IGP (24)

1. Chronologically arrange the tenure of the following Presidents:

(A) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
(B) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(C) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(D) Pranab Mukherjee
Options:
1. (A), (B), (C), (D)

2. (B), (A), (C), (D)

3. (B), (A), (D), (C)
4. (C), (B), (A), (D)

2. The President can dissolve Lok Sabha on:

1. The recommendation of Chief Justice of India

2. The recommendation of Rajya Sabha
3. The recommendation of the Council of Ministers
4. The recommendation of the Lok Sabha
Options:

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

3. Which of the following statements are CORRECT about the Council of States?
(A) The Council of States is not subject to dissolution.
(B) One-fourth of the members of the Council of States retire on the expiration of every
second year.
(C) The Council of States has abandoned the system of proportional representation.
(D) The order of retirement of the members is governed by the Council of States (Term of
Office of Members) Order, 1952.
Options:
1. (A), (B), and (D) only
 2. (A) and (D) only
3. (B) and (D) only
4. (A), (B), and (C) only

4. Consider the following statements:

(A) The President cannot send back a Constitutional amendment bill for reconsideration by
Parliament.
(B) The Judiciary also has the power to amend the Constitution.
(C) The State legislatures cannot initiate any Bill for amendment of the Constitution.
(D) The Parliament cannot amend the 'basic features' of the Constitution.

Options:
1. (A), (B), and (D) only
2. (A), (C), and (D) only
3. (A), (B), (C), and (D)
4. (B), (C), and (D) only

5. Chronologically arrange the provisions of the Constitution according to their order of

appearance:
(A) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
(B) Protection of life and personal liberty
(C) Protection against arbitrary arrest
(D) Freedom of speech and expression
Options:
1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
2. (A), (D), (B), (C)
3. (B), (A), (D), (C)

4. (C), (B), (D), (A)

6. Which of the following Committees recommended the Panchayati Raj system in India?
1. Sarkaria Committee
2. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
3. Singhvi Committee
 4. Administrative Reform Committee
Options:
1. 1

2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

7. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Leaders) List-II (Role in Constitution Making)

(A) Sarojini Naidu (I) President of Constituent Assembly

(B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (II) Member of Constituent Assembly

(C) Rajendra Prasad (III) Chairman of the Drafting Committee

(D) Motilal Nehru (IV) Prepared a Constitution for India in 1928

Options:

1. (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

2. (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
3. (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
4. (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

8. Whose regime in Indian politics is popularly known as a one-party-dominant system?

1. Indira Gandhi
2. Manmohan Singh
3. Jawaharlal Nehru
4. Atal Bihari Vajpayee

Options:
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
9. Which of the following writs is issued by the Supreme Court in case of illegal detention
of a person?
1. Habeas Corpus
2. Mandamus

3. Quo-warranto
4. Certiorari
Options:
1. 1
2. 2

3. 3
4. 4

10. 'Command Capitalism' was introduced with which Five-Year Plan in India?
1. The First Five-Year Plan

2. The Second Five-Year Plan

3. The Third Five-Year Plan
4. The Fifth Five-Year Plan
Options:
1. 1

2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

11. Which of the following statements is/are NOT CORRECT?

(A) First past the post system is followed for all the elections in India.
(B) Election Commission of India does not supervise Panchayat and municipal elections.
(C) President of India cannot remove the Election Commissioner.
(D) Appointment of more than one Election Commissioner in the Election Commission is
mandatory.
Options:
 1. (A) and (C) only
2. (A), (B), and (C) only
3. (A), (B), (C), and (D)

4. (B), (C), and (D) only

12. How many members are nominated to Rajya Sabha by the President of India?
1. 14
2. 12

3. 16
4. 20
Options:
1. 1
2. 2

3. 3
4. 4

13. Which of the following is NOT covered under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution?
1. Right to livelihood

2. Right against solitary confinement

3. Right to freedom from noise pollution
4. Right to active euthanasia
Options:
1. 1

2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

14. In which year was the 'Make in India' policy adopted by the Government of India?
1. 2016
 2. 2014
3. 2020
4. 2018

Options:
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

15. The 'Pahal Scheme' started by the Government of India is related to:
1. Direct transfer of LPG Subsidy
2. Women Education
3. Child Education

