63103240005* Test Pattern

2 Hindi + English

RNING PROGRAMME NEET(UG)

Topic : Work, Energy & Power, TEST
Circular# Motion,
05 Magnetic Effect of Current and Magnetism
Session : 2024 - 2025) 01-09-2024
अनुभाग - A (भौतिकी) SECTION - A (PHYSICS)
ERIES / JOINT PACKAGE COURSE
1.
g/Pass Students → 1. →
दिये गये सभी बंद पथों में ∮
→ dℓ
B. का मान बढ़ते हुए क्रम Rank the value of ∮
→ dℓ
B. for the closed paths
NIT TEST #में होगा
04 :- shown in figure from the smallest to largest :-
 52  
ages.  
t until you are asked to do so.


f this Test Booklet.
Important Instructions :

1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1 and
(1) a, b, c, d
Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen only. (1) a, b, c, d
 2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and this Test
(2) a, c, d, b
Booklet contains 200 questions. Each question carries 4

(2) a, c, d, b
marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4
   For
marks.  each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted
(3) a, d, c, b (3) a, d, c, b
from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
(4) a, c, b, d
3. In this Test Paper, each subject will consist of (4) a, c, b, d
two sections. Section A will consist of 35 questions
 (all questions are mandatory) ^ ^ ^ have

2. iand Section B will
यदि एक इलेक्ट्राॅन (2 + 3 ) के वेग से 4 के चुम्बकीय क्षेत्र
j
15 questions. Candidate can choose to attempt any
j 2. If an electron of velocity (2^i + 3^j ) is subjected to
 प्रवेश करता है तोः-
10 question out of these 15 questions. In case if
candidate attempts more than 10 questions, first
magnetic field of 4^j , then its : –
(a) वेग परिवर्तित होगा
10 attempted questions will be considered for marking. (a) velocity will change

4. In case of more than one option correct in any question,
(b) चाल परिवर्तित नहीं होगी
the best correct option will be considered as answer.
(b) speed does not change
 (c) पथ वृत्ताकार
5. Use Blue/Black होगा Pen only for writing
Ball Point (c) path must be circular
particulars on this page/marking responses.
(d) पथ हेलिक्स होगा (d) path must be helix

6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this
(1) a, b, d
purpose in the Test Booklet only. (2) उपरोक्त सभी (1) a, b, d (2) All
 
7.  
On completion of
the test, the candidate must
hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator
 
before (3) a, b, c (4) b, d
leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are
(3) a, b, c (4) b, d
allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

3. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही नहीं है?
8. Thecandidates
  should ensure that the Answer Sheet
3. Which of the following statement is not correct ?
चल कु ण्डली धारामापी की संवेदनशीलता तब बढ़ जाती है
is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the
 The sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer
Answer Sheet. Do not write your Form No. anywhere

else
exceptin the specified space in the Test Booklet/
जबः- increases when :-
Answer Sheet.
 (1) कु ण्डली में फे रों की संख्या बढ़ जाती है।
9. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on (1) The number of turns in the coil increases.
the Answer Sheet.
(2) कु ण्डली का क्षेत्रफल बढ़ जाए। (2) Area of the coil increases.

(3)version
uestion, English कु ण्डलीshall
में बेलनाकार नरम लोहे
be treated as को रखा
final. जाए। (3) A soft iron cylinder is placed in the coil.
(4) कु ण्ड़ली में धारा बढ़ जाए। (4) Current in the coil is increased.
4. एक चुम्बक का दोलन चुम्बकत्वमापी में आवर्तकाल 1.5 sec 4. The time period of oscillation of a magnet in
है। आकार, आकृ ति एवं द्रव्यमान में समान परन्तु एक चौथाई vibration magnetometer is 1.5 second. The time
period of oscillation of another magnet similar in
चुम्बकीय आघूर्ण वाले चुम्बक का आवर्तकाल समान स्थान
size, shape and mass but having one fourth
 पर होगा ::-
 magnetic moment at the same place will be :-
Invigilator’s Signature :
(1) 0.75 s (2) 1.5 s (3) 3.0 s (4) 6 s (1) 0.75 s (2) 1.5 s (3) 3.0 s (4) 6 s
d Rank in Pre-Medical 2025
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3 4 Hindi + English

5. The
11. magnetic moment
1 kg द्रव्यमान produced
के एक कण को 10 in2 m 1 रस्सी
gm की
√ of सहायता 11. A particle of mass 1 kg is suspended from a ceiling
–7 2
substance is 6 × 10
से चित्रानुसार लटकाया गया है। –कणmetre
ampere क्षैतिज. वृत्त
If itsमें गति कर through a string of length 10 2 m. The particle
√

3
density रहाisहै तो5gm/cm , then ज्ञात
उसका आवर्तकाल the करोintensity
:- of moves in a horizontal circle. Find its time period :-
magnetisation in A/m will be :
(1) 8.3 × 106 (2) 3.0
(3) 1.2 × 10 –7 (4) 3 × 10 –6
6. A force of (5 + 3x) N acts on a body of mass 20
kg along(1)the2x-axis
π sec and displaces(2)it from
π secx = 2 m (1) 2 π sec (2) π sec
to x = 6 m. The work done by the force is :-
(3) π sec (4) 1 sec (3) π sec (4) 1 sec
(1) 20 J 2 (2) 48 J 2
12. एक छोटे सिक्के एवं घूर्णन टेबल की सतह के मध्य स्थैतिक 12. The coefficient of static friction between a small
(3) 68 J (4) 86 J coin and the surface of a turntable is 0.30. The
घर्षण गुणांक 0.30 है। टेबल 2 rad s –1 से घूम रही है। टेबल
7. The displacement x of a body of mass 1 kg on turntable rotates at 2 rad s –1. What is maximum
के के न्द्र से अधिकतम कितनी दूरी पर सिक्का रखने पर वह
horizontal smooth surface as a function of time t is distance from the center of the turntable at which
फिसलता t4 नहीं है ? the coin will not slide ?
given by x = . The work done in first one sec. is :-
4
(1) 7.5 m (2) 1.5 m (1) 7.5 m (2) 1.5 m
(1) 1 J (2) 1 J
4 (3) 0.15 m 2 (4) 0.75 m (3) 0.15 m (4) 0.75 m
(3) 3 (4) 5चुम्बकीय
13. कथन
J :- धारावाही अल्पांश J क्षेत्र उत्पन्न करता है। 13. Assertion :- Current element produces magnetic field.
4 4
कारण :- धारावाही तार वैद्युत रूप से उदासीन होता है। Reason :- Current carrying wire is electrically neutral.
8. A drop of rain water of mass 2 g falling from a
height of(1)0.5कथन औरthe
km hits कारण दोनों सत्य
ground withहै,speed
और कारण,30 m/s.कथन की (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Then work done सही व्याख्या है। force of air is
by resistive Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Jकथन और कारण
(1) – 9.10 (2)दोनों सत्यJहै, परन्तु कारण, कथन
– 8.75 (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
की सही व्याख्या नहीं है। is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) +0.10 J (4) – 8.25 J
(3) कथन सत्य है परन्तु कारण असत्य है। (3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
9. A pump is used to deliver water at a certain rate
from a (4)
givenकथन pipe.असत्य है परन्तु 2कारण
To obtain timesसत्य है। in the
water (4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
14. time,
same कसावटthe के साथ लपेटीofहुई the
power एक वृत्तीय
pumpकुु ण्डली
has की to त्रिज्या
be 5 cm 14. A closely wounded circular coil of radius 5 cm
–4 produces a magnetic field of 37.68 × 10 –4T at its
made - है। यदि इसके कें द्र पर चुम्बकीय क्षेत्र 37.68 × 10 T हो तो
इसमें प्रवाहित धारा होगी :- center. The current through the coil is :-
(1) 2 times
(दिया है कु ण्डली में घेरों(2) 4 times
की संख्या = 100) (Given : No. of turn in the coil is 100)
(3) 8 times
(1) 1A (2) 2A (4) 16 (3) times3A (4) 4A (1) 1A (2) 2A (3) 3A (4) 4A
10. The
15. instantaneous angular
एक वृत्तीय कु ण्डली के केposition of aदूरीpoint
न्द्र से अक्षीय 5 cmonतथा a 20 cm 15. Magnetic fields at two points on the axis of a
3 2
rotating पर
wheel is given – 6t .
चुम्बकीय क्षेत्राेंbyकाthe equation
अनुपात 8 : 1θहै(t)तो=कु2tण्डली की त्रिज्या circular coil at a distance of 5 cm and 20 cm
The angular acceleration on the wheel becomes zero from the center are in the ratio 8 : 1. The radius
होगी :- of coil is :-
at the time :-
(1) t =(1)1 s 0.2 m (2) t =(2) 0.5 s10 cm (1) 0.2 m (2) 10 cm
(3) t =(3)
0.250.15
s m (4) t =(4)
2 s 1.0 m (3) 0.15 m (4) 1.0 m
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16. When
21. the
एक number
लम्बे सीधेofधारावाही
turn inतारa toroidal
में धारा I1coil is है इसे
प्रवाहित 21. A long straight wire carrying current I1 placed
made 3वृत्तीय
times,लूपthe value
जिसमें धाराofI2magnetic
तथा त्रिज्याfield
R है,will
के अक्ष के along axis of circular loop of radius R carrying
becomeअनुदिश
:- रखा गया है तो लूप पर चुम्बकीय बल होगा :- current I2 the magnetic force on circular loop is :-
(1) four(1)timeμ 0 I1 I2 (2) three μ 0 I1 I2
(2)times (1) μ 0 I1 I2 (2) μ 0 I1 I2
2πR R 2πR R
(3) nine times (4) two times
(3) μ 0 I1 I2 (4) शून्य (3) μ 0 I1 I2 (4) Zero
17. Two chargedπ Rparticles, having same kinetic πR
energy
22. यदि areप्रत्येक
allowed to pass
छड़ चुम्बक का through a uniform
चुम्बकीय आघूर्ण M हो तो निम्न 22. Magnetic moment of each bar magnet is M. Find
magneticका field
परिणामीperpendicular
चुम्बकीय आघूर्णto होगा
the :-direction of resultant magnetic moment of following :-
motion. If the ratio of radii of their circular path
is 6 : 5 and their respective masses ratio is 9 : 4
then, the ratio of their charges will be :-
(1) 8 : 5 (2) 5 : 4
(3) 5 : 3 (4) 8 : 7
18. A charged particle enters in a uniform magnetic
(1) certain
field with शून्य velocity
(2) 2 M at an (3)
√
angle of 3 M (4) M
45° with (1) Zero (2) 2 M (3) √ 3M (4) M
the
23.magnetic
एक घेरे field.
वाली The pitch ofवृत्तीय
एक समतल the helical
कु ण्डली path
का चुम्बकीय 23. Magnetic moment of plane circular coil of one
is P thenआघूर्ण
the radius
M है। ofयदिhelix
समानwill be : के तार से 4 घेरों वाली
लम्बाई turn is M. If same length wire is converted into a
कु ण्डली निर्मित की जाए तो चुम्बकीय आघूर्ण होगा :- coil of four turns then magnetic moment is :-
(1) P (2) 2P√

√ π M
2(1) (2) 4M (3) M (4) 16 M (1) M (2) 4M (3) M (4) 16 M
P 4 4
(3) (4) 2P √

A bar magnet having magnetic moment 3 × 10+4 J/T

24. 2 πएक छड़ चुम्बक जिसका चुम्बकीय
π आघूर्ण 3 × 10+4 J/T 24.
19. Find magnetic forceचुम्बकीय
है, को समरूप on ABCक्षेत्रpart × 10: –4T के अनुदिश
B =of6wire is placed along direction of uniform magnetic field
of magnitude B = 6 × 10 –4T. The work done in
रखा गया है। चुम्बक को चुम्बकीय क्षेत्र की दिशा से 60° से rotating the magnet slowly through 60° from the
धीरे-धीरे घूर्णित करने में किया गया कार्य होगा :- direction of field is :-
(1) 18√3J (2) 18 J (1) 18√3J (2) 18 J
(3) 9 J
(1) 2BIR (2) BIR(4) शून्य (3) 9 J (4) zero
25. 5BIR
(3) √30°C तापमान पर अनुचुम्बकीय
(4) 3BIR पदार्थ की चुम्बकीय प्रवृति 25. At a temp of 30°C the susceptibility of a
paramagnetic material is found to be x then its
20. x है तो:-333°C
Statement-I Currentपर इसकी चुम्बकीय
carrying wireप्रवृत्ति होगी :-
in external susceptibility at 333°C is :-
magnetic field may experience magnetic force.
(1) x :- Free
Statement-II (2) positive
0.5 x (3) ions2xin current(4) 11.1 x (1) x (2) 0.5 x (3) 2x (4) 11.1 x
carrying wire experiences magnetic force in
26. अभिलम्बवत्
external magnetic field.
दबाव बल 10 N (घर्षण गुणांक µk = 0.5) के 26. The work done by the frictional force on a
साथ नगण्य &द्रव्यमान surface in drawing a circle of radius 20 cm on
(1) Statement-I II bothकीcorrect
एक पेन्सिल द्वारा सतह पर 20 cm
the surface by a pencil of negligible mass with a
त्रिज्या
(2) Both का वृत्त खींचने
statements में घर्षण बल द्वारा सतह पर किया गया
are wrong normal pressing force 10 N (coefficient of
कार्य है - is correct
(3) Statement-I friction µk = 0.5) is -
(1) – 2 J is (2)
(4) Statement-II –5 J
correct (3) 2 J (4) शून्य (1) – 2 J (2) – 5 J (3) 2 J (4) Zero
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7 8 Hindi + English

