Test Pattern

Hindi (1016CMD308519002) )1/16CMD3/8519//2)

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET(UG)
MINOR
(Academic Session : 2019 - 2020) 01-09-2019
PRE-MEDICAL : ALFA ACHIEVER COURSE (PHASE : M4AA1A)
bl iqfLrdk esa 40 i`"B gSaA This Booklet contains 40 pages.
bl ijh{kk iqfLrdk dks tc rd uk [kks y s a tc rd dgk u tk,A
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
bl ijh{kk iqfLrdk ds fiNys vkoj.k ij fn, funs Z ' kks a dks /;ku ls i<+s a A
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
egRoiw. kZ funs Z 'k : Important Instructions :
1. mÙkj i= ds i` " B-1 ,oa i` " B-2 ij /;kuiwoZd dsoy uhys @ dkys ckWy 1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1
ikWbaV isu ls fooj.k HkjsaA and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. ijh{kk dh vof/k 3 ?ka Vs gS ,oa ijh{kk iqfLrdk esa 180 iz'u gAS izR;sd 2. The test is of 3 hours duration and this Test Booklet
iz'u 4 vad dk gAS izR;sd lgh mÙkj ds fy, ijh{kkFkhZ dks 4 vad contains 180 questions. Each question carries 4 marks.
For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks.
fn, tk,axasA izR;sd xyr mÙkj ds fy, dqy ;ksx esa ls ,d vad For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted
?kVk;k tk,xkA vf/kdre vad 720 gSA from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
3. bl i`"B ij fooj.k vafdr djus ,oa mÙkj i= ij fu'kku yxkus ds 3. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing
fy, ds o y uhys @ dkys ckWy ikW ba V is u dk iz;ksx djsaA particulars on this page/marking responses.

4. jQ dk;Z bl ijh{kk iqfLrdk esa fu/kkZfjr LFkku ij gh djsaA 4. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this
purpose in the Test Booklet only.
5. ijh{kk lEiék gks u s ij] ijh{kkFkhZ d{k@gkW y Nks M +u s ls iw o Z 5. On completion of the test, the candidate must
hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator
mÙkj i= fujh{kd dks vo'; lkSai nsaA ijh{kkFkhZ vius lkFk
before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates
ds o y ijh{kk iqf Lrdk dks ys tk ldrs g S a A are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with
them.
6. ijh{kkFkhZ lqfuf'pr djsa fd bl mÙkj i= dks eksM+k u tk, ,oa ml 6. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet
ij dksbZ vU; fu'kku u yxk,aA ijh{kkFkhZ viuk QkWeZ uEcj iz'u is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the
Answer Sheet. Do not write your Form No. anywhere
iqf Lrdk@mÙkj i = es a fu/kkZ f jr LFkku ds vfrfjDr vU;= u else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/
fy[ksaA Answer Sheet.
7. mÙkj i= ij fdlh izdkj ds la'kks/ku gsrq OgkbV ¶+yqbM ds iz;ksx dh 7. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on
vuqefr ugha gAS the Answer Sheet.

iz' uks a ds vuqo kn es a fdlh vLi"Vrk dh fLFkfr es a] va xzs th laL dj.k dks gh vaf re ekuk tk,s xkA
In case of any ambiguity in translation of any question, English version shall be treated as final.

ijh{kkFkhZ dk uke (cM+s v{kjksa esa) :

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals)
QkWeZ uEcj : vadksa esa
Form Number : in figures
: 'kCnksa esa
: in words
ijh{kk dsUæ (cM+s v{kjksa esa) :
Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :
ijh{kkFkhZ ds gLrk{kj : fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj
:
Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2020

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TOPIC : Ray Optics, Interference, Modern Physics.
1. A person can't see the objects clearly placed at a 1. ,d O;fDr vk¡[k ls 40 lseh- ls vf/kd nwjh ij j[kh oLrqvksa dks
distance more than 40 cm. He is advised to use Li"V ugha ns[k ikrkA mlds p'es ds ySal dh {kerk D;k gksxh
a lens of power - ftlls og nwj dh oLrqvksa dks Li"V ns[k lds -
(1) + 2.5 D (2) – 2.5 D (1) + 2.5 D (2) – 2.5 D
(3) + 0.4 D (4) – 0.4 D (3) + 0.4 D (4) – 0.4 D
2. A simple microscope has a focal length of 5 cm. 2. ,d ljy lw{en'khZ dh Qksdl nwjh 5 lseh- gAS Li"V n`f"V dh
The magnification at the least distance of U;wure nwjh ij vko/kZu gksxk -
distinct vision is-
(1) 1 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 6
(1) 1 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 6
3. If the focal length of objective and eye lens are 3. vfHkn`';d vkSj us= ysUl dh Qksdl nwfj;kW Øe'k% 1.2 lseh
1.2 cm and 3 cm respectively and the object is put vkjS 3 lseh gaSA oLrq dks vfHkn`';d ls 1.25 lseh ij j[kk x;k
1.25 cm away from the objective lens and the final FkkA vfUre izfrfcEc vuUr ij curk g]S rks lw{en'khZ dh vkoèkZu
image is formed at infinity. The magnifying power {kerk gksxhA
of the microscope is :
(1) 150 (2) 200 (3) 250 (4) 400
(1) 150 (2) 200 (3) 250 (4) 400
4. An astronomical telescope has an angular 4. ,d nwjLFk oLrq ds fy;s ,d [kxksyh; nwjn'kZd dk dks.kh;
magnification of magnitude 5 for distant objects. vkoèkZu 5 gAS vfHkn`';d vkjS us= ysUl ds chp 36 lseh dh
The seperation between the objective and the eye nwjh gAS vafre izfrfcEc vuUr ij curk gAS vfHkn`';d vkjS us =
piece is 36 cm and the final image is formed at ysUl dh Qksdl nwfj;k¡ Øe'k% f0 vkjS fe gksaxhA
infinity. The focal length f0 of the objective and
(1) f0 = 45 lseh rFkk fe = –9 cm
the focal length fe of the eye piece are :
(1) f0 = 45 cm and fe = –9 cm (2) f0 = 7.2 lseh rFkk fe = 5 cm
(2) f0 = 7.2 cm and fe = 5 cm
(3) f0 = 50 lseh rFkk fe = 10 cm
(3) f0 = 50 cm and fe = 10 cm
(4) f0 = 30 cm and fe = 6 cm (4) f0 = 30 lseh rFkk fe = 6 cm

5. Two plane mirrors are inclined to each other at an 5. nks lery niZ.k ijLij 600 ds >qdko ij gaAS ;fn çFke niZ.k
angle 600 . If a ray of light incident on the first ij vkifrr çdk'k fdj.k nwljs niZ.k ds lekUrj gks rks ;g nwljs
mirror is parallel to the second mirror, it is reflected niZ.k ls ijkofrZr gksxh &
from the second mirror
(1) çFke niZ.k ds yEcor~
(1) Perpendicular to the first mirror
(2) çFke niZ.k ds lekUrj
(2) Parallel to the first mirror
(3) nwljs niZ.k ds lekUrj
(3) Parallel to the second mirror
(4) Perpendicular to the second mirror (4) nwljs niZ.k ds yEcor~

6. For a prism of refractive index 3 , the angle of 6. 3viorZukad okys fizTe ds fy;s] fizTe dks.k dk eku U;wure
the prism is equal to the angle of minimum fopyu dks.k ds cjkcj gAS fizTe dks.k dk eku gS :-
deviation. The value of the angle of the prism is:- (1) 60º (2) 50º
(1) 60º (2) 50º (3) 45º (4) 30º (3) 45º (4) 30º
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7. A horizontal light ray passes through a prism 7. ,d {kSfrt fdj.k 4° dks.k ds fizTe (µ = 1.5) ls xqtjrh gAS
(µ = 1.5) of angle 4°. Further, it is incident on a ckn esa] ;g ,d lery niZ.k M ij vkifrr gksrh g]S ftldks
plane mirror M, that has been placed vertically. By m/okZ/kj j[kk x;k gAS niZ.k dks fdrus dks.k ls ?kqek;k tk;s ftlls
what angle the mirror is rotated so that the ray after fdj.k ijkorZu ds i'pkr~ {kSfrt gks tk;sA
reflection becomes horizontal?

4°
4°

M
M

(1) 1° (2) 2° (3) 4° (4) 8° (1) 1° (2) 2° (3) 4° (4) 8°

8. A lens made of glass of refractive index 1.5 has 8. 1.5 viorZukad ds dkap ls cus ySal dh gok esa Qksdl nwjh
a focal length of 10 cm in air and 50 cm when 10cm. vkjS nzo esa iw.kZ :i ls Mqcksus ij 50cm. gAS rks nzo dk
completely immersed in a liquid. Then the viorZukad gS&
refractive index of the liquid is- (1) 1.36 (2) 1.33
(1) 1.36 (2) 1.33 (3) 1.30 (4) 1.38 (3) 1.30 (4) 1.38
9. A convex lens of focal length f produces a virtual 9. f Qksdl nwjh dk ÅÙky ySal oLrq ds vkdkj dk n xquk vkHkklh
image n times the size of the object. Then the izfrfcEc cukrk g]S rks oLrq dh yaSl ls nwjh gS&
distance of the object from the lens is-
n -1 n +1 f n
n -1 n +1 f n (1) f (2) f (3) (4) f
(1) f (2) f (3) (4) f n n n n -1
n n n n -1
10. An achromatic convergent doublet of two lenses 10. nks lEifdZr ySalksa }kjk cus gq, vfHklkjh vo.kZd ySal ;qXe dh
in contact has a power of + 2D. The convex lens {kerk + 2D gAS mÙky ySal dh {kerk + 5 D gAS vfHklkjh vkSj
has power + 5 D. What is the ratio of the dispersive vilkjh ySalksa dh fo{ksi.k {kerkvksa dk vuiq kr gksxk ?
powers of the convergent and divergent lenses ? (1) 2 : 5 (2) 3 : 5
(1) 2 : 5 (2) 3 : 5 (3) 5 : 2 (4) 5 : 3 (3) 5 : 2 (4) 5 : 3
11. A plano-convex lens of focal length 10 cm is 11. 10 cm Qksdl nwjh ds ,d lery mÙky ySal dh lery lrg
silvered at its plane face. The distance d at which jtfrr dj nh tkrh gAS nwjh d ftl ij oLrq dks j[kus ij izfrfcEc
an object must be placed in order to get its image oLrq ij gh cus gksxh &
on itself is:

(1) 5 cm (2) 20 cm
(1) 5 cm (2) 20 cm (3) 10 cm (4) 2.5 cm (3) 10 cm (4) 2.5 cm
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12. The refractive index of the material of a prism is 12. fiz T e inkFkZ dk viorZ u kad 2 g S o viorZ a d dks .k 30°
2 and its refracting angle is 30°. One of the gSA bl fiz Te dh ,d viorZ d i` " B dks vUnj ls niZ . k
refraction surfaces of the prism is made a mirror cuk fn;k x;k g SA ,d o.khZ ; iz d k'k dk fdj.k ia q t ,d
inwards. A beam of monochromatic light i` "B ls iz o s' k dj niZ. k ls ijkorZ u ds i'pkr~ iqu% vkxeu
entering the prism from the other face will iFk ds vuqfn'k vfHkxeu djsx k ;fn fiz Te ij vkiru dks.k
retrace its path after reflection from the mirrored gS %
surface if its angle of incidence on the prism is :
(1) 45° (2) 60° (3) 0° (4) 30°
(1) 45° (2) 60° (3) 0° (4) 30°
13. A small coin is resting on the bottom of a beaker 13. nzo ls Hkjs chdj dh ryh esa ,d NksVk flDdk fLFkr gAS ,d
filled with a liquid. A ray of light from the coin izdk'k fdj.k flDds ls py dj nzo i`"B rd vkrh gS rFkk i`"B
travels upto the surface of the liquid and moves ds vuqfn'k vfHkxeu djrh gSA (fp= ns[ksa)
along its surface (see figure)

How fast is the light travelling in the liquid? nzo esa izdk'k dh pky Kkr dhft;sA
(1) 1.8 × 108 m/s (2) 2.4 × 108 m/s (1) 1.8 × 108 m/s (2) 2.4 × 108 m/s
(3) 3.0 × 108 m/s (4) 1.2 × 108 m/s (3) 3.0 × 108 m/s (4) 1.2 × 108 m/s
14. A ray of light is incident at an angle of incidence, i, 14. izdk'k dh ,d fdj.k] fdlh fizTe ds ,d Qyd ij i, dks.k ij
on one face of prism of angle A (assumed to be small) vkifrr gksrh gS rFkk mlds foijhr Qyd ls mlds yEcor~ fuxZr
and emerges normally from the opposite face. If the gksrh gSA ;fn fizTe dk viorZukad m, gS rks] vkiru dks.k i, dk
refractive index of the prism is m, the angle of incidence eku yxHkx cjkcj gS :
i, is nearly equal to :
mA
mA (1) mA (2) (3) A/m (4) A/2m
(1) mA (2) (3) A/m (4) A/2m 2
2
15. An equilaterial prism is kept on a horizontal 15. ,d leckgq fizTe ,d {kfS rt ry ij j[kk gqvk gAS fp= esa
surface. A typical ray of light PQRS is shown in ,d izdk'k fdj.k PQRS n'kkZ; h x;h gSA U;w ure fopyu
the figure. For minimum deviation ds fy;s &

(1) the ray PQ must be horizontal (1) fdj.k PQ {kSfrt gksuh pkfg,
(2) the ray RS must be horizontal (2) fdj.k RS {kSfrt gksuh pkfg,
(3) the ray QR must be horizontal (3) fdj.k QR {kSfrt gksuh pkfg,
(4) any one of them can be horizontal (4) buesa ls dksbZ Hkh ,d fdj.k {kSfrt gks ldrh gAS
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16. A convex mirror has a radius of curvature of 20 cm. 16. ,d mÙky niZ.k dh oØrk f=T;k 20 cm gAS oLrq dks niZ.k
An object is placed in front at such a distance from ds lkeus ml nwjh ij j[kk tkrk gS tgk¡ ls mldk izfrfcEc Bhd
the mirror that the size of the image is exactly half oLrq ls vk/kk cusA oLrq dh niZ.k ls nwjh gksxh :-
that of the object. The object distance must be :-
(1) 20 cm (2) 30 cm
(1) 20 cm (2) 30 cm
(3) 10 cm (4) 40 cm (3) 10 cm (4) 40 cm

17. The focal length of a concave mirror is 20 cm. 17. ,d vory niZ.k dh Qksdl nwjh 20 lseh g]S rks ,d oLrq dks
Determine where an object must be placed to form dgka j[kk tk;sa fd bl oLrq dk izfrfcEc okLrfod gks rFkk nks
an image magnified two times when the image is real- xquk cM+k gks&
(1) 30cm from the mirror (1) niZ.k ls 30 lseh nwjh ij
(2) 10cm from the mirror (2) niZ.k ls 10 lseh nwjh ij
(3) 20cm from the mirror (3) niZ.k ls 20 lseh nwjh ij
(4) 15cm from the mirror (4) niZ.k ls 15 lseh nwjh ij
18. The image for the converging beam after refraction 18. oØh; i`"B ls viorZu ds ckn ] vfHklkfjr iat
q ds fy, izfrfcEc
through the curved surface is formed at: curk gS &