4. Agricultural Loan
Options:
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3

4. 4

16. The constitution of Local Body Ombudsman was recommended by which of the
following bodies?
1. Niti Aayog
2. Second Administrative Reform Commission
3. L.M. Singhvi Committee

4. Sarkaria Commission
Options:
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
 4. 4
IGP (23)

1. Single Citizenship & Fundamental Duties

Statement I: The idea of single citizenship in the Constitution of India is adapted from the
British Constitution.
Statement II: Fundamental duties under Article 51-A of the Indian Constitution is adapted
from the French Constitution.
Choose the correct answer:
 (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

 (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

 (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is incorrect
 (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is correct

2. Regional Parties’ Character

Which of the following regional parties does not have a regional-ethnic character?

 (1) TDP in Andhra Pradesh

 (2) AGP in Assam
 (3) AIADMK in Tamil Nadu
 (4) AAP in Delhi

3. Extension of Lok Sabha Term

The term of the Lok Sabha was extended to six years by which of the following
amendment?
 (1) 41st Constitutional Amendment Act

 (2) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act

 (3) 43rd Constitutional Amendment Act
 (4) 44th Constitutional Amendment Act

4. Presiding Over Joint Session

When the President of India addresses a joint session of the Parliament, who presides
over the session?
  (1) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
 (2) Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
 (3) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

 (4) No one presides over the session

5. Tax under Union List

Which of the following taxes does not come under the Union List?
 (1) Corporation tax
 (2) Capitation tax
 (3) Taxes on income other than agricultural income

 (4) Taxes on the capital of companies

6. Censuring of Parliamentary Proceedings

In the history of Parliament of India, how many times the parliamentary proceedings were
censured?
 (1) Never
 (2) Once
 (3) Twice

 (4) Thrice

7. First Delimitation Exercise

The first delimitation was carried out under whose office?
 (1) Prime Minister
 (2) President
 (3) Union Minister of Law

 (4) Chief Justice

8. Equality of Opportunity
Equality of opportunity means
 (1) Everybody is equal before law
 (2) An equal opportunity to become unequal
  (3) Everybody has equal opportunity
 (4) Everybody has equal talents and skills

9. Supreme Court’s Jurisdiction in Centre-State Disputes

The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the
State falls under its:

 (1) Advisory jurisdiction

 (2) Appellate jurisdiction
 (3) Original jurisdiction
 (4) Writ jurisdiction

10. Preamble – What’s Missing?

Which one of the following does not find mention in the Preamble to the Indian
Constitution?
 (1) Dignity of the individual

 (2) Dignity of the Constitution

 (3) Fraternity
 (4) Unity and integrity of the nation

11. Largest Parliamentary Committee

Which one of the following is the largest committee of the Parliament?

 (1) The Committee on Public Accounts

 (2) The Committee on Estimates
 (3) The Committee on Public Undertakings
 (4) The Committee on Petitions

12. Assertion-Reason (Panchayati Raj)

Assertion (A): Gandhi supported Panchayati Raj Institutions for a better administration.
Reason (R): Ambedkar condemned the panchayats as a repressive and oppressive institution.
Choose the most appropriate answer:
 (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
 (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
 (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

13. Assertion-Reason (Reservation of State Bill)

Assertion (A): Reservation of a State bill for the assent of the President is a discretionary
power of the Governor.
Reason (R): This could be achieved through amending Article 156 of the Indian Constitution.
Choose the correct answer:

 (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
 (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
 (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
 (4) (A) is false but (R) is true

14. Assertion-Reason (Judicial Review)

Assertion (A): Judicial review is a process to restrain the executive or the legislature from
exercising power which may not be sanctioned by the Constitution.
Reason (R): The source of the power of judicial review in India is Article 12 of the
Constitution.
Choose the correct answer:
 (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

 (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
 (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
 (4) (A) is false but (R) is true

15. Arrangement of Provisions (Directive Principles & Others)

Arrange the following provisions according to the Constitution of India:

 (A) Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion
 (B) Protection of interests of minorities
 (C) Prohibition of employment of children in factories
 (D) Protection in respect of conviction for offences
Choose the correct answer:
 (1) A, B, D, C
  (2) B, A, C, D
 (3) C, D, B, A
 (4) D, C, A, B

16. Order of Fundamental Rights

Arrange the following fundamental rights in the right order:
 (A) Right to constitutional remedies
 (B) Right to life
 (C) Right to freedom
 (D) Right to equality

Choose the correct answer:

 (1) D, C, B, A
 (2) C, D, A, B
 (3) C, B, A, D
 (4) D, C, A, B

17. Party Alliances – Assertion on Compatibility

Statement I: Party alliances since the 1990s have been on territorial compatibility rather
than ideological compatibility.
Statement II: BJP's alliances of 1998, 1999, 2004 and 2009 were not territorially compatible.

