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PHYSICS ONE MARK EXAMINATION
UNIT 1 (NATURE OF PHYSICAL WORLD AND MEASUREMENT)
1. One of the combinations from the fundamental physical constants is
hc
. The unit of this expression is
G
(a) kg2 (b) m3 (c) s-1 (d) m
2. If the error in the measurement of radius is 2%, then the error in the
determination of volume of the sphere will be
(a) 8% (b) 2% (c) 4% (d) 6%
3. If the length and time period of an oscillating pendulum have errors
of 1% and 3% respectively then the error in measurement of
acceleration due to gravity is
(a) 4% (b) 5% (c) 6% (d) 7%
4. The length of a body is measured as 3.51 m, if the accuracy is
0.01m, then the percentage error in the measurement is
(a) 351% (b) 1% (c) 0.28% (d)
0.035%
5. Which of the following has the highest number of significant figures?
(a) 0.007 m2 (b) 2.64x1024kg (c) 0.0006032 m2 (d)
6.3200 J
6. If π = 3.14, then the value of π2is
(a) 9.8596 (b) 9.860 (c) 9.86 (d) 9.9
7. Round of the following number 19.95 into three significant
figures.
(a) 19.9 (b) 20.0 (c) 20.1 (d) 19.5
8. Which of the following pairs of physical quantities have same
dimension?
(a) force and power (b) torque and energy
(c) torque and power (d) force and torque
9. The dimensional formula of Planck's constant h is
(a) [ML T ] 2 -1
(b) [ML2T-3] (c) [MLT-1] (d)
[ML T ]
3 -3

10. The velocity of a particle v at an instant t is given by v = at +bt 2.

The dimensions of bis
(a) [L] (b) [LT-1] (c) [LT-2] (d)
[LT ]
-3

11. The dimensional formula for gravitational constant G is

(a) [ML3T-2] (b) [M-1L3T-2] (c) [M-1L-3T-2] (d) [ML-3T2]
12. The density of a material in CGS system of units is 4 g cm -3. In a
system of units in which unit of length is 10 cm and unit of mass is
100 g, then the value of density of material will be
(a) 0.04 (b) 0.4 (c) 40 (d) 400
13. If the force is proportional to square of velocity, then the dimension
of proportionality constant is
(a) [MLT0] (b) [MLT-1] (c) [ML-2T] (d) [ML-1T0]
1
14. The dimension of ( μ0 ε 0 ) 2 is
(a) length (b) time (c) velocity (d)
force

15. Planck’s constant (h), speed of light in vacuum (c) and Newton’s
gravitational constant (G) are taken as three fundamental
constants. Which of the following combinations of these has the
dimension of length?

√
√ hG √ hG
√ hc Gc
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) (d) 3
c 2
c 2 G h 2

UNIT 2 (KINETICS)
16 Which one of the following Cartesian coordinate systems is not
followed in physics?

17. Identify the unit vector in the following

i^
(a) i^ + ^j (b) (c)
√2
i^ ^ ^j
i+
k^ − (d)
√2 √2
18. Which one of the following physical quantities cannot be
represented by a scalar?
(a) Mass (b) length
(c) momentum (d) magnitude of acceleration
19. Two objects of masses m1 and m2 fall from the heights h1and
h2respectively. The ratio of the magnitude of their momenta when
they hit the ground is

√ √ √
h1 m1 h1 m 1 h1 m1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
h2 m2 h m 2 h2
2
m2
20. If a particle has negative velocity and negative acceleration, its
speed
(a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains same (d) zero
^
21. If the velocity is ⃗v =2 i+t 2 ^j−9 k^ , then the magnitude of acceleration at
t = 0.5 s is
 (a) 1m s-2 (b) 2 m s-2 (c) zero (d)
-1 m s -2

22. If an object is dropped from the top of a building and it reaches the
ground at t = 4 s then the height of the building is (ignoring air
resistance) (g = 9.8 ms–2)
(a) 77.3 m (b) 78.4 m (c) 80.5 m (d) 79.2 m
23. A ball is projected vertically upwards with a velocity v. It comes back
to ground in time t. Which v-t graph shows the
motion correctly?

(a) (b) (c)

(d)

24. If one object is dropped vertically downward and another object is

thrown horizontally from the same height, then the ratio of vertical
distance covered by both objects at any instant t is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 0.5
25. A ball is dropped from some height towards the ground. Which one
of the following represents the correct motion of the ball?

