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SET-9

The document is a sample paper for the JEE Main 2025 examination, consisting of three subjects: Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics, with a total of 75 questions. Each subject is divided into two sections, with multiple-choice questions in Section A and numerical value-type questions in Section B. The paper outlines the scoring system, instructions for students, and includes various questions from Physics and Chemistry.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
4 views

SET-9

The document is a sample paper for the JEE Main 2025 examination, consisting of three subjects: Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics, with a total of 75 questions. Each subject is divided into two sections, with multiple-choice questions in Section A and numerical value-type questions in Section B. The paper outlines the scoring system, instructions for students, and includes various questions from Physics and Chemistry.

Uploaded by

saadmoggs
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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You are on page 1/ 13

ARIHANT VATSALYA ACADEMY

JEE MAIN 2025


SAMPLE PAPER – 9
TIME ALLOWED: 3 HOURS MAXIMUM MARKS: 300

 GENERAL INSTRUCTION:
1. There are three subjects in the question paper consisting of Physics (Q. no. 1 to 25), Chemistry (Q, no.
26 to 50), and Mathematics (Q. no. 51 to 75).
2. Each subject is divided into two sections. Section A consists of 20 multiple-choice questions & Section B
consists of 5 numerical value-type questions.
3. There will be only one correct choice in the given four choices in Section A. For each question for
Section A, 4 marks will be awarded for correct choice, 1 mark will be deducted for incorrect choice
questions and zero marks will be awarded for not attempted questions.
4. For Section B questions, 4 marks will be awarded for correct answers and zero for unattempted and
incorrect answers.
5. Any textual, printed, or written material, mobile phones, calculator etc. is not allowed for the students
appearing for the test.
6. All calculations/written work should be done in the rough sheet is provided with the Question Paper.

PHYSICS
(SECTION-A)

1. A very broad elevator platform is going up vertically with a constant acceleration 1 ms. At the instant when the
velocity of the lift is 2 m/s, a stone is projected from the platform with a speed of 20 m/s relative to the platform at
an elevation 30°. The time taken by the stone to return to the floor will be(g = 10m/s2)

A) B) C) D)

2. The force exerted by a compression device is given by for , where Zis the maximum
possible compression, xis the compression and k is a constant. The work required to compress the body by a
distance d will be maximum when:

A) B) C) D)

3. Figure shows a short magnet executing small oscillations in a uniform magnetic field directed into page and
magnitude 24 μ T. The period of oscillation is 0.1 s. When the key K is closed, an upward current of 18A is
established as shown. The new time period is__________ (Neglect the effect of earth's magnetic field)
(Needle oscillates in plane normal to the page)
A) 0.1 s B) 0.2 s C) 0.05 s D) 0. 4 s
4. A satellite is moved from one circular orbit around the earth to another of lesser radius. Which of the following
statement is true?
A) The kinetic energy of satellite increases and the gravitational potential energy of satellite - earth system
increases.
B) The kinetic energy of satellite increases and the gravitational potential energy of satellite - earth system
decreases.
C) The kinetic energy of satellite decreases and the gravitational potential energy of satellite - earth system
decreases.
D) The kinetic energy of satellite decreases and the gravitational potential energy of satellite - earth system
increases.
5. The relation between internal energy U, pressure P and volume V of a gas in an adiabatic process is
.
Where a and b are constant. What is the effective value of adiabatic constanty?
A) B) C) D)

6. The root mean square speed of the molecules of a diatomic gas is v. when the temperature is doubled, the
molecules dissociate into two atoms. The new root mean square speed of the individual atom is
A) √ B) C) D)
7. In young's double slit experiment, the two slits are coherent sources of equal amplitude and wave length. In
another experiment with the same setup, two slits are sources of equal amplitude 'A'and wavelength λ, but are
incoherent. The ratio of intensities of light at the midpoint of the screen in the first case to that in second case, is
A) 2:1 B) 1:2 C) 3:4 D) 4:3

8. The relative error in calculating the value of g from the relation √ is

(given the relative errors in calculating T and l are ± x and ± y respectively)