27. 31. graph

The एक कणbetween = 2 kinetic
andक्षेत्रP Uis =(EK(x
स्थितिज Eऊर्जा
√
+ y2 + z2) के 31. A particle is moving in a potential energy region
energy and p = momentum) given by U = K(x2 + y2 + z2). The force acting
अन्तर्गत गतिमान है। कण पर लगने वाला बल होगा :-
on the particle is given by :-
^ ^ ^ ^
(1) −2K(xi + yj + zk) (1) −2K(xi^ + yj^ + zk)
(1) (2)
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
(2) K(xi + yj + zk) (2) K(xi + yj + zk)
K ^ ^ ^ K ^ ^
(3) (xi + yj + zk) (3) (xi + yj^ + zk)
2 2
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
(4) K(x2 i + y 2 j + z 2 k) (4) K(x2 i + y 2 j + z 2 k)
(3) (4)
32. जब एक व्यक्ति क्षैतिज सतह पर नियत वेग से चलता है तो 32. When a man walks on a horizontal surface with
किया गया कार्य : constant velocity, work done by :
28. (a)ofघर्षण
A particle massके 200
द्वाराgशून्य है। vertically upwards
is thrown (a) friction is zero
(b) सम्पर्क
with a speed of 10बलm/s. के द्वारा
Work शून्यdone
है। by the force of (b) contact force is zero
(c) गुरूत्वाकर्षण
gravity during the time the के द्वारा अशून्यgoes
particle है। up, is : (c) gravity is non zero
(1) 20 (1)
J a,(2)b – 20 J (3) 10 (2) J a,(4)c – 10 J (1) a, b (2) a, c
29. (3) b,the
In the figure c variation of potential
(4) के energy
वल c of a (3) b, c (4) only c
particle of mass m = 4kg is represented w.r.t. its
33. वृत्ताकारThe
x-coordinate. पथ particle
पर गतिमान त्वरितunder
moves कण the
P का स्पर्श रेखीय
effect 33. If tangential acceleration vector of a speeding up
^ ^
त्वरण 6i − 8j force
of this conservative मात्रक along
है तो कोण का मान होगा -
the θx-axis. particle P is 6i^ − 8j^ unit then find the angle θ

(1) 53° (2) 37° (3) 60° (4) 30° (1) 53° (2) 37° (3) 60° (4) 30°
34. कथन :- m द्रव्यमान का एक कण हल्की छड़ से जुड़ा है 34. Assertion :- If a particle of mass m is connected to a
तथा ℓ त्रिज्या के ऊर्ध्वाधर वृत्त में घुमाया जाता है। light rod and whirled in a vertical circle of radius ℓ ,
If the particle is released at the origin then :
ऊर्ध्वाधर वृत्तीय गति पूर्ण करने के लिए निम्नतम बिंदु पर then to complete the circle, the minimum velocity of
(1) it will
कण move towards
का न्यूनतम वेग positive
5g ℓ होनाx-axis.
√ चाहिए। the particle at the bottom point is 5g ℓ .
√

कारणmove
(2) it will :- कु लtowards
यांत्रिक negative
ऊर्जा संरक्षित होगी। निम्नतम बिंदु पर
x-axis. Reason :- Mechanical energy is conserved and in
न्यूनतम वेग देने पर उच्चतम बिंदु पर कण का वेग शून्य case of minimum velocity at the bottom point, the
(3) it will remain stationary at the origin.
होगा। velocity at the top point will be zero.
(4) its subsequent motion cannot be decided
(1) कथन और कारण दोनों सत्य है, और कारण, कथन की (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
due to lack of information.
सही व्याख्या है। Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
30. The average power required to lift a 200 kg mass
(2) कथन और कारण दोनों सत्य है परन्तु कारण, कथन की (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
through a height of 100 metres in 100 seconds
सही व्याख्या नहीं है। is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
would be :
(3) कथन सत्य है और कारण असत्य है। (3) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
(1) 1000 watt (2) 2000 watt
(4) कथन असत्य है और कारण सत्य है। (4) Assertion is false and Reason is true.
(3) 3000 watt (4) 500 watt
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35. An
38.object
दिए isगएmoving
चित्र में onएक aअर्ध-अनंत
circular track
तार के ofकारण
radius
बिन्दु O पर 38. Find the magnetic field at point O due to semi-
450 m. चुम्बकीय
At someक्षेत्रinstant, the object
ज्ञात कीजिए :- is moving at infinite wire shown in figure.
30 m/s and gaining speed at a uniform rate of
2 m/s2. Its acceleration at this instant is nearly :-
(1) 1.6 m/s2 (2) 0.8 m/s2
(3) 2.8 m/s2 (4) 3.4 m/s2
SECTION - B (PHYSICS)
36. q
A particle having charge to mass ratio, = k is
m
projected in a magnetic field B with a speed v = 2kBd
as shown in figure, where d is the width of the region
in which(1) 2 μfield
magnetic
√
0I is present. (1) √ 2 μ 0I
कागज के तल के बाहर Out of plane of paper
4πR 4πR

(2) √ 2 μ 0I (2) √ 2 μ 0I
कागज के तल के अन्दर Into the plane of paper
4πR 4πR
(√ 2 − 1) μ 0 I (√ 2 − 1) μ 0 I
(3) कागज के तल के बाहर (3) Out of plane of paper
4πR 4πR
Its deviation when it comes out from magnetic field
2 − 1 μ 0I
(√ ) (√ 2 − 1) μ 0 I
will be :-(4) (4)
कागज के तल के अन्दर Into the plane of paper
4πR 4πR
(1) π (2) π
39. 3 4 kg द्रव्यमान का एक ब्लाॅक 6 विराम से प्रारंभ होकर घर्षण 39. A block of 4 kg mass starts at rest and slides a
(3) π रहित नततल (कोण 30°) पर d दूरी
(4) None of theतकabove
फिसलने के बाद distance d down a frictionless incline (angle 30°)
2 एक नगण्य द्रव्यमान की स्प्रिंग से टकराता हैं। यदि ब्लाॅक where it runs into a spring of negligible mass. The
37. Equal currents
क्षणिक रूपareसेflowing
विराम मेंinआने
fourसेinfinitely
पहले स्प्रिंगlong
को संपीडि़त block slides an additional 25 cm before it is brought
wires. Distance between two wires is same
करके अतिरिक्त 25 cm और फिसलता है। स्प्रिंग के बल and to rest momentarily by compressing the spring. The
directions of currents
नियतांक का मान 400 Nm –1होin तोfigure.
are shown Match
d का मान क्या होगा :- force constant of the spring is 400 Nm –1. The
the following two
(g = 10 ms ) –2
columns. value of d is (take g = 10 ms –2)

(1) 25 cm (2) 37.5 cm (1) 25 cm (2) 37.5 cm

Column-I Column-II
(3) 62.5 cm (4) इनमें से कोई नहीं (3) 62.5 cm (4) None of these
(a) Force on wire-1 (p) Inwards
40. 1000 मीटर त्रिज्या का वृत्ताकार मार्ग जिसका क्षैतिज से 40. A circular road of radius 1000 m has banking
(b) Force
बंकन on कोणwire-2
45° है,(q)
इस परLeftwards
2000 किग्रा की एक कार मुड़ angle 45°.The maximum safe speed of a car
(c) Force
रही है।onइसwire-3
कार हेतु(r)अधिकतम
Rightwards
सुरक्षित चाल कितनी होगी having mass 2000 kg will be, if the coefficient of
यदि सड़क
(d) Force तथा टायरों
on wire-4 (s)के मध्य
Zeroघर्षण गुणांक 0.5 है friction between tyre and road is 0.5
(g = 10 m/s ) 2 (take g = 10 m/s2)
(1) a-q,(1)b-r,100
c-q, 3d-rm/s (2) a-r,(2)b-p,124
√
c-q,m/s
d-r (1) 100√3 m/s (2) 124 m/s
(3) a-q,(3)b-p,99c-q,
m/sd-p (4) a-p,(4)b-r,86c-p,
m/sd-r (3) 99 m/s (4) 86 m/s
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41. 44. magnetic

The जब एकinduction
प्रोटोन कोatकिसी
the centre
कमरे मेंOविराम
of theसे current
मुक्त किया जाता 44. When a proton is released from rest in a room it
carryingहैbent wire shown
तो इसका in the
प्रारम्भिक adjoining
त्वरण figure
a0 पश्चिम की isओर :- है। जब इसे starts with an initial acceleration a0 towards
west. When it is projected towards north with a
v0 चाल से उत्तर दिशा में प्रक्षेपित किया जाता है तो यह
speed v0 it moves with an initial acceleration 3a0
पश्चिम की ओर प्रारम्भिक त्वरण 3a0 से गति करता है। कमरे towards west. The electric and magnetic fields in
में वैद्युत एवं चुम्बकीय क्षेत्र हैं - the room are -
ma0 3ma ma0 3ma0
(1) पूर्व की ओर, ev 0 नीचे की ओर (1) East,
ev0
down
e 0 e
ma0 2ma0 ma0 2ma0
μ(2)
0I पश्चिम की(2)ओर, μ 0ev
I ऊपर की ओर (2) west, up
(1) α e 0α e ev0
4 π R1 4 π R2
ma0 2ma0 ma0 2ma0
μ 0 I(3)
α 1 पश्चिम
1 की ओर, μ 0 I α 1नीचे की1ओर (3) west, down
(3) ( e − ) (4) ev(0 + ) e ev0
4π R1 R2 4π R1 R2
(4) उपरोक्त सभी (4) All of the above
42. A long straight wire (radius = 3 mm) carries a
45. एक आवेशित कण जो वृत्तीय पथ में गतिमान है, को एक 45. A charge particle going around in a circle can be
constant current distributed uniformly over the cross
धारावाही लूप माना जा सकता है। एक कण जिसका द्रव्यमान considered to be a current loop. A particle of mass
section perpendicular to the axis of wire. If the
current m तथा आवेश
density is 100q A/m
है, चाल v से magnitude
2. The चुम्बकीय क्षेत्रofBthe
के प्रभाव में m carrying charge q is moving in a circle with
वृत्तीय गति करता है तो इस गतिमान कण का चुम्बकीय speed v under the influence of magnetic field B.
magnetic field at 2 mm from the axis of the wire is :-
आघूर्ण होगा :- The magnetic moment of this moving particle is :-
(1) 2 π × 10 –8 2T (2) 2 4 π × 10 –8 2T
(1) –4 mv (2) mv (3) mv (4) mvB (1) mv2 (2) mv2 (3) mv2 (4) mvB
(3) π × 10 2BT (4)
2 π BNone of these
B 2 2B 2πB B 2
46. विराम से प्रारम्भ होने वाली एक 5 kg की वस्तु पर के वल 46. Starting at rest, a 5kg object is acted upon by
43. Figure A and B shows two long straight wire
एक बल चित्रानुसार लगता है। बल द्वारा किया गया कु ल कार्य only one force as indicated in figure. Then the
having radius of circular cross-section a and b
ज्ञात करो। total work done by the force is :
(with a < b), carrying current I which is
uniformly distributed across the cross-section.
The magnitude of magnetic field B varies with
distance r and can be represented as :-