(a) (b) (c)

(d)

26. If a particle executes uniform circular motion in the xy plane in clock

wise direction, then the angular velocity is in
(a) +y direction (b) +z direction (c) -z direction (d)
-x direction
27. If a particle executes uniform circular motion, choose the correct
statement
(a) The velocity and speed are constant.
(b) The acceleration and speed are constant.
(c) The velocity and acceleration are constant.
(d) The speed and magnitude of acceleration are constant.
28. If an object is thrown vertically up with the initial speed u from the
ground, then the time taken by the object to return back to ground
is
2 2
u u u 2u
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2g g 2 g g
29. Two objects are projected at angles 30 0 and 600 respectively with
respect to the horizontal direction. The ranges of two objects are
 denoted as R300 and R600. Choose the correct relation from the
following
R 0
(a) R300 = R600 (b) R300 = 4R600 (c) R300 = 60 (d) R300 =
2
2R600

30. An object is dropped in an unknown planet from height 50 m, it

reaches the ground in 2 s . The acceleration due to gravity in this
unknown planet is
(a) g = 20 m s-2 (b) g = 25 m s-2 (c) g = 15 m s-2
(d) g = 30 m s-2
UNIT 3 (LAWS OF MOTION)
31. When a car takes a sudden left turn in the curved road, passengers
are pushed towards the right due to
(a) inertia of direction (b) inertia of motion
(c) inertia of rest (d) absence of inertia
32. An object of mass m held against a vertical wall by
applying horizontal force F as shown in the figure. The
minimum value of the force F is
(a) Less than mg (b) Equal to
mg
(c) Greater than mg (d) Cannot
determine
33. A vehicle is moving along the positive x direction, if sudden brake is
applied, then
(a) frictional force acting on the vehicle is along positive x
direction
(b) no frictional force acts on the vehicle
(c) frictional force acts in downward direction
(d) frictional force acting on the vehicle is along negative x
direction
34. A book is at rest on the table which exerts a normal force on the
book. If this force is considered as reaction force, what is the action
force according to Newton’s third law?
(a) Gravitational force exerted by Earth on the book
(b) Gravitational force exerted by the book on Earth
(c) Normal force exerted by the book on the table
(d) None of the above
35. Two masses m1 and m2 are experiencing the same force where m 1<
a1
m2. The ratio of their acceleration is
a2
(a) 1 (b) less than 1
(c) greater than 1 (d) all the three cases
36. Choose appropriate free body diagram for the particle experiencing
net acceleration along negative y direction. (Each arrow mark
represents the force acting on the system).

(a) (b) (c) (d)

37. A particle of mass m sliding on the smooth double

inclined plane (shown in figure) will
experience

(a) greater acceleration along the path AB

(b) greater acceleration along the path AC
(c) same acceleration in both the paths
(d) no acceleration in both the paths
38. Two blocks of masses m and 2m are placed on a smooth horizontal
surface as shown. In the first case only a force F 1 is applied from the
left. Later only a force F2 is applied from the right. If the force acting
at the interface of the two blocks in the two cases is same, then F 1 :
F2 is

(a) 1:1 (b) 1:2 (c) 2:1 (d) 1:3

39. Force acting on the particle moving with constant speed is
(a) always zero (b) need not be zero
(c) always non zero (d) cannot be concluded
40. An object of mass m begins to move on the plane inclined at an
angle θ. The coefficient of static friction of inclined surface is μs . The
maximum static friction experienced by the mass is
(a) mg (b) μs mg
(c) μs mg sinθ (d) μs mg cos θ
41. When the object is moving at constant velocity on the rough
surface,
 (a) no force acts on the object (b) net force on the
object is zero
(c) only external force acts on the object
42. When an object is at rest on the inclined rough surface,
(a) static and kinetic frictions acting on the object is zero
(b) static friction is zero but kinetic friction is not zero
(c) static friction is not zero and kinetic friction is zero
(d) static and kinetic frictions are not zero
43. The centrifugal force appears to exist
(a) only in inertial frames (b) only in rotating frames
(c) in any accelerated frame
(d) both in inertial and non-inertial frames
44. Choose the correct statement from the following
(a) Centrifugal and centripetal forces are action reaction pairs
(b) Centripetal force acts towards the centre and centrifugal force
appears to act away from the centre in a circular motion
(c) Centripetal forces is a natural force
(d) Centrifugal force arises from gravitational force
45. If a person moving from pole to equator, the centrifugal force acting
on him
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) remains the same (d) increases and then
decreases

UNIT 4 (WORK, ENERGY AND POWER)

