Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

Basics – 1
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Basics – 1”.

1. The IETF standards documents are called ________

a) RFC
b) RCF
c) ID
d) DFC
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: RFC stands for Request For Comments and they are documents
that describe methods, behaviors, research, or innovations applicable to the
working of the Internet.
2. In the layer hierarchy as the data packet moves from the upper to the lower
layers, headers are ___________
a) Added
b) Removed
c) Rearranged
d) Modified
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Each layer adds its own header to the packet from the previous
layer. For example, in the Internet layer, the IP header is added over the TCP
header on the data packet that came from the transport layer.
3. The structure or format of data is called ___________
a) Syntax
b) Semantics
c) Struct
d) Formatting
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The structure and format of data are defined using syntax.
Semantics defines how a particular pattern to be interpreted, and what action is
to be taken based on that interpretation. In programming languages, syntax of
the instructions plays a vital role in designing of the program.
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4. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ______________
transmission.
a) Automatic
b) Half-duplex
c) Full-duplex
d) Simplex
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In simplex transmission, data flows in single direction which in this
case refers to the data flowing from the keyboard to the computer. Another
example would be of the mouse where the data flows from the mouse to the
computer only.
5. The first Network was called ________
a) CNNET
b) NSFNET
c) ASAPNET
d) ARPANET
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: ARPANET stands for Advanced Research Projects Agency Networks.
It was the first network to be implemented which used the TCP/IP protocol in the
year 1969.
6. A _______ is the physical path over which a message travels.
a) Path
b) Medium
c) Protocol
d) Route
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Messages travel from sender to receiver via a physical path called
the medium using a set of methods/rules called protocol. Mediums can be
guided (wired) or unguided (wireless).
7. Which organization has authority over interstate and international commerce
in the communications field?
a) ITU-T
b) IEEE
c) FCC
d) ISOC
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: FCC is the abbreviation for Federal Communications Commission.
FCC is responsible for regulating all interstate communications originating or
terminating in USA. It was founded in the year 1934.
8. Which of this is not a network edge device?
a) PC
b) Smartphones
c) Servers
d) Switch
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Network edge devices refer to host systems, which can host
applications like web browser. A switch can’t operate as a host, but as a central
device which can be used to manage network communication.
9. A _________ set of rules that governs data communication.
a) Protocols
b) Standards
c) RFCs
d) Servers
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In communications, a protocol refers to a set of rules and
regulations that allow a network of nodes to transmit and receive information.
Each layer in the network model has a protocol set, for example, the transport
layer has TCP and UDP protocols.
10. Three or more devices share a link in ________ connection.
a) Unipoint
b) Multipoint
c) Point to point
d) Simplex
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A multipoint communication is established when three or many
network nodes are connected to each other. Frame relay, Ethernet and ATM are
some examples of multipoint connections

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

Basics – 2
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Basics – 2”.

1. When collection of various computers seems a single coherent system to its

client, then it is called _________
a) computer network
b) distributed system
c) networking system
d) mail system
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A Computer network is defined as a collection of interconnected
computers which uses a single technology for connection.
A distributed system is also the same as computer network but the main
difference is that the whole collection of computers appears to its users as a
single coherent system.
Example:- World wide web
2. Two devices are in network if __________
a) a process in one device is able to exchange information with a process in
another device
b) a process is running on both devices
c) PIDs of the processes running of different devices are same
d) a process is active and another is inactive
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A computer network, or data network, is a digital
telecommunications network which allows nodes to share resources. In
computer networks, computing devices exchange data with each other using
connections between nodes. The nodes have certain processes which enable
them to share a specific type of data using a distinct protocol.
3. Which of the following computer networks is built on the top of another
network?
a) prior network
b) chief network
c) prime network
d) overlay network
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: An overlay network is a computer network that is built on top of
another network. Some examples of an overlay network are Virtual Private
Networks (VPN) and Peer-to-Peer Networks (P2P).
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4. In computer network nodes are _________
a) the computer that originates the data
b) the computer that routes the data
c) the computer that terminates the data
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In a computer network, a node can be anything that is capable of
sending data or receiving data or even routing the data to its destination.
Routers, Computers and Smartphones are some examples of network nodes.
5. Communication channel is shared by all the machines on the network in
________
a) broadcast network
b) unicast network
c) multicast network
d) anycast network
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a broadcast network, information is sent to all stations in a
network whereas in a multicast network the data or information is sent to a
group of stations in the network. In unicast network, information is sent to only
one specific station. The broadcast address of the network is the last assigned
address of the network.
6. Bluetooth is an example of __________
a) personal area network
b) local area network
c) virtual private network
d) wide area network
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bluetooth is a wireless technology used to create a wireless
personal area network for data transfer up to a distance of 10 meters. It
operates on 2.45 GHz frequency band for transmission.
7. A __________ is a device that forwards packets between networks by
processing the routing information included in the packet.
a) bridge
b) firewall
c) router
d) hub
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A router is a networking device that forwards data packets
between computer networks. Routers perform the traffic directing functions on
the Internet. They make use of routing protocols like RIP to find the cheapest
path to the destination.
8. A list of protocols used by a system, one protocol per layer, is called ________
a) protocol architecture
b) protocol stack
c) protocol suite
d) protocol system
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A protocol stack refers to a group of protocols that are running
concurrently that are employed for the implementation of network protocol
suite. Each layer in the network model has to use one specific protocol from the
protocol stack.
9. Network congestion occurs _________
a) in case of traffic overloading
b) when a system terminates
c) when connection between two nodes terminates
d) in case of transfer failure
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Network congestion occurs when traffic in the network is more than
the network could handle. To avoid network congestion, the network
management uses various open-loop and closed-loop congestion control
techniques.
10. Which of the following networks extends a private network across public
networks?
a) local area network
b) virtual private network
c) enterprise private network
d) storage area network
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A virtual private network extends a private network across a public
network, and enables users to send and receive data across shared or public
networks as if their computing devices were directly connected to the private
network. VPN provides enhanced security and online anonymity to users on the
internet. It is also used to unblock websites which are unavailable in certain
regions.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

Access Networks
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Access Networks”.

1. Which of this is not a constituent of residential telephone line?

a) A high-speed downstream channel
b) A medium-speed downstream channel
c) A low-speed downstream channel
d) An ultra-high speed downstream channel
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A low-speed downstream channel is not a constituent of a
residential telephone line. But it might be just a two-way telephone channel.
Internet can be provided through a high-speed downstream channel in a
residential telephone line.
2. DSL telcos provide which of the following services?
a) Wired phone access
b) ISP
c) Wired phone access and ISP
d) Network routing and ISP
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: DSL stands for Digital Subscriber Line and ISP stands for Internet
Service Provider. In a Digital Subscriber Line system, the same company which
provides phone connection is also an ISP. The internet is provided through the
pre-installed telephone lines.
3. The function of DSLAM is to __________
a) Convert analog signals into digital signals
b) Convert digital signals into analog signals
c) Amplify digital signals
d) De-amplify digital signals
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DSLAM stands for Digital Subscriber Line Access Multiplexer and
it’s used by Telcos to convert the analog signals to digital signals for the
purpose of providing internet. The DSLAM located in a telco’s Central Office does
this function.
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4. Which of the following terms is not associated with DSL?
a) DSLAM
b) CO
c) Splitter
d) CMTS
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: CMTS stands for Cable modem termination system. It is used in
cable internet access. In cable internet access, internet is not provided through
telephone lines and the companies that provide such connections don’t
necessarily provide telephone access.
5. HFC contains _______
a) Fibre cable
b) Coaxial cable
c) A combination of Fibre cable and Coaxial cable
d) Twisted Pair Cable
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC) is a telecommunications industry term
for a broadband network that combines optical fiber and coaxial cable. It has
been popularly used since the early 1990s. It is stronger than the optical fiber
cables and faster than the co-axial cables.
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6. Which of the following statements is not applicable for cable internet access?
a) It is a shared broadcast medium
b) It includes HFCs
c) Cable modem connects home PC to Ethernet port
d) Analog signal is converted to digital signal in DSLAM
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: CMTS stands for Cable modem termination system. In cable access
analog signal is converted to digital signal by CMTS. In cable internet access,
internet is not provided through telephone lines. DSLAM is used by Telecom
companies.
7. Among the optical-distribution architectures that are essentially switched
ethernet is __________
a) AON
b) PON
c) NON
d) MON
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation: AON stands for Active optical networks which are essentially
switched Ethernets. Each user has his/her own dedicated optical fiber line
connecting to the ISP in an AON.
8. StarBand provides __________
a) FTTH internet access
b) Cable access
c) Telephone access
d) Satellite access
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: StarBand was a two-way satellite broadband Internet service
available in the U.S. from 2000–2015. It was discontinued from September 30
2015 due to increasing competition from other ISPs.
9. Home Internet Access is provided by __________
a) DSL
b) FTTP
c) Cable
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Home Internet Access is provided by DSL, FTTP, and Cable. FTTP
provides the fastest speeds followed by the cable connections and then the
DSLs. FTTP is popularly used in modern connections.
10. ONT is connected to splitter using _________
a) High speed fibre cable
b) HFC
c) Optical cable
d) Twisted pair cable
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: ONT stands for Optical Network Terminal. The ONT connects to the
Termination Point (TP) with an optical fibre cable. It translates light signals from
the fibre optic line to electric signals that the router can read.
11. Which of the following factors affect transmission rate in DSL?
a) The gauge of the twisted-pair line
b) Degree of electrical interfernece
c) Shadow fading
d) The gauge of the twisted-pair line and degree of electrical interference
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Because DSL is made of twisted wire copper pair, the gauge of
twisted pair line i.e. the protection and electrical interference would affect the
transmission rate in DSL. Unlike DSL, FTTP is not really affected by these factors.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

Reference Models – 1
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Reference Models – 1”.

1. How many layers are present in the Internet protocol stack (TCP/IP model)?
a) 5
b) 7
c) 6
d) 10
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There are five layers in the Internet Protocol stack. The five layers
in Internet Protocol stack is Application, Transport, Network, Data link and
Physical layer. The internet protocol stack model is also called the TCP/IP model
and it’s used in modern Internet Communication.
2. The number of layers in ISO OSI reference model is __________
a) 5
b) 7
c) 6
d) 10
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The seven layers in ISO OSI reference model is Application,
Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data link and Physical layer. OSI
stands for Open System Interconnect and it is a generalized model.
3. Which of the following layers is an addition to OSI model when compared with
TCP IP model?
a) Application layer
b) Presentation layer
c) Session layer
d) Session and Presentation layer
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The only difference between OSI model and TCP/IP model is that
the functions of Presentation and Session layer in the OSI model are handled by
the transport layer itself in TCP/IP. OSI is a generalized model and TCP/IP is an
application specific model.
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4. Application layer is implemented in ____________
a) End system
b) NIC
c) Ethernet
d) Packet transport
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Not only application layer, but presentation layer, session layer and
transport layer are also implemented in the end system. The layers below are
implemented outside the end system, for example, the network layer is
implemented on the routers and the physical layer is implemented for the
medium.
5. Transport layer is implemented in ______________
a) End system
b) NIC
c) Ethernet
d) Signal transmission
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Application, Presentation, Session and Transport layer are
implemented in the end system. The transport layer handles the process to
process delivery of the packet through ports.
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6. The functionalities of the presentation layer include ____________
a) Data compression
b) Data encryption
c) Data description
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Some functions of the presentation layer include character-code
translation, data conversion, data encryption and decryption, and data
translation. It connects the application layer with the layers below converting
the human readable text and media to machine readable format and vice-versa.
7. Delimiting and synchronization of data exchange is provided by __________
a) Application layer
b) Session layer
c) Transport layer
d) Link layer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The session layer provides the mechanism for opening, closing and
managing a session between end-user application processes. The session layer
5 is responsible for establishing managing synchronizing and terminating
sessions. In TCP/IP protocol stack, the functions of the session layer are handled
by the transport layer itself and thus the session layer is missing from the TCP/IP
model.
8. In OSI model, when data is sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer to
receive data at B is _________
a) Application layer
b) Transport layer
c) Link layer
d) Session layer
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In OSI reference model, the fifth layer is Session layer. Session
layer provides the mechanism for opening, closing and managing a session
between end-user application processes. In TCP/IP protocol stack, the functions
of the session layer are handled by the transport layer itself and thus the
session layer is missing from the TCP/IP model.
9. In TCP IP Model, when data is sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer to
receive data at B is ____________
a) Application layer
b) Transport layer
c) Link layer
d) Session layer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In TCP/IP model, the fifth layer is application layer. When data is
sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer to receive data at B is application
layer. Application layer provides the interface between applications and the
network. The user interacts with only this layer.
10. In the OSI model, as a data packet moves from the lower to the upper
layers, headers are _______
a) Added
b) Removed
c) Rearranged
d) Randomized
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In OSI reference model, when data packet moves from lower layers
to higher layer, headers get removed. Whereas when the data packet moves
from higher layer to lower layers, headers are added. These headers contain the
essential control information for the protocols used on the specific layer.
11. Which of the following statements can be associated with OSI model?
a) A structured way to discuss and easier update system components
b) One layer may duplicate lower layer functionality
c) Functionality at one layer no way requires information from another layer
d) It is an application specific network model
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: One layer may use the information from another layer, for example
timestamp value. The information is contained in the header inserted by the
previous layer. The headers are added as the packet moves from higher layers
to the lower layers.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

Reference Models – 2
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Reference Models – 2”.

1. OSI stands for __________

a) open system interconnection
b) operating system interface
c) optical service implementation
d) open service Internet
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: OSI is the abbreviation for Open System Interconnection. OSI model
provides a structured plan on how applications communicate over a network,
which also helps us to have a structured plan for troubleshooting. It is
recognized by the ISO as the generalized model for computer network i.e. it can
be modified to design any kind of computer network.
2. The number of layers in ISO OSI reference model is __________
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In OSI reference model, there are 7 layers namely Application,
Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link and Physical layer. Each
layer uses a protocol to perform its designated function, for example, the data
link layer uses error detection protocols for error control functions.
3. TCP/IP model does not have ______ layer but OSI model have this layer.
a) session layer
b) transport layer
c) application layer
d) network layer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In OSI reference model, there are two layers which are not present
in TCP/IP model. They are Presentation and Session layer. The functions of
Presentation and Session layer in the OSI model are handled by the transport
layer itself in TCP/IP.
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4. Which layer is used to link the network support layers and user support
layers?
a) session layer
b) data link layer
c) transport layer
d) network layer
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Physical, data link and network layers are network support layers
and session, presentation and application layers are user support layers. The
transport layer links these layers by segmenting and rearranging the data. It
uses protocols like TCP and UDP.
5. Which address is used on the internet for employing the TCP/IP protocols?
a) physical address and logical address
b) port address
c) specific address
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The physical, logical, port and specific addresses are used in TCP/IP
protocol. All the addressing schemes, that is physical (MAC) and logical address,
port address and specific address are employed in both TCP/IP model and OSI
model. In TCP/IP, the addresses are more focused on the internet
implementation of these addresses.
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6. TCP/IP model was developed _____ the OSI model.
a) prior to
b) after
c) simultaneous to
d) with no link to
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Several TCP/IP prototypes were developed at multiple research
centers between 1978 and 1983, whereas OSI reference model was developed
in the year 1984. TCP/IP was developed with the intention to create a model for
the Internet while OSI was intended to be a general network model.
7. Which layer is responsible for process to process delivery in a general
network model?
a) network layer
b) transport layer
c) session layer
d) data link layer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The role of Transport layer (Layer 4) is to establish a logical end to
end connection between two systems in a network. The protocols used in
Transport layer is TCP and UDP. The transport layer is responsible for
segmentation of the data. It uses ports for the implementation of process-to-
process delivery.
8. Which address is used to identify a process on a host by the transport layer?
a) physical address
b) logical address
c) port address
d) specific address
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A port number is a way to identify a specific process to which an
Internet or other network message is to be forwarded when it arrives at a
server. Some examples of port numbers are port 20 which is used for FTP data,
port 22 which is used for SSH remote login ,and port 23 which is used for
TELNET.
9. Which layer provides the services to user?
a) application layer
b) session layer
c) presentation layer
d) physical layer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In networking, a user mainly interacts with application layer to
create and send information to other computer or network. Application layer
provides the interface between applications and the network. It is the top-most
layer in both the TCP/IP and the OSI model.
10. Transmission data rate is decided by ____________
a) network layer
b) physical layer
c) data link layer
d) transport layer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Physical layer is a layer 1 device which deals with network cables
or the standards in use like connectors, pins, electric current used etc. Basically,
the transmission speed is determined by the cables and connectors used. Hence
it is physical layer that determines the transmission speed in network. Some of
the cables used for high-speed data transmission are optical fiber cables and
twisted pair cables.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

Physical Layer
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Physical Layer”.

