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MAC01_Single_Var_notes

The document outlines the syllabus and key theorems related to functions of a single variable, including Rolle's Theorem, Lagrange's Mean Value Theorem, Cauchy's Mean Value Theorem, and Taylor's Theorem. It provides definitions, geometric interpretations, and examples to illustrate the application of these theorems. Additionally, it lists recommended textbooks for further study in engineering mathematics.

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Abhirup Karak
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© © All Rights Reserved
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
3 views

MAC01_Single_Var_notes

The document outlines the syllabus and key theorems related to functions of a single variable, including Rolle's Theorem, Lagrange's Mean Value Theorem, Cauchy's Mean Value Theorem, and Taylor's Theorem. It provides definitions, geometric interpretations, and examples to illustrate the application of these theorems. Additionally, it lists recommended textbooks for further study in engineering mathematics.

Uploaded by

Abhirup Karak
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Functions of Single Variable

Md Firoz Ali

Syllabus: Review of limit, continuity and differentiability. Mean value theo-


rems: Rolle’s Theorem, Lagrange’s Mean Value Theorem (MVT), Cauchy’s MVT,
Taylor’s theorem, Taylor’s and Maclaurin’s series

Books:

1. Engineering Mathematics- Babu Ram

2. Higher Engineering Mathematics- B. S. Grewal

3. Engineering Mathematics (Oxford University Press)- S. Pal and S.C. Bhunia

4. Higher Engineering Mathematics- H. K. Dass

1
Md Firoz Ali 2

1 Rolle’s Theorem
Theorem 1.1 (Rolle’s Theorem). Let f : [a, b] → R be such that
(i) f is continuous on [a, b],
(ii) f is differentiable on (a, b),
(iii) f (a) = f (b).
Then there exist at least one point c ∈ (a, b) such that f 0 (c) = 0.
Geometric Interpretation of Rolle’s Theorem: If a function f has a graph
which is a continuous curve on [a, b] and the curve has a tangent at every point on it
with abscissa between a and b and the ordinate f (a) and f (b) are equal then there
exist at least one point c ∈ (a, b) such that the tangent to the curve at (c, f (c)) is
parallel to the x-axis.

Theorem 1.2 (Rolle’s Theorem For Polynomials). Between any two real roots
of a polynomial p(x) there exist at least one real root of the derived polynomial p0 (x).
Remark 1.3. The set of condition in Rolle’s theorem is sufficient but not necessary.
Example 1.4. Let f (x) = |x| + |x − 1|, x ∈ [−1, 2]. Then

1 − 2x
 if − 1 ≤ x ≤ 0
f (x) = 1 if 0 ≤ x ≤ 1

2x − 1 if 1 ≤ x ≤ 2.

Then f is continuous on [−1, 2]; f is differentiable on (−1, 2) except at x = 0, 1 and


f (−1) = f (2) = 3. But f 0 (x) = 0 for all x ∈ (0, 1).
Example 1.5. Verify Rolle’s theorem for f (x) = (x − a)m (x − b)n for x ∈ [a, b],
m, n ∈ N.
Solution: Clearly, f is continuous on [a, b] and differentiable on (a, b). Indeed,
f 0 (x) = m(x − a)m−1 (x − b)n + n(x − a)m (x − b)n−1
= (x − a)m−1 (x − b)n−1 [m(x − b) + n(x − a)]
Also f (a) = 0 = f (b). Thus f satisfies all the conditions of Rolle’s theorem. Now
mb + na
f 0 (x) = 0 =⇒ (x − a)m−1 (x − b)n−1 [m(x − b)+ n(x − a)] = 0 =⇒ x = a, b,
m+n
mb+na
Out of these values c = m+n
lies in the open interval (a, b) and hence, the Rolle’s
Theorem is verified.
Md Firoz Ali 3

Example 1.6. By Rolle’s theorem prove that 5x3 − 2x2 + x − 6 can not have more
than one real root.

Solution: Let f (x) = 5x3 − 2x2 + x − 6. If f (x) = 0 has more that one real root,
say a and b, then by Rolle’s theorem there exist at least one real root of f 0 (x) = 0
in (a, b). But f 0 (x) = 15x2 − 4x + 1 has no zero in R.

Example 1.7. If p(x) is a polynomial of degree > 1 and k ∈ R. Prove that between
any two real root of p(x) = 0, there is a real root of p0 (x) + kp(x) = 0.