(1) 1000 J (2) 500 J (1) 1000 J (2) 500 J

(3) 250 J (4) 2000 J (3) 250 J (4) 2000 J
47. क्षैतिज से 30° कोण पर झुके चिकने नत तल पर 40 kN भार 47. The work done in slowly pulling up a block of
(1) (2) wood weighing 40 kN for a length of 5m on a
के लकड़ी के एक ब्लाॅक को नततल के समान्तर बल लगाकर
smooth plane inclined at an angle of 30° with the
5m धीरे धीरे ऊपर खींचने में किया गया कार्य है : horizontal by a force parallel to the incline is :
(3) (1) 40 kJ (4) (2) 50 kJ (1) 40 kJ (2) 50 kJ
(3) 200 kJ (4) 100 kJ (3) 200 kJ (4) 100 kJ
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48. ATopic
block: of
Solution, Electrochemistry
mass 4kg is attached to two unstretched
springs of spring constants
अनुभाग - kA1 =(रसायनशास्त्र)
40 N/cm and SECTION - A (CHEMISTRY)
k2 = 60 N/cm as shown in figure. The block is
51. समान विद्युत धारा गलित NaCl और गलित Al O में 51. Same quantity of current is passed through
displaced towards right through a distance 2cm 2 3
प्रवाहित की जाती है। यदि एक सेल में 4.6 ग्राम Na एकत्र molten NaCl and molten Al2O3. If 4.6 g of Na
and released. Find the speed of the block as it
होता है तो दूसरे सेल में एकत्र होने वाली Al की मात्रा was deposited in one cell, the mass of Al
passes through the mean position.
होगी :- deposited in other cell is :-
(1) 0.9 g (2) 1.8 g (1) 0.9 g (2) 1.8 g
(3) 2.7 g (4) 3.6 g (3) 2.7 g (4) 3.6 g
52. 4 m/s
(1) विद्युत रासायनिक अभिक्रिया
(2) 2 m/s 52. In the electrochemical reaction
2Fe + Zn → Zn+2 + 2Fe+2 में
+3 2Fe+3 + Zn → Zn+2 + 2Fe+2
(3) 1 m/s+2 (4) 10 m/s
Fe की सांद्रता को बढ़ाने पर :- increasing the concentration of Fe+2 :-
49. A particle
(1) isसैलacted
का EMFuponबढ़ेगा
by a force of constant (1) Increase the cell EMF
magnitude
(2) which
धारा काisप्रवाह
always
बढ़ेगाperpendicular to the (2) Increase the current flow
velocity of the particle. The motion of the
(3) सैल का EMF घटेगा (3) Decrease the cell EMF
particle takes place in a plane. It follows, that :-
(4) विलयन
(A) its velocity का pH बदलेगा
is constant (4) Alter the pH of the solution
(B)
53.its K.E. सेल जिसमें 2e – का स्थानान्तरण होता है, का
is constant
एक गैल्वेनिक 53. Standard EMF of a galvanic cell involving 2e –
(C) its acceleration
मानक EMF,is25°C constantपर 0.591 V पाया गया। सेल transfer is found to be 0.591 V at 25°C. Calculate
अभिक्रिया
(D) it moves का साम्य path
in circular स्थिरांक होगा equilibrium constant for cell reaction
(1)B20 10 (2) 1020 (1) 2010 (2) 1020
(1) Only is correct
200
(3) D10are (4) 20010 (3) 10200 (4) 20010
(2) B and correct
54. A ,यदि
(3) B 1M
and HD2are
SO4correct
विलयन के लिये विशिष्ट चालकत्व 54. If the specific conductance of 1M H2SO4 solution is
26 × 10 –2 S cm –1, then the equivalent conductivity
10 –2 S cm –1 हो तो तुल्यांकी चालकता होगी :-
(4) All26are× correct
would be :-
50. A small(1)block
1.3 of mass
× 10 m 2slides
2 S cm eq –1 along a smooth (1) 1.3 × 102 S cm2 eq –1
frictionless track as 2shown.2 If –1
it starts from rest
(2) 1.6 × 10 S cm eq (2) 1.6 × 102 S cm2 eq –1
at P. What is the normal force on it at Q ?
(3) 13 S cm2 mol –1 (3) 13 S cm2 mol –1
(4) 1.3 × 103 S cm2 mol –1 (4) 1.3 × 103 S cm2 mol –1
55. दो मोल MnO2 को MnO42– में ऑक्सीकृ त करने के लिए 55. Total charge required for the oxidation of two
आवश्यक कु ल आवेश की मात्रा है : moles MnO2 into MnO42– is :-
(1) 5 F
(1) 3 mg (1) 5 F
(2) √ (2)mg10 F
65 (2) 10 F
(3) 20 F
(3) 8 mg (3) 20 F
(4) of4 these
(4) None F (4) 4 F
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56. Equivalent
60. कथन-1 conductance of इलेक्ट्राॅन
: डेन्यल सेल में, 0.1 Mकाsolution
प्रवाह जिंकof इलेक्ट्राॅड 60. Statement-1 : In a Daniell cell, electrons flow from
HA(weak 2 –1
acid)इलेक्ट्राॅड
से काॅपर is 10 कीScmओरequivalent
बाहरी परिपथ में and at
होता हैं। zinc electrode to copper electrode outside the cell.
infiniteकथन-2
dilution: डेन्यल
is 200सेल 2
Scmमें, equivalent –1
जिंक इलेक्ट्राॅड .ऋणात्मक
Hence होता है Statement-2 : In a Daniell cell, zinc electrode is
pH of HAतथाsolution is धनात्मक होता हैं।
काॅपर इलेक्ट्राॅड negative and copper electrode is positive.
(1) 1.3(1) कथन-1
(2) 1.7व कथन-2
(3) दोनों
2.3 सही हैं।(4) 3.7 (1) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are correct.
57. Given :(2) कथन-1 व कथन-2 दोनों गलत है। (2) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are incorrect.
E∘F e2+ /F e = a Volt, EFo e3+ /F e = b Volt (3) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-2 is incorrect.
(3) कथन-1 सही है, परन्तु कथन-2 गलत है।
What is the value of EFoe3+/F e2+ :- (in volt) (4) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-2 is
(4) कथन-1 गलत है परन्तु कथन-2 सही है। correct.
(1) 3b – 2a (2) b – a
61. स्तम्भ-I एवं स्तम्भ-II का मिलान करें - 61. Match the following Column - I and Column -II -
(3) b + a (4) 2a + 3b Column - II
स्तम्भ- II Column - I
(Product obtained at anode and
58. स्तम्भ- I at infinite dilution Λ 0m
The molar conductivities ( ) (Electrolyte)
(उत्पाद क्रमशः ऐनोड एवं cathode respectively)
of NH4Cl, KOH (विद्युतand
अपघट्य)
KCl are 150,कै 270
2 –1 थोड़ and 149होता
पर प्राप्त S है।)
Aqueous
cm mol respectively. Kb of 0.02M NH4OH (a) (p) S2 O−2
8 and H2
–1 S2 O−2
NaCl
with Λ m(a) = जलीय 2.71 NaCl
S cm2 mol(p) at the8 एवंsameH2
(b) Fused NaCl (q) O2 and H2
temperature (b) isगलित
:- NaCl (q) O2 एवं H2 Dilute
(c) (r) Cl2 and H2
× 10 –5
(1) 1.5 (c) तनु H2SO4 (2) 2 ×(r)10 –6
Cl2 एवं H2 H2SO4
× 10 –10 Concentrated
(3) 1.8 (d) सान्द्र H2SO4(4) 2 ×(s)10 –5Cl2 एवं Na (d) H SO (s) Cl2 and Na
2 4
59. Match List-I with List-II
(1) (a) - (q); (b) - (r); (c) - (s); (d) - (p) (1) (a) - (q); (b) - (r); (c) - (s); (d) - (p)
List-I List-II
A(2) (a) - difference
potential (r); (b) - (s); (c) - (q); (d) - (p) (2) (a) - (r); (b) - (s); (c) - (q); (d) - (p)
(A) between
(3) (a)the- (q);
electrode
(b) - and
(s); (c)(I)- (p);Anode
(d) - (r) (3) (a) - (q); (b) - (s); (c) - (p); (d) - (r)
the electrolyte is known as
(4) (a) - (r); (b) - (q); (c) - (s); (d) - (p) (4) (a) - (r); (b) - (q); (c) - (s); (d) - (p)
In galvanic cell, electrode
62.
(B)
उस सेलnegative
having का विभव क्या होगा जिसमें
potential निम्न अभिक्रिया हो रही
(II) Cathode
62. What will be the EMF of cell involving
with
है? respect to the solution following reaction :-
isNi(s) + 2Ag+(0.2 M) → Ni+2(0.4 M) + 2Ag(s) ; Ni(s) + 2Ag+(0.2 M) → Ni+2(0.4 M) + 2Ag(s) ;
In galvanic cell,Velectrode
= 1.05 0
Ecell = 1.05 V
having positive potential Cell
(C) (1) 1.5 V (III)
with respect to the solution (2) 1.8 V
potential (1) 1.5 V (2) 1.8 V
is(3) 2.00 V (4) 1.02 V (3) 2.00 V (4) 1.02 V
The potential difference
63. + | Na, Al3+ | Al, Cu2+ | Cu Electrode +
(D) between the two electrodes (IV) और Ag | Ag के
Na 63. The standard electrode potential (E°) values of Na+ |
potential Na, Al3+ | Al, Cu2+ | Cu and Ag+ | Ag are – 2.71 V,
ofलिए
a galvanic cell is called
मानक इलेक्ट्राॅड़ विभव (E°) का मान क्रमशः – 2.71
– 1.66 V, 0.34 V and 0.80 V respectively. The
(1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I),
V, – 1.66 V, (C)-(II),
0.34 V (D)-(III)
और 0.80 V है। धातु की correct decreasing order of reducing power of the
(2) (A)-(IV),
अपचायक(B)-(I), (C)-(III),
क्षमता का घटता हुआ(D)-(II)
सही क्रम है : metal is :
(3) (A)-(I),
(1) Ag (B)-(IV),
> Cu >(C)-(II),
Al > Na(D)-(III)
(2) Al > Na > Ag > Cu (1) Ag > Cu > Al > Na (2) Al > Na > Ag > Cu
(4) (A)-(III),
(3) Cu(B)-(I),
> Ag >(C)-(II),
Na > Al(D)-(IV)
(4) Na > Al > Cu > Ag (3) Cu > Ag > Na > Al (4) Na > Al > Cu > Ag
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64. 70. resistance

The निम्नलिखित में सेM कौन
of 0.5 से जलीय
solution of anविलयन का क्वथनांक
electrolyte 70. Which of the following aqueous solutions has
in a cellसर्वाधिक
is foundहोगाto? be 500 Ω . If the electrodes the highest boiling point ?
in the (1)
cell 0.1
are M2.2KNO cm apart and (2) area
0.1 Mof Na
cross
2 3 3PO4 (1) 0.1 M KNO3 (2) 0.1 M Na3PO4
section is 4.4 cm , then Λ m of solution is -
(3) 0.1 M BaCl2 (4) 0.1 M K2SO4 (3) 0.1 M BaCl2 (4) 0.1 M K2SO4
–1
(1) 0.2 Ω cm mol 2 –1
71. निम्न में से कौन आदर्श विलयन बनाते हैं :- 71. Which of the following forms ideal solution :-
(2) 0.02 Ω –1 cm2 mol –1
(1) C6H5 Cl – C6H5 Br (2) C6H6 – C6H5CH3 (1) C6H5 Cl – C6H5 Br (2) C6H6 – C6H5CH3
(3) 0.002 Ω –1 cm2 mol –1
(3) हैक्सेन-हैप्टेन (4) उपरोक्त सभी (3) Hexane-heptane (4) All of above
–1
(4) 2 Ω cm mol 2 –1
72. दो द्रव घटकों से निर्मित एक स्थिरक्वाथी विलयन का 72. An azeotropic solution of two liquid components
65. Which of the following metals will not evolve has boiling point higher than boiling points of
H2 gas क्वथनांक
when placedदोनों द्रव घटकों सेacid
in dilute अधिक होगा यदि :-
solution? both liquid components, when it :-
(1) Zn(1) यह राऊल्ट के नियम
(2)से ऋणात्
Fe मक विचलन प्रदर्शित करता है। (1) Shows negative deviation from Raoult's law
(3) Ag(2) यह राऊल्ट के नियम
(4)से Na
धनात्मक विचलन प्रदर्शित करता है। (2) Shows positive deviation from Raoult's law
66. (3) यह
To which राऊल्ट के नियमΛसेMकोई
compound =Λ विचलन
0 प्रदर्शितCनहींisकरता है।
M −b ⋅
√ (3) Shows no deviation from Raoult's law
applicable:
(4) यह संतृप्त है। (4) is saturated
(1)
73. NaCl
यदि 8g NaOH, 44g (2) जलीय
NH4OH विलयन मे उपस्थित है तो 73. When 8g of NaOH present in 44g of aqueous
विलयन में NaOH का(4)मोलHCN
(3) HCOOH प्रभाज है। solution then mole fraction of NaOH in solution is-