46. A uniform force of (2i+^ ^j ¿+ N acts on a particle of mass 1 kg. The
particle displaces from position (3 ^j+ k^ ¿ m to (5i+3
^ ^j ¿.The work done
by the force on the particle is
(a) 9J (b) 6J (c) 10 J (d) 12 J
47. A ball of mass 1 kg and another of mass 2 kg are dropped from a tall
building whose height is 80 m. After, a fall of 40 m each towards
Earth, their respective kinetic energies will be in the ratio of
(a) √ 2:1 (b) 1 : √2 (c) 2:1 (d) 1:2
48. A body of mass 1 kg is thrown upwards with a velocity 20 m s -1. It
momentarily comes to rest after attaining a height of 18 m. How
much energy is lost due to air friction? (Take g = 10ms -2)
(a) 20 J (b) 30 J (c) 40 J (d) 10 J
49. An engine pumps water continuously through a hose. Water leaves
the hose with a velocity v and m is the mass per unit length of the
water of the jet. What is the rate at which kinetic energy is imparted
to water?
1 3 3 2 5 2
(a) mv (b) mv
3
(c) mv (d) mv
2 2 2
50. A body of mass 4 m is lying in xy-plane at rest. It suddenly explodes
into three pieces. Two pieces each of mass m move perpendicular to
each other with equal speed v. The total kinetic energy generated
due to explosion is
3 2
(a) mv
2
(b) mv (c) 2mv
2
(d) 4mv
2
2
51. The potential energy of a system increases, if work is done
(a) by the system against a conservative force
(b) by the system against a non-conservative force
(c) upon the system by a conservative force
(d) upon the system by a non-conservative force
52. What is the minimum velocity with which a body of mass m must
enter a vertical loop of radius R so that it can complete the loop?
(a) √ 2 gR (b) √ 3 gR (c) √ 5 gR (d) √ gR
53. The work done by the conservative force for a closed path is
(a) always negative (b) zero
(c) always positive (d) not defined
54. If the linear momentum of the object is increased by 0.1%, then the
kinetic energy is increased by
(a) 0.1 % (b) 0.2% (c) 0.4% (d)
0.01%
β 2
55. If the potential energy of the particle is α − x , then force
2
experienced by the particle is
β 2
(a) F= x (b) F = βx (c) F = −βx (d) F
2
−β 2
= x
2
56. A wind-powered generator converts wind energy into electric
energy. Assume that the generator converts a fixed fraction of the
wind energy intercepted by its blades into electrical energy. For
wind speed v, the electrical power output will be proportional to
2 3 4
(a) v (b) v (c) v (d) v
57. Two equal masses m1 and m2 are moving along the same straight
line with velocities 5ms-1 and -9ms-1 respectively. If the collision is
elastic, then calculate the velocities after the collision of m 1 and m2,
respectively
(a) -4ms-1 and 10 ms-1 (b) 10ms-1 and 0 ms-1
(c) -9ms-1 and 5 ms-1 (d) 5 ms-1 and 1 ms-1
58. A particle is placed at the origin and a force F=kx is acting on it
(where k is a positive constant). If U(0) =0 , the graph of U (x)
versus x will be (where U is the potential energy function)
 (a) (b) (c) (d)

59. A particle which is constrained to move along x-axis, is subjected to

a force in the same direction which varies with the distance x of the
particle from the origin as F ( x )=−kx +a x 3. Here, k and a are positive
constants. For x ≥ 0, the functional form of the potential energy
U(x) of the particle is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

60. A spring of force constant k is cut into

two pieces such that one piece is double the length of the other.
Then, the long piece will have a force constant of
2 3
(a) k (b) k (c) 3k (d) 6k
3 2
UNIT 5 (MOTION OF SYSTEM OF PARTICLES AND RIGID BODIES)
61. The centre of mass of a system of particles does not depend upon,
(a) position of particles (b) relative distance
between particles
(c) masses of particles (d) force acting on
particle
62. A couple produces,
(a) pure rotation (b) pure translation
(c) rotation and translation (d) no motion
63. A particle is moving with a constant velocity along a line parallel to
positive X-axis. The magnitude of its angular momentum with
respect to the origin is,
(a) zero (b) increasing with x
(c) decreasing with x (d) remaining constant
64. A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 3 kg and radius 40
cm. What is the angular acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is
pulled with a force 30 N?
(a) 0.25 rad s-2 (b) 25 rad s-2 (c) 5 m s s-2 (d) 25ms-2
65. A closed cylindrical container is partially filled with water. As the
container rotates in a horizontal plane about a perpendicular
bisector, its moment of inertia,
 (a) increases (b) decreases
(c) remains constant (d) depends on direction
of rotation
66. A rigid body rotates with an angular momentum L. If its kinetic
energy is halved, the angular momentum becomes,
L L
(a) L (b) (c) 2L (d)
2 √2
67. A particle undergoes uniform circular motion. The angular
momentum of the particle remains conserved about,
(a) the centre point of the circle.
(b) the point on the circumference of the circle.
(c) any point inside the circle.
(d) any point outside the circle.

