayanagiri is located in the Chandra Dhrona Hill and gravel. In contrast, the Peninsular Plateau is one
Ranges of the Western Ghats of Chikmagalur Taluk. of the oldest landforms in India. It consists mainly of
• In latitude terms this hill range is situated above igneous and metamorphic rocks, formed millions of
years ago during geological processes associated with
Anamudi and Shevroy hill ranges.
volcanic activity and tectonic movements. The plateau
‰ Anamudi is a mountain located in Ernakulam district
features rugged terrain with hills and valleys but does
and Idukki district of the Indian state of Kerala. With not have significant alluvial deposits like those found in
an elevation of 2,695 metres and a topographic the Northern Plains.
prominence of 2,479 metres, it is the highest peak in
the Western Ghats and in South India. 30. Consider the following statements:
• Annaimudi is located below the Shevroy hill 1. In India, the Eastern Ghats are spread across four
ranges. states only.
‰ Eastern Ghats consist of discontinuous and low hills 2. Chilka Lake is spread across two states only.
due to erosion by rivers. 3. Vembanad Lake is located in one state only.

134 Indian Geography

 How many of the statements given above are incorrect? in the east, and the Arctic Ocean in the north. Since
(a) Only one (b) Only two Canada has such a vast coastline that it borders multiple
oceans, the landscape along the shoreline varies greatly
(c) All three (d) None
depending on the location. The Canadian landscape
Ans: (b) is among the cleanest in the world, partly because
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Eastern Ghats are a approximately 80% of the country is uninhabited. It is
discontinuous range of mountains along India’s eastern also home to some huge land animals, such as moose,
coast. They are eroded and cut through by four major grizzly bears, and wood bison. Norway has 2nd largest
rivers of peninsular India, viz., the Mahanadi, Godavari, coastline in the world.
Krishna and Kaveri. The Eastern Ghats are spread over five
Statement 2 is correct: Length of Coastline: 1,600 km;
states: Odisha (25%), Andhra Pradesh (40%), Telangana
Gujarat boasts India’s longest coastlines, covering 24%
(5%), Karnataka (5%), and Tamil Nadu (25%).
of the nation’s shore. Stretching along the Kathiawar
Statement 2 is incorrect: Chilika Lake is the largest region to the Arabian Sea, it’s a gateway to mesmerizing
brackish water lagoon in Asia and the second largest beaches like Nagao, Dwarka and more. Gujarat has a
coastal lagoon in the world situated on the eastern coast total of 41 seaports, amongst which is one is major, 29
of India in Odisha state. The lake is spread across three minor and 11 intermediate. The Gulf of Kutch is well
districts of Odisha, namely Ganjam, Khurda, and Puri. known for islands like Jamnagar coast, Marine National
Statement 3 is correct: Vembanad Lake is located in Park and more. Tamil Nadu stretches 1,076 km along
the Indian state of Kerala and spans several districts, the eastern Coromandel Coast, making it India’s second-
including Kottayam, Alleppey, and Ernakulam . It is the largest coastal state.
longest lake in India. The lake is fed by 10 rivers, including
Pamba and Periyar. 33. Consider the following statements with reference to the
Coastal Plains of India:
31. The Kazhuveli Watershed Region is located in which of 1. Kanyakumari is the meeting point of the eastern and
the following states? western coastal plains.
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Kerala 2. The western coastal plains are wider than the eastern
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Karnataka coastal plains.
3. The Kolleru and Pulicat lakes are located on India’s
Ans: (a)
eastern coast.
‰ The Kazhuveli Watershed Region in Tamil Nadu
How many of the statements given above are incorrect?
has been proposed for nomination to the World
(a) Only one (b) Only two
Monuments Fund Watch 2025. Known for its
ancient Eri (tank) network, the Kazhuveli Watershed (c) All three (d) None
Region is a significant ecological area. It is situated Ans: (a)
in the Villupuram district and spans from Gingee to Statement 1 is correct: The West Coastal Plains are
Marakkanam, extending up to the Auroville plateau. located between the Western Ghats and the Arabian
If the nomination is successful, pilot projects will be Sea coast, while the Eastern Coastal Plains are located
implemented in Munnur village to create a heritage between the Bay of Bengal and the Eastern Ghats.
toolkit that can be replicated throughout the Kanyakumari is where the two coastal plains meet, while
watershed area and beyond. Nilgiris is where the eastern and western ghats meet. The
‰ The Watch 2025 is a nomination-based programme eastern coastal plains are wider than the western coastal
that connects local heritage preservation to global plains because a large portion of the plains are formed
awareness and action. by alluvial fillings of the littoral zone by rivers such as the
32. Consider the following statements: Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri, among others.
1. Norway has the longest coastline in the world. Statement 2 is incorrect: The eastern coastal plains are
120 km wide on average, while the western coastal plains
2. The state of Gujarat has the longest coastline in India.
are 65 km wide.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 3 is correct: Both Kolleru Lake (in Andhra
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Pradesh) and Pulicat Lake (straddling Andhra Pradesh
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 and Tamil Nadu) are located on the eastern coast of
Ans: (b) India. While both are prominent water bodies of the
Statement 1 is incorrect: Canada has the largest coastline region, Pulicat is a lagoon, formed along the coastline,
in the world, measuring 202,080 km of coastline stretches whereas Kolleru is a deltaic lake, situated between the
along the Pacific Ocean in the west, the Atlantic Ocean deltas of the Godavari and Krishna rivers.

Structure and Physiography 135

 From north to south, it is divided into the Konkan coast,
PW Only IAS Extra Edge
Karnataka coast, and Kerala (Malabar) coast. The Kerala
‰ Kolleru is a freshwater lake located between the coast is known for its lakes, lagoons, and backwaters, the
deltas of Krishna and Godavari rivers. Kolleru largest being Vembanad Lake. The high rocky west coast
serves as a natural food-balancing reservoir of India has irregular coastlines with drowned rivers,
between the two rivers. The lake is fed directly by forming fjord-like features. The hillsides drop sharply into
the seasonal Budameru and Tammileru rivers and the water, with erosion dominating and few depositional
is connected to the Krishna and Godavari systems landforms. The east coast of India is a low sedimentary
by 67 inflowing drains and channels. coast. Depositional forms dominate the east coast.
‰ Pulicat is a vast coastal shallow, brackish water Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
lagoon along the coast of Bay of Bengal into which ‰ The coastline of emergence forms due to land uplift
streams drain. or sea level lowering, while submergence occurs due
34. Consider the following statements: to opposite factors.
1. The East coast of India is a low sedimentary coast, ‰ Features of emergence include bars, spits, lagoons,
while the west coast is a high rocky coast. salt marshes, beaches, sea cliffs, and arches. The
2. Erosional landforms dominate the east coast of India, Tamil Nadu (Coromandel) coast is a coastline of
while depositional landforms dominate the west emergence, as is the Kerala (Malabar) coast. The
coast. Konkan coast, however, is a coastline of submergence.
The west coast of India shows both characteristics: the
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
northern part is submerged due to faulting, while the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only southern part is emergent. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
36. With reference to various types of landforms, consider
Ans: (a) the following statements:
Two types of coasts are considered in explaining coastal 1. Fjords are landforms found on low sedimentary coasts.
landform evolution: high, rocky (submerged) coasts and
2. Lagoons are former glacial valleys in coastal areas.
low, smooth sedimentary (emerged) coasts.
3. The west coast of India is a high, rocky, retreating
Statement 1 is correct: The East coast of India is a low
coast, and the east coast of India is a low, sedimentary
sedimentary coast with wide deltas formed by rivers like
coast.
the Godavari, Krishna, and Mahanadi. It is characterized
by depositional landforms. The West coast is a high rocky How many of the statements given above are correct?
coast with narrow plains and steep cliffs, as it is bounded (a) Only one (b) Only two
by the Western Ghats. (c) All three (d) None
Statement 2 is incorrect: The east coast of India is a low Ans: (a)
sedimentary coast. Depositional forms dominate the Statement 1 is incorrect: A fjord is a long, narrow,
east coast. High rocky coasts, seen in the west coast of and deep inlet of the sea, flanked by steep cliffs or
India, show irregular coastlines with drowned rivers, mountains. Fjords are formed through the submergence
forming fjords. Hillsides sharply drop into the water, with of glacially carved valleys, typically in regions that were
erosion features dominating and minimal depositional once covered by glaciers.
landforms. Low sedimentary coasts exhibit smooth Statement 2 is incorrect: Lagoon is a shallow body of
coastlines where rivers extend through coastal plains water protected from a larger body of water (usually the
and deltas. Incursions of water, like lagoons and tidal ocean) by sandbars, associated with low sedimentary
creeks, occur. The land slopes gently into the water, and coasts.
depositional features, including marshes and swamps,
Statement 3 is correct: The west coast of India is a high
dominate.
rocky retreating coast dominated by erosional landforms,
35. Consider the following statements with reference to the whereas the east coast of India is a low sedimentary
West coast of India: coast where deposition is dominant.
1. It is both emergent and submergent. 37. Which of the following most appropriately describes
2. It is dominated by the depositional landforms. the ‘Groynes’?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Rainwater harvesting technique in drought-prone
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only areas.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Shore protection structure built for coastal protection.
Ans: (a) (c) New technology for the plantation of Sugarcane in the
The west coast of India stretches from the Gulf of Agricultural field.
Cambay (Khambhat) to Cape Comorin (Kanniyakumari). (d) None of the Above

136 Indian Geography

Ans: (b) Ans: (b)
Groynes, breakwaters, and artificial reefs are gray Chandipur beach is also known as the Odisha’s Hide and
adaptation measures commonly implemented to Seek beach. It is where sea water retreats inside the sea
counteract erosion and wave action in coastal areas (or, from 1km to 5km every day and it again comes back to
in some cases, in rivers). the shore slowly during high tide.
A groyne is a shore protection structure built PW Only IAS Extra Edge
perpendicular to the shoreline of the coast (or river), Eastern Coast Plains
over the beach, and into the shoreface (the area
‰ These plains are emergent coasts and are broader
between the nearshore region and the inner continental
than western coastal plains.
shelf) to reduce longshore drift and trap sediments.
A groyne field or system is a series of groynes acting ‰ There is Northern Circar in the northern part and
together to protect a beach. Rock is often used as a Coromandel Coast in the southern part.
construction material. Wooden groynes, steel groynes, ‰ There are well-developed deltas of rivers -
rubble-mound and sand-filled bag groynes, or groynes Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri deltas.
made of concrete elements can also be found. Groynes ‰ Lake Chilika (Odisha), along the eastern coast, is
trap sediments from longshore drift so that the coast the largest saltwater lake in India lying south of the
behind the sand layer is protected from erosion. Their Mahanadi delta.
effectiveness depends on their extension into the river ‰ Due to its emergent nature, there are fewer ports
or sea. As with any other systems acting on the long- and harbours along this coast. The continental
shore drift, they can negatively affect the transportation shelf here extends up to 500 km into the sea,
and sedimentation pattern of underflow areas, causing making it a challenge for port development.
downdrift erosion. This is because groynes do not add
40. With reference to the Andaman and Nicobar Islands,
sediment to the shoreface but instead distribute the consider the following statements:
available material differently.
1. Little Andaman is separated from the Nicobar Islands
38. ‘They are coastal areas with mangroves, low-lying and by the Ten Degree Channel.
salty, where local communities of Goa have developed 2. Pitti Island is a coral islet in the Union Territory of
sustainable agricultural systems using tidal estuaries Andaman and Nicobar.
and contour-integrated engineering.’
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Which among the following is correctly described by the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
paragraph given above?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Kole (b) Pokkali
Ans: (a)
(c) Khazans (d) Kandukuri
Statement 1 is correct: The Andamans comprise
Ans: (c) more than 300 islands. The North, Middle, and South
Khazan lands in Goa are low-lying, mangrove fringed Andaman, known collectively as Great Andaman, are the
coastal areas with saline conditions, managed through main islands; others include Landfall Island, Interview
a combination of traditional and engineered techniques Island, the Sentinel Islands, Ritchie’s Archipelago, and
by local communities. Historically owned by various Rutland Island. Little Andaman in the south is separated
entities, primarily Communidades (community lands from the Nicobar Islands by the Ten Degree Channel.
collectively managed). Post-1961 agrarian reforms
led to abandonment and decay of many Khazan lands.
Today, neglect and mangrove encroachment threaten
the sustainability of these once-productive ecosystems.
The Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary, situated in the low-lying
floodplains of Goa, showcases a unique agricultural
system known as Khazan farming, which is influenced
by estuarine conditions. This system represents a
meticulously planned topo-hydro-engineered agro-
aquacultural ecosystem primarily focused on managing
salinity levels and tidal influences.
39. Where is the famous “Hide and Seek Beach,” known for
its disappearing shoreline during low tide, located in
Statement 2 is incorrect: Pitti Island is an uninhabited
Odisha?
coral islet in the Union Territory of Lakshadweep,
(a) Puri (b) Chandipur India. The island belongs to the township of Kavaratti
(c) Konark (d) Gopalpur Island. The island is low and arid and, lacking adequate

Structure and Physiography 137

 anchorage points, of difficult accessibility. The Island is ‰ Southern Group: Great Nicobar (the largest), Little
uninhabited and has a bird sanctuary. The 11th parallel Nicobar, Kondul, Pulo Milo, and others.
north passes across the bank. ‰ Great Nicobar, the southernmost and largest
island, is 147 km from Sumatra, Indonesia. India’s
southernmost point, Indira Point, is located at its
southern tip. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

PW Only IAS Extra Edge

‰ Keeping in mind the historical significance of the
Andaman & Nicobar Islands and to honour the
memory of Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose, Ross Islands
was renamed as Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose
Dweep by the Prime Minister during his visit to
the Island in 2018. Neil Island and Havelock Island
were also renamed Shaheed Dweep and Swaraj
Dweep respectively. 42. Consider the following statements regarding Barren
41. With reference to the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Volcano:
consider the following statements: 1. It is the only active volcano in India.
1. The capital city of the Andaman & Nicobar Islands is 2. It lies in the Andaman Sea.
located in South Andaman. 3. It is located between Indian and Burmese tectonic
2. The Ten Degree Channel separates Little Andaman plates.
and Great Andaman. How many of the statements given above are correct?
3. India’s southernmost point, Indira Point, is at the (a) Only one (b) Only two
southern tip of Great Nicobar. (c) All three (d) None
Which of the statements given above are correct? Ans: (c)
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only Statement 1 is correct: Barren Island in the Andaman
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of the above and Nicobar Islands hosts the only active volcano in India.
Ans: (c) Statement 2 is correct: Barren Island is situated in the
Andaman Sea.
Andaman Islands
Statement 3 is correct: The volcano is located in a
‰ They are divided into three sub-groups: North, tectonically active region between the Indian and
Middle, and South Andaman. Burmese (or Burma) plates.
‰ Little Andaman and Great Andaman are separated by
43. Consider the following Islands:
the 50 km wide Duncan Passage. Hence, statement
2 is incorrect. 1. Minicoy 2. Agatti
• The Ten Degree Channel separates the Andaman 3. Chetlat 4. Kavaratti
Islands from the Nicobar Islands. Which of the following is the correct order of the above
‰ Port Blair, the capital of the Andaman & Nicobar islands of Lakshadweep from North to South?
Islands, is located in South Andaman. Hence, (a) 3-2-4-1 (b) 2-3-1-4
statement 1 is correct. (c) 4-3-2-1 (d) 1-4-3-2
Nicobar Islands Ans: (a)
The Nicobar Islands are divided into three sub-groups: Lakshadweep, the group of 36 islands is known for its
‰ Northern Group: Car Nicobar, Battimalv. exotic and sun-kissed beaches and lush green landscape.
‰ Central Group: Chowra, Teressa, Katchal, Camorta, ‰ The name Lakshadweep in Malayalam and Sanskrit
Nancowry, Trinket, etc. means ‘a hundred thousand islands’.

138 Indian Geography

 ‰ India’s smallest Union Territory Lakshadweep is an Statement 1 is correct: Puducherry is located on the
archipelago consisting of 36 islands with an area of east coast of India, in the Bay of Bengal. It is the largest
32 sq km. of the four regions that make up the Union Territory of
‰ It is a uni-district Union Territory and is comprised of Puducherry.
12 atolls, three reefs, five submerged banks and ten Statement 2 is correct: Karaikal is located on the east
inhabited islands. coast of India, in the Bay of Bengal. It is the second largest
‰ The capital is Kavaratti and it is also the principal of the four regions that make up the Union Territory of
town of the UT. Puducherry.
‰ All Islands are 220 to 440 km away from the coastal Statement 3 is correct: Mahe is located on the west coast
city of Kochi in Kerala, in the emerald Arabian Sea. The of India, in the Arabian Sea. It is the smallest of the four
natural landscapes, the sandy beaches, abundance regions that make up the Union Territory of Puducherry.
of flora and fauna and the absence of a rushed Statement 4 is correct: Yanam is located on the east
lifestyle enhance the mystique of Lakshadweep. coast of India, in the Bay of Bengal. It is the third largest
44. With reference to Indira Point, consider the following of the four regions that make up the Union Territory of
statements: Puducherry.
1. It is located in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
2. It is also known as Pygmalion Point.
3. It is the southernmost point of the Indian mainland.
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None
Ans: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: Indira Point is located on Great
Nicobar Island, which is the largest island in the Andaman
and Nicobar Islands. Indira Point is named after Indira
Gandhi, the former Prime Minister of India. There is a
lighthouse at Indira Point, which was built in 1972.
Statement 2 is correct: Indira Point is also known as
Pygmalion Point.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Indira Point is the southernmost
point of India, but it is not the southernmost point of the
Indian mainland. The southernmost point of the Indian
mainland is Cape Comorin, which is located in the state Fig: Union Territory of Puducherry
of Tamil Nadu.
46. With reference to the Drainage system of India, consider
45. Consider the following statements regarding the Union the following statements:
territory of Puducherry: 1. The catchment areas of large rivers are known as
1. Puducherry is located on the East coast of India, in watersheds.
the Bay of Bengal. 2. The drainage basins of the Bay of Bengal and the
2. Karaikal is located on the East coast of India, in the Arabian Sea are separated by the Aravalli and Sahyadri
Bay of Bengal. ranges
3. Mahe is located on the West coast of India, in the 3. River basins and watersheds are geographically
Arabian Sea. interconnected.
4. Yanam is located on the East coast of India, in the Bay 4. The drainage pattern of a region is influenced by the
of Bengal. volume of water flowing in the basin.
How many of the statements given above are correct? Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) Only three (d) All four (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d) Ans: (b)
The Union Territory of Puducherry is a unique Statement 1 is incorrect : An area that is drained by
administrative division in India made of 4 distinct region any river and its tributaries is called a drainage basin.
lying apart from each other. Watersheds are boundary lines separating one drainage

Structure and Physiography 139

 basin from the other. The catchments of large rivers are Statement 3 is correct: An area that is drained by a river
called river basins, while those of small rivulets and rills and all of its tributaries is known as a river drainage
are often referred to as watersheds. basin. Many diverse watersheds make up a river basin.
Statement 2 is correct: The Indian drainage system Statement 4 is correct: There is a drainage basin for each
may be divided on various bases: one of them is on the river. A watershed is the boundary line that separates one
basis of the discharge of water (orientations to the sea), drainage basin from another. The catchments of large
where it is classified into Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea
rivers are called river basins, while those of small rivulets
drainage. They are separated from each other through
and rills are often also referred to as watersheds. There
the Delhi ridge, the Aravallis and the Sahyadris.
is, however, a slight difference between a river basin and
Statement 3 is correct : There is a marked unity between
a watershed. Watersheds are small in area, while basins
the basins and watersheds of the rivers. If something
happens in one part of the river basin or watershed, It cover larger areas.
has a direct influence on the connected or other parts
and the unit as a whole. Hence, they are accepted as
the most appropriate micro, meso or macro planning
Watershed
regions.
Statement 4 is correct : Within a region or territory,
the flow of water within a defined channel is called a
drainage, which is made up of a network of river channels
forming a drainage system. The pattern of drainage in an
area or region is a result of the following factors:
‰ Nature and structure of rocks,
‰ Topography and slope
‰ Geology Drainage Basin
‰ The amount of water flowing in a river basin
‰ Periodicity of the flow
Fig: Drainage basin and Watersheds
47. Consider the following statements with reference to the
48. Consider the following statements:
rivers:
1. Ephemeral rivers are those that have water throughout 1. A tributary stream that is eroded along an underlying
the year. belt of non-resistant rock after the main drainage
2. A river’s “catchment area” is the region that collects pattern has been established is known as a subsequent
water for the river. river.
3. A drainage basin is a region that is drained by a river 2. The rivers that follow the general direction of the slope
and its tributaries. are known as the consequent rivers.
4. A watershed is the boundary line that separates one Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
drainage basin from another. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
How many of the statements given above are correct? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Only one (b) Only two
Ans: (c)
(c) Only three (d) All four
Statement 1 is correct: A tributary stream that is eroded
Ans: (c) along an underlying belt of non-resistant rock after the
Statement 1 is incorrect: According to the amount of main drainage pattern (Consequent River) has been
water present in rivers throughout the year, rivers are established is known as a subsequent river. Due to the
divided into two categories: northward slope of the Peninsula towards the Great
‰ Perennial rivers, which have water present Plains, the rivers originating from the Vindhyan and the
throughout the entire year; and Satpura ranges flow northward into the Ganga system.
‰ Ephemeral rivers, which have seasonal water The Chambal, Sind, Ken, Betwa, Tons and Son meet the
presence, with the majority of it occurring during the Yamuna and the Ganga at right angles.
monsoon season.
Statement 2 is correct: Consequent rivers, such as the
Statement 2 is correct: A catchment is a region of land
Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri in Peninsular India, follow
that gathers water during rainstorms and is frequently
the natural slope of the land. These rivers originate in the
enclosed by hills. The water finds its way to streams as
it travels across the terrain, eventually feeding the river. Western Ghats, a range of mountains along the western
In periods of low rainfall, some of this water remains coast, and flow eastward due to the general tilt of the
underground and gradually feeds the river. peninsular region toward the Bay of Bengal.

140 Indian Geography

 49. Consider the following pairs: Pair 3 is correctly matched: Parallel drainage systems
develop in regions of parallel, elongated landforms
Major River Tributary
where there is a pronounced slope to the surface. The
1. Indus Tista Tributary streams tend to stretch out in a parallel-like
2. Brahmputra Mahananda fashion, following the slope of th e surface. e.g.,
3. Ganga Manas The rivers originating in the Western Ghats; Godavari,
Kaveri, Krishna, and Tungabhadra.
4. Godavari Indravati
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one (b) Only two dendritie parallel
(c) Only three (d) All four
Ans: (a)
Pair 1 is incorrect: The Indus receives a number of
Himalayan tributaries such as the Shyok, the Gilgit, the
Zaskar, the Hunza, the Nubra, the Shigar, the Gasting and rectangular
trellis
the Dras. It finally emerges out of the hills near Attock
where it receives the Kabul River on its right bank. The
other important tributaries joining the right bank of the
Indus are the Khurram, the Tochi, the Gomal, the Viboa
and the Sangar. radial annular
Pair 2 is incorrect: The Mahananda is an important
tributary of the Ganga rising in the Darjiling hills. It joins
the Ganga as its last left bank tributary in West Bengal.
Pair 3 is incorrect: The Brahmaputra receives numerous
tributaries in its 750 km long journey through the Assam multi-basinal conorted
valley. Its major left bank tributaries are the Burhi Dihing
and Dhansari (South) whereas the important right
bank tributaries are the Subansiri, Kameng, Manas and (Fig: Types of Drainage pattern)
Sankosh. The Subansiri which has its origin in Tibet, 51. Consider the following statements :
is an antecedent river. The Brahmaputra enters into Statement-I: Most of the Himalayan rivers, such as Indus,
Bangladesh near Dhubri and flows southward. Sutlej and Brahmaputra, exhibit an antecedent drainage
Pair 4 is correct: The Penganga, the Indravati, the Pranhita, pattern.
and the Manjra are its principal tributaries. The Godavari is Statement-II: Himalayan rivers existed before the
subjected to heavy floods in its lower reaches to the south Himalayan ranges came into existence.
of Polavaram, where it forms a picturesque gorge.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the
50. Consider the following pairs: above statements?
River Type of Drainage (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and
Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
1. Son river Radial pattern
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
2. Yamuna River Dendritic pattern
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
3. Godavari River Parallel drainage pattern Statement-I
How many of the above pairs are incorrectly matched? (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-I
(c) All three pairs (d) None of the pairs Ans: (a)
Ans: (d) Statement-I is correct: The major Himalayan rivers
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Radial pattern is the drainage are the Indus, the Ganga, Sutlej and the Brahmaputra.
pattern in which rivers originate from a hill and flow in all These rivers are long and are joined by many large and
directions. The rivers that originate from the Amarkantak important tributaries. These rivers originate from the
range, such as Son, Narmada, etc., have this pattern. lofty Himalayan ranges and are named the Himalayan
Pair 2 is correctly matched: A dendritic river pattern rivers.
resembles the branches of a tree; generally, rivers of the Statement-II is correct : The Himalayan rivers have
northern plains, such as the Ganga and its tributaries, antecedent origin i.e. these rivers existed even before
such as the Yamuna, Ghagra, Gandak, etc represent such the Himalayan ranges were uplifted. The drainage
a pattern. pattern was already present before a period of uplift and

Structure and Physiography 141

 folding. During an uplift, the rivers were able to cut down Ans: (d)
at the same rate and so maintain their courses.Hence River Indus is one of the major Himalayan rivers which
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and receives a number of Himalayan tributaries like the Gilgit,
Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I the Zaskar, Shyok, the Hunza, the Dras, Nubra, and the
52. ‘It originates from a glacier near Bokhar Chu and enters Shigar etc. Its left bank tributaries include the Panjnad,
Pakistan near Chilas in the Dardistan region and is beas, Suru, Zanskar, Jhelum, Chenab and Soan. It finally
known as ‘Singi Khamban’ in Tibet. It also receives emerges from a place near Attock Hills, where it receives
Panjnad near the Mithankot region.” the Kabul River on its right bank.
Which of the following rivers is best described by the Some of the important tributaries joining the right bank
passage above? of the Indus are the Khurram, Gilgit, Gomal, Viboa, Tochi
and Sangar. They all originate in the Sulaiman Ranges.
(a) Chenab (b) Indus
(c) Jhelum (d) Ravi
Ans: (b)
Indus river has a total length of 2,880 km (in India,
1,114 km) and drains an area of 11,65,000 sq km (in
India 321,289 sq km). It originates from a glacier close
to Bokhar Chu (31°15’ N latitude and 81°40’ E longitude)
in the Tibetan region. It is called “Singi Khamban,” or the
Lion’s Mouth, in Tibet.
It flows between the Ladakh and Zaskar peaks in the
northwest direction before passing through Baltistan and
Ladakh. It slashes through the Ladakh range, creating a
stunning gorge close to Gilgit in Jammu and Kashmir. 54. Consider the following statements about a river in India:
It enters Pakistan near Chilas, in the Dardistan region.
The river flows southward and receives ‘Panjnad’ a little 1. It rises from a deep spring at Verinag.
above Mithankot. The Panjnad is the name given to the 2. It flows northwards into Wular Lake.
five rivers of Punjab, namely the Satluj, the Beas, the 3. It forms a steep-sided narrow gorge through Pir Panjal
Ravi, the Chenab, and the Jhelum. Range.
Which of the following river has been described in the
above statements?
(a) Indus (b) Chenab
(c) Beas (d) Jhelum
Ans: (d)
Jhelum River, a tributary of Indus, is a river of
northwestern India and northern and eastern Pakistan.
It constitutes the westernmost of the five rivers of the
Punjab region that merge with the Indus River in eastern
Pakistan. The Jhelum rises from a deep spring at Verinag,
in western Jammu and Kashmir union territory, in the
Indian-administered portion of the Kashmir region. The
river meanders northwestward from the northern slope
of the Pir Panjal Range through the Vale of Kashmir to
Wular Lake at Srinagar, which controls its flow. Emerging
from the lake, the Jhelum flows westward and crosses
the Pir Panjal in a gorge some 7,000 feet (2,100 metres)
deep with almost perpendicular sides. At Muzaffarabad,
the administrative centre of Azad Kashmir in the
53. Consider the following: Pakistani-administered sector of Kashmir. The river then
flows southward into Punjab province. Near Mangla
1. Chenab 2. Zanskar
the Jhelum breaks through the Outer Himalayas into
3. Gilgit 4. Kabul broad alluvial plains. At the city of Jhelum the river
Which of the rivers given above forms the right bank turns southwestward along the Salt Range to Khushab,
tributary of the River Indus? where it again bends south to join the Chenab River near
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only Trimmu. The total length of the Jhelum is about 450
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 3 and 4 only miles (725 km).

142 Indian Geography

 21 km from Tibet. Three kilometres below Mana the
PW Only IAS Extra Edge
Alaknanda flows past the Hindu pilgrimage centre of
The Jhelum receives the Kishanganga River and then Badrinath. It further meets River Bhagirathi at Devprayag
bends southward, forming part of the border between and continues as River Ganga. It lies in the Garhwal
Azad Kashmir to the east and Khyber Pakhtunkhwa Region of Uttarakhand and is 195 Km long. The basin
province, Pakistan, to the west. area is about 10,882 sq km.
55. Which one of the following statements is not correct Several rivers in the Garhwal region merge with the
with respect to Shyok River? Alaknanda at places called prayag or ‘holy confluence of
(a) Shyok river is the right bank tributary of the Indus. rivers’. Various tributaries joining River Alaknanda are:
(b) It forms the eastern limit of the Karakoram Range. ‰ Dhauliganga river at Vishnuprayag, Hence, statement
2 is correct.
(c) It meets the Indus just south of Leh.
‰ Nandakini River at Nandaprayag,
(d) It is found completely inside Jammu and Kashmir.
‰ Pindar River at Karnaprayag,
Ans: (c) ‰ Mandakini River at Rudraprayag. Hence, statement
Shyok river is the right bank tributary of the Indus. 3 is incorrect.
It originates in Depsang Plains and flows along the
‰ Finally, it meets the Bhagirathi River at Devprayag.
Karakoram Range. The Shyok River originates at the Rimo Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Glacier. It forms the eastern limit of the Karakoram and
it is fed by various glaciers like Siachen Glacier. It is found
completely inside Jammu and Kashmir.
However, the Shyok River does not meet the Indus south
of Leh. Instead, it joins the Indus River near Skardu, in the
region of Gilgit-Baltistan

57. Consider the following pairs:

Rivers Glaciers
1. Indus Bokhar Chu
2. Shyok Siachen
3. Teesta Machoi
4. Nubra Zemu
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Only three (d) All four
Ans: (b)
56. Consider the following: Pair 1 is correct: The Indus originates from the Bokhar
1. Bhagirathi merges with the Alaknanda at Devprayag. Chu (glacier) on the northern slopes of Mt. Kailash
(6714m). It drains the largest number of glaciers and
2. Dhauliganga joins the Alaknanda at Vishnuprayag.
mountain slopes of the Karakorum, Ladakh, Zanskar and
3. Mandakini joins the Alaknanda at Karnaprayag. Himalayan Ranges.
How many of the statements given above are correct? ‰ A little over a third of the Indus basin is located in
(a) Only one (b) Only two India.
(c) All three (d) None ‰ Leh is situated on the bank of the Indus.
Ans: (b) ‰ It flows between the Ladakh and Zanskar ranges and
The River Alaknanda rises at the confluence and feeds off passes through Ladakh, Baltistan and Gilgit.
Satopanth and Bhagirathi Kharak glacier in Uttarakhand ‰ It cuts across the Ladakh range, forming a gorge near
and meets the Sarasvati River tributary at Mana, India, Gilgit & enters Pakistan in the Dardistan region.

Structure and Physiography 143

 ‰ Flows southward and receives ‘Panjnad’ (Satluj, the
Beas, the Ravi, the Chenab and the Jhelum) near
Mithankot (Pakistan).
Pair 2 is correct and Pair 4 is incorrect: Shyok River
originates from the Siachen Glacier. It drains the northern
Karakoram mountains and is joined by a major tributary,
the Nubra, which originates in the Siachen glacier as
well. The combined course of the two rivers enters the
Pak-occupied Kashmir.
Pair 3 is incorrect: Teesta is the major river system in the
Sikkim State. Teesta River originates as Chhombo Chhu
from a glacial lake Khangchung Chho at an elevation
of 5,280 m in the northeastern corner of the state.
The glacial lake lies at the snout of the Teesta Kangse
glacier, descending from Pauhunri peak (7,056 m) in
the northwestern direction. Teesta Khangse Glacier and
Chho Lhamo are also considered as the source of the
Teesta River by many authors.
‰ It forms the border between Sikkim and West Bengal.
‰ Rangeet River is the main tributary which originates
in Sikkim; 59. Consider the following rivers:
‰ It merges with the Brahmaputra before falling into
1. Ramganga 2. Gomati
the Bay of Bengal. 3. Ghaghara 4. Yamuna
58. Consider the following statements: How many of the rivers given above are right-bank
1. The Arabian and the Bay of Bengal drainage systems tributaries of the River Ganga?
are separated by the Eastern Ghats, the Delhi Ridge, (a) Only one (b) Only two
and the Western Ghats. (c) Only three (d) All four
2. The majority of peninsular rivers flow into the Bay of Ans: (a)
Bengal from their sources in the Eastern Ghats. Ganges River, rising in the Himalayas and emptying into
the Bay of Bengal, drains one-fourth of the territory of
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
India, and its basin supports hundreds of millions of
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only people. For most of its course, the Ganges flows through
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Indian territory, although its large delta in the Bengal
Ans: (d) area, which it shares with the Brahmaputra River, lies
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Indian subcontinent is very mostly in Bangladesh. The general direction of the river’s
big in size and fed by different river systems all around flow is from northwest to southeast. South of Haridwar,
the country. The Indian drainage system can be divided the river receives its principal right-bank tributary:
into two categories based on water discharge: ‰ Yamuna River, which flows through the Delhi capital
(i) The Arabian Sea drainage region and then roughly parallels the southeastward
flow of the Ganges before joining it near Prayagraj
(ii) The Bay of Bengal drainage.
(Allahabad).
The Delhi Ridge, the Aravalis, and the Sahyadris separate
‰ Son River
them from one another. Majority of the drainage area,
The main left-bank tributaries of the river are:
which includes the Ganga, Brahmaputra, Mahanadi,
Krishna, and other rivers, drains into the Bay of Bengal. ‰ Ramganga  Gomati
The rest of it, which includes the Indus, Narmada, Tapi, ‰ Ghaghara  Gandak
Mahi, and Periyar systems, discharge their water into the ‰ Kosi
Arabian Sea.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Most rivers in the Peninsular
Plateau, such as the Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri,
originate in the Western Ghats, which act as a significant
watershed. Due to the plateau’s eastward slope, these
rivers flow eastward, crossing the plateau and draining
into the Bay of Bengal, forming fertile deltas along the
eastern coast.

144 Indian Geography

 60. Consider the following tributaries of the Ganga River:
PW Only IAS Extra Edge
1. Gomti 2. Ghaghra Kosi River
3. Gandak 4. Kosi ‰ It is an antecedent river
5. Son 6. Yamuna ‰ Origin: North of Mount Everest in Tibet, where its
7. Damodar mainstream Arun rises
How many of the above join the Ganga on its right bank? ‰ Joined by Son Kosi (West) and Tamur Kosi (East)
after crossing the Central Himalayas in Nepal,
(a) Only three (b) Only four
forms Sapt Kosi after uniting with Arun.
(c) Only five (d) Only six Son
Ans: (a) ‰ Origin: Amarkantak plateau
The Ganga is the most important river in India, both from ‰ Tributaries: Rihand, North Koel
‰ Near Arrah, located to the west of Patna, it joins
the point of view of its basin and its cultural significance.
Ganga.
It rises in the Gangotri glacier near Gaumukh (3,900 m) Damodar
in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand. It is shared by ‰ The Damodar River flows along the eastern
Uttarakhand (110 km) and Uttar Pradesh (1,450 km), margins of the Chotanagpur Plateau through a rift
Bihar (445 km), and West Bengal (520 km), and falls into valley before joining Hugli River.
the Bay of Bengal. ‰ Tributary: Barakar
‰ It is known as “sorrow of Bengal” due to its
In its course, it is joined by a large number of tributaries,
frequent flooding.
both from the right and left banks.
62. Consider the following statements about river
Brahmaputra:
1. It rises in Bokar chu glacier near Mansarovar in the
Kailash mountain range.
2. The river enters India west of Sadiya town in Arunachal
Pradesh.
3. Subansiri, Dihing, Barak are its left bank tributaries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Important left bank tributaries are: Statement 1 is incorrect: The Brahmaputra is one of
‰ Gomti the largest rivers of the world. It has its origin in the
‰ Gandak Chemayungdung glacier of the Kailash range near the
‰ Ghaghra Mansarovar lake. From here, it traverses eastward
‰ Kosi longitudinally for a distance of nearly 1,200 km in a dry
and flat region of southern Tibet, where it is known as the
Important Right bank tributaries are:
Tsangpo, which means ‘the purifier.’Indus river originates
‰ Yamuna from a glacier near Bokhar Chu. In Tibet, it is known as
‰ Son Singi Khamban or Lion’s Mouth. It arises at the height of
‰ Damodar 4,164mt in Kailash mountain.
61. Which of the following rivers originates from the Doon Statement 2 is correct: The Rango Tsangpo is the major
Valley and forms the border between India and Nepal? right bank tributary of this river in Tibet. It emerges as
a turbulent and dynamic river after carving out a deep
(a) Damodar (b) Kosi
gorge in the Central Himalayas near Namcha Barwa
(c) Son (d) Kali (7,755 m). The river emerges from the foothills under the
Ans: (d) name of Siang or Dihang. It enters India west of Sadiya
The Kali River originates from the Doon Valley in the town in Arunachal Pradesh.
western part of Uttarakhand. The river is named Kali Statement 3 is incorrect: The Brahmaputra receives
possibly because of the colour of the river water that numerous tributaries in its 750 km long journey through
is black in colour. It forms the border between India the Assam valley. Its major left bank tributaries are the
and Nepal, draining both Eastern Kumaon and Western Burhi Dihing and Dhansari (South) whereas the important
Nepal. The Kali is fed by glaciers, some of which lie in right bank tributaries are the Subansiri, Kameng, Manas
Nepal and others in the Kali valley adjoining Lipulekh. Its and Sankosh.
many tributaries include Saryu, Gori, Kuti, Dhauli East and Barak River rises in the Manipur hills and flows west becoming
Ramganga East. Saryu is the largest tributary, which rises the Surma River and then flows south as the Meghna River in
in the northwest area of Baijnath in Central Kumaon. Bangladesh. It is not a tributary of Brahmaputra.

Structure and Physiography 145

 ‰ Arunachal Pradesh
‰ Assam
It does not pass through the states of Nagaland and West
Bengal.
65. With reference to the peninsular drainage system of
India, consider the following statements:
1. Peninsular drainage system is younger than the
Himalayan drainage system.
2. The Chambal, the Sind, the Betwa, the Ken, and the
Son, originating in the Peninsula, belong to the Ganga
Fig: Ganga and brahmaputra river basin river system.
63. Consider the following rivers: 3. Mahi is the only river in India that cuts tropic of cancer
1. Subansiri 2. Manas twice.
3. Sonkosh 4. Kopilli How many of the above statements are correct?
How many of the above are North Bank tributaries of (a) Only one (b) Only two
river Brahmaputra? (c) All three (d) None
(a) Only one (b) Only two Ans: (b)
(c) Only three (d) All four Statement 1 is incorrect: The Indian drainage system
Ans: (c) can be classified into two parts:
The Brahmaputra is one of the largest rivers in the world ‰ Himalayan drainage system
and ranks fifth with respect to its average discharge. The ‰ Peninsular drainage system
river originates from the Kailash ranges of the Himalayas at In this sense, the Peninsular drainage system predates
an elevation of 5300 M. After flowing through Tibet it enters the Himalayan drainage system. The wide, heavily-graded
India through Arunachal Pradesh and flows through Assam shallow valleys and the flat terrain make this clear.
and Bangladesh before it joins the Bay of Bengal. All the
Statement 2 is correct: Most of the major Peninsular
tributaries of the valley area are rain-fed. The precipitation
rivers, except Narmada and Tapi, flow from west to east.
here is mainly due to the South West monsoon.
The Chambal, the Sind, the Betwa, the Ken, and the
The North Bank tributaries of the river are: Son, originating in the northern part of the Peninsula,
‰ Subansiri, Ronganadi, Dikrong, Buroi, Borgong, Jia belong to the Ganga river system. The other major river
Bharali, Dhansiri (North) Puthimari, Manas, Beki, systems of the Peninsular drainage are the Mahanadi,
Aie, Sonkosh. (Hence, point 1, 2, and 3 are correct.) the Godavari, the Krishna, and the Kaveri. Peninsular
The South Bank tributaries of the river are: rivers are characterized by a fixed course, the absence of
‰ Noadehing, Buridehing, Desang, Dikhow, Bhogdoi, meanders, and a nonperennial flow of water.
Dhansiri (South), Kopilli, Kulsi, Krishnai, Dhdhnoi, Statement 3 is correct: Mahi River is the only river in
Jinjiran. (Hence, point 4 is incorrect.) India that cuts the tropic of cancer twice, once in Madhya
64. Consider the following states: Pradesh, where it flows west towards Rajasthan, and
then enters Gujarat, where it cuts the tropic of cancer for
1. Assam 2. Nagaland
the second time.
3. Arunachal Pradesh 4. West Bengal
Through how many of the states given above, does the 66. Consider the following statements with respect to the
River Brahmaputra flow? rivers of India:
(a) Only one (b) Only two 1. Chambal, Sind, Ken, and Betwa are the subsequent
(c) Only three (d) All four rivers of the Ganga drainage system.
2. Godavari, Krishna and Cauvery are consequent rivers
Ans: (b) of Peninsular India.
The Brahmaputra is one of the largest rivers in the world 3. Damodar river is an example of superimposed
and ranks fifth with respect to its average discharge. The drainage.
river originates from the Kailash ranges of the Himalayas How many of the statements given above are correct?
at an elevation of 5300 M. After flowing through Tibet (a) Only one (b) Only two
it enters India through Arunachal Pradesh and flows
through Assam and Bangladesh before it joins the Bay (c) All three (d) None
of Bengal. All the tributaries of the valley area are rain- Ans: (c)
fed. The precipitation here is mainly due to the South Statement 1 is correct: A subsequent river is created when
West monsoon. Thus, the states through which the river headward erosion occurs along underlying rock after the
Brahmaputra passes are: primary drainage pattern (known as a consequent river)

146 Indian Geography

 has been established. Within the Ganga river basin, rivers 68. ‘It rises near Kumbhalgarh and cuts its way through the
such as the Chambal, Sind, Ken, Betwa, Tons, and Son Aravalli Range. It then flows in a northeasterly course
intersect the Yamuna and Ganga rivers perpendicularly, onto the plains and joins the Chambal River’.
showcasing subsequent drainage patterns. Which of the following rivers is best described by the
Statement 2 is correct: Consequent rivers are those that passage given above?
flow in alignment with the general slope of the land. The (a) Luni (b) Sabarmati
majority of rivers in peninsular India are consequent (c) Banas (d) Ghaggar
rivers. For instance, the Godavari, Krishna, and Cauvery
rivers, originating from the Western Ghats and streaming Ans: (c)
into the Bay of Bengal, exemplify some of the consequent Banas River rises near Kumbhalgarh and cuts its way
rivers of Peninsular India. through the Aravalli Range. It then flows in a northeasterly
Statement 3 is correct: Superimposed drainage occurs course onto the plains and joins the Chambal River, after
when a river, flowing over a softer rock layer, encounters a course of around 500 km. The Banas is a seasonal river
harder basal rocks but maintains its original course, that is often dry in the hot months, but it is still a source
seemingly unaffected by the underlying harder stratum. of irrigation. Its main tributaries are the Berach and
The Damodar, Subarnarekha, Chambal, Banas etc. are Kotari rivers. It is bounded by the Luni basin in the west,
notable examples of superimposed drainage. the Chambal basin in the east, and the Aravalli Hills to
the south and southeast.
67. Consider the following statements regarding River
Pennaiyar: 69. Consider the following Pairs:
1. The river traverses through the states of Karnataka, Place Name of River Meeting Alaknanda
Kerala, and Tamil Nadu. 1. Vishnu Prayag Dhauli Ganga
2. This river ranks as the second longest in Tamil Nadu.
2. Rudra Prayag Pindar Ganga
3. Sathanur Dam stands as the largest dam on this river.
3. Karna Prayag Mandakini
How many of the statements given above are correct?
4. Dev Prayag Bhagirathi
(a) Only one (b) Only two
How many of the pairs given above are correctly
(c) All three (d) None
matched?
Ans: (b)
(a) Only one (b) Only two
‰ Statement 1 is incorrect: The River Pennaiyar is non-
(c) Only three (d) All four
perennial in nature. Originating in the Nandi Hills of
the Chikkaballapura district in Karnataka, it courses Ans: (b)
through Tamil Nadu before finally reaching the Bay The Ganga is the most important river of India both from
of Bengal at Cuddalore. the point of view of its basin and cultural significance. It
‰ Statement 2 is correct: This river ranks as the second rises in the Gangotri glacier near Gaumukh (3,900 m) in
longest in Tamil Nadu after the Kaveri. Its major the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand. Here, it is known
tributaries include the Chinnar, Markanda, Vaniar, as the Bhagirathi. It cuts through the Central and the
and Pamban rivers. Lesser Himalayas in narrow gorges.
‰ Statement 3 is correct: The river is heavily dammed Place River
for irrigation purposes, particularly in Tamil Nadu.
Notable reservoirs along its course include those at 1. V
 ishnu Dhauli Ganga and Alaknanda. Hence,
Krishnagiri and Sathanur, with Sathanur Dam being Prayag pair 1 is correctly matched.
the largest on this river, situated near Tiruvannamalai. 2. K
 arna Pindar Ganga and Alaknanda. Hence,
Prayag pair 2 is incorrectly matched.
3. R
 udra Mandakini meets Alaknanda. Hence,
Prayag pair 3 is incorrectly matched.
4. Devprayag Bhagirathi and Alaknanda. Hence, pair
4 is correctly matched.
The Ganga river enters the plains at Haridwar. From
here, it flows first to the south, then to the south-east
and east before splitting into two distributaries, namely
the Bhagirathi and the Padma. The river has a length of
2,525 km. It is shared by Uttarakhand (110 km) and Uttar
Pradesh (1,450 km), Bihar (445 km) and West Bengal
(520 km). The Ganga basin covers about 8.6 lakh sq. km
area in India alone.

Structure and Physiography 147

 Ans: (b)
ga
The Gulf of Khambhat is a trumpet-shaped gulf of the
an
ha
u li G Arabian Sea, indenting northward the coast of Gujarat
D
state, western India, between Mumbai (Bombay) and the

Mandakini
Kathiawar Peninsula.

a
nd
The gulf receives many rivers, including the:

na
ni
Nandaki

ak
Al
hi
girat
Pindar G
anga ‰ Sabarmati. Hence, point 3 is correct.
‰ Mahi
B ha

‰ Narmada (Narbada)
‰ Tapti. Hence, point 4 is correct.