1. The physical layer is concerned with ___________

a) bit-by-bit delivery
b) process to process delivery
c) application to application delivery
d) port to port delivery
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Physical layer deals with bit to bit delivery in networking. The data
unit in the physical layer is bits. Process to process delivery or the port to port
delivery is dealt in the transport layer. The various transmission mediums aid
the physical layer in performing its functions.
2. Which transmission media provides the highest transmission speed in a
network?
a) coaxial cable
b) twisted pair cable
c) optical fiber
d) electrical cable
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Fiber optics is considered to have the highest transmission speed
among the all mentioned above. The fiber optics transmission runs at 1000Mb/s.
It is called as 1000Base-Lx whereas IEEE standard for it is 802.3z. It is popularly
used for modern day network connections due to its high transmission rate.
3. Bits can be sent over guided and unguided media as analog signal by
___________
a) digital modulation
b) amplitude modulation
c) frequency modulation
d) phase modulation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In analog modulation, digital low frequency baseband signal (digital
bit stream) is transmitted over a higher frequency. Whereas in digital
modulation the only difference is that the base band signal is of discrete
amplitude level. The bits are represented by only two frequency levels, one for
high and one for low.
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4. The portion of physical layer that interfaces with the media access control
sublayer is called ___________
a) physical signalling sublayer
b) physical data sublayer
c) physical address sublayer
d) physical transport sublayer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The portion of physical layer that interfaces with the medium
access control sublayer is Physical Signaling Sublayer. The main function of this
layer is character encoding, reception, decoding and performs optional isolation
functions. It handles which media connection the signal should be forwarded to
physically.
5. The physical layer provides __________
a) mechanical specifications of electrical connectors and cables
b) electrical specification of transmission line signal level
c) specification for IR over optical fiber
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Anything dealing with a network cable or the standards in use –
including pins, connectors and the electric current used is dealt in the physical
layer (Layer 1). Physical layer deals with bit to bit delivery of the data aided by
the various transmission mediums.
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6. In asynchronous serial communication the physical layer provides ___________
a) start and stop signalling
b) flow control
c) both start & stop signalling and flow control
d) only start signalling
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In asynchronous serial communication, the communication is not
synchronized by clock signal. Instead of a start and stop signaling and flow
control method is followed. Unlike asynchronous serial communication, in
synchronous serial communication a clock signal is used for communication, so
the start and stop method is not really required.
7. The physical layer is responsible for __________
a) line coding
b) channel coding
c) modulation
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The physical layer is responsible for line coding, channel coding
and modulation that is needed for the transmission of the information. The
physical configuration including pins, connectors and the electric current used is
dealt in the physical layer based on the requirement of the network application.
8. The physical layer translates logical communication requests from the ______
into hardware specific operations.
a) data link layer
b) network layer
c) trasnport layer
d) application layer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Physical layer accepts data or information from the data link layer
and converts it into hardware specific operations so as to transfer the message
through physical cables. Some examples of the cables used are optical fiber
cables, twisted pair cables and co-axial cables.
9. A single channel is shared by multiple signals by ____________
a) analog modulation
b) digital modulation
c) multiplexing
d) phase modulation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In communication and computer networks, the main goal is to
share a scarce resource. This is done by multiplexing, where multiple analog or
digital signals are combined into one signal over a shared medium. The multiple
kinds of signals are designated by the transport layer which is the layer present
on a higher level than the physical layer.
10. Wireless transmission of signals can be done via ___________
a) radio waves
b) microwaves
c) infrared
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Wireless transmission is carried out by radio waves, microwaves
and IR waves. These waves range from 3 Khz to above 300 Ghz and are more
suitable for wireless transmission. Radio waves can penetrate through walls and
are used in radio communications, microwaves and infrared (IR) waves cannot
penetrate through walls and are used for satellite communications and device
communications respectively.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

Data Link Layer
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Data Link Layer”.

1. The data link layer takes the packets from _________ and encapsulates them
into frames for transmission.
a) network layer
b) physical layer
c) transport layer
d) application layer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In computer networks, the data from application layer is sent to
transport layer and is converted to segments. These segments are then
transferred to the network layer and these are called packets. These packets are
then sent to data link layer where they are encapsulated into frames. These
frames are then transferred to physical layer where the frames are converted to
bits. Error control and flow control data is inserted in the frames at the data link
layer.
2. Which of the following tasks is not done by data link layer?
a) framing
b) error control
c) flow control
d) channel coding
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Channel coding is the function of physical layer. Data link layer
mainly deals with framing, error control and flow control. Data link layer is the
layer where the packets are encapsulated into frames.
3. Which sublayer of the data link layer performs data link functions that depend
upon the type of medium?
a) logical link control sublayer
b) media access control sublayer
c) network interface control sublayer
d) error control sublayer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Media access control (MAC) deals with transmission of data packets
to and from the network-interface card, and also to and from another remotely
shared channel. The MAC sublayer also prevents collision using protocols like
CSMA/CD.
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4. Header of a frame generally contains ______________
a) synchronization bytes
b) addresses
c) frame identifier
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In a frame, the header is a part of the data that contains all the
required information about the transmission of the file. It contains information
like synchronization bytes, addresses, frame identifier etc. It also contains error
control information for reducing the errors in the transmitted frames.
5. Automatic repeat request error management mechanism is provided by
________
a) logical link control sublayer
b) media access control sublayer
c) network interface control sublayer
d) application access control sublayer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The logical link control is a sublayer of data link layer whose main
function is to manage traffic, flow and error control. The automatic repeat
request error management mechanism is provided by the LLC when an error is
found in the received frame at the receiver’s end to inform the sender to re-
send the frame.
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6. When 2 or more bits in a data unit has been changed during the transmission,
the error is called ____________
a) random error
b) burst error
c) inverted error
d) double error
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When a single bit error occurs in a data, it is called single bit error.
When more than a single bit of data is corrupted or has error, it is called burst
error. If a single bit error occurs, the bit can be simply repaired by inverting it,
but in case of a burst error, the sender has to send the frame again.
7. CRC stands for __________
a) cyclic redundancy check
b) code repeat check
c) code redundancy check
d) cyclic repeat check
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cyclic redundancy check is a code that is added to a data which
helps us to identify any error that occurred during the transmission of the data.
CRC is only able to detect errors, not correct them. CRC is inserted in the frame
trailer.
8. Which of the following is a data link protocol?
a) ethernet
b) point to point protocol
c) hdlc
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There are many data link layer protocols. Some of them are SDLC
(synchronous data link protocol), HDLC (High level data link control), SLIP (serial
line interface protocol), PPP (Point to point protocol) etc. These protocols are
used to provide the logical link control function of the Data Link Layer.
9. Which of the following is the multiple access protocol for channel access
control?
a) CSMA/CD
b) CSMA/CA
c) Both CSMA/CD & CSMA/CA
d) HDLC
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In CSMA/CD, it deals with detection of collision after collision has
occurred, whereas CSMA/CA deals with preventing collision. CSMA/CD is
abbreviation for Carrier Sensing Multiple Access/Collision detection. CSMA/CA is
abbreviation for Carrier Sensing Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance. These
protocols are used for efficient multiple channel access.
10. The technique of temporarily delaying outgoing acknowledgements so that
they can be hooked onto the next outgoing data frame is called ____________
a) piggybacking
b) cyclic redundancy check
c) fletcher’s checksum
d) parity check
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Piggybacking is a technique in which the acknowledgment is
temporarily delayed so as to be hooked with the next outgoing data frame. It
saves a lot of channel bandwidth as in non-piggybacking system, some
bandwidth is reserved for acknowledgement.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

Network Layer
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Network Layer”.

1. The network layer is concerned with __________ of data.

a) bits
b) frames
c) packets
d) bytes
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In computer networks, the data from the application layer is sent to
the transport layer and is converted to segments. These segments are then
transferred to the network layer and these are called packets. These packets are
then sent to data link layer where they are encapsulated into frames. These
frames are then transferred to physical layer where the frames are converted to
bits.
2. Which one of the following is not a function of network layer?
a) routing
b) inter-networking
c) congestion control
d) error control
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In the OSI model, network layer is the third layer and it provides
data routing paths for network communications. Error control is a function of the
data link layer and the transport layer.
3. A 4 byte IP address consists of __________
a) only network address
b) only host address
c) network address & host address
d) network address & MAC address
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An ip address which is 32 bits long, that means it is of 4 bytes and
is composed of a network and host portion and it depends on address class. The
size of the host address and network address depends upon the class of the
address in classful IP addressing.
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4. In virtual circuit network each packet contains ___________
a) full source and destination address
b) a short VC number
c) only source address
d) only destination address
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A short VC number also called as VCID (virtual circuit identifier) is a
type of identifier which is used to distinguish between several virtual circuits in a
connection oriented circuit switched network. Each virtual circuit is used to
transfer data over a larger packet switched network.
5. Which of the following routing algorithms can be used for network layer
design?
a) shortest path algorithm
b) distance vector routing
c) link state routing
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The routing algorithm is what decides where a packet should go
next. There are several routing techniques like shortest path algorithm, static
and dynamic routing, decentralized routing, distance vector routing, link state
routing, Hierarchical routing etc. The routing algorithms go hand in hand with
the operations of all the routers in the networks. The routers are the main
participants in these algorithms.
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6. Which of the following is not correct in relation to multi-destination routing?
a) is same as broadcast routing
b) contains the list of all destinations
c) data is not sent by packets
d) there are multiple receivers
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In multi-destination routing, there is more than one receiver and
the route for each destination which is contained in a list of destinations is to be
found by the routing algorithm. Multi-destination routing is also used in
broadcasting.
7. A subset of a network that includes all the routers but contains no loops is
called ________
a) spanning tree
b) spider structure
c) spider tree
d) special tree
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Spanning tree protocol (STP) is a network protocol that creates a
loop free logical topology for ethernet networks. It is a layer 2 protocol that runs
on bridges and switches. The main purpose of STP is to ensure that you do not
create loops when you have redundant paths in your network.
8. Which one of the following algorithm is not used for congestion control?
a) traffic aware routing
b) admission control
c) load shedding
d) routing information protocol
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is used by the network layer
for the function of dynamic routing. Congestion control focuses on the flow of
the traffic in the network and uses algorithms like traffic aware routing,
admission control and load shedding to deal with congestion.
9. The network layer protocol for internet is __________
a) ethernet
b) internet protocol
c) hypertext transfer protocol
d) file transfer protocol
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are several protocols used in Network layer. Some of them
are IP, ICMP, CLNP, ARP, IPX, HRSP etc. Hypertext transfer protocol is for
application layer and ethernet protocol is for data link layer.
10. ICMP is primarily used for __________
a) error and diagnostic functions
b) addressing
c) forwarding
d) routing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: ICMP abbreviation for Internet Control Message Protocol is used by
networking devices to send error messages and operational information
indicating a host or router cannot be reached. ICMP operates over the IP packet
to provide error reporting functionality as IP by itself cannot report errors.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

Transport Layer
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Transport Layer”.

1. Transport layer aggregates data from different applications into a single

stream before passing it to ____________
a) network layer
b) data link layer
c) application layer
d) physical layer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The flow of data in the OSI model flows in following manner
Application -> Presentation -> Session -> Transport -> Network -> Data Link ->
Physical. Each and every layer has its own set of functions and protocols to
ensure efficient network performance.
2. Which of the following are transport layer protocols used in networking?
a) TCP and FTP
b) UDP and HTTP
c) TCP and UDP
d) HTTP and FTP
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Both TCP and UDP are transport layer protocol in networking. TCP
is an abbreviation for Transmission Control Protocol and UDP is an abbreviation
for User Datagram Protocol. TCP is connection oriented whereas UDP is
connectionless.
3. User datagram protocol is called connectionless because _____________
a) all UDP packets are treated independently by transport layer
b) it sends data as a stream of related packets
c) it is received in the same order as sent order
d) it sends data very quickly
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: UDP is an alternative for TCP and it is used for those purposes
where speed matters most whereas loss of data is not a problem. UDP is
connectionless whereas TCP is connection oriented.
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4. Transmission control protocol ___________
a) is a connection-oriented protocol
b) uses a three way handshake to establish a connection
c) receives data from application as a single stream
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: TCP provides reliable and ordered delivery of a stream of bytes
between hosts communicating via an IP network. Major internet applications like
www, email, file transfer etc rely on TCP. TCP is connection oriented and it is
optimized for accurate delivery rather than timely delivery.
5. An endpoint of an inter-process communication flow across a computer
network is called __________
a) socket
b) pipe
c) port
d) machine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Socket is one end point in a two way communication link in the
network. TCP layer can identify the application that data is destined to be sent
by using the port number that is bound to socket.
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6. Socket-style API for windows is called ____________
a) wsock
b) winsock
c) wins
d) sockwi
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Winsock is a programming interface which deals with input output
requests for internet applications in windows OS. It defines how windows
network software should access network services.
7. Which one of the following is a version of UDP with congestion control?
a) datagram congestion control protocol
b) stream control transmission protocol
c) structured stream transport
d) user congestion control protocol
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The datagram congestion control is a transport layer protocol
which deals with reliable connection setup, teardown, congestion control,
explicit congestion notification, and feature negotiation. It is used in modern day
systems where there are really high chances of congestion. The protocol was
last updated in the year 2008.
8. A _____ is a TCP name for a transport service access point.
a) port
b) pipe
c) node
d) protocol
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Just as the IP address identifies the computer, the network port
identifies the application or service running on the computer. A port number is
16 bits. The combination of IP address preceded with the port number is called
the socket address.
9. Transport layer protocols deals with ____________
a) application to application communication
b) process to process communication
c) node to node communication
d) man to man communication
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Transport layer is 4th layer in TCP/IP model and OSI reference
model. It deals with logical communication between process. It is responsible for
delivering a message between network host.
10. Which of the following is a transport layer protocol?
a) stream control transmission protocol
b) internet control message protocol
c) neighbor discovery protocol
d) dynamic host configuration protocol
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Stream Control Transmission Protocol (SCTP) is a transport
layer protocol used in networking system where streams of data are to be
continuously transmitted between two connected network nodes. Some of the
other transport layer protocols are RDP, RUDP, TCP, DCCP, UDP etc.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

Network Topology
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Network Topology”.

1. Physical or logical arrangement of network is __________

a) Topology
b) Routing
c) Networking
d) Control
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Topology in networks is the structure or pattern in which each and
every node in the network is connected. There are many topologies in
networking like bus, tree, ring, star, mesh, and hybrid topology. There is no
particular best topology and a suitable topology can be chosen based on the
kind of application of the network .
2. Which network topology requires a central controller or hub?
a) Star
b) Mesh
c) Ring
d) Bus
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In star topology, no computer is connected to another computer
directly but all the computers are connected to a central hub. Every message
sent from a source computer goes through the hub and the hub then forwards
the message only to the intended destination computer.
3. _______ topology requires a multipoint connection.
a) Star
b) Mesh
c) Ring
d) Bus
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In bus topology, there is a single cable to which all the network
nodes are connected. So whenever a node tries to send a message or data to
other nodes, this data passes through all other nodes in the network through the
cable. It is really simple to install but it’s not secure enough to be used in most
of the computer network applications.
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4. Data communication system spanning states, countries, or the whole world is
________
a) LAN
b) WAN
c) MAN
d) PAN
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: WAN is the abbreviation for Wide Area Network. This network
extends over a large geographical area. WANs are used to connect cities, states
or even countries. A wireless connection is required to build a WAN. The best
example of WAN is the Internet.
5. Data communication system within a building or campus is________
a) LAN
b) WAN
c) MAN
d) PAN
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: LAN is an abbreviation for Local Area Network. This network
interconnects computers in a small area such as schools, offices, residence etc.
It is the most versatile kind of data communication system where most of the
computer network concepts can be visibly used.
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6. WAN stands for __________
a) World area network
b) Wide area network
c) Web area network
d) Web access network
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: WAN is the abbreviation for Wide Area Network. This network
extends over a large geographical area. These are used to connect cities, states
or even countries. They can be connected through leased lines or satellites.
7. In TDM, slots are further divided into __________
a) Seconds
b) Frames
c) Packets
d) Bits
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: TDM is the abbreviation for Time division multiplexing. It is
technique for combining several low rate channels to a single high rate channel.
For a certain time slot, the several channels could use the maximum bandwidth.
Each channel is inactive for a period of time too. Some other multiplexing
techniques are Frequency division multiplexing and Phase division multiplexing.
8. _____ is the multiplexing technique that shifts each signal to a different carrier
frequency.
a) FDM
b) TDM
c) Both FDM & TDM
d) PDM
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: FDM is an abbreviation for Frequency Division Multiplexing. This
technique is used when the bandwidth of the channel is greater than the
combined bandwidth of all the signals which are to be transmitted. The channel
is active at all times unless a collision occurs with another channel trying to use
the same frequency. Some other multiplexing techniques are Time division
multiplexing and Phase division multiplexing.