68. When a mass is rotating in a plane about a fixed point, its angular
momentum is directed along,
(a) a line perpendicular to the plane of rotation
(b) the line making an angle of 45° to the plane of rotation
(c) the radius
(d) tangent to the path
69. Two discs of same moment of inertia rotating about their regular
axis passing
through centre and perpendicular to the plane of disc with angular
velocities
ω 1 and ω 2. They are brought in to contact face to face coinciding the
axis of rotation. The expression for loss of energy during this
process is,
1 2 2
(a) I ( ω1−ω 2 ) (b I ( ω1−ω2 )
4
1 2 1 2
(c) I ( ω1−ω2 ) (d) I ( ω1−ω 2 )
8 2
70. The ratio of the acceleration for a solid sphere (mass m and radius
R) rolling down an incline of angle θ without slipping and slipping
down the incline without rolling is,
(a) 5:7 (b) 2:3 (c) 2:5 (d) 7:5
71. A disc of moment of inertia I a is rotating in a horizontal plane about
its symmetry axis with a constant angular speed ω. Another disc
initially at rest of moment of inertia I bis dropped coaxially on to the
rotating disc. Then, both the discs rotate with same constant
angular speed. The loss of kinetic energy due to friction in this
process is,
 2 2 2
1 Ib 2 Ib 2 ( I b−I a ) 2 1 I b Ib
ω
2
(a) ω (b) ω (c) ω (d)
2 ( I a+ I b) ( I a+ I b ) ( I a+ I b) 2 ( I a+ I b)
72. From a disc of radius R a mass M, a circular hole of diameter R,
whose rim passes through the centre is cut. What is the moment of
inertia of the remaining part of the disc about a perpendicular axis
passing through it
2 2 2
15 M R 13 M R 11 M R
(a) (b) (c)
32 32 32
2
9MR
(d)
32
73. The speed of a solid sphere after rolling down from rest without
sliding on an inclined plane of vertical height h is,

74.
(a)
√ 4
3
gh (b)
10
7 √
gh(c) √ 2 gh (d)
1
2
gh
The speed of the centre of a wheel rolling on a horizontal surface is
√
v 0. A point on the rim in level with the centre will be moving at a
speed of speed of,
(a) zero (b) v0 (c) √ 2 v 0 (d) 2 v0
75. A round object of mass M and radius R rolls down without slipping
along an inclined plane. The frictional force,
(a) dissipates kinetic energy as heat.
(b) decreases the rotational motion.
(c) decreases the rotational and transnational motion
(d) converts transnational energy into rotational energy

UNIT – 6 (GRAVITATION)
76. The linear momentum and position vector of the planet is
perpendicular to each
other at
(a) perihelion and aphelion (b) at all points
(c) only at perihelion (d) no point
77. If the masses of the Earth and Sun suddenly double, the
gravitational force
between them will
(a) remain the same (b) increase 2 times
(c) increase 4 times (d) decrease 2 times
78. A planet moving along an elliptical orbit is closest to the Sun at
distance r1and farthest away at a distance of r 2. If v1 and v2 are
v1
linear speeds at these points respectively. Then the ratio is
v2
 () ()
2 2
r2 r2 r1 r1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
r1 r1 r2 r2
79. The time period of a satellite orbiting Earth in a circular orbit is
independent of .
(a) Radius of the orbit (b) The mass of
the satellite
(c) Both the mass and radius of the orbit
(d) Neither the mass nor the radius of its orbit
80. If the distance between the Earth and Sun were to be doubled from
its present value, the number of days in a year would be
(a) 64.5 (b) 1032 (c) 182.5 (d)
730
81. According to Kepler’s second law, the radial vector to a planet from
the Sun sweeps out equal areas in equal intervals of time. This law
is a consequence of
(a) conservation of linear momentum
(b) conservation of angular momentum
(c) conservation of energy
(d) conservation of kinetic energy
82. The gravitational potential energy of the Moon with respect to Earth
is
(a) always positive (b) always negative
(c) can be positive or negative (d) always zero
83. The kinetic energies of a planet in an elliptical orbit about the Sun,
at positions A, B and C are K , K and K respectively. AC is the major
A B C

axis and SB is perpendicular to AC at the position of the

Sun S as shown in the figure. Then
(a) KA > KB> KC (b) KB< KA<
KC
(c) KA< KB< KC (d) KB> KA> K C

84. The work done by the Sun’s gravitational force on the Earth is
(a) always zero (b) always positive
(c) can be positive or negative (d) always negative
85. If the mass and radius of the Earth are both doubled, then the
acceleration due to gravity g'
g
(a) remain s same (b) (c) 2g (d) 4g
2

86. The magnitude of the Sun’s gravitational field as experienced by

Earth is
(a) same over the year
 (b) decreases in the month of January and increases in the month
of July
(c) decreases in the month of July and increases in the month of
January
(d) increases during day time and decreases during night time
87. If a person moves from Chennai to Trichy, his weight
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) remains same (d) increases and then
decreases
88. An object of mass 10 kg is hanging on a spring scale which is
attached to the roof of a lift. If the lift is in free fall, the reading in
the spring scale is
(a) 98 N (b) zero (c) 49 N (d) 9.8 N
89. If the acceleration due to gravity becomes 4 times its original value,
then escape speed
(a) remains same (b) 2 times of original value
(c) becomes halved (d) 4 times of original value
90. The kinetic energy of the satellite orbiting around the Earth is
(a) equal to potential energy (b) less than potential
energy
(c) greater than kinetic energy (d) zero