67. (1) 1 potential

The electrode (2) of2 a hydrogen
(3) 1 electrode
(4) 2 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 2
11 11 13 13 11 11 13 13
dipped in solution of pH = 1 is : 20
74. 200 mL विलयन मे यूरिया के 6.02 × 10 अणु उपस्थित 74. 6.02 × 1020 molecules of urea are present in 200 mL
(1) 0.059 V यूरिया विलयन(2)की 0.00
है अतः सांद्रताVहोगी :- of its solution. The concentration of urea solution is :-
(1) 0.005
(3) – 0.059 V M (2)V 0.01 M
(4) 0.59 (1) 0.005 M (2) 0.01 M
68. Select (3)
the 0.10 M cell reaction
correct (4) 0.02 M cell
of the (3) 0.10 M (4) 0.02 M
Pt(s)|Cl – +
75. 2M, 2(g)|Cl1L(aq)||Ag
H 2 O 2 (aq)|Ag(s)
विलयन की :-आयतन सामर्थ्य क्या 75. What will be volume strength of 2M, 1L H2O2
(g) + Ag+(aq) → Ag(s) + 2Cl – (aq)
(1) Cl2होगी? solution ?
(2) Cl2(1)
(g) +11.2 V (2)
Ag(s) → 2Cl22.4– V
(aq)(3)+ 2Ag
44.8+(aq)
V (4) 1 V (1) 11.2 V (2) 22.4 V (3) 44.8 V (4) 1 V
(3) – (aq)ताप
76. 2Clनियत व दाब+(aq)
+ 2Ag → गैंसो
पर तीन के लिए
2Ag(s) + Clहेनरी
2(g) के नियतांको
76. At constant temperature and pressure values of
Henry's constant (KH) are given for the following
(4) AgCl(s) +(aq)
(KH) के→मानAgदिए + Cl – (aq)
हुए है। three gases :
69. In galvanic cell, salt bridge is used to :
(1) Complete the circuit
(2) Prevent liquid junction potential their solubility order in a fixed amount of water
जल की निश्चित मात्रा में गैसों की विलेयता का क्रम होगा - will be :
(3) Maintain electrical neutrality of solutions
of (1)
both Ohalf
2 > cells
N2 > H2 (2) N2 > H2 > O2 (1) O2 > N2 > H2 (2) N2 > H2 > O2

(4) All(3) N2 above

of the > O2 > H2 (4) O2 > H2 > N2 (3) N2 > O2 > H2 (4) O2 > H2 > N2
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77. Which
83. ofसूची-I
the following
का सूची-IIisकेnotसाथ
a colligative property :-
मिलान कीजिए। 83. Match List-I with List-II :
P 0 − PS सूची-I(2) Δ Tf सूची-II List-I List-II
(1)
P0
A. राउल्ट का नियम P 0 − I.PS Δ Tf = Kf m A. Raoult's law I. Δ Tf = Kf m
(3) Δ Tb (4)
PS
B. परासरण दाब II. PA = PAo XA B. Osmotic pressure II. PA = PAo XA
78. Vapour pressure of a liquid depends on :-
क्वथनांक में Elevation in
C. of liquid
(1) Amount III. π = CRT C. III. π = CRT
उन्नयन boiling point
(2) Temperature
हिमांक में Depression in
(3) SizeD.of container IV. Δ Tb = Kbm D. IV. Δ Tb = Kbm
अवनमन freezing point
(4) All of these
Choose the correct answer from the options
79. नीचे दिएofविकल्पों
Find molality में से सहीsolution
an aqueous उत्तर चुनिए:
of CH3OH, given below :
in which mole fraction of CH3OH is 0.2 :-
(1) (A – II), (B – III), (C – IV), (D – I) (1) (A – II), (B – III), (C – IV), (D – I)
(1) 1.3 (2) 13.9
(2) (A – III), (B – II), (C – IV), (D – I) (2) (A – III), (B – II), (C – IV), (D – I)
(3) 3.9 (4) 21.2
(3) (A – II), (B – III), (C – I), (D – IV) (3) (A – II), (B – III), (C – I), (D – IV)
80. Incorrect
(4)statement
(A – IV),about
(B – I),azeotropes
(C – II), (Dis:– III) (4) (A – IV), (B – I), (C – II), (D – III)
(1) These are binary mixture having same
84. द्रव A, B तथा C के अंतराअणुक बल का क्रम A < B < C 84. Which of the following statement is correct if the
composition in liquid and vapour phase
intermolecular force in liquids A, B and C are in
है ? boil
(2) They तो निम्न
at aमेंconstant
से सही कथन हैं।
temperature the order A < B < C?
(3) The(1) components
B, A की अपेक्षाofतीव्रता
azeotropes
से वाष्पित can
होता है।be (1) B evaporates more readily than A
separated by fractional distillation
(2) B, C की अपेक्षा कम आसानी से वाष्पित होता है। (2) B evaporates less readily than C
(4) 68% nitric acid and 32% water by mass,
(3)maximum
form A तथा B एक ही दरazeotrope
boiling से वाष्पित होते है। (3) A and B evaporate at the same rate

81. (4) A,
The value of Cobserved
की अपेक्षा and
तीव्रताnormal
से वाष्पितmolecular
होता है। (4) A evaporates more readily than C
masses of certain electrolyte XY are 65.4 and
85. A तथा B प्रत्येक का एक मोल मिलाने पर एक आदर्श 85. 1 mole of each of A & B form an ideal solution
114.45 respectively. The electrolyte XY in the
solutionविलयन बनता है, जिसका
has dissociation वाष्प दाब
to extent of 100 mm Hg है। इस of vapour pressure 100 mm of Hg. Addition of 2
(1) 75% विलयन में B के दो मोल(2) और80%मिलाने पर वाष्पदाब का मान moles of B to it, decreases the vapour pressure
20 mm Hg कम हो जाता है। A तथा B का शुद्ध अवस्था में by 20 mm of Hg. The vapour pressure of A & B
(3) 50% (4) 90%
वाष्पदाब, क्रमशः है - in pure state are, respectively :-
82. In a solution of A in B, A is tetramerises as
4A →(1)A4.100 If तथा 100 mm
degree Hg
of association is 30% (1) 100 and 100 mm Hg
the van't
(2)hoff
60 factor
तथा 140ismmapproximately
Hg :- (2) 60 and 140 mm Hg
(1) 0.775 (2) Hg1
(3) 100 तथा 80 mm (3) 100 and 80 mm Hg
4
(3) 4 (4) 140 तथा 60 mm
(4) Hg
unpredictable (4) 140 and 60 mm Hg
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90. SECTION
अभिकिया - B (CHEMISTRY) 90. Find Δ G° of the reaction
2A(s) + 3B+2(aq) → 2A+3(aq) + 3B(s) 2A(s) + 3B+2(aq) → 2A+3(aq) + 3B(s)
86. The standard o , Eo
की Δ G°electrode
ज्ञात करें जबpotential
[B+2] = [AE+2
I2 /I] −= 1M हैं।2
Br− /Br When [B+2] = [A+2] = 1M.
o
and EFदिया are respectively +0.54 V, – 1.09 V
है : EAo +3/A = 0.34V तथा EBo+2/B = −0.16V
e/F e2+ Given : EAo +3/A = 0.34V and EBo+2/B = −0.16V
and 0.44 V. On the basis of above data which of
(1) 0 process is non-spontaneous
the following (1) 0

(1) Br (2)+ 2I96.5

2
–→ kJ2Br – + I
2
(2) 96.5 kJ

(2) Fe (3)
+ Br570 kJ 2+
2 → Fe + 2Br
– (3) 570 kJ

(3) Fe (4)
+ I 289.5
→ FekJ
2
2+
+ 2I – (4) 289.5 kJ
91. I2 +निम्न
(4) –→
2Brसेल 2I – विद्युत
के लिए + Br2वाहक बल का मान क्या होगा : 91. The emf of the cell :
–
Pt(s)|Br (0.01M) |Br2( ℓ ) || H+(0.001 M)| H2(g) | Pt(s)|Br – (0.01M) |Br2( ℓ ) || H+(0.001 M)| H2(g) |
87. Which one of the following statements is true for
Pt(s) Pt(s) will be
H2 – Cu electrochemical cell ?
दिया है : EBr0 2/Br− = 1.09 V तथा EH0 +/H2 = 0V] [Given : EBr0 2/Br− = 1.09 V and EH0 +/H2 = 0V]
(1) H2 is cathode and Cu is anode
(1) – 0.79 V (2) – 1.39 V (1) – 0.79 V (2) – 1.39 V
(2) H2 is anode and Cu is cathode
(3) – 1.30 V (4) – 1.24V (3) – 1.30 V (4) – 1.24V
(3) Reduction occurs at H2 electrode
92. दो शुद्ध द्रव A तथा B के वाष्पदाब क्रमशः PAo तथा PBo का 92. Two pure liquids A and B have vapour pressure
(4) Oxidation occurs at Cu electrode
अनुपात 1 : 3 है। यदि Aof और in the ratio PAo : PBo = 1 : 3 at certain
88. Assertion : Conductivity all Belectrolytes
मिलकर एक आदर्श
temperature. Assume A and B form an ideal
decreases on dilution.
विलयन बनाते हैं तथा A और B के द्रव अवस्था में मोल
solution and the ratio of mole fractions of A to B
Reasonभिन्न
: Onका dilution
अनुपात 1 number
: 3 हो तबofA ions perअवस्था
का वाष्प unit में मोल
volume decreases. in the liquid phase are 1 : 3 then the mole
भिन्न होगा : fraction of A in vapour phase is equal to :
(1) Both Assertion and Reason is true and
Reason
(1) 0.1is correct
(2)explanation
0.2 (3)of0.5 Assertion
(4) 1.0 (1) 0.1 (2) 0.2 (3) 0.5 (4) 1.0
(2)
93. Both
0.2Assertion and Reason
M K4[Fe(CN) is true but reason 93.
6] का परासरण दाब 27°C ताप पर What will be the osmotic pressure of 0.2 M
is not
क्याcorrect
होगा ? explanation of Assertion K4[Fe(CN)6] at 27°C ?
(3) Assertion
(1) 24.6is atm
true but Reason(2)is false
49.2 atm (1) 24.6 atm (2) 49.2 atm
(4) Assertion
(3) 4.92is atm
false but Reason
(4)is true
2 atm (3) 4.92 atm (4) 2 atm
89. Column-I Column-II
94. विद्युत अपघट्य AB3 का 0.1 मोलल जलीय विलयन 90% 94. 0.1 molal aqueous solution of an electrolyte AB3
Lead storage
(i) आयनित होता (a) है। 1 gives
atm परsteady potential
विलयन का क्वथनांक बिन्दु है is 90% ionised. The boiling point of the solution
battery
K. kg K. kg
( Kb = 0.52 Pb) :-is anode, PbO2 is at 1 atm is ( Kb = 0.52 ) :-
(ii) Mercury cell (b)
molcathode mol
(1) 273.19 K cell reaction : (1) 273.19 K
(iii) Fuel cell (c)
(2) 374.92 K 2H2(g)+O2(g)→2H2O( ℓ ) (2) 374.92 K
(3)(ii)-c,
(1) (i)-a, 378.4(iii)-b
K (2) (i)-c, (ii)-a, (iii)-b (3) 378.4 K
(4) (ii)-a,
(3) (i)-b, 373.34 K (4) (i)-c, (ii)-b, (iii)-a
(iii)-c (4) 373.34 K
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95. If99.mixture
कथन:of द्रव
C2Hअवस्था
5OH and वाले Hविलयन
2O is की
an मोलरता तापमान के
example 99. Assertion : Molarity of a solution in liquid state
साथ बदलती
of non-ideal है।
solution then which graphical changes with temperature.
कारण: तापमान
representation के साथ
is correct ? विलयन का आयतन बदल जाता Reason : The volume of a solution changes with
है। change in temperature.
(1) कथन तथा कारण दोनों सही हैं तथा कारण, कथन की (1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct and
(1) (2) है। reason is a correct explanation for
सही व्याख्या करता
assertion.
(2) कथन तथा कारण दोनो सही हैं लेकिन कारण, कथन (2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct but
की सही व्याख्या नहीं करता है। reason is not a correct explanation for
assertion
(3) कथन सही है लेकिन कारण गलत हैं
(3) (4) (3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect
(4) कथन गलत हैं लेकिन कारण सही हैं। (4) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.