Computer Network Questions and Answers –

Network Topology – Set 2
This set of Computer Network Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Network Topology – Set 2”.

1. The three topologies associated with LANs are _________

a) Mesh, Tree and Bus topology
b) Tree, Circular and Ring topology
c) Bus, Ring and Star topology
d) Hybrid, Mesh and Star topology
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Bus, Ring and Star topology are related to LANs whereas Mesh,
Tree, Circular and Hybrid are simply network topologies. The best topology for
LAN is Star topology.
2. A pseudo topology that combines a Star topology with either Ring or Bus
topology is known as ___________
a) Router
b) Hub
c) Ethernet
d) Switches
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hubs are used to connect segments of LAN. It is a common
connection point for devices present in a network. Star topology is usually
combined with Bus topology using Hub as the backbone of Bus topology. Router,
Ethernet and Switches are network components and can be introduced in
network topologies.
3. The Tree topology is employed in network using ________
a) Brouters
b) LAN
c) Switches
d) WAN
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Brouters are bridged routers that do the routing function at OSI
layer 2. Tree topology uses Brouters to get involved in a network. LAN is a
private network used by one organization whereas WAN is used in a large
geographical area. WAN is composed of multiple LANs. Switches are network
components.
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4. ________ topology is a combination of two or more topologies.
a) Star
b) Hybrid
c) Bus
d) Ring
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A Hybrid topology comprises of a mixture of Star, Mesh, Ring and
Bus topology. Hybrid topology finds its application in Wide Area Networks.
Connecting two similar network topologies cannot be termed as Hybrid
topology. It is a highly reliable network.
5. The two types of LAN deployed are __________ and ___________
a) Mesh based, Bus based
b) Hybrid based, Star based
c) Bus based, Ring based
d) Ring based, Tree based
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Bus and Ring topology are the two types of network deployed in
LAN due to their many advantages over other network topologies. The Bus
topology is easy to install, it uses established standards and it requires fewer
media than other topologies. The Ring topology on the other hand is very easy
to troubleshoot as each device incorporates as a Repeater.
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6. Bus Architecture is implemented in LANs using ________
a) Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
b) Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
c) File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
d) Ethernet Protocol
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Ethernet is the most widely installed local area network (LAN)
technology. Ethernet is a link layer protocol in the TCP/IP stack. It describes how
network devices can format data to other devices on the same network
segment. The protocols ARP, HTTP and FTP are network protocols and have
different applications.
7. Token Ring and FDDI configurations use the _________ topology.
a) ring
b) star
c) mesh
d) bus
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: FDDI is used for combining the Token Ring, Fast Ethernet and Fiber
Optic Cable. Thus FDDI acts as a network backbone for connecting LANs to
create MANs and WANs. FDDI uses dual-ring topology for this purpose instead of
other network topologies.
8. Which protocol is most frequently used in Star topology?
a) Modem
b) Cable
c) DSL
d) Ethernet
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In a star network a number of devices and actuators are connected
to a central hub. An advantage of Star topology is that data can be transferred
using a simple serial communication protocol. Thus Ethernet is the protocol that
makes this advantage possible.
9. Linear network topology is more expensive than other topologies.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Linear network topology such as Bus topology is not expensive
than other topologies. It requires less cable than Star topology. It is also easy to
install computers and other devices in Linear network topology.
10. The diagram given below represents ___________

a) Fully connected topology

b) Mesh topology
c) Star topology
d) Hybrid topology
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A hybrid topology is a type of network topology that combines two
or more different network topologies e.g. star, mesh, bus and star topology.
Hybrid topology helps is increasing the signal strength.

Computer Network Questions and Answers –

Network Topology – Set 3
This set of Computer Network Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Network Topology – Set 3”.

1. FDDI can cover a much larger geographical area than Token Ring on copper.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: FDDI is a standard developed for transmitting data on optical
fibers. It uses a dual ring configuration. Thus, FDDI can cover much larger
geographical area than Token Ring on copper. It also has high bandwidth.
2. WANs are configured using the ______ or the ______ topology.
a) Bus, Tree
b) Mesh, Ring
c) Ring, Hybrid
d) Mesh, Tree
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The topologies used for a WAN depends on its business
requirements, physical constraints and cost/benefit ratio. The commonly used
topologies for a WAN are hub-and-spoke, partial mesh, full mesh and ring.
3. FDDI stands for _________
a) Fiber Distributed Data Interface
b) First Digital Data Interface
c) Fast Data Distribution Index
d) Fiber Distributed Data Index
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Fiber Distributed Data Interface (FDDI) is a set of ANSI (American
National Standards Institute) protocols. FDDI acts as a backbone network for
WANs. It also provides high bandwidth for transmission of digital signal data
through optical fiber cable.
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4. Ethernet protocol is specified by __________
a) IEEE 802.2 standard
b) IEEE 802.3 standard
c) IEEE 802.5 standard
d) IEEE 802.11 standard
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: IEEE 802.3 standard is for bus networks. IEEE 802.3 standard
defines the MAC layer and Physical layer of the Ethernet. Hence it forms the
foundation for specification of Ethernet protocol. IEEE 802.2 standard is used for
specifying logical link control above the Data Link Layer of the OSI model. IEEE
802.5 standard is used for Token-ring topology. IEEE 802.11 specifies the set of
protocols for implementing Wireless LAN (WLAN).
5. WAN differs from LAN in that it links networks that are geographically
separated by a short distance.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: WAN differs from LAN in that it links networks that are
geographically separated by a long distance. Typically, the WAN link connects
nodes made up of switches, bridges and routers.
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6. The Tree structure starts with a ______ node.
a) Prime
b) Chief
c) Beginner
d) Header
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A Tree Structure or topology is a hierarchical way of representation
of devices in a network. It comprises of a parent node and several child nodes.
These are branched out from the parent node. This parent node which forms the
origin of the structure is known as Header node.
7. In a Ring topology network, the data flows ________
a) in one direction only
b) away from the tokens on the ring
c) in several directions
d) in a direction where the computers in a network are fully functional
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A circular data path is created in a Ring topology. In this type of
topology, the data packets travel from one device to the next until they reach
their destination. Each device in this topology is connected to two other devices
but they are not interconnected. This is the reason for data to travel in a single
direction.
8. In a network topology, when a data signal is transmitted, there are chances
that this signal may bounce back to the device that has already carried the
signal. In order to avoid this, we must use _____ at the end.
a) cap
b) beret
c) end cap
d) terminator
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A terminator is a device attached to the end of a bus in a network
topology. The main objective of terminator is to absorb signals in order to avoid
the signal to reflect back. Signal reflections produce interference that causes
data loss.
9. Bridge is an example of a ________ device.
a) Peripheral
b) Network navigation
c) Storage
d) Central connecting
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Navigation devices are used within an active topology to move
data around a network. It is required for communication and interaction
between devices in a network. Thus, Bridge is a Network navigation device.
10. Mesh topology is highly reliable.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Mesh topology provides a redundant network as each node is
connected to every other node in the network. This feature makes it highly
reliable network topology compared to other topologies. If any device or link in
the network stops functioning, then there will be another path that will carry the
data signal.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

Multiplexing
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Multiplexing”.

1. The sharing of a medium and its link by two or more devices is called
_________
a) Fully duplexing
b) Multiplexing
c) Micropleixng
d) Duplexing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Multiplexing is a method using which one can send multiples
signals through a shared medium at the same time. This helps in using less
resources and thus saving the cost of sending messages.
2. Multiplexing is used in _______
a) Packet switching
b) Circuit switching
c) Data switching
d) Packet & Circuit switching
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Circuit switching is a switching method by which one can obtain a
physical path between end points. Circuit switching method is also called a
connection oriented network. Two nodes must be physically and logically
connected to each other to create a circuit switching network.
3. Which multiplexing technique used to transmit digital signals?
a) FDM
b) TDM
c) WDM
d) FDM & WDM
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: TDM abbreviation for Time Division Multiplexing is a method used
for digital signals. Whereas FDM and WDM abbreviation for Frequency Division
Multiplexing, and Wavelength Division Multiplexing, are used for analog signals.
TDM is used in applications like ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network) and
PSTN (Public Switched Telephone Network).
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4. If there are n signal sources of same data rate, then the TDM link has _______
slots.
a) n
b) n/2
c) n*2
d) 2n
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In TDM, the total unit of time is divided equally among all the signal
sources and each and every source has access to the complete channel
bandwidth during its allotted time slot. When the time slot of the source is not
active, it remains idle and waits for its slot to begin.
5. If link transmits 4000frames per second, and each slot has 8 bits, the
transmission rate of circuit this TDM is _________
a) 32kbps
b) 500bps
c) 500kbps
d) 32bps
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Transmission rate= frame rate * number of bits in a slot.
Given: Frame rate = 4000/sec and number of bits in slot = 8
Thus, Transmission rate = (4000 * 8) bps
= 32000bps
= 32kbps
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6. The state when dedicated signals are idle are called __________
a) Death period
b) Poison period
c) Silent period
d) Stop period
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are instances when connection between two endpoints has
been established, but no communication or transfer of messages occurs. This
period of time is called silent period. The silent period ends when either of the
two endpoints starts the communication.
7. Multiplexing provides _________
a) Efficiency
b) Privacy
c) Anti jamming
d) Both Efficiency & Privacy
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Multiplexing helps us to transfer our messages over a shared
channel. This brings up the issue of privacy and efficiency. Fortunately,
Multiplexing has high efficiency and high privacy when implemented because in
the implementation, the transport layer of the OSI network model handles the
function of multiplexing through interfaces called ports which provide the
required efficiency and privacy.
8. In TDM, the transmission rate of a multiplexed path is always _______ the sum
of the transmission rates of the signal sources.
a) Greater than
b) Lesser than
c) Equal to
d) Equal to or greater than
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In TDM the transmission rate provided by the path that is
multiplexed will always be greater than the sum of transmission rates of the
single sources. This happens because the transmission rate is provided to each
source only for a small period of time.
9. In TDM, slots are further divided into _________
a) Seconds
b) Frames
c) Packets
d) Bits
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: TDM is the abbreviation for Time division multiplexing. It is
technique for combining several low rate channels to a single high rate channel.
For a certain time slot, the several channels could use the maximum bandwidth.
Each channel is inactive for a period of time too. Some other multiplexing
techniques are Frequency division multiplexing and Phase division multiplexing.
 Computer Networks Questions & Answers –
Delays and Loss
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Delays and Loss”.

1. Which of the following delay is faced by the packet in travelling from one end
system to another?
a) Propagation delay
b) Queuing delay
c) Transmission delay
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When a packet has to travel from one end system to another, it
first faces the queuing delay when there are multiple packets which are to be
sent, then it faces the transmission delay to convert the packet into bits to be
transmitted, and then it faces the propagation delay to propagate the bits
through the physical medium.
2. For a 10Mbps Ethernet link, if the length of the packet is 32bits, the
transmission delay is ____________ (in microseconds)
a) 3.2
b) 32
c) 0.32
d) 320
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Transmission rate = length / transmission rate = 32/10 = 3.2
microseconds.
3. The time required to examine the packet’s header and determine where to
direct the packet is part of __________
a) Processing delay
b) Queuing delay
c) Transmission delay
d) Propagation delay
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Processing delay is induced at a router’s or other network
processor’s end in the path of the packet and is caused by the time taken by the
processor to examine the packet’s header to decide the further path of the
packet.
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4. Given L = number of bits in the packet, a = average rate and R =
transmission rate. The Traffic intensity in the network is given by ____________
a) La/R
b) LR/a
c) R/La
d) Ra/L
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Traffic Intensity = (Number of bits in packet * Average
Transmission rate)/Current Transmission rate.
5. In the transfer of file between server and client, if the transmission rates
along the path is 10Mbps, 20Mbps, 30Mbps, 40Mbps. The throughput is usually
___________
a) 20Mbps
b) 10Mbps
c) 40Mbps
d) 50Mbps
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The throughput is generally the transmission rate of bottleneck
link.
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6. If end to end delay is given by dend-end = N(dproc + dtrans + dprop) is a non
congested network. The number of routers between source and destination is?
a) N/2
b) N
c) N-1
d) 2N
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In the equation N (dproc + dtrans + dprop), N is the number of
checkpoints/stops that the packet makes as it reaches the destination. The
stops are made at each router and the final destination node. Now, since N =
number of routers + final node, then number of routers = N – final node. As we
know, there is only 1 final node in a path, thus, number of routers = N – 1.
Suppose, There is a path A->R1->R2->B for a packet where A is the source
node, B is the final node and R1 and R2 are routers. The total delay would be
given by N (dproc + dtrans + dprop) where N = 3, since the packet would stop
at R1, R2 and B. The number of routers here are 2, and (N – 1) is also 2.
7. The total nodal delay is given by ____________
a) dnodal = dproc – dqueue + dtrans + dprop
b) dnodal = dproc + dtrans – dqueue
c) dnodal = dproc + dqueue + dtrans + dprop
d) dnodal = dproc + dqueue – dtrans – dprop
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The total node-to-node delay, that is, nodal delay is the sum of all,
the processing delay, queuing delay, transmission delay and propagation delay.
Ideally, the nodal delay must be low as possible for a better Quality of Service of
the network.
8. In a network, If P is the only packet being transmitted and there was no
earlier transmission, which of the following delays could be zero?
a) Propagation delay
b) Queuing delay
c) Transmission delay
d) Processing delay
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Since there is no other packet to be transmitted, there is no need
for a queue. Therefore, the delay caused due to the queuing would be none i.e.
0.
9. Transmission delay does not depend on _____________
a) Packet length
b) Distance between the routers
c) Transmission rate
d) Bandwidth of medium
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Transmission delay = packet length / transmission rate. The
transmission rate depends upon the bandwidth of the medium.
10. Propagation delay depends on ___________
a) Packet length
b) Transmission rate
c) Distance between the routers
d) Speed of the CPU
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Propagation delay is caused when the packet is in its electric signal
form and is travelling through a medium (a wire or a electromagnetic wave).
Propagation delay is the time it takes a bit to propagate from one router to the
next. If the distance between the routers is increased, it will take longer time to
propagate, that is, there would be more propagation delay.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

STP Cables
This set of Computer Networks Questions and Answers focuses on “STP
(Shielded Twisted Pair) Cables”.

1. _____________ allows LAN users to share computer programs and data.

a) Communication server
b) Print server
c) File server
d) Network
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A file server allows LAN users to share computer programs and
data. It uses the File Transfer Protocol to provide this feature on ports 20 and
21. The file server works as a medium for the transfer.
2. With respect to physical media, STP cables stands for _________
a) Shielded Twisted Pair Cable
b) Spanning Tree Protocol Cable
c) Static Transport Protocol Cable
d) Shielded Two Power Cable
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For physical media, STP cable stands for Shielded twisted pair
cable. 100 Mbps is the max data capacity of STP cable and its default connector
is RJ45. It is popularly used in LANs due to its ease of maintenance and
installation.
3. A standalone program that has been modified to work on a LAN by including
concurrency controls such as file and record locking is an example of ___________
a) LAN intrinsic software
b) LAN aware software
c) Groupware
d) LAN ignorant software
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A standalone program that has been modified to work on a LAN by
including concurrency controls such as file and record locking is an example of
LAN intrinsic software. They are used to give better functionality of the program
and the applications working over it to the users of the LAN.
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4. The __________ portion of LAN management software restricts access, records
user activities and audit data, etc.
a) Configuration management
b) Security management
c) Performance management
d) Recovery management
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Security management portion of LAN management software
restricts access, records user activities, and audit data. It is responsible for
controlling access to the network based on predefined policy. The security
management ensures authentication, confidentiality, and integrity in the LAN.
5. What is the max length of the Shielded twisted pair cable?
a) 100 ft
b) 200 ft
c) 100 m
d) 200 m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The max the Shielded twisted pair cable is 100 meters. If the length
exceeds 100 meters, the loss of signals flowing through the cable would be
really high. Thus, STP cable is more suitable for smaller networks like LANs.
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6. What is the max data transfer rate of STP cables?
a) 10 Mbps
b) 100 Mbps
c) 1000 Mbps
d) 10000 Mbps
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 100 Mbps is the max data transfer rate that can be handled by STP
cables, and its default connector is RJ-45. 100 Mbps is a feasible data transfer
rate for small networks like LANs.
7. Which connector does the STP cable use?
a) BNC
b) RJ-11
c) RJ-45
d) RJ-69
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: RJ-45 is used for STP cable. 100 Mbps is the max data transfer rate
that can be handled by STP. RJ-45 is popularly used to connect to modern-day
routers, computer network cards, and other network devices.
8. What is the central device in star topology?
a) STP server
b) Hub/switch
c) PDC
d) Router
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In star topology, no computer is connected to another computer
directly but all the computers are connected to a central switch or hub. Every
message sent from a source computer goes through the switch or hub and the
switch or hub then forwards the message only to the intended destination
computer.
9. What is the max data transfer rate for optical fiber cable?
a) 10 Mbps
b) 100 Mbps
c) 1000 Mbps
d) 10000 Mbps
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Fiber channel speeds have been increasing over the years. 10000
Mbps is the max data transfer rate for optical fiber cables. It is said to be the
fastest among the other kinds of cables like STP cables and co-axial cables.
People are now using optical fiber cables instead of STP cables for LANs due to
their fast data transfer capability.
10. Which of the following architecture uses the CSMA/CD access method?
a) ARC net
b) Ethernet
c) Router
d) STP server
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Collision detection is not possible in Ethernet without extensions.
Collision detection techniques for multiple access like CSMA/CD are used to
detect collisions in the Ethernet architecture.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

Network Attacks
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Network Attacks”.