UNIT – 7 (PROPERTIES OF MATTER)

91. Consider two wires X and Y. The radius of wire X is 3 times the
radius of Y. If they are stretched by the same load, then the stress
on Y is
(a) equal to that on X (b) thrice that on X
(c) nine times that on X (d) Half that on X
92. If a wire is stretched to double of its original length, then the strain
in the wire is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
93. The load – elongation graph of three wires of the same material are
shown in figure. Which of the following wire is the thickest?

(a) wire 1 (b) wire 2

(c) wire 3 (d) all of them have
same thickness
 ()
rd
1
94. For a given material, the rigidity modulus is of Young’s
3
modulus. Its
Poisson’s ratio is
(a) 0 (b) 0.25 (c) 0.3 (d) 0.5
95. A small sphere of radius 2cm falls from rest in a viscous liquid. Heat
is produced due to viscous force. The rate of production of heat
when the sphere attains its terminal velocity is proportional to
(a) 22 (b) 23 (c) 24 (d) 25
96. Two wires are made of the same material and have the same
volume. The area of cross sections of the first and the second wires
are A and 2A respectively. If the length of the first wire is increased
by Δl on applying a force F, how much force is needed to stretch the
second wire by the same amount?
(a) 2F (b) 4F (c) 8F (d) 16 F
97. With an increase in temperature, the viscosity of liquid and gas,
respectively will
(a) increase and increase (b) increase and decrease
(c) decrease and increase (d) decrease and decrease
98. The Young’s modulus for a perfect rigid body is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 0.5 (d) infinity
99. Which of the following is not a scalar?
(a) viscosity (b) surface tension
(c) pressure (d) stress
100. If the temperature of the wire is increased, then the Young’s
modulus will
(a) remain the same (b) decrease
(c) increase rapidly (d) increase by very a small
amount
101. Copper of fixed volume V is drawn into a wire of length l . When this
wire is subjected to a constant force F, the extension produced in
the wire is Δl . If Y represents the Young’s modulus, then which of
the following graphs is a straight line?
(a) Δl versus V (b) Δl versus Y
1
(c) Δl versus F (d) Δl versus
l
102. A certain number of spherical drops of a liquid of radius R coalesce
to form a single drop of radius R and volume V. If T is the surface
tension of the liquid, then

(a) ( )
energy = 4 V T −
1 1
r R
is released

energy = 3 V T ( + ) is absorbed
1 1
(b)
r R
 (c) energy =3 V T ( 1r − R1 ) is released
(d) energy is neither released nor absorbed
103. The following four wires are made of the same material. Which of
these will have the largest extension when the same tension is
applied?
(a) length = 200 cm, diameter = 0.5 mm
(b) length= 200 cm, diameter = 1 mm
(c) length = 200 cm, diameter = 2 mm
(d) length= 200 cm, diameter = 3 m
104. The wettability of a surface by a liquid depends primarily on
(a) viscosity (b) surface tension
(c) density
(d) angle of contact between the surface and the liquid
105. In a horizontal pipe of non-uniform cross section, water flows with a
velocity of 1ms -1 at a point where the diameter of
the pipe is 20 cm. The velocity of water (1.5 ms -1) at a
point where the diameter of the pipe is (in cm)
(a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 24 (d) 32

UNIT – 8 (HEAT AND THERMODYNAMICS)

106. In hot summer after a bath, the body’s
(a) internal energy decreases (b) internal
energy increases
(c) heat decreases
(d) no change in internal energy and heat
107. The graph between volume and temperature in Charles’ law is
(a) an ellipse (b) a circle
(c) a straight line (d) a parabola
108. When a cycle tyre suddenly bursts, the air inside the tyre expands.
This process is
(a) isothermal (b) adiabatic
(c) isobaric (d) isochoric
109. An ideal gas passes from one equilibrium state (P 1, V1, T1, N) to
another equilibrium state (2P1, 3V1, T2, N). Then
T
(a) T1 = T 2 (b) T1 = 2 (c) T1 = 6T2 (d)
6
T1 = 3T2
110. When a uniform rod is heated, which of the following quantity of the
rod will increase
(a) mass (b) weight
(c) center of mass (d) moment of inertia
111. When food is cooked in a vessel by keeping the lid closed, after
some time the steam pushes the lid outward. By considering the
steam as a thermodynamic system, then in the cooking process
(a) Q >0 , W > 0 (b) Q < 0, W > 0
(c) Q > 0, W < 0 (d) Q < 0, W < 0
112. When you exercise in the morning, by considering your body as
thermodynamic system, which of the following is true?
(a) ΔU > 0, W > 0 (b) ΔU < 0, W > 0
(c) ΔU < 0, W < 0 (d) ΔU = 0, W > 0
113. A hot cup of coffee is kept on the table. After some time, it attains a
thermal equilibrium with the surroundings. By considering the air
molecules in the room as a thermodynamic system, which of the
following is true
(a) ΔU > 0, Q = 0 (b) ΔU > 0, W < 0
(c) ΔU > 0, Q > 0 (d) ΔU = 0, Q > 0
114. An ideal gas is taken from (Pi,Vi) to (Pf,Vf) in three different ways.
Identify the process in which the work done on the gas the most.