Choose the most appropriate answer:

 (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
 (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
 (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
 (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

18. Article 226 – High Courts' Power

Article 226 of the Indian Constitution deals with:
 (1) Transfer of a judge
 (2) Appointment of acting Chief Justice
 (3) Appointment of additional judges
  (4) Power of High Courts to issue certain writs

19. Representative Democracy Concepts

Which of the following are true about representative democracy?
 (A) Simple majority means more than half of those voting.

 (B) Blocking minority reflects a situation where a minority is able to prevent a

proposal from passing.
 (C) Absolute majority means more than half of those entitled to vote.
 (D) Qualified majority demonstrates more than a simple majority which is typically
two-third majority.
 (E) Concurrent majority indicates the largest number of votes but not necessarily a
majority.
Choose the correct answer:
 (1) A, B and C only
 (2) D and E only

 (3) A, B, C and D only

 (4) A, B, C and E only

20. Governor – Office and Powers

Which of the following are correct about the Governor of a State?
 (A) The Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President.

 (B) The minimum age for getting appointed as a Governor is 30 years.

 (C) The President conducts the Oath of the Governor.
 (D) The Governor has the power to grant pardons and to suspend, remit or commute
sentences in certain cases.
 (E) The Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act mandates both the States to share
the emoluments and allowances of the Governor in case the same person is
appointed as Governor of two States.
Choose the correct answer:
 (1) C, D and E only
 (2) A, C, D and E only
 (3) A, B and C only
  (4) A, D and E only

21. Election Commission Observations

It has been found about the Election Commission of India:
 (A) The end of emergency led to decline of the Election Commission of India

 (B) In the 1990s, the Commission faced regulatory activism

 (C) The assertiveness of the Election Commission was largely due to an alert media
and strong opposition
 (D) Even, the Chief Election Commissioner, T. N. Seshan contributed to protecting the
sanctity of democratic elections
Choose the most appropriate answer:
 (1) A, B and C only
 (2) B, C and D only

 (3) A, C and D only

 (4) A, B and D only

22. Matching – Writs and Their Meanings

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I: Writs
 (A) Habeas Corpus

 (B) Mandamus
 (C) Certiorari
 (D) Quo Warranto
List-II: Corresponding Meaning
 (I) Enquiring into the legality of the claim to a public office

 (II) Command
 (III) To have a body
 (IV) Quash the order or decision of the tribunal
Choose the correct answer:
 (1) (A)-(I); (B)-(II); (C)-(III); (D)-(IV)

 (2) (A)-(IV); (B)-(III); (C)-(II); (D)-(I)

  (3) (A)-(III); (B)-(II); (C)-(IV); (D)-(I)
 (4) (A)-(II); (B)-(III); (C)-(I); (D)-(IV)

23. Matching – Directive Principles & Articles

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I: Directive Principles of State Policy

 (A) Organization of village panchayats
 (B) Worker’s participation in management
 (C) Protection of monuments
 (D) Separation of judiciary from executive

List-II: Article
 (I) Article 49
 (II) Article 40
 (III) Article 50
 (IV) Article 43A

Choose the correct answer:

 (1) (A)-(II); (B)-(IV); (C)-(I); (D)-(III)
 (2) (A)-(II); (B)-(IV); (C)-(III); (D)-(I)
 (3) (A)-(IV); (B)-(I); (C)-(III); (D)-(II)
 (4) (A)-(III); (B)-(IV); (C)-(I); (D)-(II)

IGP (22)

1.
Asymmetrical features of federalism in India include:
A. Fifth Schedule
B. Sixth Schedule
C. Article 371 A
D. Article 371 G
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Only A, B and C
(2) Only B, C and D
(3) A, B, C and D
(4) Only A, B and D