A) B) C) D)
9. I1, I2, I3 and I4 are the moment of inertial of square plate about the axis marked 1, 2, 3 and 4 respectively and I is
the moment of inertia about an axis passing through O and perpendicular to the plate, Relation between them is
given as
i) I = I1 + I2 iii) I = I2 + 14
ii) I = I1 + I3 iv) I = I1 + I2 + I3 + I4
Which of the following options is incorrect?
A) (i) and (iii) C) Only (ii)
B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) D) Only (iv)
10. A cylindrical container filled with a liquid is being rotated about its central axis at a constant angular velocity.
Four points A, B, C and D are chosen in the same plane such that ABCD is a square of side length a and AB is
horizontal while BC is vertical. A and D lie on the axis of rotation. Let the pressure at A, B, C and D be denoted
by PA, PB, PC and PD respectively. Now, consider the following two statements.
(i) PC > PA for all values of ω
(ii) PB > PD only if > √

Which of these options is correct?

A) Both (i) and (ii) are correct C) (ii) is correct and (i) is incorrect
B) (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect D) Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect

11. Two point dipoles ̂ and ̂ are located at (0, 0, 0) and (1 m 0, 2m) respectively. The 2 resultant electric field

due to the two dipole at the point (1m, 0, 0) is...

12. A electron having kinetic energy T is moving in a circular orbit of radius R perpendicular to a uniform magnetic
induction .If kinetic energy is doubled and magnetic induction tripled, the radius will become

A) B) √ C) √ D) √

13. A metallic rod of length 'l' is tied an insulating string of length 2l and made to rotate with angular speed ω on a
horizontal table with one end of the string fixed. If there is a vertical magnetic field 'B' in the region, the e.m.f.
induced across the ends of the rod is:
14. In order to establish an instantaneous displacement current of 1 mA in the space between the plates of 2μF parallel
plate capacitor, the time varying potential difference need to apply is
A) 100 Vs-1 B) 200 Vs-1 C) 300 Vs-1 D) 500 Vs-1
15. Light of wavelength 2475 Å is incident on barium. Photoelectrons emitted describe a circle of maximum radius
100 cm by a magnetic field of flux density Tesla. Work function of the barium is (nearly (Given = 1.7

× 1011), hc = 12375(eV – A0)

A) 1.8 eV B) 2.1 eV C) 4.5 eV D) 3.3 eV


16. Two positively charged particles are projected along two parallel lines on a smooth horizontal surface as shown.
Which of the following statement is incorrect corresponding to their subsequent motion? [Before any collision
(except between the particles) takes place]
A) The linear momentum of the system of particles is conserved in any direction
B) The angular momentum of the system of particles is conserved about any point in space
C) The angular momentum of each particle is individually conserved about their center of mass
D) The angular momentum of each particle is individually conserved about any point in space
17. A particle of mass 5 × 105 kg is placed at lowest point of smooth parabola x2 = 40y (x and y in m). If it is
constrained to move along parabola, angular frequency of small oscillations (in rad/s) will be approximately (g=10
m/s2)

A) √ B) 10 C) D) 5

18. A point charge q is placed at a distance r from the center of a thin metallic neutral spherical shell of radius R as
shown in fig. electric potential at point A is

19. There is a plot of binding energy per nucleon , against the number mass M; A, B, C, D, E, F correspond to
different nuclei.

Consider four reactions


(i) (iii)
(ii) (iv)
Where is the energy released? In which reactions is positive?
A) (i) and (iii) B) (ii) and (iv) C) (ii) and (iii) D) (i) and (iv)
20. An R-L-C series circuit with 100 Ω resistance is connected to an AC source of 200 V and ω = 300 rad/s. When
only capacitor is removed, the current lags behind voltage by 60°. When only inductor is removed, the current
leads voltage by 60°. The power dissipated in the R-L-C circuit is
A) 200 W B) 400 W C) 200 √ W D) 100 W

PHYSICS
(SECTION-B)

21. A 15 kg block is initially moving along a smooth horizontal surface with a speed of v=4m/s to the left. It is acted
by a force F, which varies in the manner shown. If the velocity of the block at t = 15 seconds is 'X'. Then the value
of [X] =___ ([ ]−greatest integer function)

Given that, ( )
22. A convex lens of focal length f = 20 cm is cut into two equal pieces and the pieces are separated by 3mm as shown
in the figure. A point object O is placed at a distance of 30 cm. The distance between the two image points formed
will be (in mm)

23. A ball of mass m moving horizontally with a velocity o strikes the bob of a pendulum at rest. The mass of the bob

is also m. If the collision is perfectly inelastic, the height to 2 which the system will rise is given by , then

the value of x is
24. A copper wire is held at the two ends by rigid supports. At 30° C, the wire is just taut, with negligible tension.
Find the speed of transverse waves (in m/s) in this wire at 10° C in decimeter/second [Given, for copper: Young's
modulus = 1.3 × 1011 N/m2, coefficient of linear expansion = 1.7 × 10°C-1, density = 9 × 103 kg/m3.]