(a) Process A (b) Process B

(c) Process C (d) Equal work is done in Process
A, B&C
115. The V-T diagram of an ideal gas which goes through a reversible
cycle A→B→C→D is shown below. (Processes D→A and B→C are
adiabatic)

The corresponding PV diagram for the process is (all figures are

schematic)

(a)
(b)
 (c) (d)

116. A distant star emits radiation with maximum intensity at 350 nm.
The temperature of the star is
(a) 8280 K (b) 5000K (c) 7260 K (d) 9044 K
117. Identify the state variables given here?
(a) Q, T, W (b) P, T, U (c) Q, W (d)
P, T, Q
118. In an isochoric process, we have
(a) W=0 (b) Q=0 (c) ΔU = 0 (d)
ΔT = 0
119. The efficiency of a heat engine working between the freezing point
and boiling point of water is
(a) 6.25% (b) 20% (c) 26.8% (d)
12.5%
120. An ideal refrigerator has a freezer at temperature −12°C. The
coefficient of performance of the engine is 5. The temperature of
the air (to which the heat ejected) is
(a) 50°C (b) 45.2°C (c) 40.2°C (d) 37.5°C

UNIT – 9 (KINETIC THEORY OF GASES)

121. A particle of mass m is moving with speed uin a direction which

makes 60° with respect to x axis. It undergoes elastic collision with
the wall. What is the change in momentum in x and y direction?
 (a) ∆ p x =−mu , ∆ p y =0 (b) ∆ p x =−2 mu , ∆ p y =0
(c) ∆ p x =0 , ∆ p y =mu (d) ∆ p x =mu , ∆ p y =0
122. A sample of ideal gas is at equilibrium. Which of the following
quantity is zero?
(a) rms speed (b) average speed
(c) average velocity (d) most probable speed
123. An ideal gas is maintained at constant pressure. If the temperature
of an ideal gas increases from 100K to 10000K then the rms speed
of the gas molecules
(a) increases by 5 times (b) increases by 10
times
(c) remains same (d) increases by 7 times
124. Two identically sized rooms A and B are connected by an open door.
If the room A is air conditioned such that its temperature is 4°C
lesser than room B, which room has more air in it?
(a) Room A (b) Room B
(c) Both room has same air (d) Cannot be
determined
125. The average translational kinetic energy of gas molecules depends
on
(a) number of moles and T (b) only on T
(c) P and T (d) P only
126. If the internal energy of an ideal gas U and volume V are doubled
then the pressure
(a) doubles (b) remains same
(c) halves (d) quadruples
Cp
127. The ratio γ = for a gas mixture consisting of 8 g of helium and 16 g
Cv
of oxygen is
(a) 23/15 (b) 15/23
(c) 27/17 (d) 17/2
128. A container has one mole of monoatomic ideal gas. Each molecule
Cp
has f degrees of freedom. What is the ratio of γ =
Cv
f f f +2
(a) f (b) (c) (d)
2 f +2 f
129. If the temperature and pressure of a gas is doubled the mean free
path of the gas molecules
(a) remains same (b) doubled
 (c) tripled (d) quadra-poled
130. Which of the following shows the correct relationship between the
pressure and density of an ideal gas at constant
temperature?
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

131. A sample of gas consists of μ moles of monoatomic molecules,

1

μ moles of diatomic molecules and μ moles of linear triatomic

2 3

molecules. The gas is kept at high temperature. What is the total

number of degrees of freedom?
(a) [3μ + 7(μ + μ )] NA
1 2 3 (b) [3μ + 7μ + 6μ ] NA
1 2 3