Rann of Kutch
a
un

ga
Gan
m
Ya

70. ‘It rises from the southern slopes of the Vindhya range
in Madhya Pradesh. It joins river Yamuna in the state of
Gulf of Kutch
Uttar Pradesh. Due to geological uplift, poor rainfall and
resulting severe erosion , it has given rise to numerous
Gulf of Khambhat
deep ravines and badland topography in its basin. Banas
and Sind are its important tributaries’.
Which of the following rivers is described in the above
passage? Rukmavati river originates from near Rampar-Vekra
(a) Ken (b) Betwa village and meets in Bay of kutchh. Hence, point 2 is
incorrect.
(c) Chambal (d) Hindon
Nagmati river originates from near Bharapar village &
Ans: (c) meets in Bay of kutchh. Hence, point 1 is incorrect.
Chambal river rises from the southern slope of the Vindhya
72. Which of the following statements is incorrect with
range near Mhow in the highlands of Janapeo hills in
respect to the Tapi river?
Madhya Pradesh. After passing through Kota and Dholpur
in Rajasthan, it unites with Yamuna in Uttar Pradesh. Due (a) Ukai Dam is located on the River Tapi.
to geological uplift, poor rainfall and resulting severe (b) The Tapi river flows parallel to the Satpura Range.
erosion , it has given rise to numerous deep ravines (c) The river rises in the Betul district of Madhya Pradesh.
and badland topography in the chambal basin. Banas, (d) It flows through the Indian states of Maharashtra,
Sind, Betwa, Ken are its important tributaries. The main Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh.
multipurpose projects built on chambal are Gandhi sagar,
Ans: (d)
Rana Pratap Sagar (Rawatbhata) and Jawahar Sagar.
Hence option C is correct. The Tapi River (or Tapti) is a river in central India located
to the south of the Narmada river that flows westwards
before draining into the Arabian Sea. The river flows
through the states of Maharashtra, Gujarat and Madhya
Pradesh (not Rajasthan). It is the second longest west
flowing river of the Indian Peninsula , rises in the Betul
district of Madhya Pradesh in the Mahadeo Hills and
empties into the Gulf of Khambhat near Surat. It flows
parallel to the Satpura Range. The Purna, Girna, Bori,
Panjra are its tributaries. The Ukai Dam is located on it.

71. Consider the following rivers:

1. Nagmati 2. Rukmawati
3. Sabarmati 4. Tapti
How many of the above rivers drain into the Gulf of
Khambhat?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Only three (d) All four

148 Indian Geography

 73. Consider the following statements: Statement 2 is correct: Vembanad is the largest lake
1. Straight Channels are found where there is the same in Kerela and the longest lake in India. It has a length
structure and parallel disposition of hard and soft of about 96.5 km. Vembanad Lake is also known as
rocks on the underlying topography. Vembanad Kayal, Vembanad Kol, Punnamada Lake (in
2. A Meandering Channel shows both the erosion as well Kuttanad) and Kochi Lake (in Kochi).
as deposition features. ‰ Spanning several districts of Kerala and covering a
3. A Braided Channel is formed when a stream contains territory of more than 2033.02 km2. The lake has its
too much sediment, and the stream divides into source in four rivers, Meenachil, Achankovil, Pampa
branching and intertwining subchannels. and Manimala.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ‰ It is separated from the Arabian Sea by a narrow
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only barrier island and is a popular backwater stretch in
Kerala.
(c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
‰ Vallam Kali (i.e. Nehru Trophy Boat Race) is a Snake
Ans: (d) Boat Race held every year in the month of August in
Statement 1 is correct: Straight Channels are rare Vembanad Lake. In 2002, it was included in the list
and usually found where there is the same structure of wetlands of international importance, as defined
and parallel disposition of hard and soft rocks on the by the Ramsar Convention. It is the second-largest
underlying topography, which forces the channel to be Ramsar site in India only after the Sundarbans in
straight. When the velocity of the stream is low, the West Bengal.
sediment can be deposited to form a point bar.
Statement 2 is correct: A Meandering Channel is the
characteristic of a river that is free to travel across a valley
floor. They develop most readily on low gradient slopes
composed of easily eroded sediments. Rivers in mature
stages often show such sinuous channels, of which the
outer curve is important due to relatively free water flow,
and the inner side, due to restricted flow, sheds off some
of its load, called slip-off slope. When you have a look at
the transverse section, it will show a sloping surface from
the cut-off to the slip-off side. Hence, one can observe
both erosion and deposition in the case of meandering
rivers.
Statement 3 is correct: A Braided Channel is formed
when a stream contains more sediment than it can
readily transport. It is the stream that divides into
branching and intertwining subchannels separated by
islands or sandbars. It is also characteristic of the mature
stage of river development.
74. Consider the following statements:
1. The Gobind Sagar on river Sutlej, has been created by
the huge hydel dam at Bhakra and is named in honour
of Gobind Singh, the Tenth Sikh guru.
75. Consider the following pairs:
2. Vembanad Lake in Kerela is the longest natural lake
in India. Dams States
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1. Indira Sagar Madhya Pradesh
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. Tehri Rajasthan
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Bhavani Sagar Uttarakhand
Ans: (c) How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Statement 1 is correct: The Gobind Sagar on river Sutlej, (a) Only one (b) Only two
has been created by the huge hydel dam at Bhakra and is (c) All three (d) None
named in honour of Gobind Singh, the Tenth Sikh guru.
One of the world’s highest gravity dams, the Bhakra rises Ans: (a)
225.5 m above its lowest foundations. The Bhakra Nangal Pair 1 is correct: The Indira Sagar Dam is the largest
project which is a joint venture of Punjab, Haryana, and dam in India, in terms of volume of water stored in the
Rajasthan, is associated with this lake. reservoir. It is located on the Narmada River at the town

Structure and Physiography 149

 of Narmada Nagar, Punasa in the Khandwa district of It is known for the iconic Buddha statue located on an
Madhya Pradesh in India. island in the lake.
Pair 2 is incorrect: Tehri Dam is a primary dam of the Pair 2 is correct: Lonar Lake-Location: Buldhana district,
Tehri Development Project located in the Tehri district Maharashtra. Features: The Lonar crater is formed due
of Uttarakhand state. It is also called Swami Ramtirtha to the meteorite collision in the Pleistocene Epoch. It
Sagar Dam. This dam is built on two important rivers of is a notified Geo-heritage Monument with saline and
the Himalayas, one of which is the main tributary of the alkaline water. It is one of only four known hyper-velocity
Ganga River, the Bhagirathi River and the other is the impact craters in basaltic rock anywhere on Earth. The
Bhilangana River, at the confluence of which it is built. other three basaltic impact structures are in southern
Pair 3 is incorrect: Bhavanisagar Dam or Lower Bhavani Brazil.
Dam, is located in Erode district, Tamil Nadu, India. The Pair 3 is incorrect: Harike Lake-Location: Tarntaran,
dam is constructed on the Bhavani River. It is one of the Ferozpur, and Kapurthala districts of Punjab.Features:
world’s largest earthen dams. Harike is one of the largest man-made wetlands in
northern India. It came into existence in 1952 after the
construction of a barrage near the confluence of rivers
Sutlej and Beas. Harike is a significant abode for the birds
migrating from across the international frontiers. It is a
Ramsar site as well.
Pushkar Lake- Location: Pushkar, Rajasthan.Features:
Pushkar Lake is a sacred lake and a prominent pilgrimage
site for Hindus. It is believed to have been created by
Lord Brahma and is surrounded by ghats and temples.
The annual Pushkar Fair is a major event held near the
lake.
77. “It is the second largest salty water area in eastern India.
It is a part of the global network called Living Lakes and
is represented by CReNIEO. It’s separated from the Bay
of Bengal by a narrow area of land called Sriharikota. It
is located between Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.”
The above passage refers to which of the following lakes?
(a) Kolleru Lake (b) Cumbum Lake
(c) Pulicat Lake (d) Chilika Lake
Ans: (c)
Pulicat Lake:
Fig: Major Dams of India
‰ It is a brackish water lake located between Andhra
76. Consider the following pairs: Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. The rivers feeding the Lake
Lakes in Characteristics are the Arani River, Kalangi River, and Swarnamukhi
India River. Please note that neither Krishna nor Godavari
Hussain An artificial lake built during the reign of directly feeds Pulicat Lake.
Sagar Lake Ibrahim Quli Qutub Shah. ‰ Pulicat Lake is part of a global network called Living
Lakes and is represented by CReNIEO.
Lonar Lake It is one of only four known hyper-velocity
impact craters in basaltic rock anywhere ‰ The lake is the second biggest salty water area in
on Earth. eastern India and is home to a lot of different plants
and animals.
Harike Lake It is believed to have been created by
‰ It extends from the extreme southeastern portion of
Lord Brahma and is surrounded by ghats
Andhra Pradesh into the adjacent portion of Tamil
and temples.
Nadu state and has a length of about 30 miles (50
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? km) and a width of 3 to 10 miles (5 to 16 km). The
(a) Only one (b) Only two lake is located on the swampy, sandy Andhra plains,
(c) All three (d) None and the surrounding area is sparsely settled.
Ans: (b) ‰ The long and narrow Sriharikota Island, which
Pair 1 is correct: Hussain Sagar Lake-Location: Hyderabad, separates Pulicat Lake from the Bay of Bengal, is the
Telangana. Features: Hussain Sagar Lake is an artificial site of Satish Dhawan Space Centre, India’s satellite-
lake built during the reign of Ibrahim Quli Qutub Shah. launching facility.

150 Indian Geography

 ‰ The only sea entrance into the lake is around the How many of the above pairs are incorrectly matched?
south end of the island, north of the town of Pulicat (a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs
on the mainland.
(c) All three pairs (d) None of the pairs
Chilika Lake
Ans: (a)
‰ The vast and dream-like Chilika Lagoon is situated on
the east coast of India. It is the largest brackish Water Pair 1 is correct: Lonar Lake was created by a meteorite
Lagoon with estuarine character that sprawls along impact that took place approximately 50,000 years ago.
the east coast. It is the largest wintering ground for Lonar Lake is a notified National Geo-heritage Monument,
migratory waterfowl found anywhere on the Indian located at Lonar in Buldhana district, Maharashtra, India.
sub-continent. It is one of the hotspots of biodiversity The water in the lake is both saline and alkaline. Recently,
in the country, and some rare, vulnerable, and the colour of water in Maharashtra’s Lonar lake has
endangered species listed in the IUCN Red List of changed to pink with experts attributing it to the salinity
threatened Animals inhabit the lagoon for at least and presence of algae in the water body.
part of their life cycle. Pair 2 is correct: Wular Lake is one of the largest freshwater
Cumbum Lake lakes in South Asia. It is located near Bandipora town in
‰ Cumbum Lake, also known as Gundlakamma Lake, the Bandipora district of Jammu and Kashmir, India. The
was built on the Gundlakamma rivulet upon the lake basin was formed as a result of tectonic activity and
Nallamala hills. It is one of the oldest man-made is fed by the Jhelum River and streams Madhumati and
lakes in Asia. Arin.
Kolleru Lake Pair 3 is incorrect: Dhebar Lake (also known as Jaisamand
‰ Kolleru Lake is one of the largest freshwater lakes Lake) is India’s second largest artificial freshwater lake in
in India located in the state of Andhra Pradesh and India. It is located in the Salumber District of Rajasthan.
forms the largest shallow freshwater lake in Asia. It was built by Maharana Jai Singh in 1685 on the Gomati
15 kilometers away from the Eluru and 65 km from River. There are three islands on Dhebar Lake, and the
Rajamahendravaram, the lake is located between tribe of Bhil Minas inhabits there. Jaisamand Wildlife
the Krishna and Godavari deltas. Sanctuary is situated around the Dhebar Lake.
79. Consider the following pairs:
Lake Type State
1. Dal Lake Saltwater Jammu and Kashmir
2. Loktak Lake Freshwater Manipur
3. Wular lake Freshwater Ladakh
4. Tsomgo Lake Saltwater Sikkim
5. Tamdil Lake Freshwater Mizoram
How many of the pairs given above are correct?
(a) Only two (b) Only three
(c) Only four (d) All five
Ans: (a)
‰ Dal Lake is known as the “Jewel in the Crown of
Kashmir”, it’s a significant tourist attraction in the
state of Jammu and Kashmir. It is a freshwater lake.
Hence, pair 1 is incorrect.
‰ Loktak Lake in Manipur is the largest freshwater
lake in Northeast India. It is renowned for its floating
phumdis. Keibul Lamjao National Park, the world’s
only floating national park, serves as the last natural
78. Consider the following pairs:
habitat of the endangered Sangai deer.Hence, pair 2
Lakes Origin is correct.
1. Lonar Lake Meteorite impact ‰ Wular Lake is the 2nd largest fresh-water lake of
2. Wular lake Tectonic activity Asia, situated on the foothills of Haramuk Mountain
3. Dhebar Lake Glacial origin in the state of Jammu and Kashmir. Main source of
water for Wular Lake is River Jhelum. This lake also

Structure and Physiography 151

 has a small island in its centre called the ‘Zaina Lank’. 81. Consider the following pairs:
This island was constructed by King Zainul-Abi-Din.
City/Town River
Wular Lake is also said to be a remnant of Satisar
Lake that existed in ancient times. Hence, pair 3 is 1. Ayodhya Gandak
incorrect. 2. Lucknow Gomati
‰ Tsomgo Lake, also known as Tsongmo Lake or Changu 3. Badrinath Alaknanda
Lake, is a glacial lake in the East Sikkim district of the 4. Ujjain Shipra
Indian state of Sikkim. It is a freshwater lake. Hence, How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
pair 4 is incorrect. (a) Only one (b) Only two
‰ Tamdil(Mustard lake) is the second largest lake in (c) Only three (d) All four
the state of Mizoram located in Saitual Sub-Division
Ans: (c)
of Aizawl District. It is a freshwater lake in India.
Pair 1 is incorrect: Ayodhya is a city situated on the
Hence, pair 5 is correct.
banks of the holy river Saryu in the state of Uttar
80. With reference to the geographical location of major Pradesh. Ayodhya, also known as Saket, is the birthplace
lakes in India, which of the pairs given below is located of Bhagwan Shri Ram and the setting of the great epic
closest to each other in terms of longitude? Ramayana. Ayodhya used to be the capital of the ancient
Kosala Kingdom.
(a) Chilika Lake and Kolleru Lake
‰ The Sarayu River flows through Uttarakhand and
(b) Sambhar Lake and Vembanad Lake
Uttar Pradesh, holding ancient significance with
(c) Loktak Lake and Pulicat Lake mentions in the Vedas and the Ramayana.
(d) Kolleru Lake and Vembanad Lake Pair 2 is correct: The Gomti river originates near Manikot
in the Pillibhit district of Uttar Pradesh at an elevation
Ans: (b)
of 200 m and drains the area between the Ramganga
Location of lakes in terms of longitude and latitude
and the Sarda, in the upper reach and the area between
(Approximately) the Ganga and the Ghaghara, in the lower reach. Major
Option (a) is incorrect: Chillika Lake: Longitude: 85°05’ to cities situated on its banks are Lucknow, Sitapur, Hardoi,
85°38’ (East); Latitude 19°28’ to 19 °54’ (North); Kolleru Barabanki, Rae Bareli, Pratapgarh, Sultanpur and Jaunpur.
Lake: Longitude 81°05 to 81°21 (East) and Latitude 16°32 Pair 3 is correct: Badrinath, at 3,100 m in the Garhwal
to 16 °47 (North) Himalayas on the Alaknanda River, lies between the Nar
Option (b) is correct: Sambhar Lake: Longitude 75.0962° and Narayana ranges. The Badrinath Temple, founded
(East) and Latitude 26.9261° (North); Vembanad Lake: by Adi Shankaracharya in the 8th century, is one of
Longitude 76°00’ to 77°30’ (East) and Latitude 9°00’ to Uttarakhand’s Char Dhams.
10°40’ (North) ‰ This river, a headstream of the Ganga, originates
from the Satopanth and Bhagirath glaciers in
Option (c) is incorrect: Loktak Lake: Longitude 93°46”
Uttarakhand. It joins the Bhagirathi at Devprayag,
to 93°55” (East) and Latitude 24°25” to 25°42” (North);
where it becomes the Ganga. Its main tributaries
Pulicat Lake: Longitude 80° 03’to 80 °18’ (East) and include the Mandakini, Nandakini, and Pindar rivers.
Latitude 13° 24’ to 13° 43’ (North) Pair 4 is correct: Ujjain, a city in western Madhya Pradesh
Option (d) is incorrect: Kolleru Lake: Longitude 81°05 state, was the capital (as Ujjayini) of the Aryan Avanti
to 81°21 (East) and Latitude 16°32 to 16 °47 (North); kingdom (6th–4th century BCE). In the 2nd century BCE,
Vembanad Lake: Longitude 76°00’ to 77°30’ (East) and Ujjain was the seat of the emperor Ashoka, the last of
Latitude 9°00’ to 10°40’ (North). the Mauryan rulers and one of the most influential early
Buddhists. It is located on the Malwa Plateau on the east
PW Only IAS Extra Edge side of the Sipra (Shipra) River, a tributary of the Chambal
‰ Sambhar Lake is the largest inland salt lake in River.
India, formed by the depression of the Aravalli
‰ Shpra river Originates from Kakri-Tekdi hill in the
Range. Recognized as a wetland of “international
Vindhya Range near Ujjain. This river’s major
importance” under the Ramsar Convention, it was
tributaries are the Khan and Gambhir.
designated as such in 1990.
‰ Chambal river rises in the Vindhya Range near Mhow.
‰ Pulicat Lake is the second-largest brackish water
This key river of the Malwa plateau, a major Yamuna
ecosystem in India, following Chilika Lake in
tributary and part of the Gangetic drainage system,
Odisha, and is located primarily in Andhra Pradesh,
flows through Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar
along the border with Tamil Nadu.
Pradesh.

152 Indian Geography

 82. Which of the options given below is correct with National Waterways-3 Brahmaputra
reference to the process of river capture as shown in the
National Waterways-6 Godavari and Krishna river
figure below?
system
National Waterways-8 Brahmani and Mahanadi
delta river system
How many of the pair(s) given above is/are correctly
matched?
(a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs (d) All four pairs
Ans: (a)
Pair 1 is correct: National Waterway-1 includes the
Ganga, Bhagirathi, and Hooghly rivers along with their
(a) A- Pirated river; B- Pirating river; X- Wind Gap; Y-Misfit; tributaries from Allahabad to Haldia under the National
Z- Elbow of capture Waterway (Allahabad-Haldia stretch of the Ganga
(b) A- Pirating river; B-Pirated river; X- Elbow of capture; Bhagirathi Hooghly River) Act 1982. The waterway
Y- Wind Gap; Z- Misfit extends from Haldia to Allahabad for a distance of 1620
(c) A- Pirated river; B- Pirating river; X- Misfit; Y-Wind Gap; kilometres.
Z- Elbow of capture Pair 2 is incorrect: National Waterway-3 primarily
(d) A- Pirating river; B- Pirated river; X- Wind Gap; Y-Misfit; includes the West Coast Canal, Champakara Canal,
Z- Elbow of capture Udyogmandal Canal, and other connected water bodies
in Kerala.
Ans: (b)
‰ The stretch of the Brahmaputra River from Dhubri
River capture is a natural process that is more active in
to Sadiya in Assam was designated as National
the youthful stage of the valley development because the
Waterway No. 2 through the enactment of the
streams are actively engaged in head-ward erosion and
National Waterway (Sadiya-Dhubri stretch of the
valley lengthening, but river capture also occurs during
Brahmaputra River) Act of 1988. This waterway
the mature and senile stages of the valley development
covers a substantial distance of 891 km, providing a
through the processes of lateral erosion and meander
vital transportation route.
intersection. The higher courses of weak and sluggish
Pair 3 is incorrect: National Waterway-6 covers the Barak
streams are caught by the stronger and more powerful
River and its tributaries in the state of Assam.
streams, which are more powerful in terms of channel
gradient, stream velocity and discharge, and kinetic ‰ National Waterway-4 includes the Kakinada-
energy. The point at which the captured stream’s course Puducherry canal stretch, spanning 767 km. It also
has been changed to follow the captor stream is known comprises two river stretches: a 171 km segment
as the elbow of capture. The dry section of the headless along the Godavari River between Bhadrachalam and
stream just below the elbow of capture is called the Rajahmundry, as well as a 157 km portion along the
“wind gap”. Krishna River between Wazirabad and Vijayawada.
The cumulative length of NW-4 amounts to 1095 km.
Pair 4 is incorrect: National Waterway-8 comprises the
backwaters of Kerala, including the Alappuzha-Kottayam-
Changanassery-Edathua route.
‰ National Waterways-5, known as NW-5, encompasses
the East Coast Canal stretch and the Brahmani
and Mahanadi delta river system. This designation
includes various segments: a 217 km canal stretch
connecting Geonkhali and Charbatia, a 40 km section
83. Consider the following pairs: of the Matai River between Charbatia and Dhamra,
a 265 km portion of the Brahmani, Kharsua, and
National Waterway River Systems Dhamra river system between Talcher and Dhamra,
in India and a 101 km section of the Mahanadi delta river
National Waterways-1 Ganga- Bhagirathi–Hooghly system between Mangalgadi and Paradeep. The
river system overall length of NW-5 spans 623 km.

Structure and Physiography 153

 Fig: Major National Waterways in India

154 Indian Geography

 3 Indian Climate

Objective Questions for Practice

1. With reference to the Climate of India, consider the of Cancer, being away from the equator, experiences an
following statements: extreme climate with a high daily and annual range of
1. Agra and Darjeeling are located at the same latitude and temperature.
thus experience almost similar climate characteristics. 2. Consider the following statements with reference to the
2. The Himalayan ranges provide an effective shield for Determinants of India’s climate:
the Indian subcontinent from the cold northern winds. 1. India’s climate is exclusively influenced by its
3. Areas north of the Tropic of Cancer experience a high geographical location and topography only.
daily and annual range of temperatures. 2. Upper air circulation plays a crucial role in shaping
How many of the above statements are incorrect? India’s local climates.
(a) Only one (b) Only two Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) All three (d) None (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Ans: (a) (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
The Indian Climate is affected by the following factors: Ans: (b)
Latitude, Distance from the sea, Distribution of land and Statement 1 is incorrect: India’s climate is influenced not
water, Altitude, Himalayan mountains, and Relief. only by geographical location and relief but also by air
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Indian Climate is highly pressure and wind patterns. Factors related to Location
influenced by altitude. It has been observed that the and Relief include Latitude, The Himalayan Mountains,
temperature decreases with an increase in height. Places Distribution of Land and Water, Distance from the Sea,
located in the mountains are generally cooler than places Altitude, Relief, etc. All these factors work together to
situated on the plains. Hence, it is observed that although create the diverse climatic conditions observed across
Darjeeling, Agra are located on the same latitude, the the country, indicating that climate determination is not
temperature of January in Agra is 16°C whereas it is only solely dependent on location and topography.
4°C in Darjeeling, so both of them experience different Statement 2 is correct: Upper air circulation, driven
climate characteristics. by global weather phenomena and the movement of
Statement 2 is correct: The Himalayan Mountains different air masses and jet streams, is a key mechanism
influence India’s climate to a large extent. These lofty influencing India’s local climates. Understanding these
mountains cover the entire northern periphery and, along upper air circulation patterns is essential to comprehend
with their extensions, act as an effective climatic divide. the variations in climate across different regions of India
The mountain chains of the Himalayas provide an effective during both winter and summer seasons.
shield and protect the Indian subcontinent from the cold 3. Consider the following with reference to the factors
northern winds. These cold and chilly winds originate near influencing the climate of India:
the Arctic Circle and blow across central and eastern Asia.
1. The tropical zone experiences high temperatures
The Himalayas also trap the monsoon winds, forcing them
throughout the year with small daily and annual
to shed their moisture within the subcontinent.
ranges.
Statement 3 is correct: The latitudinal extent of India is
2. The Himalayas trap the monsoon winds within the
such that the northern part of the country lies in the warm
subcontinent.
temperate or subtropical zone, and the southern half of
the country lies in tropical zones. The regions located 3. Coastal areas in India experience have an equable
near the tropical zone experience high temperatures climate.
throughout the year with small daily and annual ranges 4. Difference in air pressure causes a reversal in the
as they are near the equator. The area north of the Tropic direction of monsoon winds.
 Which of the statements given above are correct? Statements 2 and 3 are correct: The western cyclonic
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only disturbances originate over the Mediterranean Sea and are
brought into India by the westerly jet stream. An increase
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
in the prevailing night temperature generally indicates an
Ans: (d) advance in the arrival of these cyclone disturbances.
Statement 1 is correct: Tropic of Cancer passes through ‰ They pick up the moisture from the Caspian Sea
the central part of India in an east-west direction. Thus, in the north and the Persian Gulf in the south and
the northern part of India lies in the sub-tropical and cause winter rainfall in Northwest India.
temperate zone and the part lying south of the Tropic of
‰ Although the total amount of winter rainfall locally
Cancer falls in the tropical zone. The tropical zone being known as ‘Mahawat’ is small, they are of immense
nearer to the equator, experiences high temperatures importance for the cultivation of ‘Rabi’ crops.
throughout the year with small daily and annual ranges.
The area north of the Tropic of Cancer being away from 5. Consider the following statements regarding Cold waves
the equator, experiences an extreme climate with a high in India:
daily and annual ranges of temperature. 1. Coastal areas suffer cold waves when the minimum
Statement 2 is correct: The lofty Himalayas in the north temperature is 15°C or less, and the negative
along with its extensions act as an effective climatic divide. departure from the minimum is 4.5 °C.
They protect the subcontinent from the cold northern 2. Cold waves in India are influenced by Western
winds. The Himalayas also trap the monsoon winds, forcing disturbances and Arctic amplification.
them to shed their moisture within the subcontinent. 3. Prevailing El-Nino conditions over the Equatorial
Statement 3 is correct: With a long coastline, large coastal Pacific Ocean result in severe cold wave days in
areas have an equable climate. Areas in the interior of Northwest India.
India are far away from the moderating influence of the Which of the statements given above are correct?
sea. Such areas have extremes of climate. That is why, (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
the people of Mumbai and the Konkan coast have hardly (c) 1 and 2 only (d) All of the above
any idea of extremes of temperature and the seasonal
Ans: (c)
rhythm of weather.
Statement 1 is correct: According to the Indian
Statement 4 is correct: India is flanked by the Indian Meteorological Department, a cold wave occurs when
Ocean on three sides in the south and girdled by a high the minimum temperature is 10°C or less for plains and
and continuous mountain wall in the north. As compared 0°C or less for the hilly regions and negative departure
to the landmass, water heats up or cools down slowly. from normal day temperature is 4.5 to 6.4°C. If negative
This differential heating of land and sea creates different departure is more than 6.4°C, it is a severe cold wave.
air pressure zones in different seasons in and around the This means that day temperatures play an important
Indian subcontinent. Difference in air pressure causes a role in cold waves. Additionally, the plains suffer a cold
reversal in the direction of monsoon winds. wave when the minimum temperature is 4°C or less and
4. Consider the following statements with respect to a severe cold wave when the minimum temperature falls
Weather in India: to 2°C or less. Coastal areas suffer cold waves when the
minimum temperature is 15°C or less and the negative
1. The northern branch of the SubTropical Westerly Jet
departure from the minimum is 4.5 °C.
Streams significantly impacts the weather in winter.
Statement 2 is correct: Cold waves in India were considered
2. A rise in night temperatures typically signals an earlier to be influenced by ‘Western disturbances’ or cold winds
arrival of western cyclone disturbances. starting from the Mediterranean across the Caspian Sea
3. Mahawat is a term that is used to describe a small and blowing into India across Afghanistan and Pakistan.
amount of winter rainfall. However, recent research shows that a phenomenon
Which of the statements given above are correct? called ‘Arctic amplification’ — coming all the way from the
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only Arctic and Siberia — descends upon India to cause extreme
cold events. The global weather phenomenon ‘la Nina’,
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
with its cold winds all the way above the Eastern Pacific,
Ans: (c) also influences cold wave conditions across India. There is
Statement 1 is incorrect: During winters, the SubTropical another phenomenon called the ‘wind chill factor’, whose
Westerly Jet Streams flowing across the Asian continent chilly winds make you feel a few degrees colder than what
get bifurcated at the Tibetan Himalayas. The northern the thermometer may show.
branch blows north of the Tibetan highlands, and the Statement 3 is incorrect: Typically, Northwest India
southern branch blows eastward, south of the Himalayas. experiences five to seven western disturbances in
The southern branch has a significant influence on the December and January, providing slight relief from the
winter weather in India. chilling weather conditions. However, such phenomena

156 Indian Geography

 were absent in the winter of 2023-24. The lack of 7. Consider the following statements about Western
western disturbances can also be attributed to the disturbances in India during the cold weather season:
prevailing El-Nino conditions over the Equatorial Pacific 1. These disturbances develop over the Mediterranean
Ocean. This phenomenon results in fewer cold wave days Sea and move eastward under the influence of an
in Northwest India. easterly Jet Stream.
6. Consider the following statements regarding the 2. The precipitation decreases from west to east in the
summer weather patterns in the Indian subcontinent: plains and north to south in the mountains.
1. The Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) shifts Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
southward during the summer season. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. Westerly jet stream over the North Indian Plain (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
strengthens as the summer progresses. Ans: (a)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Statement 1 is incorrect: During the cold weather season,
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only a number of cyclonic depressions known as Western
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Disturbances are developed in the Mediterranean Sea.
These depressions move eastward towards India, at the
Ans: (d)
height of 3000 m above sea level, under the influence of
Statement 1 is incorrect: As the summer sets in and the westerly jet stream.
the sun shifts northwards (apparent motion), the wind
On their way, the moisture content gets augmented from
circulation over the subcontinent undergoes a change
the Caspian Sea in the north and the Persian Gulf in the
at both, the lower as well as the upper levels. By the south.
middle of July, the low pressure belt nearer the surface,
Statement 2 is correct: These Western disturbances yield
termed as Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) shifts
some rainfall. It is of great economic significance for Rabi
northwards, roughly parallel to the Himalayas between
crops of wheat and gram as they provide much needed
20° N and 25° N.
moisture to these crops. Also, there is snowfall over
Statement 2 is incorrect: During the summer, the westerly the hills of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and
jet stream weakens over the Indian subcontinent. In fact, Uttarakhand. This snow provides water to the Himalayan
it shifts northward, and its position is replaced by the rivers during the summer season. The precipitation
tropical easterly jet stream, which aids in the monsoon’s decreases from west to east in the plains and from north
advance. The westerly jet stream is stronger during the to south in the mountains.
winter season.

8. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian

monsoon and its onset:
1. The differential heating of land and sea during summer
is responsible for the onset of the Indian monsoon.
2. The southwest monsoon is a continuation of the
southeast trades after crossing the Equator.
3. The westerly jet stream of northern India brings the
burst of the monsoon with it.
4. By mid-July, the southwest monsoon spreads to the
entire subcontinent.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Map: Summer season, ITCZpositions and arrival of (a) Only one (b) Only two
Monsoon in India (c) Only three (d) All four

Indian Climate 157

Ans: (c) of the southeast trades deflected towards the Indian
Statement 1 is correct: The differential heating of land subcontinent after crossing the Equator. These winds
and sea during the summer months is the mechanism cross the Equator between 40°E and 60°E longitudes.
which sets the stage for the monsoon winds to drift Statement 3 is incorrect: The shift in the position of the
towards the subcontinent. During April and May when ITCZ is also related to the phenomenon of the withdrawal
the sun shines vertically over the Tropic of Cancer, the of the westerly jet stream from its position over the north
large landmass in the north of Indian ocean gets intensely Indian plain. The easterly jet stream sets in along 15°N
heated. This causes the formation of an intense low latitude only after the western jet stream has withdrawn
pressure in the northwestern part of the subcontinent. itself from the region. This easterly jet stream is held
Statement 2 is correct: Since the pressure in the Indian responsible for the burst of the monsoon in India.
Ocean in the south of the landmass is high as water Statement 4 is correct: The southwest monsoon sets
gets heated slowly, the low pressure cell attracts the in over the Kerala coast by around 1st June and moves
southeast trades across the Equator. These conditions swiftly to reach Mumbai and Kolkata between 10th and
help in the northward shift in the position of the ITCZ. The 13th June. By mid-July, southwest monsoon engulfs the
southwest monsoon may thus, be seen as a continuation entire subcontinent.

158 Indian Geography

 9. Consider the following statements regarding Monsoon causes the formation of an intense low pressure in
climate in India: the northwestern part of the subcontinent. Also,
1. The monsoon climate in India exhibits a uniform intense heating of the Tibetan plateau creates low
pattern throughout the country. pressure in the northern parts of the subcontinent.
Hence, point 1 is correct.
2. Regional temperature variations are minimal in India.
‰ Since the pressure in the Indian Ocean in the south
3. Coastal areas of Tamil Nadu experience a dry season
of the landmass is high as the water gets heated
during June-September.
slowly, the low-pressure cell attracts the southeast
Which of the statements given above are incorrect? trades across the Equator. These conditions help
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only in the northward shift in the position of the ITCZ.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 The southwest monsoon may thus be seen as a
continuation of the southeast trades deflected
Ans: (a)
towards the Indian subcontinent after crossing the
Statement 1 is incorrect: The climate of India has many Equator. These winds cross the Equator between
regional variations expressed in the pattern of winds, 40°°E and 60°°E longitudes.
temperature and rainfall, rhythm of seasons and the
‰ The shift in the position of the ITCZ is also related to
degree of wetness or dryness. These regional diversities
the phenomenon of the withdrawal of the westerly
may be described as sub-types of monsoon climate.
jet stream/subtropical jet stream from its position
Statement 2 is incorrect: While in the summer the over the north Indian plain, south of the Himalayas.
mercury occasionally touches 55°C in western Rajasthan, Hence, point 3 is correct.
it drops down to as low as minus 45°C in winter around
‰ The easterly jet stream sets in along 15°N latitude
Leh. Churu in Rajasthan may record a temperature of
only after the western jet stream has withdrawn
50°C or more on a June day while the mercury hardly
itself from the region. This easterly jet stream is held
touches 19°C in Tawang (Arunachal Pradesh) on the responsible for the burst of the monsoon in India.
same day. On a December night, the temperature in Hence, point 4 is correct.
Drass (Jammu and Kashmir) may drop down to minus
‰ Also, permanent high pressure cells in the south Indian
45°C while Thiruvananthapuram or Chennai on the same
Ocean make the winds flow from high pressure zone
night records 20°C or 22°C. These examples confirm that
to the low-pressure zone in the northern part of the
there are seasonal variations in temperature from place
subcontinent and thus the southeast trade winds gush
to place and from region to region in India.
in the Indian subcontinent. Hence, point 2 is correct.
Statement 3 is correct: Coromandal coast generally goes
‰ Entry of Monsoon into India: The southwest
dry during June-Sptember. Most parts of the country get
monsoon sets in over the Kerala coast by 1st June
rainfall during June-September, but on the coastal areas of
and moves swiftly to reach Mumbai and Kolkata
Tamil Nadu, it rains in the beginning of the winter season. between 10th and 13th June. By mid-July, southwest
10. Which of the following factors influence the onset of monsoon engulfs the entire subcontinent.
the Southwest Monsoon in India? 11. Consider the following statements:
1. Intense heating of the Tibetan Plateau during summer 1. Intertropical Convergence Zone shifting to the north.
months.
2. High pressure over northern India.
2. Permanent high pressure cell in the South Indian 3. Tropical Easterly Jets develop over India.
Ocean.
How many of the above-mentioned conditions prevail
3. Withdrawal of Westerly Jet stream. during Southwest monsoons?
4. Tropical easterly jet stream. (a) Only one (b) Only two
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(c) All three (d) None
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
Ans: (b)
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Point 1 is correct: The vertical rays of the sun shift
Ans: (d) northwards over the Tropic of Cancer in the summer
A monsoon is a major wind system that seasonally reverses season, and the Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone(ITCZ)
its direction such as one that blows for approximately also shifts north. This results in the formation of a low-
six months from the northeast and six months from the pressure area over the northwestern parts of India.
southwest. The most prominent monsoons occur in South This low pressure is further intensified by the high
Asia, Africa, Australia, and the Pacific coast of Central temperatures in this region. This low-pressure area
America. Some of the factors that influence the onset of sucks the air from the Indian Ocean towards the Indian
the southwest monsoon in India are: landmass in the form of Southwest monsoons.
‰ During April and May when the sun shines vertically Point 2 is incorrect: During the Southwest Monsoon,
over the Tropic of Cancer, the large landmass in the low-pressure systems develop over northern and
north of the Indian Ocean gets intensely heated. This central India due to intense land heating. High-pressure

Indian Climate 159

 conditions prevail over the Indian Ocean, which drives 3. Most of the rainfall of the Coromandel coast is
moist winds inland. High pressure over northern India associated with this retreating monsoon.
would suppress monsoon activity. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Point 3 is correct: High-velocity winds in the lower (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
troposphere are called as Low-Level Jets (LLJs) or Tropical
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Easterly Jet (TEJ) - the well-known prominent of these is the
African Easterly Jets and it is found in the latitudes between Ans: (b)
5° and 20°N. TEJ are upper-level easterly winds that are Season of Retreating Monsoon:
fairly persistent in position, direction, and intensity, which The months of October and November are known for
start in late June and continue until early September. retreating monsoons. By the end of September, the
southwest monsoon becomes weak as the low pressure
12. Which of the following hills is primarily responsible
trough of the Ganga plain starts moving southward
for the deflection of the Bay of Bengal branch of the
in response to the southward march of the sun. The
Southwest Monsoon towards the Indian subcontinent?
monsoon retreats from the western Rajasthan by the
(a) Eastern Ghat hills (b) Satpura hills first week of September. It withdraws from Rajasthan,
(c) Arakan hills (d) Aravalli hills Gujarat, Western Ganga plain and the Central Highlands
by the end of the month.
Ans: (c)
The Indian monsoon has two branches: the Arabian Sea ‰ By the beginning of October, the low pressure covers
branch and the Bay of Bengal branch. The Bay of Bengal northern parts of the Bay of Bengal and by early
branch of the Indian monsoon strikes the coast of Myanmar November, it moves over Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
and part of southeast Bangladesh. But the Arakan Hills ‰ By the middle of December, the centre of low
along the coast of Myanmar deflect a big portion of this pressure is completely removed from the Peninsula.
branch towards the Indian subcontinent. The monsoon, ‰ The retreating southwest monsoon season is marked
therefore, enters West Bengal and Bangladesh from the by clear skies and rise in temperature (October heat).
south and southeast instead of from the south-westerly Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
direction. From here, this branch splits into two under ‰ The land is still moist. Owing to the conditions of high
the influence of the Himalayas and the thermal low is temperature and humidity, the weather becomes
northwest India. Its one branch moves westward along rather oppressive. This is commonly known as the
the Ganga plains, reaching as far as the Punjab plains. ‘October heat’.
The other branch moves up the Brahmaputra valley in ‰ In the second half of October, the mercury begins to
the north and northeast, causing widespread rains. Its fall rapidly, particularly in northern India. The weather
sub-branch strikes the Garo and Khasi hills of Meghalaya. in the retreating monsoon is dry in north India but it is
Mawsynram, located on the crest of Khasi hills, receives associated with rain in the eastern part of the Peninsula.
the highest average annual rainfall in the world. Here, October and November are the rainiest months
of the year. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
‰ The widespread rain in this season is associated with
the passage of cyclonic depressions which originate
over the Andaman Sea and manage to cross the
eastern coast of the southern Peninsula. These
tropical cyclones are very destructive. The thickly
populated deltas of the Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri
are their preferred targets. Every year cyclones bring
disaster here. A few cyclonic storms also strike the
coast of West Bengal, Bangladesh and Myanmar.
A bulk of the rainfall of the Coromandel coast is
derived from these depressions and cyclones. Such
cyclonic storms are less frequent in the Arabian Sea.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
14. Consider the following statements with reference to the
Retreating monsoon season:
Fig: Bay of Bengal branch of southwest monsoon
1. During the retreat, clear skies dominate, and
13. Consider the following statements about season of temperatures rise.
Retreating Monsoon: 2. Rainfall in this season is primarily due to cyclonic
1. The weather is dry in northern part of the India. depressions.
2. The season is marked by clear skies and a decline in 3. The Coromandel coast mainly gets its rain during this
temperature. season.

160 Indian Geography

 How many of the statements given above are correct? 16. Which of the following statements is correct with
(a) Only one (b) Only two reference to India?
(c) All three (d) None (a) The highest rainfall occurs along the eastern coast as
Ans: (c) well as in the Himalayan region.
Retreating Monsoon Season (The Transition Season) (b) The agriculture of the country is entirely dependent
‰ The months of October and November mark the on rainfall during the monsoon season.
phase of retreating monsoons. (c) Winter rainfall by temperate cyclones in north India
‰ By September’s end, the southwest monsoon is highly beneficial for rabi crops
weakens due to the southward shift of the low- (d) Regional variations in rainfall result in the mono
pressure trough from the Ganga plain due to the cropping pattern in the country.
southward movement of the sun.
Ans: (c)
‰ During this retreat, clear skies dominate, and
temperatures rise. While day temperatures are high The average annual rainfall in India is about 125 cm, but
nights are cool and pleasant. Hence, statement 1 is it has great spatial variations.
correct. ‰ The highest rainfall occurs along the west coast, on
‰ High temperature and humidity lead to the ‘October the Western Ghats, and in the sub-Himalayan areas
heat’. in the northeast and the hills of Meghalaya, while
‰ Rainfall in this season is primarily due to cyclonic areas of Rajasthan, the Deccan Plateau, etc., receive
depressions originating over the Andaman Sea very low rainfall. Hence, option (a) is incorrect.
affecting deltas of rivers like the Godavari, Krishna, ‰ The monsoon is the axis around which revolves
and Kaveri. Hence, statement 2 is correct. the entire agricultural cycle of India. It is because
‰ Cyclones are less prevalent in the Arabian Sea. about 64 percent of the people of India depend
‰ The Coromandel coast mainly gets its rain from these on agriculture for their livelihood, and agricultural
cyclonic events. Hence, statement 3 is correct. planning is based on southwest monsoon, but
15. Consider the following statements: irrigation also plays an important role in agriculture
development of India. The agricultural prosperity of
1. Easterly jet streams are responsible for the burst of
India depends very much on timely and adequately
monsoon in India.
distributed rainfall. If it fails, agriculture is adversely
2. It is generally believed that the shift of the Intertropical
affected, particularly in those regions where means
convergence zone northwards causes the withdrawal
of the westerly jetstream from India. of irrigation are not developed. Hence, option (b) is
incorrect.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
‰ Winter rainfall by temperate cyclones in north India
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
is highly beneficial for rabi crops. These are called
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 western disturbances. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Ans: (d) ‰ Regional variations in monsoon climate help in
Statement 1 is correct: The easterly jet stream sets in growing various types of crops. Thus, diversity in
along 15°N latitude only after the western jet stream has crops is observed in a country like India. Hence,
withdrawn itself from the region. This easterly jet stream option (d) is incorrect.
is held responsible for the burst of the monsoon in India.
Statement 2 is correct: The southwest monsoon may 17. Consider the following cities/regions of India:
be seen as a continuation of the southeast trade winds 1. Delhi 2. Arunachal Pradesh
deflected towards the Indian subcontinent after crossing 3. Bihar 4. South-East Karnataka
the Equator. These winds cross the Equator between Which of the above receives rainfall in the winter season?
40°E and 60°E longitudes. The shift in the position of the
ITCZ is also related to the phenomenon of the withdrawal (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
of the westerly jet stream from its position over the (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 only
north Indian plain. This connection is widely believed Ans: (c)
to involve a cause-and-effect dynamic between the two
The winter monsoons move from land to sea, and they
atmospheric phenomena. The ITCZ, characterized by
do not cause rainfall. This is due to the fact that
low pressure, attracts winds from various directions.
The maritime tropical air mass (mT) originating from the ‰ The winter monsoon has very little humidity.
southern hemisphere, upon crossing the equator, moves ‰ The presence of anti-cyclonic circulation on land
towards the low pressure zone in a general southwest reduces the possibility of rain.
direction. This moisture-laden air current is famously So, most parts of India do not have rainfall in the winter
recognized as the southwest monsoon. season. However, there are some exceptions:

Indian Climate 161

 ‰ North-West India and the states of Delhi, UP, Punjab, Ans: (a)
and Haryana receive winter rainfall from temperate The average annual rainfall in India is about 125 cm, but
cyclones originating from the Mediterranean Sea, it has great spatial variations.
known as a western disturbance. The rainfall average Areas of High Rainfall: The highest rainfall occurs along
in Delhi is around 53 mm. the west coast, on the Western Ghats, as well as in the
‰ In Punjab and Bihar, rainfall remains between 25 mm sub-Himalayan areas is the northeast and the hills of
and 18 mm, respectively. Meghalaya. Here the rainfall exceeds 200 cm. In some
‰ Winter rainfall occasionally visits the Central parts of parts of Khasi and Jaintia hills, the rainfall exceeds 1,000
India and the northern parts of the southern Peninsula. cm. In the Brahmaputra valley and the adjoining hills, the
‰ The states of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam in the rainfall is less than 200 cm.
northeastern parts of India also have rainfall between Areas of Medium Rainfall: Rainfall between 100-200
25 mm and 50 mm during these winter months. cm is received in the southern parts of Gujarat, east
‰ In the winter months, the northeast monsoon Tamil Nadu, northeastern Peninsula covering Odisha,
crosses over the Bay of Bengal and picks up moisture, Jharkhand, Bihar, eastern Madhya Pradesh, northern
which results in torrential rainfall over the Tamil Ganga plain along the sub-Himalayas and the Cachar
Nadu coast, southern Andhra Pradesh, southeast Valley and Manipur.
Karnataka, and southeast Kerala. Areas of Low Rainfall: Western Uttar Pradesh, Delhi,
(Hence, all options given above are correct.) Haryana, Punjab, Jammu and Kashmir, eastern Rajasthan,
18. Consider the following statements regarding the Gujarat and Deccan Plateau receive rainfall between 50-
Monsoon winds: 100 cm.
Areas of Inadequate Rainfall: Parts of the Peninsula,
1. The Chotanagpur plateau receives rainfall from the
especially in Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Maharashtra,
Bay of Bengal monsoon branch.
Ladakh and most of western Rajasthan receive rainfall
2. The Tamil Nadu coast remains dry during the below 50 cm. Ladakh being on the lee ward side of
southwest monsoon season. Himalayas, is cold desert as Himalayas block monsoonal
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? winds from reaching Ladakh.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
20. What are the reasons for the Tamil Nadu coast remaining
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 dry during the South-west monsoon?
Ans: (b) 1. It is parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch of the south-
Statement 1 is incorrect: A branch of the Arabian sea west monsoon.
monsoon strikes the coast north of Mumbai. Moving 2. It lies in the rainshadow area of the Arabian Sea branch
along the Narmada and Tapi river valleys, these winds of the south-west monsoon.
cause rainfall in extensive areas of central India. The
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Chotanagpur plateau gets 15 cm rainfall from this part of
the branch. Thereafter, they enter the Ganga plains and (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
mingle with the Bay of Bengal branch. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 2 is correct: The Tamil Nadu coast experiences Ans: (c)
a dry southwest monsoon season, attributed to two key Monsoon is a major wind system that seasonally reverses
factors: its direction such as one that blows for approximately
‰ Firstly, its orientation parallel to the Bay of Bengal six months from the northeast and six months from
branch of the southwest monsoon minimizes the the southwest. The most prominent monsoons occur
direct impact of the seasonal winds, resulting in in South Asia, Africa, Australia, and the Pacific coast of
reduced precipitation. Central America. The Indian monsoon gets divided into
‰ Additionally, the region finds itself in the rainshadow two branches while approaching the Iindian Landmass.
area of the Arabian Sea branch of the southwest The Tamil Nadu coast lies parallel to the direction of the
monsoon, further limiting the inflow of moisture- Bay of Bengal branch of the south-west monsoon winds.
laden air and contributing to the arid conditions. Since these winds move parallel to the coast, they do not
19. Consider the following: bring significant rainfall to Tamil Nadu. Hence, statement
1 is correct.
1. Khasi and Jaintia hills 2. Ladakh
The Arabian Sea branch of the south-west monsoon
3. Deccan Plateau 4. Northern plains
travels across the Western Ghats, causing heavy rainfall
Which of the following is the correct order of decreasing on the windward side. Tamil Nadu lies on the leeward
rainfall for the above regions? (rainshadow) side of the Western Ghats, receiving very
(a) 1-4-3-2 (b) 1-3-4-2 little rainfall from this branch. Hence, statement 2 is
(c) 3-2-1-4 (d) 1-3-2-4 correct.