Solution: Let f (x) = ekx p(x) and a and b be two real roots of p(x) = 0. Then
f (x) is continuous on [a, b], differentiable on (a, b) and f (a) = f (b). By Rolle’s
theorem there exist a real number c ∈ (a, b) such that f 0 (c) = 0. Now,

f 0 (c) = 0 =⇒ ekc [p0 (c) + kp(c)] = 0 =⇒ p0 (c) + kp(c) = 0.

Hence c is zero of p0 (x) + kp(x) = 0.

Example 1.8. If c0 + c21 + c32 + · · · + n+1


cn
= 0 where ci ∈ R show that c0 + c1 x +
2 n
c2 x + · · · + cn x = 0 has at least one real root between 0 and 1.

Solution: Let
c1 2 c2 3 cn n+1
f (x) = c0 x + x + x + ··· + x .
2 3 n+1
Then f (0) = f (1) = 0 and so f (x) satisfies all the conditions of Rolle’s theorem.
Hence there exist at least one c ∈ (0, 1) such that f 0 (c) = 0. Thus f 0 (x) = c0 + c1 x +
c2 x2 + · · · + cn xn = 0 has at least one real root between 0 and 1.

Example 1.9. If f, φ, ψ are continuous on [a, b] and derivable on (a, b), show that
there exists a point c ∈ (a, b) such that

f (a) φ(a) ψ(a)


f (b) φ(b) ψ(b) = 0.
f 0 (c) φ0 (c) ψ 0 (c)

Solution: Consider the function F defined by

f (a) φ(a) ψ(a)


F (x) = f (b) φ(b) ψ(b)
f (x) φ(x) ψ(x)

Then F satisfies all the condition of Rolle’s theorem on [a, b]. By Rolle’s theorem
there exist a real number c ∈ (a, b) such that F 0 (c) = 0. But

f (a) φ(a) ψ(a)


0
F (x) = f (b) φ(b) ψ(b)
f 0 (x) φ0 (x) ψ 0 (x)

Hence the result follows.


Md Firoz Ali 4

2 Mean Value Theorem


Theorem 2.1 (Lagrange Mean Value Theorem). Let f : [a, b] → R be such
that
(i) f is continuous on [a, b]
(ii) f is differentiable on (a, b)
Then there exist at least one point c ∈ (a, b) such that
f (b) − f (a)
= f 0 (c).
b−a
Alternative form of Lagrange MVT: If we put b = a + h, then the number
between a and b can be written as a + θh, 0 < θ < 1. Thus, Lagrange’s Mean Value
Theorem takes the form
f (a + h) = f (a) + h f 0 (a + θh), 0 < θ < 1.
Remark 2.2. (i) Lagrange’s Mean Value Theorem is also known as First Mean
Value Theorem of Differential Calculus.
(ii) Rolle’s theorem is a particular case of Lagrange mean value theorem. In La-
grange’s MVT, if f (a) = f (b) then f 0 (c) = 0.
Geometric Interpretation of Lagrange MVT: The Lagrange’s Mean Value
Theorem states that between two points A(a, f (a)) and B(b, f (b)) of the graph of f
there exists at least one point where the tangent is parallel to the chord AB.

Theorem 2.3 (Cauchy’s Mean Value Theorem). Let f : [a, b] → R and g :


[a, b] → R be such that
(i) f and g are continuous on [a, b]
(ii) f and g are differentiable on (a, b)
Then there exist at least one point c ∈ (a, b) such that
[f (b) − f (a)]g 0 (c) = [g(b) − g(a)]f 0 (c).
In addition, if g 0 (x) 6= 0 on (a, b) then
f (b) − f (a) f 0 (c)
= 0 .
g(b) − g(a) g (c)
Md Firoz Ali 5