1. The attacker using a network of compromised devices is known as

_____________
a) Internet
b) Botnet
c) Telnet
d) D-net
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Botnet is a network of compromised devices used by the attacker
without the owner’s knowledge to perform unethical activities such as
spamming. The attacker usually uses the least secure devices to create the
botnet.
2. Which of the following is a form of DoS attack?
a) Vulnerability attack
b) Bandwidth flooding
c) Connection flooding
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In a DoS attack, the attacker won’t let the victims access the
network by using a certain method that ensures that an essential network
resource is unavailable to the victim. In vulnerability attack, the attacker
exploits any obvious vulnerable entity in the network to deny the victim access
into the network. In bandwidth flooding, the attacker floods the victim with a
huge flow of packets and uses up all the bandwidth. In connection flooding, the
attacker floods the victim network with a huge number of connections, so that,
no other machine can connect to it.
3. The DoS attack, in which the attacker establishes a large number of half-open
or fully open TCP connections at the target host is ________
a) Vulnerability attack
b) Bandwidth flooding
c) Connection flooding
d) UDP flooding
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In Vulnerability attack, the attacker exploits the vulnerable control
points of the network to deny access to the victims. In Bandwidth flooding, the
attacker intentionally uses up all the bandwidth by flooding the victim with a
deluge of packets and makes sure that the victim can’t use any bandwidth. In
UDP flooding, too many UDP packets are sent by the attacker to the victim at
random ports.
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4. The DoS attack, in which the attacker sends deluge of packets to the targeted
host is ________
a) Vulnerability attack
b) Bandwidth flooding
c) Connection flooding
d) UDP flooding
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In Bandwidth flooding, the attacker floods the victim machine with
a deluge of packets to make sure that no bandwidth is available. The victim then
cannot utilize the complete bandwidth to perform its operation.
5. Packet sniffers involve ____________
a) Active receiver
b) Passive receiver
c) Legal receiver
d) Partially-active receiver
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The function of packet sniffers is to just silently receive the packets
flowing in the channel. If they inject any packets into the channel, they might
alert the other users about the intrusion.
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6. Sniffers can be prevented by using _______________
a) Wired environment
b) WiFi
c) Ethernet LAN
d) Switched network
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Switches make sure that the packet is sent to the intended receiver
and no one else, thus preventing Sniffers to perform their function. Intelligent
switches are hence used preferably for the network.
7. Firewalls are often configured to block ___________
a) UDP traffic
b) TCP traffic
c) Sensitive traffic
d) Best-effort traffic
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: UDP is more vulnerable to attacks, so firewalls are often configured
to block suspicious UDP traffic.
8. In a network, If P is the only packet being transmitted and there was no
earlier transmission, which of the following delays could be zero?
a) Propagation delay
b) Queuing delay
c) Transmission delay
d) Processing delay
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Since there is no other packet to be transmitted, there is no need
for a queue. Therefore, the delay caused due to the queuing would be none i.e.
0.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

Physical Media
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Physical Media”.

1. Which of this is not a guided media?

a) Fiber optical cable
b) Coaxial cable
c) Wireless LAN
d) Copper wire
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Wireless LAN is unguided media.
2. UTP is commonly used in __________
a) DSL
b) FTTP
c) HTTP
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
3. Coaxial cable consists of _______ concentric copper conductors.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Coaxial cable has an inner conductor surrounded by a insulating
layer, which is surrounded by a conducting shield. Coaxial cable is used to carry
high frequency signals with low losses.
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4. Fiber optics posses following properties __________
a) Immune electromagnetic interference
b) Very less signal attenuation
c) Very hard to tap
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In fibre optics the transmission of information is in the form of light
or photons. Due to all above properties mentioned in options fibre optics can be
submerged in water and are used at more risk environments.
5. If an Optical Carrier is represented as OC-n, generally the link speed equals(in
Mbps) __________
a) n*39.8
b) n*51.8
c) 2n*51.8
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The base unit of transmission rates in optical fibre is 51.8 Mbits/s.
So an optical carrier represented as OC-n has n*51.8 Mbits/s transmission
speed. For eg. OC-3 has 3*51.8 Mbits/s speed.
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6. Terrestrial radio channels are broadly classifed into _____ groups.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The three types are those that operate over very short distance,
those that operate in local areas, those that operate in the wide area.
7. Radio channels are attractive medium because __________
a) Can penetrate walls
b) Connectivity can be given to mobile user
c) Can carry signals for long distance
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Radio channels can penetrate walls, can be used to provide
connectivity to mobile users and can also carry signals for long distances.
8. Geostationary satellites ___________
a) Are placed at a fixed point above the earth
b) Rotate the earth about a fixed axis
c) Rotate the earth about a varying axis
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: They are placed in orbit at 36,000km above Earth’s surface.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

Packet Switching & Circuit Switching
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Packet Switching & Circuit Switching”.

1. A local telephone network is an example of a _______ network.

a) Packet switched
b) Circuit switched
c) Bit switched
d) Line switched
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Circuit switching is connection oriented switching technique,
whereas in the case of packet switching, it is connectionless. Circuit switching is
implemented in the Physical layer, whereas packet switching is implemented in
the Network layer. Internet too is based on the concept of circuit switching.
2. Most packet switches use this principle ____________
a) Stop and wait
b) Store and forward
c) Store and wait
d) Stop and forward
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The packet switch will not transmit the first bit to outbound link
until it receives the entire packet. If the entire packet is not received and the
time-out period expires, the packet switch will inform the sender to resend the
part of packet or the entire packet based on the algorithm being used.
3. If there are N routers from source to destination, the total end to end delay in
sending packet P(L-> number of bits in the packet R-> transmission rate) is
equal to ______________
a) N
b) (N*L)/R
c) (2N*L)/R
d) L/R
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The equation to find the end to end delay when no. of bits,
transmission rate and no. of routers is given by (N*L)/R. The total end to end
delay, that is, nodal delay is the sum of all, the processing delay, queuing delay,
transmission delay and propagation delay.
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4. What are the Methods to move data through a network of links and switches?
a) Packet switching and Line switching
b) Circuit switching and Line switching
c) Line switching and bit switching
d) Packet switching and Circuit switching
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Packet switching and Circuit switching are two different types of
switching methods used to connect the multiple communicating devices with
one another. Packet switching is used in conventional LAN systems and circuit
switching is used in telephonic systems.
5. The required resources for communication between end systems are reserved
for the duration of the session between end systems in ________ method.
a) Packet switching
b) Circuit switching
c) Line switching
d) Frequency switching
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In circuit switching, a physical path between the sender and
receiver is established. This path is maintained until the connection is needed.
Circuit switching is implemented in the Physical layer and is used in telephonic
systems.
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6. As the resources are reserved between two communicating end systems in
circuit switching, ___________ is achieved.
a) authentication
b) guaranteed constant rate
c) reliability
d) store and forward
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Circuit switching is connection oriented and is always implemented
in the physical layer. Once a path is set, all transmission occurs through the
same path. It is used since the early times in telephonic systems.
7. In _________ systems, resources are allocated on demand.
a) packet switching
b) circuit switching
c) line switching
d) frequency switching
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In packet switching, the bits are received in out of order and need
to be assembled at the receiver end, whereas in the case of Circuit switching, all
the bits are received in order. All transmissions may not occur through the same
path in case of packet switching.
8. Which of the following is not an application layer service?
a) Network virtual terminal
b) File transfer, access, and management
c) Mail service
d) Error control
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Application layer is the topmost layer in the OSI model. Network
virtual terminal, mail service, file transfer, access and management are all
services of the application layer. It uses protocols like HTTP, FTP, and DNS etc.
to provide these services.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

Application Layer – 1
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Application Layer – 1”.

1. Which is not a application layer protocol?

a) HTTP
b) SMTP
c) FTP
d) TCP
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: TCP is transport layer protocol.
2. The packet of information at the application layer is called __________
a) Packet
b) Message
c) Segment
d) Frame
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For Application, Presentation and Session layers there is no data
format for message. Message is message as such in these three layers. But
when it comes to Transport, Network, Data and Physical layer they have data in
format of segments, packets, frames and bits respectively.
3. Which one of the following is an architecture paradigms?
a) Peer to peer
b) Client-server
c) HTTP
d) Both Peer-to-Peer & Client-Server
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: HTTP is a protocol.
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4. Application developer has permission to decide the following on transport
layer side
a) Transport layer protocol
b) Maximum buffer size
c) Both Transport layer protocol and Maximum buffer size
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Application layer provides the interface between applications and
the network. So application developer can decide what transport layer to use
and what should be its maximum buffer size.
5. Application layer offers _______ service.
a) End to end
b) Process to process
c) Both End to end and Process to process
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: End to End service is provided in the application layer. Whereas
process to process service is provided at the transport layer.
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6. E-mail is _________
a) Loss-tolerant application
b) Bandwidth-sensitive application
c) Elastic application
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Because it can work with available throughput.
7. Pick the odd one out.
a) File transfer
b) File download
c) E-mail
d) Interactive games
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: File transfer, File download and Email are services provided by the
application layer and there are message and data oriented.
8. Which of the following is an application layer service?
a) Network virtual terminal
b) File transfer, access, and management
c) Mail service
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The services provided by the application layer are network virtual
terminal, file transfer, access and management, mail services, directory
services, various file and data operations.
9. To deliver a message to the correct application program running on a host,
the _______ address must be consulted.
a) IP
b) MAC
c) Port
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: IP address lets you know where the network is located. Whereas
MAC address is a unique address for every device. Port address identifies a
process or service you want to carry on.
10. Which is a time-sensitive service?
a) File transfer
b) File download
c) E-mail
d) Internet telephony
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Internet telephony is Loss-tolerant other applications are not.
11. Transport services available to applications in one or another form _________
a) Reliable data transfer
b) Timing
c) Security
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The transport services that are provided to application are reliable
data transfer, security and timing. These are very important for proper end to
end services.
12. Electronic mail uses which Application layer protocol?
a) SMTP
b) HTTP
c) FTP
d) SIP
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Email uses various protocols like SMTP, IMAP and POP. The most
prominent one used in application layer is SMT

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

Application Layer – 2
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Application Layer – 2”.

1. The ____________ translates internet domain and host names to IP address.

a) domain name system
b) routing information protocol
c) network time protocol
d) internet relay chat
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Domain name system is the way the internet domain names are
stored and translated to IP addresses. The domain names systems matches the
name of website to ip addresses of the website.
2. Which one of the following allows a user at one site to establish a connection
to another site and then pass keystrokes from local host to remote host?
a) HTTP
b) FTP
c) Telnet
d) TCP
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Telnet is used for accessing remote computers. Using telnet a user
can access computer remotely. With Telnet, you can log on as a regular user
with whatever privileges you may have been granted to the specific application
and data on the computer.
3. Application layer protocol defines ____________
a) types of messages exchanged
b) message format, syntax and semantics
c) rules for when and how processes send and respond to messages
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Application layer deals with the user interface, what message is to
be sent or the message format, syntax and semantics. A user has access to
application layer for sending and receiving messages.
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4. Which one of the following protocol delivers/stores mail to reciever server?
a) simple mail transfer protocol
b) post office protocol
c) internet mail access protocol
d) hypertext transfer protocol
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: SMTP, abbreviation for Simple Mail Transfer Protocol is an
application layer protocol. A client who wishes to send a mail creates a TCP
connection to the SMTP server and then sends the mail across the connection.
5. The ASCII encoding of binary data is called
a) base 64 encoding
b) base 32 encoding
c) base 16 encoding
d) base 8 encoding
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Base64 is used commonly in a number of applications including
email via MIME, and storing complex data in XML. Problem with sending normal
binary data to a network is that bits can be misinterpreted by underlying
protocols, produce incorrect data at receiving node and that is why we use this
code.
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6. Which one of the following is an internet standard protocol for managing
devices on IP network?
a) dynamic host configuration protocol
b) simple network management protocol
c) internet message access protocol
d) media gateway protocol
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: SNMP is a set of protocols for network management and
monitoring. This protocol is included in the application layer. SNMP uses 7
protocol data units.
7. Which one of the following is not an application layer protocol?
a) media gateway protocol
b) dynamic host configuration protocol
c) resource reservation protocol
d) session initiation protocol
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Resource reservation protocol is used in transport layer. It is
designed to reserve resources across a network for quality of service using the
integrated services model.
8. Which protocol is a signaling communication protocol used for controlling
multimedia communication sessions?
a) session initiation protocol
b) session modelling protocol
c) session maintenance protocol
d) resource reservation protocol
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: SIP is a signaling protocol in which its function includes initiating,
maintaining and terminating real time sessions. SIP is used for signaling and
controlling multimedia sessions.
9. Which one of the following is not correct?
a) Application layer protocols are used by both source and destination devices
during a communication session
b) HTTP is a session layer protocol
c) TCP is an application layer protocol
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: HTTP is an application layer protocol. Whereas TCP is a transport
layer protocol.
10. When displaying a web page, the application layer uses the _____________
a) HTTP protocol
b) FTP protocol
c) SMTP protocol
d) TCP protocol
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: HTTP is abbreviation for hypertext transfer protocol. It is the
foundation of data communication for world wide web. This protocol decides
how the message is formatted and transmitted etc.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

HTTP
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “HTTP”.

1. The number of objects in a Web page which consists of 4 jpeg images and
HTML text is ________
a) 4
b) 1
c) 5
d) 7
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: 4 jpeg images + 1 base HTML file.
2. The default connection type used by HTTP is _________
a) Persistent
b) Non-persistent
c) Can be either persistent or non-persistent depending on connection request
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: By default the http connection is issued with persistent connection.
In persistent connection server leaves connection open after sending response.
As little as one RTT (Time for a small packet to travel from client to server and
back) is required for all referenced objects.
3. The time taken by a packet to travel from client to server and then back to
the client is called __________
a) STT
b) RTT
c) PTT
d) JTT
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: RTT stands for round-trip time.
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4. The HTTP request message is sent in _________ part of three-way handshake.
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In first step client sends a segment to establish a connection with
the server. In the second the step the client waits for the acknowledgement to
be received from the server. After receiving the acknowledgement, the client
sends actual data in the third step.
5. In the process of fetching a web page from a server the HTTP
request/response takes __________ RTTs.
a) 2
b) 1
c) 4
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: By default the http connection will be persistent connection. Hence
it will take only 1 RTT to fetch a webpage from a server.
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6. The first line of HTTP request message is called _____________
a) Request line
b) Header line
c) Status line
d) Entity line
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The line followed by request line are called header lines and status
line is the initial part of response message.
7. The values GET, POST, HEAD etc are specified in ____________ of HTTP
message
a) Request line
b) Header line
c) Status line
d) Entity body
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is specified in the method field of request line in the HTTP
request message.
8. The __________ method when used in the method field, leaves entity body
empty.
a) POST
b) SEND
c) GET
d) PUT
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are two methods which help to request a response from a
server. Those are GET and POST. In GET method, the client requests data from
server. In POST method the client submits data to be processed to the server.
9. The HTTP response message leaves out the requested object when
____________ method is used
a) GET
b) POST
c) HEAD
d) PUT
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: HEAD method is much faster than GET method. In HEAD method
much smaller amount of data is transferred. The HEAD method asks only for
information about a document and not for the document itself.
10. Find the oddly matched HTTP status codes
a) 200 OK
b) 400 Bad Request
c) 301 Moved permanently
d) 304 Not Found
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: 404 Not Found.
11. Which of the following is not correct?
a) Web cache doesnt has its own disk space
b) Web cache can act both like server and client
c) Web cache might reduce the response time
d) Web cache contains copies of recently requested objects
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Web cache or also known as HTTP cache is a temporary storage
where HTML pages and images are stored temporarily so that server lag could
be reduced.
12. The conditional GET mechanism
a) Imposes conditions on the objects to be requested
b) Limits the number of response from a server
c) Helps to keep a cache upto date
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The HTTP protocol requests the server of the website its trying to
access so that it can store its files, images etc. in cache memory. This request of
asking the server for a document considering a specific parameter is called
conditional GET Request.
13. Which of the following is present in both an HTTP request line and a status
line?
a) HTTP version number
b) URL
c) Method
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Status line is the the start line of an HTTP response. It contains the
information such as the protocol version, a status text, status code.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

HTTP & FTP
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “HTTP & FTP”.