162 Indian Geography

 21. With reference to the Indian climate, consider the showers arrive, the coffee flowers blossom in Kerala and
following statements: nearby areas.
1. Northern India experiences a higher daily and annual Statement 3 is correct: Monsoon breaks are caused by
range of temperatures than Southern India. shifting of monsoon trough (area of low pressure). This
2. The duration of the monsoon decreases from southern low-pressure zone inches close to the Himalayas during
India to Northern India. the arrival of the monsoon. The rainfall breaks or stops
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? in the northern region when this trough is in alignment
with the Himalayas and shifts completely northward. This
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
results in a complete pause in rainfall for a few weeks
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
over the northern plains.
Ans: (c)
23. With reference to the Indian Nino, consider the
Statement 1 is correct: The northern part of India lies in
following statements:
the sub-tropical and temperate zone, and the part lying
south of the tropic of cancer falls in the tropical zone. The 1. It develops due to the difference in sea surface
tropical zone being nearer to the equator, experiences temperature between the Western pole in the Arabian
high temperatures throughout the year with a small Sea and the Eastern pole (South of Indonesia).
daily and annual range. The area north of the tropic of 2. A positive Indian Nino can worsen the effects of El
Cancer, being away from the equator, experiences an Nino in India.
extreme climate with a high daily and annual range of Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
temperature. Northern India experiences a higher daily
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
and annual range of temperatures than Southern India.
Statement 2 is correct: The Southern part of India, (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
being near to the sea, gets rainfall early and for a longer Ans: (a)
duration than in the northern part. As rain-bearing winds Statement 1 is correct: Indian Ocean Dipole(IOD) also
cross the western ghats, humidity decreases, and so does known as Indian Nino, is defined as the difference in sea
rainfall in the northern part of India. The Southern part of surface temperature between the Western pole of the
India receives rainfall from the southwest monsoon and Arabian Sea (Western Indian Ocean) and an Eastern pole
the retreating southwest monsoon. The duration of the South of Indonesia, which has an impact on the climate
monsoon decreases from southern India to northern India. of Australia and other nations in the Indian Ocean Basin.
In Northern India monsoon arrives late and leaves early
Statement 2 is incorrect: The IOD is said to be positive
compared to South India .
when the western side of the Indian Ocean, near the
22. With reference to the ‘Monsoon Breaks’ in India, Somalia coast, becomes warmer than the eastern Indian
consider the following statements: Ocean. During a positive IOD event, the Western Indian
1. It is a phase where retreating monsoon starts to onset Ocean experiences higher than normal temperatures
over mainland India. which strengthens the flow of South east trade winds
2. Blossom showers are associated with monsoon which later become south west trade winds (as they
breaks. cross equator) towards Indian Ocean. While the eastern
3. Monsoon breaks are a result of the shifting of the Indian Ocean experiences drier than normal conditions.
monsoon trough. This can lead to increased rainfall over India and can
How many of the statements given above is/are incorrect? offset the effects of El Nino.
(a) Only one (b) Only two 24. Consider the following pairs:
(c) All three (d) None Name of The Local Storm State
Ans: (b) 1. Blossom Shower Kerala
Statement 1 is incorrect: During the phase of the 2. Mango Shower Tamil Nadu
southwest monsoon, there are also periods where, after
having rain for a few days, the rain fails to occur for one 3. Bardoli Chheerha West Bengal
or more weeks in most parts of India; this phenomenon is 4. Kalbaisakhi Assam
called a break in the monsoon. These dry spells are quite How many of the pairs given above are correct?
common during the rainy season. It is not associated (a) Only one (b) Only two
with the retreating monsoon. Also, over the west coast,
(c) Only three (d) All four
the dry spells are associated with days when winds blow
parallel to the coast. Ans: (a)
Statement 2 is incorrect: Blossom showers are pre- Some Famous Local Storms of Hot Weather Season
monsoon showers in the state of Kerala. When these ‰ Loo: Hot and dry winds blowing in the Northern plains.

Indian Climate 163

 ‰ Mango Shower: Pre-monsoon showers towards 1. It is a phenomenon in which the Peruvian coast has
the end of summer in Kerala and coastal areas of high-pressure conditions.
Karnataka help in the early ripening of mangoes. 2. It distorts the equatorial atmospheric circulation.
Hence, pair 2 is incorrect. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
‰ Blossom Shower: It helps coffee flowers to blossom (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
in Kerala and nearby areas. Hence, pair 1 is correct.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
‰ Nor Westers: These local winds impact eastern
and northeastern India each summer, triggering Ans: (a)
thunderstorms. El Niño and La Niña are atmospheric patterns that
influence the warming and cooling of sea surface
• In Bengal, these are known as Kalbaisakhi. Hence,
temperatures in the Central and Equatorial Pacific. The
pair 4 is incorrect.
two opposing patterns occur in an irregular cycle called
• In Assam, these are known as Bardoli Chheerha.
the El Niño Southern Oscillation (ENSO) cycle. This
Hence, pair 3 is incorrect.
phenomenon was discovered by Sir Gilbert Walker.
25. Consider the following statements regarding La Nina:
1. It is characterized by cooler-than-average sea surface
temperatures in the central and eastern Pacific
Oceans.
2. Rainfall associated with the summer monsoon in
Southeast Asia tends to be lesser than normal,
especially in northwest India and Bangladesh.
3. It has a positive impact on the fishing industry of
western South America.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None Fig: El Nino and La Nino
Ans: (b) Statement 1 is incorrect : In El Nino year, the following
Statement 1 is correct: La Niña is a natural climate phenomenon occurs:
pattern characterized by cooler-than-average sea surface ‰ El Niño is the warming of sea waters in the Central-
temperatures (SSTs) in the central and eastern equatorial east Equatorial Pacific that occurs every few
Pacific Ocean. La Niña is the cool phase of the El Niño/ years. During El Niño, surface temperatures in the
Southern Oscillation (ENSO) cycle, which is a natural equatorial Pacific rise, and trade winds — east-west
phenomenon that occurs when the ocean surface winds, that blow near the Equator weaken.
interacts with the atmosphere over the tropical Pacific. ‰ During El Nino, the colder waters near the Peruvian
Statement 2 is incorrect: La Niña is characterized by coast gets warm and experience low-pressure
lower-than-normal air pressure over the western Pacific. situation.
These low-pressure zones contribute to increased ‰ Normally, easterly trade winds blow from the Americas
rainfall. Rainfall associated with the summer monsoon in towards Asia. Due to El Niño , they falter and change
Southeast Asia tends to be greater than normal, especially direction to turn into westerlies, bringing warm water
in Indonesia, Phillipines etc. This generally benefits the from the western Pacific towards the USA.
Indian economy (As South Asia also increased rainfall Statement 2 is correct: El Nino is an extension of the
due to La Nina), which depends on the monsoon for warm equatorial current, and during the phenomenon,
agriculture and industry. However, strong La Niña events the warm equatorial current is replaced temporarily by
cold Humboldt or Peruvian current. This results in the
are associated with catastrophic floods in northern
rise in the temperature of water along the coast of Peru
Australia. The 2010 La Niña event correlates with one of
by around 10°C. This results in:
the worst floods in the history of Queensland, Australia.
‰ Distortion of equatorial atmospheric circulation;
Statement 3 is correct: La Niña usually has a positive
‰ Irregularities in the evaporation of seawater;
impact on the fishing industry of western South America.
Upwelling brings cold, nutrient-rich waters to the surface. ‰ Reduction in the amount of planktons which further
Nutrients include plankton eaten by fish and crustaceans. reduces the number of fish in the sea.
Higher-level predators, including high-value fish species Further, when there is a transition from a La Niña
winter – to a season of summer affected by EL Nino, it
such as sea bass, prey on the crustaceans.
has historically tended to produce the largest deficit in
26. With reference to the El Nino phenomenon, consider the monsoon as, the pre-monsoon as well as monsoon
the following statements: circulations tend to be weaker in an El Niño year.

164 Indian Geography

 27. Consider the following statements with respect to the confined to 150N latitude, and in September up to 220N
Somali jet stream: latitudes. The easterlies normally do not extend to the
1. It is a high-altitude jet stream that forms during the north of 300N latitude in the upper atmosphere.
summer season. Statement 2 is incorrect: The easterly jet stream steers
2. It directs monsoon winds towards India. the tropical depressions into India. These depressions
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? play a significant role in the distribution of monsoon
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only rainfall over the Indian subcontinent. The tracks of these
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 depressions are the areas of highest rainfall in India. The
frequency at which these depressions visit India, their
Ans: (b)
direction and intensity, all go a long way in determining
Somali Jet Stream the rainfall pattern during the southwest monsoon period.
‰ It is a temporary jet stream.
‰ During the summer, it forms at low altitudes. Hence,
statement 1 is incorrect.
• Jet streams are the narrow bands of strong wind
that generally blow from west to east all across
the globe. The two most constant jet streams are
the mid-latitude and subtropical jet streams.
‰ The Somali jet stream plays a significant role in
steering the moisture-rich monsoon winds toward
the Indian subcontinent. Its flow intensifies the
southwest monsoon by channeling winds over the
Arabian Sea towards the western coast of India.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
‰ A distinctive characteristic of the Somali Current is
its reversal with the onset of the summer monsoon. 29. Consider the following statements:
During winter, it flows from north to south, running Statement-I: Anticyclonic high-pressure conditions
along the coast of Arabia toward East Africa. However, develop in some of the regions of the northern part of
with the arrival of the summer monsoon, the current India during the winters.
shifts direction, flowing from south to north. Statement-II: In the winter season, it is seen that the
Inter Tropical Convergence Zone(ITCZ) shifts southward
over the northern regions of India.
Which of the following is correct in respect of the above
statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement-II are correct, and
Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct,
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
28. Consider the following statements regarding the Easterly (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
Jet Stream and its impact on the Indian monsoon: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.
1. In June, an easterly Jet Stream flows over the Southern Ans: (a)
Peninsula. A small high-pressure area develops over northern India
2. The easterlies play no role in the distribution of throughout the winter, and moderate breezes come from
monsoon rainfall over the Indian subcontinent. it. As a result of the relief, these winds pass the Ganga
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? valley from west to north-west, causing an anticyclonic
condition in the northern part of India. Indirect sunlight,
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
the shifting of the Inter Tropical Convergence Zone(ITCZ)
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 further southwards, the development of high pressure
Ans: (a) over the region, which results in the development of an
Statement 1 is correct: An easterly jet stream flows anticyclonic high-pressure situation in the region, and
over the southern part of the Peninsula in June, and western disturbances causing rainfall all contribute to the
has a maximum speed of 90 km per hour. In August, it is low temperatures and elevated pressure experienced in

Indian Climate 165

 northern India during the winter. Hence Both Statement The eastern Tamil Nadu and the South eastern part
I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the of andhra Pradesh (Coromandel coast); Hence, Pair
correct explanation for Statement-I. 1 is correctly matched.
30. Which of the following can be said the origin of ‰ Semi-arid steppe Climate (BShw) rainfall - 30 to 60
western cyclonic disturbances entering the Indian cm in summer. Lack of rainfall in winters. Main areas:
subcontinent during winter? Middle Rajasthan, Western Punjab, rain-shadow area of
the western ghats. Hence, Pair 2 is correctly matched.
(a) Arabian Sea (b) Baltic Sea
‰ The Hot desert type (BWhw): the rainfall is very
(c) Mediterranean Sea (d) Indian Ocean scanty (even less than 30 cm) and the temperature is
Ans: (c) very high. Main areas: the western part of Rajasthan,
The western cyclonic disturbances which enter the Indian the northern Gujrat and southern part of Haryana.
subcontinent from the west and the northwest during Hence, Pair 3 is correctly matched.
the winter months, originate over the Mediterranean ‰ Cwg: Monsoon type with dry winters; the great
Sea and are brought into India by the westerly jet stream. plains of north, the north-east India.
An increase in the prevailing night temperature generally ‰ Dfc: Cold humid Winter type with short summer;
indicates an advance in the arrival of these cyclones northern part of Arunachal Pradesh.
disturbances. ‰ Et: Tundra type climate; Kashmir, Ladakh, areas of
Himachal Pradesh
‰ E: Polar type climate.
32. Consider the following pairs with respect to climatic
regions of India according to Koeppen’s scheme :
Climatic types Predominant Region
1. Tropical Savanna type Entire coromandel coast
2. Polar Type Higher areas of
Himachal Pradesh
3. Monsoon type with Western coastal region
31. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched as
short dry winter season
per Koeppen’s classification of climate in india?
How many of the above pairs correctly matched?
Name Regions (a) Only one (b) Only two
1. As Monsoon type with Dry Summers or with (c) All three (d) None
rain in Winters
Ans: (b)
2. BShw Semi-arid steppe Climate Koeppen’s Classification of Climatic Regions of India is an
3. BWhw Hot desert type empirical classification based on mean annual and mean
monthly temperature and precipitation data.
4. Aw Tropical Savanna Type
Koeppen identified a close relationship between the
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: distribution of vegetation and climate.
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Tropical savanna type
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 of climate is found in parts of the peninsular plateau.
Ans: (d) Generally, it receives rainfall during the south-west
monsoon. The average rainfall of this region is about 75
Koeppen’s classification of Climate:
cm. However, the winters are dry in this climate zone.
‰ Monsoon type with short dry season (Amw): Rainfall Pair 2 is correctly matched: The Polar type of climate
is more than 250 cm in this type of climate. Main is found in the states of Uttrakhand, Himachal Pradesh
regions are: i) The Malabar and Konkan Coast, western and Jammu & Kashmir (U.T). Due to extremely low
slope of Western Ghat to south of Goa; ii) The North- temperature, the precipitation in this region occurs in
east India ; iii) the Andaman and Nicobar islands the form of snow. Also, the temperature of the warmest
‰ Tropical Savanna Type (Aw) : rainfall - 75 to 150 cm; month ranges from 0⁰C to 10⁰C.
main areas: Most parts of south of the Tropic of Cancer Pair 3 is correctly matched: Monsoon type with short dry
in Peninsular India. Hence, Pair 4 is correctly matched. winter season is found in the western coastal regions of
‰ Monsoon type with Dry Summers or with rain in India and the south of Goa. Annually, the average rainfall
Winters (As): here, much of the rainfall is caused due of this region is about 300cm in the summer during the
to the north-east monsoon in winter. Main areas- south-west monsoon.

166 Indian Geography

 Group Type Letter Code Characteristics
Tropical wet Af No dry season
A Tropical Humid Climate Tropical monsoon Am Monsoonal, short dry season
Tropical wet and dry Aw Winter dry season
Subtropical steppe BSh Low-latitude semi arid or dry
Subtropical desert BWh Low-latitude arid or dry
B Dry Climate
Mid-latitude steppe BSk Mid-Latitude semi arid of dry
Mid-latitude desert BWK Mid-latitude arid or dry
Humid subtropical Cfa No dry season, warm summer
C. Wurn temperate
Mediterranean Cs Dry bot summer
(Midlatitude) Climates
Marine west coast. Cf No dry season, warm and cool summer
Humid continental Df No dry season. severe winter
D Cold Snowforest Climates
Subarctic Dw Winter dry and very severe
Tundra ET No true summer
E Cold Climates
Polar ice cap ET Perennial ice
H Highland Highland H Highland with snow cover

Indian Climate 167

 Natural
4 Vegetation of
India
Objective Questions for Practice

1. Consider the following options: Ans: (d)

1. Montane forests of Kashmir The Eastern Himalayan region is one of the floristic
2. Grasses and shrubs of Rajasthan regions of India. The region stretches over the hilly
3. A plant nursery in a house regions of Sikkim, West Bengal and Arunachal Pradesh. It
4. Shola forest of Nilgiri is an undulating and mountainous region, recording over
200 cm of average annual rainfall. It has over 4000 species
Which of the above constitutes the Natural vegetation of
of plants which vary from tropical to temperate and
India?
Alpine. The vegetation like sal, oak, chestnut, magnolia,
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only pyrus, bamboo, silver fir, pine, birch, rhododendrons,
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 and alpine grasses are found here.
Ans: (c) ‰ The Assam region is one of the floristic regions of
Natural vegetation refers to a plant community that has India. It includes the whole of North-east including
been left undisturbed over a long time, so as to allow Assam, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram and
its individual species to adjust themselves to climate and Tripura. The region is rich in various types of bamboo
soil conditions as fully as possible. and palms with Nilgiri type of grasslands at higher
Point 1 is correct: Montane forests are found in altitudes. Hence, points 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are correct.
mountainous areas with decreasing temperatures and 3. Consider the following statements with reference to
increasing altitudes. It is found in hilly areas of West Tropical Evergreen Forests:
Bengal, Uttaranchal, Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh. 1. They are found in warm and humid areas with mean
Chir, pine, deodar, walnut, etc. are found in these annual temperatures above 22 degrees Celsius.
forests.
2. Ebony, mahogany and rosewood are the common
Point 2 is correct: These are found in areas with rainfall species found in these forests.
less than 50 cm and consist of a variety of grasses Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
and shrubs. It includes semi-arid areas of South East,
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
including Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya
Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Point 3 is incorrect: A plant nursery in a house is an Ans: (c)
example of artificial vegetation. Statement 1 is correct: Tropical Evergreen forests are
Point 4 is correct: The Shola forest of Nilgiri is a part of found in the western slope of the Western Ghats, hills of
the Southern mountain forest, which is found in three the northeastern region and the Andaman and Nicobar
distinct areas of Peninsular India viz. Western Ghats, Islands. They are found in warm and humid areas with an
Vindhyas and Nilgiris. annual precipitation of over 200 cm and a mean annual
temperature above 22 degrees Celsius.
2. Consider the following vegetations: Statement 2 is correct: Tropical evergreen forests are
1. Alpine grass 2. Palms well stratified, with layers closer to the ground and are
3. Nilgiri type grassland 4. Silver fir covered with shrubs and creepers, with short structured
5. Chestnut trees followed by a tall variety of trees. In these forests,
trees reach great heights up to 60 m or above. There is
How many of the above vegetations are found in the no definite time for trees to shed their leaves, flowering
North-East region of India? and fruition. As such these forests appear green all year
(a) Only two (b) Only three round. Species found in these forests include rosewood,
(c) Only four (d) All five mahogany, aini, ebony, etc.
 Chhattisgarh, Uttar Pradesh and Haryana. Acacias, Palms,
Euphorbias and Cacti are the main plant species. Trees are
scattered and have long roots penetrating deep into the
soil in order to get moisture. Hence, point 2 is incorrect.

Fig: Stratified layers in Tropical Rainforests

4. Consider the following points: Fig: Natural Vegetation of India
1. Mulberry 2. Palm 5. This vegetation is found in areas with high rainfall and
3. Rubber 4. Cinchona high temperatures. These forests are characterised by the
How many of the above species are commonly found in presence of tall trees with broad leaves. The trees in these
Tropical Evergreen Forests? forests do not shed their leaves, and they are always
(a) Only one (b) Only two green. The trees in these forests have buttress roots,
which help them anchor themselves in the soil. These
(c) Only three (d) All four
forests are found in the northeastern states of India.
Ans: (b) Which of the following vegetation types is best described
Tropical Evergreen Forests are restricted to heavy rainfall by the passage given above?
areas of the Western Ghats and the island groups of
(a) Tropical Wet evergreen vegetation
Lakshadweep, Andaman and Nicobar, upper parts of
Assam and Tamil Nadu coast. They are at their best in (b) Mangrove Vegetation
areas having more than 200 cm of rainfall with a short (c) Montane Vegetation
dry season. The trees reach great heights, up to 60 (d) Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests
metres or even above. There is no definite time for trees
Ans: (a)
to shed their leaves. As such, these forests appear green
all year round. Some of the commercially important trees Tropical wet evergreen vegetation is found in areas with
of this forest are Ebony, Mahogany, rosewood, Rubber high rainfall and high temperatures. These forests are
and Cinchona. Hence, points 3 and 4 are correct. characterised by the presence of tall trees with broad
leaves. The trees in these forests do not shed their leaves,
Tropical Deciduous Forests are the most widespread
and they are always green. This is because the climate in
forests in India. They are also called the monsoon forests
these areas is warm and wet all year round, so the trees
and spread over the region, receiving rainfall between
do not need to shed their leaves to conserve water.
200 cm and 70 cm. These forests exist, therefore, mostly
in the eastern part of the country - northeastern states, ‰ The trees in tropical wet evergreen forests have
along the foothills of the Himalayas, Jharkhand, West buttress roots, which help them anchor themselves
Odisha and Chhattisgarh, and on the eastern slopes of in the soil. This is because the soil in these areas is
the Western Ghats. Teak is the most dominant species often wet and muddy, so the trees need strong roots
of this forest. Bamboos, Sal, Shisham, Sandalwood, Khair, to support themselves.
Kusum, Arjun and Mulberry are other commercially ‰ Tropical wet evergreen forests are found in the
important species. Hence, point 1 is incorrect. northeastern states of India, such as Assam,
Tropical Thorn Forests and Scrubs type of vegetation is Meghalaya, and Arunachal Pradesh. These forests
found in the north-western part of the country, including are also found in other parts of the world, such as
semi-arid areas of Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Southeast Asia, Central America, and South America.

Natural Vegetation of India 169

 ‰ Some examples of trees found in tropical wet 3. These are found in the regions of the peninsular
evergreen forests include Dipterocarpus, Hopea, plateau and the plains of Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.
Mesua, Terminalia, Artocarpus. How many of the above statements are incorrect?
PW Only IAS Extra Edge (a) Only one (b) Only two
About tropical wet evergreen vegetation: (c) All three (d) None
‰ These forests are found in areas with an annual Ans: (b)
rainfall of over 200 cm. Statement 1 is incorrect: Moist deciduous forests are
‰ The temperature in these forests ranges from 20 to found in regions with rainfall ranging between 100 cm
27 degrees Celsius. and 200 cm, not between 70 cm and 100 cm. The higher
‰ The trees in these forests have a dense canopy, rainfall supports the growth of these forests.
which blocks out most of the sunlight. Thus, the Statement 2 is correct: Trees in moist deciduous forests
undergrowth in these forests is sparse. shed their leaves for approximately six to eight weeks during
the dry summer to prevent water loss through transpiration.
6. Consider the following statements about Dry Deciduous This adaptation helps them survive the dry period.
forests: Statement 3 is incorrect: Moist deciduous forests are
1. This rainfall pattern is characterised by a long dry found in the rainier regions of the northeastern states,
season followed by a short wet season. particularly West Bengal, Assam, and Arunachal Pradesh,
2. The trees in these forests have adapted to this rainfall as well as in the Western Ghats and the Himalayan
pattern by shedding their leaves during the dry foothills. They are not found in the peninsular plateau or
season. the plains of Bihar and Uttar Pradesh, which have lower
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? rainfall, here Tropical Dry deciduous forests are found.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Dry deciduous forests are found in areas with annual rainfall
between 70 and 100 centimetres. This is the amount of
rainfall that is necessary for these forests to survive.
Statement 1 is correct: The rainfall pattern in dry
deciduous forests is characterised by a long dry season
followed by a short wet season. This pattern is due to the
monsoon winds, which bring rain to the region during
the summer months.
Statement 2 is correct: The trees in dry deciduous forests
have adapted to the long dry season by shedding their
leaves. This helps the trees to conserve water during the
dry season.
PW Only IAS Extra Edge
‰ These forests are found in rainy areas of the
Peninsula and the plains of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.
‰ On the wetter margins, it has a transition to the
moist deciduous, while on the drier margins to
thorn forests.
‰ Tropical moist deciduous forests are the most Fig.: Vegetation Map of India
widespread forests in India.
8. With reference to Tropical Thorn Forests, consider the
‰ Tendu, palas, amaltas, bel, Khair, axlewood, teak,
following statements:
rosewood, common bamboo, red sanders, laurel,
etc. are the common trees of these forests. 1. They are found in areas with a long dry season
followed by a short wet season.
7. Consider the following statements regarding Moist
2. The trees have adapted to the rainfall pattern by
Deciduous type of Vegetation:
having thick, waxy leaves that help to reduce water
1. These are found in regions with rainfall ranging
loss.
between 70 cm and 100 cm.
2. Trees shed their leaves for approximately six to eight 3.  It includes semi-arid areas of south west Punjab,
weeks during the dry summer to prevent water loss Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and
through transpiration. Uttar Pradesh.

170 Indian Geography

 How many of the statements given above are correct? 3. These can be found in the upper reaches of the
(a) Only one (b) Only two Anamalai hills.
(c) All three (d) None Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Ans: (c) (a) 2 only (b) 3 only
Statement 1 is correct: Tropical thorn forests are found in (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only
areas with an annual rainfall of less than 70 centimetres. Ans: (d)
The rainfall pattern in these areas is characterised by a
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Shola forests of South
long dry season followed by a short wet season.
India derive their name from the Tamil word solai, which
Statement 2 is correct: The trees in tropical thorn forests means a ‘tropical rain forest’. These are tropical montane
have adapted to this rainfall pattern by having thick, waxy
forests, not deciduous forests, and are found in the
leaves that help reduce water loss. The trees also have
higher elevations of the Western Ghats in South India.
deep roots that can reach water stored in the soil during
The vegetation that grows in Shola forests is evergreen.
the dry season. Some of the common trees found in
tropical thorn forests include acacia, baobab, and neem. The trees are stunted and have many branches. Their
These trees are all drought-tolerant and have adapted to rounded and dense canopies appear in different colours.
the harsh conditions of the tropical thorn forest. Statement 2 is correct: A fascinating (and mysterious)
Statement 3 is correct: It includes semi-arid areas of aspect of Shola forests is the presence of Himalayan
south west Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya plants like rhododendrons. Paleobotanical studies
Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh. In these forests, plants hypothesise that these plants are remnants of vegetation
remain leafless for most part of the year and give an that migrated to South India during the Quaternary Ice
expression of scrub vegetation. Important species found Age, around 2.6 million years ago, due to subsequent
are babool, ber, and wild date palm, khair, neem, khejri, changes in the tropical climate of South India.
palas, etc. Tussocky grass grows upto a height of 2 m as Statement 3 is correct: The Sholas are found in the upper
the under growth. reaches of the Nilgiris, Anamalais, Palni hills, Kalakadu,
Mundanthurai and Kanyakumari in the states of Tamil
9. Consider the following statements :
Nadu and Kerala.
1. More than half of the total forest land has been
declared reserved forests. PW Only IAS Extra Edge
2. Reserved and protected forests are also referred to Pastoral communities, who settled in the grasslands
as non-permanent forests. centuries ago, periodically burn grass. This has checked
Which of the following is/are correct regarding forests in the advance of the Shola forests. As tree species
India? of the montane, evergreen forests are flammable,
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only regeneration of any Shola tree species is completely
prevented except for Rhododendron nilagiricum, the
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
only Shola tree that can tolerate fire.
Ans: (a)
11. Consider the following features of forests:
In India, much of its forest and wildlife resources are
either owned or managed by the government through the 1. Stunted trees
Forest Department or other government departments. 2. Large leaves
Forests are classified into 3 categories: Reserved forests, 3. Round and dense canopies
Protected forests and Unclassed forests.
4. Changing colours of leaves
Statement 1 is correct: More than half of the total
How many of the above are the major features of the
forest land has been declared reserved forests. Reserved
forests are regarded as the most valuable as far as the Shola forests of Southern India?
conservation of forest and wildlife resources is concerned. (a) Only one (b) Only two
Statement 2 is incorrect: Reserved and protected (c) Only three (d) All four
forests are also referred to as permanent forest estates Ans: (c)
maintained for protective reasons. Madhya Pradesh has
The Shola forests of southern India are classified as
the largest area under permanent forests, constituting
‘Southern Montane Wet Temperate Forest’. The Sholas
75 per cent of its total forest area.
are found in the upper reaches of the Nilgiris, Anamalais,
10. Consider the following statements with reference to Palni hills, Kalakadu, Mundanthurai and Kanyakumari
Shola forests: in the states of Tamil Nadu and Kerala. These forests
1. These are deciduous forests found in some of the are found sheltered in valleys with sufficient moisture
states of Southern India. and proper drainage, at an altitude of more than 1,500
2. Himalayan plants like rhododendrons occur in these metres. The upper reaches are covered with grasslands,
forests. known as Shola grasslands.

Natural Vegetation of India 171

 The vegetation that grows in Shola forests is evergreen.
‰ The trees are stunted and have many branches.
Hence, point 1 is correct.
‰ Their rounded and dense canopies appear in
different colours. Hence, point 3 is correct.
‰ Generally, the leaves are small in size and leathery.
Hence, point 2 is incorrect.
‰ Red-coloured young leaves turning into different
colours on maturity is a prominent characteristic of
the Shola forests. Epiphytes like lichens, ferns and
bryophytes usually grow on the trees. Hence, point
Fig: An Illustration of Vegetation zonation in Himalayan
4 is correct.
hill ranges according to elevation and rainfall
Sholas play a major role in conserving the water supply of
the Nilgiris’ streams. Pastoral communities, who settled 13. Consider the following statements regarding Joint
in the grasslands centuries ago, periodically burn grass. Forest Management (JFM):
This has checked the advance of the Shola forests. As tree 1. The state of Jharkhand passed the first resolution for
species of the montane, evergreen forests are flammable, joint forest management.
regeneration of any Shola tree species is completely 2. It involves the local institutions in the management
prevented except for Rhododendron nilagiricum, the of forest resources.
only Shola tree that can tolerate fire. 3. The members are not entitled to use the non-timber
12. Consider the following statements regarding Montane forest produces.
forests: How many of the statements given above are correct?
1. There is a succession of natural vegetation belts in the (a) Only one (b) Only two
same order as we see from the tropical to the tundra (c) All three (d) None
region.
Ans: (a)
2. Silver fir, junipers, pines, and birches are the common Statement 1 is incorrect: Joint Forest Management (JFM)
trees of these forests. programme furnishes a good example of involving local
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? communities in the management and restoration of
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only degraded forests. The programme has been in formal
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 existence since 1988. The state of Odisha passed the first
resolution for joint forest management.
Ans: (d) Statement 2 is correct: JFM depends on the formation
Statement 1 is correct: In mountainous areas, the of local (village) institutions that undertake protection
decrease in temperature with increasing altitude leads activities mostly on degraded forest land managed by
to the corresponding change in natural vegetation. As the forest department. The local institutions collaborate
such, there is a succession of natural vegetation belts in with the forest department to jointly manage and protect
the same order as we see from the tropical to the tundra the forest resources. The forest department provides
region. The wet temperate type of forests are found technical support, expertise, and resources, while the
between a height of 1000 and 2000 metres. Evergreen local communities contribute their knowledge of the
broad-leaf trees, such as oaks and chestnuts predominate. area, traditional practices, and labour.
Between 1500 and 3000 metres, temperate forests Statement 3 is incorrect: In return, the members of the
containing coniferous trees, like pine, deodar, silver fir, communities are entitled to intermediary benefits like
spruce, and cedar, are found. These forests cover mostly non-timber forest produces and share in the timber
the southern slopes of the Himalayas, places having high harvested by ‘successful protection’.
altitudes in southern and north-east India. 14. Consider the following statements:
Statement 2 is correct: At higher elevations, temperate
1. Rural forestry is the practice of managing forests in
grasslands are common. At high altitudes, generally, more
rural areas for the benefit of local communities.
than 3,600 metres above sea level, temperate forests
and grasslands give way to the Alpine vegetation. Silver 2. Farm forestry is the practice of planting trees on
fir, junipers, pines, and birches are the common trees of agricultural land.
these forests. However, they get progressively stunted as 3. Agroforestry is the practice of integrating trees with
they approach the snow line. Ultimately, through shrubs crops and livestock in a way that benefits all three
and scrubs, they merge into the Alpine grasslands. These components.
are used extensively for grazing by nomadic tribes, like How many of the above statements are correct?
the Gujjars and the Bakarwals. At higher altitudes, mosses (a) Only one (b) Only two
and lichens form part of tundra vegetation. (c) All three (d) None

172 Indian Geography

Ans: (c) in the west and south, and the states of Tripura, Assam in
Statement 1 is correct: Rural forestry is a type of forestry the northwest and Manipur in the northeast. Mizoram is
that focuses on managing forests in rural areas for the also known as the ‘Molassis basin’. It is made up of soft
benefit of local communities. It is often used to provide unconsolidated deposits.
fuelwood, fodder, and timber for local communities. It 17. The terms Rhizophorasp, Xylocarpussp, Sonneratiasp,
can also help to improve soil quality, reduce soil erosion,
Avicenniasp are related to:
and provide a habitat for wildlife.
(a) Invasive Alien Species
Statement 2 is correct: Farm forestry is a type of forestry
that involves planting trees on agricultural land. It can be (b) Mangrove species of Indo Gangetic plains
used to provide shade for crops, prevent soil erosion, and (c) Species of dry deciduous and thorn forests
provide a source of income for farmers. Farm forestry is (d) Species of Arthropods endemic to Himalayas
important for sustainable development in India because Ans: (b)
it can help to increase crop yields, while also protecting Option (b) is correct answer: The Indo Gangetic plain
the environment. comprise plains of Punjab, Haryana, UP, Bihar and
Statement 3 is correct: Agroforestry is a type of forestry
some portion of Jharkhand and west BengaL. It also
that integrates trees with crops and livestock such that it
includes the Vindhyas and Rajmahal hills towards the
benefits all three components. It can be used to improve
south. The area is rich in alluvial soil and known for
soil fertility, increase crop yields, and provide a habitat
for wildlife. cultivation of wheat,sugarcane and paddy. The natural
‰ Agroforestry is important for sustainable vegetation covers sal forests, mixed forests, swamp
development in India because it can help to improve forests and wetlands. Shorearearbusta, Lagerstroemia
the productivity of agricultural land while also parviflora,Acacia etc. are commonly sighted trees. The
protecting the environment. mangrove swamps includes Rhizophorasp, Xylocarpussp,
15. With reference to India the terms “Sarna, Kovil Kadu, Sonneratiasp,Avicenniasp etc.
Gumpa” are names of 18. It is found in dry evergreen forests of south India. It
(a) Corals in India (b) Mangroves in India is resistant to attack by insects. It is used for musical
(c) Sacred Groves in India (d) Languages of tribals instruments, ornamental carving and decoration and
Ans: (c) sports goods.
Sacred groves of India are forest fragments of varying Which one of the following is described in the above
sizes, which are communally protected, and which paragraph?
usually have a significant religious connotation for the
(a) Telsur (b) Toon
protecting community. Hunting and logging are usually
strictly prohibited within these patches. Other forms (c) Ebony (d) Rosewood
of forest usage like honey collection and deadwood Ans: (c)
collection are sometimes allowed on a sustainable basis. There are various types of woods from evergreen forests
NGOs work with local villagers to protect such groves. which are found in India.
State Local Term for Sacred Groves ‰ Telsur or Irupu is found in West Bengal, Kerala,
Arunachal Pradesh Gumpa Forests (Sacred Groves Karnataka, Maharashtra, and Andaman and Nicobar
attached to Buddhist monestries) Islands. The wood is very hard, strong and durable
Assam Than, Madaico which are largely used for the manufacturing of
boats, bridges, piles, masts, carts, and railway
Chhattisgarh Sarna, Devlas, Mandar, Budhadev
sleepers.
Karnataka Devara Kadu
‰ Toon is obtained from the foothills of the Himalayas.
Kerala Kavus The wood is not very hard. It is durable and used for
Madhya Pradesh Devkot, Matikot, Devsthali, making tea boxes, toys and furniture.
Budhadev ‰ Ebony (Diospyros Ebenum) is found in the dry
Pondicherry, Tamil Kovil Kadu evergreen forests of Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu,
Nadu Malabar Coast, Goa, and Maharashtra. The wood
16. Which one of the following is also referred to as the is slightly yellowish-grey and often streaked with
Molassis basin? black. The heartwood (inner core) is jet black, rarely
with brown golden streaks. It has a metallic luster
(a) Mizoram (b) Nagaland
when smoothed. It is the most valuable wood as it is
(c) Meghalaya (d) Manipur resistant to attack by insects. It is used for ornamental
Ans: (a) carving and decoration. It is also used for veneers,
Mizoram is located in the northeastern part of India. It is musical instruments, sports goods, piano keys, and
bordered by Myanmar in the east and south, Bangladesh caskets. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Natural Vegetation of India 173

 ‰ Rosewood grows well along the slopes of the Western
PW Only IAS Extra Edge
Ghats (Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Kerala) and in
India is currently having 8000 medicinal plants species
some parts of Andhra Pradesh, Orissa, Jharkhand,
according to the Botanical Survey of India (BSI). The BSI
and Chhattisgarh. The wood from these forests is
mandated for survey of plant diversity of the country;
hard and fine-grained, dark purple in colour. It is
its documentation, including traditional knowledge
widely used in the manufacture of furniture, floor
associated with it at National, Regional, State and
boards and ornamental playboards. Ecosystem level and its conservation in different
19. Consider the following: parts of the country has been carrying out survey and
documentation of all plant resources of the country
Plants Prime Medicinal Uses
including medicinal / aromatic plants and herbs. The
A. Jamun 1. Cures earache and regulates blood survey is the nodal repository for Reference Plant
pressure Collections and at present houses about 3.2 million
B. Arjun 2. Controls diabetes specimens in its different herbaria, which help in
taxonomic characterization and monitoring of species,
C. Babool 3. Cures eyesores and acts as a tonic
including medicinal plants.
D. Neem 4. High antibiotic and antibacterial
properties 20. Consider the following statements:
E. Tulsi Plant 5. Cures cough and cold 1. About one-fourth of the total cropped area in India is
under rice cultivation.
Match the above Indian plants with their respective
2. Punjab and Haryana were chosen initially for the Green
medicinal uses:
Revolution as they were traditional rice-growing areas.
(a) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4, E-5 (b) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3, E-5
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4, E-5 (d) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2, E-5
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Ans: (a) (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
‰ Jamun powder (A), derived from the seeds of
Ans: (a)
the Indian black plum, offers numerous benefits
Rice is a staple food for the overwhelming majority of
in controlling diabetes and promoting overall the population in India. Though it is considered to be a
health. Rich in antioxidants like polyphenols and crop of tropical humid areas, it has about 3,000 varieties,
flavonoids, jamun powder aids in managing diabetes which are grown in different agro-climatic regions. These
by improving insulin sensitivity and regulating are successfully grown from sea level to about 2,000 m
blood sugar levels. These antioxidants help reduce altitude and from humid areas in eastern India to dry
oxidative stress in the body, which is a common but irrigated areas of Punjab, Haryana, western U.P. and
complication associated with diabetes. northern Rajasthan. In southern states and West Bengal,
‰ Arjuna (B) also known as the “Arjun tree” is a the climatic conditions allow the cultivation of two or
widely grown tree in India. It has various medicinal three crops of rice in an agricultural year.
properties like antioxidant, anti-inflammatory Statement 1 is correct: About one-fourth of the total
and antimicrobial. Arjuna helps reduce the risk of cropped area in the country is under rice cultivation.
heart disease. It strengthens and tones the heart West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, and Punjab are the leading
muscles and helps in the proper functioning of the rice-producing states in the country. The yield level of rice
heart. Arjuna tree also has strong anti-hypertensive is high in Punjab, Tamil Nadu, Haryana, Andhra Pradesh,
properties and helps reduce high blood pressure. Telangana, West Bengal and Kerala. In the first four of
‰ Babool (C) is traditionally used to cure eyesores and these states, almost the entire land under rice cultivation
is irrigated.
acts as a tonic. Its gum and bark have therapeutic
properties, often used in Ayurvedic medicine for eye Statement 2 is incorrect: Punjab and Haryana are not
health. The seeds of babool contain rich amounts of traditional rice-growing areas. Rice cultivation in the
fibre and proteins. Its pods contain more fibre and have irrigated areas of Punjab and Haryana was introduced
in the 1970s following the Green Revolution. Presence
a lesser amount of protein as compared to the leaves.
of irrigation infrastructure , better roads and ability of
It helps in the cure of eyesores and also acts as a tonic.
farmers to make capital investments were the primary
‰ Neem (D) is famous for its high antibiotic and reasons to choose this area for Green Revolution.
antibacterial properties. It is widely used in various Genetically improved varieties of seed, relatively high
forms, such as oil and paste, for treating skin usage of fertilisers and pesticides and lower levels of
infections and promoting overall health. susceptibility of the crop to pests due to dry climatic
‰ Tulsi Plant (E) is well-known for its effectiveness in conditions are responsible for higher yield of rice in this
curing cough and cold. Tulsi leaves are often used in region. The yield of this crop is meager in rainfed areas of
herbal teas and remedies to alleviate respiratory issues. Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Odisha.

174 Indian Geography

 of the Forest Survey of India (FSI), an organization
under the Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate
Change, Government of India. It is a widely used primary
information source across the Central Government, State
Governments forestry professionals of the State Forest
Departments, academia, international organizations,
and other stakeholders. These inputs about the forest
resources of the country are used for broad evaluation
and formulation of forest-related policies, programmes,
legislations, and other related activities.
The India State of Forest Report 2023 provides
information on forest cover, tree cover, mangrove cover,
growing stock, carbon stock in India’s forests, forest fire
monitoring, forest cover in tiger reserve areas, above
ground estimates of biomass using SAR data & climate
change hotspots in Indian forests.
23. Which of the following climatic conditions are
considered favourable for the growth of rice crop?
(a) Low temperature and low humidity
(b) High temperature and low humidity
Fig: Rice growing areas of India (c) High temperature and high humidity
21. Which of the following organizations publishes “The (d) Low temperature and high humidity
State of the World’s Forest Report”? Ans: (c)
(a) United Nations Environment Programme Rice, being a Kharif crop in India, thrives in conditions of
(b) World Wide Fund for Nature high temperature (above 25°C) and high humidity, with
annual rainfall above 100 cm. The cultivation is primarily
(c) Food and Agriculture Organisation observed in the plains of north and north-eastern India,
(d) United Nations-Sustainable Development Solutions coastal areas, and deltaic regions. Additionally, irrigation
Network plays a crucial role in areas with less rainfall, facilitating
Ans: (c) rice cultivation in regions such as Punjab, Haryana,
The State of World’s Forest Report is a biennial report western Uttar Pradesh, and parts of Rajasthan.
which carries extensive data on global forest resources
and on their interaction with humans. It is published
by the Food and Agriculture Organisation(FAO). The
State of the World’s Forests (SOFO) 2022 explores the
potential of three forest pathways for achieving green
recovery and tackling multidimensional planetary
crises, including climate change and biodiversity loss.
As per the report the world has lost 420 million hectares
(mha), approximately 10.34 per cent of its total forest
area in the last 30 years. Hence, option (c) is the correct
answer.
22. The ‘India State of Forests Report’ is a biennial report
published by which one of the following organisations?
(a) Botanical Survey of India
(b) Wildlife Institute of India
(c) Forest Survey of India
(d) National Biodiversity Authority
Ans: (c)
India State of Forest Report (ISFR) is a biennial publication Fig: India: Distribution of Rice

Natural Vegetation of India 175

 5 Indian Soil

Objective Questions for Practice

1. Consider the following statements regarding soil: Layers of Soil

1. It is a mixture of rock debris, organic and inorganic
materials.
2. It provides a nutrient medium for a full grown
ecosystem.
3. Healthy soils help in the mitigation of disasters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only (d) 1, 2, and 3
Ans: (d)
Statement 1 is correct: Soil is a mixture of rock debris,
inorganic material, and organic material that develops
on the earth’s surface. The major factors affecting the
formation of soil are relief, parent material, climate,
vegetation and other life-forms and time.
Statement 2 is correct: Soil carries out a range of functions
and services without which life would not be possible. Fig: Layers of Soil
It provides essential ingredients for plants (including 3. Consider the following statements with reference to the
food crops and timber) to grow in by anchoring roots influence of climate on soil :
and storing nutrients. Thus, it provides all the nutrients
1. The soil of the tropical regions shows more deeper
required by a fully grown ecosystem.
profiles than the soils of the cold tundra regions.
Statement 3 is correct: Soil filters and cleans our water
and helps prevent natural hazards such as flooding. 2. The bacterial activities in the soil formed in cold
It contains immense levels of biodiversity. It stores a regions are limited.
significant amount of carbon, and therefore helps to Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
regulate climate change. Soils are also a key factor in (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
preventing drought and desertification conditions, as (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
healthy soils harbour more moisture and vegetation that
Ans: (d)
would mitigate these disasters.
Climate plays a major influence in governing the rate and
2. Which layer of soil contains organic materials with the type of soil formation, particularly through precipitation
mineral matter, nutrients and water ? in terms of its intensity, frequency, and duration; and
(a) A horizon (b) B horizon temperature in terms of seasonal and diurnal variations.
(c) C horizon (d) O horizon Statement 1 is correct: The soil of the hot tropical regions
Ans: (a) shows deeper profiles as compared to the soils of the cold
Option (a) is correct: Layers of soil are called horizons. tundra regions. Although the leaf fall in tropical forests is
‘Horizon A’ is the topmost zone, where organic materials great, much of this is consumed and translocated down
have got incorporated with the mineral matter, nutrients the soil profile.
and water, which are necessary for the growth of plants. Statement 2 is correct: Cold temperatures in tundra
‘Horizon B’ is a transition zone between the ‘Horizon A’ regions limit bacterial activity, as microbial processes are
and ‘Horizon C’, and contains matter derived from below temperature-dependent. In such climates, organic matter
as well as from above. decomposition is slower, contributing to a thinner soil layer.
 4. Which of the following is correct regarding the rapid 6. Consider the following statements about soils found in
decomposition of organic matter in soil? India:
(a) High moisture levels and warm temperatures. 1. Alluvial soils are generally clayey, deep and impermeable.
(b) Lack of oxygen and cold temperatures. 2. Red soils are fairly rich in potash.
(c) Detritus rich in nitrogenous substances and warm 3. Black soils cover around 45% of the total land area of
temperatures. India.
(d) Low pH levels and detritus rich in lignin and chitin. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Ans: (c) (a) 2 only (b) 3 only
Option (a) is incorrect: Decomposition is best in soil (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only
with moderate moisture levels. High moisture limits
Ans: (a)
oxygen, causing anaerobic conditions. Low moisture
Statement 1 is incorrect: Alluvial soils are primarily found
limits microbial activity due to water scarcity. Both very
in the Northern Plains of India. They are typically fertile
wet and very dry conditions hinder decomposition,
whereas Cool temperatures slow decomposition, leading and well-suited for agriculture but are not characterized
to organic matter accumulation. Warm temperatures as clayey or impermeable; instead, they vary in texture
increase microbial activity, accelerating decomposition and can range from sandy to clayey. The Deccan Plateau
Option (b) is incorrect: Oxygen speeds up decomposition. is more associated with black soil, which is generally
Organisms need oxygen for respiration and growth. Lack clayey, deep and impermeable.
of oxygen slows down decomposition. Statement 2 is correct: Red soils are known to be
Option (c) is correct: Decomposition is faster in organic deficient in lime, magnesium, phosphates, nitrogen, and
matter rich in nitrogen and water-soluble substances like organic matter (humus) but are relatively rich in potash.
sugars. Slower decomposition occurs in matter rich in They are typically found in areas with less rainfall and
lignin and chitin. have a reddish colour due to iron content.
Option (d) is incorrect: Soil pH affects microbial activity. Statement 3 is incorrect: Black soils, also known as
Strongly acidic soils hinder beneficial microorganisms Regur or black cotton soils, cover approximately 15% of
like decomposing bacteria. India’s total land area, not 45%. They are significant for
5. Consider the following factors with reference to Soil agriculture, particularly for cotton cultivation.
formation: 7. With reference to the type of soil, consider the following
1. Parent material 2. Topography statements:
3. Climate 4. Biological Activity 1. These soils are also known as the ‘Regur Soil’.
5. Time
2. They swell and become sticky when wet and shrink
Which one of the following is passive factors in soil
when dried
formation?
(a) 1, 3 and 5 Only (b) 1, 2 and 5 Only 3. There occurs a kind of ‘self-ploughing’ in this type of soil
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Only (d) 2,3, 4 and 5 Only Which soil type is represented by the above statements?
Ans: (b) (a) Laterite Soil (b) Black Soil
Point 1 is correct: Parent material -passive factor in soil (c) Alluvial Soil (d) Arid Soil
formation, encompassing in-situ weathered rock debris Ans: (b)
(residual soils) or transported deposits (transported soils). Black soils covers most of the Deccan Plateau which
Point 2 is correct: Topography, another passive factor, includes parts of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat,
influences soil formation through sunlight exposure and Andhra Pradesh and some parts of Tamil Nadu.
drainage. On gentler slopes, soil formation is quite favourable.
These soils are also known as the ‘Regur Soil’ or the
Point 3 is incorrect: Climate is an important active factor
because their influence over the formations of the soil ‘Black Cotton Soil’. The black soils are generally clayey,
is directly observed. Precipitation provides soil moisture deep and impermeable.
vital for chemical and biological activities; Dry climates They swell and become sticky when wet and shrink when
with high temperatures cause evaporation to exceed dried. So, during the dry season, these soil develop wide
precipitation, leading to salt deposits called hardpans; cracks.
Chemical activity is increased in higher temperatures, There occurs a kind of ‘self ploughing’. Because of this
reduced in cooler temperatures (with an exception of character of slow absorption and loss of moisture, the
carbonation) and stops in freezing conditions; tropical black soil retains the moisture for a very long time, which
soils with higher temperatures show deeper profiles. helps the crops, especially the rain-fed ones, to sustain
Point 4 is incorrect: Biological Activity: Active factor; even during the dry season.
Vegetative cover and organisms act on parent materials; Chemically, the black soils are rich in lime, iron, magnesia
Bacterial activity etc. and alumina. They also contain potash. But they lack in
Point 5 is correct: Time: Passive factor; mature soils result phosphorous, nitrogen and organic matter. The colour of
from extended operation of soil-forming processes. the soil ranges from deep black to grey.