25. In a meter bridge, the wire of length 1 m has a non uniform cross section such that, the variation of its

resistance R with length l is . Two equal resistances are dl connected as shown in the figure. The

galvanometer has zero deflection when the jockey is at point P. The length AP is X (in m), then 100X = ...

CHEMISTRY
(SECTION-A)

26. In which of the following pairs, the hybridization of central atom is same, but shape is not the same?
A) B) C) D)
27. Number of π−bonds in B2, C2, N2, respectively as per molecular orbital theory is:
A) 1,2,3 B) 0,1,2 C) 1,2,2 D) 1,1,2
28. 22.44 kJ of energy is required to convert 8 g of gaseous metal, M to M +(g). If the first ionisation energy of the
metal is 374 kJ/mol, select the incorrect statement from the following.
A) 0.06 moles of gaseous M+ are formed C) Gram atomic mass of the metal is 133.33 g
B) Same energy can convert all the M+ to M2+ D) 3.613 × 1022 atoms of M are converted to M+
29. Assertion(A): The single N-N bond is weaker than the single P-P bond
Reason(R):High inter electronic repulsion of the non-bonding electrons due to the small N-N bond length In the
light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A) Both (A) and (R) true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
B) (A) is false but (R) is true.
C) Both (A) and (R) true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
D) (A) is true but (R) is false.
30. A coordinate complex of formula CrCl3.6H2O has green colour. IL of 0.1 M solution of the complex when treated
with excess of AgNO3 gave 28.7g of white precipitate. The formula of the complex would be: [At.wt. Ag: 108
amu; At.wt. of Cl = 35.5 amu]
A) B) C) D)
31. Which type of Isomerism cannot be shown by ?
A) Geometrical B) Ionisation C) linkage D) hydrate
32. Which of the following does not involve d→ d transition for causing colour?
A) B) C) D)
33. The NH, evolved from 0.5 gm of the organic compound in KJeldhal's estimation of Nitrogen neutralizes 10 ml of
1M . Identify the incorrect statement out of the following.
A) Percentage of nitrogen in the organic compound is 56%
B) 20 milli moles of is produced C) 10 milli moles of is produced
D) if the evolved NH, were neutralized by 10 ml of IM HCl, the % of nitrogen, would have been 28%.

The product “C” in the above reaction formed is

Ease of SN1 reactions among these compounds upon treatment with aqueous NaOH will be in the order as:

A) (I) > (II) > (III) > (IV) > (V) C) (I) > (IV) > (III) > (II) > (V)
B) (IV) > (I) > (III) > (II) > (V) D) (V) > (IV) > (III) > (II) > (I)

The compound (C) is


37. When neopentyl alcohol is heated with an acid, it slowly converted into an 85: 15 mixture of alkenes A and B,
respectively. Then, the ratio between number of hyper conjugated structures for A and B is:
A) 5:9 B) 5:1 C) 1:5 D) 9:5
38. End product in the following sequence of reactions is:

40. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason(R):
Assertion (A): Gabriel phthalimide synthesis cannot be used to prepare aromatic primary amines.
Reason (R): Aryl halides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction at room temperature.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A) Both (A) and (R) true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
B) (A) is false but (R) is true.
C) Both (A) and (R) true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
D) (A) is true but (R) is false.
41. Which of the following statement is false?
A) In fibrous proteins, poly peptide chains are held by hydrogen & disulphide bonds.
B) In Globular proteins, chains of polypeptides coil around to give a spherical shape
C) Keratin & myosin are fibrous proteins and soluble in water
D) Insulin & albumin are globular proteins and soluble in water
42. The conductivity of a saturated aq.solution of AgCl at 298 K is found to be 1.382 × 10 -2 Ω-1m-1. The ionic
conductance of and at infinite dilution are and respectively. The
solubility of AgCl is
A) 1 × 10-1 mol L-1 C) 1 × 10-3 mol L-1
B) 1 × 10-2 mol L-1 D) 1.9 × 10-5 mol L-1
43. 50 g of antifreeze (ethylene glycol) is added to 200 g water. What amount of ice will separate out at -9.3°C? (Kf =
1.86K kg mol-1).
A) 38.71 mg B) 42 g C) 38.71 g D) 42 mg
44. An energy of 24.6eV is required to remove the first electron from helium atom. The energy required to remove
both electrons from helium atom is
A) 54.4cV B) 79 eV C) 49.2 cV D) 51.8 eV
45. For the first order reaction 34 8 concentration varies with time as shown in the adjacent graph. The half-life of the
reaction would be