1. Multiple objects can be sent over a TCP connection between client and server
in a persistent HTTP connection.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Persistent connections are kept active after completing transaction
so that multiple objects can be sent over the same TCP connection.
2. HTTP is ________ protocol.
a) application layer
b) transport layer
c) network layer
d) data link layer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: HTTP is an Application layer protocol used to define how messages
are formatted and transmitted through the World Wide Web.
3. In the network HTTP resources are located by
a) uniform resource identifier
b) unique resource locator
c) unique resource identifier
d) union resource locator
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Uniform Resource Identifier is a name and locator for the
resource to be located by the HTTP. The URLs and URNs are derived through the
identifier.
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4. HTTP client requests by establishing a __________ connection to a particular
port on the server.
a) user datagram protocol
b) transmission control protocol
c) border gateway protocol
d) domain host control protocol
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: HTTP clients perform requests using a TCP connection, because the
TCP connection provides a more reliable service. UDP is not a reliable protocol,
border gateway protocol is used on top of TCP, while domain host control
protocol is a network layer protocol.
5. In HTTP pipelining ________________
a) multiple HTTP requests are sent on a single TCP connection without waiting
for the corresponding responses
b) multiple HTTP requests can not be sent on a single TCP connection
c) multiple HTTP requests are sent in a queue on a single TCP connection
d) multiple HTTP requests are sent at random on a single TCP connection
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: HTTP pipelining helps the client make multiple requests without
having to waiting for each response, thus saving a lot of time and bandwidth for
the client.
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6. FTP server listens for connection on port number ____________
a) 20
b) 21
c) 22
d) 23
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Port 20 is used for FTP data. Port 22 is used for SSH remote login.
Port 23 is used for TELNET.
7. In FTP protocol, client contacts server using ____ as the transport protocol.
a) transmission control protocol
b) user datagram protocol
c) datagram congestion control protocol
d) stream control transmission protocol
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The clients use the Transmission Control Protocol for FTP as it’s
more reliable than UDP, DCCP, and SCTP, and reliability of file transfer is
required to be as high as possible for FTP.
8. In Active mode FTP, the client initiates both the control and data connections.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In Passive mode of FTP, the client initiates both data and control
connections, while in Active mode, the client initiates the control connection and
then the server initiates the data connection.
9. The File Transfer Protocol is built on ______________
a) data centric architecture
b) service oriented architecture
c) client server architecture
d) connection oriented architecture
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The FTP connection includes a Server and a Client which wish to
share files. The server can have multiple clients at the same time while the
client communicates with only one server at a time.
10. In File Transfer Protocol, data transfer cannot be done in ___________
a) stream mode
b) block mode
c) compressed mode
d) message mode
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In Stream mode, the data is transferred in a continuous stream. In
Block mode, data is transferred after being divided into smaller blocks. In
Compressed mode, data is transferred after being compressed using some
compression algorithm.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

FTP
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “FTP”.

1. Expansion of FTP is __________

a) Fine Transfer Protocol
b) File Transfer Protocol
c) First Transfer Protocol
d) Fast Transfer Protocol
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: File Transfer Protocol is an application layer protocol used to share
“files” between a server and a client. The protocol uses two separate ports for
data and control connections: port 20 for data and port 21 for control.
2. FTP is built on _____ architecture.
a) Client-server
b) P2P
c) Data centric
d) Service oriented
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An FTP connection includes a Server and a Client which wish to
share a number of data files. The server can transfer files with multiple clients at
the same time while the client communicates with only one server at a time.
3. FTP uses _________ parallel TCP connections to transfer a file.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Control connection using FTP port: 21, and data connection using
FTP port: 20. The FTP session is started or ended using port 21 and the actual
data i.e. files are sent through port 20.
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4. Identify the incorrect statement regarding FTP.
a) FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol
b) FTP uses two parallel TCP connections
c) FTP sends its control information in-band
d) FTP sends exactly one file over the data connection
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: FTP is out-of-band because the data connection is done separately
through port 20 and control connection is done separately through port 21.
5. If 5 files are transferred from server A to client B in the same session. The
number of TCP connections between A and B is _______
a) 5
b) 10
c) 2
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The client would first initiate the TCP control connection through
port 21. Then for every file transfer, a separate connection would be made
through port 20. Now, since we have five files to be transferred, 1 control
connection + 5 data connections = 6 total TCP connections.
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6. FTP server _____________
a) Maintains state information
b) Is stateless
c) Has single TCP connection for a file transfer
d) Has UDP connection for file transfer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: FTP server maintains state information of every control connection
to keep track of the active and inactive connections in the session. This helps
the server decide which connection to terminate, in case the connection is
inactive for too long.
7. The commands, from client to server, and replies, from server to client, are
sent across the control connection in ________ bit ASCII format.
a) 8
b) 7
c) 3
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: FTP was designed to transmit commands only in English characters
that are possible with just 7 bits in ASCII. Even the media has to be converted to
ASCII before transmission.
8. Find the FTP reply whose message is wrongly matched.
a) 331 – Username OK, password required
b) 425 – Can’t open data connection
c) 452 – Error writing file
d) 452 – Can’t open data connection
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The correct response code for the message “Can’t open data
connection” is 425. Response code 452 is sent usually when the connection is
suddenly closed.
9. The data transfer mode of FTP, in which all the fragmenting has to be done by
TCP is ________
a) Stream mode
b) Block mode
c) Compressed mode
d) Message mode
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Stream mode is the default mode of FTP, in which the TCP
transforms/fragments the data into segments, and then after the transmission is
completed, converts it back to stream of bytes.
10. The password is sent to the server using ________ command.
a) PASSWD
b) PASS
c) PASSWORD
d) PWORD
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The PASS command, preceded by the username, completes the
user’s identification for access control in an FTP session. Without the valid
password, the user won’t be able to initiate the FTP connection.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

SMTP – 1
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “SMTP – 1”.

1. When the mail server sends mail to other mail servers it becomes ____________
a) SMTP server
b) SMTP client
c) Peer
d) Master
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: SMTP clients are the entities that send mails to other mail servers.
The SMTP servers cannot send independent mails to other SMTP servers as an
SMTP server. There are no masters or peers in SMTP as it is based on the client-
server architecture.
2. If you have to send multimedia data over SMTP it has to be encoded into
_______
a) Binary
b) Signal
c) ASCII
d) Hash
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Since only 7-bit ASCII codes are transmitted through SMTP, it is
mandatory to convert binary multimedia data to 7-bit ASCII before it is sent
using SMTP.
3. Expansion of SMTP is ________
a) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
b) Simple Message Transfer Protocol
c) Simple Mail Transmission Protocol
d) Simple Message Transmission Protocol
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: SMTP or Simple Mail Transfer Protocol is an application layer
protocol used to transport e-mails over the Internet. Only 7-bit ASCII codes can
be sent using SMTP.
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4. In SMTP, the command to write receiver’s mail address is written with the
command _______
a) SEND TO
b) RCPT TO
c) MAIL TO
d) RCVR TO
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: RCPT TO command is followed by the recipient’s mail address to
specify where or to whom the mail is going to through the internet. If there is
more than one receiver, the command is repeated for each address continually.
5. The underlying Transport layer protocol used by SMTP is ________
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) Either TCP or UDP
d) IMAP
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: TCP is a reliable protocol, and Reliability is a mandatory
requirement in e-mail transmission using SMTP.
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6. Choose the statement which is wrong incase of SMTP?
a) It requires message to be in 7bit ASCII format
b) It is a pull protocol
c) It transfers files from one mail server to another mail server
d) SMTP is responsible for the transmission of the mail through the internet
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In SMTP, the sending mail server pushes the mail to receiving mail
server hence it is push protocol. In a pull protocol such as HTTP, the receiver
pulls the resource from the sending server.
7. Internet mail places each object in _________
a) Separate messages for each object
b) One message
c) Varies with number of objects
d) Multiple messages for each object
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It places all objects into one message as it wouldn’t be efficient
enough if there are different messages for each object. The objects include the
text and all the multimedia to be sent.
8. Typically the TCP port used by SMTP is _________
a) 25
b) 35
c) 50
d) 15
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The ports 15, 35 and 50 are all UDP ports and SMTP only uses TCP
port 25 for reliability.
9. A session may include ________
a) Zero or more SMTP transactions
b) Exactly one SMTP transactions
c) Always more than one SMTP transactions
d) Number of SMTP transactions cant be determined
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An SMTP session consists of SMTP transactions only even if no
transactions have been performed. But no transactions in the session might
mean that the session is inactive or is just initiated.
10. Which of the following is an example of user agents for e-mail?
a) Microsoft Outlook
b) Facebook
c) Google
d) Tumblr
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Among the options, only Microsoft Outlook is an e-mail agent.
Google is a search engine and Facebook, and Tumblr are social networking
platforms. Gmail and Alpine are some other examples of e-mail agent.
11. When the sender and the receiver of an email are on different systems, we
need only _________
a) One MTA
b) Two UAs
c) Two UAs and one MTA
d) Two UAs and two MTAs
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The sender’s User Agent (UA) submits the message to a Message
Transfer Agent (MTA). Then the MTA sends the message to another MTA i.e. a
mail relay. Then the receiver receives the message from the mail relay
whenever it is available.
12. User agent does not support this ___________
a) Composing messages
b) Reading messages
c) Replying messages
d) Routing messages
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The user agent is basically a software program that allows the user
to send, and receive e-mail messages. Routing of the message is done by the
Message Transfer Agent

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

SMTP – 2
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “SMTP – 2”.

1. Simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) utilizes _________ as the transport layer
protocol for electronic mail transfer.
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) DCCP
d) SCTP
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Since TCP is a reliable protocol, it’s more efficient to use TCP
protocol for e-mail transfer. TCP also provides more security than other
transport layer protocols.
2. SMTP connections secured by SSL are known as _____________
a) SMTPS
b) SSMTP
c) SNMP
d) STARTTLS
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: SSMTP is a simple mail transfer program to send mail from a local
PC to a mail host. SNMP is a network management protocol. STARTTLS
connections are secured by TLS.
3. SMTP uses which of the following TCP port?
a) 22
b) 23
c) 21
d) 25
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Port 21 is used for FTP control connection, port 22 is used by SSH,
and port 23 is used by TELNET.
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4. Which of the following protocol is not used to receive mail messages?
a) SMTP
b) Post Office Protocol (POP)
c) Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
d) FTP
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: FTP is used to share files. SMTP, POP and IMAP are the protocols
used to send and receive mails on the internet.
5. What is on-demand mail relay (ODMR)?
a) protocol for SMTP security
b) an SMTP extension
c) protocol for web pages
d) protocol for faster mail transfer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: ODMR is an extension to SMTP, in which mails are relayed to the
receivers after they are authenticated. It allows only the authorized receivers to
receive the mail.
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6. An email client needs to know the _________ of its initial SMTP server.
a) IP address
b) MAC address
c) URL
d) Name
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The client needs to know the IP of its initial SMTP server as it has to
send the mail first to that server and then the server forwards the mail ahead on
behalf of the user.
7. An SMTP session may not include _______
a) zero SMTP transaction
b) one SMTP transaction
c) more than one SMTP transaction
d) one HTTP transaction
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: An SMTP session can only include SMTP transactions regardless the
number. Any other protocol’s transaction is not included in an SMTP session.
8. SMTP defines _______
a) message transport
b) message encryption
c) message content
d) message password
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As the name suggests, Simple Mail Transfer Protocol is only
responsible for “how” the message is transferred i.e. Transport of the message.
Other protocols such as TCP are used to provide other services like encryption
for the messages.
9. Which one of the following is an SMTP server configured in such a way that
anyone on the internet can send e-mail through it?
a) open mail relay
b) wide mail reception
c) open mail reception
d) short mail reception
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Anyone can send an e-mail through an Open Mail Relay server so it
acted like a free relay for email agents to forward their mails through. Open Mail
Relays are now unpopular because they can be used by attackers to perform
man-in-the-middle attacks.
10. SMTP is not used to deliver messages to ______
a) user’s terminal
b) user’s mailbox
c) user’s word processor
d) user’s email client
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: SMTP can only be used to send messages to user’s terminal, email
client or mailbox. A stand-alone word processor cannot be connected to a
network, so it won’t be possible to deliver messages to it.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

DNS
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “DNS”.

1. The entire hostname has a maximum of ___________

a) 255 characters
b) 127 characters
c) 63 characters
d) 31 characters
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An entire hostname can have a maximum of 255 characters.
Although each label must be from 1 to 63 characters long. Host name is actually
a label that is given to a device in a network.
2. A DNS client is called _________
a) DNS updater
b) DNS resolver
c) DNS handler
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DNS client also known as DNS resolver also known as DNS lookup
helps to resolve DNS requests using an external DNS server.
3. Servers handle requests for other domains _______
a) directly
b) by contacting remote DNS server
c) it is not possible
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Whenever a request is received at server from other domains, it
handles this situation by contacting remote DNS server.
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4. DNS database contains _______
a) name server records
b) hostname-to-address records
c) hostname aliases
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Domain Name system not only deals with mapping IP addresses
with the hostname but also deals with exchange of information in the server.
5. If a server has no clue about where to find the address for a hostname then
_______
a) server asks to the root server
b) server asks to its adjcent server
c) request is not processed
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Root name servers are actually very important and critical as they
are the first step in translating human readable hostnames into IP addresses for
carrying out communication.
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6. Which one of the following allows client to update their DNS entry as their IP
address change?
a) dynamic DNS
b) mail transfer agent
c) authoritative name server
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Dynamic DNS or in short DDNS or DynDNS helps in automatically
updating a name server in the DNS. This does not require manual editing.
7. Wildcard domain names start with label _______
a) @
b) *
c) &
d) #
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A wildcard DNS record matches requests to a non existent domain
name. This wildcard DNS record is specified by using asterisk “*” as the starting
of a domain name.
8. The right to use a domain name is delegated by domain name registers which
are accredited by _______
a) internet architecture board
b) internet society
c) internet research task force
d) internet corporation for assigned names and numbers
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The ICANN (Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers)
deals with IP address space allocation, protocol identifier assignment, generic
and country code Top Level domain name system management (gTLD and
ccTLD).
9. The domain name system is maintained by _______
a) distributed database system
b) a single server
c) a single computer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A domain name system is maintained by a distributed database
system. It is a collection of multiple, logically interrelated databases distributed
over a computer network.
10. Which one of the following is not true?
a) multiple hostnames may correspond to a single IP address
b) a single hostname may correspond to many IP addresses
c) a single hostname may correspond to a single IP address
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It need not be that a single hostname will correspond to a ip
address. For example facebook.com and fb.com both correspond to same ip
address. So there can be multiple hostnames for a single ip address.
 Computer Networks Questions & Answers –
DHCP
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “DHCP”.

1. DHCP (dynamic host configuration protocol) provides __________ to the client.

a) IP address
b) MAC address
c) Url
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: We use DHCP to allow the hosts to acquire their ip addresses
dynamically which is better than visiting each and every host on the network
and configure all of this information manually.
2. DHCP is used for ________
a) IPv6
b) IPv4
c) Both IPv6 and IPv4
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: DHCP is used for both IPv4 and IPv6 addressing. With DHCP you get
to let the hosts know about the change dynamically, and hosts update their info
themselves.
3. The DHCP server _________
a) maintains a database of available IP addresses
b) maintains the information about client configuration parameters
c) grants a IP address when receives a request from a client
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Whenever a DHCP server gets a request from a client it responds
with a DHCP offer containing IP address being offered, network mask offered,
the amount of time that the client can use and keep it, the ip address of the
DHCP server making this offer.
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4. IP assigned for a client by DHCP server is
a) for a limited period
b) for an unlimited period
c) not time dependent
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The IP address offered to a client is only for a limited period of
time. There is actually a certain amount of time that the client can use and keep
this IP address.
5. DHCP uses UDP port _________ for sending data to the server.
a) 66
b) 67
c) 68
d) 69
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 67 is the UDP port number that is used as the destination port of a
server. Whereas UDP port number 68 is used by the client.
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6. The DHCP server can provide the _______ of the IP addresses.
a) dynamic allocation
b) automatic allocation
c) static allocation
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When a host acquires multiple offers of IP addresses from different
DHCP servers, the host will broadcast a dhcp request identifying the server
whose offer has been accepted.
7. DHCP client and servers on the same subnet communicate via _________
a) UDP broadcast
b) UDP unicast
c) TCP broadcast
d) TCP unicast
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DHCP actually employs a connectionless service, which is provided
by UDP, since TCP is connection oriented. It is implemented with two UDP port
numbers 67 and 68 for its operations.
8. After obtaining the IP address, to prevent the IP conflict the client may use
_________
a) internet relay chat
b) broader gateway protocol
c) address resolution protocol
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: ARP abbreviation for address resolution protocol is used for
mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses that are present in the local network.
9. What is DHCP snooping?
a) techniques applied to ensure the security of an existing DHCP infrastructure
b) encryption of the DHCP server requests
c) algorithm for DHCP
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DHCP snooping is a security feature that is used in OS of a network
in the layer 2. This technology prevents unauthorized DHCP servers offering IP
addresses to DHCP clients.
10. If DHCP snooping is configured on a LAN switch, then clients having specific
______ can access the network.
a) MAC address
b) IP address
c) Both MAC address and IP address
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The DHCP snooping is done to prevent unauthorized IP addresses
being offered by unauthorized servers. This features allows only specific mac
addresses and IP addresses to access the network.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

SSH
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “SSH”.