100. 500 mL की क्षमता के दो बीकर लिए गए। इसमें से “A” 100. Two beakers of capacity 500 mL were taken.
96. Molarity of H2SO4 (density 1.8 g/mL) is 18 M. One of these beakers, labelled as “A”, was filled
चिन्हितofबीकर
The molality में 2SO
this H 4004 ismL:- जल भरा गया जबकि “B”
with 400 mL water whereas the beaker labelled
(1) 36 चिन्हित
m बीकर में NaCl
(2)के 200
2 Mmविलयन का 400 mL भरा “B” was filled with 400 mL of 2 M solution of
(3) 500गया।
m दोनों बीकरों को(4)एक18हीmपदार्थ से बने समान क्षमता NaCl. At the same temperature both the beakers
97. वाले बंद:- पात्र
Statement-I में समानofतापnon-volatile
Addition पर चित्र के अनुसार
soluteरखा गया। were placed in closed containers of same
causes aदिएdepression material and same capacity as shown in Fig. At a
गए ताप परinशुद्धvapourजल केpressure.
वाष्प दाब तथा NaCl विलयन
Statement-II :- Relative lowering in vapour given temperature, which of the following
pressureके of
वाष्पदाब के बारेis मेंdirectly
solution निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा toकथन सही
proportional statement is correct about the vapour pressure of
mole fraction of solvent.
है? pure water and that of NaCl solution.
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
correct.
(1)Statement-I
(4) Both (A) पात्र and
में वाष्प दाब (B)areपात्र
Statement-II की तुलना में
correct. (1) Vapour pressure in container (A) is more
अधिकofहोगा। than that in container (B).
98. Volume strength H O solution represents :-
2 2
(2) (A) (2) Vapour pressure in container (A) is less
(1) Volume of Hपात्र में वाष्प दाब (B) पात्र की तुलना में कम
2O2 solution
होगा। than that in container (B).
(2) Moles of H O solution
2 2
(3) Vapour pressure is equal in both the
(3) दोनों
(3) Volume of पात्राें
O2 inमें litre
वाष्प दाब समान होगा।
obtained from 1 litre containers.
H2(4)
O2 solution
पात्र (B)atमेंSTPवाष्प दाब पात्र (A) में वाष्प दाब से (4) Vapour pressure in container (B) is twice
(4) Volumeदुगुना
of Hहोगा।
2 gas obtained at NTP the vapour pressure in container (A).
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on 104. जब F1 पीढ़ी समान होती हैः- 104. When F1 generation resembles :-

A : दो जनकों- मेंAसे(BOTANY)
किसी एक से A : either of the two parents
SECTION B : in between of the two parents
B : दो जनकों के मध्य से C : with both the parents
101. Which Cone: दोनोंofजनकों
the सेfollowing is not correct Choose correct match :-
regarding
सहीMendelian
मिलान चुनिए- dihybrid cross ?
A B C
(1) The F2 phenotypic ratio is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
Incomplete
A B C (1) Dominance Co-dominance
(2) Law of independent assortment can be dominance
(1) प्रभाविता
explained अपूर्ण
on the basis of thisप्रभाविता
dihybridसह प्रभाविता
cross (2) Dominance Co-dominance
Incomplete
dominance
(2) प्रभाविता सह प्रभाविता अपूर्ण प्रभाविता
(3) Mendelian dihybrid cross always explain Incomplete
(3) Co-dominance Dominance
(3) अपूर्ण प्रभाविता सह प्रभाविता प्रभाविता dominance
the linkage Incomplete
(4) सह प्रभाविता प्रभाविता अपूर्ण प्रभाविता (4) Co-dominance Dominance
dominance
(4) The gametes produced by F1 plants are of 4
105.types
वंशावली
in 1 :के1 कौनसे
: 1 : 1संके त का सही मिलान किया गया है ?
ratio 105. Which symbol of pedigree is correctly matched?
(1) → मादा (1) → Female
102. Which of the following statement is true for
colourblindness ?
(2) → प्रभावित संतति (2) → Affected offspring
(1) It is due to mutation in certain genes
present → अलिंगगुणसूत्री अप्रभावी रोग से प्रभावित → Affected male of autosomal
(3) on Y-chromosome. (3)
नर recessive disease
(2) It occurs in about 8% of female and about
0.4(4)
% of male. → संबन्धियों में विवाह (4) → Marriage between relatives
(3)
106.Theनिम्नson of कोa सुमेलित
काॅलम carrierकीजिये
woman - has 50% 106. Match the following column -
chance of being colourblind.
1 Fruit fly a Grass hopper
(4) It is1anफल मक्खी linked disorder.
autosomal a टिड्डा
Experimental
गुणसूत्राें के वंशागति
103. Match the following verification of
:-
2 b T.H Morgan
2 सिद्धान्त का प्रायोगिक b T.H माॅर्गन chromosomal theory
(A) Human female (i) 2A + XY
सत्यापन of inheritance
(B) Male Drosophila (ii) 2A + XX
3 र्स्टटीवेन्ट c जेनेटिक मेप 3 Sturtevant c Genetic Map
(C) Male Grasshopper (iii) 2A + ZW Life cycle
2 सप्ताह मे जीवन
(D) Female
4 XX-XO Birds प्रकार (iv) 2Ad+ XO 4 XX-XO type d complete in 2
चक्र पूर्ण weeks
A B C D
(1) (i)(1) (ii)1 - d,(iv)
2 - b,(iii)
3 - c, 4 - a (1) 1 - d, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - a
(2) (ii)(2) (i)1 - b,(iii)
2 - a,(iv)
3 - c, 4 - d (2) 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - c, 4 - d
(3) (ii)(3) (i)1 - d,(iv)
2 - c,(iii)
3 - b, 4 - a (3) 1 - d, 2 - c, 3 - b, 4 - a
(4) (i)(4) (ii)1 - c,(iii)
2 - b,(iv)
3 - a, 4 - d (4) 1 - c, 2 - b, 3 - a, 4 - d
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107. Match column-I

110. कथन-I with द्वारा
: मेण्डल column-II
किए गएand selectक्राॅस
एकसंकर the प्रयोग में 110. Statement-I : Phenotypic ratio of Monohybrid cross
correct option from the codes given below :
F2 पीढ़ी में लक्षण प्रारूप अनुपात 3:1 होता है। performed by Mendel was 3:1 in F2 generation.
Column-I Column-II
कथन-II : F2 पीढ़ी में बौने पादप का आना एलीलों के Statement-II : Dwarf plant recover in F2 generation
A. Multiple allelism (i) Tt × tt
प्रथक्करण के कारण होता है। due to segregation of alleles.
B. Back cross (ii) Tt × TT
(1) कथन-I एवं कथन-II दोनों सही हैं। (1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.
C. Test cross (iii) Human blood groups
(2) कथन-I सही है एवं कथन-II गलत है।
Non-parental gene
(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
D. Crossing over (iv)
(3) कथन-I गलत है एवं कथन-II सही है।
combination (3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) कथन-I एवं कथन-II
E. Recombination (v) दोनों
Non ही गलत
sister हैं।
chromatids (4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.
(1)
111.A-(iii),
कथन-IB-(i), C-(ii),
: मनुष्य D-(v),काE-(iv)
में त्वचा रंग प्लियोट्रोपिक जीन का 111. Statement-I : Skin colour in human is an
उदाहरण
(2) A-(iii), है। C-(i), D-(v), E-(iv)
B-(ii), example of pleiotropic gene.
कथन-II : अपूर्ण प्रभाविता में F2 पीढ़ी में लक्षण प्रारूप Statement-II : Phenotypic ratio in F2 generation
(3) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(v), D-(iv), E-(iii)
अनुपात 3:1 होता है। of incomplete dominance is 3:1.
(4) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(v), E-(iii)
(1) कथन-I एवं कथन-II दोनों सही हैं। (1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.
108. Assertion (A) :- The unmodified allele, which
represents (2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is
(2)theकथन-I
originalसहीphenotype is the गलत
है एवं कथन-II dominant
है। allele incorrect.
and the modified allele is generally the recessive allele.
Reason (R) :- The unmodified allele is responsible for (3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is
(3) कथन-I गलत है एवं कथन-II सही है।
production of a non functional enzyme or no enzyme at
all. correct.
(4) कथन-I एवं कथन-II दोनों ही गलत हैं। (4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
112. एक क्राॅस TtRr × TtRr, जिसमें कु ल 640 बीज उत्पन्न हुये। 112. In a cross between TtRr × TtRr, total 640 seeds
(2) Bothउन (A)
पादपोंand(संतति)
(R) areकीtrue butबतायें
संख्या (R) isजिनमें
not theप्रथम लक्षण are produced. Find the no. of plants produced
correct explanation of (A)
प्रभावी तथा दूसरा अप्रभावी हो :- with first dominant and second recessive traits :-
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(1) 106 (2) 300 (1) 106 (2) 300
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
(3) 360 (4) 120 (3) 360 (4) 120
109. Assertion : In Drosophila the genes of white eye
and
113.yellow bodyवंशावली
दिया गया colourचार्ट
show
निम्नonly 1.3 perहै :-cent
में से दर्शाता 113. The given pedigree chart shows the inheritance of :-
recombination in F2 generation.
Reason : In Drosophila the genes of white eye
and yellow body colour are very tightly linked.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(1) ऑटोसोमल प्रभावी - मायोटोनिक डिस्ट्रोफी (1) Autosomal dominant - Myotonic dystrophy.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
(2)a correct
is not X-सहलग्explanation
न प्रभावी - स्यूडोरिके ट्स
of the Assertion. (2) X-linked dominant - Pseudorickets
(3) ऑटोसोमल
(3) Assertion is True अप्रभावी - दात्र कोशिका
but the Reason अरक्तता
is False. (3) Autosomal recessive - Sickle cell anaemia
(4)Assertion
(4) Both X-सहलग्न&अप्रभावी
Reason- are
हिमोफीलीया
False. (4) X-linked recessive - Haemophilia.
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114. A118.
husband
सिकलand wife have
सेल एनीमिया normalकायिक
एक अप्रभावी visionसहलग्
butनी लक्षण 118. Sickle-cell anaemia is an autosomal linked recessive
fathers है,of जो
them
उस were
दशा मेंcolour blind.
माता-पिता Probability
से वंशानुगत होता हैofजब दोनों trait that can be transmitted from parents to the
their first daughter to be colour blind is offspring when both the partners are carrier or
विषम युग्मजी हो। यह रोग एक जोड़ी एलील HbA तथा HbS
(1) 25% (2) 50% heterozygous. The disease is controlled by a single
द्वारा नियंत्रित होती है।(3)
X, Y15%
तथा Z (4) 0% :-
को पहचानिए pair of allele, HbA and HbS. Identify X, Y and Z:-
115. If two dihybrid plants (AaBb) are crossed, then
find out the correct combinations of probabilities
of following offsprings :-
A B C D
AaBb AABb AaBB aabb
(1) 8/16 2/16 2/16 1/16
(2) 4/16 2/16 2/16 2/16
(3) 1/4 1/8 1/8 1/8
(4) 1/4 1/8 1/8 1/16

116. Consider the following genetic diseases :-

Haemophilia, Sickle cell anaemia, Cystic fibrosis,
Thalassemia, Phenyl ketonuria, Colour blindness,
Klinefelter's syndrome,
(1) GTG, GAC,Turner's
Val syndrome. (1) GTG, GAC, Val
How many of these are Mendelian diseases ?
(2) CAC, GTG, Val (2) CAC, GTG, Val
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 6 (4) 8
(3) GTA, GAG, Val (3) GTA, GAG, Val
117. Select (4)
the GTC,
incorrect
GAC, statement
Val with respect to (4) GTC, GAC, Val
polygenic inheritance :-
119. मेण्डल के प्रयोग में उद्यान मटर के 7 लक्षणो में से कौनसा 119. Which character was recessive among the seven
(1) In लक्षण
human polygenic
अप्रभावी है? traits are height and characters of garden pea in Mendel's experiment?
skin colour
(1) बीज का रंग – हरा (1) Seed colour – green
(2) In a polygenic trait the phenotype reflects
the(2) फली का रंगof–each
contribution हरा allele i.e. the effect (2) Pod colour – green
of (3)
eachपुष्प
allele
की isस्थिति
additive
– अक्षीय (3) Flower position – Axial
(3) A (4)human genotype
तने की ऊँ चाई – with
लंबा all the dominant (4) Stem height – Tall
120.alleles (AABBCC)
परिवर्तित will have
एलील उत्पादित the lightest
कर सकता है :- skin 120. Modified allele can produce :-
colour and that with all the recessive alleles
(1) कार्य
(aabbcc) willसक्षम
haveएंजाइम
darkest skin colour (1) Functional enzyme