40 40
(1) x = 40 cm (2) x = cm (1) x = 40 cm (2) x = cm
3 3

40 180 40 180
(3) x = - cm (4) x = cm (3) x = - cm (4) x = cm
3 7 3 7
19. A convex lens forms a real image 9 cm long on 19. ,d mÙky ySal insZ ij 9cm. yEck okLrfod izf rfcEc
a screen. Without altering the position of the object cukrk gSA insZ vkSj oLrq dh fLFkfr dks ifjofrZr u djrs gq ,
and the screen, the lens is displaced and we get ySal dks bl rjg foLFkkfir djrs gS fd ge nqckjk 4cm. yEck
again a real image 4 cm long on the screen. Then okLrfod izfrfcEc insZ ij izkIr djrs gSA rks oLrq dh yEckbZ
the length of the object is - gS &
(1) 9 cm (2) 4 cm (1) 9 cm (2) 4 cm
(3) 6 cm (4) 36 cm (3) 6 cm (4) 36 cm
20. If refractive index of red, violet and yellow lights 20. ;fn yky] cSaxuh rFkk ihys izdk'k ds viorZukad ,d ek/;e ds
are 1.42, 1.62 and 1.50 respectively for a medium, fy, Øe'k% 1.42, 1.62 rFkk 1.50 gAS rks mudh fo{ksi.k {kerk
its dispersive power will be - gksxh&
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.3 (3) 0.2 (4) 0.1 (1) 0.4 (2) 0.3 (3) 0.2 (4) 0.1
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21. A ray of light is incident on a concave mirror. It 21. ,d vory niZ.k ij izdk'k dh fdj.k vkifrr gksrh gAS ;g fdj.k
is parallel to the principal axis and its height from eq[; v{k ds lekUrj gS rFkk bldh eq[; v{k ls ÅWpkbZ niZ.k
principal axis is equal to the focal length of the ds Qksdl nwjh ds cjkcj gAS fp= ds vuqlkj fcUnq B o Qksdl
mirror. The ratio of the distance of point B to the dk oØrk dsUnz ls nwjh dk vuqikr gksxk (tgk¡ AB ijkofrZr fdj.k
distance of the focus from the centre of curvature g)S :-
is (AB is the reflected ray) :-

2 2 3 2 1
3 2 1 (1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) (2) (3) (4) 3 2 3 2
3 2 3 2
22. A light ray incident on reflecting surface y = 2x2 and 22. izdk'k dh ,d fdj.k ijkorZd lrg y = 2x2 ij vkifrr dh
deviated through 60° due to reflection at point P as tkrh gS rFkk fp= esa n'kkZ, vuqlkj fcUnq P ij ijkorZu ds dkj.k
shown in the figure. Find the coordinate of point P. 60° ls fopfyr gks tkrh gAS fcUnq P ij funsZ'kkad Kkr dhft,sA

y y=2x
2 y y=2x
2

P P

90° 90°
O x O x

æ 1 1 ö æ 3 3ö æ 1 1 ö æ 3 3ö
(1) ç , ÷ (2) çç , ÷÷ (1) ç , ÷ (2) çç , ÷÷
è 4 3 24 ø è 4 2ø è 4 3 24 ø è 4 2ø

æ 3 3ö æ 3 3ö æ 3 3ö æ 3 3ö
(3) çç , ÷
÷ (4) çç , ÷÷ (3) çç , ÷
÷ (4) çç , ÷÷
è 2 4 ø è 4 8ø è 2 4 ø è 4 8ø
23. An object of height h = 5cm is located at a distance 23. h = 5cm Å¡pkbZ dh ,d oLrq 10 cm Qksdl nwjh okys ,d
a = 12 cm from a concave mirror with focal length vory niZ.k ls a = 12 cm nwjh ij fLFkr gAS izfrfcEc dh
10 cm. Find the height of the image. Å¡pkbZ Kkr dhft;sA
(1) 10 cm (2) 15 cm (3) 20 cm (4) 25 cm (1) 10 cm (2) 15 cm (3) 20 cm (4) 25 cm
24. Find the number of photons emitted per second 24. ,d 25 W ds ,dyo.khZ ; iz dk'k L=ksr ls iz f r lSd .M
by a 25 W source of monochromatic light of mRlftZr QksVksuks dh la[;k Kkr djksa izR;sd QksVksu dh rjaxnSè;Z
wavelength 600 nm. Bulb is capable to convert 600 nm gS rFkk cYc 20% fo|qr ÅtkZ dks izd k'k esa cnyus
20% electrical energy into light esa l{ke gSA
(1) 1.5 × 1019 (2) 3 × 1024 (1) 1.5 × 1019 (2) 3 × 1024
15
(3) 4 × 10 (4) None of these (3) 4 × 1015 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
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25. If the frequency and intensity of a light source are both 25. izdk'k L=ksr dh vko`fÙk o rhozrk nksuksa dks nqxquk dj fn;k tk;s
doubled. Now consider the following statements- rks rc fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,&
[A] The saturation photocurrent remains almost the [A] lar`Ir izdk'k /kkjk yxHkx leku jgsxh
same [B] izdk'k bysDVªkuW dh vf/kdre xfrt ÅtkZ esa nqxquh o`f¼ gksxh
[B] the maximum kinetic energy of the photo [C] izdk'k bysDVªkWu dh vf/kdre xfrt ÅtkZ esa o`f¼ gksxh
electrons is doubled ysfdu nxq uh ugha
[C] The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons lgh dFku g–S
is increased but not doubled (1) dsoy B
The correct statement (s) is (are) - (2) dsoy A rFkk B
(1) B only (2) A and B only (3) dsoy A rFkk C
(3) A and C only (4) C only (4) dsoy C
26. A light beam carrying power 20 W incident 26. ,d izdk'k iq¡t ftldh 'kfDr 20 W gS ds lkFk ,d lrg ij
normally on a surface 60% light is get absorbed vfHkyEcor~ vkifrr gksrk gSA ;fn 60% izdk'k lrg }kjk
and rest reflected. Find average force exerted by vo'kksf"kr gks rFkk 'ks"k ijkofrZr rks iq¡t }kjk lrg ij vkjksfir
light beam on the surface. vkSlr cy gksxk&
(1) 9.3 × 10–8 N (2) 7.2 × 10–7 N (1) 9.3 × 10–8 N (2) 7.2 × 10–7 N
(3) 6.2 × 10–5 N (4) None of these (3) 6.2 × 10–5 N (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
27. The threshold frequency for a certain metal is n0. 27. ,d /kkrq dh nsgyh vko`fÙk n0 gAS tc bl ij n = 2n0 vko`fÙk
When light of frequency n = 2n0 is incident on it, dk izdk'k vkifrr gksrk g]S izdk'k bysDVªkWu dk vf/kdre osx
the maximum velocity of photo electrons is 4 × 106 eh@ls- gAS ;fn vkifrr fofdj.k dh vko`fÙk esa o`f¼
4 × 106 m/s. If the frequency of incident radiation dj 5n0 dj nsa] rc izdk'k&bysDVªkWu dk vfèkdre osx eh@ls-
is increased to 5n0, then the maximum velocity of esa gksxk&
photo-electrons in m/s will be-
4
4 (1) × 106 (2) 2 × 106
(1) × 106 (2) 2 × 106 5
5
(3) 8 × 106 (4) 2 × 107
(3) 8 × 106 (4) 2 × 107
28. An electron is moving with an initial velocity 28. ,d bysDVªkuW dk izkja fEHkd osx vr = v 0 ˆi gS rFkk ;g ,d pqEcdh;
r r
v = v ˆi and is in a magnetic field B = B ˆj . Then r
0 0
{k=S B = B0 ˆj esa xfr djrk gS rks bldh MhczksXyh rjaxn/S ;Z
its de-Broglie wavelength
(1) remains constant (1) fu;r jgrh gS
(2) increases with time (2) le; ds lkFk c<+rh gS
(3) decreases with time (3) le; ds lkFk ?kVrh gS
(4) increases and decreases periodically (4) vkorhZ :i ls ?kVrh c<+rh gS
29. Consider the statements given below- 29. fuEu dFku esa ls
(A) The wave and the particle aspects are both (A) izdk'k dh iw.kZ foospuk rjax rFkk d.k nksuksa ekudj ds gh
neccessary for a complete description of light dh tk ldrh gAS
(B) The wave and particle aspects cannot be (B) fdlh ,d iz;ksx esa rjax rFkk d.k nksuksa izd`fr ,d lkFk ugha
revealed simultaneously in a single experiment. ns[kh tk ldrh gAS
(1) A is true, B is false (1) A lR; g,S B vlR; gAS
(2) A is false, B is true (2) A vlR; g,S B lR; gAS
(3) Both A and B are false (3) A rFkk B nksukas vlR; gAS
(4) Both A and B are true (4) A rFkk B nksuksa lR; gAS

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30. The group velocity of the de Broglie wave packet 30. ,d d.k v osx ls py jgk gAS blls lacaf/kr Mh&czkXs yh rjaxnèS ;Z
associated with a particle moving with velocity v is- dk lewg osx gksxk&
(1) equal to v (2) less than v (1) v ds cjkcj (2) v ls de
(3) greater than v (4) equal to speed of light (3) v ls vf/kd (4) izdk'k ds osx ds cjkcj
31. The increase in the energy of an electron for 31. fdlh bysDVªkWu dh ns&czkxs yh rjaxn/S ;Z 1Å ls 0.5Å djus ds
changing its de-Broglie wavelength from 1 Å to fy;s mldh ÅtkZ esa o`f¼ djuh gksxh&
0.5 Å will be-
(1) 1.5 keV (2) 0.45 keV (3) 0.25 keV (4) 100 eV
(1) 1.5 keV (2) 0.45 keV (3) 0.25 keV (4) 100 eV
32. A deutron is accelerated through a potential 32. ,d M~;wVªkWu dks 100 volt foHkokUrj ls Rofjr fd;k tkrk gAS
difference of 100 volt to have same de-Broglie le:i rjaxn/S ;Z izkfIr gsrq vYQk d.k dks fdrus foHkokUrj ls
wavelength what potential difference must be Rofjr djuk gksxk&
applied across an alpha particle (1) 25 volt (2) 50 volt
(1) 25 volt (2) 50 volt
(3) 12.5 volt (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(3) 12.5 volt (4) None of these
33. The de-Broglie wavelength of a photon is same 33. ,d QksVksu dh Mh&czksXyh rjaxn/S ;Z ,d bysDVªkWu dh rjaxnSè;Z
as the de-Broglie wavelength of an electron. The
C E-
C E e- ds leku gAS bysDVªkWu dh pky gS rks e Kkr djsa&
speed of electron is then find 100 E photon
100 E photon
–2
(1) 10 : 2 2
(2) 10 : 2 (1) 10–2 : 2 (2) 102 : 2
(3) 10–2 : 1 (4) None of these (3) 10–2 : 1 (4) None of these
34. If the atomic masses for the parent and daughter 34. ;fn fdlh jsfM;ks&,sfDVo {k; esa tud rFkk fo?kVu ds QyLo:i
element in a radioactive decay are Mp and Md and cus rRo ijek.kqvksa ds nzO;eku Øe'k% Mp rFkk Md gaS rFkk bysDVªkuW
the mass of the electron me, then the Q-value for dk nzO;eku me g]S rc jsfM;ks&,sfDVo b+ {k; ds fy;s Q eku
radioactive b +-decay is given by- fn;k tkrk g&S
(1) Q = Mp C² (2) Q = (Mp – Md – me) C² (1) Q = Mp C² (2) Q = (Mp – Md – me) C²
(3) Q = (Mp – Md) C² (4) Q = (Mp – Md – 2me) C² (3) Q = (Mp – Md) C² (4) Q = (Mp – Md – 2me) C²
35. In the nuclear reaction 35. ukfHkdh; vfHkfØ;k
Z
XA ® Z + 1YA ® Z–1 RA–4 ® Z–1 RA–4 Z
XA ® Z+1
YA ® Z–1
RA–4 ® Z–1
RA–4
the order of emitted particle will be- esa mRltZuksa dk Øe gksxk&
(1) a, b, g (2) b, g, a (3) g, a, b (4) b, a, g (1) a, b, g (2) b, g, a (3) g, a, b (4) b, a, g
9 9
36. part of a radioactive substance remains active 36. fdlh jsfM;ks,fDVo lfØ; inkFkZ dk Hkkx t le; ckn
16 16
after time t. The active part of the same substance lfØ; jgrk gS rks t/2 le; ckn mlh inkFkZ dk lfØ; Hkkx
after time t/2 will be- jgk gksxk&
4 3 3 7 4 3 3 7
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
5 4 5 8 5 4 5 8
37. If 20 gm of a radioactive substance due to 37. ;fn 20 xzke jsfM;kslfØ; inkFkZ 4 fefuV esa jsfM;ks,fDVo {k;
radioactive decay reduces to 10 gm in 4 minutes, ds dkj.k 10 xzke jg tkrk gS rks mlh inkFkZ dk 80 xzke fdrus
then in what time 80 gm of the same substance will le; esa 10 xzke jg tk;sxk&
reduce to 10 gm- (1) 8 feuV (2) 12 feuV
(1) 8 minutes (2) 12 minutes
(3) 16 feuV (4) 20 feuV
(3) 16 minutes (4) 20 minutes
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38. A radioactive substance has a half life of 60 minutes. 38. ,d jsfM;ks,fDVo inkFkZ dh v/kZ vk;q 60 fefuV gAS 3 ?kaVs i'pkr~
After 3 hours, the fraction of atom that have decayed mlds fo?kfVr ijek.kqvksa dk izfr'kr gksxk&
would be- (1) 12.5% (2) 87.5%
(1) 12.5% (2) 87.5%
(3) 8.5% (4) 25.1% (3) 8.5% (4) 25.1%
39. The count rate for a radioactive source was found 39. ,d jsfM;ks/kehZ L=ksr dh x.kuk nj t = 0 lsd.M ij 1600 x.kuk
to be 1600 count/sec. At t = 0, and t = 8 sec this izfr lsd.M ikbZ xbZ vkjS t = 8 lsd.M ij ;g 100 x.kuk izfr
rate was 100 count/sec. What was the count rate lsd.M FkhA t = 6 lsd.M ij ikbZ tkus okyh x.kuk nj x.kuk
at t = 6 [in counts/sec]- izfr lsd.M esa] gksxh&
(1) 4000 (2) 300 (1) 4000 (2) 300
(3) 200 (4) 150 (3) 200 (4) 150
40. A freshly prepared radioactive sample of 40. ,d rktk cuk;s x;s jsfM;ks lfØ; izfrn'kZ esa ls lqjf{kr lhek
half-life 1 hour emits radiations that are 128 times ls 128 xqu k fofdj.k mRlftZ r gks jgs gS a A rRo dh v/kZ
as intense as the permissible safe limit. The vk;q 1 ?kaVk gSA fdrus le; i'pkr~ izfrn'kZ dk mi;ksx djuk
minimum time after which this sample can be lqjf{kr gksxk&
safely used is-
(1) 14 ?k.Vs (2) 7 ?k.Vs
(1) 14 hours (2) 7 hours
(3) 128 hours (4) 236 hours (3) 128 ?k.Vs (4) 236 ?k.Vs
41. The ratio of the radii of the nuclei 13 Al 27 and 41. 13 Al
27
rFkk 52Te 125
ds ukfHkdks a dh f=T;k dk vuqikr
125
52Te is approximately - gS &
(1) 6 : 10 (2) 13 : 52 (1) 6 : 10 (2) 13 : 52
(3) 40 : 177 (4) 14 : 73 (3) 40 : 177 (4) 14 : 73
42. The radius of the nucleus of 8O16 is 3 × 10–15 m. 42. 8
O dh ukfHkd dh f=T;k 3 × 10–15 eh- gAS fdxzk@eh³ esa
16