2.
Which of the Constitutional provisions doesn't/don't come within the legislative
jurisdiction of the Legislature of a State?
A. Matters relating to clause 3 of article 16
B. Matters relating to article 32
C. Matters relating to article 33
D. Matters relating to article 34
E. Matters relating to clause 4 of article 16

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Only A, B, C and D
(2) Only B, C, D and E
(3) Only A, C, D and E
(4) Only A, B, D and E

3.
Reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the House of the
People is provided under which article of the Constitution?
(1) Article 16(4)
(2) Article 243 D
(3) Article 243 T
(4) Article 334

4.
Which of the following articles were not inserted by the Forty-second Constitutional
Amendment Act, 1976?
A. Article 21A
B. Article 31A
C. Article 39A
D. Article 43A
E. Article 48A
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Only A and B
(2) Only B and C
(3) Only C and D
(4) Only D and E
5.
Who in the Constituent Assembly, said that 'the Doctrine of Independence was not to be
raised to the level of a dogma so as to enable the judiciary to function as a kind of Super
Legislature or Super Executive'?
(1) N. Madhava Rao
(2) K.M. Munshi
(3) N.G. Ayyangar
(4) A.K. Ayyar

6.
The Parliament of India consists of:
A. The House of the People
B. The Council of States
C. The President
D. The Prime Minister
E. The Speaker
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Only A, B and C
(2) Only B, C and D
(3) Only C, D and E
(4) Only A, B and E

7.
Which of the following is/are correct?
A. Article 143 provides for the power of President to consult Supreme Court.
B. The opinion of the Supreme Court is not binding.
C. The Supreme Court is not bound to give opinion on the subject so referred.
D. The Supreme Court would respectfully decline to answer with reference if it is improper,
inadvisable and undesirable.
E. The Supreme Court is bound to give opinion.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Only A, B and C
(2) Only B, C and D
(3) Only B, C, D and E
(4) Only A, B, C, D

8.
Parliament may by law:
A. extend the jurisdiction of a High Court
B. establish a common High Court for two or more States
C. constitute a High Court for a Union Territory
D. establish administrative tribunal for each State
E. appoint judges of the High Courts
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Only A, B, C and D
(2) Only B, C, D and E
(3) Only A, B, D and E
(4) Only A, C, D and E

9.
Which Constitutional Amendment lowered the voting age from 21 years to 18 years?
(1) 58th Amendment Act, 1987
(2) 61st Amendment Act, 1988
(3) 64th Amendment Act, 1990
(4) 65th Amendment Act, 1990

10.
The Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976 added three words to the
Preamble of the Constitution of India.
A. Socialist
B. Secular
C. Integrity
D. Unity
E. Federal
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Only A, B and C
(2) Only B, C and D
(3) Only C, D and E
(4) Only A, C and E

11.
Which was the first reported case of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) seeking relief for the
under-trial prisoners in jails?
(1) Anil Yadav Vs State of Bihar, 1981
(2) Hussainara Khatoon Vs State of Bihar, 1979
(3) Khatri Vs State of Bihar, 1981
(4) Veena Sethi Vs State of Bihar, 1982
12.
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A:
Power of judicial review is considered as part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
Reason R:
The Supreme Court is endowed with the power of judicial review to ensure judicial
independence and protection of rights.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct but R is not correct
(4) A is not correct but R is correct

13.
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.

Assertion A:
The powers within the Supervisory Jurisdiction of the High Courts are both administrative
and judicial in nature.

Reason R:
Article 227(1) gives the High Courts power of Superintendence over all courts and
tribunals within their territorial and constitutional jurisdiction.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct but R is not correct
(4) A is not correct but R is correct

14.
Which Fundamental Rights are available to all persons?
A. Protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20)
B. Protection of life and personal liberty (Article 21)
C. Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases (Article 22)
D. Freedom of religion (Article 25 - 28)
E. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste or place of birth (Article
15)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Only B, C and D
(2) Only A, B and C
(3) Only B, C, D and E
(4) Only A, B, C and D

15.
Which Constitutional Amendment ended the Parts A, B and C categories of States and
implemented the States Reorganisation Scheme?
(1) The Constitution (Fourth Amendment) Act, 1955
(2) The Constitution (Fifth Amendment) Act, 1955
(3) The Constitution (Sixth Amendment) Act, 1956
(4) The Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956

16.
Which Constitutional Amendment abolished the privy purses and privileges of former
rulers of Princely States?
(1) The Constitution (Twenty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1971
(2) The Constitution (Twenty-fifth Amendment) Act, 1971
(3) The Constitution (Twenty-sixth Amendment) Act, 1971
(4) The Constitution (Twenty-seventh Amendment) Act, 1971

17.
Which powers and responsibilities are not endowed by the Constitution to the
Panchayats?
(1) The preparation of plans for economic development
(2) The implementation of schemes for economic development and social justice
(3) Agriculture, including agricultural extension
(4) Regulation of slaughter homes and tanneries

18.
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.