(4) A (2)humanकार्य genotype

अक्षम एंजाइमwith three dominant (2) Non-functional enzyme
allele
(3) and three
एंजाइम नहींrecessive
बनाता alleles will have (3) No enzyme
an(4)
intermediate
उपरोक्त सभीskin colour (4) All of these
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121. A126. निम्न में से कौन

true-breeding line बहुप्रभाविता
is that :- का उदाहरण है ? 126. Which of the following is an example of pleiotropism ?
(1) undergone
(1) Having मनुष्य में त्वचा रंग
continuous cross pollination (1) Human skin colour
(2) AB-रक्त
(2) Having समूहcontinuous self pollination
undergone (2) AB-blood group
(3) stable
(3) Shows हीमोफीलिया
trait inheritance (3) Haemophilia
(4) (2)(4)
and फीनाइल
(3) bothकीटोन्यूरिया (4) Phenylketonuria
127. मधुमक्खी में लिंग निर्धारण किस पर आधारित है :- 127. The sex determination in honey bee is based on the :-
122. Which of the following trait of pea plant can
(1) गुणसूत्राें के समुच्चयों की संख्या पर (1) Number of sets of chromosome.
express itself only in homozygous state ?
(2) Y-गुणसूत्र की संख्या पर (2) Number of Y-chromosome
(1) Tall plant
(3) X-गुणसूत्र की संख्या पर (3) Number of X-chromosome
(2) Axial flower
(4) वातावरणीय परिस्थिति पर (4) Environmental condition
(3) White flower
128. कथन (A) : स्नेपड्रेगन में पुष्प रंग की वंशागति अपूर्ण 128. Assertion (A) : The inheritance of flower colour
(4) Green pod
प्रभाविकता को समझने के लिए अच्छा उदाहरण है। in the snapdragon is a good example to
123. Geneticकारण
maps(R)of :chromosomes are स्नेपड्रेगन
based onपादप
the का क्राॅस understand incomplete dominance.
जब लाल पुष्प वाले
Reason (R) : When snapdragon plant with red
frequency
सफे दof पुष्प
:- वाले स्नेपड्रेगन पादप से कराया जाता है तो
flowers is crossed with snapdragon plant with
F1 संतति में प्राप्त स्नेपड्रेगन के पादप गुलाबी रंग के पुष्प वाले
(1) Non-disjunction white flowers, snapdragon plants with pink
होते हैं।
(2) Translocation flowers are obtained in F1 generation.
(1) (A) और (R) दोनों सत्य हैं परन्तु (R), (A) की सही
(3) Linkage (1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
(4) Geneticव्याख्या नहीं है।
recombination correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) सत्य है परन्तु (R) असत्य है। (2) (A) is true but (R) is false.
124. In a experiment of Morgan in Drosophila for eye
(3) (A) असत्य है परन्तु (R) सत्य है। (3) (A) is false but (R) is true.
colour and wing size. What percentage of
(4) (A) और (R) दोनों सत्य हैं और (R), (A) की सही (4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct
recombinantsव्याख्या
wereहै।observed in F2 generation ? explanation of (A).
(1)
129.37.2% 129. The two allele of a gene pair are located on __A__
एक जीन के दो एलील __B__ के __A__ पर विद्यमान रहते
(2) 1.3% of __B__.
हैं :
Fill in the blanks with correct option :
(3) 98.7%
सही विकल्प के साथ खाली स्थान भरिए : A B
(4) 62.8%
A B Non Homologous
(1) Homologous site
125. Multiple(1)
alleles can be chromosome
समजात स्थलfound onlyअसमजात
when : गुणसूत्र
Non Homologous
(1) Population studies are made (2) Homologous chromosome
(2) असमजात स्थल समजात गुणसूत्र site
(2) Individual study is made (3) Homologous site Homologous chromosome
(3) समजात स्थल समजात गुणसूत्र
(3) Mutation is absent Non Homologous Non Homologous
(4) असमजात स्थल असमजात गुणसूत्र (4)
site chromosme
(4) Dominance is present
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130. The Alleles do अनुभाग not show - Bany blending

(वनस्पति विज्ञान)and that SECTION - B (BOTANY)
both the characters are recovered as such in the
F136.
2 generation though A one of these is not seen B at 136. A B
the F1 stage.
जोेड़े मेंThis
होते isहैं explained in :-जोेड़े में होते हैं Occur in pairs Occur in pairs
(1) Lawयुग्मकजनन
of dominanceके दौरान युुग्मकजनन के दौरान Segregate at
Segregate at the time of gamete
(2) Lawइसof segregation
प्रकार से विसंयोजित विसंयोजित होते हैं तथा gamete formation
formation such that only one
(3) Lawहोते हैं कि जोड़ेAssortment
of Independent में से जोड़े में से के वल एक ही
of each pair is transmitted to a
and only one of each
के वल एक ही युग्मक में जा एक युग्मक को प्राप्त होता pair is transmitted to
(4) Law of linkage gamete
पाता है। है। a gamete
131. In F2 generation of Mendelian dihybrid crosses,
source ofअलग-अलग
non parental एक जोड़ा दूसरे जोड़े से Independent One pair segregates
जोड़ेphenotype
एक दूसरे is :-
स्वतन्त्र विसंयोजित होता pairs segregate independently of independently of
से स्वतन्त्र
(1) Crossing overविसंयोजित होते हैं
है। each other another pair
(2) Mutation
(3) Independent
निम्नलिखितassortment
कथनों को पढि़ए तथा गलत कथन का चयन Read the following statements and select incorrect
(4) Nonकरेdisjunction
:- one :-
132. How many (1) काॅलम-A
differentके kinds
सभी कथनof गुणसूत्र
gametes के लिए
willसही
beहैं। (1) All the statements of column A are true for
produced by a plant having the genotype AaBbdd ? chromosome
(2) काॅलम-B के सभी कथन गुणसूत्र के लिए हमेशा सही
(1) Two हैं।(2) Three (3) Four (4) Eight (2) All the statements of column B are always
true for chromosome
133. If F1 pea plant of Tt genotype is self pollinated
(3) काॅलम-A के सभी कथन जीन के लिए हमेशा सही (3) All these statements of column A are
then it's pollens of T genotype will pollinate eggs
हैं। always true for Gene
of T genotype with the probability of :-
(4) काॅलम-B के सभी कथन जीन के लिए हमेशा सही (4) All the statements of column B are always
(1) 100% (2) 25% (3) 50% (4) 0%
हैं। true for Gene
134. In F2 generation of Mendel's dihybrid cross. Find
137. अपूर्ण प्रभाविता के एक उदाहरण में एक शुद्ध लाल पुष्प वाले 137. In an example of incomplete dominance, pure red
out probability of phenotype belonging to parents :-
पौधे का क्राॅस सफे द पुष्प वाले से किया जाता है तथा F1 flowered plants are crossed with pure white
(1) 4/16 (2) 9/16 (3) 2/16 (4) 10/16
संततियों में गुलाबी पुष्प प्राप्त होते हैं तो निम्न में से असत्य flowered plants and the F1 individuals have pink
135. Statement-1: Male honey bee do not have father
कथन का चयन कीजिए ? flowers. Which one of the following is not correct ?
but have maternal grandfather.
(1) गुलाबी
Statement-2: पुष्प develop
Drones वाले पौधेfromके वलunfertilized
गुलाबी पुष्प वाली (1) Pink flowered plant will produce only pink
संततियां ही उत्पन्न करते हैं
eggs parthenogenetically. flowered offsprings
(2)statements
(1) Both गुलाबी पुष्पare वालेcorrect
पौधे तीन प्रकार की संततियां उत्पन्न (2) Pink flowered plant will produce offsprings
करते-1है isयदिincorrect
(2) Statement उनका स्वपरागण किया जाता हैis
and statement-2 having three kinds of flowers, if self pollinated
(3) विषमयुग्मी गुलाबी पुष्प वाले पौधे के जीन पृथक हो
correct. (3) The genes of the hybrid pink flowered plant
जाते -1
(3) Statement है यदि उनका स्वपरागण
is correct किया जाता हैis
and statement-2 will segregate, if self pollinated
(4) गुलाबी पुष्प वाले पौधे की आधी संततियां समयुग्मी
incorrect. (4) Half of the offsprings of the pink flowered
होगी यदि उसका
(4) Both statements स्वपरागण किया जाता है
are incorrect plant will be homozygous, if self-pollinated

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138. Match the पौधे

141. एक termsका given in Column
जीनप्रारूप AaBb है।I पहला
with जीन theirप्रभाविता 141. Genotype of a plant is AaBb. First gene shows
exampleप्रदर्शित
in Column
करता IIहैand
तथाselect
दूसरा the
जीनcorrect
अपूर्ण option:-
प्रभाविता प्रदर्शित dominance while the second gene shows incomplete
करता
Column है। Iइस पौधे का स्वपरागण कराया
Column II गया तथा 8000 dominance. This plant was self pollinated and 8000
संतति पौधे प्राप्त हुए। इनमें से कितने पौधे प्रथम लक्षण के progeny plant were produced. How many of the
Phenylketonuria in
लिये प्रभावी विशेषक(i)तथा द्वितीय लक्षण के लिये मध्यम
(a) Co-dominance plant will show dominant trait for first character and
human
विशेषक प्रदर्शित करेंगें ? intermediate trait for second character ?
(b) Pleiotropy (ii) Human blood group
(1) 3000 (2) 4000 (1) 3000 (2) 4000
Multiple
(c) (3) 1500 (iii) Coat
(4)colour
2000of cattle (3) 1500 (4) 2000
allelism
142. Polygenic
परीक्षार्थ संकरण में क्या होताSkin
है ? colour of 142. Test cross involves :-
(d) (iv)
inheritance human
(1) अप्रभावी विशेषक वाले दो जीन प्रारूपो के बीच (1) Crossing between two genotypes with
Code:- संकरण recessive trait
a b c d (2) Cross of F1 hybrid with double recessive
(2) F1 संकर का एक दोहरे अप्रभावी जीन प्रारूप के
(1) (iii)साथ संकरण
(iv) (ii) (i) genotype
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (3) Crossing between two hybrids
(3) दो संकरो के बीच संकरण
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) (4) Cross of F1 hybrid with double dominant
(4) F1 संकर का दोहरे प्रभावी जीन प्रारूप के साथ संकरण genotype
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
यदि एकinजीनDrosophila
139. In143.a cross के चार एलील , the
पाए heterozygous
जाते हैं तो संभावित जीन 143. If there are four allelic form of a gene then what
memberप्रारूपwithहोनेgrey
की संख्या +
bodyहोगी(b - ) and long wings will be the number of possible genotype ?
+
(vg ) was(1) crossed
6 with
(2) 10 black body(3) and
12 vestigial (4) 14 (1) 6 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 14
wings, the progeny had the following ratio ; grey
vestigial
144. मटर- 24 ; grey
के बीज long सं-'ys
के स्टार्च 126षण; एक
Black
जीनlong-26,
द्वारा नियंत्रित होता 144. Starch synthesis in the pea seed is controlled by
Black vestigial - 124. What is the frequency of
है। जिसके दो युग्मविकल्पी B तथा b है यदि स्टार्च grain one gene. It has two alleles B and b. If starch
recombinant in the population ?
आकार को एक लक्षण प्रारूप माना जाए तब इस दृष्टिकोण से grain size is considered as the phenotype, then
(1) 15.8 % (2) 16.7 %
युग्मविकल्पी B दर्शाता है- from this angle, allele B shows :-
(3) 17.5 % (4) 14.5 %
(1) बहुयुग्म विकल्पता (1) Multiple allele
140. Read the following statements for a trihybrid
(2) Incomplete Dominance
plant in(2)whichअपूर्णallप्रभाविता
the three genes show complete
linkage(3):- सह प्रभाविता (3) Co-dominance
(a) On selfing, it produces 1:1 phenotypic ratio. (4) Polygenic inheritance
(4) बहुजीनी वंशागति
(b) On test cross, it produces 3:1 genotypic ratio.
(c)
145.It Hbproduces
AHbS वाहक someहोते हैंnew
सिकलcombination
सेल एनीमिया in बीमारी के , 145. HbAHbS individuals are carrier of sickle cell
offsprings.
जिनसे बीमारी के संतति तक स्थानांतरित करने की प्रायिकता anaemia, probability of transmission of mutant
(d) It produces only two types of gametes.
होतीcorrect
Select the है - statements :- gene to progeny is