Its density in kg/m³ will be about- bldk ukfHkdh; ?kuRo yxHkx gksxk&
(1) 2.35 × 10–17 (2) 2.35 × 1014 (1) 2.35 × 10–17 (2) 2.35 × 1014
14
(3) 10 (4) 2.35 × 1017 (3) 10 14
(4) 2.35 × 1017
43. The binding energy per nucleon of O16 is 7.97 MeV 43. O16 dh izfrU;wfDy;ku cU/kd ÅtkZ 7.97 MeV gS rFkk O17
and that of O17 is 7.75 MeV. The energy [in MeV] dh 7.75 MeV. O17 ls ,d U;wVªkWu fudkyus ds fy;s vko';d
required to remove a neutron from O17 is- ÅtkZ& (MeV esa)
(1) 3.52 (2) 3.64 (1) 3.52 (2) 3.64
(3) 4.23 (4) 7.86 (3) 4.23 (4) 7.86
44. The binding energies per nucleon for a deuteron 44. M~;wVªkWu rFkk a-d.k dh izfr U;wfDyvkWu cU/ku ÅtkZ Øe'k%
and an a-particle are x1 and x2 respectively. What x1 o x2 gAS fuEu vfHkfØ;k es a eq D r ÅtkZ Q dk eku gksxk&
will be the energy Q released in the reaction 2
+ 1H2 ® 2He4 + Q
2 2 4 1H
1H + 1H ® 2He + Q
(1) 4 [x1 + x2] (2) 4 [x2 – x1]
(1) 4 [x1 + x2] (2) 4 [x2 – x1]
(3) 2 [x1 + x2] (4) 2 [x2 – x1] (3) 2 [x1 + x2] (4) 2 [x2 – x1]
235
45. 200 MeV of energy may be obtained per fission 45. ,d U ds fo[k.Mu ls 200 MeV ÅtkZ eqDr gksrh gAS ,d
of U235. A reactor is generating 1000 kW of power. fj,DVj 1000 kW 'kfDr mRiUu dj jgk gAS fj,DVj esa gksus okys
The rate of nuclear fission in the reactor is - fo[k.Muksa dh nj gksxh&
(1) 1000 (2) 2 × 108 (1) 1000 (2) 2 × 108
(3) 3.125 × 1016 (4) 931 (3) 3.125 × 1016 (4) 931

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TOPIC : EN, Chemical Bonding up to Bond Angle comparison metallorgy, Isomerism/ Inductive effect

46. Which of the following is correct order of EN :- 46. fuEu esa ls fo|qr½.krk dk dkSulk Øe lgh gS :-
(1) F > Cl (2) SO2 < SO3 (1) F > Cl (2) SO2 < SO3
(3) CH4 < CF4 (4) All of the above (3) CH4 < CF4 (4) All of the above
47. Which of the following will not react with CaO :- 47. fuEu esa ls dkuS CaO ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k ugha djrk gS :-
(1) CO2 (2) N2O (3) SO2 (4) SiO2 (1) CO2 (2) N2O (3) SO2 (4) SiO2
48. Determine the correct order of acidic nature ? 48. vEyh; lkeF;Z ds lgh Øe dks pqfu;s ?
(1) HClO > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4 (1) HClO > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4
(2) H3PO2 < H3PO3 < H3PO4 (2) H3PO2 < H3PO3 < H3PO4
(3) H3PO4 < H2SO4 < HClO4 (3) H3PO4 < H2SO4 < HClO4
(4) HNO3 < HNO2 (4) HNO3 < HNO2
49. Identify correct match :- 49. lgh feyku pqfu;s :-
(1) Na2O < MgO < Al2O3 < SiO2 < P2O5 ; Basic nature (1) Na2O < MgO < Al2O3 < SiO2 < P2O5 ; {kkjh; lkEF;Z
(2) CO2 > SiO2 > GeO2 > SnO2 ; Basic nature (2) CO2 > SiO2 > GeO2 > SnO2 ; {kkjh; lkEF;Z
(3) HF > HCl > HBr > HI ; Acidic nature (3) HF > HCl > HBr > HI ; vEyh; lkEF;Z
(4) Sc2O3 < TiO2 < V2O5 < CrO3 < Mn2O7 ; Acidic nature (4) Sc2O3 < TiO2 < V2O5 < CrO3 < Mn2O7 ; vEyh; lkEF;Z
50. In which of the following molecule polar as well 50. fuEu esa ls dkuS ls ;kfS xd esas /kzqoh; ,oa v/kqzoh; nksuksa ca/k mifLFkr
as non polar bond is present :- gS :-
(1) N2O 5 (2) N2O 4 (1) N2O 5 (2) N2O 4
(3) N2 (4) None (3) N2 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
51. Which of the following is a covalent molecule :- 51. fuEu esa ls dkSu ,d lgla;kstd v.kq gS :-
(1) AlF3 (2) Al2O3 (1) AlF3 (2) Al2O3
(3) AlCl 3 (4) None (3) AlCl 3 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
52. Which of the following pair consist of only 52. fuEu esa ls ,d dkSu lk ;qXe dsoy tkyd Bksl (lgla;kstd)
covalent network solid :- j[krk gS :-
(1) SiO2, P4O10 (2) P4O10, S 3O9 (1) SiO2, P4O10 (2) P4O10, S 3O9
(3) P4O10, P 4O6 (4) SiO2, SiC (3) P4O10, P 4O6 (4) SiO2, SiC
53. Which of the following order of bond energy is 53. fuEu esa dkSu lk ca/k ÅtkZ dk Øe lgh gS :-
correct :- (1) C–C > Si–Si > Ge–Ge > Sn–Sn
(1) C–C > Si–Si > Ge–Ge > Sn–Sn
(2) N–N > P–P > As–As > Sb–Sb
(2) N–N > P–P > As–As > Sb–Sb
(3) O–O > S–S > Se–Se > Te–Te
(3) O–O > S–S > Se–Se > Te–Te
(4) F–F > Cl–Cl > Br–Br > I–I (4) F–F > Cl–Cl > Br–Br > I–I
54. Which of the following has maximum bond 54. fuEu esa ls fdldh ca/k fo;kstu ÅtkZ vf/kdre gS :-
dissociation energy :- (1) H 2 (2) F2
(1) H 2 (2) F2 (3) Cl 2 (4) Br2 (3) Cl 2 (4) Br2
55. Which of the following combination of orbitals 55. fuEu esa ls d{kdksa dk dkuS lk la;kstu lgla;kstd ca/k dk fuekZ.k
does not from covalent bond (if X Axis is ugha djrk gS (;fn X v{k varZukfHkdh; v{k gS) :-
internuclear axis) :- (1) s + pz (2) py + py
(1) s + pz (2) py + py
(3) dyz + dyz (4) pz + dxz (3) dyz + dyz (4) pz + dxz

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56. Which statement is correct ? 56. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk dFku lR; gS ?
(1) existence of N2 and non existence of P2 at room (1) dejs ds rki ij N2dk vfLrRo esa gksuk ,oa P2 dk vfLrRo
temeprature is related with lp-lp repulsion. esa ugha gksuk lp-lp izfrd"kZ.k ls lacaf/kr gAS
(2) at room temperature both CO2 and SiO2 form (2) dejs ds rki ij nksuksa CO2 ,oa SiO2 fofoDr v.kq cukrs
discrete molecules gSA
(3) at room temperature existance of S8 is related (3) dejs ds rki ij S 8 dk vfLrRo lYQj ijek.kq vksa ds
with stronger s bond between sulphur atoms eè; iz cy s ca/k ls lac af /kr gS ,oa S2 dk vfLrRo es a
while non existence of S 2 is related with ughs gks uk lYQj ijek.kq v ks a ds e/; nq cZ y p ca / k ls
weaker p bond between sulphur atoms. lac af èkr gSA
(4) None (4) None
57. In which of the following pair of species both 57. fuEu esa Lih'kht ds dkSu ls ;qXe esa ladj.k leku] vkÏfr leku
species have same hybridisation, same shape, and ,oa ca/k dks.k leku gS :-
same bond angle :- (1) NF 3, NH3 (2) CO 2, SiO2
(1) NF 3, NH3 (2) CO 2, SiO2
(3) BCl3, AlCl3 (4) BeCl2, I3– (3) BCl3, AlCl3 (4) BeCl2, I3–
58. Which of the following has different hybridisation 58. fuEu esa ls fdlesa ladj.k vU; rhu ls fHkUu gS :-
from other three :- (1) NO 2 (2) NO2–
(1) NO 2 (2) NO2– (3) NO3– (4) NO2+ (3) NO3– (4) NO2+
59. Which of the following molecule is formed in 2nd 59. fuEu esa dkSu lk v.kq dsUnzh; ijek.kq dh f}rh; mÙksftr voLFkk
excited state of central atom :- esa curk gS :-
(1) ClF3 (2) SO2 (3) XeF 4 (4) PCl5 (1) ClF3 (2) SO2 (3) XeF 4 (4) PCl5
60. In which of the following pair both molecule/ion 60. fuEu esa ls dkSu ls ;qXe esa nksuksa v.kq@vk;u lelajpukRed ugha
are not isostructural :- gS :-
(1) SiF4 & SF4 (2) PCl6– & SF6 (1) SiF4 & SF4 (2) PCl6– & SF6
(3) NH4+ & SO4–2 (4) NH3 and H3O + (3) NH4+ & SO4–2 (4) NH3 and H3O +
61. Maximum covalency of N and B is respectively:- 61. N ,oa B dh vf/kdre lgla;kstdrk Øe'k% gS :-
(1) 3, 2 (2) 3, 3 (1) 3, 2 (2) 3, 3
(3) 4, 2 (4) 4, 4 (3) 4, 2 (4) 4, 4
62. Type of bonds which are present in compound 62. ;kSfxd N2O5(s) esa mifLFkr ca/kksa dk izdkj gS :-
N2O5(s) :- (1) dsoy lgla;kstd
(1) only covalent
(2) lgla;kstd ,oa milgla;kstd
(2) covalent & coordinate
(3) vk;fud] lgla;kstd ,oa milgla;kstd
(3) ionic, covalent & coordinate
(4) none of the above (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
63. In which of the following, vacant orbital of central 63. fuEu esa ls fdl esa dsUnzh; ijek.kq ds fjDr d{kd ladj.k esa Hkkx
atom is not involved in hybridisation :- ugha ysrs gS :-
(1) PCl6– (2) BF4– (3) I3– (4) NH4+ (1) PCl6– (2) BF4– (3) I3– (4) NH4+
64. Which one of the following is wrongly matched :- 64. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk feyku lgh ugha gS :-
(1) NH2– – V shape (2) NO2+ – Linear (1) NH2– – V vkÏfr (2) NO2+ – js[kh;
(3) N3– – V shape (4) BF 4– – Tetrahedral (3) N3– – V vkÏfr (4) BF4– – prq"Qydh;
65. Which molecule has maximum atoms in same plane:- 65. fuEu esa ls dkuS ls v.kq esa ,d ry esa vf/kdre ijek.kq gS :-
(1) PCl5 (2) SF6 (3) IF 7 (4) BF 3 (1) PCl5 (2) SF6 (3) IF 7 (4) BF 3

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66. Which of the following has pp-pp as well as 66. fuEu es a ls fdles a pp-pp ,oa pp-dp nks u ks a ca/k
pp-dp bond ? mifLFkr gS ?
(1) P4O10 (2) SO2 (1) P4O10 (2) SO2
(3) SO3(s) (4) 2 & 3 both (3) SO3(s) (4) 2 & 3 both
67. If a metal has low oxygen affinity then impurities 67. ;fn /kkrq dh vkWDlhtu ds lkFk cU/kqrk] v'kqf};ksa ls de gks rc
the purification of metal may be carried out by :- ifj'kks/ku ds fy, dkSulh fof/k dk mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gaS :-
(1) Liquation (2) Distillation (1) nzo.k (2) vklou
(3) Zone refining (4) Cupellation (3) {ks=h; ifj"dj.k (4) [kiZj.k
68. Which of the following are on heating produce 68. fuEu es ls dkuS ls v;Ld dks xje djus ij mHk;/kehZ vkjS vEyh;
amphoteric and acidic oxide ? vkWDlkbM izkIr gksrs gAS ?
(1) Calamine (2) siderite (1) Calamine (2) siderite
(3) Argentite (4) Cinnabar (3) Argentite (4) Cinnabar
69. Which of the following is not correctly matched:- 69. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk lgh esy ugha gS :-
(1) Electrolytic reduction – extraction of Al (1) fo|qr vi?kVuh; vip;u – Al dk fu"d"kZ.k
(2) Cynide process – Reduction of Pb (2) lkbukbM izØe – Pb dk vip;u
(3) Leaching – Extraction of Au (3) fu{kkyu – Au dk fu"d"kZ.k
(4) Zone refining – Ultra pure Ge (4) {ksf =; ifj'kks/ku – vfr 'kq¼ Ge
70. Which of the following is the most stable 70. czksekslkbDyksgDs lsu dk lcls LFkk;h la:i.k gksxk %&
conformation of bromocyclohexane? Br
Br H
H (I) (II)
(I) (II) Br
Br H
H

(III) Br
(IV)
(III) Br
(IV) H
H
H Br
H Br
Br Br
(V) (V)
H H
(1) I (2) II (3) III (4) IV (1) I (2) II (3) III (4) IV
71. Which of the following is an 'E' isomer? 71. fuEu esa ls 'E' gAS
Cl Br Cl C2H5 Cl Br Cl C2H5
(1) C=C (2) C=C (1) C=C (2) C=C
CH3 CH2·CH3 CH3 CHO CH3 CH2·CH3 CH3 CHO