1. Secure shell (SSH) network protocol is used for __________

a) secure data communication
b) remote command-line login
c) remote command execution
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: SSH provides high encryption and security features while
communicating through a network. It is a cryptographic network protocol.
2. SSH can be used in only _____________
a) unix-like operating systems
b) windows
c) both unix-like and windows systems
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: SSH isn’t confined to a certain network or operating system. It can
be implemented over different networks and on different operating systems.
3. SSH uses ___________ to authenticate the remote computer.
a) public-key cryptography
b) private-key cryptography
c) any of public-key or private-key
d) both public-key & private-key
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Public encryption key is slower but more flexible. Every
cryptographic security system requires a private key for private access and a
public key for location.
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4. Which standard TCP port is assigned for contacting SSH servers?
a) port 21
b) port 22
c) port 23
d) port 24
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Port 22 is used for contacting ssh servers, used for file transfers
(scp, sftp) and also port forwarding.
5. Which one of the following protocol can be used for login to a shell on a
remote host except SSH?
a) telnet
b) rlogin
c) both telnet and rlogin
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: SSH is more secured then telnet and rlogin.
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6. Which one of the following is a file transfer protocol using SSH?
a) SCP
b) SFTP
c) Rsync
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: SCP (Secure copy protocol), SFTP (SSH File Transfer Protocol) and
Rsync all are file transfer protocols which are used by SSH.
7. SSH-2 does not contain ______________
a) transport layer
b) user authentication layer
c) physical layer
d) connection layer
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: SSH2 is a more secure, portable and efficient version of SSH that
includes SFTP, which is functionally similar to FTP, but is SSH2 encrypted.
8. Which one of the following feature was present in SSH protocol, version 1?
a) password changing
b) periodic replacement of session keys
c) support for public-key certificates
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All of the mentioned features are provided by SSH-2 and that SSH-1
only provide strong authentication and guarantee confidentiality.
9. SCP protocol is evolved from __________ over SSH.
a) RCP protocol
b) DHCP protocol
c) MGCP protocol
d) GCP protocol
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: RCP is the abbreviation for Rate Control Protocol is a congestion
control algorithm for fast user response times.
10. Which one of the following authentication method is used by SSH?
a) public-key
b) host based
c) password
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: SSH used public key authentication, Password authentication, Host
based authentication, keyboard authentication and authentication of servers.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

IPSecurity
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “IPSecurity”.

1. IPSec is designed to provide security at the _________

a) Transport layer
b) Network layer
c) Application layer
d) Session layer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: IPSec is a set of protocols used to provide authentication, data
integrity and confidentiality between two machines in an IP network. In the
TCP/IP model, it provides security at the IP layer i.e. the network layer.
2. In tunnel mode, IPSec protects the ______
a) Entire IP packet
b) IP header
c) IP payload
d) IP trailer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In the tunnel mode, IPSec adds control bits into the packets to
encrypt the entire packet between the IPSec endpoints. Using encryption, it
provides secure communication between the two endpoints.
3. Which component is included in IP security?
a) Authentication Header (AH)
b) Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
c) Internet key Exchange (IKE)
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: AH ensures that there is no retransmission of data from an
unauthorized source, and protects against data tampering. ESP provides with
content protection and ensures that there is integrity and confidentiality for the
message. IKE is used to make sure that only the intended sender and receiver
can access the message.
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4. WPA2 is used for security in _______
a) Ethernet
b) Bluetooth
c) Wi-Fi
d) Email
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: WPA2 or WiFi Protected Access 2 is a security protocol used to
provide users and firms with strong data security and protection for their
wireless networks (WiFi) to give them confidence that only authorized users can
access their network.
5. An attempt to make a computer resource unavailable to its intended users is
called ______
a) Denial-of-service attack
b) Virus attack
c) Worms attack
d) Botnet process
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a Denial of Service attack, the attacker won’t let the victims
access the network by using a certain method that ensures that an essential
network resource is unavailable to the victim. The methods that the attacker
can use are vulnerability attack, bandwidth flooding and connection flooding.
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6. Extensible authentication protocol is authentication framework frequently
used in ______
a) Wired personal area network
b) Wireless networks
c) Wired local area network
d) Wired metropolitan area network
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) is an authentication
protocol used to connect a network node to the Internet. It designed through
extending the methods used by the Point-to-Point Protocol for authentication.
7. Pretty good privacy (PGP) is used in ______
a) Browser security
b) Email security
c) FTP security
d) WiFi security
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: PGP is an encryption method used in e-mail security to encrypt and
decrypt the content of an e-mail transmitted over the internet. It makes sure
that the message cannot be stolen by other unauthorized users.
8. PGP encrypts data by using a block cipher called ______
a) International data encryption algorithm
b) Private data encryption algorithm
c) Internet data encryption algorithm
d) Local data encryption algorithm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The IDEA was designed in 1991 by Xuejia Lai and James Massey.
Before IDEA, PGP used the cipher method BassOmatic.
9. When a DNS server accepts and uses incorrect information from a host that
has no authority giving that information, then it is called _________
a) DNS lookup
b) DNS hijacking
c) DNS spoofing
d) DNS authorizing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In DNS spoofing, also known as DNS cache poisoning, an attacker
gets the valid credentials from a victim by spoofing the intended resource, and
tricking the victim to give his/her valid authorization credentials.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

Virtual Private Networks
This set of Computer Networks Questions and Answers focuses on “Virtual
Private Networks”.

1. A ___________ is an extension of an enterprise’s private intranet across a

public network such as the internet, creating a secure private connection.
a) VNP
b) VPN
c) VSN
d) VSPN
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: VPN provides enhanced security and online anonymity to users on
the internet. It is also used to unblock websites that are unavailable in certain
regions.
2. When were VPNs introduced into the commercial world?
a) Early 80’s
b) Late 80’s
c) Early 90’s
d) Late 90’s
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: VPNs were first introduced in the year 1996. Then as the internet
started to get popularized, the need for connection security increased. VPN was
a great solution to this, and that’s when VPNs were implemented in the
commercial world.
3. What protocol is NOT used in the operation of a VPN?
a) PPTP
b) IPsec
c) YMUM
d) L2TP
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: PPTP is a tunneling protocol which was initially used for the
creation of VPNs. IPSec is used in encrypting the traffic flowing in the VPN. L2TP
is used to tunnel all the L2 traffic on the VPN.
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4. Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning VPNs?
a) Financially rewarding compared to leased lines
b) Allows remote workers to access corporate data
c) Allows LAN-to-LAN connectivity over public networks
d) Is the backbone of the Internet
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: VPNs are not the backbone of the Internet as they are just a
method to create private intranets on the internet. They are used for enhancing
the connection security for the users.
5. Traffic in a VPN is NOT ____________
a) Invisible from public networks
b) Logically separated from other traffic
c) Accessible from unauthorized public networks
d) Restricted to a single protocol in IPsec
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Traffic in a VPN is not accessible from any unauthorized public
networks because it is secured with the masking IP address. This provides the
benefit of access to blocked resources to the users.
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6. VPNs are financially speaking __________
a) Always more expensive than leased lines
b) Always cheaper than leased lines
c) Usually cheaper than leased lines
d) Usually more expensive than leased lines
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The services of a VPN are cheaper for moderate to large scale
institutional networks than the services of leased lines. Though for a small scale
network, it does not prove to be as beneficial as the costs are not reduced to a
great degree as compared to leased lines.
7. Which layer 3 protocols can be transmitted over an L2TP VPN?
a) Only IP
b) Only IPX
c) Only ICMP
d) IP and IPX
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: L2TP stands for Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol. It is used to tunnel all
the L2 traffic on an IP network and is able to transmit network layer’s IP and IPX
protocol data.
8. ESP (Encapsulating Security Protocol) is defined in which of the following
standards?
a) IPsec
b) PPTP
c) PPP
d) L2TP
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: ESP is a security component of IPSec. ESP provides content
protection and ensures that there is integrity and confidentiality of the message.
The other security components of IPSec are Authentication Header and Internet
Key Exchange.
9. L2F was developed by which company?
a) Microsoft
b) Cisco
c) Blizzard Entertainment
d) IETF
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: L2F stands for Layer 2 Forwarding protocol. It was designed by
Cisco to tunnel PPP traffic, helping create VPNs over the internet.
10. Which layer of the OSI reference model does PPTP work at?
a) Layer 1
b) Layer 2
c) Layer 3
d) Layer 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: PPTP stands for Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol. PPTP is a
tunneling protocol that was primitively used to create VPNs. It is no longer used
for VPNs due to the lack of security it provides.
11. Which layer of the OSI reference model does IPsec work at?
a) Layer 1
b) Layer 2
c) Layer 3
d) Layer 4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: IPSec is a set of protocols used to provide authentication, data
integrity and confidentiality between two machines in an IP network. It operates
in the network layer.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

SMI
This set of Computer Networks Questions and Answers for Freshers focuses on
“SMI”.
1. Storage management comprises of _______________
a) SAN Management
b) Data protection
c) Disk operation
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: SAN management, data protection and disk operation are the main
components of the Storage Management Initiative Specification. SMI-S was
developed by the Storage Networking Industry Association.
2. Which of the following is not a storage device?
a) Switch
b) RAID Arrays
c) Tape drives
d) Hub
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Switches, RAID arrays and tape drives are the main storage devices
in SMI-S, while a Hub is simple networking device that cannot be used as
storage.
3. Which protocols are used for Storage management?
a) SNMP
b) LDAP
c) POP3
d) MIB
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Simple Network Management Protocol is used for storage
management. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol is used to access or locate
information about directories and other resources on a network. Post Office
Protocol 3 is used for e-mailing on the internet. Management Information Base is
a part of SNMP and contains hierarchically organized information.
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4. Identify the difficulty a SAN administrator does not incur while dealing with
diverse vendors.
a) Proprietary management interfaces
b) Multiple applications to manage storage in the data center
c) No single view
d) Single view
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A single view is not possible with diverse vendors present.
Proprietary management interfaces, multiple applications management and no
single view are the main difficulties incurred by a SAN administrator in such a
situation.
5. How do Storage administrators ensure secure access to storage devices?
a) By using Zoning
b) By putting a physical lock on the storage device
c) By keeping devices shutdown when not in use
d) By keeping devices when used
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Zoning is a method in SAN that can be used by a storage
administrator to specify who can see what in the SAN. Zoning might complicate
the scaling process if the size of the SAN increases.
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6. Effective Storage management does not include __________
a) security
b) backups
c) reporting
d) connection
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Connection is the responsibility of the connection manager.
Storage management includes management of all necessities such as security,
backups and reporting facilities.
7. Among the following, identify which task is not involved in Storage Capacity
management?
a) Identifying storage systems are approaching full capacity
b) Monitoring trends for each resource
c) Tracking Total capacity, total used, total available
d) Preventing unauthorized access to the storage
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Prevention of unauthorized access to storage is the task of Security
management. Identifying when the storage is approaching full capacity,
monitoring trends, reporting and tracking capacity are the tasks of Storage
Capacity management.
8. Effect of open standards like SMI(s) is _______________
a) standardization drives software interoperability and interchange ability
b) breaks the old-style dependence on proprietary methods, trade secrets, and
single providers
c) builds a strong foundation on which others can quickly build and innovate
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Open standards like SMI-S inculcate a general ideal through which
the normal designers are able to easily implement the standard into their
software and its scalability. Since it is open-source, nothing is hidden from its
users and they can implement it as they like or require to. As a whole lot of time
is spent to build it as strong and scalable, it provides an efficient foundation to
the designers to build and innovate on.
9. Task of Distributed Management Task Force is not ________
a) to promote interoperability among the management solution providers
b) to act as an interface between the various budding technologies and provide
solution to manage various environments
c) to track the operation of the different management solution providers
d) to manage the facility by itself if one of the management solution providers
fail
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The Distributed Management Task Force is used just to simplify the
overall management of the network. It cannot manage a network facility by
itself in case one of the management solution providers fails. It provides an
interface for promoting interoperability among management solution providers.
10. SMI-S Standard uses which of the following?
a) Java RMI
b) CIM-XML/HTTP
c) CORBA
d) .NET
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Distributed Management Task Force maintains a Common
Information Model (CIM) to represent a common set of network objects and their
relationships. CIM-XML/HTTP refers to the operations of CIM being performed
over HTTP or XML. SMI-S uses CIM-XML/HTTP.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

SNMP
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “SNMP”.

1. The application-level protocol in which a few manager stations control a set of

agents is called ______
a) HTML
b) TCP
c) SNMP
d) SNMP/IP
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: SNMP stands for Simple Network Management Protocol. It is an
application-level protocol in which a few manager stations control a set of
agents. It is used under the TCP/IP protocol suite and is used for managing
devices on the internet.
2. Full duplex mode increases the capacity of each domain by ________
a) 10 to 20 mbps
b) 20 to 30 mbps
c) 30 to 40 mbps
d) 40 to 50 mbps
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In full duplex mode, both endpoints share a single channel
bandwidth to achieve two-way transmission. This results in complete utilization
of the band capacity increasing the capacity by 10 to 20 mbps than half-duplex
mode.
3. Configuration management can be divided into which two subsystems?
a) Reconfiguration and documentation
b) Management and configuration
c) Documentation and dialing up
d) Configuration and dialing up
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The best current practices report is created by a management
group to ensure the most effective configuration management. The group also
makes a MIB (Management Information Base) module to help with the
configuration management.
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4. To use a Simple Network Management System, we need _______
a) Servers
b) IP
c) Protocols
d) Rules
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Rules are a collection of expression containing parameters to
observe the attributes of the user’s device, and then execute some actions. It
specifies the parameters for the managed objects inside the application and
performs operations that would support the expression. The input of a rule may
be many expressions or even a single expression that end in an output of single
object invoking some action.
5. The main difference between SNMPv3 and SNMPv2 is _______
a) Management
b) Integration
c) Classification
d) Enhanced security
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: SNMPv3 has introduced new cryptographic security, through which
confidentiality is provided by encrypting packets and blocking intruders. It also
ensures that the message is coming from a reliable source.
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6. In Network Management System, the division that is responsible for
controlling access to network based on a predefined policy is called _________
a) Fault Management
b) Secured Management
c) Active Management
d) Security Management
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Security management is also responsible to provide confidentiality,
authentication and encryption in addition to controlling access to network.
Without security management, the network and its traffic would be vulnerable to
be exploited by attackers.
7. BER stands for ________
a) Basic Encoding Rules
b) Basic Encoding Resolver
c) Basic Encoding Rotator
d) Basic Encoding Router
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Basic Encoding Rules are a set of rules that specify the
guidelines to encode the SNMP messages in binary form. Each SNMP message is
encoded into 3 parts namely data, length and type of message.
8. Control of the users’ access to network resources through charges is the main
responsibility of ________
a) Reactive Fault Management
b) Reconfigured Fault Management
c) Accounting Management
d) Security Management
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The accounting management keeps track of the users and their
access rights to the network and controls the user’s access by communicating
with the security management. The accounting management takes support of
the Management Information Block to perform its operations.
9. SNMP is the framework for managing devices in an internet using the ______
a) TCP/IP protocol
b) UDP
c) SMTP
d) None
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: SNMP is a management protocol in which a few manager stations
control a set of agents using the TCP/IP protocol suite. SNMP stands for Simple
Network Management Protocol.
10. Structure of Management Information (SMI), is the guideline of ________
a) HTTP
b) SNMP
c) URL
d) MIB
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: SMI was developed by the Storage Networking Industry Association
(SNIA) and it defines a standard that can be manipulated by SNMP. Basically, it
defines the standard format and hierarchy of management data which is used
by the SNMP. It does not describe how the objects are to be managed.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

Telnet – 1
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Telnet – 1”.