Remark 2.4. Lagrange’s mean value theorem is a particular case of Cauchy’s mean
value theorem. If we take g(x) = x in Cauchy’s MVT then it reduces to Lagrange’s
MVT.
Example 2.5. Let f : [a, b] → R be continuous on [a, b] and differentiable on (a, b).
If f 0 (x) = 0 for all x ∈ (a, b), then f is constant on [a, b].
Solution: Let x1 , x2 ∈ [a, b] with x1 < x2 . By LMVT there exist c ∈ (x1 , x2 )
such that
f (x2 ) − f (x1 )
= f 0 (c) = 0 =⇒ f (x1 ) = f (x2 )
x2 − x 1
Therefore f is constant in [a, b].
Example 2.6. Let f, g : [a, b] → R be continuous on [a, b] and differentiable on
(a, b). If f 0 (x) = g 0 (x) for all x ∈ (a, b), then f = g + k on [a, b], where k is constant.
Solution: Take h(x) = f (x) − g(x) and use the previous example.
Example 2.7. Let f : [a, b] → R be continuous on [a, b] and f 0 (x) ≥ 0 for all
x ∈ (a, b), then f is monotonic increasing on [a, b].
Solution: Let x1 , x2 ∈ [a, b] with x1 < x2 . By LMVT there exist c ∈ (x1 , x2 )
such that
f (x2 ) − f (x1 )
= f 0 (c) ≥ 0 =⇒ f (x2 ) ≥ f (x1 ).
x2 − x1
Example 2.8. Let f : [a, b] → R be continuous on [a, b] and f 0 (x) ≤ 0 for all
x ∈ (a, b), then f is monotonic decreasing on [a, b].
Example 2.9. Verify Lagrange’s MVT for the function f (x) = e−x in [−1, 1].
Solution: Clearly, f (x) is continuous on [−1, 1], differentiable on (−1, 1). Then
f (1) − f (−1) e−1 − e1 1 − e2
= f 0 (c) =⇒ −e−c = =
1 − (−1) 2 2e
2e
=⇒ ec = 2
e −1
2e
=⇒ c = log 2 = −0.161.
e −1
Example 2.10. For x > 0, prove the following
x
(i) < log(1 + x) < x
1+x
1 1
(ii) 0 < − < 1.
log(1 + x) x
Solution: Let f (x) = log(1 + x). Applying LMVT on [0, x] on f (x), we get
x
f (x) = f (0) + xf 0 (θx) = , 0 < θ < 1.
1 + θx
Now
1 1
0 < θ < 1 =⇒ 1 < 1 + θx < 1 + x =⇒ < <1
1+x 1 + θx
x x x
=⇒ < < x =⇒ < log(1 + x) < x.
1+x 1 + θx 1+x
Md Firoz Ali 6

Again,
1 1 1 + θx 1
− = − =θ
log(1 + x) x x x
from which (ii) follows immediately.
Example 2.11. If 0 < a < b, then prove that
b−a b−a
2
< tan−1 b − tan−1 a < .
1+b 1 + a2
Hence show that
π 3 4 π 1
+ < tan−1 < + .
4 25 3 4 6
Solution: Let f (x) = tan−1 x, x ∈ [a, b]. By LMVT, there exist c ∈ (a, b) such
that
tan−1 b − tan−1 a 1
= f 0 (c) = .
b−a 1 + c2
Since 0 < a < c < b it follows that 1 + a2 < 1 + c2 < 1 + b2 from which the result
follows.

Taking a = 1 and b = 43 , we get


1/3 4 π 1/3
< tan−1 − <
1 + 16/9 3 4 1+1
π 3 4 π 1
=⇒ + < tan−1 < + .
4 25 3 4 6
Example 2.12. Verify Cauchy’s MVT for the functions f (x) = sin x, g(x) = cos x
when x ∈ [ π4 , 3π
4
].
f (x) = sin x and g(x) = cos x are continuous on π4 , 3π
 
Solution: Both 4
, differ-
π 3π

entiable on 4 , 4 . It satisfies the conditions of Cauchy’s MVT. Now
   
3π π 3π π
f ( ) − f ( ) g (c) = g( ) − g( ) f 0 (c)
0
4 4 4 4
0
=⇒ f (c) = 0 =⇒ cos c = 0 =⇒ c = π/2.

3 Taylor’s Theorem
Theorem 3.1 (Taylor’s Theorem). Let f : [a, a + h] → R be such that
(i) f (n−1) is continuous on [a, a + h],
(ii) f (n−1) is differentiable on (a, a + h).
Then there exist a real number c ∈ (a, a + h) (or, θ with 0 < θ < 1) such that
h 0 h2 hn−1 (n−1)
f (a + h) = f (a) + f (a) + f 00 (a) + · · · + f (a) + Rn
1! 2! (n − 1)!
hn (n) hn (n)
where Rn = f (c) = f (a + θh) is called the Taylor’s remainder after n
n! n!
terms.
Md Firoz Ali 7