Assertion A:
Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.

Reason R:
The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct but R is not correct
(4) A is not correct but R is correct

19.
Which of the following is incorrect about a Money Bill?
(1) The bill deals with all or any provisions under article 110 of the Constitution.
(2) The Money Bill has to be so certified by the Speaker of the House of the People.
(3) The Money Bill has to be introduced in the House of the People first.
(4) Both the Houses of the Parliament enjoy equal powers with respect to a Money Bill.

20.
Who explains party systems in India in terms of democratisation and decay?
(1) K.C. Suri
(2) Yogendra Yadav
(3) James Manor
(4) Morris Jones

21.
Functions of a Political Party include
A. Coordination within government and society
B. Contesting elections
C. Recruitment of cadre
D. Representation
E. Legislation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Only A, B, C, D
(2) Only A, B, D, E
(3) Only B, C, D, E
(4) Only A, C, D, E

IGP (21)

Here are all the questions you asked in the original ChatGPT style:

 Articles 52-62 of the Constitution of India are concerned with:

 1. The Prime Minister of India
2. The President of India
3. The Vice President of India

4. The Supreme Court of India

 Which among the following Schedule was added to the Constitution of India by the
73rd Amendment Act?
1. Ninth Schedule
2. Tenth Schedule
3. Eleventh Schedule
4. Twelfth Schedule

 Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India deals with
municipalities and urban governance?
1. Ninth Schedule
2. Tenth Schedule
3. Eleventh Schedule
4. Twelfth Schedule

 Which part of the Constitution of India deals with the Fundamental Rights?
1. Part II
2. Part III
3. Part IV
4. Part V

 What is the significance of the Thirteenth Amendment to the United States

Constitution?

1. Abolition of Slavery
2. Right to Property
3. Individual Freedom
4. Collective Freedom
 'Parliamentary Sovereignty' is an intrinsic part of the:

1. U. K. Constitution
2. Indian Constitution
 3. USA Constitution
4. All of the above
 House of Commons is the lower chamber of the Parliament of:

1. USA
2. China
3. Brazil
4. United Kingdom
 How many days of wage employment is guaranteed in a financial year to every
rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work in
the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act?
1. At least 50 Days

2. At least 100 Days

3. At least 125 Days
4. At least 150 Days
 Which Schedule of the Constitution of India contains the provisions related to Anti
Defection Law enacted by fifty-second Amendment Act, 1985?
1. Seventh Schedule
2. Eighth Schedule

3. Ninth Schedule
4. Tenth Schedule
 Who coined the term Indian Constitution as a 'social document'?
1. Granville Austin
2. M. V. Pylee

3. Upendra Baxi
4. Rajni Kothari
 How many recognized national parties are in India?
1. 5
2. 6

3. 7
4. 8
 Which Article of the Constitution of India contains the provision for Financial
Emergency in the Constitution of India?
 What was the duration of the Constituent Assembly?
1. Two years, ten months and seventeen days
2. Two years, eleven months and seventeen days

3. Three years, eleven months and seventeen days

4. Four years, eleven months and seventeen days
 Indian Parliament comprises:
1. The President
2. Lok Sabha

3. Rajya Sabha
4. All of these
 Which Article of the Constitution of India states "The Prime Minister shall be
appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the
President on the advice of the Prime Minister"?
1. Article 73
2. Article 74
3. Article 75

4. Article 76
 7th Schedule of Constitution of India contains:
1. Union list
2. State list
3. Concurrent list

4. All of these
 S. R. Bommai v. Union of India judgement pertained to:
1. Inter-State Water Dispute
2. Article 356
3. Anti-Defection

4. Fundamental Rights
 Sarkaria Commission (1983) was related to:
1. Centre-State relations
2. Corruption
3. Election

4. Boundary dispute