1. The application layer protocol used by a Telnet application is ________

a) Telnet
b) FTP
c) HTTP
d) SMTP
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Telnet is an application layer protocol that provides access to the
command-line interface on a remote host. Telnet stands for teletype network.
2. Which amongst the following statements is correct for “character at a time”
mode?
a) Character processing is done on the local system under the control of the
remote system
b) Most text typed is immediately sent to the remote host for processing
c) All text is echoed locally, only completed lines are sent to the remote host
d) All text is processed locally, and only confirmed lines are sent to the remote
host
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In character at a time mode, the typed text is sent immediately to
the remote host while the user is typing. Another mode used in Telnet is “Old
line by line” mode in which only completed lines are sent to the remote host.
3. _______ allows you to connect and login to a remote computer
a) Telnet
b) FTP
c) HTTP
d) SMTP
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Telnet provides access to the command-line interface on a remote
computer. One can login to the computer from the command-line interface.
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4. What is the correct syntax to be written in the web browser to initiate a Telnet
connection to www.sanfoundry.com?
a) telnet//www.sanfoundry.com
b) telnet:www.sanfoundry.com
c) telnet://www.sanfoundry.com
d) telnet www.sanfoundry.com
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: telnet://” is the header to be used to initiate a Telnet connection to
a web server. One can browse the website using telnet if they are authorized to.
5. Telnet is used for _______
a) Television on net
b) Network of Telephones
c) Remote Login
d) Teleshopping site
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Telnet is an application layer protocol that provides access to the
command line interface of a remote computer that can be used to perform
remote login.
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6. Which one of the following is not correct?
a) telnet is a general purpose client-server program
b) telnet lets user access an application on a remote computer
c) telnet can also be used for file transfer
d) telnet can be used for remote login
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: File Transfer Protocol is used for file transfer. Telnet provides
access to the command-line interface on a remote host.
7. Which operating mode of telnet is full duplex?
a) default mode
b) server mode
c) line mode
d) character mode
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In line mode, terminal character processing is done on the client
side but editing is enabled on the server side. Line mode reduces the number of
packets and is useful for long delay networks.
8. If we want that a character be interpreted by the client instead of server
_________
a) interpret as command (IAC) escape character has to be used
b) control functions has to be disabled
c) it is not possible
d) cli character has to be used
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The client must look at each byte that arrives and look for IAC
escape character. If IAC is found, the client moves on to look for any other code
or IAC. If the next byte is IAC – a single byte is presented by the client to the
terminal. If IAC is followed by any other code than IAC, the client interprets this
as a command.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

Telnet – 2
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Telnet – 2”.

1. Telnet protocol is used to establish a connection to __________

a) TCP port number 21
b) TCP port number 22
c) TCP port number 23
d) TCP port number 25
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: TCP port 21 is used for FTP, TCP port 22 is used for SSH and TCP
port 25 is used for SMTP. Telnet provides access to a command line interface on
a remote computer using the TCP port number 23.
2. Which one of the following is not true?
a) telnet defines a network virtual terminal (NVT) standard
b) client programs interact with NVT
c) server translates NVT operations
d) client can transfer files using to remote server using NVT
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The client can use the NVT only to interact with the programs
already present on the remote server, not to transfer files to it. To transfer files,
an FTP connection has to be used.
3. All telnet operations are sent as ________
a) 4 bits
b) 8 bits
c) 16 bits
d) 32 bits
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Telnet provides a bi-directional, 8-bit byte oriented
communications facility through which operations are sent as 8-bit bytes for the
server to interpret.
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4. AbsoluteTelnet is a telnet client for _______ Operating system.
a) windows
b) linux
c) mac
d) ubuntu
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: AbsoluteTelnet was originally released in 1999. It was developed by
Brian Pence of Celestial Software.
5. The decimal code of Interpret as Command (IAC) character is _______
a) 252
b) 253
c) 254
d) 255
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: If we want that a character be interpreted by the client instead of
server, we use the IAC character. If IAC is followed by any other code than IAC,
the client interprets it as a character.
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6. Which of the following is true for character mode operation of telnet
implementation?
a) each character typed is sent by the client to the server
b) each character typed is discarded by the server
c) each character typed is aggregated into a word and then sent to the server
d) each character type is aggregated into a line and then sent to the server
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In character mode, each character that the user is typing is
immediately sent to the server which then interprets it only after the complete
operation command is received.
7. In which mode of telnet, the client echoes the character on the screen but
does not send it until a whole line is completed?
a) default mode
b) character mode
c) server mode
d) command mode
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In the default mode, the client does not send each character typed
by the user to the server, thus saving the amount of packet transmissions
required for executing each operation. But the server has to remain idle until
the client sends the completed line wasting a lot of time.
8. Which one of the following is not correct?
a) telnet is a general purpose client-server program
b) telnet lets user access an application on a remote computer
c) telnet can also be used for file transfer
d) telnet can be used for remote login
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: File Transfer Protocol is used for file transfer. Telnet provides
access to the command-line interface on a remote host.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

TCP-1
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “TCP-1”.

1. Which of the following is false with respect to TCP?

a) Connection-oriented
b) Process-to-process
c) Transport layer protocol
d) Unreliable
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: TCP is a transport layer protocol that provides reliable and ordered
delivery of a stream of bytes between hosts communicating via an IP network.
2. In TCP, sending and receiving data is done as _______
a) Stream of bytes
b) Sequence of characters
c) Lines of data
d) Packets
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: TCP provides stream oriented delivery between hosts
communicating via an IP network and there are no message boundaries. TCP
can concatenate data from a number of send () commands into one stream of
data and still transmit it reliably.
3. TCP process may not write and read data at the same speed. So we need
__________ for storage.
a) Packets
b) Buffers
c) Segments
d) Stacks
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A TCP receiver has a receive buffer that is used to store the
unprocessed incoming packets in case the sender is sending packets faster than
the processing rate of the received packets.
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4. TCP groups a number of bytes together into a packet called _______
a) Packet
b) Buffer
c) Segment
d) Stack
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A segment may be collection of data from many send ()
statements. TCP transmits each segment as a stream of bytes.
5. Communication offered by TCP is ________
a) Full-duplex
b) Half-duplex
c) Semi-duplex
d) Byte by byte
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Data can flow both the directions at the same time during a TCP
communication hence, it is full-duplex. This is the reason why TCP is used in
systems that require full-duplex operation such as e-mail systems.
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6. To achieve reliable transport in TCP, ___________ is used to check the safe and
sound arrival of data.
a) Packet
b) Buffer
c) Segment
d) Acknowledgment
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Acknowledgment mechanism is used to check the safe and sound
arrival of data. The sender actively checks for acknowledgement from the
receiver and once a specific time period has passed, it retransmits the data.
7. In segment header, sequence number and acknowledgement number fields
refer to _______
a) Byte number
b) Buffer number
c) Segment number
d) Acknowledgment
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As TCP has to ensure ordered delivery of packets, sequence
number and acknowledgement number are used to identify the byte number of
the packet in the stream of bytes being transmitted.
8. Suppose a TCP connection is transferring a file of 1000 bytes. The first byte is
numbered 10001. What is the sequence number of the segment if all data is
sent in only one segment?
a) 10000
b) 10001
c) 12001
d) 11001
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The sequence number given to first byte of a segment, with
respect to its order among the previous segments, is the sequence number of
that segment.
9. Bytes of data being transferred in each connection are numbered by TCP.
These numbers start with a _________
a) Fixed number
b) Random sequence of 0’s and 1’s
c) One
d) Sequence of zero’s and one’s
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: One might expect the sequence number of the first byte in the
stream to be 0, or 1. But that does not happen in TCP, Instead, the sender has to
choose an Initial Sequence Number (ISN), which is basically a random 32 bit
sequence of 0’s and 1’s, during the connection handshake.
10. The value of acknowledgement field in a segment defines _______
a) sequence number of the byte received previously
b) total number of bytes to receive
c) sequence number of the next byte to be received
d) sequence of zeros and ones
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The acknowledgement field in a segment defines the sequence
number of the byte which is to be received next i.e. sequence number of byte
that the sender should transmit next.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

TCP-2
This set of Computer Networks Interview Questions and Answers for freshers
focuses on “TCP – 2”.

1. The receiver of the data controls the amount of data that are to be sent by
the sender is referred to as ___________
a) Flow control
b) Error control
c) Congestion control
d) Error detection
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Flow control is done to prevent the receiver from being overflowed
with data. It is done using various open-loop (prevention) methods and closed-
loop (recovery) methods.
2. Size of TCP segment header ranges between ___________
a) 16 and 32 bytes
b) 16 and 32 bits
c) 20 and 60 bytes
d) 20 and 60 bits
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The size of the header can be 20 bytes at a minimum if there are
no options and can go up to 60 bytes at maximum with 40 bytes in the options
field. The header contains all the control information required to ensure ordered,
error-free and reliable delivery of the segment.
3. Connection establishment in TCP is done by which mechanism?
a) Flow control
b) Three-Way Handshaking
c) Forwarding
d) Synchronization
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A three-way handshake allows both, the server and the client to
choose their Initial Sequence Number and inform about it to the other party.
This won’t be possible using the two-way handshake mechanism.
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4. The server program tells its TCP that it is ready to accept a connection. This
process is called ___________
a) Active open
b) Active close
c) Passive close
d) Passive open
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: This is the first step in the Three-Way Handshaking process and is
started by the server. Then the Client picks an ISN (Initial Sequence Number)
and synchronizes (shares) it with the Server requesting a connection. The Server
acknowledges the clients ISN, and then picks an ISN and synchronizes it with the
Client. At last, the Client acknowledges the servers ISN.
5. A client that wishes to connect to an open server tells its TCP that it needs to
be connected to that particular server. The process is called ___________
a) Active open
b) Active close
c) Passive close
d) Passive open
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: This is the second step in the Three-Way Handshaking process and
is done by the client once it finds the open server and picks an ISN. The Server
acknowledges the clients request, and then picks an ISN and synchronizes it
with the Client. At last, the Client acknowledges the servers ISN.
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6. In Three-Way Handshaking process, the situation where both the TCP’s issue
an active open is ___________
a) Mutual open
b) Mutual Close
c) Simultaneous open
d) Simultaneous close
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In simultaneous open situation, two nodes send an SYN signal to
each other and start a TCP connection. Here, both TCP nodes transmit a
SYNC+ACK segment to each other and a connection is established between
them. This doesn’t happen usually, because both sides have to know which port
on the other side to send to.
7. A malicious attacker sends a large number of SYNC segments to a server,
pretending that each of them is coming from a different client by faking the
source IP address in the datagram. Which type of attack is being performed in
this situation?
a) SYNC flooding attack
b) Active attack
c) Passive attack
d) Denial-of-service attack
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: SYNC flooding attack is a form of Denial of Service attack. Due to
the overflow of SYNC segments sent to the server, the victims are not able to
request for a connection to the server, thus resulting in Denial of Service.
8. SYNC flooding attack belongs to a type of security attack known as
___________
a) SYNC flooding attack
b) Active attack
c) Passive attack
d) Denial-of-service attack
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: During SYNC flooding the system collapses and denies service to
every request, making it a DoS attack. Some other DoS attacks are bandwidth
flooding, connection flooding and UDP flooding.
9. The sizes of source and destination port address in TCP header are ___________
respectively.
a) 16-bits and 32-bits
b) 16-bits and 16-bits
c) 32-bits and 16-bits
d) 32-bits and 32-bits
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: All port addresses are of 16 bits and they specify the type of
service being used by the network entity. For example, port 21 is used for FTP
connections and port 25 is used for ICMP connections.
10. What allows TCP to detect lost segments and in turn recover from that loss?
a) Sequence number
b) Acknowledgment number
c) Checksum
d) Both Sequence & Acknowledgment number
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: TCP header contains separate fields for sequence number and
acknowledgment number. Comparing these values is what allows TCP to detect
lost segments and in turn recover from that loss. After detecting the lost
segments, the recovery may require retransmission of the lost segments of
data.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

UDP
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “UDP”.

1. Which of the following is false with respect to UDP?

a) Connection-oriented
b) Unreliable
c) Transport layer protocol
d) Low overhead
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: UDP is an unreliable, connectionless transport layer protocol that
provides message-based data transmission. TCP is an example of connection-
oriented protocols.
2. Return value of the UDP port “Chargen” is _______
a) String of characters
b) String of integers
c) Array of characters with integers
d) Array of zero’s and one’s
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Using Chargen with UDP on port 19, the server sends a UDP
datagram containing a random number of characters every time it receives a
datagram from the connecting host. The number of characters is between 0 and
512.
3. Beyond IP, UDP provides additional services such as _______
a) Routing and switching
b) Sending and receiving of packets
c) Multiplexing and demultiplexing
d) Demultiplexing and error checking
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: De-multiplexing is the delivering of received segments to the
correct application layer processes at the recipients end using UDP. Error
checking is done through checksum in UDP.
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4. What is the main advantage of UDP?
a) More overload
b) Reliable
c) Low overhead
d) Fast
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As UDP does not provide assurance of delivery of packet, reliability
and other services, the overhead taken to provide these services is reduced in
UDP’s operation. Thus, UDP provides low overhead, and higher speed.
5. Port number used by Network Time Protocol (NTP) with UDP is ________
a) 161
b) 123
c) 162
d) 124
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Network Time Protocol is a clock synchronization network
protocol implemented by using UDP port number 123 to send and receive time
stamps.
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6. What is the header size of a UDP packet?
a) 8 bytes
b) 8 bits
c) 16 bytes
d) 124 bytes
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The fixed size of the UDP packet header is 8 bytes. It contains four
two-byte fields: Source port address, Destination port address, Length of packet,
and checksum.
7. The port number is “ephemeral port number”, if the source host is _______
a) NTP
b) Echo
c) Server
d) Client
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Port numbers from 1025 to 5000 are used as ephemeral port
numbers in Windows Operating System. Ephemeral port numbers are short-lived
port numbers which can be used for clients in a UDP system where there are
temporary clients all the time.
8. “Total length” field in UDP packet header is the length of _________
a) Only UDP header
b) Only data
c) Only checksum
d) UDP header plus data
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Total length is the 16 bit field which contains the length of UDP
header and the data. The maximum value of the Total length field and the
maximum size of a UDP datagram is 65,535 bytes (8 byte header + 65,527
bytes of data).
9. Which is the correct expression for the length of UDP datagram?
a) UDP length = IP length – IP header’s length
b) UDP length = UDP length – UDP header’s length
c) UDP length = IP length + IP header’s length
d) UDP length = UDP length + UDP header’s length
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A user datagram is encapsulated in an IP datagram. There is a field
in the IP header that defines the total length of the IP packet. There is another
field in the IP header that defines the length of the header. So if we subtract the
length of the IP header that is encapsulated in the IP packet, we get the length
of UDP datagram.
10. The ______ field is used to detect errors over the entire user datagram.
a) udp header
b) checksum
c) source port
d) destination port
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Checksum field is used to detect errors over the entire user
datagram. Though it is not as efficient as CRC which is used in TCP, it gets the
job done for the UDP datagram as UDP doesn’t have to ensure the delivery of
the packet.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

Reliable Data Transfer
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Reliable Data Transfer”.

1. Which layer is more helpful in providing reliable data transmission service?

a) Transport layer
b) Datalink layer
c) Application layer
d) Network layer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Transport layer uses some protocols, such as UDP, TCP and SCTP to
accomplish reliability. UDP works well for real time data and has multiple ways
for packet transmission. SCTP and TCP also provide reliable services by
establishing connections and make use of their special features like error control
and flow control.
2. Which protocol works well over an inter network in case of reliability?
a) Hyper text transfer protocol
b) Real-time transport control protocol
c) User datagram protocol
d) Transport control protocol
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: TCP can work well because it is robust and helps the packets to be
delivered safely and quickly and it does not cause congestion. TCP was defined
in RFC 793 and it has improved in a way that it can adapt the attributes of
internet and deals with errors well.
3. Which transport layer protocols are reliable?
a) SCTP and HTTP
b) SMTP and HTTP
c) TCP and UDP
d) TCP and SCTP
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: TCP and SCTP are connection oriented protocols and they ensure
that there is no packet loss. Also, these protocols use different methods and
mechanisms such as flow control, error control, congestion control and
acknowledgments to achieve reliability.
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4. Which of the following mechanism is used by the TCP to guard the receiver
from data overwhelming?
a) Flow control
b) Error control
c) Sequencing
d) Acknowledgement
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Senders may send the data at a rate that can not be handled by a
receiver and may drench the receiver with load. In such scenarios, flow control
mechanism informs the receiver to decrease the rate at which it is sending. If
the rate is very slow, then the sender will be asked to increase the rate.
5. Which of the following protocol(s) supports uni-casting?
a) UDP
b) TCP
c) SCTP
d) UDP and TCP
View Answer
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6. Which of the following protocol is multi stream oriented?
a) UDP
b) TCP
c) SCTP
d) HTTP
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Stream control transmission protocol provides the facility to
transmit multiple streams for a single connection. That is, a single connection
can have multiple ways and block of one way(path) does not affect other
streams.
7. What is the sequence of phases in TCP connection?
a) Connection establishment – connection termination – data transfer
b) Connection establishment – data transfer – connection termination
c) Data transfer – connection establishment – connection termination
d) Data transfer – connection termination – connection establishment
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Primarily, the sender sends the request to a receiver in order to
establish a connection; if the receiver accepts the request, then the data
transfer takes place. After the transmission, connection is terminated.
8. Which of the following is not related to Transport control protocol?
a) Multi-casting
b) Connection-oriented service
c) Full duplex communication
d) Reliable service
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Multi-casting has more than one receiver host for a stream of data
that is sent by a process and it maintains a group. But TCP supports uni-casting,
in which one sender will have only one receiver. Broadcasting is also not
supported by TCP.
9. Which of the following is not a similarity between transport control protocol
and user datagram protocol?
a) Process-to-process protocol
b) Connection-oriented protocol
c) Does error checking
d) Uses port numbers
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The major difference between TCP and UDP is connection, UDP is
connection less protocol whereas TCP is connection oriented. UDP facilitates the
application’s process to send the datagrams without building a connection
between the two processes.
10. Reliability at the transport layer is between hosts.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Transport layer deals with processes that are running on different
hosts, hence reliability is achieved between processes. A single host can have
multiple processes running in it with different port numbers. Reliability between
hosts can be achieved by data link layer.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

AH and ESP Protocols
This set of Computer Networks Questions and Answers for Experienced people
focuses on “AH and ESP Protocols”.