(c) [7μ + 3(μ + μ )] NA

1 2 3 (d) [3μ + 6(μ + μ )] NA
1 2 3

132. If S and S denote the specific heats of nitrogen gas per unit mass at
P V

constant pressure and constant volume respectively, then

(a) S - S = 28R
P V (b) S - S = R/28
P V

(c) S - S = R/14
P V (d) S- S= R
P V

133. Which of the following gases will have least rms speed at a given
temperature?
(a) Hydrogen (b) Nitrogen
(c) Oxygen (d) Carbon dioxide
134. For a given gas molecule at a fixed temperature, the area under the
Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution curve is equal to
PV kT P
(a) (b) (c) (d) PV
kT PV NkT
135. The following graph represents the pressure versus
number density for ideal gas at two different
temperatures T1 and T2. The graph implies

(a) T1 = T 2 (b) T1> T2

(c) T1< T2 (d) Cannot be
determined

UNIT – 10 (KINETIC THEORY OF GASES)

136. In a simple harmonic oscillation, the acceleration against
displacement for one complete oscillation will be
(a) an ellipse (b) a circle (c) a parabola (d) a
straight line
137. A particle executing SHM crosses points A and B with the same
velocity. Having taken 3 s in passing from A to B, it returns to B
after another 3 s. The time period is
(a) 15 s (b) 6s (c) 12 s (d) 9s
138. The length of a second’s pendulum on the surface of the Earth is 0.9
m. The length of the same pendulum on surface of planet X such
that the acceleration of the planet X is n times greater than the
Earth is
0.9 0.9
(a) 0.9n (b) m (c) 0.9n2m (d) 2
n n
139. A simple pendulum is suspended from the roof of a school bus which
moves in a horizontal direction with an acceleration a, then the time
period is
1 1
(a) T∝ 2 2 (b) T∝ 2 2
g +a √ g +a
(c) T ∝ √ g2 +a 2 (d) T∝ ( g 2+ a2 )
140. Two bodies A and B whose masses are in the ratio 1:2 are
suspended from two separate massless springs of force constants k A
and kB respectively. If the two bodies oscillate vertically such that
their maximum velocities are in the ratio 1:2, the ratio of the
amplitude A to that of B is

(a)
√ kB
2k A
(b)
√ kB
8kA
(c)
√ 2kB
kA
(d)

141. A spring is connected to a mass m suspended from it and its time

√ 8 kB
kA

period for vertical oscillation is T. The spring is now cut into two
equal halves and the same mass is suspended from one of the
halves. The period of vertical oscillation is

√
' T T
(a) T =√ 2 T
'
(b) T = (c) T =√ 2T
'
(d) T '=
√2 2
142. The displacement of a simple harmonic motion is given by y(t) = A
sin (ωt + ϕ) where Ais amplitude of the oscillation, ω is the angular
frequency and ϕ is the phase. Let the amplitude of the oscillation be
8 cm and the time period of the oscillation is 24 s. If the
displacement at initial time (t = 0 s) is 4 cm, then the displacement
at t = 6 s is
 (a) 8 cm (b) 4 cm (c) 4 √ 3 cm (d) 8 √ 3 cm
143. A simple pendulum has a time period T . When its point of
1

suspension is moved vertically upwards according as y = k t , where

2

y is vertical distance covered and k = 1 ms , its time period

−2

2
T1
becomes T . Then, 2 is (g = 10 ms–2)
2
T2
5 11 6 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
6 10 5 4
144. An ideal spring of spring constant k, is suspended from the ceiling of
a room and a block of mass M is fastened to its lower end. If the
block is released when the spring is un-stretched, then the
maximum extension in the spring is
Mg Mg Mg Mg
(a) 4 (b) (c) 2 (d)
k k k 2k
145. A pendulum is hung in a very high building oscillates to and fro
motion freely like a simple harmonic oscillator. If the acceleration of
the bob is 16 ms at a distance of 4 m from the mean position, then
−2

the time period is

(a) 2s (b) 1s (c) 2πs (d) πs
146. A hollow sphere is filled with water. It is hung by a long thread. As
the water flows out of a hole at the bottom, the period of oscillation
will
(a) first increase and then decrease (b) first decrease and
then increase
(c) increase continuously (d) decrease continuously
147. The damping force on an oscillator is directly proportional to the
velocity. The units of the constant of proportionality are
(a) kg ms−1 (b) kg ms−2 (c) kgs−1 (d) kg s
148. Let the total energy of a particle executing simple harmonic motion
with angular frequency is 1 rad s–1 is 0.256 J. If the displacement of
π
the particle at time t= s is 8 √ 3 cm then the amplitude of motion is
2
(a) 8 cm (b) 16 cm (c) 32 cm (d)
64 cm
149. A particle executes simple harmonic motion and displacement y at
time t0, 2t0 and 3t0 are A, B and C, respectively. Then the value of

( )
A +C
2B
is

(a) cos ωt0 (b) cos 2ωt0 (c) cos 3ωt0 (d) 1
150. A mass of 3 kg is attached at the end of a spring moves with simple
harmonic motion on a horizontal frictionless table with time period
 2π and with amplitude of 2m, then the maximum fore exerted on
the spring is
(a) 1.5 N (b) 3N (c) 6N (d) 12 N