H CHCl2 H CHCl2CH3 H CHCl2 H CHCl2CH3

(3) C=C (4) C=C (3) C=C (4) C=C
CH3 CHCl2 H H CH3 CHCl2 H H
72. Find total number of Geometrical isomers of 72. dqy T;kfefr; leko;fo;ksa dh la[;k gS :-
following compounds :- CH3 H
CH3 H H CH=C=CH2
H CH=C=CH2 (1) 0 (2) 8
(1) 0 (2) 8 (3) 4 (4) 2 (3) 4 (4) 2
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73. Assign E configuration of the following compounds:- 73. fuEu esa ls fdldk foU;kl E gAS

HOCH2 CH3 HOCH2 CH3

(1) C=C (1) C=C
H3C H H3C H

HO2C H HO2C H
(2) C=C (2) C=C
Cl OCH3 Cl OCH3

NC CH3 NC CH3
(3) C=C (3) C=C
CH3CH2 CH2OH CH3CH2 CH2OH

CH3O2C CH=CH2 CH3O2C CH=CH2

(4) C=C (4) C=C
HO2C CH2CH3 HO2C CH2CH3

74. The compound which has maximum number of 74. lcls vf/kd fdjsy dkcZu gAS
chiral centres is :-
OH
OH Cl OH
Cl OH (1) (2)
(1) (2)

HO HO
Cl Cl OH
OH
(3) (4) (3) (4)
Cl Cl

75. Out of the following which are chiral molecule ? 75. fuEu esa ls fdjsy gAS

H3C H CH3 H3C H CH3

(1) (2) (1) (2)

CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

H3C CH3 H3C CH3

(3) (4) (3) (4)

H3C CH3 H3C CH3 H3C CH3 CH3
H3C

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76. Identify number of chiral carbons in the following 76. fdjsy dkcZu dh la[;k Øe'k%-
compounds :- H3C–CH–CH–CH 2
H3C–CH–CH–CH 2
(I)
(I) OH OH OH
OH OH OH
H H
H H
(II) H3C H
(II) H3C H
Cl H
Cl H
H 3C–CH–CH–CH 2–CH 3
H 3C–CH–CH–CH 2–CH 3 (III)
(III) CH 3 CH3
CH 3 CH3
(1) 1, 2, 1 (2) 1, 1, 2 (1) 1, 2, 1 (2) 1, 1, 2
(3) 2, 0, 1 (4) 2, 1, 1 (3) 2, 0, 1 (4) 2, 1, 1
77. Geometrical isomerism is possible in :- 77. T;kfefr leko;rk n'kkZ,xk :-

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

78. Which of the following compound are meso forms? 78. fuEu esa ls ehtks gksxk ?

CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

H OH H Cl H OH H Cl
H OH Cl H H OH Cl H
CH2CH3 CH3 CH3 CH2CH3 CH3 CH3
1 2 3 1 2 3

(1) 1 only (2) 3 only (1) ds oy 1 (2) ds oy 3

(3) 1 and 2 (4) 2 and 3 (3) 1 vkSj 2 (4) 2 vkSj 3
79. The given pair is :- 79. buds e/; lEcU/k gAS
OH OH OH OH

H and C2H5 H and C2H5

C2H5 CH3 H CH3 C2H5 CH3 H CH3
(1) enantiomers (1) izfrfcEc :i leko;oh
(2) homomers (2) leku
(3) constitutional isomer (3) lajpukRed leko;oh
(4) diastereomers (4) fofofje leko;oh
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80. Number of stereoisomers of the given compound 80. f=foe leko;oh gksxsa \
OH OH
CH3–CH=CH–CH–CH3
is :-
CH3–CH=CH–CH–CH3
(1) 2 (2) 4 (1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 3 (4) 6 (3) 3 (4) 6
81. The following structures represent a pair of :- 81. buds e/; lEcU/k gksxk :-
CH3 Cl CH3 Cl

H Cl Br CH3 H Cl Br CH3
Br H Br H
(1) enantiomers (2) diastereomers (1) izfrfcEc leko;oh (2) fofofje leko;oh
(3) meso compound (4) homomers (3) ehtks ;kSfxd (4) leku
82. Which of the following will form geometrical 82. T;kfefr leko;ork n'kkZ,xk ?
isomers?
Cl
Cl
(1) (2) CH3CH=NOH
(1) (2) CH3CH=NOH
Cl
Cl

(3) (4) All of these (3) (4) lHkh

83. The structure of (S)-2-fluorobutane is best represented 83. fuEu esa ls 2-fluorobutan dk (S) foU;kl gAS
by :-
(1) CH3CHCH2 CH3
(1) CH3CHCH2 CH3
F
F
F
F
C H
C H
(2) H 3C
(2) H 3C
CH2CH3
CH2CH3

H H
C F (3) C F
(3)
H3C H3C
CH2CH3 CH2CH3

CH3 CH3
(4) F H (4) F H
CH2CH3 CH2CH3

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84. Consider the following structures (A), (B), (C) and 84. A, B, C rFkk D ds e/; lEcU/k gAS
(D) :-
CH3 C2H5

(A) Cl Br (B) Cl Br
CH3 C2H5
C2H5 CH3
(A) Cl Br (B) Cl Br

C2H5 CH3
Cl Cl

Cl Cl (C) CH3 Br (D) C2H5 CH3

(C) CH3 Br (D) C2H5 CH3 C2H5 Br

C2H5 Br
xyr fodYi gS %&
Find out incorrect option. (1) B vkjS C leku
(1) B and C are identical (2) A vkjS B izfrfcEc :i leko;oh
(2) A and B are enantiomers
(3) A vkjS C izfrfcEc :i leko;oh
(3) A and C are enantiomers
(4) B and D are enantiomers (4) B vkjS D izfrfcEc :i leko;oh
85. Which one of the following is the most stable 85. lcls LFkk;h la:i.k gS ?
conformer ?
CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3 HO H H CH3
HO H H CH3
(1) H OH
(2)
(1) (2) H OH
H OH H OH CH3 OH
CH3 OH

CH3 OH
CH3 OH H OH H CH3
H OH H CH3
(3) H (4)
(3) H OH
(4) OH H CH3
H CH3
CH3 OH
CH3 OH

Br CH 3 H CH 3 Br CH 3 H CH 3
86. and are :- 86. and :-
H H Br H H H Br H
(1) enantiomers (1) izfrfcEc :i leko;oh
(2) diastereomers (2) foofje leko;oh
(3) conformers (3) la:i.k
(4) homologous (4) le:ih
87. Which of the following belongs to +I group? 87. +I group (lewg) gksxk :-
(1) –OH (2) –OCH3 (1) –OH (2) –OCH3
(3) –COOH (4) –CH3 (3) –COOH (4) –CH3
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88. The most stable conformation of 2, 3-dimethyl 88. lcls LFkk;h la:i.k gAS
butane is :-
CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3 H CH3 H3C H
H CH3 H3C H (1) (2)
(1) (2) H CH3 CH3
H
H CH3 H CH3 CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3
CH3
CH3 H3C CH3
H3C CH3

(3) (4) None of these (3) (4) None of these

H CH3
H CH3
H
H
89. Calculate the total no. of stereoisomers :- 89. f=foe leko;oh dqy fdrus ga\
S

Br Br
(1) 8 (2) 4 (3) 32 (4) 16 (1) 8 (2) 4 (3) 32 (4) 16
90. Your O.C. Teacher Mr. Bahubali decided that 90. vkids O.C. teacher Jh Bahubali us fu'p; fd;k gS tks
compound which is show optical isomerism known Hkh ;kSfxd izdkf'kd leko;rk n'kkZ,xk og DON dgyk,xk
as a DON, then how many DON are present :- rks fuEu esa ls fdrus DON gaS ?

CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

H 3C CH3 H 3C CH3
H Cl H H H Cl H H
H Cl , H H , , H Cl , H H , ,

CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

Cl Cl
CH3 CH3

, OH , , OH ,
HO HO
H H

Cl Cl

Br Br Br Br

, Br–HC=C=CH–Br , Br–HC=C=CH–Br

Cl Cl Cl Cl

(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 7 (1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 7

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TOPIC : Genetics, Module-2.

91. Which chromosome set is found in male bird:- 91. uj fpfM+;k esa dkSulk xq.klw= leqPp; ik;k tkrk gS :-
(1) 2A + ZW (1) 2A + ZW
(2) 2A + ZZ (2) 2A + ZZ
(3) 2A + XO (3) 2A + XO
(4) 2A + XXZ (4) 2A + XXZ
92. Which one of the following is a not essential 92. fuEu esa ls Dyksfuax okgd dk dkSu vko';d y{k.k ugha gS :-
feature of a cloning vector :- (1) jsfIyds'ku dk mRifÙk LFky
(1) Origin of replication
(2) p;ukRed ekdZj
(2) Selectable marker
(3) jksx mRiUu djus okys thUl
(3) Pathogenic genes
(4) Cloning sites (4) Dyksfuax LFky
93. Which of the following is considered as key tools 93. fuEu esa ls dkuS &dkuS iquZ;kstu DNA rduhd ds eq[; vkStkj
of recombinant DNA technology ? gS &
A. Restriction enzymes A. çfrca/ku ,Utkbe
B. Polymerase enzymes B. ikyhejst ,Utkbe
C. Vectors C. okgd
D. Competent host organism D. dkEihVsUV iks"kn tho
(1) A only (2) A and B only (1) dsoy A (2) dsoy A vkjS B
(3) A, B and C (4) A, B, C and D (3) A, B vkjS C (4) A, B, C vkjS D
94. The specific DNA sequence where EcoRI cuts is:- 94. og fof'k"V DNA Øe tgka EcoRI dkVrk gS og gS :-
–GATTCG– –GAATTC– –GATTCG– –GAATTC–
(1) (2) (1) (2)
–CTAAGC– –CTTAAG– –CTAAGC– –CTTAAG–
–GTTCAA– –TTCCAA– –GTTCAA– –TTCCAA–
(3) (4) (3) (4)
–CAAGTT– –AAGGTT– –CAAGTT– –AAGGTT–
95. If a normal man marries a girl who is carrier for 95. ;fn ,d lkekU; O;fDr dh 'kknh gheksfQfy;k ds okgd yM+dh
haemophilia then :- ls gksrh gS rks :-
(1) All sons will be haemophilic (1) lHkh csVs gheksfQfy;k xzLr gksaxs
(2) All daughters will be haemophilic (2) lHkh yM+fd;ka gheksfQfy;k xzLr gksaxh
(3) 75% of the childrens will be haemophilic (3) 75% cPps gheksfQfy;k xzLr gksaxs
(4) 50% of the sons will be haemophilic (4) 50% csVs gheksfQfy;k xzLr gksaxs
96. Fruit colour in cucurbita pepo is an example of:- 96. Cucurbita pepo esa Qy dk jax fdldk mnkgj.k gS :-
(1) Recessive epistasis (1) vçcy çcyrk
(2) Dominant epistasis (2) çHkkoh çcyrk
(3) Complementary gene (3) iwjd thu
(4) Polygenic factor (4) cgqthuh dkjd
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97. Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose 97. dkWye-I ,oa-II dks lqefs yr djsa ,oa lgh mÙkj dk p;u djsa :-
the correct answer :-
Column-I Column-II
Column-I Column-II
a. 2n – 1 – 1 (i) Trisomy
a. 2n – 1 – 1 (i) Trisomy
b. 2n + 1 (ii) Monosomy
b. 2n + 1 (ii) Monosomy
c. 2n + 1 + 1 (iii) Nullisomy
c. 2n + 1 + 1 (iii) Nullisomy
d. 2n – 2 (iv) Double Trisomy
d. 2n – 2 (iv) Double Trisomy
(v) Double monosomy
(v) Double monosomy
(1) a-(v), b-(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(1) a-(v), b-(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(2) a-(ii), b-(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(2) a-(ii), b-(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(3) a-(v), b-(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) a-(v), b-(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(4) a-(ii), b-(i), c(iv), d(v) (4) a-(ii), b-(i), c(iv), d(v)
98. A normal woman whose father was albino 98. ,d lkekU; efgyk ftlds firk jatdghu gS dh 'kknh ,d
marries a man who is albino. What proportion of jatdghu iq:"k ls gksus ij muds cPpksa esa lkekU; ,oa jatdghu
normal and albino can be expected among the
dk vuqikr fuEu esa ls D;k gksxk\
offspring?
(1) All albino (2) 1 normal; 1 albino (1) lHkh jatdghu (2) 1 lkekU;; 1 jatdghu
(3) All normal (4) 2 normal; 1 albino (3) lHkh lkekU; (4) 2 lkekU;; 1 jatdghu
99. In dihybrid mendelian cross how many types of 99. es.Msfy;u f}ladj Økl dh F2 ih<+h esa fdrus izdkj ds thu
genotype and phenotype will be obtain in izk:i o y{k.k izk:i mRiék gksaxs %&
F2 generation :-
(1) 4 vkjS 9 Øe'k%
(1) 4 and 9 respectively
(2) 9 and 4 respectively (2) 9 vkjS 4 Øe'k%
(3) 9 and 16 respectively (3) 9 vkSj 16 Øe'k%
(4) 4 and 16 respectively (4) 4 vkSj 16 Øe'k%
100. If there are three allelic forms for the gene 100. ;fn ABO :f/kj lewg ds fy, mÙkjnk;h thu ds rhu ;qXe
controlling ABO blood group then what will be fodYih lEHko g]S rc laHkkfor thu izk:i dh la[;k fdruh
the number of possible genotype :- gksrh &
(1) 6 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 14 (1) 6 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 14
101. In Mirabilis plant inheritance of leaf colour is due 101. Mirabilis ikni es a ifÙk;ks a ds ja x d h oa ' kkxfr
to plastids. If pollen grain of green branch is used Plastids ds dkj.k gks rh gS A ;fn ,d varieagated uj
to pollinated the stigma of varieagated branch ikni dk cross varieagated eknk ls djkrs gaS rks izkIr gksaxs
flower, the result is :-
(1) dsoy gjs ifÙk;ksa okys ikni
(1) Only green leaves
(2) Only varieagated leaves (2) dsoy osjhxsVsM ifÙk;ka okys ikni
(3) Green, pale and varieagated leaves (3) gjs] isy o osjhxsVM
s okys ikni
(4) Both green and varieagated leaves (4) nksuksa gjh o osjhxsVM
s ifÙk;ka okys ikni
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102. The minimum weight of tomatoes obtained from a 102. ,d ikni ls izkIr VekVjksa esa U;wure otu 20g gAS VekVjksa esa
plant is 20g. The maximum weight of tomatoes vfèkdre otu 120g ik;k tkrk gAS AAbb × aabb thu izkIr
obtained is 120g. What will be the weight of tomatoes
okys ikniksa esa ØkWl djokus ij izkIr ik/S kksa esa VekVjksa dk D;k otu gksxk\
obtained by crossing plants with genotype AAbb × aabb
(1) 45g (2) 70g (1) 45g (2) 70g
(3) 100g (4) 25g (3) 100g (4) 25g
103. Shape of seed depends on starch granules size, so 103. cht dh vkd`fr LVkWpZ d.kksa ds vkdkj ij fuHkZj djrh gAS blfy,
inheritance of seed shape show . .. .. .. .. cht dh vkd`fr fdl oa'kkuqxrh---------- lEcUèk dks n'kkZrh gS
relationship while inheritance of starch grains
tcfd LVkpZ d.kksa dh oa'kkxrh --------- n'kkZrh gAS
show ...........
(1) izHkkoh&vizHkkoh] lg izHkkfork
(1) Dominant recessive, codominance
(2) Incomplete dominance, codominance (2) viw.kZ&izHkkfork] lgizHkkfork
(3) Dominant - recessive, incomplete dominance (3) izHkkoh&vizHkkoh] viw.kZ izHkkfork
(4) Codominance, incomplete dominance (4) lgizHkkfork] viw.kZ izHkkfork
104. How many types of phenotypes would be 104. fuEu ØkWl esa ls F1 ih<+h esa fdrus izdkj ds y{k.k izk:i cusaxs
produced in F1 progeny in the following cross that ;fn ;s es.My ds Lora= viO;wgu ds fu;e dk ikyu djrs gaS
obeys Mendels law of independent assortment AABBCC × aabbcc :-
AABBCC × aabbcc ? (1) 1 (2) 64
(1) 1 (2) 64 (3) 27 (4) 8 (3) 27 (4) 8
105. Which of the following character in pea plant 105. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk y{k.k eVj ds ikni esa dsoy le;qXeuth voLFkk
express only in homozygous condition ? esa vfHkO;Dr gksrk gS\
(1) Green seed colour, Wrinkled seed shape, Axial (1) cht dk gjk jax] >qjhZnkj cht vkÏfr] v{kh; iq"i
flower position fLFkfr
(2) Green seed colour, Wrinkled seed shape, (2) cht dk gjk jax] >qjhZnkj cht vkÏfr] Qyh dk ihyk jax
Yellow pod colour
(3) cht dk gjk jax ] >qjhZnkj cht vkÏfr ] iq"i dk cSaxuh
(3) Green seed colour, Wrinkled seed shape, Violet
flower colour
jax