1. Which mode of IPsec should you use to assure the security and confidentiality
of data within the same LAN?
a) AH transport mode
b) ESP transport mode
c) ESP tunnel mode
d) AH tunnel mode
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: ESP transport mode should be used to ensure the integrity and
confidentiality of data that is exchanged within the same LAN. ESP tunnel mode
is comparatively more secure and should be used to assure the security of the
data within different LANs.
2. Which two types of encryption protocols can be used to secure the
authentication of computers using IPsec?
a) Kerberos V5
b) SHA
c) MD5
d) Both SHA and MD5
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: SHA or MD5 can be used. Kerberos V5 is an authentication
protocol, not an encryption protocol; therefore, answer A is incorrect.
Certificates are a type of authentication that can be used with IPsec, not an
encryption protocol; therefore, answer B is incorrect.
3. Which two types of IPsec can be used to secure communications between two
LANs?
a) AH tunnel mode
b) ESP tunnel mode
c) Both AH tunnel mode and ESP tunnel mode
d) ESP transport mode
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The AH and ESP tunnel mode IPSec should be used for data
transfer purpose, option d is for integrity & confidentiality purpose. Tunnel mode
provides security for the entire original IP packet unlike transport mode which is
not as secure as it only encrypts the data portion and not the whole packet.
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4. ______ provides authentication at the IP level.
a) AH
b) ESP
c) PGP
d) SSL
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Authentication Header (AH) authenticates the origin of data,
and guarantees the integrity of the information that’s being sent using IPSec. It
also provides anti-reply security.
5. IPsec defines two protocols: _______ and ________
a) AH; SSL
b) PGP; ESP
c) AH; ESP
d) PGP; SSL
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: AH ensures that there is no retransmission of data from an
unauthorized source, and protects against data tampering. ESP provides with
content protection and ensures that there is integrity and confidentiality for the
message.
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6. IP Security operates in which layer of the OSI model?
a) Network
b) Transport
c) Application
d) Physical
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: IPSec is a set of protocols used to provide authentication, data
integrity and confidentiality between two machines in an IP network. In the
TCP/IP model, it provides security at the IP layer i.e. the network layer.
7. ESP does not provide ________
a) source authentication
b) data integrity
c) privacy
d) error control
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The ESP provides data confidentiality, integrity and authentication.
It provides confidentiality through encryption. ESP can operate in two modes,
transport mode and tunnel mode.
8. In computer security _______ means that computer system assets can be
modified only by authorized parities.
a) confidentiality
b) integrity
c) availability
d) authenticity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Integrity means that computer system assets can be modified only
by authorized parities. Confidentiality means that the assets can only be
accessed by authorized parties. Availability refers to the accessibility of the
resource to the authorized parties. Authenticity means that the asset is not
unethically changed.
9. In computer security _______ means that the information in a computer
system only be accessible for reading by authorized parities.
a) confidentiality
b) integrity
c) availability
d) authenticity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Confidentiality means that the assets can only be accessed by
authorized parties. Integrity means that computer system assets can be
modified only by authorized parities. Availability refers to the accessibility of the
resource to the authorized parties. Authenticity means that the asset is not
unethically changed.
10. Which of the following organizations is primarily concerned with military
encryption systems?
a) NSA
b) NIST
c) IEEE
d) ITU
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The NSA is primarily responsible for military encryption systems.
The NSA designs evaluates, and implements encryption systems for the military
and government agencies with high security needs.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

Congestion Control
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Congestion Control”.

1. Two broad categories of congestion control are

a) Open-loop and Closed-loop
b) Open-control and Closed-control
c) Active control and Passive control
d) Active loop and Passive loop
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Open loop congestion control techniques are used to prevent
congestion before it even happens by enforcing certain policies. Closed loop
congestion control techniques are used to treat congestion after it has
happened.
2. In open-loop control, policies are applied to __________
a) Remove after congestion occurs
b) Remove after sometime
c) Prevent before congestion occurs
d) Prevent before sending packets
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Open loop congestion control techniques are used to prevent
congestion before it even happens by enforcing certain policies. Retransmission
policy, window policy and acknowledgement policy are some policies that might
be enforced.
3. Retransmission of packets must not be done when _______
a) Packet is lost
b) Packet is corrupted
c) Packet is needed
d) Packet is error-free
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Retransmission refers to the sender having to resend the packet to
the receiver. It needs to be done only when some anomaly occurs with the
packet like when the packet is lost or corrupted.
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4. In Go-Back-N window, when the timer of the packet times out, several
packets have to be resent even some may have arrived safe. Whereas in
Selective Repeat window, the sender resends ___________
a) Packet which are not lost
b) Only those packets which are lost or corrupted
c) Packet from starting
d) All the packets
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In Selective Repeat, the sender side uses a searching algorithm to
find the packets which need to be retransmitted based on the negative
acknowledgements received and then resends only those packets thus saving
bandwidth.
5. Discarding policy is mainly done by _______
a) Sender
b) Receiver
c) Router
d) Switch
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The discarding policy adopted by the routers mainly states that the
routers discard sensitive or corrupted packets that it receives, thus controlling
the integrity of the packet flow. The discarding policy is adopted as an open loop
congestion control technique.
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6. Closed-Loop control mechanisms try to _________
a) Remove after congestion occurs
b) Remove after sometime
c) Prevent before congestion occurs
d) Prevent before sending packets
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In closed loop congestion control, methods are implemented to
remove congestion after it occurs. Some of the methods used are backpressure
and choke packet.
7. The technique in which a congested node stops receiving data from the
immediate upstream node or nodes is called as _______
a) Admission policy
b) Backpressure
c) Forward signaling
d) Backward signaling
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In this closed loop congestion control technique, the congested
node propagates in the opposite direction of the data flow to inform the
predecessor node to reduce the flow of packets. This is why this technique is
called a node-to-node congestion control technique.
8. Backpressure technique can be applied only to _______
a) Congestion networks
b) Closed circuit networks
c) Open circuit networks
d) Virtual circuit networks
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In Virtual circuit networks, each node knows the upstream node
from which a flow data is coming. So, it makes possible for the congested node
to track the source of the congestion and then inform that node to reduce the
flow to remove congestion.
9. The packet sent by a node to the source to inform it of congestion is called
_______
a) Explicit
b) Discard
c) Choke
d) Backpressure
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Choke packet is sent by a node to the source to inform it of
congestion. Two choke packet techniques can be used for the operation called
hop-by-hop choke packet and source choke packet.
10. In the slow-start algorithm, the size of the congestion window increases
__________ until it reaches a threshold.
a) exponentially
b) additively
c) multiplicatively
d) suddenly
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In slow-start algorithm, the size of the congestion window increases
exponentially until it reaches a threshold. When it reaches the threshold, it stops
increasing and continues sending packets through the threshold window thus
preventing congestion.
11. In the congestion avoidance algorithm, the size of the congestion window
increases ____________ until congestion is detected.
a) exponentially
b) additively
c) multiplicatively
d) suddenly
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In the congestion avoidance algorithm, the size of the congestion
window increases additively until congestion is detected. Once congestion is
detected, the size of congestion window is decreased once and then the packets
are transmitted to achieve congestion avoidance.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

Virtual Circuit
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Virtual Circuit”.

1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Virtual Circuit Network?

a) There are setup and teardown phases in addition to the data transfer phase
b) Resources can be allocated during setup phase or on demand
c) All packets follow the same path established during the connection
d) Virtual circuit network is implemented in application layer
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Virtual circuit network is normally implemented in data link layer. It
is a combination of circuit-switched network and datagram network which are
implemented in the physical layer and network layer respectively.
2. The address that is unique in the scope of the network or internationally if the
network is part of an international network is called as ______
a) Global address
b) Network address
c) Physical address
d) IP address
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Global address is a network address that is unique internationally
and is used as a common address by all the users of the network. It is used to
create a virtual circuit identifier.
3. The Identifier that is used for data transfer in virtual circuit network is called
_______
a) Global address
b) Virtual circuit identifier
c) Network identifier
d) IP identifier
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A virtual circuit identifier is a type of numeric identifying address
that is used to distinguish between different virtual circuits in a circuit-switched
network. It is used for data transfer and has a switch scope.
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4. Which of the following is not a phase of virtual circuit network?
a) Setup phase
b) Data transfer phase
c) Termination phase
d) Teardown phase
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are three phases in a virtual circuit network: setup, data
transfer and teardown phase. There is no termination phase in it.
5. Steps required in setup process are ___________
a) Setup request and acknowledgement
b) Setup request and setup response
c) Setup request and setup termination
d) Setup and termination steps
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Setup request (sent by a source) and acknowledgement (sent by
the destination) are the steps in the setup process. Both the ends’ switches
make table entries during the setup process.
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6. During teardown phase, the source, after sending all the frames to
destination, sends a _____ to notify termination.
a) teardown response
b) teardown request
c) termination request
d) termination response
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The source, after sending all the frames to destination sends
teardown request to which, destination sends teardown response. The switches
then delete the corresponding table entries.
7. Delay of the resource allocated during setup phase during data transfer is
________
a) constant
b) increases for each packet
c) same for each packet
d) different for each packet
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If a resource is allocated during setup phase, delay is same for
each packet as there is only one-time delay during the setup phase and no
delay during the data transfer phase.
8. Delay of the resource allocated on demand during data transfer is ________
a) constant
b) increases for each packet
c) same for each packet
d) different for each packet
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: If a resource is to be allocated on demand during the data transfer
phase, the delay for each packet would be different depending upon the
resource requirement of the packets.
9. In virtual circuit network, the number of delay times for setup and teardown
respectively are _______
a) 1 and 1
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 1
d) 2 and 2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There is one-time delay for both setup and teardown phase. The
one-time delay in setup phase is for resource allocation and the one-time delay
in teardown phase is for the de-allocation of the resources.
10. In data transfer phase, how many columns does the table contain?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The switch maintains a table for each Virtual Circuit Network. In the
data transfer phase, it maintains 2 columns each for incoming data and
outgoing data. The columns are in the following order: Source port, Source VCI,
Destination port, Destination VCI.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

ATM & Frame Relay
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “ATM & Frame Relay”.

1. ATM uses _______________

a) asynchronous frequency division multiplexing
b) asynchronous time division multiplexing
c) asynchronous space division multiplexing
d) asynchronous amplitude division multiplexing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: ATM uses a constant data stream consisting of transmission cells to
transmit information in a fixed division of time. The packet size remains fixed.
2. ATM standard defines _______ layers.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The three layers are physical layer, ATM layer and application
adoption layer. The physical layer corresponds to the physical layer, ATM layer
corresponds to the data link layer and the AAL layer corresponds to the network
layer of the OSI model.
3. ATM can be used for ________
a) local area network
b) wide area network
c) campus area network
d) networks covering any range
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: ATM is a connection oriented network for cell relay which can be
implemented for networks covering any area. It uses Time Division Multiplexing
and supports voice, video and data communications.
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4. An ATM cell has the payload field of __________
a) 32 bytes
b) 48 bytes
c) 64 bytes
d) 128 bytes
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An ATM field contains a header and a payload. The header is of 5
bytes and the payload is of 48 bytes. The size of the header remains fixed.
5. ATM and frame relay are ________
a) virtual circuit networks
b) datagram networks
c) virtual private networks
d) virtual public networks
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: ATM and frame relay are transmission modes in which information
is transferred through electric circuit layer as packets. ATM has fixed packet size
and frame relay has variable packet size.
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6. In ATM Networks, LCD stands for ____________
a) Local Coverage Determination
b) Loss of Cell Delineation
c) Logically Coded Decimal
d) Local Change Directory
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ATM has helped bring about the merger of computer and
telecommunication networks. The ATM Forum, an organization that specifies
standards for ATM implementation, has also provided a framework for network
management. The subject of ATM is full of acronyms. Therefore LCD in ATM
networks stands for ‘Loss of Cell Delineation’.
7. How is Permanent Virtual Circuit (PVC) established?
a) It can be established by transporting packets in the sequence in which they
were transmitted by the source along the same path for a given session
b) It can be established by grouping a number of virtual circuits between two
switches into a virtual path
c) It can be established when the connection is established for long periods of
time and not switched between sessions
d) It can be established on a per session basis or on a permanent basis between
a pair of end stations that carry large volumes of traffic
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The VP- VC can be established on a per session basis or on a
permanent basis between a pair of end stations that carry large volumes of
traffic. In the former ease, the circuit is established as and when needed and
torn down after the session is over. This is called the switched virtual circuit
(SVC). When the connection is established for long periods of time and not
switched between sessions, a permanent virtual circuit (PVC) is established.
8. A public network is the network that is established by the ___________
a) service provider
b) network manager
c) network agent
d) customer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There are two markets for ATM switches using ATM technology,
public and private. A public network is the network that is established by the
service provider. A private network is primarily a campus network.
9. The broadband network can transport only very low data rate signals.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The broadband network and the narrowband Integrated Services
Digital Network (ISDN) are multimedia networks that provide integrated analog
and digital services over the same network. The broadband network can
transport very high data rate signals.
10. Broadband network management consists of managing the ____________
using ATM technology.
a) LAN
b) MAN
c) WAN
d) PAN
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The broadband network can transport very high data rate signals. It
is a multimedia transportation networking. The computer network uses the
facilities of the telecommunication network fur transportation over WAN. Thus
Broadband network management consists of managing the WAN using ATM
technology.
11. In the ATM Network reference model, the public NMS, which manages the
public network, responds to the private NMS via the M2 interface.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ATM Forum has defined as management interface architecture,
ATM network reference model. There are five interfaces between systems and
networks, M1, M2, M3, M4 and M5. The public NMS, which manages the public
network, responds to the private NMS via the M3 interface with the relevant
information or takes the appropriate action requested.
12. The structure of management information is defined using the _________
syntax.
a) XML
b) ASN.1
c) JSON
d) Haskell
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The MIB and the structure of management of information that is
required for the management of the ATM network are specified between two
sets of documents defined by IETF and the ATM Forum. The structure of
management information is defined using the ASN.1 syntax.
13. The _____________ in service has contributed significantly to advances in
three network segments of WAN, access network and home/customer premises
equipment (CPE) network.
a) broadband network
b) lowband network
c) narrowband network
d) highband network
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The broadband network has several interpretations. One of the
chief characteristics of broadband service is the integration of voice, video, and
data services over the same transportation medium; in other words, it is
multimedia transportation networking. The broadband network and service have
contributed significantly to advances in three network segments of WAN, access
network. and home/customer premises equipment (CPE) network.
14. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) is non-scalable.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ATM has helped bring about the merger of computer and
telecommunication networks. The implementation of these concepts in a
network that is made up of ATM switches achieves high-speed network that can
transport all three services (voice, video, and data). The desired quality of
service is provided to individual streams (unlike the current Internet) at the
same time. Therefore, this network is also easily scalable.
15. ___________ is the interface between a public NMS and a public network.
a) M4
b) M1
c) M2
d) M5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The ATM Forum has defined as management interface architecture,
ATM network reference model. There are five interfaces between systems and
networks, M1, M2, M3, M4 and M5. Ml and M2 are, respectively, the interfaces
between private NMS and either end-user of private network. A private NMS can
access its own network-related information in a public network via an M3
interface to the public NMS. M4 is the interface between a public NMS and a
public network. M5 is the interface between NMSs of two service providers