(1) only (1)a &100%b सर्वदा (2) a, b(2)& d50% (1) 100% always (2) 50%
(3)d 30%
(3) only (4)c &0%d
(4) only (3) 30% (4) 0%
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Topic the
146. Match : Biotechnology
column-A with : Principles
column-B and:- Processes, Biotechnology and Its Applications
Column-Aअनुभाग - A (प्राणिविज्ञान)
Column-B SECTION - A (ZOOLOGY)
Genetic constitution
(a) Trait
151. (i) सीयेन्स
एग्रोबैक्टीरियम ट्यूमिफे को कहा जाता है :-
of organism 151. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is known as :-
(1) पादपों का प्राकृ तिकExternal
आनुवांशिक अभियंता
appearance (1) Natural genetic engineer of plant
(b) Allele (ii)
(2) जन्तुओं का प्राकृ तिक of आनुवांशिक
organism अभियंता (2) Natural genetic engineer of animal
(3) सहजीवी जीवाणु Alternative form (3) Symbiotic bacteria
(c) Phenotype (iii)
of a gene
(4) सहजीवी पादप (4) Symbiotic plant
Alternative form
(d) Genotype
152. (iv) के नाम का पहला अक्षर इसी से 152. The first letter of the name of restriction
प्रतिबंधन एडोन्यूक्लिएज of a character
आया है :- endonuclease came from the :-
Choose(1)the correct option.
जीव के जीनस (2) जीव की स्पीशीज (1) Genus of organism (2) Species of organism
(3)a जीव काbपरिवार c (4) dजीव का वर्ग (3) Family of organism (4) Class of organism
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
153. प्रतिबन्धित एंजाइम को कहा जाता है :- 153. Restriction enzymes are also called :-
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (1)(ii)आण्विक(i)चिन्हक (iv) (2)(iii) वाहक (1) Molecular markers (2) Vectors
(4) (3)(i) स्थानान्तरक
(iii) (ii) (4)(iv) आण्विक कैं ची (3) Carriers (4) Molecular scissors
154. शब्द ‘सक्षम’ किसी जीवाणु परपोषी कोशिका के सन्दर्भ में 154. The term 'competent' for a bacterium host cell
147. Mr. Siddarth is suffering from hypertrichosis and
द्योतक है :- denotes :-
phenylketonuria. The probability of siddarth's
(1) एकone
sperm having रूपान्तरित जीवाणु
recessive कोशिका allele and
autosomal (1) A transformed bacterium cell
(2)gene
holandric किसीis विजातीय
: डीएनए को ग्रहण करने के लिए तैयार (2) A bacterial cell ready to uptake foreign DNA
एक जीवाणु कोशिका (3) A bacterium infected with bacteriophage
(1) 1/8 (2) 1/2 (3) 1/4 (4) 1/3
(3) किसी जीवाणुभोजी द्वारा संक्रमित एक जीवाणु कोशिका (4) Product of a desired gene inside a host
148. From a(4)cross
परपोषीAaBB
कोशिका ×के अन्aaBB
दर किसीwhich of काtheएक उत्पाद
वांछित जीन bacterium
following genotypic ratio will be obtained ?
155. EcoR I DNA को विपरीत लडि़यों में दो समान क्षारकों के 155. EcoR I cuts the DNA between the same two
(1) 3AABB : 1aaBB (2) 1AaBB : 1aaBB bases on the opposite strands when following
बीच काटते है। जब DNA में निम्न क्रम उपस्थित हो? sequence is present in the DNA ?
(3) All AaBB : No aaBB (4) 1AaBb : 3aaBB
149. Mendelian
(1) disorders are mainly (2)
determined by :- (1) (2)
(1) Mutation in single gene
(2) Absence
(3) of one chromosome (4) (3) (4)
(3) Excess of one or more chromosome
156.Allसाधारण
(4) विलोडक हौज बायोरिएक्टर की अपेक्षा दंड
of the above 156. Advantage of sparged stirred-tank bioreactor
विलोडक हौज बायोरिएक्टर का लाभ है:- over simple stirred-tank bioreactor is:-
150. How many true breeding pea plant varieties were
(1) संवर्धन माध्यम के मिश्रण का कार्य (1) Allows mixing of culture
selected by Mendel ?
(2) उत्पाद का पृथक्करण व शोधन (2) Separation and purification of product
(1) 14 pairs (2) 7 pairs
(3) तापमान व पीएच नियंत्रण तंत्र का संलग्न होना (3) Temperature and pH control systems attached
(3) 5 pairs
(4) ऑक्सीजन स्थानान्(4)तरण2केpairs
लिए सतह क्षेत्र में वृद्धि करवाना (4) Increase surface area for oxygen transfer
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163. वह
157. Which एंजाइमisजिसे
enzyme प्रथम जीन
required उपचारfungal
to break के रूपwall
में दिया गया 163. Which enzyme was targeted during the first
था? of DNA ?
for isolation clinical gene therapy.
(1) polymerase
(1) DNA Monamine oxidase
(2) DNA ligase (1) Monamine oxidase
(2) Tyrosine oxidase
(3) Chitinase (4) Reverse transcriptase (2) Tyrosine oxidase
158. Cutting(3) Adenosine
of gel deaminase
for removal of DNA is called : (3) Adenosine deaminase
(4) Pyruvate dehydrogenase.
(1) Elution (4) Pyruvate dehydrogenase.
(2)
164.Upstream
एडीए कीprocessing
कमी के उपचार में जीन उपचार विधि का सर्वप्रथम 164. Gene therapy used in the treatment of ADA
उपयोग कौनसेprocessing
(3) Downstream वर्ष में किया गया था :- deficiency was first used in which year ?
(4) Transformation
(1) 1900 (2) 1995 (3) 1990 (4) 1998 (1) 1900 (2) 1995 (3) 1990 (4) 1998
159. If the plasmid in the bacteria does not have any
insert cryIAb
165. then जीन द्वारा कूproduce
the colonies टबद्ध प्रोटीन
:- किसे नियंत्रित करेगा :- 165. Protein encoded by a gene cryIAb control :-
(1) मक्का छेदक (2) कपास मुकु ल कृ मि (1) Corn borer (2) Cotton boll worm
(1) Blue colours in the presence of X-gal
(2) No(3) भृंग in the presence of(4)X-gal
colour मच्छर (3) Beetles (4) Mosquitoes
166.Blue
(3) जैवcolour
पदार्थो in
को the
जहाँabsence
उनकी उत्पत्ति हुई थी वहाँ के निवासियों
of X-gal 166. The illegal and unlawful development of
(4) Blueको colour
भुगतानinदिये बिना गैर of
the presence कानूनी तथा नियम विरूद्ध
maltose biomaterials without payment to the inhabitants
विकसित करना कहलाता है : of their origin is called :
160. Construction of first recombinant DNA was done
by using(1)plasmid
बायोपेटेंट
of :- (1) Biopatent
(2) जैवतकनीकी
(1) Salmonella typhimurium (2) Biotechnology
(3) जैवयुद्धcoli
(2) Escherichia (3) Bio-war
(4) बायोपाइरेसी
(3) Bacillus thuringiensis (4) Biopiracy
167.Yeast
(4) जब एक असामान्य जीन को सामान्य, जीन से प्रतिस्थापित 167. An abnormal gene is replaced by normal gene. It
किया जाता है तो यह कहलाता है। is called :-
161. Which of the following is a transgenic plant ?
(1) जीन थैरेपी (2) क्लोनिंग (1) Gene therapy (2) Cloning
(1) Arabidopsis thaliana
(3) उत्परिवर्तन (4) चयन (3) Mutation (4) Selection
(2) Bt-cotton
168. कपास के मुकु ल कृ मि से प्रतिरोधकता के लिए अभियन्त्रित 168. The crop engineered for resistance to cotton
(3) Meloidogyne
फसल में होताincognita
है ? bollworms has :
(4) Caenorhabditis
(1) क्राई I एसीelegans (2) क्राई II एबी (1) Cry I AC (2) Cry II Ab
162. Transgenic tobacco
(3) क्राई I एबीwhich is developed
(4) (1) व through
(2) दोनों (3) Cry I Ab (4) Both (1) and (2)
RNA interference, prevent the infestation of :-
169. रोजी है एक :- 169. Rosie is a :-
(1) A nematode – Meloidegyne incognitia
(1) पहली पारजीवी गाय (1) First transgenic cow
(2) A bacterium – Pseudomonas putida
(2) पहली पारजीवी भेड़ (2) First transgenic sheep
(3) A fungi – Trichoderma
(3) पहला पारजीवी बन्दर (3) First transgenic monkey
(4) A insect
(4) पहला– Aphid
पारजीवी चूहा (4) First transgenic mice
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174. काॅलम
170. Golden का मिलान
rice will help inकीजिए
:- 174. Match the column.
काॅलम-I
(1) Producing petrol like fuel काॅलम-II Column-I Column-II
(a) प्रथम ट्रांसजेनिक गाय (i) m-RNA संदमन (a) First transgenic cow (i) m-RNA silencing
(2) Making pest resistence
(b) पोलियो टीके का सुरक्षा परीक्षण (ii) गोल्डन राइस (b) Safety test of polio vaccine (ii) Golden Rice
(3) Making herbicide tolerance
(c) निमेटोड से सुरक्षा (iii) रोजी (c) Resistance from nematode (iii) Rosie
(4) Enhance nutritional value
(d) विटामिन 'A' बाहुल्य फसल (iv) ट्रांसजेनिक चूहा (d) Vitamin 'A' enriched crop (iv) Transgenic mice
171. In India, the organisation responsible for
(1) the
assessing a-i,safety
b-iii, c-iv, d-ii (2) a-iii,
of introducing b-ii, c-i, d-iv
genetically (1) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii (2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
modified
(3)organisms
a-iii, b-iv,forc-ii,
public
d-i use
(4)isa-iii,
:- b-iv, c-i, d-ii (3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(1)
175.Indian
निम्नCouncil
का मिलानofकरके Medical Research
सही विकल्प (ICMR)
चुनिए 175. Match the following and choose the correct option-
(2) Council forकाॅलम I
Scientific and Industrialकाॅलम II
Research Column I Column II
(a) एली लिली
(CSIR) (i) बैसीलस थुरीनजिएंसिस (a) Eli Lilly (i) Bacillus thuringiensis
(b) बीटी
(3) Research Committee on (ii) Genetic
मानव इंसुलीन
Manipulation (b) Bt (ii) Human insulin
(c)
(RCGM) जीन चिकित्सा (iii) मिल्वाडेगाइन इनकोगनीशिया
(c) Gene therapy (iii) Meloidegyne incognitia
(d) आर
(4) Genetic एन ए
Engineering Approval
(iv) एडीनोसीनCommittee
डिएमीनेज की कमी
अंतरक्षेप (d) RNAi (iv) Adenosine deaminase deficiency
(GEAC)
172. Read the (1)following
a-i, b-ii, statements
c-iii, d-iv carefully
(2) a-ii, and b-i, c-iv,
find d-iii (1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
out the (3) a-iv,statement
correct b-iii, c-ii,- d-i (4) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii (3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (4) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
Bt cotton
I.176. कथन is(A)resistant
: RNAtoअंतरक्षेप
corn borer.सभी ससीमके न्द्रकी सजीवों में 176. Assertion (A) : RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic
II. Bacillus thuringiensis
कोशिकीय सुरक्षा की एक विधि है।harmed by self
is not organisms as a method of cellular defense.
cry protein Reason (R) : This method involves silencing of a
कारणbecause
(R) : इस of its
विधिoccurence as protoxin.
में एक विशिष्ट दूत RNA, पूरक specific mRNA due to a complementary dsRNA
III. Inactive Bt toxin is converted into
dsRNA से वर्धित होने के प'pkत् निष्क्रिय हो जाता active Bt है। molecule.
toxin in acidic pH of insect gut.
(1) कथन (A) और कारण (R) दोनों सही हैं और कारण (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
IV. CryIAc(R), and कथन (A) cryIIAb controlहै। cotton
की सही व्याख्या correct explanation of (A).
bollworm.
(2) कथन (A) और कारण (R) दोनों सही हैं लेकिन कारण (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
(1) I and II(R), कथन (A)(2) की सहीI, IIव्याख्या
and IIIनहीं है। the correct explanation of (A).
(3) IV
(3) II and कथन (A) सही (4) है लेकिन
I, II,कारण (R)IV
III and सही नहीं है। (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) कथन
173. With regard (A) सही
to insulin chooseनहीं हैcorrect
लेकिन statements:-
कारण (R) सही है। (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(a) C-peptide
177. कथन : isलिंकnot किए
present
गए in डी.mature
एन. ए. insulin.
की प्रतिलिपी संख्या को 177. Assertion : Origin of replication (ori) is responsible
(b) Theनियंत्रित
insulinकरनेproduced by तिr-DNA
के लिए प्रतिकृ technology
का उत्पत्ति स्थल जिम्मेदार है। for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA.
कारण : प्रतिकृ तियन का उत्पत्ति से जुड़े डी. एन. ए. के किसी
has C-peptide Reason : Any piece of DNA when linked to origin
(c) The भी Insulinकीhasपोषी
Pro टुकड़े कोशिकाओं के भीतर प्रतिकृ ति
C-peptide. of replication can be made to replicate within the
करवायी जा
(d) A peptide andसकती है। of insulin are inter-
B peptide host cells.
connected(1) byकथन
disulphide
एवं कारणbridges.
दोनों सत्य है तथा कारण, कथन का (1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason
Choose the correct answerहै।from the options given
सही स्पष्टीकरण is a correct explanation of the assertion.
below :-(2) कथन एवं कारण दोनों सत्य है, लेकिन कारण, कथन (2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason
(1) b and dका सही स्पष्टीकरण
only (2) नहीं है। c only
b and is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) कथन सत्य है, लेकिन कारण असत्य है। (3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(3) a, c and d only (4) a and d only
(4) कथन व कारण दोनों असत्य हैं। (4) Both assertion & reason are false.
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182. of the following enzymes has been