(4) Yellow seed colour, Wrinkled seed shape (4) cht dk ihyk jax ] cht dh >qjhZnkj vkÏfr Qyh dk
Yellow pod colour ihyk jax
106. If the modified allele produce normal enzyme 106. ;fn :ikarfjr ,yhy lkekU; ,atkbe cukrk gS rks dkSulk dFku
then which statement is not true ? lgh ugha g\ S
(1) It will produce phenotype similar to
(1) ;s v:ika rfjr ,yhy ds leku y{k.k iz k:i cukrk gS
unmodified allele
(2) ;g substrate dks mRikn esa :ikarfjr djus ds fy, mÙkjnk;h
(2) It will responsible for transformation of
substrate into product
gksxk
( 3 ) :ika r fjr ,yhy v:ika r fjr ,yhy ds leku ugha
(3) Modified allele is not equivalent to unmodified
allele gks r k
(4) Modified allele is equivalent to unmodified ( 4 ) :ika r fjr ,yhy v:ika r fjr ,yhy ds leku gks r k
allele gS
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107. In 1900 A. D. three biologists independently 107. 1900 A. D. esa rhu to
S foKksa us i`Fkd~ :i ls es.My ds fl¼kUrksa
discovered Mendel's principles. They are :- dh [kkst dhA os gSa :-
(1) De Vries, Correns and Tschermak (1) Mh ozht] dksjsUl vkjS 'ksjed
(2) Sutton, Morgan and Bridges (2) lêu] eksxZu vkjS czhtsl
(3) Avery, McLeod and McCarthy (3) ,osjh] esdfy;kWM vkjS ed
S kFkhZ
(4) Bateson, Punnet and Bridges (4) csV~lu] iqéksV vkjS czhtsl

108. An allele is said to be dominant if :- 108. ,d ,yhy dks izHkkoh dgk tkrk gS ] ;fn &
(1) It is expressed only in heterozygous
(1) ;g fgVjkstk;xl la;kstuksa esa izdV gksrk gAS
combination
(2) It is expressed only in homozygous (2) ;g gksekstk;xl la;kstuksa esa izdV gksrk gAS
combination (3) ;g gksekstk;xl rFkk fgVjkstk;xl nksuksa la;kstuksa esa izdV
(3) It is expressed in both homozygous and
gksrk gAS
heterozygous condition
(4) It is expressed only in second generation (4) dsoy f}rh; ih<+h esa izdV gksrk gAS
109. The Punnett square shown below represents the 109. uhps fn;k x;k iqusV oxZ ,d f}ladj Økal dh oa'kkuqxfr dk isVuZ
pattern of inheritance in dihybrid cross when çnf'kZr djrk g]S tc ihyk (Y) lQsn (y) ij çHkkoh rFkk xksy
yellow (Y) is dominant over white (y) and round
(R) >qjhZnkj (r) chtksa ij çHkkoh gaS:-
(R) is dominant over wrinkled (r) seeds:-

YR Yr yR ry YR Yr yR ry
YR F J N R YR F J N R
Yr G K O S Yr G K O S
yR H L P T yR H L P T
ry I M Q U ry I M Q U

A plant of 'H' type will produce seeds with the ,d 'H' çdkj ds ikni ls fuEu esa ls fdl ikni ds leku
genotype identical to seeds produced by the plants thuksVkbi okys cht mRiUu gksxsa ?
of:-
(1) M çdkj (2) U çdkj
(1) Type M (2) Type U
(3) Type P (4) Type N (3) P çdkj (4) N çdkj

110. A punnett square is used to - 110. ,d iwuVs oxZ mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gS -
(1) determine the source of new alleles (1) u, ,yhYl dk L=ksr fu/kkZfjr djus esaA
(2) determine how many genes control a given (2) fdlh y{k.k dks fdrus thu fu;a f =r djrs g S ;g
trait
fu/kkZfjr djus esaA
(3) predict the gamets that will be produced by an
organism (3) fdlh tho }kjk cuk, x, ;qXedksa dk irk yxkus esaA

(4) predict the outcome of a genetic cross (4) fdlh vkuqokaf'kd ØkWl dk ifj.kke Kkr djus esaA
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111. Match the terms in Column-I with their description 111. dkWye-I dh 'kCnksa dks dkWye-II esa fn, x, muds o.kZu ls eSp
in Column-II and choose the correct option : dhft, rFkk lgh fodYi pqfu, :
Column-I Column-II dkWy e-I dkWye -II
Many genes govern vuds thu ,dy y{k.k
(a) Dominance (i) (a) izHkkfork (i)
a single character dk fu;a=.k djrs gS
In a heterozygous
fo"ke;qXeth tho es
(b) Codominance (ii) organism only one
dsoy ,d gh ,syhy
allele expresses itself (b) lgizHkkfork (ii) Lo;a dks vfHkO;Dr
In a heterozygous djrk gAS
organism both alleles
(c) Pleiotropy (iii) fo"ke;qXeth tho esa
express themselves
fully (c) cgqizHkkfork (iii) nksuksa gh ,syhy Lo;a dks
iwjh rjg vfHkO;Dr
A single gene
Polygenic
(d) (iv) influences many ,dy thu vuds y{k.kksa
inheritance (d) cgqthuh oa'kkxfr (iv) dks izHkkfor djrk gAS
characters

(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
112. The substitution of amino acid in the globin protein 112. Xyksfcu izkVs hu esa vehuksa vEy dk izfrLFkkiu] chVk (B) Xykschu
results due to the single base substitution at the sixth thu (Mh-,u-,-) ds NBs dwV ds fdl ,dy {kkj izfrLFkkiu ds
code of the beta globin gene (DNA) from :-
dkj.k gksrk gS :-
(1) GAG to GGG (2) CTC to CAC (1) GAG ls GGG (2) CTC ls CAC
(3) GUG to GCG (4) CCC to CGC (3) GUG ls GCG (4) CCC ls CGC
113. Multiple alleles are present on :- 113. cgq;qXe fodYih mifLFkr gksrs gaS :-
(1) Same locus of homologous chromosome (1) le;qXeth xq.klw=ksa ds leku LFky ij
(2) Different locus of different chromesome (2) fHkUu xq.klw=ksa ds fHkUu LFky ij
(3) Different locus of same chromosome (3) leku xq.klw= ds fHkUu LFky ij
(4) Same locus of non homologous chromosome (4) vletkr xq.klw= ds leku LFky ij
114. In sickle cell anaemia– 114. fldy ly S ,fufe;k esa &
(1) The mutant haemoglobin molecule undergoes (1) de vkWDlhtu ruko esa mRifjorhZ gheksXyksfcu v.kq esa cgqyhdj.k
polymerisation under low oxygen tension
gks tkrk gS ftlds dkj.k RBC dk vkdkj cny tkrk gAS
causing the change in the shape of RBC
(2) gheksXyksfcu v.kq dh a-J`a[kyk esa NBs LFkku ij XywVSfed
(2) Substitution of Glutamic acid by valine at the
sixth position of the a-chain of haemoglobin vEy dk osyhu }kjk izfrLFkkiu gksrk gAS
(3) The mutant haemoglobin undergoes (3) mPp vkWDlhtu ruko esas mRijhorhZ gheksXyksfcu v.kq esa
polymerization under high oxygen tension cgqyhdj.k gks tkrk gS ftlds dkj.k RBC dk vkdkj
causing the change in shape of RBC cny tkrk gAS
(4) a-globin chain is modified (4) a-Xyksfcu J`a[kyk :ikUrfjr gks tkrh gAS
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115. A human male produces sperms with the genotypes 115. ,d uj euq";] ABC, ABc, Abc rFkk AbC thu izk:i okys
ABC, ABc, Abc and AbC in equal proportions. ;qXed leku vuqikr esa mRiUUk djrk gSA lacf/kr O;fDr dk thu
What is the corresponding genotype of this person? izk:i D;k gksxk\
(1) AaBbCc (2) AABBCc (1) AaBbCc (2) AABBCc
(3) AaBbCC (4) AABbCc (3) AaBbCC (4) AABbCc
116. Match the genetic phenomena with respective ratios? 116. vkuqokaf'kd ?kVukvksa dk muds lacfa /kr vuqikr ls feyku dhft,A
(a) Complementary gene (i) 9 : 3 : 4 (a) iwjd thu (i) 9 : 3 : 4
(b) Recessive epistasis (ii) 1 : 2 : 1 (b) vIkzHkkoh izcyrk (ii) 1 : 2 : 1
(c) Dominant epistasis (iii) 12 : 3 : 1 (c) IkzHkkoh izcyrk (iii) 12 : 3 : 1
(d) Incomplete dominance (iv) 9 : 7 (d) viw.kZ izHkkfodrk (iv) 9 : 7
(1) a – iv, b – i, c – iii, d – ii (1) a – iv, b – i, c – iii, d – ii
(2) a – i, b – iv, c – iii, d – ii (2) a – i, b – iv, c – iii, d – ii
(3) a – i, b – iii, c – iv, d – ii (3) a – i, b – iii, c – iv, d – ii
(4) a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii (4) a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii
117. The following diagram refers to Griffth's demonstration 117. fuEu fp= U;weksdksdl esa LFkkukarj.k ds fxzfQFk ds iz;ksx ls lacafèkr
of transformation in Pneumococcus. A, B, C and D gAS A, B, C o D fof'k"V cSfDVfj;ks ls vUrZ{ksfir ds i'pkr~
indicate the fates of mice after they are injected with pwgs dk Hkfo"; iznf'kZr djrs gS pwgs dk ;g Hkfo"; igpkfu,sA
specific bacteria. Identify the fate of mice. S LVªus ® pwgs esa vUrZ{ksfir ® ...A...
S strain ® Inject into mice ® ...A... R LVªus ® pwgs esa vUrZ{ksfir ® ...B...
R strain ® Inject into mice ® ...B... S LVªus ® pwgs esa vUrZ{ksfir ® ...C...
S strain ® Injected into mice ® ...C... (Å"ek&e`R;q)
(heat killed) S LVªus ® pwgs esa vUrZ{ksfir ® ...D...
S strain ® Inject into mice ® ...D... (Å"ek&e`R;q) + R LVªsu
(heat killed) + R strain (1) A-e`r, B-e`r, C-thfor, D-thfor
(1) A-dies, B-dies,C-lives, D-lives
(2) A-thfor, B-thfor, C-e`r, D-e`r
(2) A-lives, B-lives,C-dies, D-dies
(3) A-dies, B-lives,C-lives, D-dies (3) A-e`r, B-thfor, C-thfor, D-e`r
(4) A-lives, B-dies,C-dies, D-lives (4) A-thfor, B-e`r, C-e`r, D-thfor
118. Go through the following diagram of nucleosome 118. U;wfDy;kslkse (ØksesfVu dh lajpukRed bdkbZ) ds fuEu fp=
(structural unit of chromatin). Identify its ls A, B o C }kjk iznf'kZr vo;oh Hkkxksa dks igpkfu,A
componental parts indicated by A, B and C. A
A

C B
C B

A B C
A B C (1) RNA ukWu fgLVksu fgLVksu
(1) RNA Non-histone Histone (2) DNA H1 fgLVksu fgLVksu vksDVkej
(2) DNA H1 histone Histone octamer
(3) RNA fgLVksu vksDVkej H1 fgLVksu
(3) RNA Histone octamer H1 histone
(4) DNA Linker Octamer (4) DNA fydj vkWDVkej