Indian Soil 177

 ‰ Self-plowing is a characteristic of black soil as it
develops wide cracks when dried. Rich in: Iron, lime,
calcium, potassium, aluminum, and magnesium.
‰ Deficient in: Nitrogen, phosphorus, and organic matter.
‰ Color: Deep black to light black.
‰ Texture: Clayey.
9. ‘The soils vary from sandy loam to clay in texture and
are rich in potash but deficient in nitrogen and organic
matter. The colour varies from grey to reddish brown.
Almost all crops are grown on these soils.’
Which one of the following soil type is best described by
Fig: Black Soil the above given passage?
8. Which one of the following is the correct sequence (a) Laterite Soil (b) Regur Soil
of soil types in the order of decreasing percentage in (c) Alluvial Soil (d) Red Soil
terms of area in India? Ans: (c)
(a) Black soil-Red soil-Alluvial soil Alluvial soil is the most important soil type of India.
(b) Alluvial soil-Red soil-Regur soil ‰ It covers the vast valley areas of the Sutlej, Ganga and
(c) Red soil-Black soil-Alluvial soil Brahmaputra and the fringes of the southern peninsula.
(d) Alluvial soil-Regur soil-Red soil ‰ It is thin near the fringe of the plateau.
Ans: (b) ‰ The alluvial soils occupy 64 million hectares of the
Alluvial soil (43%): most fertile land.
‰ Mostly available soil in India covers an area of ‰ The soils vary from sandy loam to clay in texture
143 sq. km. and are rich in potash but deficient in nitrogen and
organic matter.
‰ Widespread in northern plains and river valleys.
‰ Generally, the colour varies from grey to reddish
‰ In peninsular India, they are primarily found in deltas
brown. These soils are formed of deposits of silt
and estuaries. Humus, lime, and organic matter are
present. Highly fertile. Indus-Ganga-Brahmaputra and sand brought down by the rivers flowing from
plain, Narmada-Tapi plain etc are examples. They the Himalayas and the Great Indian Plateau. Being
are depositional soil – transported and deposited by young, the soils lack profile development. Almost all
rivers, streams, etc. crops are grown on these soils.
‰ Sand content decreases from west to east of the country. 10. Which one of the following statements is correct about
‰ New alluvium is termed as Khadar and old alluvium the Alluvial soil?
is termed as Bhangar. (a) Alluvial soils are generally rich in phosphorus but poor
‰ Color: Light Grey to Ash Grey. in potash.
‰ Texture: Sandy to silty loam or clay. (b) Bangar is the new alluvium deposited by flood
‰ Rich in: potash annually, which enriches the soil by depositing fine silt.
‰ Poor in: phosphorous. (c) Khadar is old alluvium soil, deposited away from the
‰ Wheat, rice, maize, sugarcane, pulses, oilseed, etc. flood plains.
are cultivated mainly. (d) Alluvial soils are intensively cultivated in India.
Red soil (18.5%): Ans: (d)
Seen mainly in low-rainfall areas. Also known as Omnibus
Option (a) is incorrect: Alluvial soils are depositional
group. Porous, friable structure. Absence of lime,
soils, transported and deposited by rivers and streams.
kankar (impure calcium carbonate). Deficient in: lime,
Through a narrow corridor in Rajasthan, they extend into
phosphate, manganese, nitrogen, humus, and potash.
the plains of Gujarat. In the Peninsular region, they are
‰ Color: Red because of Ferric oxide. The lower layer is
found in deltas of the east coast and in the river valleys.
reddish-yellow or yellow. Texture: Sandy to clay and The alluvial soils vary in nature from sandy loam to clay.
loamy. They are generally rich in potash but poor in phosphorus.
‰ Wheat, cotton, pulses, tobacco, oilseeds, potatoes,
Option (b) and (c) are incorrect: In the Upper and
etc. are cultivated
Middle Ganga plain, two different types of alluvial soils
Black soil/regur soil (15%): have developed, viz. Khadar and Bhangar. Khadar is
‰ Regur means cotton – the best soil for cotton cultivation. the new alluvium and is deposited by floods annually,
‰ Most of the Deccan is occupied by Black soil. which enriches the soil by depositing fine silt. Bhangar
‰ Mature soil: High water retaining capacity. represents a system of older alluvium, deposited away
‰ Swells will become sticky when wet and shrink when from the flood plains. Both the Khadar and Bhangar
dried. soils contain calcareous concretions (Kankars). These

178 Indian Geography

 soils are more loamy and clayey in the lower and middle 12. Consider the following statements regarding Red and
Ganga plains and the Brahmaputra valley. The sand Yellow soils in India:
content decreases from west to east. The colour of the
1. They are predominantly found on sedimentary rocks.
alluvial soils varies from light grey to ash grey. Its shades
depend on the depth of the deposition, the texture of 2. They can be found in southern areas of the Middle
the materials, and the time taken for attaining maturity. Ganga Plains.
Alluvial soils are intensively cultivated. 3. The fine-grained red and yellow soils are fertile, while
Option (d) is correct: Alluvial soils are highly fertile. They coarse-grain soils are typically infertile.
are widespread in the northern plains and river valleys. How many of the statements given above are correct?
These areas house large population in Northern India.
Thus, Alluvial soils are intensively cultivated. These soils (a) Only one (b) Only two
cover about 40 percent of the total area of the country. (c) All three (d) None
This soil supports the growth of a wide variety of crops Ans: (b)
such as rice, wheat, sugarcane, cotton, jute, potatoes, and
Red and Yellow Soils
vegetables.
‰ These are predominantly found on crystalline
igneous rocks in the eastern and southern regions
of the Deccan Plateau under low rainfall conditions
and extend along the piedmont zone of the Western
Ghat, showcasing a stretch of red loamy soil. Hence,
statement 1 is incorrect.
‰ These soils are also present in parts of Odisha,
Chattisgarh, and southern areas of the Middle Ganga
Fig: Himalayan soil types
Plain. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
11. Consider the following statements regarding the Khadar ‰ They exhibit a reddish hue due to iron diffusion in
and Bhangar alluvium soil:
crystalline and metamorphic rocks, turning yellow
1. Khadar is the new alluvium containing fine silts. when hydrated.
2. Bhangar represents a system of older alluvium,
‰ While the fine-grained red and yellow soils are
deposited away from the flood plains.
typically fertile, the coarse-grained variants in dry
3. Khadar soils contain calcareous concretions, while
upland areas lack fertility. Hence, statement 3 is
Bhangar does not.
correct.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
‰ These soils are generally deficient in nitrogen,
(a) Only one (b) Only two
phosphorous, and humus, delineating a crucial
(c) All three (d) None
understanding of their utilization and management
Ans: (b)
The alluvial soils vary in nature from sandy loam to clay. PW Only IAS Extra Edge
They are generally rich in potash but poor in phosphorous. About soil formation
In the Upper and Middle Ganga plain, two different types ‰ Soil formation, known as pedogenesis, begins with
of alluvial soils have developed, viz. Khadar and Bhangar. weathering.
‰ Khadar is the new alluvium and is deposited by floods ‰ It is this weathering mantle (depth of the weathered
annually, which enriches the soil by depositing fine material) which is the basic input for soil to form.
silts. Hence, statement 1 is correct. ‰ Biological Contributions: Then bacteria, mosses,
‰ Bhangar represents a system of older alluvium, lichens, and various organisms colonize the
deposited away from the flood plains. Hence, weathered material or deposits.
statement 2 is correct. ‰ Plant Colonization: Dead organisms and plants
‰ Both the Khadar and Bhangar soils contain calcareous contribute to humus accumulation.
concretions (Kankars). These soils are more loamy ‰ Initially, minor grasses and ferns may grow,
and clayey in the lower and middle Ganga plain and followed by bushes and trees carried by birds and
the Brahmaputra valley. The sand content decreases wind.
from the west to the east. The colour of the alluvial ‰ Plant roots and burrowing animals enhance soil
soils varies from light grey to ash grey. Its shades porosity, enabling water retention and air passage.
depend on the depth of the deposition, the texture
‰ Enhanced Soil Properties: Eventually, a mature soil,
of the materials, and the time taken for attaining
maturity. Alluvial soils are intensively cultivated. a complex blend of minerals and organic matter, is
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. established through these processes.

Indian Soil 179

 13. Consider the following statements regarding the Black soil:
1. Black soils are most prevalent in the mid-latitudes of
North America, Eurasia, and South America.
2. Russia has the largest area under the black soil globally
followed by India.
3. They are considered the food basket of the world due
to the variability of crops they sustain.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None
Ans: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: Black soil distribution strongly
correlates with native prairie ecosystems including, but not
limited to, other grassland ecosystems with a continental
climate. Black soils are most prevalent in the mid-latitudes
of North America, Eurasia, and South America.
Statement 2 is incorrect: There are an estimated 725
million hectares of black soils worldwide. The Russian
Federation has the largest area by far, followed by
Kazakhstan and China.
Statement 3 is correct: According to the International
Network of Black Soils (INBS), black soils are soils with
thick, dark-coloured horizons, rich in organic carbon. Due to
their very high fertility, they are usually used for intensive Fig: Major Soil Types in India
agriculture and are considered the food basket of the world.
15. “These soils are also known as the ‘Regur Soil’ and are
PW Only IAS Extra Edge generally clayey, deep and impermeable. They swell and
World Soil Day become sticky when wet and shrink when dried. These
To mark World Soil Day (December 5, 2022), the Food soils develop cracks during the dry season. They are also
and Agriculture Organization has published it’s first- known as ‘Self Ploughed soils’.
ever “Global Report on Black Soils”. Land-use change, Which of the following soil types is best described by the
unsustainable management practices and excessive passage given above?
use of agrochemicals are to blame for risks to black soil, (a) Red and Yellow Soil (b) Laterite Soil
found the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO). (c) Alluvial Soil (d) Black Soil
14. With reference to Black cotton soil found in India, Ans: (d)
consider the following statements: Black soil covers most of the Deccan Plateau which includes
1. Black soil is rich in lime, iron, magnesium and aluminium. parts of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Andhra
2. It lacks phosphorus, nitrogen, and organic material. Pradesh, and some parts of Tamil Nadu. In the upper reaches
3. They are permeable soils that lose moisture in very of the Godavari and the Krishna, and the northwestern part
short period of time. of the Deccan Plateau, the black soil is very deep. These soils
How many of the above statements are correct? are also known as the ‘Regur Soil’ or the ‘Black Cotton Soil’.
The black soils are generally clayey, deep and impermeable.
(a) Only one (b) Only two
They swell and become sticky when wet and shrink when
(c) All three (d) None
dried. So, during the dry season, these soil develop wide
Ans: (b) cracks. Thus, there occurs a kind of ‘self ploughing’. Because
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Chemically, Black soil is of this character of slow absorption and loss of moisture, the
rich in lime, iron, magnesium and aluminium, but it lacks black soil retains the moisture for a very long time, which
phosphorus, nitrogen and organic material. The colour of helps the crops, especially, the rain fed ones, to sustain even
the soil ranges from deep black to grey. during the dry season.
Statement 3 is incorrect: These soils are generally
clayey, deep and impermeable. They swell and become 16. Consider the following statements:
sticky when wet and shrink when dried. So during the 1. Loess soil is fine-grained soil found in Chinese river
dry season, these soils develop wide cracks. Thus, there valleys.
occurs a kind of ‘self ploughing’. Due to this reason, the 2. Podzol soils are commonly found in the desert regions
black soil retains moisture for a very long period of time, of Arabia.
which helps crops, especially the rain-fed ones, to sustain 3. Black soils in India are particularly suited for cotton
themselves even during the dry season. cultivation.

180 Indian Geography

 Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ‰ Characteristics of the soil:
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only • Loamy and silty on valley sides and coarse-grained
(c) 1, 2, and 3 (d) 3 only on upper slopes;
• Structure and texture vary depending on the
Ans: (a)
mountain environment. Particularly in the snow-
Statement 1 is correct: Loess soil, predominantly found
clad regions of the Himalayas, these soils undergo
in Chinese river valleys, is wind-deposited, making it fine-
denudation, becoming acidic with a low humus
grained and highly fertile. This silt-rich soil, often deep and
content; soils in the lower valleys are fertile.
free-draining, is beneficial for agriculture. Its fertility arises
Statement 3 is correct: These are found in the higher
from its capacity to retain moisture and nutrients essential
areas of the Peninsular plateau, notably found in
for crops. Furthermore, its friable nature makes it easy to
Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh, and the
till, promoting agriculture even with simple tools.
hilly regions of Odisha, Ranchi and Assam.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Podzol soils are typically found in
colder regions with high precipitation, especially in boreal ‰ Characteristics of the soil:
forests and taigas. They are characterised by a whitish sub- • Develop in areas with high temperatures and high
layer underneath the surface, resulting from the leaching rainfall, resulting in intense leaching; Lime and
of minerals. This process causes the iron and aluminium silica are leached away, and soils rich in iron oxide
compounds to be washed from the upper layers to the and aluminium compounds are left behind.
deeper layers, creating a distinct horizon. Therefore, • Low humus content due to bacterial activity that
Podzol soils are not commonly found in desert regions due thrives well in high temperatures; Highly acidic
to insufficient rainfall to facilitate the leaching process. and low water retention;
Statement 3 is correct: Black soils, or ‘regur soils,’ • Unsuitable for cultivation, requiring manures and
in India are renowned for their aptness in cotton fertilizers to enhance fertility; widely used in brick
farming. These soils have a remarkable ability to retain making.
moisture, ensuring a sustained water supply for the • Red laterite soils are favorable for tree crops like
cotton plant. Moreover, their composition is enriched cashew nuts in regions of Tamil Nadu, Andhra
with vital nutrients that nourish the crops. The inherent • Pradesh, and Kerala.
• Mineral Composition: lacks organic matter,
characteristics of black soils, coupled with their deep
nitrogen, phosphate, and calcium; abundant in
and fine texture, provide an optimal environment for
iron oxide and potash.
the cotton plant’s root penetration and growth, making
them the bedrock of India’s cotton agriculture. 18. Consider the following statements regarding Laterite soils:
1. They develop in areas with high temperatures and
17. Consider the following statements:
high rainfall.
1. Peaty soils are primarily found in areas with heavy
2. They are poor in organic matter, iron oxide, and potash.
rainfall and poor drainage.
3. They are more suitable for cultivation compared to
2. Forest soil texture varies, with loamy and silty soils on
other soils.
valley sides and coarse-grained soils on upper slopes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
3. Laterite soils develop in areas with high temperatures
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
and high rainfall.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only Ans: (a)
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of the above Statement 1 is correct: Laterite has been derived from
the Latin word ‘Later’ which means brick. The laterite soils
Ans: (d) develop in areas with high temperatures and high rainfall.
Statement 1 is correct: Peaty soils are prominently found These are the result of intense leaching due to tropical rains.
in regions with heavy rainfall and high humidity with Statement 2 is incorrect: When heavy rainfall takes
good vegetation growth. These are widely distributed place, lime and silica are leached away, and soils rich in
in northern Bihar and southern Uttarakhand, along with iron oxide and aluminium compounds are left behind.
coastal stretches of West Bengal, Odisha, and Tamil Nadu. Humus content of the soil is removed fast by bacteria that
‰ Characteristics of the soil: thrives well in high temperature. These soils are poor in
• Heavy, black in colour, and, in many places, exhibit organic matter, nitrogen, phosphate, and calcium, while
alkaline properties iron oxide and potash are in excess.
• Large quantities of dead organic matter with high Statement 3 is incorrect: Laterite soils are not suitable
humus and organic content. Organic matter may for cultivation because of the poor content of organic
go up to 40-50 percent. matter, nitrogen, phosphate, and calcium; however, the
Statement 2 is correct: Forest soils are found in forest application of manures and fertilisers are required for
areas with sufficient rainfall. These are found in making the soils fertile for cultivation. Red laterite soils
Himalayan region, Western and Eastern Ghats as well as in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and Kerala are more
suitable for tree crops like cashewnut. Laterite soils are
in some parts of the Peninsular plateau.

Indian Soil 181

 widely cut as bricks for use in house construction. These above mean sea level, Eastern Ghats, the Rajmahal Hills,
soils have mainly developed in the higher areas of the Vindhyan, Satpuras and Malwa Plateau. They also occur
peninsular plateau. The laterite soils are commonly at lower levels and in valleys in several other parts of the
found in Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh country. They are well developed in south Maharashtra,
and the hilly areas of Odisha and Assam. parts of Karnataka etc. and are widely scattered in other
19. It is red in colour due to the presence of iron oxide. It regions.
develops mainly in the highland areas of the plateau. It 21. Consider the following statements:
is more acidic in higher areas. It has low fertility. 1. Chernozem soil, known for its high fertility, is primarily
Which of the following soils is described in the above found in the grassland regions of Russia and Canada.
paragraph? 2. Laterite soils are found in the rainforest regions of Brazil.
(a) Laterite soil (b) Red and Black soil Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) Grey and Brown soil (d) Submontane soil (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Ans: (a) (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Laterite soils, when wet, are as soft as butter, but become Ans: (c)
quite hard and cloddy on drying. the typical soils of the Statement 1 is correct: Chernozem soil, which is known for
monsoon climate which is characterised by seasonal its fertility, is prevalent in the grassland regions of countries
rainfall. The alternating wet and dry seasons lead to the such as Russia and Canada. This soil is rich in organic matter,
leaching away of the siliceous matter of the rocks leading making it one of the most productive for agriculture.
to the formation of such soils. Statement 2 is correct: Laterite soils are primarily formed
‰ The red colour of the soil is due to the presence of in tropical regions with consistent and heavy rainfall.
iron-oxide. The soil develops mainly in the highland These soils have undergone intense leaching, a process
areas of the plateau. In the higher areas these soils where the upper layers’ minerals are washed away,
are generally more acidic than those in the low- leaving behind iron and aluminium oxides. This gives
lying areas. Laterite soil is rich in iron and aluminum, the soil a reddish appearance. Brazil’s rainforest regions,
but poor in nitrogen, potash, potassium, lime and with their high rainfall, facilitate the formation of these
organic matter. It has low fertility and responds well laterite soils, making them rich in iron and aluminium.
to manuring. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer. These soils, while not the most fertile for agriculture, are
20. With reference to the Laterite soil, consider the valuable for their mineral content.
following statements: 22. With reference to Peaty soils, consider the following
1. These soils are very poor in lime, magnesia, potash statements:
and nitrogen. 1. These soils exhibit alkaline properties in many regions.
2. These soils are mainly suitable for growing plantation 2. They are dominant in regions of high precipitation and
crops like tea, coffee, rubber, cinchona, coconut, areca water logging.
nut, etc. 3. They have high proportion of minerals compared to
3. These soils are naturally found in the entire Peninsular organic matter.
region of India. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) All three (d) None
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans: (a)
Ans: (a) Peaty Soils
Statement 1 is correct: Laterite soils are rich in bauxite Geographically, peaty soils are widely distributed in
or ferric oxides. They are very poor in lime, magnesia, northern Bihar and southern Uttaranchal, along with
potash and nitrogen. Sometimes, the phosphate content coastal stretches of West Bengal, Orissa, and Tamil Nadu.
may be high in the form of iron phosphate. In wetter Statement 1 is incorrect: Peaty soils are usually acidic,
places, there may be a higher content of humus. not alkaline, due to the accumulation of organic matter
Statement 2 is correct: Laterite soils lack fertility due to in waterlogged conditions that slows decomposition.
intensive leaching. When manured and irrigated, some Statement 2 is correct: Peaty soils develop in areas with
laterites are suitable for growing plantation crops like tea, high rainfall and waterlogging, which prevent organic
coffee, rubber, cinchona, coconut, areca nut, etc. In some matter from decomposing fully.
areas, these soils support grazing grounds and scrub forests. Statement 3 is incorrect: Peaty soils are characterized
Statement 3 is incorrect: Laterite soils cover an area of by a high proportion of organic matter and low mineral
2.48 lakh sq km. A continuous stretch of laterite soil is content, as they are formed from decomposed vegetation
found on the summits of Western Ghats at 1000 to 1500 m in waterlogged environments.

182 Indian Geography

 6 Natural Hazards
and Disasters

Objective Questions for Practice

1. Consider the following statements: 2. Consider the following:

1. Hazards are the elements of the physical environment 1. Geological Hazards
that are harmful to man and are caused by extraneous 2. Meteorological Hazards
forces.
3. Hydrological Hazards
2. A disaster occurs when an extreme event exceeds a
4. Biological Hazards
community’s ability to cope with it.
Which of the statements given above are incorrect? 5. Nuclear/Radiological hazards
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only How many of the above hazards can be mainly categorised
as Natural Hazards?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Ans: (d)
Statement 1 is correct: Hazards are “Those elements of (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
the physical environment that are harmful to man and Ans: (c)
caused by forces extraneous to him” Hazards may be natural, anthropogenic or socionatural
A hazard can potentially cause harm to: in origin. Natural hazards are predominantly associated
‰ People: death, injury, disease and stress with natural processes and phenomena.
‰ Human Activity: economic, educational etc. Natural hazards can be classified into several broad
‰ Property: property damage, economic loss categories: geological hazards, hydrological hazards,
‰ Environment: loss of fauna and flora, pollution, loss meteorological hazards, and biological hazards.
of amenities. Geological Hazards: These are hazards driven by geological
Statement 2 is correct: Disaster is any natural or human- or earth processes, in particular, plate tectonics. This
generated calamitous event that produces great loss of includes earthquakes and volcanic eruptions. In general,
human life or destruction of the natural environment, geological extreme events are beyond human influence,
private property, or public infrastructure. A disaster though humans have large influence on the impacts of
occurs when an extreme event exceeds a community’s the events. Hence, point 1 is correct.
ability to cope with it. Disaster is any natural or human- Meteorological Hazards: These are hazards driven by
generated calamitous event that produces great loss of meteorological or weather processes, in particular those
human life or destruction of the natural environment, related to temperature and wind. This includes heat
private property, or public infrastructure. waves, cold waves, cyclones, hurricanes, and freezing
‰ A disaster may be sudden, like an earthquake or an oil rain. Cyclones are commonly called hurricanes in the
spill, or it may unfold over a more extended period, such Atlantic and typhoons in the Pacific Ocean. Hence, point 2
as the effects of a pandemic or climatic disruption etc. is correct.
‰ The frequency of an event and the magnitude of its Hydrological Hazards: These are hazards driven by
impact can influence whether an event is regarded hydrological or water processes. This includes floods,
as a disaster. droughts, mudslides, and tsunamis. Floods and droughts
Events with a low frequency of occurrence and a high can cause extensive damage to agriculture and are
magnitude of impact (in terms of considerable economic among the main contributors to famine. Hence, point 3
and human losses)—such as the death and damage is correct.
caused by a famine, severe earthquake, flood, or tropical Biological Hazards: These are hazards driven by biological
cyclone, or the harm produced by the significant release processes. This includes various types of disease,
of poison gas by a chemical plant—are usually declared including infectious diseases that spread from person
disasters by government authorities. to person, threatening to infect large portions of the
 human population. Some examples are the Black Death Ans: (d)
outbreak of bubonic plague in the 1300s, killing 75-100 Pair 1 is correctly matched: Cyclone Biparjoy was an
million people, and the 1918 “Spanish” flu pandemic, extremely severe cyclonic storm that formed over the
killing 50-100 million people. Hence, point 4 is correct. Arabian Sea in early June 2023. It intensified into a powerful
Anthropogenic hazards, or human-induced hazards, are cyclone, making landfall near Naliya in Gujarat, India, on
induced entirely or predominantly by human activities June 16, 2023. The storm brought heavy rainfall, strong
and choices. Nuclear/Radiological hazards are of such winds, and significant storm surges to the region, leading
type. Hence, point 5 is incorrect. to widespread evacuations and infrastructure damage. The
Nuclear/Radiological hazards: Radiological and nuclear name “Biparjoy” translates to “disaster” or “calamity” in
emergencies are incidents in which a key component Bengali.
involves radioactive material. Different types of Pair 2 is correctly matched: The post-monsoon cyclone
radiation emergencies vary in how much damage ‘Mandous’ has evoked much curiosity behind its name
they can cause and the harm they pose to the public. and origin already and one might further wonder how
Some examples of radiation hazards include a nuclear cyclones are different from hurricanes or typhoons.
Cyclone Mandous caused havoc in Tamil Nadu and
detonation (explosion), an accident at a nuclear power
Andhra Pradesh, when the storm crossed the states on
plant, a transportation accident involving a shipment of
after landfall.
radioactive materials, or occupational exposure (as in a
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Cyclone Sitrang was a tropical
healthcare or research setting).
cyclone that occurred in October 2022 in the Bay of
3. In the context of Disaster Management studies, consider Bengal region.It made landfall in Bangladesh, specifically
the following statements: near the Barisal division, on October 24, 2022.It also
1. Hazard is the extent to which a community, service, affected parts of India, including West Bengal, Tripura,
or geographic area is likely to get disrupted. and Assam, with heavy rains and localized flooding,
though it did not directly make landfall in India.
2. Vulnerability means an event that has the potential
Naming of cyclones: Cyclones are named by regional
to cause injury to life or damage to property or the
meteorological organizations, coordinated by the World
environment.
Meteorological Organization (WMO). Each region has a
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? pre-approved list of names, which is used in sequence
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only for each cyclone. Names are selected based on cultural
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 appropriateness, ease of pronunciation, and avoidance
of similarity. If a cyclone causes significant destruction,
Ans: (d) its name may be retired to prevent future confusion. For
Statement 1 is incorrect: Hazard can be defined as a example, in the Indian Ocean region, cyclones are named
dangerous condition or event, that is a threat or has the by the India Meteorological Department (IMD) and other
potential for causing injury to life or damage to property member countries.
or the environment.” Hazards can be grouped into two Hence, the correct answer is option (d).
broad categories, namely natural and manmade.
5. Consider the following statement regarding atmospheric
Statement 2 is incorrect: Vulnerability can be defined as, conditions:
the extent to which a community, structure, service or
1. Large and continuous supply of warm and moist air.
geographic area is likely to be damaged or disrupted by the
2. Strong Coriolis force.
impact of a particular hazard, on account of their nature,
3. Unstable condition which induces the formation of
construction, and proximity to hazardous terrains or a
local disturbances.
disaster-prone area. Vulnerability is broadly categorized
4. Presence of strong vertical wind wedge.
into physical and socio-economic vulnerability.
How many of the above are initial conditions required for
4. Consider the following pairs with reference to Cyclones the formation of a Tropical Cyclone?
and their location of Landfall in India: (a) Only one (b) Only two
Name of Cyclone Landfall Location (c) Only three (d) All four
1. Biporjoy Gujarat Ans: (c)
Tropical cyclones are intense low-pressure areas confined
2. Mandous Tamil Nadu
to the area lying between 30°N and 30°S latitudes, in the
3. Sitrang Bangladesh atmosphere around which high-velocity winds blow.
How many of the pairs given above are incorrectly Initial conditions required for the emergence of a tropical
matched? cyclone are
‰ Large and continuous supply of warm and moist
(a) Only one (b) Only two
air that can release enormous latent heat. Hence,
(c) All of the above (d) None of the above statement 1 is correct.

184 Indian Geography

 ‰ Strong Coriolis force that prevents the filling of low Ans: (c)
pressure at the centre (absence of Coriolis force near Statement 1 is correct: Earthquakes and volcanic eruptions
the equator prohibits the formation of tropical cyclones that cause the sea floor to move abruptly, resulting in
between 0°-5° latitude). Hence, statement 2 is correct. sudden displacement of ocean water in the form of high
‰ Unstable condition (low pressure) through the vertical waves are called tsunamis or seismic sea waves.
troposphere creates local disturbances around which Normally, the seismic waves cause only one instantaneous
a cyclone develops. Hence, statement 3 is correct. vertical wave, but, after the initial disturbance, a series of
‰ The presence of a strong vertical wind wedge disturbs afterwaves are created in the water that oscillate between
the vertical transport of latent heat (essential for high crest and low trough in order to restore the water level.
cyclone formation, which is basically a heat engine). Statement 2 is correct: The speed of tsunami waves in
Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. the seas and oceans varies with the depth of water. In
the deep ocean, tsunamis can move as fast as a jet plane,
6. Consider the following statements with reference to
over 500 mph, and can cross entire oceans in less than
Droughts: a day. As the waves enter shallow water near land, they
1. Meteorological Drought is a condition when there is slow to the speed of a car, approximately 20 or 30 mph.
a prolonged period of inadequate rainfall.
2. Agricultural drought is also known as soil moisture
drought.
3. Hydrological Drought results when the availability of
water in storages such as aquifers falls below what
the precipitation can replenish.
4. Ecological Drought is when the productivity of a
natural ecosystem increases.
How many of the statement(s) given above are correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two 8. Consider the following tectonic plates:
(c) Only three (d) All four 1. Indo-Australian Plate 2. Nazca Plate
Ans: (c) 3. Philippine Plate 4. North American Plate
Statement 1 is correct: Meteorological drought is a With reference to earthquakes and volcanoes, the Ring
situation when there is a prolonged period of inadequate of Fire traces boundaries between how many of the
rainfall marked with mal-distribution of the same over following tectonic plates?
time and space. (a) Only one (b) Only two
Statement 2 is correct: Agricultural drought refers to a (c) Only three (d) All four
situation where soil moisture becomes insufficient to
Ans: (d)
support crop growth and agricultural activities, hence it
is also referred to as soil moisture drought. The Ring of Fire, also referred to as the Circum-Pacific
Belt, is a path along the Pacific Ocean characterized by
Statement 3 is correct: Hydrological drought results
active volcanoes and frequent earthquakes.
when the availability of water in different storages and
reservoirs like aquifers, lakes, reservoirs, etc., falls below ‰ Its length is approximately 40,000 kilometers.
what the precipitation can replenish. ‰ It traces boundaries between several tectonic plates.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Ecological drought occurs This includes the Pacific, Juan de Fuca, Cocos, Indo-
when the productivity of a natural ecosystem fails due Australian, Nazca, North American, and Philippine
to a shortage of water, and as a consequence of this Plates.
ecological distress, the ecosystem is damaged. ‰ Seventy-five percent of Earth’s volcanoes are located
along the Ring of Fire.
7. Consider the following statements with reference to
Tsunamis: ‰ Ninety percent of Earth’s earthquakes occur along its
path.
1. The high vertical waves in seas and oceans caused by
earthquakes and volcanism are called tsunamis. ‰ The abundance of volcanoes and earthquakes along
the Ring of Fire is caused by the amount of movement
2. The speed of tsunami waves in the seas and oceans
of tectonic plates in the area. Along much of the
varies with the depth of water.
Ring of Fire, plates overlap at convergent boundaries
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
called subduction zones. That is, the plate that is
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only underneath is pushed down, or subducted, by the
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 plate above.

Natural Hazards and Disasters 185

 Fig: Pacific Ring of fire
9. Consider the following:
Fig: Earthquake and Plate tectonics
1. Differential ground settlement
10. Consider the following statements with reference to the
2. Landslides
Coalition of Disaster Resilient Infrastructure:
3. Soil liquefaction
1. It was launched by India during the 2019 United
4. Avalanches
Nations Climate Action Summit.
How many of the above-mentioned phenomena are the 2. It aims to promote the resilience of infrastructure
effects of an Earthquake? systems to climate and disaster risks, thereby ensuring
(a) Only one (b) Only two sustainable development.
(c) Only three (d) All four 3. It is the only International organisation to be
Ans: (d) headquartered in India.
The effects of earthquakes are as follows: Which of the statements given above are correct?
‰ Differential ground settlement or movement: (a) 1 and 2 only
The differential movement, also called as surface (b) 2 and 3 only
faulting, can be of the two sides of a fracture at the (c) 1 and 3 only
Earth’s surface. They are of three types - strike-slip, (d) 1, 2, and 3
normal, and reverse (or thrust).
Ans: (a)
‰ Landslides: Many times landslides take place in
Statement 1 is correct: The Coalition for Disaster
conjunction with earthquakes. The most abundant
Resilient Infrastructure was launched by the Hon’ble
types of earthquake-induced landslides are rock
Prime Minister of India during the United Nations Climate
falls and slides of rock fragments that form on steep
Action Summit on the 23rd September, 2019, at New
slopes.
York. It is the second major global initiative launched
‰ Soil liquefaction: In liquefaction, clay-free soil by the Government of India and is a demonstration of
deposits, primarily sands and silts, temporarily lose India’s leadership role in climate change and disaster
strength and behave as viscous fluids rather than as resilience matters, globally.
solids. Liquefaction takes place when seismic shear
Statement 2 is correct: CDRI is a global partnership of
waves pass through a saturated granular soil layer,
National Governments, UN agencies and programmes,
distort its granular structure, and cause some of the multilateral development banks and financing
void spaces to collapse. mechanisms, the private sector, academic and knowledge
‰ Avalanches: Avalanches can be of two types - Rock institutions that aims to promote the resilience of
avalanches originate on over-steepened slopes in infrastructure systems to climate and disaster risks,
weak rocks. Soil avalanches occur in some weakly thereby ensuring sustainable development.
cemented fine-grained materials, such as loess, Statement 3 is incorrect: The Central Government has
that form steep stable slopes under non-seismic approved the categorization of the Coalition for Disaster
conditions. Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) as an ‘International
‰ Other effects of earthquakes: Ground Shaking, Organization’ and signing of the Headquarters Agreement
Ground lurching, Ground displacement, Floods from (HQA) with CDRI for granting it the exemptions,
dam and levee failures, Fires, Structural collapse, immunities and privileges as contemplated under the
Falling objects, and Tsunami. Tsunamis are waves United Nations (Privileges & Immunities) Act, 1947. It
generated by the tremors and not an earthquake in is headquartered in New Delhi, India. The International
itself. Solar Organization is Headquarterd in Gurugram, India.

186 Indian Geography

 UNIT-III:
HUMAN AND
ECONOMIC GEOGRAPHY
 1 Resources and
Land Use

Objective Questions for Practice

1. With reference to Land-Use Categories, consider the (a) Contour Terracing

following pairs: (b) Developing shelterbelts of trees
Land use Category Characteristics (c) Controlled grazing
1. Current Fallow Land left without cultivation for (d) Crop Rotation
less than one agricultural year Ans: (b)
2. Culturable The land under orchards and ‰ In arid and semi-arid regions, where the threat of sand
Wasteland fruit trees is included in this dune encroachment is prevalent, the establishment
3. Barren and Land cannot be brought under of tree shelter belts is used as a protective measure.
wasteland cultivation with the available ‰ These belts serve as barriers against the movement
technology of sand dunes, preventing them from encroaching
on cultivable lands.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
‰ The presence of trees in these shelter belts helps
(a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs stabilize the soil, reduce wind erosion, and create a
(c) All three pairs (d) None of the pairs barrier that mitigates the impact of sand movement.
Ans: (b) ‰ Developing shelterbelts of trees is a form of
The land-use categories as maintained in the Land agroforestry, which involves strategically planting
Revenue Records are as follows: (i) Forests; (ii) Land put and maintaining trees to provide ecological and
to Non-agricultural Uses (iii) Barren and Wastelands (iv) environmental benefits. In this context, these belts
Area under Permanent Pastures and Grazing Lands (v) act as a defence mechanism against the adverse effects
Area under Miscellaneous Tree Crops and Groves (not of sand dune encroachment, ensuring the protection of
included is Net sown Area) (vi) Culturable Waste-Land cultivable lands in arid and semi-arid areas.
(vii) Current Fallow (viii) Fallow other than Current Fallow 3. With reference to types of resources, consider the
(ix) Net Area Sown following statements:
Pair 1 is correct: Current Fallow is the land that is left
1. The resources which can be found in any part of the
without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural
year. Fallowing is a cultural practice adopted to give the land world are known as ‘Ubiquitous Resources’.
rest. The land regains its fertility through natural processes. 2. The resources which are not developed due to lack of
Pair 2 is incorrect: Culturable Waste-Land is any land that adequate knowledge are called ‘Stock Resources’.
has been left fallow (uncultivated) for more than five 3. Soil is a type of ‘Biotic Resource’.
years. It can be brought under cultivation after improving it How many of the above statements are correct?
through reclamation practises. Area under Miscellaneous (a) Only one (b) Only two
Tree Crops and Groves (not included in Net Sown Area):
(c) All three (d) None
The land under orchards and fruit trees is included in this
category. Much of this land is privately owned. Ans: (b)
Pair 3 is correct: Barren and Wastelands are those lands Statement 1 is correct: The resources can be categorised
that may be classified as wastelands, such as barren hilly on the basis of their distribution. The Ubiquitous
terrains, desert lands, ravines, etc., which normally cannot resources are those resources which are available in any
be brought under cultivation with the available technology. part of the world like that air and water. On the other
2. In arid and semi-arid areas, which one of the following hand localised resources are resources that are available
methods is best to protect cultivable lands from only in some selected areas of the earth are the localized
encroachment by sand dunes? resources like coal mines in Jharkhand.
 Statement 2 is correct: Some resources in the Board is a statutory body under the Ministry of Commerce
environment which have enough potential but not and Industry for the overall development of the rubber
adequate knowledge available to use or develop them industry in the country. The Head Office of the Board is
are known as stock resources like the importance of located at Kottayam in the State of Kerala.
hydrogen and oxygen gas.
5. Consider the following statements regarding the
Statement 3 is incorrect: The resources are divided
production of Bauxite:
based on their origin into two types- Biotic and Abiotic.
1. India is the second largest producer of Bauxite in the
Resources that are from non-living sources are known as
world after China.
abiotic resources, like soil, rocks, etc. Soil is considered
an abiotic resource because it is primarily composed 2. Odisha is the largest producer of Bauxite in India.
of non-living components such as minerals, water, and Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
air. However, soil also supports living organisms (e.g., (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
microorganisms, insects, and plant roots) and contains (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
organic material derived from decomposed organisms
but its major proportion is abiotic in origin. On the other Ans: (b)
hand Resources that come from living beings are known as Statement 1 is incorrect: According to Global Data,
biotic resources. For example forest and forest products. India is the world’s fifth-largest producer of bauxite
in 2023, with output up by 0.67% in 2022. Over the
4. Consider the following statements regarding Natural
five years to 2022, production from India increased by
Rubber and their production :
a CAGR of 0.15% and is expected to rise by a CAGR of
1. Natural rubber is native to the Southeast Asian region. 3% between 2023 and 2027. India accounts for 6% of
2. Kerala is the largest producer of natural rubber in India. global production, with the largest producers being the
3. The Rubber Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. Republic of Guinea, Australia, China, and Brazil. Exports
4. Thailand is the largest Producer of Rubber in the world of bauxite from India increased by 0.67% in 2023 over
followed by Indonesia and Vietnam. 2022, with the highest share being exported to Nepal.
Which of the statements given above are correct ? India’s bauxite exports are expected to grow at a CAGR of
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only 221% between 2023 and 2027.
Statement 2 is correct: Bauxite is the ore, which is used
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only
in the manufacturing of aluminium. Bauxite is found
Ans: (c) mainly in tertiary deposits and is associated with laterite
Natural rubber is a versatile and essential raw material rocks occurring extensively either on the plateau or hill
derived from the latex or milky sap of Hevea brasiliensis. ranges of peninsular India and also in the coastal tracts
Tropical climate with annual rainfall of 2000 – 4500 mm. of the country. Odisha is the largest producer of Bauxite.
Lateritic fertile soil with an acidic pH of 4.5 to 6.0 is Kalahandi and Sambalpur are the leading producers.
required. 80% relative humidity is ideal for cultivation. The other two areas which have been increasing their
Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 4 is correct: production are Bolangir and Koraput.
Hevea brasiliensis is a species of rubberwood that is
6. Consider the following pairs:
native to rainforests in the Amazon region of South
America, including Brazil, Venezuela, Ecuador, Colombia, Uranium Deposits Countries
Peru, and Bolivia. Thailand is the largest producer of 1. Olympic Dam Australia
rubber in the world followed by Indonesia, Vietnam, 2. Athabasca Basin Kazakhstan
Brazil, India and China. These nations are located in
tropical regions. Their climate is warm and humid which 3. Chu-Sarysu basin Canada
is ideal for growing rubber trees. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Statement 2 is correct: Largest Natural Rubber Producing (a) Only one (b) Only two
States in India are Kerala, Tripura, Karnataka, Assam and
(c) All three (d) None
Tamil Nadu. There are over 13 lakh rubber growers in the
country with Kerala accounting for a major chunk of the Ans: (a)
production, which was 8.39 lakh tonnes in FY23. Largest viable uranium deposits are found in Australia,
Zones of Rubber Cultivation: Kazakhstan, and Canada.
‰ Traditional Region: Kerala State and Kanyakumari Pair 1 is correct: Olympic Dam and the Ranger mine in
District of Tamil Nadu. Southern Australia are important mines in Australia. They
‰ Non-traditional Region: All states other than Kerala are known for their significant deposits of various minerals,
state and Kanyakumari District of Tamil Nadu and including copper, gold, silver, and uranium. The Olympic
North East region. Dam mine is one of the largest uranium mines in the world.
‰ Northeastern Region: Assam, Tripura, Meghalaya, Pair 2 is incorrect: The Athabasca Basin in Canada is
Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh renowned for hosting some of the most concentrated
Statement 3 is incorrect: It was constituted under the uranium deposits globally. Within this area, notable
Rubber Act, 1947 and Rubber Rules 1955. The Rubber uranium mining sites include Cigar Lake and McArthur River.

190 Human and Economic Geography

 Pair 3 is incorrect: Kazakhstan plays a significant role (c) All three (d) None
in uranium production, boasting numerous deposits Ans: (b)
scattered across diverse regions. Particularly noteworthy Statement 1 is incorrect: Natural gas contains methane,
is the Chu-Sarysu basin located in central Kazakhstan, carbon dioxide and water vapor, etc. Natural gas is
which alone holds more than fifty percent of the nation’s found with petroleum deposits. In India, major natural
identified uranium reserves. gas reserves are located in the Mumbai High, Krishna
7. Consider the following statements regarding Natural Godavari basin, Cambay basin, Tripura and Assam.
Gas in India: Statement 2 is correct: The fertilizer sector is the largest
1. In India, Natural Gas is found mainly in the Northern consumer of natural gas today accounting for about 30
states of Punjab and Haryana. percent of consumption. The power sector which was
expected to be the largest consumer of gas has fallen
2. The Fertilizer Sector is the largest consumer of Natural
to third place accounting for only about 15 percent of
Gas in India.
consumption in 2023-24.
3. Limited private sector investment is the major Statement 3 is correct: The challenges faced by the
constraint in the production of Natural Gas in India. Natural gas production in India are aging wells which
How many of the statements given above are correct? have become less productive over time. Private sector
(a) Only one (b) Only two investment in the production of natural gas is low which
is a major challenge in the production process.

Resources and Land Use 191

 8. Consider the following statements with respect to the 10. Consider the following countries:
‘Technical Cooperation Report for 2022’: 1. United States 2. Finland
1. It provides an overview of the progress of technical 3. Norway 4. European Union
cooperation programmes of the Ministry of Science How many of the above are the members of Mineral
and Technology. Security Partnership?
2. The report covers areas like nuclear energy, radiation (a) Only one (b) Only two
protection and cancer therapy. (c) Only three (d) All four
Which of the following statements is/are correct? Ans: (d)
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Minerals are essential to the global economy and to the
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 technologies powering the clean energy transition. Diverse,
secure, and sustainable supply chains for critical energy
Ans: (b) minerals are vital to deploying these technologies at the
Statement 1 is incorrect: The ‘Technical Cooperation speed and scale necessary to combat the climate crisis.
Report’ for 2022 typically refers to the report published Mineral Security Partnership seeks to bolster critical
by the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA), not minerals supply chains to support economic prosperity
the Ministry of Science and Technology in India. It focuses and climate objectives. It seeks to ensure that critical
on the IAEA’s efforts to provide technical assistance to minerals are produced, processed and recycled by
member states in various nuclear-related areas. catalyzing investments from governments and private
Statement 2 is correct: The IAEA’s Technical Cooperation sector across the full value chain.
Report highlights key activities and achievements in India has become 14th member of the Mineral Security
promoting the peaceful, safe, and secure application of Partnership (MSP) in June 2023. The other member
nuclear science and technology. It focuses on areas such as countries are United States, Australia, Canada, Finland,
nuclear energy, radiation protection, cancer therapy, food France, Germany, Italy, Japan, Norway, the Republic of
security, and other beneficial uses of nuclear technology. Korea, Sweden, the United Kingdom and the European
Part C of the report provides a detailed overview of Union.
program activities, emphasizing assistance to member
states in areas like industrial applications, energy planning, 11. Consider the following statements about ‘Siderite’:
nuclear power, and radiation protection. It also includes 1. It is known as ‘Iron Carbonate’.
efforts in nuclear safety, knowledge development, and 2. It contains more than 50% of Iron.
management. A significant component of the report is 3. It is most economically extractable.
the Programme of Action for Cancer Therapy (PACT), How many of the above statements are correct?
which showcases initiatives supporting cancer treatment (a) Only one (b) Only two
and therapy in member states. (c) All three (d) None
9. Consider the following statements: Ans: (a)
1. The majority of coal reserves in India occur in the Statement 1 is correct: Siderite is known as ‘Iron
valleys of Damodar, Son, Mahanadi, and Godavari Carbonate’. It is one of the four main types of iron ores.
rivers. Statement 2 is incorrect: The iron content of Siderite
2. Petroleum Reserves in India are located in the varies between 10 to 40 percent. The magnetite ore is
sedimentary basins of Assam. known as ‘black ore’. Its iron content varies between 60
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? to 65 percent.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Statement 3 is incorrect: Siderite is not the most
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 economically extractable iron ore because of its lower
iron content and the fact that its processing requires
Ans: (c) additional energy due to its carbonate composition. Ores
Minerals are not evenly distributed across the Earth’s like hematite and magnetite, which have higher iron
surface. They are exhaustible resources, meaning they content, are preferred for economic extraction.
will be depleted after a certain period. Although minerals
12. With reference to Monazite, consider the following
take a long time to form, they cannot be replenished
statements:
immediately when needed.
Statement 1 is correct: Over 97% of coal reserves 1. In India, Monazite is found on the sandy beaches of
are concentrated in the valleys of the Damodar, Son, Kerala only.
Mahanadi, and Godavari rivers. 2. Kerala has the largest reserves of Monazite in the
Statement 2 is correct: Petroleum reserves in India are country.
primarily located in the sedimentary basins of Assam, 3. Odisha has no Monazite deposits.
Gujarat, and Mumbai High (offshore region in the Arabian How many of the statements given above are incorrect?
Sea). Additionally, new petroleum reserves have been (a) Only one (b) Only two
discovered in the Krishna-Godavari and Kaveri basins. (c) All three (d) None

192 Human and Economic Geography

Ans: (c) 25.28% of phosphorus pentoxide which can be recovered
Statement 1 is incorrect: Monazite is radioactive as a by-product for the manufacture of fertilizers and the
(presence of Thorium and Uranium) and is often found in production of elemental phosphorus or its salts. Besides,
placer deposits. India, Madagascar, and South Africa have rare earths, thorium is recovered from monazite.
large deposits of monazite sands. The deposits in India are Statement 2 and 3 are incorrect: Odisha, Andhra
particularly rich in monazite and are found in the sands Pradesh, and West Bengal are other states where
of both rivers and beaches. Monazite contains about monazite reserves are found.