178. Which 182.
incorrectly matched with their function :-
(1) Ligase-Molecular glue
(2) Endonuclease-Molecular scissor
(3) DNA polymerase-Joins nucleosides
(4) RNA polymerase- Joins nucleotides

179. Which is not true about PCR (Polymerase chain

reaction)पी ?सी आर तकनीक के लिए अंकित किए गए (A), (B) Identify the label (A), (B) and (C) correctly for
(1) PCR व (C)canकोamplify
सही से पहचानिए :- amount of
very small PCR technique :-
DNA(1) A → ताप, B → डीएनए प्रोब, (1) A → Heat, B → DNA Probe,
C → टैक पाॅलीमरेज C →Taq polymerase
(2) It can
(2) beA used
→ ताप,to detect
B → HIV
डीएनएinउपक्रामक,
suspects (2) A → Heat, B → DNA primers,
(3) Only RNA C →canटैकbeपालीमरेज
used as primer C → Taq polymerase
(3) A → ठंड, B → डीएनए उपक्रामक, (3) A → Cold, B → DNA primers,
(4) Use of thermostable DNA polymerase
C → डीएन पाॅलीमरेज C → DNA polymerase
(4) A: →
180. Statement-I ताप, B → आरएनए
Thermostable DNA प्रोब,
polymerase (4) A → Heat, B → RNA probe,
C → टैक पाॅलीमरेज C → Taq polymerase
isolated from Thermus aquaticus.
183. उन रेस्ट्रिक्शन एन्जाइम को पहचानिए जो क्रमशः 'X' व 'Y' 183. Identify the restriction enzymes used to cut the
Statement-II
स्थल पर: काटते
Taq DNAहै :- polymerase is inactive site 'X' and 'Y' respectively :
at high temperature(72°).
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
(1) Pvu I, Pst I (2) Sal I, EcoRI (1) Pvu I, Pst I (2) Sal I, EcoRI
181. Statement
(3) IPvu :- II,ThePst Iconstruction of theI, first
(4) BamH Sal I (3) Pvu II, Pst I (4) BamH I, Sal I
recombinant DNA वाक्य
184. निम्नलिखित emerged
पढ़े from the possibility of 184. Read the following sentences.
linking (a)
a gene encoding
क्षालन में DNAantibiotic
के पृथक्करण resistance with a जेल से
बैंड को अगारोज (a) In elution the separated bands of DNA are cut out
native plasmid
काटा जाता of हैSalmonella
और जेल के typhimurium
टुकड़े से निकाला. जाता है। from agarose gel and extracted from the gel piece
Statement
(b) IIई.कोलाई
:- Theक्लोनिंग
cuttingवेक्टर
of DNA
pBR-322 at specific
में कई प्रतिबंधन (b) E.coli cloning vector pBR-322 have several
locationsस्थल, ori, एंटीबायोटिक
became possible with प्रतिरोध जीन और rop
the discovery होते है।
of the restriction sites, ori, antibiotic resistance genes and rop.
(c) scissors'.
'Molecular अनुप्रवाह संसाधन व गुणवत्ता नियंत्रण परीक्षण प्रत्येक (c) The downstream processing and quality control
उत्पाद के लिऐ भिन्न-भिन्न होता है। testing vary from product to product.
(1) Statement
(d) सक्षमIजीवाणु
and IIकोशिकाऐं
both are प्लास्मिड
correct. ग्रहण करती है। (d) Competent bacterial cells take up the plasmid.
(2) Statement
(1) सभीI गलत and IIहै both are incorrect. (1) All are incorrect
(3) Only(2)Statement
(d) को छोड़कर सभी सत्य है
I is correct. (2) Except d, all are correct
(3) के वल d सत्य है (3) Only d is correct
(4) Only(4)Statement
सभी सत्य हैII is correct. (4) All are correct
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185. Read
190. the-----------में
following विशिष्ट
statements :- पूरक द्विसूत्री RNA से
दूत RNA 190. Silencing of a specific mRNA due to a
(a) Nematode resistant plant developed by novel complementary double stranded RNA molecule
strategyबंधित प'pkतofनिष्क्रिय
basedहोनेon केprocess हो जाता है, जिसके
RNA interference that binds to and prevents translation of mRNA
(RNAi).फलस्वरूप दूत RNA के अनुवादन को रोकता है - is known as____.
(b) RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms
(1) रूपान्तरण (2) अनुवादन (1) Transformation (2) Translation
as method of cellular defense.
(c) RNAi(3) involves
RNA अंतरक्षेप
silencing of(4)specific
RNA mRNA
प्रेरण (3) RNA interference (4) RNA induction
due to complementary dsRNA.
191. नीचे दिया गया चित्र इंसुलिन के परिपक्वन को दर्शाता है सही 191. Following is a diagrammatic representation of
(d) Transgenic host express two non-
सेट का चयन कीजिए जिसमें A, B, C और D को सही maturation of insulin. Select the correct set of the
complementary RNA's that initiate RNAi.
Correctनामांकित कियाare
statements गया: हो names labelled A, B, C and D.

(1) Only a,b (2) Only a, b, d

(3) Only a, b, c (4) a, b, c, d
SECTION - B (ZOOLOGY)
186. ELISA is based on principle of ....... interaction.
(1) Antigen - antibody (2) DNA - DNA
(3) DNA - RNA A (4) BDNA - Protein
C D A B C D

187. Which of(1)the प्रोइंसुलिन

following B-पेप्टाइड
peptides are present inमुक्त C
A-पेप्टाइड (1) Proinsulin B-Pcptide A-Pcptide
Free C
mature insulin ? पेप्टाइड Peptide
(2) प्रोइंसुलिन
(1) A-peptide A-पेप्टाइड B-पेप्टाइड
and B-peptide इंसुलिन (2) Proinsulin A-Pcptide B-Pcptide Insulin

(2) A-peptide and C-peptide मुक्त C Free C

(3) प्रोइंसुलिन A-पेप्टाइड B-पेप्टाइड (3) Proinsulin A-Pcptide B-Pcptide
पेप्टाइड Peptide
(3) B-peptide and C-peptide
(4) प्रोइंसुलिन B-पेप्टाइड A-पेप्टाइड इंसुलिन (4) Proinsulin B-Pcptide A-Pcptide Insulin
(4) Only C-Peptide
192. एथिडियम
188. Human proteinब्रोमाइड से रंजित हुए isजैलused
α -1-antitrypsin में डी.एन.ए.
to के 192. You can see bright orange coloured bands of DNA
treat :- चमकदार नांरगी रंग के बैंड देख सकते हैं :- in ethidium bromide stained gel exposed to :-
(1) ऑइसोप्रोपनाॅल (2)
(1) Phenylketonuria से Haemophilia
(2) IR लाइट (प्रकाश) में (1) Isopropanol (2) IR light
(3) U.V. लाइट (प्रकाश)
(3) Colorblindness में (4) दृश्य प्रकाश में
(4) Emphysema (3) U.V. light (4) Visible light
189. Bt193.
-toxinबायोरिएक्टर
is produced as बनने
मे उत्पाद inactive protoxin
के बाद, विपणन केandलिए तैयार 193. After the formation of products in the bioreactors it
gets converted into बनने
अंतिम उत्पाद activeसे form in insect
पहले यह gut dueसे गुजारा
कई प्रक्रियाओ undergoes through some processes, before a finished
to :- जाता है, इन प्रक्रियाओं को क्या कहते है :- product is ready for marketing. This is called :-
(1) Alkaline pH
(1) क्षालन (1) Elution
(2) Acidic
(2) pH
प्रतिप्रवाह संसाधन (2) Upstream processing
(3) Neutral pH संसाधन
(3) अनुप्रवाह (3) Down stream processing
(4) High
(4)amount
रूपांतरणof silicon (4) Transformation
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7 48 Hindi + English

194. Agrobacterium
199. निम्न खण्डोtransform
का मिलान करियेnormal
:- plant cell into 199. Match the following columns :-
a tumour
(a)by delivering
ampR a piece
(i) Pvu II of DNA, known (a) ampR (i) Pvu II
as :- (b) tetR (ii) Pvu I (b) tetR (ii) Pvu I
(1) R-DNA
(c) rop (iii)(2)Sal C-DNA
I (c) rop (iii) Sal I
सही विकल्प चुनें (4) Mt DNA
(3) T-DNA Chose the correct option –
195. Which (1)
of the
a-ii, following
b-i, c-iii technique is used
(2) a-iii, to
b-ii, c-i (1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii (2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
amplify gene of interest invitro :-
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii (4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i (3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii (4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i
(1) Gel electrophoresis
200. नीचे दिये गये चित्र को ध्यानपूर्वक देखें और इससे सम्बन्धित 200. Study the given figure carefully and select the
(2) Polymerase
असत्य कथनchain reaction
को चुनेः- incorrect statement regarding this :-
(3) DNA profiling
(4) DNA test
196. ECoRI cuts the DNA between the bases :-
(1) G and T only
(2) G and C only
(i) यह एक प्रारूपिक एगरोज जेल इलेक्ट्रोफोरोसिस को (i) It represents a typical agarose gel
(3) A and T only electrophoresis in which lane 1 contains
दर्शाता है, जिसमें पंक्ति-1 में अपचित DNA है।
(4) G and
(ii) Aसबसेonlyछोटा DNA बैण्ड A पर है और सबसे बड़ा undigested DNA.
(ii) Smallest DNA bands are found at A and
197. Which DNA
enzyme बैण्डisBnot
पर बना है। correctly with its
related largest DNA bands are found at B.
(iii): पृथक्कृ त DNA खण्डों को अभिरंजित करने के बाद
functions (iii) The separated DNA fragments can be
दृश्य प्रकाश में देखा जाColumn-B
Column-A सकता है। visualized after staining in the visible light.
(iv)polymerase
(1) Taq पृथक्कृ त DNA बैंण्ड्स को एगरोज
Synthesis of DNAजेल से काट लिया (iv) The separated DNA bands are cut out from
जाता है, और जेल टुकड़े से निष्कर्षित किया जाता है। इस पद the agarose gel and extracted from the gel piece.
Obtaining DNA by
को क्षालन (Elution) कहते हैं।
(2) Chitinase This step is known as Elution.
lysis of bacterial cell
(1) (i) तथा (ii) Remove (2) (ii) तथा (iii)
nucleotides (1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) Exonucleases
(3) (ii) तथा (iv) from the (4) ends
(i) तथा (iv)
of DNA (3) (ii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iv)
Joining of DNA
(4) DNA ligase
fragments

198. Which of the following represents a correct

palindromic DNA sequence ?
(1) 5'-CATTAG-3' 3'GATAAC-5'
(2) 5'GGGCCC-3' 3'CCCGGG-5'
(3) 5'-GAATTC-3' 3'-CTTAAG-5'
(4) Both (2) and (3)
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9
K / रफ कार्य के लिए जगह  : 
 Read carefully the following instructions :
1. 
1. Each candidate must show on demand his/her
  Allen ID Card to the Invigilator.
2.  
2. No candidate, without special permission of
  the Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
3. 
3. The candidates should not leave the
 Examination Hall without handing over their
Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty.
4.     4. Use
of Electronic/Manual Calculator is
 prohibited.
5.     
5.   are governed by all Rules and
The candidates

Regulations of the examination with regard to
their conduct in the Examination Hall. All

cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per
 Rules and Regulations of this examination.
6. 
6. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet
   shall be detached under any circumstances.
7. 
7. The candidates will write the Correct Name
  and Form No. in the Test Booklet/Answer
Sheet.


[email protected] within 2 days along with Paper code and Your Form No. CAREER INSTITUTE Pvt. Ltd.
Registered & Corporate Office : ‘SANKALP’, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA-324005
Form No. के साथ 2 दिन के अन्दर [email protected] पर mail
Ph. : +91-744-3556677, +91-744-2757575|E-mail : [email protected]|Website : www.dlp.allen.ac.in, dsat.allen.in

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