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119. The Hershey-Chase experiment convinced most 119. g'ksZ&pst iz;ksx ij vf/kdka'k oK
S kfudksa us fo'okl fd;k gS fd
scientists that (1) thok.kq :ikarfjr gks ldrk gSA
(1) Bacteria can be transformed
(2) DNA vkuqokaf'kd inkFkZ gAS
(2) DNA is the genetic material
(3) DNA replication is semiconservative (3) DNA izfrd`frdj.k v¼Zlaj{kh gksrk gAS
(4) The transforming principle requires host factors (4) :ikarj.k fl¼kar ds fy, ijiks"kh dkjd vko';d gAS
120. 120.
Or ganism N bases/bp
ltho N bases/bp
(i) f × 174 (A) 4.6 × 10 6 bp
(i) f × 174 (A) 4.6 × 10 6 bp
(ii) Lambda (B) 3.3 × 10 9 bp
(ii) Lambda (B) 3.3 × 10 9 bp
bacteriophage
bacteriophage
(iii) E.coli (C) 5386 N base
(iii) E.coli (C) 5386 N base
(iv) Human (D) 48502 bp
(iv) Human (D) 48502 bp
Following match is correct. fuEu feyku lgh gAS
(1) (i) = D, (ii) = C, (iii) = B, (iv) = A (1) (i) = D, (ii) = C, (iii) = B, (iv) = A
(2) (i) = B, (ii) = D, (iii) = A, (iv) = B (2) (i) = B, (ii) = D, (iii) = A, (iv) = B
(3) (i) = A, (ii) = D, (iii) = C, (iv) = B (3) (i) = A, (ii) = D, (iii) = C, (iv) = B
(4) (i) = C, (ii) = D, (iii) = A, (iv) = B (4) (i) = C, (ii) = D, (iii) = A, (iv) = B
121. Which of the following is not a common feature 121. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk Mh,u, o vkj,u, dk leku xq.k ugha gS \
of DNA and RNA?
(1) vkuqokaf'kd inkFkZ dh rjg dk;Z djus dh {kerk gSA
(1) Ability to act as genetic material.
(2) mRifjorZu dh laHkkokukA
(2) Possibility of mutation.
(3) Ability to replicate itself. (3) Lo;a dh izfrÏfr dh {kerkA
(4) Ability to act as enzyme. (4) ,atkbe dh rjg dk;Z djus dh {kerkA
122. Read the following statements and choose the 122. lgh dFku dk p;u dhft, :-
correct option :- (A) ukbVªkt
s hul csl] is.Vkst 'kdZjk ls N-XykbdkslkbfMd fyadt
s
(A) Nitrogenous base is linked to the pentose sugar }kjk tqM+s gksrs gaSA
through a N-glycosidic linkage.
(B) QWkLQsV lewg] ,d U;wfDy;kslkbM ds 5'-OH ls QkWLQks,LVj
(B) Phosphate group is linked to 5'-OH of a
nucleoside through phosphoester linkage. fyadt s }kjk tqM+s gksrs gaSA
(C) Two nucleosides are linked through 3'-5' (C) nks U;wfDy;kslkbM~l] 3'-5' N-XykbdkslkbfMd fyadst }kjk
N-glycosidic linkage. tqM+s gksrs gaSA
(D) Negatively charged DNA is wrapped around (D) ½.kkRed vkosf'kr DNA pkjksa vksj ls /kukRed vkosf'kr
positively charged histone octamer to form fgLVWku vWkDVkej ls f?kjs jgrs gSa rFkk U;wfDy;kslkse cukrs gaAS
nucleosome. (E) ,slk ØkseksfVu tks vR;f/kd la?kfur gks rFkk xgjk LVsu gks]
(E) The chromatin that is more densely packed and
;qØksesfVu dgykrk gAS
stains dark is called euchromatin.
(1) dsoy A, B rFkk C xyr gaS
(1) A, B and C alone are wrong
(2) D alone is wrong (2) dsoy D xyr gaS
(3) C and E alone are wrong (3) dsoy C rFkk E xyr gaS
(4) A alone is wrong (4) dsoy A xyr gaS
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123. hn-RNA undergoes two additional processing. Out 123. hn-RNA dks nks vfrfjDr fof/k;ksa ds varxZr] ,d esa] ,d
of which, in one of them an unusual nucleotide vlkekU; U;wfDy;ksVkbM (feFkkby xqvkuksflu VªkbQWkLQsV) dks
(methyl guanosine triphosphate) is added to the hnRNA ds 5' fljs ij tksMk tkrk gS bl fof/k dks dgk tkrk
5'-end of hnRNA. This is known as:- gaS :-
(1) Capping (1) dsfiax
(2) Tailing (2) Vsf ya x
(3) Splicing (3) LIykbflax
(4) Termination (4) VfeZu's ku
124. Which of the following statements are correct :- 124. fuEu esa ls dkuS ls dFku lgh gaS :-
(i) RNA polymerase I transcribes rRNAs. (i) RNA iWkyhejst I, rRNAs dks vuqysf[kr djrk gaAS
(ii) RNA polymerase II transcribes snRNAs. (ii) RNA iWkyhejst II, snRNAs dks vuqysf[kr djrk gaAS
(iii) RNA polymerase III transcribes hnRNA. (iii) RNA iWkyhejst III, hnRNA dks vuqysf[kr djrk gaSA
(iv) RNA polymerase II transcribes hnRNA. (iv) RNA ikWyhejst II, hnRNA dks vuqysf[kr djrk gaAS
(1) (i) and (ii) are correct (1) (i) rFkk (ii) lgh gaS
(2) (i) and (iii) are correct (2) (i) rFkk (iii) lgh gaS
(3) (ii) and (iii) are correct (3) (ii) rFkk (iii) lgh gaS
(4) (i) and (iv) are correct (4) (i) rFkk (iv) lgh gaS
125. If a length of DNA has 45,000 base pairs, how 125. ;fn DNA dh yEckbZ esa 45,000 {kkj ;qXe gksrs gaS] DNA v.kq
many complete turns will the DNA molecule take esa fdrus iw.kZ pDdj gksaxs
(1) 4, 500 (2) 45, 000 (1) 4, 500 (2) 45, 000
(3) 45 (4) 450 (3) 45 (4) 450
126. Consider the following four statements (a-d) and 126. fuEufyf[kr pkj dFkuksa (a-d) ij fopkj dhft;s vkjS dsoy lHkh
select the option which include all the correct ones lgh dFkuks okyk ,d fodYi pqfu;s:-
only:-
(a) thok.kq esa vuq y s[ku o vuq oknu] ,d gh dEikVesa V
(a) Transcription and translation occurs in same
gSA
compartment in bacteria
(b) foHkDr thu lajpuk thukse ds fodflr y{k.k dks fu#ihr
(b) The split gene arrangment represents the
advanced feature of the genome.
djrh gS
(c) LIykbflax izfØ;k RNA-lalkj dh izHkqrk dks fu#fir djrh
(c) The process of splicing represents the
dominance of RNA-world gSA
(d) The presence of introns in split gene is (d) foHkDr thu es bUVªkuW dh mifLFkfr vkfne y{k.k dh mifLFkfr
reminiscent of antiquity dks iznf'kZr djrh gSA
(1) a, b and d (2) a, b and c (1) a, b ,oe d (2) a, b ,oe c
(3) a, c and d (4) b, c and d (3) a, c ,oe d (4) b, c ,oe d

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127. Read the following statements (A-D):- 127. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks if<;s (A-D):-
(A) DNA is a acidic substance
(A) DNA ,d vEyh; inkFkZ gAS
(B) The two chains of DNA have antiparallel polarity
(C) 5-Methyl uracil is another chemical name of (B) DNA dh nks Ja[kykvks esa izfrlekukUrj /kwzork gksrh gS
thymine (C) 5-feFkkby ;qjsfly] Fkkbehu dk gh nwljk jklk;fud uke gAS
(D) The two chains of B-DNA are coiled in a right
(D) B-DNA dh nksuks Ja[kyk,s nf{k.kkorhZ #i esa daM
q yhr gksrh gAS
handed fashion
How many of the above statements are correct? mijksDr dFkuks esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gAS
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1 (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
128. What is not true about RNA ? 128. RNA ds fy, lgh ugha gS %
(1) It acts as genetic material in some viruses (1) dqN ok;jl esa ;g vkuqofa 'kd lkexzh ds :i esa dk;Z djrk gAS
(2) In some cases it acts as a catalytic molecule (2) dqN ekeys esa ;g ,d mRizsjd v.kq ds rjg dk;Z djrk gAS
(3) It also plays an important role in metabolism (3) ;g mikip; esa ,d egRoiw.kZ Hkwfedk fuHkkrk gSA
(4) It is evolved from DNA (4) ;g DNA ls fodflr gqvk gAS
129. If Meselson and stahl's experiment is continued 129. ;fn Meselson o Stahl ds iz ; ks x dks pkj ihf <+ ; ks a
for four generations in bacteria, The ratio of rd c S D Vhfj;k es a fd;k tk;s rks pk S F kh ih<+ h
N15/N15 : N15/N14 : N14/N14 containing DNA in the
N 15/N 15 : N 15 /N 14 : N 14 /N 14 DNA dk vuq i kr D;k
fourth generation would be :-
gksxk %&
(1) 1 : 1 : 0 (2) 1 : 4 : 0
(1) 1 : 1 : 0 (2) 1 : 4 : 0
(3) 0 : 1 : 3 (4) 0 : 1 : 7 (3) 0 : 1 : 3 (4) 0 : 1 : 7
130. Which one of the following acts as catalyst in a 130. ,d thok.kq dksf'kdk esa fuEufyf[kr es ls dkSu lk ,d mRizsjd
bacterial cell? dke Hkh djrk gS :-
(1) "5" S-rRNA (2) "28" S-rRNA (1) "5" S-rRNA (2) "28" S-rRNA
(3) "16" S-rRNA (4) "23" S–rRNA (3) "16" S-rRNA (4) "23" S–rRNA
131. Select the incorrect statement : 131. xyr dFku dks igpkus &
(1) The ratio (A+G)/(T+C) in one strand of DNA (1) DNA ds ,d LVªasM esa (A+G)/(T+C) dk vuqikr blds
is the inverse to its complementary strand iwjd LVsªaM ls mYVk gksrk gAS
(2) RNA is labile and easily degradable (2) RNA vfLFkj vkSj vklkuh ls [kRe gks ldrk gS a
(3) Both RNA and DNA able to mutate (3) RNA rFkk DNA nksuksa mRifjorZu ds fy, l{ke gksrs gAS
(4) Presence of 'uracil' at the place of 'thymine' (4) 'Thymine' ds txg is 'uracil' dh mifLFkfr DNA dks
provide additional stability to DNA vfrfjDr fLFkjrk iznku djrh gAS
132. Which one of the following is an example of 132. dodksa dk mi;ksx djrs gq, ihM+dks ds tfS odh; fu;a=.k dk
carrying out biological control of pest using fungi? fuEufyf[kr es ls ,d mnkgj.k dkSulk gS ?
(1) Bacillus thuringiensis against butterfly caterpillars (1) cVj¶ykbZ dsVj fiyj ds izfr cl S hyl Fkwfjft,fll dk gksukA
(2) Baculoviruses against certain insects and (2) dqN [kkl dhVks rFkk laf/kiknks ds izf r cSD ;wyksok;jl dk
arthropods. gksukA
(3) Lady bird beetle against aphids (3) ,sfQM ds izfr ^^ysMh cMZ chVy** dk gksukA
(4) Trichoderma species against certain plant (4) dqN [kkl ikni jksxtudks ds izfr VªkbdksMekZ Lih'kht dk
pathogens. gksukA
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133. Match the column I with column II and choose the 133. LraHk&I dk LraHk&II ds lkFk feyku dhft, vkjS lgh fodYi pqfu,s:-
correct option :-
Lra H k – I Lra H k - II
Column–I Column–II
(A) yksfc;k (i) iwlk xkSjo
(A) Cowpea (i) Pusa Gaurav
(B) Wheat (ii) Pusa Sawani (B) xsgw¡ (ii) iwlk Lokuh
Rapeseed (C) jsilhM eLVMZ (iii) iwlk dksey
(C) (iii) Pusa Komal
mustard
(D) Okra (iv) Himgiri (D) vksdjk (iv) fgefxjh
(1) A–iii, B–iv, C–i, D–ii (1) A–iii, B–iv, C–i, D–ii
(2) A–iv, B–iii, C–i, D–ii (2) A–iv, B–iii, C–i, D–ii
(3) A–iii, B–iv, C–ii, D–i (3) A–iii, B–iv, C–ii, D–i
(4) A–iii, B–i, C–iv, D–ii (4) A–iii, B–i, C–iv, D–ii
134. Which step is crucial to the success of the breeding 134. iztuu mns~'k;ksa dks izkIr djus esa dkuS lk in dkQh egRoiw.kZ
objective and require careful scientific evaluation gS vr% larfr dk oSKkfud ewY;kadu dh vko';drk gksrh gSA
of the progeny ?
(1) Cross hybridisation among the selected parents (1) p;fur tudksa ds chp ij ladj.k
(2) Selection and testing of superior recombinants. (2) Js"B iqu;ksZxt dk p;u rFkk ijh{k.k
(3) Collection of variability
(3) ifjorZu'khyrk dk laxzg.k
(4) Testing, release and commercialisation of new
cultivars (4) u;h fdLeks dk ijh{k.k] fueqZDr gksuk rFkk O;kikjhdj.k
135. Which of the following pair is examples of 135. fuEu esa ls dkSulk tksM+k to
S moZjdks ds mnkgj.kks dk gS ?
bio fertilisers ? (1) jkbtksfc;e rFkk ,QhMl
(1) Rhizobium and Aphids
(2) jkbtksfc;e rFkk ,sukchuk
(2) Rhizobium and Anabaena
(3) VAM and Baculovirus (3) VAM rFkk cSD;wyksok;jl
(4) Azotobacter and Ladybird beetle (4) ,stksVkscsDVj rFkk ysMh cMZ Hk`ax
136. Match the column I with column II and choose the 136. LraHk - I dk LraHk - II ds lkFk feyku dhft, rFkk lgh fodYi pqfu,¡:-
correct option :- LraHk – I LraHk – II
Column–I Column–II eksusLdl
(A) LVªsIVksdkbust (i)
Monascus ijI;wjh;l
(A) Streptokinase (i)
purpureus ,slhVkscsDVj
Acetobacter (B) lkbDyksLiksjhu&, (ii)
(B) Cyclosporin - A (ii) ,lhVbZ
aceti
VªkbdksMekZ
Trichoderma (C) LVsfVUl (iii)
(C) Statins (iii) ik¡yhLiksje
polysporum
(D) Acetic acid (iv) Streptococcus (D) ,flfVd vEy (iv) LVªsIVksdksdl
(1) A – iii, B – iv, C – i, D – ii (1) A – iii, B – iv, C – i, D – ii
(2) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i (2) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i
(3) A – iv, B – iii, C – i, D – ii (3) A – iv, B – iii, C – i, D – ii
(4) A – iv, B – i, C – iii, D – ii (4) A – iv, B – i, C – iii, D – ii
137. The one aspect which is not a salient feature of genetic 137. vkuqokaf'kd dksM ds fy, dkSu lh ,d xq.k fo'ks"k lgh ugha g?S
code in its being:-
(1) fof'k"Vrk (2) vigflr uk gksuk
(1) Specific (2) Non-degenerate
(3) Universal (4) Unambiguous (3) lkoZf =drk (4) vlafnXrk
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138. In E.coil, Lac operon is induced by: 138. E.coil esa] Lac operon fuEu }kjk izsfjr gksrk gS :-
(1) I-gene (2) Lactose (1) I-th u (2) yDS Vkst
(3) Permease (4) b– galactosidase (3) ijfe;st (4) b– xsyDs VkslkbMst
139. A eukaryotic gene was introduced into bacteria 139. ,d lqdæas h thu dks leqfpr mUuk;d lfgr ,d thok.kq esa LFkkfir
along with suitable promoter but it was found that fd;k x;k ijarq ;g ik;k x;k fd bl thu ls thok.kq esa leku
this gene did not form similar protein in bacteria.
izksVhu ugha cukA bldk D;k dkj.k jgk gksxk :-
It is due to the :-
(1) vkj,u, ikWyhejst dh vuqifLFkfr
(1) Absence of RNA polymerase.
(2) Absence of origin of replication. (2) izfrÏfr LFky dh vuqifLFkfr
(3) Absence of splicing mechanism. (3) leca/ku izfØ;k dh vuqifLFkfr
(4) Absence of 80s ribosomes in bacteria. (4) thok.kq esa 80s jkbckslkse dh vuqifLFkfr
140. In translation which of the following step utilize 140. Translation es fuEu es ls dkuS ls in es ATP ds :i es ÅtkZ
energy in the form of ATP ? mi;ksx gksrh gS ?
(1) charging of t-RNA (1) t-RNA dk pktZ gksuk
(2) Amino acid activation (2) vehuks vEy dk lfØ;dj.k
(3) Translocation of ribosome (3) jkbckslkse dk LFkkukUrj.k
(4) Elongation of polypeptide chain (4) ikWyhisIVkbM Ük`a[kyk dk nh?khZdj.k
141. The given sequence when translated must form a 141. uhps fn, x, mRNA vuqØe dk vuqoknu djus ij mlls cus
polypeptide of how many amino acids ? gq, ikWyhisIVkbM esa fdrus vehuks vEy gksxas ?
5'-CUCAAAUCCAUGCCCUGGGCUUGUUAGCGA-3' 5'-CUCAAAUCCAUGCCCUGGGCUUGUUAGCGA-3'
(1) Eight (2) Nine (3) Six (4) Five (1) vkB (2) ukS (3) N% (4) ik¡p
142. Two linked genes a and b show 20% 142. nks lgyXu thu a o b, 20% iquZla;kstu n'kkZrs gaAS ++/++ X
recombination. The individuals of a hybrid cross ab/ab ds e/; ladj ladj.k ds tho fuEu ;qXed izfr'kr esa
between ++/++ X ab/ab shall show gametes in
percentage : n'kkZus pkfg,A
(1) ++ 50 : ab 50 (1) ++ 50 : ab 50
(2) ++ 50 : ab 10 (2) ++ 50 ab 10
(3) ++40 : ab 40 : + a 10 : + b10 (3) ++40 : ab 40 : + a 10 : + b10
(4) ++30 : ab 30 : + a 20 : + b 20 (4) ++30 : ab 30 : + a 20 : + b 20
143. Which of the following is not a dominant trait in 143. ekuo esa dkSu lk izHkkoh y{k.k ugha gS \
human ? A. o.kkZa/krk B. iksyhMsDVkbZyh
A. Colour blindness B. Polydactyly
C. jatdghurk D. gheksfQfy;k
C. Albinism D. Haemophilia
(1) A, C, D (2) A, B, C, D (1) A, C, D (2) A, B, C, D
(3) B, C, D (4) A, B, C (3) B, C, D (4) A, B, C
144. In pedigree analysis, symbol given for consanguineous 144. isfMxzh fo'ys"k.k esa] ltkr fookg ds fy, fn;k x;k izrhd g%S
marriage is
(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)
(3) (4)