Uranium Resources Monazite (Thorium - 9 to 10%) Resources

Maharashtra 0.004mt
Jharkhand 0.22mt
Jharkhand Gujarat 0.07mt
Andhra Pradesh West Bengal 1.22mt
2,50,420t 94,267t Kerala Andhra
1.90mt Pradesh
Meghalaya 23,268t 3.72mt
Tamil Nadu Odisha
Telangana 18,550t 2.46mt 2.41mt
U�arakhand 100t
Maharashtra 355t Rajasthan 15,631t
Himachal Pradesh 784t Karnataka 7,676t
U�ar Pradesh 785t Chha�sgarh 3,986t
Uranium and Monazite (Thorium - 9 to 10%) resources of India (Statewise)

13. Which of the following is/are included in Resource Which of the statements given above are correct?
Planning in India? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
1. Surveying (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Mapping Ans: (a)
3. Qualitative and Quantitative estimation Statement 1 is correct: The Coal Controller Organisation,
4. Measurement of the resources a subordinate office under the Ministry of Coal, indeed
5. Matching the resource development plans with overall holds responsibility for overseeing the quality surveillance
national development plans. and regulation of coal production across both public and
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: private coal mines in the country. This includes maintaining
(a) 1, 2, 3 only (b) 2, 3, 4 only grades, sizes, and other quality parameters of coal.
(c) 1, 3, 4 only (d) All of the above Statement 2 is incorrect: The Coal Controller
Organisation issues directives not only for the
Ans: (d) declaration and maintenance of coal grades but also for
Resource planning is the judicious use of limited ensuring correctness regarding the class and size of coal.
resources. It is a complex process that involves These directives are essential for fair production and
‰ Surveying, mapping, and qualitative and quantitative commercial transactions in the coal industry.
estimation and measurement of the resources.
15. Consider the following statements regarding KABIL
‰ Evolving a planning structure endowed with (Khanij Bidesh India Limited):
appropriate technology, skills, and institutional setup
for implementing resource development plans. 1. It is a public sector unit under the Ministry of Coal.
‰ Matching the resource development plans with the 2. It is empowered to acquire overseas mineral mines of
overall national development plans. rare earth elements.
India has made concerted efforts to achieve the goals Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
of resource planning right from the First Five Year Plan (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
launched after Independence. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 or 2
14. Consider the following statements with regard to the Ans: (b)
Coal Controller Organisation (CCO): Statement 1 is incorrect: To ensure the mineral security
1. The CCO primarily oversees the quality surveillance of the nation and to attain self-reliance in the area of
and regulation of coal production across both public critical and strategic minerals, the Ministry of Mines has
and private coal mines in the country. created a Joint Venture company, namely Khanij Bidesh
2. CCO issues directives only for the declaration and India Ltd (KABIL), with participating interests of NALCO,
maintenance of coal grades. HCL and MECL.

Resources and Land Use 193

 Statement 2 is correct: KABIL is mandated to identify ‰ Statement 2 is correct: Jharkhand holds the largest
and acquire overseas mineral assets of a critical and coal reserves in India, while Odisha possesses the
strategic nature, such as Lithium, Cobalt etc. KABIL has second-largest.
signed a detailed MoU with a collaborative framework ‰ Statement 3 is incorrect: Jharia, located in Jharkhand,
with the Critical Minerals Facilitation Office under the stands as the largest coal field, with Raniganj in West
Department of Industry, Science, Energy and Resources Bengal following closely.
(DISER) to identify lithium and cobalt mineral assets for ‰ Statement 4 is correct: India ranks fifth in terms
final joint investment decisions and acquisition of the of coal deposits and second in coal production. Its
assets in Australia. cumulative coal reserves amount to 319.02 billion
tonnes, with an additional 36 billion tonnes of lignite.
16. Consider the following statements regarding the
Mineral Reserves in India: 18. Consider the following minerals:
1. Odisha is the largest producer of manganese in India, 1. Bentonite 2. Brick Earth
accounting for more than 25% of the country’s total 3. Gravel 4. Chromite
reserves. In India, which of the above is/are officially designated as
2. Madhya Pradesh is the largest producer of diamonds minor minerals?
in India, accounting for more than 75% of the total (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 4 only
diamond resource for our country. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
3. Gevra mine of India is the the largest open-cast mine
Ans: (a)
of the wolrd.
The mining and quarrying sector is categorized into two
How many of the statements given above are correct? main groups: Major Minerals and Minor Minerals. Major
(a) Only one (b) Only two minerals include fuel minerals such as coal, lignite,
(c) All three (d) None petroleum, natural gas, and other significant minerals.
Minor minerals consist of materials such as marble,
Ans: (b)
slate, shale etc.
Statement 1 is correct: Odisha is the largest producer of
‰ Bentonite, Brick Earth and Gravel are minor minerals.
manganese in India, accounting for 44% of the country’s
‰ Chromite, Kyanite and Bauxite are major minerals.
total reserves as of February 2022. Karnataka is the
second largest producer with 22% of reserves, followed 19. “This pipeline runs through the states of Gujarat,
by Madhya Pradesh with 12%, and Maharashtra and Goa Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh. It is India’s first
with 7% each. cross state gas pipeline. It has been constructed by the
Statement 2 is correct: In 2015, India’s total diamond Gas Authority of India Limited and is 1750 kilometres
reserves and resources were 31.83 million carats, long. It connects the Bombay High with Northern India.”
with Madhya Pradesh accounting for 90.18% of those Which of the following pipelines in India is best described
resources. Andhra Pradesh and Chhattisgarh account for by the above excerpt?
5.72% and 4.09% of the resources, respectively. (a) Salaya-Koyali-Mathura Pipeline
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Gevra coal mine is an open-
(b) Kandla-Bhatinda Pipeline
cast mine complex in Korba, Chhattisgarh, India. It’s the
largest open-cast mine in India and is set to become Asia’s (c) Jamnagar-Loni LPG Pipeline
largest mine. The Bingham Canyon copper mine in Utah (d) Hajira-Bijapur-Jagdishpur Gas Pipeline
(USA) is the world’s largest human-made excavation and Ans: (d)
the deepest open-pit mine. Pipelines are used extensively to transport liquids and
17. Consider the following statements regarding Coal gases such as water, petroleum and natural gas for an
Reserves in India: uninterrupted flow. Water supplied through pipelines
1. Tertiary formations make up the most of total reserves is familiar to all. Cooking gas or LPG is supplied through
in India. pipelines in many parts of the world. Pipelines can also be
2. Odisha has the largest reserves of coal in India. used to transport liquidified coal. In New Zealand, milk is
3. Raniganj is the largest coalfield in the country. being supplied through pipelines from farms to factories.
4. India is the Second largest coal producer in the world Hajira-Bijapur-Jagdishpur Gas Pipeline (HVJ Pipeline)
How many of the statements given above are correct? project was started in 1986 after the incorporation of
GAIL (India) Limited to supply gas to the fertilizer plants
(a) Only one (b) Only two
located in the state of Uttar Pradesh. HVJ is India’s
(c) Only three (d) All four first cross state gas pipeline. The pipeline is part of the
Ans: (b) Hazira-Vijaipur-Jagdishpur & Gas Rehabilitation and
‰ Statement 1 is incorrect: The older Gondwana Expansion Project & Dahej-Vijaipur Pipeline Network
formations found in the peninsular plateau account (HVJ-GREP-I-DVPL-I) and Dahej-Vijaipur-Vijaipur-Dadri
for 98% of India’s total reserves. Upgradation (DVPL-II-GREP II) which constitutes a

194 Human and Economic Geography

 5502.46 km long pipeline network. The first phase of the ‰ Odisha Block: The inferred value is 3,908 tonnes
project consisting of a non-branched 1,750-kilometer of nickel metal content or 2.05 million tonnes of
grid was commissioned in 1987. Later on, the system nickel ore. The only block with copper reserves is the
was expanded with additional branches to supply gas for Odisha block.
industrial and domestic use in the states of Rajasthan,
21. Consider the following pairs regarding the Mineral
Haryana and NCT, which increased the total grid length
Distribution of the world:
to 3,474 km.
Region Country
1. Ruhr Germany
2. Pittsburgh USA
3. Sheffield France
4. Donetsk Ukraine
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one (B) Only two
(C) Only three (D) All four
Ans: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: The Ruhr region is responsible for
80 percent of Germany’s total steel production.
Statement 2 is correct: Pittsburgh, once a prominent
hub, is now facing decline, earning it the moniker “rust
bowl” of the USA.
‰ In the United States, significant production occurs
in the northern Appalachian region (Pittsburgh), the
Great Lakes region (Chicago-Gary, Erie, Cleveland,
20. In the context of critical minerals often seen in the Lorain, Buffalo, and Duluth), and along the Atlantic
news, which one of the following can be classified as Coast (Sparrows Point and Morrisville), with a
Critical Minerals? growing presence in southern states like Alabama.
(a) Iron (b) Zinc Statement 3 is incorrect: In Europe, major steel producers
(c) Silver (d) Cobalt include the United Kingdom, Germany, France, Belgium,
Luxembourg, the Netherlands, and Russia.
Ans: (d)
‰ Key steel centers in Europe include Birmingham and
About Critical Minerals Sheffield in the UK, Duisburg, Dortmund, Dusseldorf, and
‰ These minerals are necessary for national security, Essen in Germany, Le Creusot and St. Etienne in France,
economic growth, and renewable energy. Statement 4 is correct: Moscow, St. Petersburg, Lipetsk,
‰ The development of numerous industries, such and Tula in Russia, as well as Krivoi Rog and Donetsk in
as high-tech electronics, telecommunications, Ukraine are major steel producing centres.
transportation, and defence, depends on these. 22. Consider the following pairs:
‰ The Expert Committee under the Ministry of Mines
has identified a set of 30 critical minerals for India. Name of Mineral Usage
‰ These are Antimony, Beryllium, Bismuth, Cobalt, 1. Mica Electrical instruments
Copper, Gallium, Germanium, Graphite, Hafnium, 2. Quartz Radio or radar
Indium, Lithium, Molybdenum, Niobium, Nickel, 3. Amphibole Asbestos industry
PGE, Phosphorous, Potash, REE, Rhenium, Silicon,
Strontium, Tantalum, Tellurium, Tin, Titanium, How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Tungsten, Vanadium, Zirconium, Selenium, and (a) Only one (b) Only two
Cadmium. (c) All three (d) None
Reserves of some of the Critical Minerals Ans: (c)
‰ Lithium Reserve: J&K and Chhattisgarh’s lithium Pair 1 is correct: Mica, a naturally found non-metallic
reserves are being auctioned out for a CL. mineral comprised of silicates, serves as an excellent
‰ J&K Block: This block has an estimated resource of insulator, finding diverse applications in the electrical
5.9 million metric tonnes (mt) of bauxite column, and electronics sectors. With its ability to endure high
which includes more than 70,000 tonnes of titanium voltage and minimal power loss, it’s highly sought after.
metal and 3,400 tonnes of lithium metal. Additionally, mica is utilized in toothpaste and cosmetics.

Resources and Land Use 195

 India stands out as a key global supplier of mica, with its low power loss factor, is particularly notable. These
mica-bearing igneous formations located in regions such characteristics make it an indispensable component in
as Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, Maharashtra, and numerous electronic devices, safeguarding them from
Rajasthan. electrical failures and enhancing their efficiency.
Pair 2 is correct: Quartz is one of the most important Statement 2 is incorrect: India’s production of mica
components of sand and granite. It consists of silica. It is was estimated to be 16,000 metric tons in 2022. China
a hard mineral virtually insoluble in water. It is white or was the largest mica producer in the world that year,
colourless and used in radio and radar. producing about 100,000 metric tons of mica.
Pair 3 is correct: Aluminium, calcium, silicon, iron, 25. Consider the following statements with reference to the
magnesium are the major elements of amphiboles. distribution of mineral resources in India:
It is green or black in color and is used in the asbestos 1. Most of the metallic minerals in India occur in the
industry. Hornblende is another form of amphibole. peninsular plateau region in the old crystalline rocks.
23. Puga and Chumathang are important locations 2. Most of the coal reserves of India occur in the valleys
associated with : of Narmada.
3. Petroleum reserves are located in the sedimentary
(a) Development of Solar Energy. basins of Assam, Gujarat and Mumbai High.
(b) Favorable conditions for Wind Energy. How many of the above statements are correct?
(c) Geothermal fields along with the presence of hot (a) Only one (b) Only two
springs and geysers. (c) All three (d) None
(d) Nuclear power generation.
Ans: (b)
Ans: (c) Statement 1 is correct: Most of the metallic minerals in
When the magma from the interior of the earth, comes India occur in the peninsular plateau region in the old
out on the surface, tremendous heat is released. This crystalline rocks.
heat energy can successfully be tapped and converted ‰ Metallic minerals are the sources of metals. Iron ore,
to electrical energy. Apart from this, the hot water that copper, gold produce metal and are included in this
gushes out through the geyser wells is also used in the category.
generation of thermal energy. It is popularly known as
‰ Metallic minerals are further divided into ferrous
Geothermal energy. This energy is now considered to be
and non-ferrous metallic minerals.
one of the key energy sources which can be developed
• All those minerals which have iron content are
as an alternate source. The hot springs and geysers
ferrous such as iron ore itself and those which
have been used since the medieval period. In India, a
do not have iron content are non-ferrous such as
geothermal energy plant has been commissioned at
copper, bauxite, etc.
Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Over 97 per cent of coal reserves
Puga and Chumathang are deemed the most promising
occur in the valleys of Damodar, Sone, Mahanadi and
geothermal fields in India. These areas were discovered
Godavari.
in the 1970s, and initial exploratory efforts were made in
the 1980s by the Geological Survey of India (GSI). Hence Statement 3 is correct: Petroleum reserves are located in
option (c) is the correct. In these important locations the sedimentary basins of Assam, Gujarat and Mumbai
of Ladakh, the geothermal power plant would soon be High i.e., off-shore region in the Arabian Sea. New
reserves have been located in the Krishna-Godavari and
developed which would be the first geothermal power
Kaveri basins.
plant for Ladakh. The energy would be tapped from the
natural geysers dotting the areas of Puga. PW Only IAS Extra Edge
24. Consider the following statements regarding Mica: Distribution of coal in India
1. Mica is primarily used in the electrical and electronics ‰ Gondwana Coal Fields
industries because of its low power loss factor and • Located in Damodar Valley (Jharkhand-Bengal
distinctive insulating properties. coal belt).
2. India was the world’s largest producer of mica in 2022. • Coal fields: Raniganj, Jharia, Bokaro, Giridih,
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Karanpura.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only • Other river valleys associated with coal are
Godavari, Mahanadi and Sone.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
• Important coal mining centres: Singrauli in
Ans: (a) Madhya Pradesh (part of Singrauli coal field lies
Statement 1 is correct: Mica is highly valued in the in Uttar Pradesh); Korba in Chhattisgarh; Talcher
electrical and electronics sectors due to its distinctive and Rampur in Odisha; Chanda–Wardha, Kamptee
insulating properties. The mineral’s capacity to endure and Bander in Maharashtra and Singareni in
high voltages without significant energy loss, known as Telangana and Pandur in Andhra Pradesh.

196 Human and Economic Geography

 ‰ Tertiary Coals Statement 3 is incorrect: India does have lithium reserves.
• Tertiary coals occur in Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, The prime lithium reserves in India are concentrated in
Meghalaya and Nagaland. It is extracted from the states of Karnataka, Rajasthan, and Jharkhand. In 2021
Darangiri, Cherrapunji, Mewlong and Langrin and 2022, the Geological Survey of India (GSI) estimated
(Meghalaya); Makum, Jaipur and Nazira in 5.9 million tons of lithium ore in the Salal-Haimana areas
upper Assam, Namchik – Namphuk (Arunachal of Reasi district in Jammu and Kashmir as well.
Pradesh) and Kalakot (Jammu and Kashmir).
28. Consider the following statements regarding Gypsum:
‰ Lignite (Brown Coal) Areas: Coastal regions of Tamil
1. Gypsum is used in making Plaster of Paris, tiles, and
Nadu, Pudducherry, Gujarat, Jammu and Kashmir.
plastics.
26. Consider the following statements regarding Mines and 2. Rajasthan contributes to about 35% of the total
Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957: production of gypsum in India.
1. Sand is considered as a major mineral. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2. The Central Government is responsible for identifying
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
minor minerals and managing policies and legislation
related to major minerals. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Legislations related ot the minor minerals solely rest Ans: (a)
with the authority of state government. Statement 1 is correct: Gypsum is indeed used in
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? various industries including the production of plaster
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only of Paris, tiles, and plastics, among other applications.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 only Its versatile nature makes it an essential mineral for many
manufacturing processes.
Ans: (b)
Statement 1 is incorrect: According to the Mines and Statement 2 is incorrect: Rajasthan is not just a major
Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 contributor, but it dominates the gypsum production in
(MMDR Act), sand is classified as a minor mineral. India. The state is responsible for a staggering approx 90%
Statement 2 and Statement 3 is correct: The Act gives of the country’s total gypsum production. Key regions
State Governments the authority to establish regulations in Rajasthan such as Jodhpur, Nagaur, and Bikaner are
to prevent illegal mining, transportation, and storage of home to the main deposits of this mineral.
minor minerals. The responsibility for formulating policies 29. With reference to minerals found on Earth, which of the
and legislation concerning minor minerals solely rests with following statements are correct?
the state governments, whereas the Central Government (a) The elements on the earth’s crust are primarily found
is responsible for identifying minor minerals and managing in their original form.
policies and legislation related to major minerals. (b) Single-element minerals are not found on the Earth.
27. With reference to the distribution of lithium reserves (c) Hot magma in the earth’s interior is the primary source
around the world, consider the following statements: of all minerals.
1. Australia is the world’s largest producer of lithium. (d) Minerals lack definite physical and chemical properties.
2. The lithium triangle in South America has more than Ans: (c)
half of the world’s total identified lithium reserves. Option (a) is incorrect: Rarely do the elements present
3. Currently there is no presence of Lithium reserves in India. in the earth’s crust occur alone; instead, they are
Which of the statement/s given above is/ are correct? frequently mixed with other elements to form a variety
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only of compounds and minerals.
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only Option (b) is incorrect: A mineral is composed of two or
more elements. But, sometimes single-element minerals
Ans: (c)
like sulphur, copper, silver, gold, graphite, etc. are also
Lithium is a key component of the batteries used in
found.
electric cars. Lithium is also called as white gold.
Statement 1 is correct: In 2023, Australia was the world Option (c) is correct: The basic source of all minerals is
leader in terms of lithium mine production, with an the hot magma in the interior of the earth. When magma
estimated output of 86,000 metric tons. Chile and China cools, crystals of minerals appear, and a systematic series
ranked second and third, with lithium production totaling of minerals are formed. Minerals such as coal, petroleum
44,000 and 33,000 metric tons, respectively. and natural gas are organic substances found in solid,
Statement 2 is correct: The South American Lithium triangle liquid, and gaseous forms, respectively.
spanning Bolivia, Chile, and Argentina has the largest Option (d) is incorrect: A mineral is a naturally occurring
estimated resources. According to the US Geological Survey organic and inorganic substance, having an orderly
(USGS), about 56 per cent of the world’s identified lithium atomic structure and a definite chemical composition
resources are found in the South American triangle. and physical properties.

Resources and Land Use 197

 30. Which one of the following statements is incorrect with Which of the above pairs is correctly matched?
respect to monazite deposits? (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(a) It is translucent and rarely seen in large grains or as (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
well-formed crystals.
Ans: (c)
(b) It usually occurs in small isolated grains as an
Statement 1 is correct: The Talcher coal mines constitute
accessory mineral in igneous and metamorphic rocks
a network of mines in Angul, Odisha and another
(c) It is the main source for obtaining thorium. significant coal mine in Odisha is Rampur.
(d) It is found in Kerala and Tamil Nadu only. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Korba coal mines in
Ans: (d) Chhattisgarh, not in Jharkhand.
Option (a) is correct: Monazite is a yellowish brown to Statement 3 is correct: Neyveli is a township known
reddish brown or greenish brown mineral with a resinous for mining and power generation located in Cuddalore
to vitreous lustre. It is translucent and rarely seen in large district of Tamil Nadu.
grains or as well-formed crystals. Statement 4 is incorrect: Tertiary coals are found in
Option (b) is correct: Monazite is a rare phosphate Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, and Nagaland.
mineral. It usually occurs in small isolated grains, as an The Namphuk coal mines, situated in Changlang district,
accessory mineral in igneous and metamorphic rocks are the sole coal mines in Arunachal Pradesh.
such as granite, pegmatite, schist, and gneiss.
32. Consider the following statements with reference to
Option (c) is correct: Thorium is mainly obtained from
Coal Bed Methane:
monazite and ilmenite in the beach sands along the coast
of Kerala and Tamil Nadu. 1. It is an important source of natural gas.
Option (d) is incorrect: The world’s richest monazite 2. Its extraction falls under the Ministry of Coal.
deposits occur in the Palakkad and Kollam districts of Which of the statements given above are correct?
Kerala, near Vishakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh, and in (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
the Mahanadi river delta in Odisha. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Assam
Meghalaya Statement 1 is correct: Substantial amounts of methane
Jharkhand are contained within coal seams, with a notable portion
West Bengal existing as free gas within the joints and fractures of
these seams. This resource is increasingly recognized
Chhattisgarh as a vital source of natural gas. Unlike conventional
Orissa
reservoirs, Coal Bed Methane (CBM) typically contains
minimal heavier hydrocarbons like propane or butane.
Statement 2 is incorrect: India, possessing vast proven
coal reserves and ranking among the world’s top coal
producers, presents considerable opportunities for the
Monazite
commercial extraction of coalbed methane (CBM). The
Extract: Thorium and uranium Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas oversees CBM
extraction, while coal mining operations are under the
Xenotime jurisdiction of the Ministry of Coal.
Extract: Dysprosium
Tamil Nadu 33. Consider the following:
Bastnasite
Kerala Extract: Cerium 1. Meghalaya 2. Arunachal Pradesh
3. Nagaland 4. Jammu and Kashmir
In how many of the states given above can tertiary coal
Fig: Monazite deposits in India be found?
31. Consider the following coal mine-state pairs: (a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Only three (d) All four
Places in News Location
1. Talcher Odisha Ans: (d)
Coal is one of the important minerals that is mainly used
2. Korba Jharkhand
in the generation of thermal power and the smelting of
3. Neyveli Tamil Nadu iron ore. Coal occurs in rock sequences mainly of two
4. Namphuk Meghalaya geological ages, namely Gondwana and tertiary deposits.

198 Human and Economic Geography

 Tertiary coals occur in Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Ans: (c)
Meghalaya, and Nagaland. It is extracted from Darangiri, Option (a) is incorrect: Asbestos is a mineral and has
Cherrapunji, Mewlong, and Langrin (Meghalaya); known health hazards, so it is not used in the production
Makum, and Nazira in upper Assam, Namchik – Namphuk of food or as an additive.
(Arunachal Pradesh); and Kalakot (Jammu and Kashmir).
Option (b) is incorrect: Despite its mineral nature,
About 80 percent of the coal deposits in India are of the asbestos is not used in cosmetic products like make-up,
bituminous type and are of non-coking grade. The most creams, or lotions. However, it’s worth noting that there
important Gondwana coal fields in India are located in
have been cases where trace amounts of asbestos were
the Damodar Valley. They lie in the Jharkhand-Bengal
found in talc-based cosmetics, but it was not intentionally
coal belt, and the important coal fields in this region are
added.
Raniganj, Jharia, Bokaro, Giridih, and Karanpura.
Option (c) is correct: Asbestos has historically been
a popular choice for the production of fire-proof cloth
and rope due to its unique combination of properties.
First and foremost, asbestos is highly resistant to heat
and fire, which means fabrics and ropes made from it
can withstand extremely high temperatures without
combusting or degrading. This property alone made it
invaluable for professions and situations that demanded
fire resistance, such as firefighting gear, oven mitts, and
industrial safety wear.
Option (d) is incorrect: Asbestos is known to cause
serious health issues, including mesothelioma and lung
cancer, so it is not used in any medicinal products or
therapies.
36. With reference to Lithium, consider the following
statements:
1. Lithium is the least dense solid metal under standard
conditions.
2. Africa has the largest deposits of lithium.
3. Petalite and Magnetite are important sources of
Fig: Coal fields in India
Lithium.
34. Which among the following countries holds the largest
How many of the statements given above are correct?
oil reserves globally?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(a) Iraq (b) Iran
(c) All three (d) None
(c) Saudi Arabia (d) Venezuela
Ans: (a)
Ans: (d)
Statement 1 is correct: Under standard conditions,
Venezuela - 303.806 Billion Barrels, holds the largest oil
reserves globally, with over 300 billion barrels mainly Lithium is the least dense metal and the least dense solid
located in the Orinoco Belt at the southern end of the element. Lithium is a chemical element; it has symbol
eastern Orinoco River Basin. Li and atomic number 3.It is a soft, silvery-white alkali
Saudi Arabia holds the 2nd largest crude oil reserves of metal. Like all alkali metals, lithium is highly reactive
267.19 billion barrels. and flammable, and must be stored in vacuum, inert
atmosphere, or inert liquid such as purified kerosene or
Iran has the world’s 3rd largest crude oil reserves of
208.16 billion barrels. It constitutes about 16% of global mineral oil. It exhibits a metallic luster.It corrodes quickly
proven reserves. in air to a dull silvery gray, then black tarnish.It does not
occur freely in nature, but occurs mainly as pegmatitic
35. For which purpose or application has asbestos
minerals, which were once the main source of lithium.
traditionally been most predominantly utilised in
Due to its solubility as an ion, it is present in ocean water
industries and commercial settings?
and is commonly obtained from brines. Lithium metal is
(a) Food Additive (b) Cosmetic Products isolated electrolytically from a mixture of lithium chloride
(c) Fire-proof cloth (d) Medicines and potassium chloride.

Resources and Land Use 199

 Ans: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: Atomic energy can be produced
by fission or fusion of the atoms or rather the nuclear
parts of radio-active minerals like uranium thorium and
radium. India possesses the world’s largest reserves of
monazite, the principal source of thorium, and some
reserves of uranium.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The production of uranium is
at the mines at Jaduguda in the Singhbhum district of
Jharkhand. Soon, India’s biggest uranium mine will come
up in the Kadapa district of Andhra Pradesh where 6,000
tonnes of uranium will be produced every day.
38. Consider the following :
1. Manganese 2. Pig Iron
3. Scrap Steel 4. Bauxite
5. Chromium
Which of the above raw materials are part of the steel
production process?
Statement 2 is incorrect: Bolivia – 21 million tonnes; (a) 1, 2 and 3 Only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 Only
Argentina – 20 million tonnes; Chile – 11 million tonnes; (c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 Only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
United States – 12 million tonnes; Australia – 6.9million Ans: (b)
tonnes; China – 6.8 million tonnes. So, South America Iron and steel is a heavy industry. In the production
has the largest deposits. process, the raw materials needed as well as
finished goods, are heavy and bulky, requiring heavy
transportation costs.
Raw materials used in the steel production process are:
‰ Iron ore, coking coal and limestone are required in a
ratio of approximately 4: 2: 1.
‰ Point 1 is correct: Manganese is required to harden
the steel.
‰ Point 2 is correct: Pig iron is converted to steel by
Bessemer process and basic oxygen furnace. In the
process the carbon is removed from Iron.
‰ Point 3 is correct: Steel production using scrap as the
primary raw material helps to conserve vital natural
Statement 3 is incorrect: Magnetite is the ore of iron. resources. According to the steel scrap recycling
Ores of lithium are- policy of Ministry of Steel, each tonne of scrap saves
1.1 tonne of iron ore. It cuts water consumption and
‰ Petalite (LiAl (Si2O5)2; GHG emissions by 40% and 58%, respectively.
‰ Lepidolite K (Li, Al)3(Al, Si, Rb)4O10(F, OH)2; ‰ Point 4 is incorrect: Bauxite is a raw material used
‰ Spodumene LiAl (SiO3)2; during the aluminium smelting process, it is not
‰ Subsurface brines
needed for the production of steel.
‰ Point 5 is correct: Chromium is critical in the
37. Consider the following statements with reference to manufacturing of stainless steel. Most stainless steel
atomic minerals: contains about 18 percent chromium; it is what
1. India possesses the world’s largest monazite reserves hardens and toughens steel and increases its resistance
which is the principal source of thorium. to corrosion, especially at high temperatures.
2. The production of Uranium is confined to the mines 39. Consider the following statements with reference to Mica:
of Kadapa district of Andhra Pradesh 1. Mica can be found in all three major rock varieties-
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? igneous, sedimentary and metamorphic.
2. Kodarma district of Jharkhand is famous worldwide
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
for mica.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. India has the largest reserves of mica in the world.

200 Human and Economic Geography

 Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? ‰ Gypsum, limestone and dolomite are found in the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only Himalayan region.
‰ Mica, copper, graphite and limestone are found in
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) All of the above
the states of Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra
Ans: (d) Pradesh.
Statement 1 is correct: Mica is a non- metallic mineral. 41. Consider the following statements about the Spatial
Mica, any of a group of hydrous potassium, aluminum distribution of Major Minerals in India :
silicate minerals. It is a type of phyllosilicate, exhibiting
1. The North-western region, extending from the
a two-dimensional sheet or layer structure. Among the
Gulf of Khambhat in Gujarat to the Aravalli range
principal rock-forming minerals, micas are found in all
in Rajasthan, is poor in petroleum and natural gas
three major rock varieties-igneous, sedimentary, and
reserves.
metamorphic.
2. Tertiary coal is found in the South-western plateaus
Statement 2 is correct: The Kodarma district of Jharkhand
of India
state is famous worldwide for mica mining, especially for
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
ruby mica. The district had the monopoly in producing
mica for years, and it was exported to many countries (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
worldwide. Mica is also found in the areas of Dhab, (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Dhodhakola,Khalagthambi, Dibour, Bandarchua, etc. Ans: (c)
‰ Major Producers in India: Jharkhand, Odisha Statement 1 is incorrect: The North-Western belt of
(Kodarma - the world’s largest), Bihar (Munger), India extends from the Gulf of Khambhat in Gujarat to
Andhra Pradesh (best quality in Nellore district), the Aravalli range in Rajasthan. Petroleum and natural
Telangana, Rajasthan (Jaipur to Bhilwara, around gas are the principal resources in this belt. Deposits of
Udaipur), Karnataka (Mysore, Hasan districts), other minerals are small and scattered. However, it is
Tamil Nadu (Coimbatore, Tiruchirapalli, Madurai, known for its reserves and production of several non-
Kanyakumari), Kerala (Alleppey), West Bengal ferrous metals, particularly copper, silver, lead, and Zinc.
(Purulia, Bankura) and Madhya Pradesh(Balaghat). Statement 2 is incorrect: Tertiary coal occurs in Assam,
Statement 3 is Correct: India is recognised to have Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, and Nagaland. It is
largest Mica reserves . Andhra Pradesh leads with 41% extracted from Darangiri, Cherrapunji, Mewlong, and
share in country’s total resources followed by Rajasthan Langrin (Meghalaya); Makum, Jaipur, and Nazira in
(28%), Odisha (17%), Maharashtra (13%), Bihar (2%) and upper Assam, Namchik – Namphuk (Arunachal Pradesh);
a small quantity of resources is found in Jharkhand and and Kalakot (Jammu and Kashmir). The South-Western
Telangana. plateau region of India extends over the Karnataka
plateau and adjoining Tamil Nadu plateau and is rich in
PW Only IAS Extra Edge metallic minerals, particularly iron ore, manganese, and
‰ Mica is a naturally occurring non-metallic mineral bauxite, as well as some non-metallic minerals.
that is based on a collection of silicates. 42. With reference to mining in India, consider the following
‰ Nature: Natural, non-metallic mineral; silicate- mines:
based.
1. Malanjkhand Mine 2. Banwas Mine
40. Which of the following minerals are prominently found 3. Kendadih Mine
in the Indian Ocean? Which of the following minerals are associated with
(a) Gypsum, Limestone, and Dolomite these mines?
(b) Mica, Copper and Graphite (a) Mica (b) Copper
(c) Monazite, Limonite and Mineral oil (c) Lead (d) Aluminum
(d) Manganese, Lead and Zinc Ans: (b)
Ans: (c) Copper is an indispensable metal in the electrical
‰ One of the mineral belts of India is the Indian ocean. industry for making wires, electric motors, transformers
The continental shelf of the Arabian Sea and the Bay and generators. It is mixed with gold to provide strength
of Bengal are rich in mineral oil and natural gas. The to jewellery.
Minerals are found at a depth of about 4000 metres. The Copper deposits mainly occur in Singhbhum district
‰ The Indian ocean contains high grade nodules of in Jharkhand, Balaghat district in Madhya Pradesh and
manganese, phos-phate, barium, aluminium, silicon, Jhunjhunu and Alwar districts in Rajasthan.
iron, titanium, sodium, potassium, chromium, ‰ The Malanjkhand Mine is a copper mine located in
monazite, limonite, magnetite, and garnet. Hence, Madhya Pradesh. It is owned by Hindustan Copper
Option C is the correct answer. Limited.

Resources and Land Use 201

 ‰ The Banwas Mine is a copper mine located in nations, including Estonia, China, and Brazil, continue to
Rajasthan. It is owned by Hindustan Copper Limited. rely on oil shale for fuel. It is burned to generate electricity.
‰ The Kendadih Mine is an underground Copper mine 44. Consider the following statement regarding the
located in Jharkhand. It is owned by Hindustan Copper distribution of minerals in India:
Limited.
1. Himalayan region is rich in metallic and non-metallic
PW Only IAS Extra Edge minerals.
‰ Aluminium is primarily extracted from bauxite, a 2. China clay, Dolomite and Ilmenite are not found in
clay-like substance formed by the decomposition Chotanagpur belts of India.
of rocks rich in aluminium silicates. This metal
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
combines the strength of iron with extreme
lightness, good conductivity, and great malleability. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
In India, significant bauxite deposits are located (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
in the Amarkantak plateau, Maikal hills, and the
Ans: (d)
Bilaspur-Katni plateau region. Odisha was the
largest bauxite-producing state in India during A mineral is an aggregate of two or more than two
2016-17, with the Panchpatmali deposits in Koraput elements. It has a definite chemical composition, atomic
district being the most important in the state. structure and is formed by inorganic processes. Minerals
‰ Lead is a heavy metal used in various applications, occur in the earth’s crust in the form of ore.
including batteries, radiation shielding, and ‰ The mineral wealth of India is dominated by the
soldering. Rajasthan is the sole producer of lead
igneous and metamorphic rocks of Peninsular India,
& zinc ores, selenite and wollastonite. The Zawar
whereas the Great Plains of India and the Himalayan
area (Udaipur) of Rajasthan is famous for the
production of Lead. region are almost devoid of the metallic minerals.
States like Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Orissa and Bihar
43. With reference to Oil Shale, consider the following are rich in both metallic and nonmetallic minerals.
statements: Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
1. It is a type of sedimentary rock which is rich in kerogen. ‰ The Chotanagpur belt stretches over Jharkhand,
2. Shale oil is extracted from kerogen by using the Chhattisgarh, Orissa, Bihar and West Bengal. The
pyrolysis process. region is rich in coal, mica, manganese, chromite,
3. It is found in China, Israel and Brazil. ilmenite, bauxite, iron, uranium phosphate, copper,
dolomite, china-clay, and limestone. Hence,
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 2 is incorrect.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
45. Consider the following statements:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
1. Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds.
Ans: (d)
2. Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.
Statement 1 is correct: Oil shale is a type of sedimentary
3. Dharwars are famous for petroleum.
rock that is rich in kerogen. Kerogen is a part of rock that
breaks down and releases hydrocarbons when heated. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Hydrocarbons are substances made entirely of hydrogen (a) Only one (b) Only two
and carbon. Petroleum and natural gas are the most (c) All three (d) None
familiar hydrocarbons. Ans: (a)
Statement 2 is correct: Oil shale is the rock from which Statement 1 is incorrect: Gondwana beds have coal and
shale oil is extracted. Obtaining shale oil from oil shale not natural gas. The Gondwana coal is mainly bituminous
involves heating kerogen in a process called pyrolysis. or anthracite in which the carbon content varies between
Pyrolysis is a form of heating without the use of oxygen. 60 to 90 per cent. The estimated reserves of natural gas
Extracting and processing shale oil is an expensive and in India is about 1,339.57 billion cubic meters (BCM). The
difficult process. Coal, petroleum, and natural gas are largest reserves of natural gas are located in the Eastern
less expensive to extract. Offshore (38.13%) and the Western Offshore (23.33%).
Statement 3 is correct: Oil shale is found all over the Statement 2 is correct: Koderma is one of the districts
world, including China, Israel, and Russia. The United of Jharkhand which is blessed with abundant natural
States, however, has the most shale resources. Australia, resources and rich mineral deposits throughout the
Brazil, Switzerland, Sweden, Spain, and South Africa began district. It is well known for rich mica deposits and is also
mining oil shale in the 19th and 20th centuries. Many called as Abharkh Nagari.

202 Human and Economic Geography

 Statement 3 is incorrect: Dharwar rocks are non- Statement 3 is incorrect: Geothermal energy refers to
fossiliferous, rather they are metalliferous. They bear the heat and electricity produced by using the heat from
out gold, iron ore, manganese mica, cobalt, chromium, the interior of the Earth. There are several hundred hot
copper, tungsten, lead, nickel, precious stones and springs in India; two experimental projects have been
budding stones. The largest reserves of crude oil are commissioned at Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh and in
found in the Western Offshore (Mumbai High,Krishna- the Puga Valley, Ladakh.
Godavari Basin) (40%), and Assam (27%).
48. Consider the following statements regarding Uranium
46. With reference to minerals, consider the following and Thorium deposits in India:
statements:
1. The world’s largest thorium reserves are found in
1. In Igneous rocks, minerals may occur in cracks, India.
crevices, faults, or joints. 2. Kazakhstan has the largest Uranium reserves in the
2. In Sedimentary rocks, minerals form due to deposition, world.
accumulation, and concentration in horizontal strata.
3. Both Uranium and Thorium are fissile substances and
3. The evaporation has led to concentration of gypsum can be used directly in nuclear reactors.
in arid regions.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) All three (d) None
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Ans: (d)
Statement 1 is correct: World’s largest thorium reserves
Statement 1 is correct: In Igneous rocks, minerals are
in the form of monazite are found in India on the coast
formed when minerals in liquid/ molten, and gaseous
of Kerala. The country’s thorium reserves make up 25
forms are forced upward through cavities towards
per cent of the global reserves. India’s thorium deposits,
the earth’s surface. They cool and solidify as they rise.
estimated at 360,000 tonnes, far outweigh its natural
They may occur in cracks, crevices, faults, or joints. The
smaller occurrences are called veins and the larger ones uranium deposits at 70,000 tonnes. It can easily be used
are called lodes. as a fuel to cut down on the import of Uranium from
Statement 2 is correct: In Sedimentary rocks, a number different countries.
of minerals occur in beds or layers. They have been Statement 2 is incorrect: Australia possesses around
formed as a result of deposition, accumulation, and 30% of the world’s known recoverable uranium
concentration in horizontal strata. reserves. Kazakhstan contains about 13% of the world’s
Statement 3 is correct: Coal and some forms of iron recoverable uranium, with 50 known deposits and
ore have been concentrated as a result of long periods around 20 operating uranium mines.
under tremendous heat and pressure. Another group of Statement 3 is incorrect: Much like uranium, thorium
sedimentary minerals includes gypsum, potash salt, and is also a fertile substance, but not a fissile substance
sodium salt. These are formed as a result of evaporation, by itself. It requires work to make it usable in a nuclear
especially in arid regions. reactor.
47. Consider the following statements: The process through which Thorium can be made usable
1. Sunderban regions of West Bengal provide ideal in the reactor is a three-stage process. It starts with using
conditions for utilising tidal energy. Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors (PHWR) and light
2. The eastern part of India has greater potential for the water reactors to convert natural uranium to plutonium.
development of solar energy. Next, the neutrons from plutonium breed U-233 from
Thorium. The final stage, Advanced Heavy Water reactors
3. India does not have a suitable location to harness
burn U-233 with Thorium.
geothermal energy.
Which of the statements given above are correct? 49. Tummalapalli, Kanampalli and Jaduguda mines are
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only famous for
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) All of the above (a) Copper (b) Aluminum
Ans: (a) (c) Meganitie iron (d) Uranium
Statement 1 is correct: The Gulf of Khambhat, the Gulf Ans: (d)
of Kachchh in Gujarat on the western coast and the Uranium is a silvery-gray metallic radioactive chemical
Gangetic Delta in the Sunderban regions of West Bengal element. It is only naturally formed in supernova
provide ideal conditions for utilising tidal energy. explosions. Largest viable deposits are found in Australia,
Statement 2 is incorrect: The western part of India has Kazakhstan, and Canada.India has no significant reserves
greater potential for the development of solar energy in of Uranium.
Gujarat and Rajasthan. Some Uranium mines are,

Resources and Land Use 203

 DOMIASIAT Mahadek basin
Wahkhyn
Mawsynram in Meghalaya

DELHI
Aravallis in
Rajasthan

KOLKATA
Operating mines New mines
Shinghbum Trust Belt JADUGUDA BAGJAT
in Jharkhand BHATIN BANDUHURANG
MUMBAI NARWAPAHAR MOHULDIH
TURAMDIH
Bhima basin Chattisgarh basin
in Karnataka Kuppunuru
LAMBAPUR-
PEDDAGATTU Cuddapah basin
Chitrial in Andhra Pradesh
Tummalapalle
CHENNAI Rachakuntapalli

Major Uranium Provinces of India

Tummalapalli, Kanampalli, and Jaduguda mines are 1. An increase in the temperature of water due to
famous for uranium mining. the release of hot water in aquatic ecosystems is
‰ Jaduguda (located in Jharkhand) is one of India’s considered water pollution.
most important uranium mining sites. 2. Pollution of water bodies by cadmium poisoning
‰ Tummalapalli and Kanampalli (located in Andhra causes Minamata disease in humans.
Pradesh) are also significant uranium-producing 3. Skin cancer may be caused due to arsenic-
mines in India. contaminated water.
50. Which of the following iron ore has the minimum How many of the above statements are correct?
amount of iron content? (a) Only one (b) Only two
(a) Magnetite (b) Haematite (c) All three (d) None
(c) Siderite (d) Limonite Ans: (b)
Ans: (c) Statement 1 is correct: Discharge of hot water may
Iron ore is classified into various types based on the increase the temperature of the receiving water by 10
amount of ore and iron content: to 15°C above the ambient water temperature. This is
Magnetite (Fe3O4): High-quality ore with approximately thermal pollution. An increase in water temperature
70% iron content. Black in color and exhibits magnetic decreases dissolved oxygen in water which adversely
properties. affects aquatic life.
Haematite (Fe2O3): Reddish ore containing 60-70% iron. Statement 2 is incorrect: Pollution of water bodies by
Limonite: Yellowish ore with 40% to 60% iron content. mercury causes Minamata disease in humans. Minamata
Siderite: Contains less than 40% iron and numerous disease is a chronic neurological disorder caused by
impurities, making mining economically unviable in methylmercury, a heavy metal with many industrial uses.
many places. Statement 3 is correct: Arsenic-polluted water leads to
51. With reference to water resource degradation, consider the accumulation of arsenic in the body parts like blood,
the following statements: nails, and hairs causing skin lesions, rough skin, dry and
thickening of skin, and ultimately skin cancer.

204 Human and Economic Geography

 Human
2 Development and
Population Studies

Objective Questions for Practice

1. Which of the following statements best describes the Statement 2 is incorrect: According to the National
term “Social Capital”? Family Health Survey, there has been a decline of total
(a) Financial investments in communities. fertility in India over decades. Between 1992-93 and
2019-21, the TFR decreased by around 1.4, from 3.4
(b) The value derived from social networks and
children to 2.0 children per woman. Among women in
relationships.
rural areas, fertility rates have declined from 3.7 children
(c) The physical infrastructure of a society. in 1992-93 to 2.1 children in 2019-21. Similarly, among
(d) The level of technological advancement in a community. women in urban areas, the decline in TFR was from 2.7
Ans: (b) children in 1992-93 to 1.6 children in 2019-21.
Social capital is primarily concerned with the networks, Statement 3 is incorrect: Although most of the states
relationships, and norms that facilitate cooperation and have achieved the replacement level or Target for the
coordination among individuals and groups within a total fertility rate, some states, namely Meghalaya (2.91),
community. It encompasses the trust, social connections, Bihar (2.98), Uttar Pradesh (2.35), Jharkhand (2.26),
and shared values that enable people to work together and Manipur (2.17) have not achieved the target for
effectively for mutual benefit. A society with high social replacement level fertility
capital often has strong networks of civic engagement
(such as participation in community organizations),
mutual trust, and a high level of cooperation.
2. With reference to the Total Fertility Rate (TFR), consider
the following statements:
1. It refers to the number of live births per woman
completing her reproductive life if her childbearing at
each age reflects the current age-specific fertility rates.
2. There has been steady growth in Total Fertility Rate
in India over the years.
3. All the states of India have achieved replacement-level
fertility rates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3
Ans: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: Total fertility Rate (TFR) refers
to the number of live births per woman completing her
reproductive life if her childbearing at each age reflects the Fig: Total Fertility Rate in India, 2019
current age-specific fertility rates. It is usually calculated 3. Consider the following statements:
for women, referring to age groups 15-49 years. 1. As per the World Population Review report, the
‰ The concept of replacement level fertility is the level median age in India is more as compared to China.
of fertility at which a population exactly replaces 2. India ranked 105th out of 127 countries in the Global
itself from one generation to the next. The ideal Hunger Index-2024.
figure for replacement-level fertility is taken as 3. According to the National Family Health Survey
requiring an average of 2.1 children per woman. (NFHS-5), the TFR for India stood at 2.0.
 How many of the statements given are correct with meant to indicate that the country was content with
respect to Demography of India? poor growth amidst a period of socialist policies in the
(a) Only one (b) Only two early decades of independent India. The use of the term
has been severely criticized.
(c) All three (d) None
Ans: (b) 6. Consider the following statements:
Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the World Population 1. Quaternary Activities involve the collection, production,
Review report, the median age in India is 28 years, which and dissemination of information.
is much younger than China (38 years), Japan (48 years) 2. Quinary Activities are services that focus on the
& US (38 years). creation, re-arrangement and interpretation of new
Statement 2 is correct: India ranked 105th out of 127 and existing ideas.
countries in the Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2024 with a Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
score of 27.3, highlighting a “serious” hunger crisis driven (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
by ongoing challenges of food insecurity and malnutrition. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 3 is correct: According to the National Family
Ans: (c)
Health Survey (NFHS-5), the TFR for India stood at 2.0.
According to the UN, if TFR of 2.1 is “sustained over a Statement 1 is correct: Quaternary Activities focus on the
sufficiently long period, each generation will exactly replace collection, creation, and distribution of information. They
itself in the absence of migration.” In fact, India’s TFR now revolve around research, innovation, and are considered
stands at what UN terms below replacement fertility. an advanced form of service requiring specialized
knowledge and technical expertise. These activities
4. Which of the following states/UT has the lowest Female encompass highly skilled, knowledge-driven services.
Sex Ratio in India? Statement 2 is correct: Quinary Activities are services that
(a) Pondicherry (b) Sikkim focus on the creation, re-arrangement and interpretation
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Meghalaya of new and existing ideas; data interpretation; and the
use and evaluation of new technologies. Often referred
Ans: (b)
to as ‘gold collar’ professions, they represent another
The Sex Ratio is the ratio of females to males in a
subdivision of the tertiary sector, representing special
population. In India it is measured as no of females per
and highly paid skills of senior business executives,
1000 males. The sex ratio of the above given states are:
government officials, research scientists, financial and
State/UT 2001 2011 legal consultants, etc. Their importance in the structure
Pondicherry 1001 1037 of advanced economies far outweighs their numbers.