Theorem 3.2 (Taylor’s Theorem). Let f : [a, a + h] → R be such that


(i) f (n−1) is continuous on [a, a + h],
(ii) f (n−1) is differentiable on (a, a + h).
Then for any x ∈ (a, a + h] there exist a real number θ with 0 < θ < 1 such that
(x − a) 0 (x − a)2 00 (x − a)n−1 n−1
f (x) = f (a) + f (a) + f (a) + · · · + f (a) + Rn
1! 2! (n − 1)!
(x − a)n (n)
where Rn (x) = f (a + (x − a)θ).
n!
If a = 0, the Taylor’s expansion can be written as
x 0 x2 xn−1 (n−1) xn
f (x) = f (0) + f (0) + f 00 (0) + · · · + f (0) + f (n) (xθ)
1! 2! (n − 1)! n!
which is known as Maclaurin’s expansion.

Taylor’s Infinite Series: The Taylor’s Theorem asserts that


(x − a) 0 (x − a)2 00 (x − a)n−1 (n−1)
f (x) = f (a) + f (a) + f (a) + · · · + f (a)
1! 2! (n − 1)!
(x − a)n (n)
+ f (a + (x − a)θ)
n!
= Pn (x) + Rn (x)

where Pn (x) is called the n-th Taylor polynomial of f about a. If f (x) is continuously
differentiable infinitely many times and lim Rn (x) = 0 then
n→∞


X (x − a)n
f (x) = lim Pn (x) = f (n) (a)
n→∞
n=0
n!

This series is called the Taylor series of f (x) about the point a.

If a = 0, then

X xn
f (x) = f (n) (0)
n=0
n!
which is Maclauren’s series of f (x).
Example 3.3. By Taylor’s theorem prove that
x x2 √ x
1+ − < 1+x<1+ for x > 0.
2 8 2

Solution: Let f (x) = 1 + x, x > 0. By Taylor’s theorem with remainder after
3 terms
x2 00
0 x3 000
f (x) = f (0) + xf (0) + f (0) + f (c), for some c ∈ (0, x)
2! 3!
√ x x2 x3 x x2
=⇒ 1 + x = 1 + − + > 1 + −
2 8 16(1 + c)5/3 2 8
Md Firoz Ali 8

Again by Taylor’s theorem with remainder after 2 terms

x2 00
f (x) = f (0) + xf 0 (0) +
f (d), for some d ∈ (0, x)
2!
√ x x2 x
=⇒ 1+x=1+ − 3/2
<1+
2 8(1 + d) 2

x2
Example 3.4. Prove that cos x ≥ 1 − for all x ∈ R.
2
Solution: Let f (x) = cos x, x ∈ [0, π]. For x ∈ (0, π], by Taylor’s theorem

x2 00 x3
f (0) + f 000 (θx), for some θ ∈ (0, 1)
f (x) = f (0) + xf 0 (0) +
2! 3!
x2 x3 x2
=1− + sin(θx) > 1 − .
2 6 2
2
Since cos(−x) = cos x for all x ∈ R, it follows that f (x) = cos x > 1 − x2 for
x2
x ∈ [−π, 0). Since cos x is periodic with period 2π, then cos x ≥ 1 − for all
2
x ∈ R.
x2 x3
Example 3.5. Prove that log(1 + x) < x − + , for x > 0.
2 3
Solution: By Taylor’s theorem for f (x) = log(1 + x) in [0, x] with remainder
after 4 terms, we get

x2 00 x3 x4
f (x) = f (0) + xf 0 (0) +f (0) + f 000 (0) + f 0000 (θx), for some θ ∈ (0, 1)
2! 3! 4!
2 3 4
x x x 6
=x− + −
2 3 4! (1 + θx)4
x2 x3
<x− + , x > 0.
2 3
Example 3.6. Obtain the Taylor’s series expansion of f (x) = cos x about x = 0
and x = π3 .

Solution: Let f (x) = cos x. Then f (n) (x) = cos(x + 2
).
∞ ∞
X xn X xn nπ
f (x) = f (n) (0) = cos( )
n=0
n! n=0
n! 2
x2 x4
=1− + + ··· .
2! 4!
Again,
∞ ∞
X (x − π3 )n (n) π X (x − π3 )n  π nπ 
f (x) = f ( )= cos +
n=0
n! 3 n=0
n! 3 2
√ √
1 3 π 1 π 3 π
= − (x − ) − (x − )2 + (x − )3 + · · · .
2 2 3 4 3 12 3

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