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145. A normal visioned man whose father was colour 145. ,d lkekU; iq:"k ftldk firk o.kkZa/k gS ,oa bl iq:"k dk fookg
blind marries a normal woman whose father was also ,d lkekU; L=h ftlds firk Hkh o.kkZa/k gS ls fd;k tkrk gAS mudk
colour blind. They have their first child as a daughter.
What are the chances that this child would be colour izFke f'k'kq ,d iq=h gAS bl f'k'kq ds o.kkZ/a k gksus dh laHkkouk D;k
blind? gS
(1) 0% (2) 100% (3) 25% (4) 50% (1) 0% (2) 100% (3) 25% (4) 50%
146. The experiment shown in the figure below has been 146. fp= esa n'kkZ;k x;k iz;ksx lgyXurk o iquZla;kstu dh ?kVuk dks
carried out by Morgan to show the phenomenon of n'kkZus ds fy, ekWxZu }kjk fd;k x;k FkkA ;fn ladj.k I esa thu
linkage and recombination. If in Cross I, genes are n`<+ :i ls lgyXu gS rFkk ladj.k II esa thu f'kfFky :i ls lgyXu
tightly linked and in Cross II, genes are loosely linked
then what will be the percentage of recombinants
g]S rks ladj.k I o II esa mRiUu iquZla;kstu mRiknksa dh izfr'krrk]
products in Cross I and Cross II, respectively ? Øe'k% D;k gksxh \
Cross I ladj.k I
O
O y w+ +
y w
+
y w+ +
y w
+

× tud ×
Parents
Yw
Yw ihyk 'osr
Yellow White Wild Type
oU;@mxz izdkj
Body Eyes 'kjhj vka[k
O
O y w+ + +
y w+ + + y w
y w
F1 generation F1 ih<+h
+ +
+ + y w
y w oU;@mxz izdkj ihyk 'osr
Wild Type Yellow White
Body Eyes 'kjhj vka[k
Cross II
ladj.k II
O
O +m
+m w w
+
m
+
w w
+ +
m
× ×
w m
w m
White Miniature Wild Type
'osr y?kq oU;@mxz izdkj
Body Wings 'kjhj ia[k;qDr
O
O + m
w
w + m w m w m

+ +
+ + w m 'osr y?kq
w m
Wild Type White Miniature oU;@mxz izdkj
'kjhj ia[k;qDr
Body Wings
(1) 28.7% and 62.8% (2) 1.3% and 37.2% (1) 28.7% rFkk 62.8% (2) 1.3% rFkk 37.2%
(3) 37.2% and 1.3% (4) 62.8% and 98.7% (3) 37.2% rFkk 1.3% (4) 62.8% rFkk 98.7%
147. In the following pedigree chart, the mutant trait is 147. fuEu isMhxzh pkVZ esa mRifjorhZ y{k.k Nk;kafdr rFkk dkyk gSA
shaded black. The gene responsible for the trait is : y{k.k ds fy, mÙkjnk;h thu gS %

(1) dominant and sex-linked (1) izHkkoh o fyax lgyXu

(2) dominant and autosomal (2) izHkkoh o vkWVkslksey
(3) recessive and sex-linked (3) vizHkkoh o fyax lgyXu
(4) recessive and autosomal (4) vizHkkoh o vkWVkslksey
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148. In which of the following organism male is NOT 148. fuEu es ls fdl tho/kkjh esa uj fo"ke;qXedh ugha gS \
heterogametic ?
(1) Qy eD[kh
(1) Fruit fly
(2) eqxkZ
(2) Fowl
(3) Grashopper (3) fVM~Mk
(4) Human (4) ekuo
149. Group of bacteria used in biogas production 149. ck;ksxl
S ds mRiknu esa mi;ksx gksus okys thok.kqvksa dks lkeqfgd
is :- :i ls D;k dgk tkrk gS :-
(1) Eubacteria (2) Organotrophs (1) Eubacteria (2) Organotrophs
(3) Blue Green Algae (4) Methanogens (3) Blue Green Algae (4) Methanogens
150. Lactic acid bacteria convert milk into curd and 150. yDS Vhd ,flM cDS Vhfj;k nw/k dks ngh esa cny nsrs gS ;g fdl
improves its nutritional quality by enhancing vitamin:- foVkfeu dh ek=k esa izpqj gksrk gS :-
(1) A (2) B12 (1) A (2) B12
(3) C (4) D (3) C (4) D
151. Match the following list of microbes and their 151. lw{ethoksa dh vkjS muds egRo dh fuEufyf[kr lwph dk feyku
importance : dhft, :
(a) Saccharomyces (i) Production of (a) lSdSjksekblht+ (i) izfrj{kh laned dkjdksa
cerevisiae immunosuppressive
agents
lfoZflvkbZ dk mRiknu

(b) Monascus (ii) Ripening of Swiss (b) eksuSLdl iI;wfZ j;l (ii) fLol pht dks idkuk
purpureus cheese
(c) VªkbdksMekZ iksyhLiksje (iii) bZFkuS kWy dk O;kolkf;d
(c) Trichoderma (iii) Commercial mRiknu
polysporum production of ethanol
(d) Propionibacterium (iv) Production of blood
(d) izkfs ivkfu cSDVhfj;e (iv) :f/kj esa dksyLs VªkWy de
sharmanii cholesterol lowering 'kekZukbZ djus dk dkjd
agents
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) (4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
152. Which body of the Government of India regulates 152. Hkkjr ljdkj dk dkuS lk fudk; tu lsok ds fy, GM 'kks/k vkSj
GM research and safety of introducing GM GM thoksa ds izorZu ls lqj{kk dks fu;fU=r djrk gS?
organisms for public services?
(1) Hkkjrh; d`f"k vuqla/kku ifj"kn~
(1) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
(2) vkuqoakf'kd baftfu;fjax Lohd`fr lfefr
(2) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
(3) Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation (3) vkuqoakf'kd ifjpkyu dh 'kks/k lfefr

(4) Bio-safety committee (4) to

S & lqj{kk lfefr
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153. Ti plasmid used in Genetic engineering for :- 153. Ti IykfTeM dk vkuqoaf'kd vfHk;kaf=d esa D;k mi;ksx gaS :-
(1) Gene transfer (1) thu LFkkukUrj.k
(2) DNA finger printing (2) DNA vaxqyh Nkih
(3) Molecular diagnosis (3) vkf.od funku
(4) Cutting of DNA (4) DNA dk dkVuk
154. Golden rice has been developed for increased 154. xksYMu pkoy dks fuEu esa ls fdldh ek=k dks c<+kus ds fy,
content of :- fodflr fd;k x;k gaS :-
(1) Vitamin-B (2) Vitamin-C (1) foVkfeu-B (2) foVkfeu-C
(3) Vitamin-A (4) Vitamin-D (3) foVkfeu-A (4) foVkfeu-D
155. Bt-Cotton is resistance for :- 155. Bt-dikl esa fuEu esa fdldh izfrjks/kd {kerk gaS :-
(1) Nematode (2) Virus (1) fuesVksM (2) ok;jl
(3) Fungus (4) Insect (3) dod (4) dhV
156. Which of the following enzyme produce sticky 156. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk ,atkbe fpifpis (sticky) Nksj mRiUu djrk
ends ? gS ?
(1) EcoR V (2) Sma I (1) EcoR V (2) Sma I

(3) Hae III (4) Hind III (3) Hae III (4) Hind III

157. Codon of Glycine amino acid are :- 157. Xyk;lhu vehuks vEy ds dksMksu gS :-
(1) UAA, UAG, UGA (1) UAA, UAG, UGA

(2) GGA, GGC, GGU (2) GGA, GGC, GGU

(3) UUA, UUC, UUG (3) UUA, UUC, UUG

(4) ACA, AUC, UCA (4) ACA, AUC, UCA

158. Study the pedigree chart of a family given below: 158. uhps fn, x, ifjokj ds oa'kkoyh pkVZ dk v/;;u djs :

;g jksxks ds fy, izfrfuf/kRo gS :

it is representative for disease like :
(1) fldy lsy ,uhfe;k] fgeksfQfy;k
(1) Sickle cell anaemia, Haemophelia
(2) ,YchfuTe] FkSysflfe;k
(2) Albinism, Thalassemia
(3) fQukbyfdVksU;wfj;k] o.kkZU/krk
(3) Phenylketonuria, Colour blindness
(4) Myotonic dystrophy, sickle cell anaemia (4) ek;ksVksfud fMLVªksQh] fldy lsy ,uhfe;k

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159. Identify A, B, C and D in the given figure of E.coil 159. bZ-dksykbZ Dyksfuax osDVj pBR322 ds fn;s x;s fp= esa ls fy;s
cloning vector pBR322 and select the correct x;s A, B, C vkjS D dks igpkfu;s ,oa lgh fodYi pqu&s
option.
Cla I Hind III
Cla I Hind III
A
A Pvu I
Pvu I B
B
Pst I C tet R
Pst I C tetR Sal I
Sal I pBR322
pBR322
D
D rop
rop
Pvu II
Pvu II

A B C D A B C D
R R
(1) Hind I Eco R I amp ori (1) Hind I Eco R I amp ori
R
(2) Hind I Bam H i kan
R
amp
R
(2) Hind I Bam H i kan amp R
R R
(3) Bam H I Pst I ori amp (3) Bam H I Pst I ori amp
R R
(4) Eco R I Bam H I amp ori (4) Eco R I Bam H I amp ori

160. Most abundant RNA in animal cell is ? 160. tUrq dksf'kdk esa lcls T;knk ek=k esa ik;s tkus okyk¥ RNA
(1) r-RNA (2) m-RNA dkSulk gaS ?
(1) r-RNA (2) m-RNA
(3) t-RNA (4) RNAi (3) t-RNA (4) RNAi
161 In rDNA technology or genetic engineering elution 161. rDNA rduhd;k vkuqokaf'kd bathfu;fjax esa{kkyu (elution)
means :- dk vFkZ gS :-
(1) Remove the DNA from centrifuge tube after (1) lsaVªh¶;wt V~;wc eas ls lsUVªh¶;wxs'ku ds i'pkr~ DNA dks
centrifugation
fudkyuk
(2) Separation of the recombinant protein from
(2) iqu;ksZxt izksVhu dks iq;ksZftr dksf'kdk ls i`Fkd djukA
recombinant cell.
(3) iqu;ksZftr DNA dks ijiks"kh dksf'kdk esa fuos'k djukA
(3) Insertion of recombinant DNA into host cell.
(4) The separated band of DNA are cut out from (4) DNA dh i`FkDd`r ifê;ksa dks tsy ls dkVdj fudkyrs gS vkSj
the gel and extracted from the gel piece. tsy ds VqdM+ksa ls fu"df"kZr dj ysrs gaAS
162. Restriction endonucleases are most widely used in 162. fjdkfEcusUV DNA rduhd esa lokZf/kd mi;ksx gksus okys
recombinant DNA technology. They are obtained jsfLVªD'ku ,.MksU;qfDy;st fdl ls izkIr gksrs gaS:-
from :-
(1) thok.kqHkksft;ksa ls
(1) Bacteriophages
(2) Bacterial cells (2) thok.kq dksf'kdkvksa ls
(3) Virus (3) ok;jl ls
(4) All eukaryotic cells (4) lHkh ;qdsfj;ksfVd dksf'kdkvksa ls

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163. Select the two correct statements out of the four 163. ^ySd vksijS kWu* ls lacafèkr uhps fn;s tk jgs pkj dFkuksa (a-d) esa
(a-d) given below about lac operon : ls nks lgh dFku pqfu,&

(a) Glucose or galactose may bind with the (a) Xywdkst vFkok xSysDVkst] fjizslj (neudj) ds lkFk vkcaèk
repressor and inactivated cukdj mls fuf"Ø; dj ldrs gaAS

(b) In the absence of lactose the repressor binds (b) yDS Vkst dh vuqifLFkfr ij fjiszlj] vkWijsVj (izpkyd) thu
with the operator region ds lkFk vkcafèkr gks tkrk gAS

(c) The z-gene codes for permease (c) z-thu ikfeZ,t dks dksM djrk gAS

(d) This was elucidated by Francois Jacob and (d) bldk Li"Vhdj.k ÝSadksbl tSdc rFkk tSd eksukWM us
Jacque Monod fd;k FkkA

The correct statements are : lgh dFku dkSu ls gaS \

(1) (b) and (d) (1) (b) rFkk (d)

(2) (a) and (b) (2) (a) rFkk (b)