Andhra Pradesh 978 993 7. With reference to the tribal population in India as per
Census 2011, consider the following statements:
Meghalaya 972 989 1. Odisha has the largest population of Scheduled Tribes.
Sikkim 875 890 2. Haryana is the only state to have no population of
Scheduled Tribes.
5. Which one of the following best describes the term Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
“Hindu Rate of Growth”? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) The low phase of Indian economic growth rates
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
between independence and 1991 reforms.
(b) The high rate of growth achieved by the Indian Ans: (d)
economy after the reforms in the early 1990s. Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the 2011 census, 10.42
crore Indians are notified as ‘Scheduled Tribes’ (ST), which
(c) The imaginary growth possible if India uses the full
constitute 8.6% of the country’s total population. Madhya
potential of its demographic dividend.
Pradesh has the highest population of Scheduled Tribes as
(d) The projected growth rate if India had never been per Census 2011, followed by Maharashtra and Odisha.
colonised. Statement 2 is incorrect: The states of Punjab, Haryana,
Ans: (a) and the Union Territories of Delhi, Chandigarh, and
Option (a) is correct: The term Hindu rate of growth was Puducherry have no scheduled tribe population. In India,
coined by economist Raj Krishna in 1978. He used it to there are over 730 Scheduled Tribes notified under
denote the around 4 percent growth in GDP from the Article 342 of the Constitution of India.
1950s to the 1980s. The term was used as a polemical 8. Which one of the following is responsible for conducting
device intended to draw attention to the meager 3.5 the Census in India?
percent growth rate experienced by India over the long (a) National Sample Survey Office
run. The fact that this rate of growth remained steady
through changes in governments, wars, famines, and (b) Chief Economic Advisor
other crises led to the conclusion that it could be an (c) National Statistics Office
inherently cultural phenomenon, hence the name. It (d) Office of Registrar General

206 Human and Economic Geography

Ans: (d) and economic disruptions caused by the Partition of
Population Census is the process of collecting India in 1947, which led to large-scale migrations and a
demographic, economic and social data. decline in the growth rate.
‰ Census and the exercise of preparing the National
Year Average Annual Growth Rate
Population Register are being undertaken by the
Registrar General of India. The census is done under 1951 1.25
the authority of the Census Act of 1948. 1961 1.96
‰ The Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has 1971 2.22
recently issued a gazette notification allowing
the Office of Registrar General and Census 1981 2.20
Commissioner to perform Aadhaar authentication 1991 2.14
for the registration of births and deaths. 2001 1.95
History of Census 2011 1.63
‰ The earliest literature ‘Rig-Veda’ reveals that some
kind of population count was maintained during 10. Which one of the following is correct with reference to
800-600 BC in India. the term ‘Population Momentum’?
‰ ‘Arthashastra’ by ‘Kautilya’ written in the 3rd (a) It refers to the increase in aggregate demand and
Century BC prescribed the collection of population national income as a result of population rise.
statistics as a measure of state policy for taxation. (b) It is described as the tendency for a population to
‰ During the regime of the Mughal king Akbar, the continue growing even after fertility rates decline.
administrative report ‘Ain-e-Akbari’ also included (c) It refers to the economic recovery phase after the
comprehensive data pertaining to population, Second World War marked by the Baby Boomer
industry, wealth and many other characteristics. phenomenon.
Pre-Independence Period: (d) It is described as the concentration of individuals and
‰ The history of the census began in 1800 when inflow of migration in a particular geographical location.
England had begun its Census. Ans: (b)
‰ In its continuation, a census was conducted in Population Momentum refers to the tendency for
Allahabad (1824) and in Banaras (1827-28) by population growth to continue beyond the time that
James Prinsep. replacement-level fertility has been achieved because of the
‰ The first complete census of an Indian city was relatively high concentration of people in the childbearing
conducted in 1830 by Henry Walter in Dacca (now years. In other words, it refers to a situation, where a large
Dhaka). cohort of women of reproductive age will fuel population
growth over the next generation, even if each woman has
‰ The Second Census was conducted in 1836-37 by
fewer children than previous generations did.
Fort St. George.
Census data from India (i.e., Registrar of India) suggests
‰ In 1849, the Government of India ordered the local
that population growth is on the decline since 1991.
governments to conduct quinquennial (five-yearly) The average number of children a woman expected to
returns of population. give birth to during her life was 3.8 in 1990, and this
‰ First Non-synchronous Census was conducted in has fallen to 2.7 children per woman. Even though the
India in 1872 during the reign of Governor-General fertility and population growth rates are declining, India’s
Lord Mayo. population is projected to increase from 1.2 billion (2011
‰ First synchronous Census was taken under British census) today to an estimated 1.6 billion by 2050 due to
rule on February 17, 1881, by W.C. Plowden population momentum.
(Census Commissioner of India). 11. Consider the following statement about the child
‰ Since then, censuses have been undertaken population as per the census of 2011.
uninterruptedly once every ten years.
1. Absolute number of children in the 0-6 age group was
9. Which one of the following census has the lowest less in 2011 as compared to 2001.
average annual growth rate of population? 2. The child sex ratio has steadily declined in every
(a) Year 1951 (b) Year 1991 succeeding census from 1961 to 2011.
(c) Year 2001 (d) Year 2011 3. The highest child (0-6) sex ratio among the states is
found in Mizoram.
Ans: (a)
Which of the following statements given above is/are
Trend in Population, Average Annual Growth Rate of
correct?
Population of Post Independent India. The Census of
1951 recorded the lowest average annual growth rate of (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
population in India. This was primarily due to the social (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Human Development and Population Studies 207

Ans: (d) Ans: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: The 2011 census is the first one Statement 1 is correct: Change of population in particular
in many decades that counted the absolute number of area between two points of time is known as growth of
children in the 0-6 age group. Compared to the 2001 census population.
count of 164 million children, there were 159 million Statement 2 is incorrect: The difference between the birth
children in 2011, i.e., 5 million fewer children in India. rate and death rate gives the natural growth of population,
Statement 2 is correct: The child sex ratio has steadily not the actual growth. Actual growth also includes the effects
declined in each census from 976 in 1961 to 927 in 2001 of migration (immigration and emigration). Actual Growth of
and further to 914 in 2011. Population: Births – Deaths + In Migration – Out Migration
The following table shows some of the data as per the Statement 3 is incorrect: Natural growth of population
census of 2011: accounts solely for the difference between births and
deaths, excluding migration. It is calculated as:
Sex Ratio Census 2011
Natural Growth = Births – Deaths.
Sex ratio in India 943
This represents the increase in population within a
Child (0-6 years) sex ratio 914 specific region over a given period, determined by the
Highest sex ratio in the state Kerala (1084) surplus of births over deaths.
Lowest sex ratio in UTs Daman and Diu (618) 14. Consider the following statements:
Highest child (0-6) sex ratio Mizoram (971) 1. A minimum population of 10,000.
in the state 2. At least 75 percent of the male main working
Hence, statement 3 is
population engaged in non-agricultural pursuits.
correct. 3. A density of population of at least 500 persons per sq. km.
Lowest child (0-6) sex ratio Haryana (830) Which of the above are the criteria for recognition as a
in the state Census Town as per the definition given by Census 2011?
2011 1.63 (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
12. Conurbation is best defined as the:
Ans: (a)
(a) Contraction of a city’s area.
As per 2011 Census, all places which satisfy the following
(b) The growth of a city into adjacent villages. criteria are called as Census Towns:
(c) Urban growth achieved by combining already-existing ‰ A minimum population of 5,000 (not 10,000). Hence,
independent towns. Statement 1 is incorrect.
(d) The deterioration of large cities into villages and slums. ‰ At least 75 percent of the male main working
Ans: (c) population engaged in non-agricultural pursuits;
Conurbation refers to a specific kind of geographical Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
region. Due to the rapid increase in population and ‰ A density of population of at least 400 persons per
industrial and technological development, the city sq.km. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.
boundary expands and one urban center coalesces with
another in a slow but continuous process of urbanization PW Only IAS Extra Edge
and regional development. The 2011 Census defines two types of urban areas–
The word Conurbation has emerged from the ‘continuous’ Statutory towns and Census towns. The Statutory
and ‘urban area’. The word was used by Patrick Geddes towns are notified under law by the concerned State/
in 1915 with reference to a continuous urban area of UT Government and have local bodies like municipal
more than two urban centers which may have separate corporations, municipalities, municipal committees,
territorial units. etc., irrespective of their demographic characteristics
as reckoned on 31st December 2009. Examples:
13. Consider the following statement with respect to
Vadodara (M Corp.), Shimla (M Corp.) etc.
population change:
1. The change of population in a particular area between 15. With reference to urbanisation, consider the following
two points of time is known as the growth of population. statements:
2. The actual population growth is the difference 1. All countries of the world are expected to see an
between the birth rate and death rate of a population. increase in the concentration of urban populations
3. The natural growth of population factors in net in the coming decades.
migration while also takes account of number of births 2. New Delhi has become the world’s largest urban
and deaths. agglomeration.
How many statements given above are correct? Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
(a) Only one (b) Only two (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) All three (d) None (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

208 Human and Economic Geography

Ans: (c) Statement 2 is incorrect: According to the UNDESA report,
Statement 1 is incorrect: According to the recent Revision by 2030, the world could have 43 so-called megacities
of World Urbanisation Prospects produced by the (those with more than 10 million inhabitants). New Delhi
is projected to become the most populous city on the
Population Division of the UN Department of Economic
planet by the year 2028. At present, Tokyo (Japan ) is the
and Social Affairs (UN DESA) the future increases in the world’s largest urban agglomeration, with a population of
size of the world’s urban population are expected to 37 million inhabitants, followed by New Delhi (29 million),
be highly concentrated in just a few countries. Three and Shanghai (26 million). Mexico City and São Paulo.
countries like, India, China and Nigeria, will contribute to These will be the World’s Biggest Cities in 2030
around 35% of the projected growth of the world’s urban Forecast population, in millions, according to the UN
population between 2018 and 2050. World Urbanization Prospects, 2014 revision
Tokyo, Japan 37.2 million
Delhi, India 36.1
Shanghai, China 30.8
Mumbai, India 27.8
Beijing, China 27.7
Dhaka, Bangladesh 27.4
Karachi, Pakistan 24.8
Cairo, Egypt 24.5

Lagos, Nigeria 24.2

Mexico City, Mexico 23.9
Fig.: Population forecast in world’s biggest cities
16. Which one of the following is arranged in correct Which of the statements given above are incorrect with
descending order in terms of population density as per reference to migration in India?
the 2011 Census? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) West Bengal, Bihar, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Kerala Ans: (d)
(c) West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Kerala Statement 1 is correct: The intra-state migration is
(d) Bihar, West Bengal, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh categorized into four types - rural to rural, rural to urban,
urban to urban and urban to rural. In India, out of the
Ans: (d)
total number of persons registered as “migrants” in
The Census 2011 is the 15th National Census Survey
the 2011 Census, only 11.91% (5.43 crore) had moved
conducted by the Census Organisation of India under
to one state from another, while nearly 39.57 crore had
Mr. C. Chandramouli, Office of the Registrar General
moved within their states. The stream was dominated
and Census Commissioner of India, Ministry of Home
by female migrants in all four categories. Most of these
Affairs. The Census of India has been conducted in two
were migrants related to marriage.
phases: house listing and population profiling. As per the
Statement 2 is correct: In the context of inter-state
2011 Census, the correct descending order in terms of
migration, men predominate the rural to urban stream
population density (person / sq. km) is as follows:
of inter-state migration due to economic reasons. But
‰ Bihar (1106) at the same time, females predominate the streams of
‰ West Bengal (1028) short distance rural to rural inter-state migration.
‰ Kerala (860) 18. Consider the following statements regarding the
‰ Uttar Pradesh (829). Malthusian Theory of Population growth:
17. Consider the following statements: 1. The population rises in arithmetic progression,
1. The intra-state migration is dominated by female while agricultural production grows in geometric
migrants as compared to male population. progression.
2. The rural to urban inter-state migration is dominated 2. The only way to increase prosperity is by controlling
by male migrants. the growth of the population.

Human Development and Population Studies 209

 Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 2011
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Religious Group Population % of
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (in million) Total
Ans: (b) Hindus 966.3 79.8
Statement 1 is incorrect: Malthus’ Theory of population
Muslims 172.2 14.2
growth was outlined in his Essay on Population (1798). He
argued that human populations tend to grow at a much Christians 27.8 2.3
faster rate than the rate at which the means of human Sikhs 20.8 1.7
subsistence (especially food, clothing, and other agriculture-
Buddhists 8.4 0.7
based products) can grow. According to this theory, while
population rises in geometric progression (i.e., like 2, 4, Jains 4.5 0.4
8, 16, 32, etc.), agricultural production can only grow in Other Religions and
7.9 0.7
arithmetic progression (i.e., like 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, etc.). Persuasions (ORP)
Statement 2 is correct: According to this theory, Religion Not Stated 2.9 0.2
Population growth always outstrips growth in the
production of subsistence resources, so the only way to Census of India 2011
increase prosperity is by controlling population growth. 20. Consider the following statements:
Unfortunately, humanity has only a limited ability to 1. It must consist of at least one statutory town.
voluntarily reduce the growth of its population (through
2. Its total population should not be less than 20,000 as
‘preventive checks’ such as postponing marriages or
per the 2001 Census.
practising sexual abstinence or celibacy). Thus, Malthus
believed that ‘positive checks’ on population growth – in Which of the statements given above is/are correct with
the form of famines and diseases – were inevitable because reference to an Urban Agglomeration?
they were nature’s way of dealing with the imbalance (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
between food supply and increasing population. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
19. With reference to the Religious Communities of India, Ans: (c)
consider the following statements : Statement 1 is correct: An urban agglomeration is a
1. Sikhs 2. Christians continuous urban spread constituting a town and its
adjoining outgrowths (OGs), or two or more physically
3. Jains 4. Buddhists
contiguous towns together with or without outgrowths
Which of the following is the correct increasing order of of such towns. An Urban Agglomeration must consist of
their population according to the Census of India, 2011? at least a statutory town.
(a) 4-3-1-2 (b) 3-4-2-1 Statement 2 is correct: Its total population, including all the
(c) 2-3-4-1 (d) 3-4-1-2 constituents, should not be less than 20,000 as per the 2001
Census. On the basis of local conditions, many other areas
Ans: (d)
have been treated as urban agglomerations if they satisfied
The spatial distribution of religious communities in the the basic condition of contiguity. Examples: Greater Mumbai
country shows that there are certain states and districts Urban Agglomeration, Delhi Urban Agglomeration, etc.
with a large numerical strength of one religion, while the
21. Consider the following statements:
same may be very negligibly represented in other states.
1. The development of irrigation has led to concentration
‰ Christian population is distributed mostly in rural areas of population in previously thinly populated areas of
of the country. The main concentration is observed Rajasthan.
along the Western coast around Goa, Kerala and also 2. The interior districts in southern Indian States have
in the hill states of Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, lower population than deltas and coastal plains.
Chotanagpur area, and the Hills of Manipur.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct in the
‰ Sikhs are mostly concentrated in relatively small context of population distribution in India?
areas of the country, particularly in the states of
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Punjab, Haryana and Delhi.
‰ Jains and Buddhists, the smallest religious groups
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
in India, have their concentrations only in selected Ans: (c)
areas of the country. Jains have a major concentration Statement 1 is correct: In India, development of irrigation
in the urban areas of Rajasthan, Gujarat, and in states like Rajasthan and availability of mineral and
Maharashtra, while Buddhists are concentrated energy resources in states like Jharkhand have resulted
mostly in Maharashtra. The other areas with a in moderate to high concentration of population in areas
high proportion of Buddhists are Sikkim, Arunachal which were previously very thinly populated. This is also
Pradesh, Ladakh in Jammu & Kashmir, Tripura, and true regarding the development of transport network
Lahul and Spiti in Himachal Pradesh. Peninsular States.

210 Human and Economic Geography

 Statement 2 is correct: Physical factors also affect 23. Which of the following statements is correct with
the distribution of population. Climate, terrain and reference to the ‘usual residents’ in National Population
availability of water largely determines the pattern of Register?
the population distribution. Hence, we observe that the (a) It is defined as a person who has resided in a local
North Indian Plains, deltas and Coastal Plains have higher
area for the past 6 months or more.
proportion of population than the interior districts of
southern and central Indian States, Himalayas and some (b) Only Indian residents can be designated as usual
of the north eastern and the western states. residents for the purpose of National Population
Register.
PW Only IAS Extra Edge (c) It is defined as a person who has resided in a local
The socio-economic and historical factors also affect area for the minimum past one year.
the distribution of population.These are evolution
(d) A citizen of India is always classified as a usual resident
of settled agriculture and agricultural development;
for the National Population Register.
pattern of human settlement; development of
transport network, industrialisation and urbanisation. Ans: (a)
The National Population Register (NPR) is a Register of
22. Which of the following states has the lowest population
usual residents of the country. It is being prepared at
decadal growth rate (in percent) according to the Census
2011? the local (Village/sub-Town), sub-District, District, State
and National level under provisions of the Citizenship
(a) Meghalaya (b) Mizoram Act 1955 and the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens
(c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Nagaland and issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003. It is
Ans: (d) mandatory for every usual resident of India to register
The Census in India is published by the Office of the in the NPR. A usual resident is defined for the purposes
Registrar General and Census Commissioner, which of NPR as a person who has resided in a local area for
comes under the Ministry of Home Affairs. According to the past 6 months or more or a person who intends
the Census 2011, the growth rate (in per cent) for the to reside in that area for the next 6 months or more.
Indian states is: The objective of the NPR is to create a comprehensive
‰ Meghalaya comes up as the Indian state with an identity database of every usual resident in the country.
growth rate of 27.82%. Hence, option (a) is incorrect. The database would contain demographic as well as
‰ Mizoram registered a growth rate of 23.48%. Hence, biometric particulars.
option (b) is incorrect. 24. Consider the following statement with respect to the
‰ Arunachal Pradesh registered a growth rate of Age and Sex Pyramid:
26.03%. Hence, option (c) is incorrect. 1. The Age-Sex pyramid is triangular-shaped with a wide
‰ Nagaland registered the least percentage of growth. base showing constant population.
The decadal growth rate in Nagaland was around 2. In a declining population, the pyramid has a narrow
(–) 0.47%. It is the only state that recorded negative base and tapered top.
population growth in the 2011 Census. Hence,
3. The birth rate and death rate are almost equal in the
option (d) is correct.
expanding population.
‰ The Union Territory with the highest growth rate is
Dadra and Nagar Haveli, with a growth percentage How many statements given above are correct?
of 55.50%. (a) Only one (b) Only two
‰ Lakshadweep is the Union Territory with the lowest (c) All three (d) None
rate of growth, which is 6.23%. Ans: (a)

Fig: Demographic Transition Model

Human Development and Population Studies 211

 Statement 1 is incorrect: The age-sex pyramid with 26. With reference to the 5th National Family Health Survey
triangular shaped with a wide base shows Expanding (NFHS-5), consider the following statements:
Population. For example, Nigeria. 1. The overall sex ratio in India is better than the sex ratio
Statement 2 is correct: The Japan pyramid has a narrow at birth.
base and a tapered top showing low birth and death
2. The overall sex ratio in India is higher in urban areas
rates. The population growth in developed countries is
than in rural areas.
usually zero or negative.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Australia’s age-sex pyramid is Which of the statements given above are correct?
bell shaped and tapered towards the top. This shows (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
birth and death rates are almost equal leading to a near (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
constant population. Ans: (a)
25. Arrange the following stages of Demographic Transition Statement 1 is correct: The Sex Ratio at birth is defined
Theory in the correct sequence starting from the first stage: as the number of female births per 1000 male births.
1. Birth rates are high and death rates fall steeply According to the National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5)
2. High birth and death rates conducted in 2019-20, the sex ratio at birth in India has
3. Low birth and death rates improved from 919 females per 1,000 males in 2015-16
4. Birth rates fall and a large number of people in the to 929 females per 1,000 males in 2019-20. The overall
reproductive age group sex ratio of the population (females per 1000 males) for
Select the correct answer from the codes given below: India was estimated as 1020.
(a) 2-1-4-3 (b) 2-1-3-4 Statement 2 is incorrect: The overall sex ratio is higher in
(c) 1-2-3-4 (d) 3-4-1-2 rural areas (1037) than in urban areas (985).
Other findings of NFHS-5
Ans: (a)
‰ The Total Fertility Rates (TFR), an average number
The process of change in demographic attributes (fertility, of children per women, has further declined from
mortality) of a population over a period of time is called 2.2 to 2.0 at the national level between NFHS-4 & 5.
demographic transition. A commonly accepted theory There are only five States in India, which are above
defines four clear stages of population growth. The four replacement level of fertility of 2.1. They are Bihar
stages are: (2.98), Meghalaya (2.91), Uttar Pradesh (2.35),
Stage 1: Typically seen in less developed countries where Jharkhand (2.26) Manipur (2.17).
birth rates are high but a large number of people die of ‰ Institutional Births have increased substantially from
preventable causes leading to a stable population. 79 percent to 89 percent in India.
Stage 2: Death rates fall steeply as deaths from preventable ‰ The level of stunting among children under 5 years
causes are reduced by better food supply and improved has marginally declined from 38 to 36 percent for
public health, but birth rates remain high due to high India since the last four years. Stunting is higher
fertility. This often leads to a spurt in population. among children in rural areas (37%) than urban areas
Stage 3: Birth rates fall but the population continues (30%) in 2019-21.
to grow because there are a large number of people in ‰ Compared with NFHS-4, the prevalence of
the reproductive age group due to the high fertility of overweight or obesity has increased in most States/
previous generations. UTs in NFHS-5. At national level, it increases from 21
Stage 4: Countries achieve a stable population once again percent to 24 percent among women and 19 percent
with low birth and low death rates but at a higher level to 23 percent among men.
of social and economic development. The population is ‰ NFHS-5 shows an overall improvement in SDG
stable and higher than in stage one. indicators in all States/UTs.
Hence, option (a) is correct. 27. Which one of the following states does not have any
notified Scheduled Tribes as per the 2011 Census?
1. Gujarat 2. Goa
3. Punjab 4. Haryana
5. Bihar
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 5 only
Ans: (b)
As per Article 366(25) of the Indian Constitution,
“Scheduled Tribes” refers to tribes, tribal communities,
or groups within them that are recognized as Scheduled
Tribes under Article 342 for the purposes of the

212 Human and Economic Geography

 Constitution. Article 342 states that the President system of food and other basic necessities were largely
may, by public notification, designate tribes or tribal responsible for high birth and death rates in this period.
communities, or groups within them, as Scheduled Tribes Statement 3 is correct: The census years 1911- 1921
in relation to any State or Union Territory. In the case of registered a negative growth rate of about -0.31 percent.
a State, this must be done after consulting the Governor. It has happened only once throughout the demographic
No community has been specified as a Scheduled Tribe history of India.
in relation to the States of Haryana and Punjab and the 30. Which one of the following states has the highest
Union Territories of Chandigarh, Delhi, and Puducherry. percentage of rural population as per the 2011 Census?
Hence, points 3 and 4 are correct.
(a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Odisha
‰ The largest number of tribal communities are found
in Madhya Pradesh, followed by Odisha. (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Bihar
28. With reference to urbanisation in India, which of the Ans: (a)
following cities is not a Megalopolis ? The vast majority of the population of India has always lived
(a) Delhi (b) Lucknow in rural areas, and that continues to be true. According to
the Census of India 2011, still more people are living in rural
(c) Mumbai (d) Bengaluru areas but the population of urban areas has increased. Now
Ans: (b) 68.8% of the population lives in rural areas while 31.2% of
The increasing compaction of people in cities results people live in urban areas. As per the 2011 Census of India,
in megacities or Megalopolis, which, as per the United the state with the highest share of rural population was
Nations, is typically an urban agglomeration of 10 million Himachal Pradesh (89.97%). Other states with a prominent
or more people. By that definition, India is currently share of rural population include are -
home to six megacities (3 as per census 2011) ‰ Bihar - 88.71%
‰ Delhi, the capital city; ‰ Assam - 85.90%
‰ Mumbai, the financial hub; ‰ Odisha - 83.31%
‰ Bengaluru, the IT epicentre; ‰ Uttar Pradesh - 77.73%
‰ Chennai, home to the Indian motor industry; In terms of absolute figures, the highest rural population
‰ Kolkata, a significant trading hub, and resides in the state of Uttar Pradesh (155, 317, 278)
‰ the latest addition to the list, Hyderabad. followed by Bihar (92, 341, 436).
Lucknow is not a megalopolis. It will have a population of 31. Consider the following pairs about Indian Demographic
around 3 million in 2023. Cities are usually seen as drivers History:
of national economic growth and GDP globally, and
India’s mega and metropolitan cities are no exception. Period Growth of population
Further, by 2030, there will be seven megacities in India. 1. 1911-1921 Negative growth rate.
Delhi will continue to be the second-most populous city
2. 1921-1951 Period of declining population
in the world until 2030.
growth rate.
29. Which of the following statements is/are correct with
respect to population growth in India during the period 3. 1951-1981 Period of population explosion.
of 1901-1921? 4. After 1981 Steady population growth.
1. This period is referred to as the stagnant phase of How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
population growth in India. (a) Only one (b) Only two
2. The death rate during this period was very high, while
(c) Only three (d) All four
the birth rate was very low.
3. The census years of 1911-21 witnessed a negative Ans: (b)
growth rate in the population. Phase of Negative Growth Rate: The period from 1901-
1921 is referred to as a period of stagnant or stationary
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
phase of growth of India’s population, since in this period
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only growth rate was very low, even recording a negative
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 growth rate during 1911-1921. Both the birth rate
Ans: (b) and death rate were high keeping the rate of increase
Statement 1 is correct: The period from 1901-1921 is low (Appendix–iii). Poor health and medical services,
referred to as a period of stagnant or stationary phase illiteracy of people at large, and inefficient distribution
of growth of India’s population, as during this period, the system of food and other basic necessities were largely
growth rate of the population was very low. responsible for high birth and death rates in this period.
Statement 2 is incorrect: From 1901-21, the birth rate Hence, Pair 1 is correctly matched.
and death rate were high, keeping the rate of population Phase of Steady Population Growth: The decades 1921-
growth low. Poor health and medical services, the illiteracy 1951 are referred to as the period of steady population
of the population at large, and an inefficient distribution growth. An overall improvement in health and sanitation

Human Development and Population Studies 213

 throughout the country brought down the mortality rate. Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Population Explosion
At the same time, better transport and communication Phase corresponds to the Early Expanding Stage in the
systems improved the distribution system. The crude birth Demographic Transition Theory. This phase is marked by
rate remained high in this period leading to a higher growth a sharp decline in death rates due to improvements in
rate than the previous phase. This is impressive against the healthcare, sanitation, and food supply, while birth rates
backdrop of the Great Economic Depression, the 1920s, and remain high. India in 1951-1981 was in this phase.
World War II. Hence, Pair 2 is not correctly matched.
Phase of Population Explosion: The decades 1951-1981
are referred to as the period of population explosion in
India, which was caused by a rapid fall in the mortality
rate but a high fertility rate of the population in the
country. The average annual growth rate was as high as
2.2 percent. It was in this period, after the Independence,
that developmental activities were introduced through
a centralised planning process and the economy started
showing up ensuring the improvement of living conditions
of people at large. Consequently, there was a high natural
increase and higher growth rate. Besides, increased
international migration bringing in Tibetans, Bangladeshis,
Nepalies, and even people from Pakistan contributed to
the high growth rate. Hence, Pair 3 is correctly matched.
Fig: Demographic Transition Model
Phase of declining population growth rate: In the post 1981
till the present, the growth rate of the country’s population 33. With reference to urbanisation, consider the following
though remained high, has started slowing down gradually. statements:
A downward trend in the crude birth rate is held responsible 1. The United Nations has defined Urban place as any
for such population growth. This was, in turn, affected by an locality where more than 2500 people live.
increase in the mean age at marriage, and improved quality 2. The Tokyo-Osaka-Kyoto complex in Japan is categorised
of life particularly the education of females in the country. as ‘Megalopolis’.
Hence, pair 4 is not correctly matched.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
32. Consider the following pairs: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Characteristics Stages of Demographic (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Transition Ans: (b)
Statement 1 is incorrect: The definition of what
High birth rate and high High Stationary Phase
constitutes a city changes from time to time and place
death rate
to place, but it is most usual to explain the term as a
Low birth rate and low Demographic matter of demographics. The United Nations does not
death rate Stabilisation phase have its own definition of “urban” but instead follows the
High birth rate and very Population Explosion definitions used in each country. The United States uses
low death rate phase “urban place” to mean any locality where more than
2,500 people live.
How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly Statement 2 is correct: Through the 20th and in the 21st
matched? century, continued economic development and population
(a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs growth fueled the generation of ‘Megalopolises’ which
(c) All three pairs (d) None of the pairs denotes the concentrations of urban centers that
may extend for scores of miles. Megalopolises include
Ans: (c)
the Tokyo–Osaka–Kyoto complex in Japan, the region
Pair 1 is correctly matched: The High Stationary Phase
between London and the Midland cities in Great Britain,
in the Demographic Transition Theory is the first stage,
and the Netherlands–central Belgium area.
characterized by high birth and death rates, leading to
minimal population growth. Societies in this phase are 34. Consider the following statements:
pre-industrial, with limited medical and technological 1. The natural growth of the population is assessed
advancements, resulting in low life expectancy and high through crude birth and death rates.
infant mortality. 2. The induced growth of the population is explained by
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Stage 4 of the demographic migration patterns of the population.
transition is traditionally considered to be the Which of the statements given above are correct?
Stabilisation phase. In this phase, both the birth and (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
death rates remain low. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

214 Human and Economic Geography

Ans: (c) 2. The Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) is the number
Growth of population is the change in the number of of maternal deaths during a given time period per
people living in a particular area between two points in thousand live births during the same time period.
time. Its rate is expressed in percentage. 3. The Growth Rate of population refers to the difference
Statement 1 is correct: Population growth has two between the birth rate and the death rate.
components namely; natural and induced. The natural How many of the statements given above are correct?
growth is analysed by assessing the crude birth and (a) Only one (b) Only two
death rates. Crude birth rate indicates the number of live (c) All three (d) None
births occurring during the year, per 1,000 population Ans: (d)
estimated at midyear. Statement 1 is incorrect: The Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)
Statement 2 is correct: The induced components is the number of deaths of babies before the age of one
are explained by the volume of inward and outward year per 1000 live births.
movement of people in any given area. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Maternal Mortality Ratio
35. With reference to the Census in India, consider the (MMR) is defined as the number of maternal deaths
following statements: during a given time period per 100,000 live births during
1. The first census was conducted non-synchronously in the same time period.
differeⁿt parts of India in 1872. Statement 3 is incorrect: The growth rate of population as
2. The responsibility of conducting the decadal census defined by the Census of India refers to the rate at which
rests with the Ministry of Statistics and Programme the population increases or decreases over a specified
period of time, usually expressed as a percentage. The
Implementation
growth rate of population in the Census of India does
3. There is a constitutional and legal requirement to
include the effects of migration. The Census accounts for
conduct the census decennially.
both natural population growth (births and deaths) and
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? migration.
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
37. Consider the following statements:
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Replacement level is the rate of growth required for
Ans: (c)
new generations to replace the older ones that are
Statement 1 is correct: In the year 1872, the first census
dying out.
was conducted non-synchronously in different parts of
India. The Indian Census has been an attractive source 2. Total Fertility Rate (TFR) of 2 is known as the replacement
rate.
of data for scholars and researchers in demography,
economics, anthropology, sociology, statistics, and many 3. India’s TFR is more than the Replacement level fertility
other disciplines. rate.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The responsibility of conducting How many of the above statements are correct?
the decadal census rests with the Office of the Registrar (a) Only one (b) Only two
General and Census Commissioner of India, Ministry of (c) All three (d) None
Home Affairs, Government of India. This organisation
Ans: (a)
was created to prepare data on population figures,
Statement 1 is correct: The rate of natural increase or
including vital statistics and census. Later, this office was
the growth rate of population refers to the difference
also entrusted with the task of implementing the Birth
between the birth rate and the death rate. When this
and Death Registration Act, 1969, in the country.
difference is zero (or, in practice, very small) then it is
Statement 3 is incorrect: There are repeated references
said that the population has ‘stabilised’, or has reached
to the Census exercise in the Constitution in the context
the ‘replacement level’, which is the rate of growth
of the reorganisation of constituencies for Parliament required for new generations to replace the older ones
and state Assemblies. But the Constitution does not that are dying out. Sometimes, societies can experience
say when the Census has to be carried out or what the a negative growth rate, that is, their fertility levels are
frequency of this exercise should be. below the replacement rate.
The Census of India Act of 1948, which provides the legal
Statement 2 is incorrect: Total Fertility Rate (TFR)
framework for carrying out the Census, also does not
represents the number of children that would be born to
mention its timing or periodicity. There is, therefore, no a woman if she were to live to the end of her childbearing
Constitutional or legal requirement that a Census has to years and bear children in accordance with age-specific
be done every 10 years. fertility rates of the specified year. A TFR of 2.1 is known
36. Consider the following statements: as the replacement rate.
1. The Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) is the number of Statement 3 is incorrect: The TFR of India is 2.0 (According
deaths of babies before the age of three years per to NFHS -5 it is 2) which is less than the replacement level
thousand live births. fertility rate.

Human Development and Population Studies 215

 38. The Demographic Transition Theory can be used to and health conditions lead to decline in mortality.
predict and describe the future population of any area Because of this gap, net addition to the population is
as the society progresses from rural, agrarian, and high.
illiterate to urban, industrial, and literate society. 3. In the third and last stage, both fertility and mortality
Which of the following is correct about an area, according decline considerably. The population is either stable
to the above theory, as the area undergoes the above- or grows slowly. The population becomes urbanized,
mentioned transition? literate and has high technical knowledge and
(a) The Population of the region changes from high births deliberately controls the family size.
and high deaths to low births and low deaths 39. Arrange the following states in the descending order of
(b) The Population of the region changes from low births their literacy rates according to the 2011 census:
and high deaths to low births and low deaths (a) Kerala, Lakshadweep, Mizoram, Tripura, Goa
(c) The Population of the region changes from high births (b) Kerala, Lakshadweep, Tripura, Mizoram, Goa
and low deaths to low births and high deaths (c) Kerala, Lakshadweep, Mizoram, Goa, Tripura
(d) The Population of the region changes from low births (d) Kerala, Lakshadweep, Goa, Mizoram, Tripura
and low deaths to high births and high deaths.
Ans: (c)
Ans: (a)
‰ The correct order for the states in descending order
The demographic transition theory can be used to
of their literacy rates according to the 2011 census is:
describe and predict the future population of any area.
Kerala, Lakshadweep, Mizoram, Goa, Tripura. Here’s
The theory says that the population of any region
a breakdown of their literacy rates for reference:
changes from high birth and high death to low birth and
• Kerala: 94%
low death as society progresses from rural agrarian and
illiterate to urban industrial and literate society. These • Lakshadweep: 91.85%
changes occur in three main stages (sometimes 4/5) • Mizoram: 91.33%
which are collectively known as demographic cycle. • Goa: 88.70%
The three stages are: • Tripura: 87.22%
1. The first stage has high fertility and high mortality ‰ Kerala has the highest literacy rate in India, followed
as people reproduce more to compensate for the closely by Lakshadweep and Mizoram. Goa and
death due to epidemics and variable food supply. Tripura round out the list with impressive literacy
The population growth is slow and most people are rates as well.
engaged in agriculture where large families are an ‰ It’s worth noting that while these states have
asset. Life expectancy is low and people are mostly achieved remarkable progress in education, the
illiterate. national literacy rate in India in 2011 was 74.04%.
2. Fertility remains high in the beginning of the second This highlights the ongoing efforts required to ensure
stage but declines with time ; this is accompanied by equal access to education for all individuals across
reduced mortality rate. Improvement in sanitation the country.

216 Human and Economic Geography

 3 Settlements and
Urban Geography

Objective Questions for Practice

1. Which of the following are considered ‘Urban (d) The part of a city in which many poor people or many
Agglomerations’? people of a particular race, religion, or nationality live
1. A town and its adjoining urban outgrowths. separately.
2. Two or more contiguous towns with or without their Ans: (b)
outgrowths. The urban settlements are characterised by higher
3. A city and one or more adjoining towns with their proportion of land devoted to built-up area, higher
outgrowths together forming a contiguous spread. population densities and great economic diversity than
Select the correct answer using the code given below: rural settlements.
(a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only Statement (a) is incorrect: Gated communities can be
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 defined as a residential area with more or less similar
building patterns and regulated entry and exit of
Ans: (d) pedestrians and vehicles and physically cordoned off
Majority of metropolitan and megacities are urban from the area by high-rise walls.
agglomerations. An urban agglomeration may consist of
Statement (b) is correct: Exopolis are metropolitan
any one of the following three combinations:
‘outer space’, with no clear centre and traditional
‰ Statement 1 is correct: Town and its adjoining urban qualities but rather are a continuing urban sprawl with
outgrowths. intensified urban nucleation, increasing homogeneity
‰ Statement 2 is correct: The two or more contiguous and heterogeneity, socio-spatial integration and
towns with or without their outgrowths. disintegration, and more.
‰ Statement 3 is correct: A city and one or more Statement (c) is incorrect: The Megalopolis possess poly-
adjoining towns with their outgrowths together nuclear characteristic. The large cities are joined by a
forming a contiguous spread. continuous chain or complex of cities. The best example
‰ Examples of urban outgrowth are railway colonies, is that of Boston-New York in the USA where the 240 kms
university campus, port area, military cantonment, in between the two cities consist of several cities with
etc. Located within the revenue limits of a village or population over one million, while others are over one
villages contiguous to the town or city. lakh
‰ According to the census 2011, an urban Statement (d) is incorrect: A ghetto is a part of a city in
agglomeration is a continuous urban spread which many poor people or many people of a particular
constituting a town and its adjoining outgrowths race, religion, or nationality live separately from everyone
(OGs), or two or more physically contiguous towns else.
together with or without outgrowths of such towns.
3. Consider the following statements with reference to
2. Which of the following statement correctly describe the Urban Macrocephaly:
term Exopolis?
1. This refers to the overconcentration of population and
(a) The residential area in a city with similar building development in a country’s main city.
patterns and regulated entry and exit of pedestrians
2. It is an evident feature of urban systems in most of
and vehicles.
the developed countries.
(b) The metropolitan outer urban sprawls without
traditional qualities of a city. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
(c) The urban settlements where large cities are joined (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
by complex of cities. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b) Ans: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: Urban Macrocephaly/ Urban Urban Sprawl: It is a low density uncontrolled expansion
primacy refers to a scenario where one city, typically of larger urban areas into surrounding agricultural areas.
the largest, dominates the urban landscape of a country It happens because of the rapid growth of the city’s
in terms of population, economic activity, and political population and a widening range of economic activities.
influence. This results in a significant disparity between Hence, option (c) is correct.
this city and other cities in the country. Out Growth: It is a viable unit such as a village or a
Statement 2 is incorrect: Despite the primacy or hamlet or an enumeration block made up of such a
dominance of one city in some developed countries, village or hamlet and clearly identifiable in terms of its
boundaries and location. Examples: Railway colony,
there is no clear observable negative feature of urban
university campus, port area, etc.
primacy; on the other hand, although it is not evident
in all developing countries, there are evident features of Urban Agglomerations: It is a continuous urban spread
urban systems in most of these countries. constituting a town and its adjoining outgrowths, or
two or more physically contiguous towns together
‰ In many developing nations, capital cities or with or without outgrowth of such towns. An Urban
major commercial hubs grow disproportionately agglomeration must consist of at least a statutory town
due to factors like centralisation of economic and its total population should not be less than 20000 as
activities, migration, and lack of balanced regional per the 2011 census.
development. In contrast, developed countries often Satellite Towns: They are smaller urban areas that
have a more balanced distribution of urban centers. are located near a larger city, serving as residential,
4. Consider the following pairs: commercial, or industrial extensions of that primary
urban center. They are developed to accommodate
Tribe Region of Influence the overflow from the larger city and to manage urban
1. Gakkhars Punjab growth in a more organized and sustainable way.
2. Ahoms North-East PW Only IAS Extra Edge
3. Arghuns Sindh Key characteristics of urban sprawl include:
How many of the above pairs are incorrectly matched? 1. Low-Density Development: Urban sprawl often
results in low-density, scattered development with
(a) Only one (b) Only two large residential lots and single-use zoning.
(c) All three (d) None 2. Expansion into Agricultural Areas: As cities grow,
Ans: (d) they expand into surrounding agricultural or
Tribal people were found in almost every region of the undeveloped land, often leading to the conversion
subcontinent. The area and influence of a tribe varied at of farmland into urban areas.
different points in time. Some powerful tribes controlled 3. Increased Economic Activities: The growth of
large territories. economic activities and infrastructure, including
shopping centers, offices, and industrial areas,
Pair 1 is correct: In Punjab, the Khokhar tribe was
contributes to the expansion of urban areas.
very influential during the thirteenth and fourteenth
4. Automobile Dependence: Sprawling
centuries. Later, the Gakkhars became more important.
developments are often designed around the
Their chief, Kamal Khan Gakkhar, was made a noble
use of automobiles, leading to increased travel
(mansabdar) by Emperor Akbar.
distances and dependence on cars.
Pair 2 is correct: The distant north-eastern part of the 5. Impact on Environment and Infrastructure: Urban
subcontinent too was entirely dominated by tribes – the sprawl can have significant environmental impacts,
Nagas, Ahoms, and many others. including loss of natural habitats, increased
Pair 3 is correct: In Multan and Sind, the Langahs and pollution, and strain on infrastructure and public
Arghuns dominated extensive regions before they were services.
subdued by the Mughals.
6. Which type of rural settlement develops around lakes,
5. It is a low-density urban expansion of larger urban tanks or ponds?
areas into surrounding agricultural areas. It happens (a) Star-like pattern (b) Linear pattern
because of the rapid growth of the city’s population and (c) Rectangular pattern (d) Circular pattern
widening range of economic activities.
Ans: (d)
Which of the following is discussed in the above
Patterns of Rural Settlement:
passage?
‰ Star-like pattern: Where several roads converge,
(a) Out Growth (b) Urban Agglomerations star-shaped settlements develop by the houses built
(c) Urban Sprawl (d) Satellite Town along the roads. Hence, option (a) is incorrect.

218 Human and Economic Geography

 ‰ Linear pattern: In such settlementss, houses are better human settlements. Development of well-
located along a road, railway line, river, canal edge planned and fully new areas (greenfield) will be
of a valley or along a levee. Hence option (b) is encouraged around the cities in order to accommodate
incorrect. the rapidly expanding population in urban areas.
‰ Rectangular pattern: Such patterns of rural ‰ Pan-city initiative: in which smart solutions are
settlements are found in plain areas or wide applied covering larger parts of the city.
intermontane valleys. The roads are rectangular and ‰ Use of technology to improve infrastructure and
cut each other at right angles. Hence option (c) is services.
incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect: This mission is under the Ministry
‰ Circular pattern: Circular villages develop around of Housing and Urban Affairs. The implementation of
lakes, tanks and, sometimes, the village is planned this mission is done by a special purpose vehicle formed
in such a way that the central part remains open and under the Companies Act,2013 and is promoted by
is used for keeping the animals to protect them from the state/UT and ULB jointly, both having 50:50 equity
wild animals. Hence, option (d) is correct. shareholding.
8. ‘A type of location change which is driven by the
development of new resources and techniques, leading
to alterations in transfer costs, labour requirements,
material requirements, and energy costs’.
Which one of the following best describes the above-
given definition?
(a) Seasonal Changes (b) Cyclical Changes
(c) Secular Changes (d) Structural Changes
Ans: (d)
Industrial location in a particular region in a particular
period is closely related to the particular stage of
economic development reached at that particular time.
Changes in different factors may bring about a shift in the
location of industrial activity.
Fig.: Types of Rural Settlement E.M. Hoover has classified the basic causes of location
7. Consider the following statements about Smart Cities change into four categories: (a) Seasonal, (b) Cyclical, (c)
Mission: Secular, and (d) Structural.
1. It is a central sponsored scheme aiming to transform ‰ Seasonal Changes: Producers shift their locations,
100 cities to provide core infrastructure and a within the limitations of their mobility, to meet
sustainable environment. changing seasonal conditions.
2. The mission is promoted jointly by the state/UT and ‰ Cyclical Changes: Cyclical changes are less predictable
Urban Local Bodies having 70:30 equity shareholding. and last longer than seasonal changes. These are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? the result of the vagaries of business cycles. Cyclical
fluctuations affect investment, income distribution,
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
factor utilisation and relative prices.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
‰ Secular Changes: Secular change involves gradual
Ans: (a) alteration, which may persist for a long period of.
Statement 1 is correct: The government of India launched time and show no tendency to reverse or repeat
the smart cities mission on 25 June 2015. It is a centrally itself like business cycles or seasonal changes.
sponsored scheme aiming to transform 100 cities to ‰ Structural Changes: The development of new
provide core infrastructure and sustainable environment resources and techniques bring about structural
and application of “smart solutions”. changes. Such changes affect location patterns
Strategic components of the mission are: through changes in transfer costs, labour
‰ Area-based development: It will transform existing requirements, material requirements and energy
areas (retrofit and redevelop), including slums, into costs.