UNIT – 11 (WAVES)
151. A student tunes his guitar by striking a 120 Hertz with a tuning fork,
and simultaneously plays the 4th string on his guitar. By keen
observation, he hears the amplitude of the combined sound
oscillating thrice per second. Which of the following frequencies is
the most likely the frequency of the 4th string on his guitar?
(a) 130 (b) 117 (c) 110 (d) 120
152. A transverse wave moves from a medium A to a medium B. In
medium A, the velocity of the transverse wave is 500 ms -1 and the
wavelength is 5 m. The frequency and the wavelength of the wave
in medium B when its velocity is 600 ms-1, respectively are
(a) 120 Hz and 5 m (b) 100 Hz and 5 m
(c) 120 Hz and 6 m (d) 100 Hz and 6 m
153. For a particular tube, among six harmonic frequencies below 1000
Hz, only four harmonic frequencies are given: 300 Hz, 600 Hz, 750
Hz and 900 Hz. What are the two other frequencies missing from
this list?
(a) 100 Hz, 150 Hz (b) 150 Hz, 450 Hz
(c) 450 Hz, 700 Hz (d) 700 Hz, 800 Hz
154. Which of the following options is correct?
A B
(1) Quality (A) Intensity
(B)
(2) Pitch
Waveform
(3) (C)
Loudness Frequency
 Options for (1), (2) and (3), respectively are
(a) (B),(C) and (A) (b) (C), (A) and (B)
(c) (A), (B) and (C) (d) (B), (A) and (C)
155. Equation of travelling wave on a stretched string of linear density 5
g/m is y = 0.03 sin(450t – 9x), where distance and time are
measured in SI units. The tension in the string is
(a) 5N (b) 12.5 N (c) 7.5 N (d) 10
N
156. A sound wave whose frequency is 5000 Hz travels in air and then
hits the water surface. The ratio of its wavelengths in water and air
is
(a) 4.30 (b) 0.23 (c) 5.30 (d) 1.23
157. A person standing between two parallel hills fi res a gun and hears
the first echo
after t1sec and the second echo after t 2sec. The distance between
the two hills is
v ( t 1−t 2 ) v (t 1t 2)
(a) (b)
2 2 ( t 1 +t 2)
v ( t 1+t 2 )
(c) v ( t 1 +t 2 ) (d)
2
158. An air column in a pipe which is closed at one end, will be in
resonance with the vibrating body of frequency 83Hz. Then the
length of the air column is
(a) 1.5 m (b) 0.5 m (c) 1.0 m (d)
2.0 m

159. The displacement y of a wave travelling in the x direction is given by

( )
π
y=( 2 x 10 ) sin 300 t−2 x + , where x and y are measured in metres
−3
4
and tin second. The speed of the wave is
(a) 150 ms-1 (b) 300 ms-1 (c) 450 ms-1 (d) 600 ms-1
160. Consider two uniform wires vibrating simultaneously in their
fundamental notes. The tensions, densities, lengths and diameter of
the two wires are in the ratio 8: 1, 1: 2, x : y and 4 : 1 respectively.
If the note of the higher pitch has a frequency of 360 Hz and the
number of beats produced per second is 10, then the value of x: y is
(a) 36: 35 (b) 35: 36 (c) 1: 1 (d) 1:
2
161. Which of the following represents a wave
 1
(a) ( x−vt )3 (b) x (x +vt ) (c) (d) sin
( x +vt )
(x +vt )
162. A man sitting on a swing which is moving to an angle of 60 0 from
the vertical is blowing a whistle which has a frequency of 2.0 k Hz.
The whistle is 2.0 m from the fixed support point of the swing. A
sound detector which detects the whistle sound is kept in front of
the swing. The maximum frequency the sound detector detected is
(a) 2.027 kHz (b) 1.974 kHz (c) 9.74 kHz (d) 1.011
kHz
1
163. Let y= 2 at t = 0 s be the amplitude of the wave propagating in
1+ x
the positive
x-direction. At t = 2 s, the amplitude of the wave propagating
becomes
1
y= 2 . Assume that the shape of the wave does not change
1+ ( x−2 )
during
propagation. The velocity of the wave is
(a) 0.5m s-1 (b) 1.0m s-1 (c) 1.5m s-1 (d) 2.0m s-1
164. A uniform rope having mass m hangs vertically from a rigid support.
A transverse wave pulse is produced at the lower end. Which of the
following plots shows the correct variation of speed v with height h
from the lower end?

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

165. An organ pipe A closed at one end is allowed to vibrate in its first
harmonic and another pipe B open at both ends is allowed to vibrate
in its third harmonic. Both A and B are in resonance with a given
tuning fork. The ratio of the length of A and B is
8 3 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 8 6 3