(3) (b) and (c) (3) (b) rFkk (c)

(4) (a) and (c) (4) (a) rFkk (c)

164. Satellite DNA is important because it : 164. vuq"kaxh DNA egRoiw.kZ gksrk gS D;ksafd ;g :

(1) Codes for enzymes needed for DNA (1) mu ,a tkbeksa ds fy, dksMu djrk gS ftudh DNA ds
replication izfrd`rh;u ds fy, t:jr gksrh gAS

(2) Codes for proteins needed in cell cycle (2) mu izksVhuksa ds fy, dksMu djrk gS ftudh dksf'kdk pØ
ds fy, t:jr gksrh gAS
(3) Shows high degree of polymorphism in
population and also the same degree of (3) lef"V esa mPp dksfV dh cgq:irk vkjS lkFk gh ,d O;fDr
polymorphism in an individual, which is esa mruh gh dksfV dh cgq:irk iznf'kZr djrk gS ftldh
heritable from parents to children oa'kkxfr tudksa ls cPpksa rd gks ldrh gAS

(4) Does not code for proteins and is same in all (4) izkVs huksa ds fy, dksMu ugha djrk] vkjS lef"V ds lHkh lnL;ksa
members of the population esa ,d tl
S k gh gksrk gAS

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165. What would happen if in a gene encoding a 165. ;fn ,d ,sls thu esa tks 50 ,sehuks vEyksa ds iky
S hisIVkbM dk
polypeptide of 50 amino acids, 30th codon (UAU) dkWMksu dj jgk gks] mldk, 30ok¡ dkWMksu (UAU) mRifjo£rr
is mutated to UAA :-
gksdj UAA cu tk, rks D;k gksxk :-
(1) A polypeptide of 29 amino acids will be
formed (1) ,d ikWyhisIVkbM 29 ,sehuksa vEyksa dk cusxk

(2) Two polypeptides of 24 and 25 amino acids (2) nks ikWyhisIVkbM cusaxs & ,d 24 ,sehuks vEyksa dk rFkk nwljk
will be formed 25 ,sehuks vEyksa dk
(3) A polypeptide of 49 amino acids will be
(3) ,d ikWyhisIVkbM 49 ,sehuks vEyksa dk cusxk
formed
(4) A polypeptide of 30 amino acids will be formed (4) ,d ikWyhisIVkbM 30 ,sehuks vEyks dk cusxk

166. One-gene-one enzyme hypothesis was proposed 166. ,d thu&,d ,Utkbe ifjdYiuk izLrkfor dh Fkh :-
by :- (1) chMy o VsVe us
(1) Beadle and Tatum
(2) tsdo o eksukM us
(2) Jacob and Monod
(3) ysMjcxZ us
(3) Lederberg
(4) Watson and Crick (4) okVlu o fØd us

167. Which step is not correct in DNA finger printing– 167. DNA vaxqfyNkih es dkuS ls iFk lgh ugha gS&

(1) Isolation of DNA (1) DNA dk foyxu

(2) Digestion of DNA by DNA ligase enzyme (2) DNA ykbxst }kjk DNA dk ikpu

(3) Separation of DNA by electophoresis (3) bysDVªkWQksjsfll }kjk DNA [kaMksa dk i`FkDdj.k

(4) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe (4) fpfUgr VNTR izksc dk mi;ksx djrs gq, ladj.k

168. Most abundant protein in human body is- 168. ekuo 'kjhj esa lcls vf/kd ek=k esa ik;h tkus okyh izkVs hu gS&

(1) Collagen (1) dkWystu

(2) Myosin (2) ek;kslhu

(3) Actin (3) ,fDVu

(4) Albumin (4) ,YC;qfeu

169. Most simple amino acid is- 169. lcls ljy vehuks vEy gksrk g&S

(1) Tyrosine (1) Vkbjkslhu

(2) Lysine (2) ykblhu

(3) Glycine (3) Xykbflu

(4) Aspartic acids (4) ,sLikfVZd vEy
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170. Match the column-I with column-II and choose 170. Lra Hk -I dk Lra Hk -II ds lkFk feyku djs a vk S j lgh fodYi
correct option :- pq f u,s %&

Column-I Column-II Lra H k-I Lra H k-II

Fights infectious
laØked dkjdkas ls
A Insulin i A bUlqfyu i
agents yM+uk
Enables glucose Xywdkst ds ifjogu
B Antibody ii izfrj{kh dks dksf'kdkvksa esa
transport into cells B ii
igqpkus esa l{ke
C Receptor iii Hormone
C xzkgh iii gkWeksZu
D GLUT-4 iv Sensory reception laons h xzkfgdk
D GLUT-4 iv

(1) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i (1) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i

(2) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii (2) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii

(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv (3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i (4) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i

171. Match the following :- 171. fuEufyf[kr dk feyku dhft;s :-

rkfydk -I rkfydk-II
Column-I Column-II
a ,YdsykWbM I fouCykfLVu] dqjdqfeu
a Alkaloid I Vinblastin, curcumin
b vko';d rsy II ekWfQZu] dksMhu
b Essential oils II Morphine, Codeine
c fo"k III uhacw ?kkl rsy
c Toxins III Lemon grass oil
d vk"S kf/k;ka (MªXl) IV ,fczu] fjlhu
d Drugs IV Abrin, Ricin
(1) a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I
(1) a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I
(2) a-III, b-II, c-IV, d-I
(2) a-III, b-II, c-IV, d-I
(3) a-II, b-III, c-I, d-IV (3) a-II, b-III, c-I, d-IV

(4) a-III, b-II, c-I, d-IV (4) a-III, b-II, c-I, d-IV
172. The first transgenic cow was 'Rosie' produced:- 172. çFke VªkUltSfud xk; 'jksth' D;k mRikfnr djrh gS :-
(1) Human protein-enriched milk (alpha- (1) ekuo çksVhu lEiUu nw/k (,YQk ysDVsYcqfeu)
lactalbumin)
(2) ekuo çksVhu a-1 ,UVhfVªfIlu çpqj nw/k
(2) Human protein a-1 antitrypsin riched milk
(3) Human protein enriched milk (insulin) (3) ekuo çksVhu lEiUu nw/k (bUlwfyu)

(4) All the above (4) mijksDr lHkh

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173. Select the incorrect match :- 173. vlR; feyku dk p;u dhft, :-

(1) Transgenic mice Polio vaccine

(1) ikjthuh pwgs iksfy;ks Vhdk
(2) Rosie cow a-lactalbumin gene (2) jksth xk; a-ySDVk,Ycqq ehu thu

(3) Micro propogation Gene therapy (3) lq{e iz o/kZ u thu FkSji
sh
(4) PCR Molecular diagnosis (4) PCR vkf.od funku

174. In human :- 174. ekuo esa :-

I. non-coding DNA is abundant. I. ukWu-dksfMax DNA cgqr lkjk gksrk gAS
II. less than 2% of genome codes for protein. II. thukse dk 2% ls Hkh de fgLlk izksVhu dksM djrk gAS
III. the function of more than 50% genes are III. 50% ls Hkh vf/kd thUl dk dk;Z Kkr ugha gAS
unknown IV. thUl dh dqy la [;k 30000 gAS
IV. total number of genes is 30000.
lgh fodYi gS :-
Correct option are :-
(1) I, II, III o IV
(1) I, II, III and IV
(2) I o III
(2) I and III
(3) I, II o IV
(3) I, II and IV
(4) I, II and III (4) I, II o III
175. Histone is a basic protein due to - 175. fgLVksu fdlds dkj.k ,d {kkjh; izksVhu gS &
(1) Alanine & Glycine (1) ,ysuhu o XykbZflu
(2) Methionine & Serine (2) fefFk;ksfuu o lsjhu
(3) Tryptophan & Tyrosine (3) fVªIVksQku o Vk;jksflu
(4) Lysine & Arginine (4) ykblhu o vkftZfuu
176. Which one of the following structural formulae of 176. uhps fn;s tk jgs nks dkcZfud ;kSfxdksa ds lajpukRed lw=ksa esa ls
two organic compounds is correctly identified dkSulk ,d vius lacaf /kr izdk;Z ds lkFk lgh igpkuk x;k
along with its related function ? gS ?
O NH2 O NH2
O CH2–O–C–R N O CH2–O–C–R N
R2–C–O–CH O N R2–C–O–CH O N

CH2–O–P–O–CH2–CH2 CH2–O–P–O–CH2–CH2
OH N OH N
CH3 CH3 N NH CH3 CH3 N NH
CH3 CH3
A B A B

(1) B : ,sMsuhu & ,d U;wfDyvksVkbM tks U;wfDybd vEyksa dks

(1) B : adenine - a nucleotide that makes up nucleic
acids cukrk gAS
(2) A : Triglyceride - major source of energy (2) A : VªkbXyhlsjkbM&ÅtkZ dk izeq[k L=ksr
(3) B : Uracil - a component of DNA (3) B : ;wjfS ly- DNA dk ,d ?kVd
(4) A : Lecithin - a component of cell membrane (4) A : ysflfFku - dksf'kdk f>Yyh dk ,d ?kVd
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177. Cellulose do not give Iodine test because : 177. lsywykst vk;ksMhu ifj{k.k ugha nsrk gS D;ksafd :
(1) It contain complex helices and hence degrade (1) mlesa tfVy dq.Mfy;k¡ gksrh gS vkSj blfy, og vk;ksMhu
Iodine molecules. v.kqvksa dk vi?kVu dj nsrk gS
(2) It does not contain complex helices and hence (2) mlesa tfVy dq.Mfy;k¡ ugha gksrh gS vkjS blfy, og vk;ksMhu
degrade Iodine molecules. v.kqvksa dk vi?kVu dj nsrh gS
(3) It contain complex helices and hence cannot (3) mlesa tfVy dq.Mfy;k¡ gksus ds dkj.k vk;ksMhu v.kq mlesa
hold Iodine molecules. ugh vVdrs gS
(4) It does not contain complex helices and hence (4) mlesa tfVy dq.Mfy;k¡ ugha gksus ds dkj.k vk;ksfMu v.kq
cannot hold Iodine molecules mlesa ugha vVdrs gS
178. Find out the correct ascending order of molecules 178. fdlh dksf'kdk esa v.kqvksa ds izfr'kr ds lgh c <+rs Øe dks
in cell according to percentage composition. igpkfu, .
(1) Ions < Lipids < Carbohydrates < Nucleic Acids
(1) vk;u < fyfiM < dkcksZ gkbMª sV < U;w D yhd vEy <
< Proteins
izksVhu
(2) Lipids < Ions < Carbohydrates < Nucleic Acids
< Proteins (2) fyfiM < vk;u < dkcksZgkbMªsV < U;wDyhd vEy < izkVs hu
(3) Proteins < Nucleic Acids < Carbohydrates < (3) izksVhu < U;w Dyhd vEy < dkcksZgkbMªsV < fyfiM < vk;u
Lipids < Ions
(4) izk sVhu < dkcksZ gkbMª sV < U;w D yhd vEy < fyfiM <
(4) Proteins < Carbohydrates < Nucleic Acids <
Lipids < Ions vk;u
179. Pomato is produced by :- 179. ikseVs ks dk fuekZ.k fdlds }kjk fd;k x;k :-
(1) Anther culture (1) ijkxdks"k lao/kZu
(2) Meristem culture (2) foHkT;ksÙkd lao/kZu
(3) Somatic hybridisation (3) dkf;d ladj.k
(4) Embryo rescue (4) Hkzq.k cpko
180. Match the column-I with column-II 180. LrEHk-I dk LrEHk-II ls feyku dhft,&

Column-I Column-II LrEHk&I LrEHk&II

Hershey and A g"ksZ o pst i U;wfDyu
A i Nuclein
Chase B okVlu o ii DNA dk f}dq.Myh
Watson and Double helix fØd uewuk
B ii
Crick model of DNA C F. esLpj iii ,Dl&js foorZu
C F. Meischer iii x-Ray diffraction D iv fl} fd;k fd DNA
fofYdUl o
Wilkins and Proved that DNA is
D iv ÝSadfyu vkuqokaf'kd inkFkZ gS
Franklin genetic material

(1) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii (1) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(2) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii (2) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii (3) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(4) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i (4) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
Achiever - M4AA1A 1016CMD308519002
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dPps dk;Z ds fy, txg

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NOTICE (REVISED)
(SESSION : 2019 - 2020)

α-ACHIEVER-I CLASS TEST PLAN OF BIOLOGY

TEST DATE TOPICS

PRINCIPAL OF INHERITANCE & VARIATION, PLANT BREEDING &

24-08-2019
MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE

12-09-2019 ECOLOGY

03-10-2019 PLANT DIVERSITY, LIVING WORLD

09-11-2019 ANIMAL DIVERSITY

21-11-2019 CELL BIOLOGY

14-12-2019 CIRCULATORY SYSTEM, RESPIRATORY SYSTEM

09-01-2020 NERVOUS SYSTEM, ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

TEST PATTERN : 50 OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

TEST DURATION : 30 MINUTES
Achiever - M4AA1A 1016CMD308519002
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Read carefully the following instructions : fuEufyf[kr funs Z 'k /;ku ls i<+ s a :
1. Each candidate must show on demand his/her 1. iwNs tkus ij izR;sd ijh{kkFkhZ] fujh{kd dks viuk ,yu igpku
Allen ID Card to the Invigilator. i= fn[kk,A
2. No candidate, without special permission of 2. fujh{kd dh fo'ks"k vuqefr ds fcuk dksbZ ijh{kkFkhZ viuk
the Invigilator, would leave his/her seat. LFkku u NksM+As
3. The candidates should not leave the 3. dk;Zjr fujh{kd dks viuk mÙkj&i= fn, fcuk dksbZ ijh{kkFkhZ
Examination Hall without handing over their ijh{kk gkWy ugha NksM+sA
Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty.
4. Use of Electronic/Manual Ca lculator is 4. bys D Vª k W f ud@gLrpfyr ifjdyd dk mi;ks x oftZ r
prohibited. gSA
5. The candidates are governed by all Rules and 5. ijh{kk gkWy esa vkpj.k ds fy, ijh{kkFkhZ ijh{kk ds lHkh
Regulations of the examination with regard to fu;eksa ,oa fofu;eksa }kjk fu;fer gAS vuqfpr lk/ku ds lHkh
their conduct in the Examination Hall. All
cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per
ekeyksa dk Ql S yk ijh{kk ds fu;eksa ,oa fofu;eksa ds vuqlkj
Rules and Regulations of this examination. gksxkA
6. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet 6. fdlh gkyr esa ijh{kk iqfLrdk vkjS mÙkj&i= dk dksbZ Hkkx
shall be detached under any circumstances. vyx u djs aA
7. The candidates will write the Correct Name 7. ijh{kk iqfLrdk@mÙkj&i= esa ijh{kkFkhZ viuk lgh uke o QkWeZ
and Form No. in the Test Booklet/Answer uEcj fy[ksaA
Sheet.

Corporate Office : ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
+91-744-2757575 [email protected] www.allen.ac.in

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