Settlements and Urban Geography 219

 4 Agriculture and
Cropping System

Objective Questions for Practice

1. With reference to different types of cropping patterns, Ans: (b)

consider the following statements: Statement 1 is correct: India is the second largest
1. Row intercropping is the practice of planting crops in producer of sugarcane after Brazil. It accounts for about
alternate rows. 23 percent of the world production of sugarcane. But it
2. In Relay intercropping, two or more crops are grown occupies only 2.4 per cent of total cropped area in the
side by side in broad areas. country. Uttar Pradesh produces about two-fifths of
3. In Strip intercropping, the second crop is only grown sugarcane of the country. Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil
after the first has flowered. Nadu and Andhra Pradesh are other leading producers
How many of the statements given above are incorrect? of this crop where the yield level of sugarcane is high. Its
(a) Only one (b) Only two yield is low in Northern India and high in Southern India,
(c) All three (d) None as the growth season is longer in the Southern India than
in the Northern India.
Ans: (b)
Statement 2 is incorrect: Coffee is a tropical plantation
Types of Intercropping
crop. Its seeds are roasted, ground and are used for
‰ Row Intercropping: Row intercropping is the
preparing a beverage. Arabica, Robusta, and Liberica are
practice of planting crops in alternate rows. It aids
varieties of coffee, not sugarcane. The common varieties
in making the best use of the available land area and
of sugarcane in India include Co 86032, CoC 671, etc.
suppressing weeds while the primary crop is still in
its early stages. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct: Tea is a plantation crop used as a
‰ Relay Intercropping: In this system, a second crop is beverage. Black tea leaves are fermented whereas green
planted before the first crop is harvested, allowing tea leaves are unfermented. Tea leaves have a rich content
the second crop to utilize the residual resources of caffeine and tannin. It is an indigenous crop of hills in
from the first crop. It does not involve crops being Northern China. It is grown over undulating topography of
grown side by side in broad areas. Hence, statement hilly areas and well drained soils in humid and sub-humid
2 is incorrect. tropics and sub-tropics. In India, tea plantations started in
‰ Strip Intercropping: Strip intercropping is the the 1840s in Brahmaputra valley of Assam which still is a
practice of growing two or more crops side by side major tea growing area in the country.
in broad areas such that each crop can be managed 3. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Basmati
independently and benefit from the microclimate of Rice’:
the adjacent crop. The second crop is not dependent
1. Haryana boasts the largest area under Basmati rice
on the first crop flowering before being planted.
cultivation in the country.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
2. India accounts for two thirds of its global supply.
2. With reference to the plantation crops in India, consider
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
the following statements:
1. Sugarcane yield is low in Northern India and high in (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Southern states. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The Arabica, Robusta and Liberica are a variety of Ans: (d)
sugarcane in India. Statement 1 is correct: Currently, the cultivation area
3. Tea leaves have a rich content of caffeine and tannin. for Basmati rice in India spans approximately 776,000
How many of the statements given above are correct? hectares, with an estimated production of about
(a) Only one (b) Only two 1,196,000 tonnes during the 1998-99 period. Haryana
(c) All three (d) None leads with the largest area dedicated to Basmati rice,
 both in terms of absolute area and percentage of state mills. The sugar industry is the second largest agro-based
area dedicated to rice (60%), followed by Uttar Pradesh industry in India after cotton.
with 17.1%, and Punjab with 16.1%. Punjab comes Option (c) is incorrect: Aus, Aman, and Boro are varieties
second in absolute area. of rice in India, not sugarcane.
Statement 2 is correct: Due to its unique quality Option (d) is incorrect: Sugarcane takes a long time to
attributes, Basmati is a widely consumed variety of rice grow and be ready for harvest (around 10 to 12 months).
both domestically and globally and India accounts for
Growing sugarcane is not an easy task as it requires the
two thirds of its global supply.
farmer to plant and harvest two more crops before they
4. Consider the following statements: can finally harvest sugarcane.
1. Rice and sugarcane are water-intensive crops. 6. Consider the following crops:
2. In the states of Punjab, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh,
1. Gram 2. Groundnut
irrigation covers around 50% of the net sown area.
3. Raw Jute 4. Lentil
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
5. Barley 6. Sugarcane
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
How many of the above-mentioned crops have their MSP
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
declared by the Government of India?
Ans: (a) (a) Only two (b) Only three
Statement 1 is correct: In agriculture, water is mainly
(c) Only four (d) Only five
used for irrigation. Irrigation is needed because of spatio-
temporal variability in rainfall in the country. The large Ans: (d)
tracts of the country are deficient in rainfall and are The Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market
drought-prone. North-western India and the Deccan intervention by the Government of India to safeguard the
plateau constitute such areas. The water need of certain interests of farmers. MSPs are announced at the beginning
crops also makes irrigation necessary. For instance, the of the sowing season based on the recommendations of
water requirement of rice, sugarcane, jute, etc. is very the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
high which means they are water-intensive and their The objective is to ensure that farmers get a remunerative
need can be met only through irrigation. price for their produce, especially when market prices fall
Statement 2 is incorrect: In Punjab, Haryana and western below a certain level. The MSP helps prevent distress
Uttar Pradesh, more than 85 per cent of their net sown sales by farmers and provides a safety net, particularly for
area is under irrigation. Wheat and rice are grown mainly vulnerable small and marginal farmers.
with the help of irrigation in these states. Of the total net Crops under MSP:
irrigated area 76.1 per cent in Punjab and 51.3 per cent The MSP covers a range of 23 crops across different
in Haryana are irrigated through wells and tubewells. categories, such as cereals, pulses, oilseeds, and
5. Which of the following is an essential part of the commercial crops. These include:
cultivation of sugarcane? ‰ Cereals: Paddy, Wheat, Barley, Jowar, Bajra, Maize,
(a) Sugarcane grows on well drained soils in humid and and Ragi
sub-humid tropics. ‰ Pulses: Gram, Arhar (Tur), Moong, Urad, Lentil
(b) Sugarcane requires a temperature between 21-27°C ‰ Oilseeds: Groundnut, Rapeseed/Mustard, Toria,
with hot and humid climate. Soybean, Sunflower seed, Sesamum, Safflower, and
Niger seed
(c) ‘Aus’, ‘Aman’ and ‘Boro’ are sugarcane varieties in
‰ Commercial crops: Cotton, Raw Jute, and Copra
India.
Additionally, Sugarcane has a Fair and Remunerative
(d) Sugarcane has a short growing season.
Price (FRP) declared, which functions similarly to MSP.
Ans: (b) The FRP is governed by the Sugarcane (Control) Order,
Option (a) is incorrect: Tea is grown over undulating 1966, under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955.
topography of hilly areas and well drained soils in humid Among the options provided:
and sub-humid tropics and sub-tropics. In India, tea ‰ Gram (a pulse) has MSP.
plantations started in the 1840s in Brahmaputra valley ‰ Groundnut (an oilseed) has MSP.
of Assam which still is a major tea growing area in the
‰ Raw Jute (a commercial crop) has MSP.
country.
‰ Lentil (a pulse) has MSP.
Option (b) is correct: Sugarcane grows with temperature
‰ Barley (a cereal) has MSP.
between 21-27°C with hot and humid climate and rainfall
around 75-100 cm in deep rich loamy soil. Sugar industry ‰ Sugarcane does not technically have MSP, but the
is an important agro-based industry that impacts the government declares a Fair and Remunerative Price
rural livelihood of about 50 million sugarcane farmers (FRP) for sugarcane, which serves a similar function,
and around 5 lakh workers directly employed in sugar protecting farmers against price fluctuations.

Agriculture and Cropping System 221

 Thus, five crops from the list—Gram, Groundnut, Raw ‰ Kharif Crops: The crops that are sown in the rainy
Jute, Lentil, and Barley—have MSP, while Sugarcane is season are called Kharif crops. The rainy season in India
supported through FRP. is generally from June to September. Paddy, maize, soya
7. Consider the following statements regarding Millets bean, groundnut, and cotton are Kharif crops.
crops in India: ‰ Rabi Crops: The crops grown in the winter season
1. It contains Gluten which is beneficial for cardiac (October to March) are called rabi crops. Examples of
Patients. rabi crops are wheat, gram, pea, mustard, and linseed.
2. Requirements for inputs such as fertilizers is Less in 9. Consider the following statements with respect to the
Millet crops. Agricultural Resources Information System (AgRIS)
3. India is the largest producer of Shree Anna. 1. It is an initiative of the Department of Agriculture and
How many of the statements given above are correct? Cooperation.
(a) Only one (b) Only two 2. It helps farmers to get information on best practices
(c) All three (d) None and standardized methodologies.
Ans: (b) Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect: Millets are naturally gluten- (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
free, making them suitable for people with celiac disease (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
or gluten sensitivity. In fact, they are often recommended
Ans: (c)
as a gluten-free alternative to wheat or other gluten-
containing grains. There is no evidence that millets offer Statement 1 is correct: The Agricultural Resources
specific benefits for cardiac patients beyond their general Information System (AgRIS) is an e-governance programme
nutritional value. for fostering agricultural growth, poverty reduction and
Statement 2 is correct: Millets are known for being sustainable resource use in India at grassroots level by the
hardy and drought-resistant crops, requiring less water, Department of Agriculture and Cooperation (DAC).
fertilizers, and pesticides compared to other staple Statement 2 is correct: It enables farmers to
crops like rice or wheat. This makes them a sustainable get information about the National Spatial Data
and climate-friendly option for farmers, especially in Infrastructure (NSDI) on agriculture, guidelines on
resource-limited areas. standardized methodology, the best practices to be used
Statement 3 is correct: “Shree Anna” is another name and the Decision Support Systems (DSS) on Production
for millets in India. India is the largest producer of millets Practices and Systems.
globally, accounting for a significant portion of production,
particularly of pearl millet (bajra), finger millet (ragi), 10. Consider the following factors:
and others. The country is enriched with a wide range 1. Irrigation 2. Power
of millets produced in major millet-growing states like 3. Rainfall 4. Size of land holdings
Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, 5. Sale price of crops 6. Soil
Madhya Pradesh, etc. Millet grown in India are Pearl Millet,
How many of the economic factors given above are
Sorghum, Finger Millet and minor Millets like Proso Millet,
directly influencing cropping patterns in India?
Kodo Millet, Little Millet, Foxtail Millet, Browntop Millet,
Barnyard Millet, Amaranthus and Buckwheat. The Indian (a) Only three (b) Only four
government has also been promoting Millet production (c) Only five (d) Only Six
as part of its National Food Security Mission. As a result Ans: (b)
of these factors, millet production in India is expected to
A cropping pattern is the percentage of land cultivated
continue to grow in the coming years.
for different crops at various times. This shows when
8. Consider the following Crops: and how the crops were planted on a specific acreage.
1. Maize 2. Wheat In India, factors such as average rainfall, temperature,
3. Gram 4. Soyabean climate, technology, and the kind of agricultural soil are
5. Groundnut 6. Pea significant determinants of cropping patterns.
Which of the crops given above are Kharif Crops? Factors Affecting Cropping Patterns:
(a) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only (b) 1, 4 and 5 only ‰ Geographical Factors: Relief, Soil, Temperature,
(c) 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6 only Rainfall etc.
Ans: (b) ‰ Economic Factors: Irrigation, Power, Size of land holdings,
Sale price of crops, Income of farmers, Insurance,
The Indian climatic conditions, like temperature,
humidity, and rainfall, vary from one region to another. Investment. Hence, points 1, 2, 4 and 5 are correct.
Accordingly, there is a rich variety of crops grown in ‰ Political Factors/GovernmentPolicies: Encouragement
different parts of the country. However, two broad or discouragement of certain crops due to reasons
cropping patterns can be identified. These are: like drought, flood, inflation, etc.

222 Human and Economic Geography

 ‰ Its cultivation occupy around 1/4th of total cropped
PW Only IAS Extra Edge
area.
Type of Cropping Description ‰ India contributes 21.6% of rice production
Pattern worldwide, ranking second after China in 2016.
1. Mixed Mixed Cropping is the process Statement 2 is correct: Pulses are the legume crops that
Cropping of growing two or more crops improve soil fertility through nitrogen fixation. India
together on the same piece is a leading producer of pulses globally, accounting for
of land simultaneously. The approximately 25% of the world’s production. (FAO).
cereals are usually mixed with In the fiscal year 2024, India’s pulse production was
legumes, for example, wheat
estimated to be over 24 million metric tons.
is mixed with peas, gram, or
Statement 3 is correct: Millets are small-seeded annual
mustard. Cotton is grown and
mixed with sunflower. grasses grown as grain crops, mainly in dry, marginal
lands across temperate, subtropical, and tropical regions.
2. Crop Rotation Crop Rotation is a smart
Common millets in India include Ragi (Finger millet),
farming technique involving
Jowar (Sorghum), Sama (Little millet), Bajra (Pearl millet),
growing different crops in a
and Variga (Proso millet). Millets are mainly a Kharif crop
specific sequence on the same
land. This practice has been in northern India where it is mostly grown as a fodder
around for centuries, and it’s crop; sown in both Kharif and Rabi seasons in southern
not just a traditional method; states.
it’s a powerful strategy to 12. Consider the following statements with respect to Food
enhance soil health and Crops:
increase crop yields. 1. The ‘aus’, ‘aman’ and ‘boro’ are rice crops.
3. Intercropping Intercropping is the cultivation 2. Groundnut can be cultivated in both kharif and rabi
of two or more crops together seasons in Northern states.
in the same field for a period 3. The Kharif Season largely coincides with the southwest
of time; the crops may differ monsoon, which makes the cultivation of cotton and
by species or cultivar. jute possible.
4. Multiple Multiple Cropping is the How many statements given above are correct?
Cropping practice of growing two or (a) Only one (b) Only two
more crops in the same farm
(c) All three (d) None
land. Instead of growing one
crop in a field we grow two or Ans: (b)
more than two crops in the Statement 1 is correct: In West Bengal, farmers grow
field in the same season. three crops of rice called ‘aus’, ‘aman’ and ‘boro’. Rice is
a prominent staple crop in the India, usually grown in the
11. Consider the following statements: Kharif season.
1. About one-fourth of the total cropped area in the Statement 2 is incorrect: Groundnut is a kharif and rabi
country is under rice cultivation. crop in southern states. While it is a rabi crop in the
2. India is the largest producer of pulses in the world. Northern states.
3. Jowar is sown in both Kharif and Rabi Seasons in Statement 3 is correct: The Kharif Season largely
Southern states. coincides with Southwest Monsoon under which the
Which of the statements given above are correct? cultivation of tropical crops such as rice, cotton, jute,
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only jowar, bajra and tur is possible.
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) All of the above 13. This form of agriculture is found in highly developed
parts of the world. Farms are moderate in size. Fodder
Ans: (d)
crops are an important component of it. Equal emphasis
Statement 1 is correct: Rice is a Kharif crop. It is
is laid on crop cultivation and animal husbandry. Crop
considered to be a crop of tropical humid areas.
rotation and intercropping play an important role in
‰ 16 to 20 degree celsius temperature is required maintaining soil fertility.
for flowering and fertilization and 18 to 32 degree
The above passage describes which one of the following
celsius during ripening of the rice plant.
farming practices?
‰ 150 to 300 cm of average rainfall is required.
(a) Dairy farming (b) Mixed farming
‰ Clayey or alluvial moisture retentive soils are ideal
for rice cultivation (c) Commercial farming (d) Subsistence farming

Agriculture and Cropping System 223

Ans: (b) ‰ Poor in Phosphorus: Alluvial soils are relatively deficient
Mixed Farming is a form of agriculture found in highly in phosphorus. Phosphorus is crucial for plant energy
developed parts of the world, e.g. North-western Europe, transfer, root development, and flowering, but its
Eastern North America, parts of Eurasia, and the temperate concentration in alluvial soils is often lower compared
latitudes of the southern continents. Mixed farms are to other nutrients. Hence, option C is correct.
moderate in size, and usually, the crops associated with
them are wheat, barley, oats, rye, maize, fodder, and root
PW Only IAS Extra Edge
‰ Black soils are rich in lime, iron, magnesia, and
crops. Fodder crops are an important component of mixed
farming. Crop rotation and intercropping play an important alumina, with a good content of potash, and deficient
role in maintaining soil fertility. Equal emphasis is laid on in phosphorus, nitrogen, and organic matter.
crop cultivation and animal husbandry. Animals like cattle, ‰ Red and Yellow soil is generally deficient in
sheep, pigs, and poultry provide the main income, along nitrogen, phosphorus, and humus.
with crops. Mixed farming is characterised by high capital ‰ Laterite soil lacks organic matter, nitrogen,
expenditure on farm machinery and buildings, extensive phosphate, and calcium. It is abundant in iron
use of chemical fertilisers and green manures, and the skill oxide and potash.
and expertise of the farmers. ‰ Arid soil lacks moisture, humus and organic matter. It
is insufficient nitrogen and normal phosphate content.
14. Which of the following best describes the term “Truck ‰ Saline soil is deficient in nitrogen and calcium.
Farming”? A high proportion of sodium, potassium, and
(a) Specialised cultivation of sugar beets for industrial magnesium is present.
purposes.
16. Which of the following crops/legumes are known to be
(b) Intensive mixed farming involving both arable and good in Nitrogen-Fixation from the atmosphere?
pastoral practices.
1. Alfa- alfa 2. Pigeon pea
(c) Highly specialised and intensive market gardening
near urban areas. 3. Red clover 4. Black Gram
(d) Rearing and breeding of dual-purpose sheep breeds 5. Maize 6. Potato
for wool and mutton. Select the correct answer using the code below:
Ans: (c) (a) 2 and 4 only (b) 3 and 5 only
“Truck Farming” refers to the highly specialised and (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3, 4 and 6 only
intensive form of market gardening practised in North- Ans: (c)
West Europe, particularly in areas like the Vales of York Nitrogen-fixing plants are those whose roots are
and Evesham in the United Kingdom. These farms, colonized by certain bacteria that extract nitrogen from
characterized by small size and proximity to urban or the air and fix it into a form required for their growth.
industrial centres, focus on cultivating perishable crops When the bacteria are done with this nitrogen, it
such as lettuces, cabbages, tomatoes, and fruits. becomes available to the plants.
The term, Truck farming is commonly used in the United Point 1 is correct: Alfalfa fixes most (70 90%) of its
States to describe this practice, emphasising the efficient Nitrogen needs from the air through Rhizobium bacteria
transport of fresh produce to meet the demands of residing in alfalfa root nodules. Alfalfa fixes more nitrogen
urban populations. than any legume crop.
15. With reference to nutrient content, which one of the Point 2 is correct: Pigeon pea is a drought-tolerant
following correctly describes the Alluvial Soil? leguminous crop that is widely adaptable and capable of
(a) Rich in nitrogen, poor in potassium. fixing a significant amount of atmospheric nitrogen.
Point 3 is correct: The Red clover serves as an excellent
(b) Rich in phosphorus, poor in potash.
green manure that fixes nitrogen and suppresses weeds.
(c) Rich in potash, poor in phosphorus. Point 4 is correct: Black gram is one of the important
(d) Rich in magnesium, poor in calcium. pulses crops, grown throughout the country. The crop is
Ans: (c) resistant to adverse climatic conditions and improves soil
Alluvial Soil is a type of soil that is formed by the fertility by fixing atmospheric nitrogen in the soil.
deposition of sediments carried by rivers, streams, and Point 5 and 6 are incorrect: Nitrogen-fixing microbial
other water bodies. It is one of the most fertile and association is generally poor in cereals, including maize and
agriculturally productive soil types found in various parts crops like potato. So, these are not nitrogen fixing crops.
of the world. 17. In the context of agricultural practices in India, Precision
‰ Rich in Potash (Potassium): Alluvial soils are generally Farming is often seen in the news. Consider the following:
abundant in potash, which is beneficial for plant 1. Viable for small land holdings.
growth. Potassium is an essential nutrient for various
physiological processes in plants, including enzyme 2. It takes less cost than Conventional Agriculture.
activation, water uptake, and photosynthesis. 3. Reduces application of chemicals and fertilizers.

224 Human and Economic Geography

 How many are the potential benefits of Precision 3. The degree of distress will be identified on the basis
Farming? of twenty one questions.
(a) Only one (b) Only two Which of the statements given above are correct?
(c) All three (d) None (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Ans: (a) (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3
In contrast to conventional cultivation methods, Ans: (b)
Precision Farming employs the precise application of Statement 1 is incorrect: The Farmers Distress Index is
inputs to maximize average yields. It is the science of an early warning system designed for farmers, developed
increasing crop yields through the use of sophisticated by the Central Research Institute for Dryland Agriculture
sensors and analytical instruments. Precision Farming (CRIDA) under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research
makes use of a wide range of cutting-edge instruments (ICAR).
and technologies to track many factors and gather data Statement 2 is correct: The main aim behind creating
about crop development (such as pH, soil moisture, etc.).
such an index is to minimise the agrarian distress in the
Targeted interventions are made using the information.
form of crop loss/failure and income shock. Farmers’
It is called “Precision” because its main goal is to provide
exposure to shocks have increased in the recent years,
the appropriate intervention (such as watering crops) at
with an increase in extreme climate events as well as
the appropriate time and location while addressing the
market and price fluctuations, many times driving them
unique needs of each crop and each piece of land with
to death by suicides.
the highest degree of precision possible.
Statement 3 is correct: Based on these 21 questions,
Merits of Precision Farming
the degree of distress will be identified. The index will
‰ Enhanced agricultural productivity. have values from 0-1. A value between 0-0.5 will indicate
‰ Increasing crop yields. ‘low distress’, 0.5-0.7 will indicate ‘moderate’ distress
‰ Reduction in use of fertilizers and chemicals. Hence, and above 0.7 will indicate ‘severe’ distress. If the index
statement 3 is correct. is severe, it will identify which component, among the
‰ Efficient utilization and application of water seven, is more severe and contributes maximum to
resources. farmers’ distress. The index is currently being worked out
‰ Prevention of soil degradation. in the form of a mobile or desktop application.
‰ Improving income of farmers. 19. Consider the following:
‰ Creation of farm based employment. 1. Savings in Urea subsidy.
Challenges associated with Precision farming 2. Increasing the efficiency of Nitrogen.
‰ Precision farming is not feasible for small land 3. Reduction in loss due to evaporation and leaching.
holdings due to the significant costs involved. How many of the above are the benefits of using Neem-
Furthermore, proximal sensors—such as those Coated Urea in agriculture?
used to record data or soil samples—are typically (a) Only one (b) Only two
installed on farm equipment like tractors. Therefore,
mechanical farming is more compatible with precision (c) All three (d) None
farming. The mechanized farming and high investment Ans: (c)
requirements are only practical and economical on Neem Coated Urea
sizable farms. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Neem-coated urea is urea coated with neem oil, which
‰ The use of sensors, drones, and GPS is essential to serves as a barrier to nitrification. This coating ensures
precision farming. These technologies all demand the gradual release of nitrogen, providing it to crops as
significant upfront financial outlays due to their required, thereby enhancing agricultural productivity.
capital-intensive nature. The necessary quantities Additionally, neem-coated urea is more efficient,
are beyond what small and marginal farmers can requiring 10% less urea compared to regular urea.
afford to spend. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Benefits from Neem-Coated Urea:
‰ It requires efficient use of technology and needs
‰ Reduction in cost of agriculture.
technical expertise for farmers to use modern day
technology. ‰ Increase in income of the farmers.
‰ Approximately 10% saving of urea.
18. Consider the following statements with reference to the
Farmers Distress Index: ‰ Increase in yield by 10-15%.
‰ Helps in soil fertility as the nitrogen comes out slowly.
1. It is published by Central Island Agricultural Research
Institute. ‰ Decline in import of urea.
2. Its main goal is to minimise the agrarian distress in ‰ Savings in subsidy on urea.
the form of crop loss and income shock. ‰ Use of neem coated urea will be possible.

Agriculture and Cropping System 225

 ‰ Will control the industrial use of urea. 3. It has a lesser shelf life than the conventional mustard
‰ Eco friendly. variety.
‰ Increase in efficiency of nitrogen. How many of the above-given statements are correct
‰ Nitrification resistant. with developing Gene-Edited Mustard?
‰ Reduces loss due to evaporation and leaching. (a) Only one (b) Only two
20. Consider the following statements with reference to the (c) All three (d) None
tea production in India: Ans: (d)
1. India is the largest producer of tea in the world. Benefits of Gene Edited Mustard:
2. Assam accounts for more than half of the total tea ‰ Less Pungent: Gene Edited Mustard is less pungent
production in the country. as normal mustard seeds have high levels of
glucosinolates, a group of sulfur and nitrogen-
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
containing compounds contributing to the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only characteristic pungency of their oil and meal. Hence,
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 statement 1 is incorrect.
Ans: (b) ‰ Pest and Disease Resistance: Gene-Edited Mustard
Statement 1 is incorrect: India is the second-largest can be engineered to be more resilient against pests
producer of tea globally. Indian tea is one of the finest in and diseases, leading to increased crop yield and
the world owing to strong geographical indications, heavy reduced reliance on chemical pesticides.
investment in tea processing units, continuous innovation, ‰ Improved Shelf Life: By enhancing the plant’s natural
augmented product mix, and strategic market expansion. As defense mechanisms, gene-edited mustard may have
of 2022, a total of 6.19 lakh hectares of area was cultivated a longer shelf life due to its increased resistance to
in India for tea production. India is also among the world’s spoilage organisms. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
top tea-consuming countries, with 80% of the tea produced ‰ Non-GMO Approach: Gene-Edited Mustard can be
in the country consumed by the domestic population. developed without introducing genes from unrelated
Statement 2 is correct: Situated in the northeastern organisms, which aligns with non-GMO principles
part of India, Assam is the largest producer of tea in and may help alleviate concerns associated with
India. This lush region boasts extensive tea gardens that genetically modified crops. Hence, statement 2 is
stretch as far as the eye can see. The optimum climate, incorrect.
abundant rainfall, and fertile Brahmaputra River valley ‰ Import Bill of India: Edible oils imports were valued
create an ideal ecosystem for the Camellia sinensis plant, at $20.84 billion (Rs 167,270 crore) during the fiscal
from which Assam’s distinctive malty black tea is derived. year ended March 2023, thus there is a need to
The state’s tea estates not only provide half of India’s tea augment domestic production.
output but are also renowned for producing high-quality
22. Consider the following pairs:
tea favored by tea enthusiasts worldwide. This state is
the highest tea-producing state in India. Type of farming State
PW Only IAS Extra Edge 1. Bewar Madhya Pradesh
The tea plant grows well in tropical and sub-tropical 2. Penda Andhra Pradesh
climates endowed with deep and fertile well-drained 3. Bringa Odisha
soil, rich in humus and organic matter. Tea bushes require
4. Kuruwa Jharkhand
warm and moist frost-free climate all through the year.
Frequent showers evenly distributed over the year ensure How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
continuous growth of tender leaves. Tea is a labour (a) Only one (b) Only two
intensive industry. It requires abundant,cheap and skilled
(c) Only three (d) All four
labour. Tea is processed within the tea garden to restore
its freshness. Major tea producing states are Assam, hills Ans: (d)
of Darjeeling and Jalpaiguri districts, West Bengal, Tamil Primitive Subsistence Agriculture involves shifting
Nadu and Kerala. Apart from these, Himachal Pradesh, cultivation which requires clearing vegetation with fire,
Uttarakhand, Meghalaya, Andhra Pradesh and Tripura are which adds soil fertility.
also tea-producing states in the country. State Name of Shifting Cultivation
21. With reference to agriculture in India, consider the North East Jhumming
following statements related to Gene Edited Mustard:
Manipur Pamlou
1. It is more pungent than the conventional variety due
Chhattisgarh and Dipa
to the presence of glucosinolates.
Andaman and Nicobar
2. It can only be produced by introducing genes from
related organisms. Madhya Pradesh Bewar or Dahiya

226 Human and Economic Geography

 Andhra Pradesh Podu or Penda to pests, diseases, or adverse environmental conditions. By
diversifying the crops grown together, farmers can ensure
Odisha Pama Dabi or Koman or Bringa that if one crop fails, another might still yield successfully,
Western Ghats Kumari thus providing a safety net against total loss.
Rajasthan Valre or Waltre 24. Consider the following statements regarding Paira
Himalayan belt Khil Cropping System:
Jharkhand Kuruwa 1. It is a commonly practiced cropping practice in eastern
states of India.
Further, shifting cultivation is also identified differently
2. This system prohibits agronomic interventions like
at global level - For example, Milpa in Central America/
tillage, weeding, irrigation, and fertilization.
Mexico, Ladang in Indonesia/ Malaysia, Conuco in
Venezuela, Roca in Brazil, Masole in Central Africa, Ray Which of the following statements is/are correct?
in Vietnam etc. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
23. With reference to cropping patterns and intensity in (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
agriculture, consider the following statements: Ans: (c)
1. Cropping Intensity refers to the practice of growing The Utera/Paira Cropping Method is prevalent in Bihar,
two or more crops simultaneously in a piece of land Eastern Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh,
in an orderly succession over a year. and Odisha. It involves sowing the seeds of a second
crop (usually pulses like lentils or peas) in the standing
2. Intercropping involves growing multiple crops on the
main crop (typically rice) before it is harvested. Hence,
same field at the same time.
statement 1 is correct.
3. Mixed cropping is the practice of cultivating different The Paira cropping system is a relay cropping method
crops together in the same field without any specific where seeds of lentil, lathyrus, urad bean, or mung bean
row arrangements. are broadcast into a standing rice crop approximately
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? two weeks before its harvest. This method avoids
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only agronomic practices such as tillage, weeding, irrigation,
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 and fertilization. However, the productivity of pulses
largely depends on the rice variety used. Relay cropping,
Ans: (b) a type of multiple cropping, involves sowing one crop
Statement 1 is incorrect: Cropping intensity does not refer into another standing crop before it is harvested. Hence,
to simultaneous crop cultivation. Instead, it denotes the statement 2 is correct.
number of crops grown on the same land within a year. ‰ Advantages of Paira Cropping Method:
For instance, cultivating two crops on the same land in • Preservation of soil moisture post rice harvest,
one agricultural year gives a cropping intensity of 200%. preventing rapid loss.
Increasing cropping intensity is crucial for maximizing the • Higher lentil yields compared to traditional tillage
use of available land, especially in countries like India, methods after rice harvest.
where the pressure on arable land is high due to rapid • Efficient resource utilization for sustainable crop
population growth. This practice also helps in meeting intensification and increased land productivity.
the rising food demands and optimizing the productivity
25. Consider the following statements with reference to the
of a given area, particularly in areas where land is scarce
Categories of Land Use Records:
or unsuitable for expansion.
Statement 2 is correct: Intercropping is the cultivation of 1. Culturable wasteland is any land which is left
two or more crops in proximity on the same plot of land, uncultivated for more than five years.
with each crop occupying its own row. The idea behind 2. Current fallow is the land which is left without
intercropping is resource maximization—different crops cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year.
may utilize sunlight, water, and soil nutrients at varying 3. Fallow other than current fallow is a cultivable land
rates or depths, leading to more efficient resource which is left uncultivated for more than a year but less
use overall. Intercropping can also serve as a natural than five years.
pest control method, as certain crops may repel pests How many of the statements given above are correct?
that would harm others. For instance, maize is often (a) Only one (b) Only two
intercropped with legumes like beans, as the maize (c) All three (d) None
provides physical support for the beans, and the beans Ans: (c)
enrich the soil with nitrogen through biological fixation. Land use in a region is influenced by the nature of
Statement 3 is correct: Mixed cropping, or polyculture, economic activities carried out in that region to a large
involves planting multiple crops on the same land at the extent. However, while economic activities change over
same time without any specific row arrangement. The time, land, like many other natural resources, is fixed in
goal here is to reduce the risk of complete crop failure due terms of its area.

Agriculture and Cropping System 227

 Various categories of Land Use are: Important crops grown during this season are paddy,
‰ Area under Permanent Pastures and Grazing maize, jowar, bajra, tur (arhar), moong, urad, cotton,
Lands: Most of this type of land is owned by the jute, groundnut and soyabean.
village ‘Panchayat’ or the Government. Only a small 27. In the context of the agricultural system, the term
proportion of this land is privately owned. The ‘Fertigation’ is often seen in the news. It is related to
land owned by the village panchayat comes under which of the following?
‘Common Property Resources.
(a) Application of biocides on crops to prevent infestation
‰ The area under Miscellaneous Tree Crops and
by pests.
Groves (Not included in Net sown Area): The land
under orchards and fruit trees is included in this (b) Application of fertilizers or nutrients in agricultural
category. Much of this land is privately owned. fields via irrigation system.
‰ Culturable Waste-Land: Any land which is left fallow (c) Use of biofertilizers on genetically modified crops.
(uncultivated) for more than five years is included (d) It is the use of synthetic fertilizers on agricultural crops
in this category. It can be brought under cultivation to increase yields.
after improving it through reclamation practices. Ans: (b)
Hence, Statement 1 is correct. Fertigation is the process of adding nutrients or fertilizers
‰ Current Fallow: This is the land which is left without to an agricultural system through an irrigation network.
cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year. The nutrients dissolve in the water and are subsequently
Following is a cultural practice adopted for giving the taken up directly by the plants when they absorb water.
land rest. The land recoups the lost fertility through The word, which combines the words “fertilizer” and
natural processes. Hence, Statement 2 is correct. “irrigation,” has been around for hundreds of years.
‰ Fallow other than Current Fallow: This is also a Farmers in ancient Rome actually used sewage to irrigate
cultivable land which is left uncultivated for more their crops, though things have changed a lot since then.
than a year but less than five years. If the land is
Sprinkler, drip, and soaker irrigation systems are among
left uncultivated for more than five years, it would
the several methods it can be utilized with; drip irrigation
be categorised as a culturable wasteland. Hence,
is the most advantageous and compatible variety.
Statement 3 is correct.
It is also a common practice in hydroponic or soil-less
26. Which of the following are examples of Zaid Crops? growing systems, as it is by far the easiest technique for
1. Watermelon 2. Maize administering exact doses of the proper nutrition needed
3. Cucumbers 4. Groundnut by plants in these systems.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 28. ‘It is a traditional intercropping system followed in
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only Karnataka, which encourages biodiversity on the
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only farm and secures the yield from the farmland. It is
traditionally practised on rainfed agricultural land as
Ans: (b)
dryland agriculture.’
India has three cropping seasons — Rabi, Kharif and Zaid.
Identify the farming system from the options given
Zaid season is a short season during the summer months
below:
in between the rabi and the kharif seasons. It begins
after the harvesting of rabi crops. (a) Pekuli (b) Kandukuri
Points 1 and 3 are correct: The cultivation of watermelons, (c) Akkadi Saalu (d) Vaigai Pattanam
cucumbers, vegetables and fodder crops during this Ans: (c)
season is done on irrigated lands. However, this type Akkadi Saalu, a traditional intercropping system followed
of distinction in the cropping season does not exist in in Karnataka, encourages biodiversity on the farm and
southern parts of the country. There, the temperature secures the yield from the farmland. It is traditionally
is high enough to grow tropical crops during any period practised on rainfed agricultural land as dryland
of the year, provided the soil moisture is available. agriculture.
Therefore, in this region, the same crops can be grown In the Akkadi Saalu method, earthworms and other soil
thrice in an agricultural year, provided there is sufficient organisms are used to create preferential pathways. The
soil moisture. central principle of the method is that if soil biodiversity
Points 2 and 4 are not correct: Kharif crops are grown is conserved then the soil fauna will dig tunnels and
with the onset of monsoon in different parts of the burrows and create preferential pathways for the
country, and these are harvested in September-October. rainwater to infiltrate.

228 Human and Economic Geography

 One of the critical aspects of Akkadi Saalu is therefore to The characteristic features of this type of farming are:
preserve life in the soil and not use pesticides. This type ‰ Large estates or plantations.
of farming involves working with the land, the soil and
‰ Large capital investment.
the seasons. A variety of seeds are sown just before the
‰ Managerial and technical support.
first pre-monsoon rains. A couple of weeks after these
‰ Scientific methods of cultivation.
germinate, the soil is turned over. This increases the
organic matter in the soil but also ensures that the seeds ‰ Single crop specialisation.
of most weeds have germinated and been eliminated. ‰ Cheap labour, and
29. Consider the following statements with reference to the ‰ A good system of transportation links the estates to the
Producer Organisations (PO): factories and markets for the export of the products.
1. A Producer Organisation is formed by farmers only. 31. This is a medicinal plant that is used to treat nausea,
2. It is an organization of the producers, by the producers vomiting, and motion sickness. It is a herbaceous,
and for the producers. perennial plant that is native to Southeast Asia, but it is
3. The maximum number of members in the organization now cultivated in many tropical and subtropical regions.
is restricted to ten members only. It has thick, knotty rhizomes that are used to make ale
How many of the statements given above are incorrect? and beer. It is also used as a spice in cooking. They can
be propagated by rhizome division or by seed.
(a) Only one (b) Only two
Which of the following rhizomes is best described by
(c) All three (d) None
the passage given above?
Ans: (b)
(a) Bamboo (b) Ginger
Statement 1 is incorrect: A Producer Organization can be
formed not only by farmers but also by other producers (c) Turmeric (d) Venus Flytrap
such as artisans, fishers, weavers, or rural producers Ans: (b)
engaged in various activities. Option (a) is incorrect: Bamboo is a type of grass that is
Statement 2 is correct: The ownership of the PO is with not a medicinal plant. It does not have rhizomes, but it
its members. It is an organization of the producers, by does have underground stems called culms.
the producers and for the producers. One or more Option (b) is correct: Ginger can be taken as a tea or
institutions and/or individuals may have promoted the
capsule to help relieve nausea and vomiting caused by
PO by way of assisting in mobilization, registration,
motion sickness, pregnancy, or surgery. Ginger plants can
business planning and operations. However, ownership
grow up to 1 metre tall and have long, green leaves. The
control is always with members and management is
rhizomes of ginger plants are thick and knotty. Ginger
through the representatives of the members.
rhizomes are used to add flavour to ale and beer. They can
Statement 3 is incorrect: The minimum number of
membership depends on the legal form of the Producer also be used to make ginger ale and ginger beer. Ginger is
Organisation. There is no restriction on the maximum a popular spice in Asian cuisine. It can be used in stir-fries,
number of membership. Generally, the PO will require curries, and marinades. Ginger rhizomes can be divided
certain minimum scale of operation to remain in business. into smaller pieces and planted. Ginger seeds can also be
This operation scale/volume is known as break-even level. planted, but they will take longer to germinate.
30. Consider the following: Option (c) is incorrect: Turmeric is a medicinal plant that
is used to treat inflammation. It does not have thick,
1. Large estates
knotty rhizomes, but it does have thin, wiry rhizomes.
2. Small capital investment
Option (d) is incorrect: Venus flytrap is a carnivorous plant
3. Single crop specialisation
that does not have rhizomes. It has underground stems
4. Cheap labour
called rhizomes, but they are not used for propagation.
How many of the above are characteristics of Plantation
Agriculture? 32. With reference to the Food Processing Industry and
(a) Only one (b) Only two agriculture production of the world, consider the
following statements:
(c) Only three (d) All four
Ans: (c) 1. India ranks first in terms of food processing industry.
Plantation agriculture was introduced by the Europeans 2. China is the world’s largest producer of Milk and
in colonies situated in the tropics. Some of the important Pulses.
plantation crops are tea, coffee, cocoa, rubber, cotton, oil 3. The United States of America is the world’s second-
palm, sugarcane, bananas, and pineapples. largest producer of wheat.

Agriculture and Cropping System 229

 How many of the above statements are incorrect? Statement 2 is incorrect: Agriculture, with its allied
(a) Only one (b) Only two sectors, is the largest source of livelihood in India. 70
(c) All three (d) None percent of its rural households still depend primarily on
agriculture for their livelihood, with 82 percent of farmers
Ans: (c)
being small and marginal. India is the World’s largest
Statement 1 is incorrect: The food processing industry is
producer of Spices, Milk, and Pulses and it is the second
a Sunrise industry. The food processing industry is widely
largest producer of tea and sugarcane in the world.
distributed in the world with mostly its roots in developed
countries like the USA, Japan, Mexico, etc., but it is gaining Statement 3 is incorrect: India is the world’s second
great popularity in developing countries too, due to the largest producer of wheat, fruits, and vegetables. It is
new fast-fuming life which is gaining much influence amid the second-largest producer of rice, wheat, sugarcane,
the people, and hence, the shelf food and better quality cotton, and groundnuts, as well as the second-largest
foods are becoming the priority of the people world over. fruit and vegetable producer, accounting for 10.9% and
India ranks 5th in terms of the food processing industry 8.6% of the world’s fruit and vegetable production,
and ranges a great variety in food processing. respectively.

230 Human and Economic Geography

 5
Industries and
Economic
Development

Objective Questions for Practice

1. Consider the following statements regarding various Ans: (d)

industries in India: Statement 1 is correct: The mineral based industries
1. The first successful textile mill was established in use minerals as a raw material. Some industries use
Mumbai in 1854. ferrous metallic minerals which contain ferrous (iron),
2. The first jute mill was set up near Kolkata in 1855 at such as iron and steel industries but some use non-
Rishra. ferrous metallic minerals, such as aluminium, copper and
jewellery industries. Pottery industries use clay, which is
3. In recent years, there has been a tendency for the
a mineral resource, as the primary raw material, making
sugar mills to shift to southern and western states.
them mineral-based industries.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 2 is correct: The chemical based industries
(a) Only one (b) Only two use natural chemical minerals for example mineral-oil like
(c) All three (d) None petroleum is used in the petrochemical industry. Salts,
Ans: (c) sulphur and potash industries also use natural minerals.
Statement 1 is correct: In ancient India, cotton textiles Chemical industries are also based on raw materials
were produced with hand spinning and handloom obtained from wood and coal. Plastics are derived from
petrochemicals, which are chemical products, making
weaving techniques. After the 18th century, power
plastic industries chemical-based.
-looms came into use. The first successful Textile Mill in
India was established in Mumbai in 1854. (The Bombay Statement 3 is correct: Forests supply a variety of
Spinning and Weaving Company by Cowasji Nanabhoy) major and minor products that serve as raw materials
Statement 2 is correct: India is the largest producer of for various industries. Timber supports the furniture
raw jute and jute goods and stands in second place as industry, while wood, bamboo, and grass are essential
an exporter after Bangladesh. The first Jute Mill was set for the paper industry. Lac, a natural resin produced by
up near Kolkata in 1855 at Rishra. Most of the mills are lac insects feeding on specific host trees, is vital for lac
located in West Bengal, mainly along the banks of the industries. These industries depend heavily on forest
Hugli River, in a narrow belt. resources and are categorized as forest-based industries.
Statement 3 is correct: India stands second as a 3. Consider the following statements regarding the
world producer of sugar but occupies first place in the Vishakhapatnam-Guntur industrial Region:
production of gur and khandsari. Sixty percent of mills 1. In the initial years, the Kakinada and Krishnapatnam
are in Uttar Pradesh and Bihar. However, in recent ports facilitated the development of this region.
years, there has been a tendency for the mills to shift
2. Ship-building Industry was the first to take root in this
and concentrate in the southern and western states,
region.
especially in Maharashtra. This is because the cane
produced here has a higher sucrose content. Which of the above given statements is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. Consider the following statements regarding
classification of Industries: (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. The pottery industries are mineral based industries. Ans: (a)
2. Plastic industries are chemical based industries. Statement 1 is incorrect: The Vishakapatnam-Guntur
region extends from Visakhapatnam to Kurnool and
3. The Lac industries are forest based industries.
Prakasam districts in the southern parts of Andhra
Which of the statements given above are correct? Pradesh. The growth and industrial development
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only of this region was facilitated by Visakhapatnam and
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Machilipatnam ports and it also led to the development
 of agriculture and rich reserves of minerals in their 3. The PMI includes data from private sector companies
hinterlands. Kakinada and Krishnapatnam ports only while the IIP encompasses both private and
developed much later. public sector enterprises.
Statement 2 is correct: The ship-building industry was How many of the statements given above are correct?
indeed one of the earliest industries to develop in the (a) Only one (b) Only two
Visakhapatnam-Guntur region, with Visakhapatnam
(c) Only three (d) None
being a prominent hub for shipbuilding activities.
Thereafter there was a rapid rise of petroleum refinery Ans: (a)
based on imported petroleum. This led to growth of Statement 1 is incorrect: The Purchasing Managers Index
several petrochemical industries. Other industries in (PMI) is published by Nikkei, a private entity that surveys
the region include jute, paper, sugar, textiles, fertiliser, purchasing managers from a variety of sectors to gauge
cement, aluminium and light engineering. economic activity. The Index of Industrial Production (IIP), on
the other hand, is released by the National Statistical Office
4. Consider the following statements regarding Footloose
(NSO) of the Government of India, which is responsible
Industries:
for collecting and disseminating statistical data relevant to
1. These industries rely on their geographical location. the country’s economy. This fundamental difference in the
2. They heavily rely on access to raw materials and large source of these indices indicates the methodologies and
labor forces. focus areas of their data collection processes.
3. They typically produce in small workforce and are Statement 2 is incorrect: The PMI does not track actual
generally non-polluting. production levels; rather, it serves as a sentiment
How many of the statements given above are correct? indicator that reflects purchasing managers’ perceptions
about business conditions. It incorporates factors like
(a) Only one (b) Only two
new orders, inventory levels, production rates, and
(d) All three (d) None supplier deliveries, providing a snapshot of economic
Ans: (a) activity. Conversely, the IIP is a direct measure of actual
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Footloose Industry is production output in the manufacturing sector and
a general term for an industry that can be placed and includes data collected from various industries. It tracks
located at any location without effect from factors such changes in the volume of production, which can inform
as resources or transport. Footloose industries, such policymakers about the health of the industrial sector
as diamond and computer chip manufacturing, are and its contributions to overall economic growth.
characterized by their ability to establish operations in Statement 3 is correct: The PMI is based on surveys conducted
various locations without being heavily influenced by with a limited number of private sector companies (around
factors like resources or transportation. 500), primarily focusing on purchasing managers’ insights
regarding business conditions and future expectations.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Footloose Industries can
It offers timely indicators of economic trends and is often
be located in a wide variety of places. They are not
viewed as a leading indicator of economic performance.
dependent on any specific raw material, weight loss,
In contrast, the IIP provides a more comprehensive view
or otherwise. They largely depend on component parts
by including production data from both private-sector
which can be obtained anywhere. Hence, access to
companies and public-sector undertakings (PSUs). This
raw material is not an important factor influencing the breadth allows the IIP to reflect a more complete picture
location of footloose industries. The important factor in of industrial output and its contribution to GDP, making it a
their location is accessibility by road network. critical component for economic analysis.
Statement 3 is correct: Footloose Industries typically
operate on a small scale, employing a limited workforce 6. Consider the following factors:
and producing goods in small quantities. Moreover, 1. Raw material 2. Water
they tend to be non-polluting. The growth of footloose 3. Labour 4. Transport
industries is driven by the demand for highly sophisticated 5. Market
products that require extensive scientific research and Which of the above factors affects the location of
development. They facilitate rapid product adaptation to Industries?
meet market demands. (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
5. With reference to the differences between the Purchasing (c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Managers Index (PMI) and the Index of Industrial
Ans: (d)
Production (IIP), consider the following statements:
The factors affecting the location of industries are the
1. The PMI is published by the government of India while availability of
the IIP is released by the private agency.
‰ Raw material
2. The PMI measures actual production levels of goods
‰ Land
and services whereas the IIP focuses solely on the
‰ Water
manufacturing sector.

232 Human and Economic Geography

 ‰ Labour Statement 4 is correct: The development of the Gujarat
‰ Power Industrial Region is associated with the location of the
‰ Capital cotton textile industry since the 1860s. Located in a
cotton-growing area, this region has the double advantage
‰ Transport
of being near both raw materials and the market.
‰ Market
Industries are situated where some or all of these factors 8. Consider the following Industries:
are easily available. Sometimes, the government provides 1. Durgapur Steel Plant 2. Aluminium Industry
incentives like subsidised power, lower transport cost, 3. Mathura Refinery 4. Synthetic Nitrogen
and other infrastructure so that industries may be Which of the above given industries are most dependent
located in backward areas. Industrialisation often leads on power availability for their location?
to the development and growth of towns and cities (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Raw material (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 3 only
Ans:
Power Labour Statement 1 is incorrect: Raw materials are very
important for the location of iron and steel industries as
Land Capital iron ore and coal are both weight-losing raw materials.
Hence it is seen that the development and growth of iron
Transport Market and steel industries are either near coalfields (Bokaro,
Durgapur, etc.) or near sources of iron ore (Bhadravati,
Bhilai, and Rourkela).
Statement 3 is incorrect: The petroleum refinery is found
near the markets because the distribution and transport of
Fig: Locational factors for industries crude oil becomes easier and several products derived from
them are used as raw material in other industries. Koyali,
7. With reference to the major industrial regions in India,
Mathura and Barauni refineries are typical examples.
consider the following statements:
Statements 2 and 4 are correct: Power is the basic and
1. Easy accessibility to minerals and power resources is a essential factor for most of the industries, However, certain
factor for its growth for Gurgaon - Delhi - Meerut Region. industries are majorly located near sources of power:
2. Location near coalfields is a factor for its growth for
‰ Aluminium Industry
the Bangalore-Chennai Industrial Region.
‰ Synthetic nitrogen manufacturing industries
3. Location near iron ore sources is a factor for its growth
It is because being a power intensive sector, they need
for the Chotanagpur Region.
huge quantity of electricity and hence power availability
4. Location near the cotton growing area is a factor for plays a major role for their establishment.
the growth of the Gujarat Industrial Region.
Which of the statements given above are correct? 9. With reference to the cotton and textile industry in
India, consider the following statements:
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only
1. As cotton is a weight-losing material, the cotton industry
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
favours its location near cotton-growing areas.
Ans: (c) 2. The production of cotton in India has been steadily
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Gurgaon-Delhi-Meerut increasing in the last five years.
Region is far away from mineral and power resources, so 3. The Government of India has launched the PM MITRA
its industries are light and market-oriented. Electronics, scheme for the development of integrated textile
light engineering, and electrical goods are major regions and apparel parks.
industries in this region.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 2 is incorrect: Bangalore-Chennai Industrial
Region is located far away from the coalfields. Industries (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only
in this region face a thermal power shortage, and they are (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only
relying on other sources such as Hydroelectricity, Nuclear Ans: (a)
energy, Solar energy, and Wind energy to bridge the gap. The Cotton Textile Industry is one of the traditional
Aircraft (HAL), machine tools, telephone (HTL), and Bharat industries of India. In 1854, the first modern cotton mill
Electronics are industrial landmarks of this region. was established in Mumbai.
Statement 3 is correct: Chotanagpur Region owes its Statement 1 is incorrect: Unlike Sugarcane which
development to its location near the sources of coal, iron loses its weight in the manufacturing process, Cotton
ore and other minerals. This facilitated the location of is a pure raw material that does not lose weight in the
heavy industries in this region. Six large integrated iron manufacturing process. Hence, other factors, like, the
and steel plants at Jamshedpur, BurnpurKulti, Durgapur, power to drive the looms, labour, capital or market, may
Bokaro and Rourkela are located within this region. determine the location of the industry.

Industries and Economic Development 233

 Statement 2 is incorrect: India is having 1st place in the (a) Massive assembly structures, factories, and storage
world with an estimated production of around 23% of world areas mark the high-tech industrial landscape.
cotton production. India is also the 2nd largest consumer of (b) The professionals who work in these industries are
cotton in the world. The details of the production of cotton known as blue-collar workers.
during the last 5 years are given below:
(c) It is characterised by robotics on the assembly line,
Cotton Production in India (lakh bales of 170 kg) computer-aided design (CAD) and manufacturing,
370.0
365.0 electronic controls of the smelting and refining process.
352.5 (d) High-tech industries which are regionally concentrated,
343.5 self-sustained and highly specialised are called megapolis.
333.0
Ans: (c)
312.0 317.0 High Technology, or simply high-tech, is the latest
generation of manufacturing activities. It is best
understood as the application of intensive Research and
Development (R&D) efforts leading to the manufacturing
2017-18 2018-19 2019-20 2020-21 2021-22 2022-23 2023-24* of products having an advanced scientific and
Note: *Till November 2023 engineering character. The professionals who work there
Thus, cotton production has not steadily increased in the are known as Professional (White Collar) workers. They
last five years. make up a large share of the total workforce. Robotics
on the assembly line, Computer-Aided Design (CAD)
Statement 3 is correct: The Ministry of Textiles (MoT)
and manufacturing, electronic controls of smelting and
has launched the PM Mega Integrated Textile Regions
refining processes, and the constant development of
and Apparel Parks (PM MITRA) Scheme to boost India’s
new chemical and pharmaceutical products are notable
textile industry. The scheme aims to create a large-scale,
examples of high-tech industry. Neatly spaced, low,
modern industrial infrastructure that integrates the
modern, dispersed, office-plant-lab buildings, rather
entire textile value chain—from spinning and weaving to
than massive assembly structures, factories and storage
garment manufacturing—at a single location, reducing
areas , mark the high-tech industrial landscape. High-
logistics costs and attracting investment. Inspired by the
tech industries which are regionally concentrated, self-
5F vision (Farm to Fibre to Factory to Fashion to Foreign),
sustained and highly specialised are called Technopolies.
PM MITRA will support export growth and job creation.
The Silicon Valley near San Francisco and Silicon Forest
10. Consider the following Industries: near Seattle are examples of Technopolies.
1. Food processing 2. Vegetable oil 12. Consider the following statements regarding the
3. Cotton textile 4. Leather industries Chemical Industry:
How many of the above are Agro Based Industries? 1. The Petrochemical Industry primarily converts raw
(a) Only one (b) Only two materials derived from mineral oil into various
(c) Only three (d) All four chemical products.
Ans: (d) 2. Large Chemical Industries are primarily located near
Industry refers to an economic activity that is concerned the sources of raw materials rather than markets.
with the production of goods, extraction of minerals, or 3. The petrochemical industry falls under the category
the provision of services. Industries can be classified on of inorganic chemical industries.
the basis of raw materials as: How many of the statements given above are correct?
‰ Agro based (a) Only one (b) Only two
‰ Marine based (c) All three (c) None
‰ Mineral based Ans: (a)
‰ Forest based Statement 1 is correct: The Petrochemical Industry is
Agro-based industries use plant and animal based pivotal in converting a range of raw materials derived
products as their raw materials. Some examples of these from mineral oil into myriad chemical products. Key
industries are: resources such as petroleum, natural gas, coal, and wood
‰ Food processing. Hence, point 1 is correct. are processed and refined to create chemicals that are
essential for various other industries.
‰ Vegetable oil. Hence, point 2 is correct.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The location of large chemical
‰ Cotton textile. Hence, point 3 is correct.
industries is a strategic decision influenced by various
‰ Dairy products. factors. While having access to raw materials is
‰ Leather industries. Hence, point 4 is correct. undeniably important, it’s paramount to be proximate to
11. Which one of the following statements is correct key markets where demand for the products is highest. By
regarding High-Tech Industries? situating closer to these markets, industries can reduce

234 Human and Economic Geography

 transportation costs, respond faster to market changes, Ans: (b)
and ensure a steady flow of their products, underscoring Secondary Industries are those that take the raw
the market’s centrality in location decisions. materials produced by the primary sector and process
Statement 3 is incorrect: The classification of the them into manufactured goods and products.
chemical industry into organic and inorganic is based ‰ Examples of Secondary Industries include heavy
on the nature of the compounds they deal with. manufacturing, light manufacturing, food processing,
Organic chemical industries primarily focus on carbon- oil refining and energy production. Hence, points 1,
based compounds. The petrochemical industry, dealing 2 and 4 are correct.
with compounds derived from petroleum and other The Tertiary Sector is also called the Service Sector and
hydrocarbons, squarely falls within this organic category. involves the selling of services and skills. They can also
Contrarily, inorganic chemical industries handle involve selling goods and products from primary and
compounds without carbon, distinguishing the two secondary industries.
sectors fundamentally.
‰ Examples of tertiary employment include the health
13. Consider the following Industries: service, transportation, education,entertainment,
1. Metal Smelting 2. Fabric making tourism, finance, sales and retail Surgeons. Hence,
3. Mat weaving point 5 is incorrect.
How many of the above-given Industries can be classified The quaternary sector consists of those industries providing
as a ‘Smokestack Industry’? information services, such as computing, ICT (Information
and Communication Technologies), Consultancy (offering
(a) Only one (b) Only two
advice to businesses) and R&D (research, particularly in
(c) All three (d) None scientific fields). Hence, point 3 is incorrect.
Ans: (a) ‰ The quaternary sector is sometimes included with
Point 1 is correct: Smokestack Industries are Industries the tertiary sector, as they are both service sectors.
engaged in metal smelting, heavy engineering, chemical 15. With reference to Sugar Industry, consider the following
manufacture or textile production, often located in large-
statements:
scale industrial regions and near coal fields. In smokestack
industries/regions certain traits are as follows:- 1. Molasses can be used for producing ethanol.
‰ A high proportion of employment in the 2. Bagasse can be used for generation of energy.
manufacturing industry. 3. Molasses can also be utilized as a cattle feed.
‰ High-density housing, often of inferior type, and How many of the statements given above are incorrect?
poor services. (a) Only one (b) Only two
‰ Unattractive environment, for example, pollution, (c) All three (d) None
waste heaps, and so on.
Ans: (d)
‰ Problems of unemployment, emigration and derelict
Bagasse:
land areas, sometimes caused by the closure of
factories. Bagasse is the dry, fibrous residue left after extracting
Points 2 and 3 are incorrect: Fabric making and mat juice from sugarcane or sorghum. The term originates
weaving are classified as household/cottage or small- from the French word “baggage” and the Spanish word
scale Industries. In these sectors, artisans use local “bagazo,” both meaning refuse or rubbish.
raw materials and basic tools to produce day-to-day Applications of Bagasse:
goods and generally utilise family labour for work in 1. As a Fuel: Bagasse is primarily used as a fuel in sugar
their homes. The final products are usually utilised for mills, generating sufficient energy to power the mill
personal consumption in the same household or, for sale operations. In some countries, ethanol derived from
in local (village) markets. bagasse is also used as a fuel. Hence, Statement 2 is
14. Consider the following industries: correct.
1. Food processing industries 2. For Pulp and Paper: Bagasse serves as a raw material
2. Oil refining for producing pulp, paper, and boards in countries
like Thailand, China, and India.
3. Research, particularly in scientific fields
3. As Cattle Feed: When treated with enzymes and
4. Energy production
molasses and fermented, bagasse can be used as
5. Transportation cattle feed.
How many of the above are the examples of the Molasses:
Secondary Industries?
Molasses is the thick syrup left after refining sugarcane or
(a) Only two (b) Only three sugar beets. It is rich in minerals like calcium, magnesium,
(c) Only four (d) All five iron, manganese, and Vitamin B6.

Industries and Economic Development 235

 Applications of Molasses: 2. Production technique and place of manufacture
1. For Ethanol Production: Molasses is a key raw material distinguish a small scale manufacturing unit from that
for ethanol, which is used in rum distillation, beer of household industries.
production, and as a fuel. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. 3. The Textiles and Oil fats industry is a type of Agro
2. In Food: Molasses is used as a sweetener and flavoring processing industry.
agent in baking, cooking, and producing brown sugar. How many of the above statements are correct?
3. As Cattle Feed: Molasses is also used as a fodder (a) Only one (b) Only two
additive for cattle. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
(c) All three (d) None
PW Only IAS Extra Edge Ans: (b)
About Sugarcane Crop: Statement 1 is incorrect: Footloose industries can be
‰ Sugarcane is a giant tropical grass from the family located in a wide variety of places. They are not dependent
Graminaceae, whose stalk has the particular on any specific raw material, weight loss, or otherwise.
capacity to store a crystallizable sugar, sucrose. They produce in small quantities and employ a small
‰ It is the main source of sugar, Gur (jaggery), labour force. These are generally not polluting industries.
khandsari and molasses. Statement 2 is correct: Small-scale manufacturing
‰ Top Sugarcane Producing States includes Uttar is distinguished from household industries by their
Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Bihar. production techniques and place of manufacture like
outside households or in a small workshop. This type of
Suitable Conditions for sugarcane Production:
manufacturing uses local raw materials, simple power-
‰ Temperature: Between 21-27°C with hot and driven machines, and semi-skilled labour. It provides
humid climate. employment and raises local purchasing power.
‰ Rainfall: Around 75-100 cm. Statement 3 is correct: Agro-processing involves the
‰ Soil Type: Deep rich loamy soil. processing of raw materials from the farm into finished
products for rural and urban markets. Major agro-
16. Consider the following statements regarding the Iron
processing industries are food processing, sugar, pickles,
and Steel Industries:
fruit juices, beverages like tea, coffee, and cocoa, spices and
1. Almost all the raw materials used in the iron and steel
oils fats, and textiles such as cotton, jute, silk, rubber, etc.
industry are weight-losing raw materials.
2. In India, all steel plants are located near the sites of 18. Consider the following statement with respect to
raw materials. Manufacturing Industries:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1. It reduces the heavy dependence of people on
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only agricultural income by providing them with jobs in
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 the secondary and tertiary sectors.
2. They have an adverse impact on the modernization
Ans: (a) of agriculture.
Statement 1 is correct: All these raw materials are gross 3. It brings in foreign exchange for the country.
(weight-losing), therefore, the best location for the iron How many of the statements given above are correct?
and steel plants is near the source of raw materials. In
(a) Only one (b) Only two
India, there is a crescent of the shaped region comprising
parts of Chhattisgarh, Northern Odisha,Jharkhand, and (c) All three (d) None
western West Bengal, which is extremely rich in high- Ans: (b)
grade iron ore, good quality coking coal, and other Statement 1 is correct: The Manufacturing Sector is
supplementing raw materials. This region supports the considered the backbone of development in general and
major steel plants. economic development in particular mainly because they
Statement 2 is incorrect: New steel plants that were set reduce the heavy dependence of people on agricultural
up in the Fourth Plan period are away from the main income by providing them jobs in Secondary and Tertiary
raw material sources. All three plants are located in Sectors.
South India. The Vizag Steel Plant, in Visakhapatnam in Statement 2 is incorrect: The Manufacturing Industry
Andhra Pradesh, is the first port-based plant that started can have significant effects on the modernisation of
operating in 1992. Its port location is of advantage. Apart agriculture in terms of technology transfer, supply chain
from major steel plants, there are more than 206 units and infrastructure, value addition, food processing, job
located in different parts of the country. Most of these opportunities and income generation.
use scrap iron as their main raw material and process it Statement 3 is correct: The export of manufactured goods
in electric furnaces.
expands trade and commerce and brings in much-needed
17. With reference to classification of industries, consider foreign exchange for the country. When a country exports
the following statements: manufactured goods, it generates revenue from international
1. Footloose Industries are generally non polluting markets. This revenue, earned in foreign currency, contributes
industries and employ a large labour force. to the country’s foreign exchange reserves.

236 Human and Economic Geography

 19. Consider the following statements: 1. The concept of SEZ in India was introduced through
1. They are owned and operated collectively by the the SEZ Act of 2005 and the SEZ Rules of 2006.
producers or suppliers of raw materials and workers. 2. Export Processing Zones (EPZs) in India faced
2. They pool the resources and share the profits or losses limitations due to multiple controls, lack of world-class
proportionately. infrastructure, and an unstable fiscal regime.
3. SEZs offer duty-free enclaves treated as foreign
Which of the following is/are correct regarding
territory only for trade operations, duties, and tariffs.
Cooperative Sector Industries?
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: Cooperative Sector Industries Ans: (b)
refer to economic enterprises that are collectively Statement 1 is incorrect:: The Special Economic Zone
owned and operated by the producers or suppliers of (SEZ) Policy was introduced in 2000 followed by SEZ Act
raw materials and workers who work together for their in 2005 and SEZ rules in 2006.
mutual benefit. These entities, known as cooperatives or Statement 2 is correct: India was one of the first in Asia
co-ops, are characterised by their democratic ownership to recognise the effectiveness of the Export Processing
and decision-making structures. Zone (EPZ) model in promoting exports, with Asia’s first
Statement 2 is correct: Cooperatives are autonomous EPZ set up in Kandla in 1965. However, the EPZs were
organisations that are self-managed by their members. not able to emerge as effective instruments for export
They make decisions based on their members’ needs and promotion on account of the multiplicity of controls and
aspirations. They pool their resources and share the profits clearances, the absence of world-class infrastructure,
or losses proportionately. Such examples are the Sugar and an unstable fiscal regime.
Industry in Maharashtra and the Coir Industry in Kerala. Statement 3 is correct: SEZ is essentially an industrial
20. With reference to Polymers Industry in India, consider cluster meant largely for exports. A SEZ is governed by a
the following statements: special set of rules aimed at attracting direct investment
1. Polymer are made from Ethylene and Propylene. for export-oriented production. SEZs are duty-free
2. The initial development of polymer industries took enclaves which are treated as foreign territory only for
place after the globalisation of Indian Economy. trade operations, duties, and tariffs and are typically
3. Polymeric materials are used in making Satellite marked by the best infrastructure and least red tape.
Launch Vehicles. 22. With reference to the classification of Manufacturing
Which of the above given statements is/are correct? Enterprises and service-rendering enterprises in India,
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only consider the following statements:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Micro-enterprises are defined as those with an
Ans: (c) investment limit of ₹1 crore and a turnover limit of
Statement 1 is correct: The production of Polymers is ₹50 crore.
facilitated through Ethylene and Propylene, and these 2. Small enterprises have an investment limit of ₹50
materials are obtained during the process of refining crore and a turnover limit of ₹250 crore.
crude oil. Polymers are widely used in form of raw 3. Medium enterprises are classified as having an
materials in the plastic industry. investment limit of ₹250 crore and a turnover limit
of ₹500 crore.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The growth and development of
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
plastic polymers started in India in the decades following
independence during the late fifties and the early sixties (a) 1 Only (b) 2 & 3 Only
using organic chemicals. The first naptha based private (c) None (d) 1,2 & 3
industry was established at Mumbai by the National Ans: (c)
Organic Chemicals Industries Limited (NOCIL), which was Statement 1 is incorrect: Micro Enterprises are defined
set in private sector in 1961. as those with an investment limit of up to ₹1 crore and a
Statement 3 is correct: Indian Space Research turnover limit of up to ₹5 crore. This definition focuses on
Organisation (ISRO) is now more than ever dependent small-scale operations, often run by individuals or small
on advanced polymeric and composite materials for its groups, and aims to provide support for entrepreneurship
launch vehicles and satellites. Polymers can withstand and local economic development.
the harsh environments encountered during missions Statement 2 is incorrect: Small Enterprises are defined
ranging from exposure to cryogenic fluids to plasma as having an investment limit of up to ₹10 crore and a
formed during re-entry missions. turnover limit of up to ₹50 crore. These enterprises play a
21. Consider the following statements regarding India’s significant role in contributing to the country’s economy by
Special Economic Zones (SEZs): generating employment and supporting local industries.

Industries and Economic Development 237

 Statement 3 is incorrect: Medium Enterprises are classified from natural disasters. While developed countries can
as having an investment limit of up to ₹50 crore and a assist, particularly through international cooperation
turnover limit of up to ₹250 crore. This classification allows and resource mobilization, the protection of citizens is
for a broader scope of operations and access to resources a national responsibility. The strategy advocates for self-
that facilitate growth and competitiveness in the market. reliance of countries in disaster risk management and
23. With reference to the Fertilizer Industry in India, the strengthening of national capacities, especially in
consider the following statements: developing countries. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
1. Currently, Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative The Yokohama Strategy encourages international
Limited (IFFCO) is the sole producer of government- cooperation, especially through regional and sub-
approved Nano Urea in India. regional mechanisms, to enhance disaster preparedness,
2. Many Nitrogenous fertilizer industries in India are risk reduction, and response efforts. The plan of action
located near oil refineries. includes promoting the sharing of information, technology,
3. India meets more than two-thirds of its Urea demand and resources across countries to improve disaster
through imports. management capabilities. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Which of the statements given above are correct? 25. Industries using weight-losing raw materials are usually
(a) 3 only (b) 2 only located near the regions where raw materials are
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 located. In this context, which of the following industries
Ans: (c) are based on weight-losing raw materials?
Statement 1 is correct: Indian Farmers Fertiliser 1. Sugar mills 2. Pulp industry
Cooperative Limited (IFFCO) has developed Nano 3. Iron and steel industry 4. Copper smelting industries
Technology-based Nano Urea (Liquid) fertilizers. IFFCO’s 5. Cotton industry
Nano Urea is the only Nano fertilizer approved by the Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Government of India. It is patented by IFFCO, and the
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 5 only
application of one bottle of Nano Urea can effectively
replace at least one bag of Urea. (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (d) All of the above
Statement 2 is correct: About 70% of the plants producing Ans: (c)
Nitrogenous Fertilizers use Naphtha as the basic raw Location of industries is influenced by several factors like
material. Naphtha is derived from petroleum; hence access to raw materials, power, market, capital, transport
many fertilizer industries are located near oil refineries. and labor, etc. There is a strong relationship between raw
Statement 3 is incorrect: India, the top importer of urea, material and type of industry. It is economical to locate the
imports about 30% of its average annual consumption of manufacturing industries at a place where cost of production
Urea. It means more than 2/3rd of India’s Urea need is and delivery cost of manufactured goods to consumers are
met through her domestic production. the least. Industries using weight-losing raw materials are
24. Consider the following with reference to the resolutions located in the regions where raw materials are located.
adopted as part of the Yokohama Strategy and Plan of Point 1 is correct: The Sugar Mills in India are located in
Action for a Safer World: sugarcane growing areas. Sugar Industry in India is based
1. It is the responsibility of developed countries to on sugarcane which is a heavy, low value, weight losing
protect the citizens of developing countries from and perishable raw material. Also the sugarcane contains
natural disasters. sucrose and once you cut the sugarcane, the sucrose
content starts to decline.
2. It will promote and strengthen sub-regional, regional and
international cooperation in mobilisation of resources. Point 2 is correct: Wood is the primary raw material for
this industry, it is a weight losing raw material. Pulp Mills
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
must be located near the forests because this minimizes the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only difficulty of transporting the bulk logs as well as cost also.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Point 3 is correct: In Iron and Steel Industries, iron ore
Ans: (b) and coal both are weight-losing raw materials. Therefore,
The member states of the United Nations and other an optimum location for iron and steel industries should
states met at the World Conference on Natural Disaster be near raw material sources.
Reduction in the city of Yokohama, Japan from May 23rd- Point 4 is correct: Copper Smelting industries are located
27th,1994. It accepted that disasters affected the poor near raw material sources as copper is a weight losing
and disadvantaged groups the worst, particularly in the industry. Location near raw materials helps to reduce
developing countries, which are ill-equipped to cope cost of transportation.
with them. They adopted a resolution later known as the Point 5 is incorrect: Cotton is a “pure” raw material which
Yokohama Strategy and Plan of Action for a Safer World. does not lose weight in the manufacturing process. So
The Yokohama Strategy emphasizes that it is primarily other factors, like, power to drive the looms, labor, capital
the responsibility of each country to protect its citizens or market may determine the location of the industry.

238 Human and Economic Geography

 Trade, Transport
6 and Communication

Objective Questions for Practice

1. Consider the following statements: Statement 3 is incorrect: The project, “Route of

1. The Rasht-Astara Railway Line project signed by Russia Development”, launched by Iraq will link the Grand
and Iran is a component of the International North- Faw Port in the oil-rich south of Iraq to the Turkish
South Transport Corridor. border in the north. The rail and road network would
2. The International North-South Transport Corridor draw traffic from the users of Egypt’s Suez Canal and
passes through the Black Sea. eventually replace it as the key transportation hub. The
project entails high-speed trains moving both goods and
3. The “Route of Development Project” launched by Iraq
passengers at up to 300 km per hour, and reconstructing
will connect India with the Middle East and Europe.
the country’s road network.
How many of the statements given above are incorrect?
(a) Only one (b) Only two 2. ‘Export Preparedness Index’ is published by which one
of the following organisations?
(c) All three (d) None
(a) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Ans: (b)
(b) National Institute of Transforming India
Statement 1 is correct: Russia and Iran have signed an
agreement to construct the Rasht-Astara railway in (c) Ministry of Finance
Iran as a component of the International North-South (d) Ministry of External Affairs
Transport Corridor (INSTC). This railway line is considered Ans: (b)
as a crucial connection within the corridor, aiming to link
The Export Preparedness Index (EPI) published
India, Iran, Russia, Azerbaijan, and other nations through
by National Institute of Transforming India is a
railway and sea transportation.
comprehensive framework designed to evaluate the
export readiness of States and Union Territories (UTs) in
India. Recognizing the critical role of exports in driving
economic growth and development, the EPI aims to
identify factors influencing export performance by
analyzing key strengths and weaknesses across regions.
The index is continually refined through stakeholder
feedback, ensuring its methodology evolves to reflect
current needs. It assesses performance across four core
pillars: Policy, Business Ecosystem, Export Ecosystem, and
Export Performance, each encompassing sub-pillars with
relevant indicators to provide an in-depth evaluation.

Fig: International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) 3. Consider the following statements regarding the Atal
Tunnel:
Statement 2 is incorrect: The International North–South
1. It is the longest highway tunnel above 10,000 feet.
Transport Corridor (INSTC) is a multi-modal connectivity
project that establishes transport networks (ship, rail, 2. It has been built by the National Highway Authority
and road route) for moving freight between India, of India.
Russia, Iran, Europe, and Central Asia. It connects the 3. It runs under the Rohtang Pass and connects Manali
Indian Ocean and the Persian Gulf to the Caspian Sea and to Lahaul-Spiti Valley.
further extends to Northern and Western Europe. 4. It is the first tunnel to deploy the Rowa flyer technology.
 How many of the statements given above are correct? 2. The road sector’s contribution to GVA is more than
(a) Only one (b) Only two the contribution of railways, waterways and airways
together.
(c) Only three (d) All four
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Ans: (c)
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Statement 1 is correct: Atal Tunnel has officially been
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
certified by World Book of Records, as the ‘World’s
Longest Highway Tunnel above 10,000 Feet. Ans: (c)
Statements 2 is incorrect and 3 is correct: It has been built India has a road network of over 63, 31,757 kilometres,
by Border Road Organisation. This tunnel runs under the which is the second largest in the world.
‘Rohtang Pass’ and connects Manali to the Lahaul-Spiti Statement 1 is correct: Rural Roads constitute 71.4%
Valley throughout the year. Earlier, the valley was cut off of the total road network in the country. Maharashtra
for about 6 months each year owing to heavy snowfall. accounted for the largest network of Rural Roads,
The Tunnel is built with ultra-modern specifications in followed by Assam, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh and Madhya
the Pir Panjal range of the Himalayas at an altitude of Pradesh.
3000 metres from the Mean Sea Level (MSL). ‰ National Highways constitute 2.09 % of total road
Statement 4 is correct: This is also the first tunnel to network in the country. Maharashtra has the largest
deploy the Rowa flyer technology, which allows engineers network of National Highways followed by Uttar
to work at inverted levels. Pradesh and Rajasthan.
4. Consider the following pairs: ‰ The State Highways constitutes 2.8 percent of total
road network in the country. Maharashtra has
National Region the largest State Highways network in the country
Waterways
followed by Karnataka, Gujarat, Rajasthan and
(NW)
Andhra Pradesh.
1. NW-1 Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system Statement 2 is correct: Road transport contributes 3.06%
2. NW-2 Brahmaputra between Bangladesh to the country’s total GVA, against the total transport
Border and Sadiya sector contribution of 4.58%. Railways contribute 0.74%,
3. NW-3 River Godavari and Krishna air transport 0.12%, and Water Transport 0.08%. Thus,
road transport contributes more than air, railway.
4. NW-4 West coast canal (Kottapuram-Kollam)
6. Consider the following statements regarding Inland
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? Waterways Authority of India (IWAI):
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only 1. The Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) was
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 established in 1996.
2. It is responsible for developing and managing the
Ans: (a)
inland waterways in India.
‰ The Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system between
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Haldia (Sagar) and Allahabad (1620 km) was declared
as National Waterway-1 (NW-1) in 1986. Hence, pair (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
1 is correct. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
‰ The river Brahmaputra having a length of 891 Ans: (b)
Km between Bangladesh Border and Sadiya was Statement 1 is incorrect: The Inland Waterways Authority
declared as National Waterway no. 2 (NW-2) on 1st of India (IWAI) was established in 1986 under the Inland
September, 1988. Hence, pair 2 is correct. Waterways Authority of India Act, 1985, not in 1996.
‰ NW-3 consists of West coast canal (Kottapuram- Statement 2 is correct: The Inland Waterways Authority
Kollam), Udyogmandal canal (Kochi Pathalam bridge) of India (IWAI) is responsible for developing and
and Champakara canal (Kochi-Ambalamugal). managing the inland waterways in India.
Hence, pair 3 is incorrect. To promote Inland Water Transport (IWT) in the country,
‰ National Waterway 4 (NW 4) declared on 25.11.2008- 111 waterways (including 5 existing and 106 new) have
The Kakinada-Puducherry stretch of Canals been declared as National Waterways (NWs) under the
integrated Bhadrachalam-Rajahmundry stretch of National Waterways Act, 2016.
River Godavari and Wazira Vijayawada stretch of 7. Consider the following statement with reference to the
River Krishna (1078 km). Hence, pair 4 is incorrect. Universal Postal Union:
5. With reference to the road network in India, consider 1. It is a specialized agency of United Nation which
the following statements: promotes cooperation between postal sector players.
1. Rural roads in India constitute more than two third of 2. Only members of United Nations can be the member
the total road network in India. of the Union.

240 Human and Economic Geography

 Which of the statements given above are correct? north-east states of the country. In order to ensure
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only coordination and expeditious execution of projects,
the Government of India set up the Border Roads
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Development Board (BRDB) with the Prime Minister
Ans: (a) as Chairman of the Board and the Defence Minister
Statement 1 is correct: The Universal Postal Union is a as Deputy Chairman.
United Nations specialized agency and the postal sector’s ‰ The Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI)
primary forum for international cooperation. It is the came into existence on 27th October 1986 for the
second oldest international organization worldwide. development and regulation of inland waterways
The UPU is the primary forum for cooperation between for shipping and navigation. The Authority primarily
postal sector players. It helps to ensure a truly universal undertakes projects for the development and
network of up-to-date products and services. It sets maintenance of IWT infrastructure on national
the rules for international mail exchanges and makes waterways through grants received from the Ministry
recommendations to stimulate growth in mail, parcel of Shipping.
and financial services volumes and improve quality of ‰ The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)
service for customers.
was constituted by an Act of Parliament, the
Statement 2 is incorrect: Any member country of the National Highways Authority of India Act, 1988. It is
United Nations may become a member of the UPU. Any responsible for the development, maintenance and
non-member country of the United Nations may become management of National Highways entrusted to it
a UPU member provided that its request is approved by and/or matters connected or incidental thereto.
at least two-thirds of the member countries of the UPU. ‰ The Airports Authority of India (AAI) was constituted
The union has currently 192 members. by an Act of Parliament and came into being on 1st
8. Consider the following statements: April 1995 by merging the erstwhile National Airports
1. India possesses the largest railway infrastructure in the Authority and the International Airports Authority
world, comprising an extensive network connecting of India. The merger brought into existence a single
various regions. Organisation entrusted with the responsibility of
2. USA has the largest road infrastructure globally, creating, upgrading, maintaining and managing civil
encompassing a vast network of highways and aviation infrastructure both on the ground and air
expressways. space in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 10. Which one of the following statements is incorrect
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only regarding air transport in India?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) The number of air passengers in India is expected to
Ans: (b) reach approximately 450 million by 2030.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The United States has the (b) The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA)
largest railway infrastructure in the world. India’s railway primarily deals with safety issues in the aviation
network is the fourth largest in the world. In 2020, the sector.
route length of Indian Railways covered 67,956 kms. (c) The government of India has launched the UDAN
Statement 2 is correct: The United States also has the scheme to provide air connectivity to remote areas
largest road infrastructure in the world. While India has of India.
the 2nd largest road network in the world. China is the
(d) Government approval is required for receiving an FDI
third country with the largest road infrastructure.
of more than seventy four percent.
9. Consider the following: Ans: (d)
1. National Highways Authority of India Statement 1 is correct: Currently, Indian air transport
2. Inland Waterways Authority of India is estimated to be the fastest-growing aviation market
3. Airport Authority of India globally, India is expected to fly 450 million passengers
4. Border Road organisation from over 200 airports by 2030, a growth of 300 percent
What is the correct chronological order of the over the current 145 million passengers.
establishment of the above authorities, starting from the Statement 2 is correct: The Directorate General of Civil
earliest time? Aviation (DGCA) is the regulatory body in the field of
(a) 2-3-1-4 (b) 3-1-4-2 Civil Aviation, primarily dealing with safety issues. It is
(c) 4-2-1-3 (d) 2-1-3-4 responsible for the regulation of air transport services
Ans: (c) to/from/within India and for the enforcement of civil air
‰ The Border Road organisation (BRO) was formed on regulations, air safety, and airworthiness standards. The
7 May 1960 to secure India’s borders and develop DGCA also coordinates all regulatory functions with the
infrastructure in remote areas of the north and International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO).

Trade, Transport and Communication 241

 Statement 3 is correct: The UDAN scheme is a Ans: (a)
government initiative to provide air connectivity to Types of Ports:
remote areas of India at an affordable cost. Under the ‰ Based on location
scheme, the government provides financial assistance to • Inland Ports: located away from the sea coast,
airlines to operate flights to these airports.
linked to the sea through a river or a canal. Eg:
Statement 4 is incorrect: 100% FDI is permitted for Kolkata is located on Hooghly, a branch of the
scheduled airline and regional aviation services. Amongst
river Ganga.
these, 49% are authorised via the automatic route.
• Out Ports: Deep water ports built away from the
Government approval is required for receiving an FDI
actual ports. These serve the parent ports by
of more than 49%. In spite of this, full FDI is permitted
for NRI investors by the automatic route. In the case of receiving those ships that are unable to approach
non-scheduled airline services, complete FDI is approved them due to their large size.
under the automatic route. 100% FDI is permitted ‰ Based on specialised functions
regarding the services of helicopters and seaplanes. • Oil Ports: These deal in the processing and
shipping of oil. Maracaibo (Venezuela), Esskhira
11. The proposed Dhubri Phulbari Bridge would connect
Assam with which of the following states? (Tunisia), Tripoli (Lebanon) are tanker ports.
Abadan (Iran) on the Gulf of Persia is a refinery
(a) Meghalaya (b) Arunachal Pradesh
port.
(c) Tripura (d) Nagaland • Ports of Call: Ports where ships stop for refuelling,
Ans: (a) watering and taking basic necessities. Hence, pair
The Dhubri-Phulbari Bridge, currently under 2 is incorrect.
construction, will stretch across the Brahmaputra River ‰ Packet Station: They are also known as ferry ports.
in the northeastern region of India, linking Assam and They transport passengers and mail across water
Meghalaya. Once completed, it will stand as India’s bodies covering short distances. These stations
longest water bridge, extending over 19 kilometres. It is occur in pairs. Hence, pair 1 is correct.
situated near the border with Bangladesh, this proposed
‰ Entrepot Ports: Entrepot ports are places where
bridge aims to connect Dhubri in Assam with Phulbari in
Meghalaya, thereby filling a gap along National Highway goods are imported and then re-exported to other
127B. Funding for this project is provided by the Japan destinations, often without being processed. They
International Cooperation Agency (JICA). are not necessarily deep-water ports built away from
actual ports. E.g., Singapore is an entrepot for Asia.
Hence, pair 3 is incorrect.
13. Consider the following statements with reference to the
Trans-Siberian Railway Line:
1. It is the longest double-tracked and electrified
transcontinental railway in the world.
2. It runs across the Ural Mountains.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Fig: Dhubri -Phulbari Bridge (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
12. Consider the following pairs: Ans: (c)
Trans–Siberian Railways is one of the major rail routes
Type of Ports Description
of Russia which runs from St. Petersburg in the west
1. Packet They transport passengers and mail across to Vladivostok on the Pacific Coast in the east passing
Station water bodies covering short distances. through Moscow, Ufa, Novosibirsk, Irkutsk, Chita and
2. Port of These are collection centres where Khabarovsk.
Call the goods are brought from different Statement 1 is correct: It is the most important route
countries for export.
in Asia and the longest double-tracked and electrified
3. Entrepot These are the deep water ports that are transcontinental railway in the world. It has helped in
Ports built away from the actual ports. opening up its Asian region to West European markets.
How many of the pairs given above are correct? Statement 2 is correct: It runs across the Ural Mountains,
(a) One only (b) Two only Ob and Yenisei rivers. Chita is an important agrocentre
(c) All three (d) None and Irkutsk is a fur centre on the line.

242 Human and Economic Geography

 Ans: (a)
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: The Ganga-Bhagirathi-
Hooghly river system between Haldia (Sagar) and
Allahabad (1620 km) was declared as National
Waterway-1 (NW-1) in 1986. Since then IWAI has carried
out various developmental works on the waterway for
improvement of its navigability and also development
and maintenance of other infrastructure such as
navigation aids and terminal facilities as laid down in the
IWAI Act, 1985 (82 of 1985).
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: The river Brahmaputra
having a length of 891 Km between Bangladesh Border
and Sadiya was declared as National Waterway no.
Fig: The Trans Siberian Railway Line. 2 (NW-2) on 1st September 1988. IWAI is carrying out
various developmental works on the waterway to
14. Which of the following statements are correct with
improve its navigability as laid down in the IWAI Act,
respect to transport system?
1985 (82 of 1985).
1. Under the transport system different places are Pair 3 is correctly matched: National Waterway 4 (NW
connected in a network with ‘nodes’ and ‘links’. 4) declared on 25.11.2008 The Kakinada-Puducherry
2. Every road that joins two links is called a ‘Node’. stretch of Canals integrated Bhadrachalam-Rajahmundry
3. High number of links signifies a developed network stretch of River Godavari and Wazira Vijayawada stretch
system. of River Krishna (1078 km).
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Pair 4 is incorrectly matched: The navigable portion
of Barak River in India is the 121 km stretch between
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Lakhipur and Bhanga which has been declared as NW-16
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 in the year 2016. The Barak River is the second-largest
Ans: (c) river in the North Eastern Region. It originates from
Statement 1 is correct: With the development of the south of Kohima in Nagaland near Nagaland – Manipur
transport system, different places are linked together to Border. After traversing through Nagaland, Manipur and
form a network. Networks are made up of ‘Nodes’ and Assam, it splits at Bhanga into two streams called Surma
‘Links’. Nodes and Links help in connecting the hitherto and Kushiyara. These two streams rejoin at Markuli in
unconnected places of a region. Bangladesh and thereafter the river is called Meghna.
Barak – Meghna river system has a total length of 900 km
Statement 2 is incorrect: A ‘Node’ is the meeting point
(origin to upstream Chandpur in Bangladesh).
of two or more routes or a point of origin or a point of
destination or any sizable town along a route. Every road 16. Consider the following statements:
that joins two Nodes is called a ‘Link’. 1. The share of Inland waterways is more than ten per
Statement 3 is correct: The high number of Links in a cent of India’s transportation.
region denotes that places are well connected in the 2. More than ninety per cent of India’s foreign trade by
region and a network system has been developed. The volume is carried by Oceanic routes.
purpose of the network system is to develop higher Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
number of links in any area. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
15. Consider the following pairs: (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
National Waterways (NW) Region Ans: (b)
Statement 1 is incorrect: Inland Waterway was the chief
1. NW-1 Brahmaputra mode of transport before the advent of railways. India
2. NW-2 Barak has 14,500 km of navigable waterways, contributing
about 1% to the country’s transportation. It comprises
3. NW-3 Krishna
rivers, canals, backwaters, creeks, etc. At present, 5,685
4. NW-4 Kali km of major rivers are navigable by mechanised flat-
bottom vessels.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Statement 2 is correct: Oceanic routes play an important
(a) Only one (b) Only two role in the transport sector of India’s economy.
(c) Only three (d) All four Approximately 95 per cent of India’s foreign trade by

Trade, Transport and Communication 243

 volume and 70 per cent by value moves through ocean
routes. The National Highways constitute only about 2
per cent of the total road length but carry 40 per cent of
the road traffic.
PW Only IAS Extra Edge
India has about 14,500 km of navigable waterways
which comprise of rivers, canals, backwaters, creeks,
etc. About 126 Million Metric Tonnes (MMT) of cargo
is being moved anually by Inland Water Transport
(IWT), a fuel-efficient and environment-friendly
mode. Its operations are currently restricted to a few
stretches in the Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly rivers, the
Brahmaputra, the Barak river, the rivers in Goa, the
backwaters in Kerala, inland waters in Mumbai and the
deltaic regions of the Godavari-Krishna rivers. Besides
these organized operations by mechanized vessels,
country boats of various capacities also operate in 18. With reference to the National Highways of India,
various rivers and canals. and substantial quantum consider the following pairs:
of cargo and passengers are transported in this
National Highways States Connected
unorganized sector as well.
17. With reference to the Ports of India, consider the 1. NH 48 Links Uttarakhand and Bihar
following statements: 2. NH 5 Links Madhya Pradesh and
1. Kakinada port 2. Nagapattinam port Uttar Pradesh
3. Visakhapatnam port 4. O.Chidambaranar Port 3. NH 16 Links Andhra Pradesh, Odisha,
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the Tamil Nadu, West Bengal
above ports from north to south?
(a) 3-1-2-4 (b) 3-2-1-4 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(c) 1-3-2-4 (d) 1-2-3-4 (a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs

Ans: (a) (c) All three pairs (d) None of the pairs
Visakhapatnam port: The deepest landlocked and Ans: (a)
protected port on the Andhra Coast. It is a major port Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: National Highway 48 (NH
and it handles the traffic of iron ore, coal, oil, fertilisers, 48) is a major National Highway of India that starts at
agri products etc. It is the Headquarters of the Eastern Delhi and terminates at Chennai traversing through
Command of the Indian Navy. seven states of India. NH 48 passes through the states
of Delhi, Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra,
Kakinada port: A minor seaport and the headquarters
Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
of the East Godavari District. It is located in the north-
western part of the Koringa Bay. It is one of the safest Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: National Highway 5 (NH5)
ports on the east coast of India due to the presence of a is a primary national highway in India, running from West
to East, connecting Ferozepur in Punjab to the Sino-Indian
small island called Hope Island.
border at Shipki La. The highway passes through Moga,
Nagapattinam Port: Nagapattinam Port is a port in the Jagraon, Ludhiana, Mohali, Chandigarh, Panchkula,
South Indian town of Nagapattinam in the Indian state of Kalka, Solan, Shimla, Theog, Narkanda, Kumarsain,
Tamil Nadu. It is a natural port located on the shores of Rampur Bushahr and continues along the Sutlej River
the Bay of Bengal. It is one of the ports in the Coromandel till its terminus near the Tibet border. It travels through
Coasts. Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh and Chandigarh
V.O.Chidambaranar Port: V.O.Chidambaranar Port, Pair 3 is correctly matched: National Highway 16 (NH 16)
formerly Tuticorin Port, is one of the 12 major ports is a major National Highway in India that runs along the
in India. It is the second-largest port in Tamil Nadu east coast of West Bengal, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, and
and the fourth-largest container terminal in India. V.O. Tamil Nadu. It was previously known as National Highway
Chidambaram Port is an artificial port. This is the third 5. The northern terminal starts at Dankuni National
international port in Tamil Nadu and its second all- Highway 19 near Kolkata and the southern terminal
weather port. It is a major port on the coast of the Gulf is at Chennai, Tamil Nadu. It is a part of the Golden
of Mannar. Quadrilateral project to connect India’s major cities.

244 Human and Economic Geography

 19. Consider the following statements regarding Freight on 27th October 1986 under the Inland Waterways
Corridors in India: Authority of India Act, 1985. IWAI is primarily responsible
1. Western freight corridor is planned from Dadri in Uttar for the development, maintenance and regulation of
Pradesh to Mumbai in Maharashtra. those waterways which have been declared as NWs
under the National Waterways Act, of 2016. The head
2. Eastern freight corridor is intended to link Ludhiana
office of IWAI is in Noida, UP. The policy guidelines and
in Punjab to Dankuni in West Bengal.
directions issued by the IWT Wing are implemented by
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? IWAI.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Statement 2 is correct: The National Waterways Act,
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2016 has declared 111 inland waterways as ‘National
Ans: (d) Waterways’ (NWs) in the country to promote shipping
The construction of Dedicated Freight Corridors will and navigation on them. The total length of NWs is
reduce the logistic cost with higher axle load trains, 20,275 km spread across 24 States in the country. IWT
Double Stack Container trains(DSC) and faster access to Wing is responsible for the development, management,
Northern hinterland by Western Ports and will also lead and implementation of capacity building and institutional
to development of new industrial hubs and Gati Shakti strengthening initiatives in the National Waterways
Cargo Terminals. (NWs).
Statement is 1 correct: The Western Dedicated Freight 21. Consider the following statements regarding the MAHSR
Corridor (WDFC) is indeed planned to connect Dadri Project:
in Uttar Pradesh to Mumbai in Maharashtra. It aims to 1. It is around 208 km long high-speed rail project that
improve the efficiency of freight movement along this will connect Mumbai and Ahmedabad.
route.
2. Thane, Surat, Vadodara and Sabarmati will also be
Statement is 2 correct: The Eastern Dedicated Freight
covered in the journey.
Corridor (EDFC) is intended to link Ludhiana in Punjab to
Dankuni in West Bengal. It passes through states like Punjab, Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal, (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
enhancing freight transportation along this corridor. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Statement 1 is incorrect: The government has decided
to run Bullet trains on the 508.09 km long Mumbai-
Ahmedabad high speed rail corridor, connecting the
two financial hubs located in Maharashtra and Guajarat
respectively.
Statement 2 is correct: The entire journey is likely to
be completed in 2 hours 7 minutes. During the journey,
the train will halt at 10 cities namely – Thane, Virar,
Boisar, Vapi, Bilimora, Surat, Bharuch, Vadodara, Anand,
Ahmedabad and Sabarmati and Mumbai will be end
nodes.
22. Consider the following sites:
1. Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus
2. Nilgiri Mountain Railway
Fig: Eastern and Western dedicated Freight Corridors 3. Darjeeling Himalayan Railway
4. Kalka Shimla Railway
20. Consider the following statements:
Which of the above are UNESCO-accorded World
1. Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) is an Heritage sites?
autonomous statutory organization.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
2. The National Waterways Act 2016 has declared 111
inland waterways as ‘National Waterways’ (NWs). (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Which of the statements given above are correct? Ans: (d)
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Indian Railways, with more than 160 years of rich history
presents a wide spectrum of both tangible and intangible
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
heritage. It occupies a special place within the national
Ans: (c) heritage spectrum of India. Indian Railways is the proud
Statement 1 is correct: Inland Waterways Authority of owner of four UNESCO-accorded World Heritage Sites,
India (IWAI), is an autonomous organization constituted namely:

Trade, Transport and Communication 245

 ‰ Darjeeling Himalayan Railway (1999) Pair 2 is correct: New Mangalore port in Karnataka is vital
‰ Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus, Mumbai (2004) for iron ore export from Kudremukh mines, while Kochi,
‰ Nilgiri Mountain Railway (2005) located southwest, serves as a natural harbour.
‰ Kalka Shimla Railway (2008) Pair 3 is correct: Kolkata, an inland riverine port, caters
There are two more sites in waiting or in the tentative list to the Ganga-Brahmaputra basin, requiring constant
namely Matheran Light Railway and Kangra Valley Railway. dredging. Haldia port was developed to relieve pressure
23. Which one of the following statements is incorrect on Kolkata port.
regarding Bhuvan Geoportal? Pair 4 is correct: Visakhapatnam is the deepest landlocked
(a) It provides a 2D and 3D map facility, which allows port, initially for iron ore exports, and Paradip in Odisha
visualisation of places in India. specializes in iron ore export.
(b) It is a portal launched by the Ministry of Earth
Sciences.
(c) The National Remote Sensing Centre supplies Satellite
remote sensing data.
(d) It provides services and applications related to
Satellite remote-sensing data for public use.
Ans: (b)
Option (a) is correct: It provides a 2D and 3D map facility,
which allows visualization of places in India.
‰ Bhuvan 2D allows visualization with panning,
zooming, place name search, overlays and online
editing.
‰ Bhuvan 3D allows to explore and visualize satellite
imagery in 3D landscape.
Option (b) is incorrect: Bhuvan (a Sanskrit word meaning
Earth) is a Geoportal of the Indian Space Research
Organisation (ISRO), hosted through the URL https://
bhuvan.nrsc.gov.in.
Option (c) is correct: NRSC (National Remote Sensing
Centre) is responsible for the acquisition, processing, and
supply of aerial and Satellite remote sensing data and for
continuously exploring the practical uses of Remote Sensing
Technology for multi-level (global to local) applications. 25. Consider the following statements regarding the
Option (d) is correct: It provides services and applications communication system in India:
related to satellite remote-sensing data for public use. Its
1. The BharatNet project aims to provide optical fibre
disaster services allow one to visualize disaster events-
floods, cyclone and landslides. connectivity to all Gram Panchayats in India.
24. Consider the following pairs: 2. India has the second largest mobile phone market in
the world.
Ports Characteristics
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Kandla Tidal port
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. New Mangalore port Natural Harbour
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Kolkata Inland Riverine port
Ans: (c)
4. Visakhapatnam Deepest landlocked port
Statement 1 is correct: The BharatNet project is a
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? government initiative to provide optical fiber connectivity
(a) 2 and 4 only (b) 1 and 3 only to all Gram Panchayats (Village Councils) in India. This
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 will help to improve communication and connectivity
Ans: (d) in rural areas, and it will also help to bridge the digital
Pair 1 is correct: Kandla in Kachchh, established post- divide between rural and urban India.
Independence, is a tidal port created to ease trade
Statement 2 is correct: The number of mobile phone
congestion in Mumbai after the loss of Karachi port
to Pakistan during the Partition. It efficiently handles users in India is growing rapidly, making it the second
imports and exports for productive granary and industrial largest mobile phone market in the world. In 2023, there
belts across Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, were over 1.2 billion mobile phone users in India, and
Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, and Gujarat. this number is expected to reach 1.5 billion by 2025.

246 Human and Economic Geography


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