A) 4 minutes B) 2 minutes C) 6 minutes D) 8 minutes

CHEMISTRY
(SECTION-B)

46. When the ionization energy Vs atomic number is plotted for the elements, of atomic number 11 to 18, two peaks
are observed for the element X and Y in between the curve. What is the difference between atomic number of
element X and element Y?
47. For a low spin, complex, the value of spin only magnetic moment is x B.M in an octahedral field. Then the
value of is____________.
48. The number of compounds among the following more reactive than acetic acid towards decarboxylation by soda-
lime is

49. How many of the following groups activates benzene ring towards electrophilic aromatic substitution?

The number of idoform molecules produced per molecule of the reactant in above reaction_______________.

MATHEMATICS
(SECTION-A)

51. If a' is a complex number satisfying the relation-1-a-3(1+i). Then a equals to


A) B) C)

D) No such complex number exists


52. The greatest integral value of k such that both the roots of the equation are
positive, one root is less than 2 and the other root lies between 2 and 3 is
A) 13 B) 14 C) 23 D) 24

53. Let matrix ( ) then (where I is a unit matrix of order 2) equals to

A) B) C) D)
54. In a bag there are three tickets with number 1, 2, 3. A ticket is drawn at random and the number is noted and put
back in the bag, this is repeated for four times. Then the chance that the sum of those numbers is even is
A) B) C) D)

55. If then the value of ( )

A) -2 B) 1 C) D) 2

56. Given lines

S1: The lines are intersecting S2: The lines are not parallel
A) Both S1 and S2 are true C) S1 is false and S2 is true
B) S1 is true and S2 are false D) Both S1 and S2 are false

57. ∫ .√ √ /
A) B) C) 2 D) 4

59. The solution of the differential equation is, where 'c' is an arbitrary constant

A) cos y = (et + c) (t + 1) C) cos y = (et + c) (t - 1)


B) cos y = (et - c) (x - 1) D) sin y = (et + c) (t + 1)
60. The minimum value of k for which the quadratic equation
has both positive roots is: (k ∈ I)
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
61. If a + β = 2 then the maximum value of the independent term of x in the expansion of
3 6

is
A) 42 B) 68 C) 84 D) 148
62. The set of critical points of the function is
A) {1} B) {1,2} C) {-1,2} D) , -

63. The mean and variance of the marks obtained by the students in a test are 10 and 4 respectively. It is known that
one of the students got '12' instead of 8. If the new mean of the marks is 10.2 then the new variance is equal to
A) 4.04 B) 4.08 C) 3.96 D) 3.92
64. The area enclosed between the curves √| | is

A) B) C) D) 2

65. Statement 1: | | is differentiable at x = 0


Statement 2: If f(x) is not differentiable and g(x) is differentiable at x = a, then can still be
differentiable at x = a
A) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true C) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true
B) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false D) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is false

66. If { where {.} represents fractional part function, then

67. Match the following


A) A-Q;B-S;C-R;D-P C) A-SB-Q; C-R; D-Q
B) A-S; B-Q;C-P;D-Q D) A-S; B-Q;C-P;D-R

68. The value of [100 (k-1)] where [x] represents the G.I.F. and is

A) 144 B) 142 C) 141 D) 140


69. The sum of possible integral values of k for which the point P(0, k) lies on or inside the triangle formed by the
lines and is
A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7
70. The acute angle between the lines and and a , b , c are the

roots of the equation is

MATHEMATICS
(SECTION-B)

71. If Then the number of real ordered pairs that satisfy the given equation is N. Then

* + where [x] represents G.I.F. equals to

72. An equilateral triangle has its centroid at the origin and one side is then the sum of the slopes of the
other two sides is

73. If | ⃗| | ⃗⃗| | ⃗| Then the value of | | is equal to


74. If are the roots of and are the roots of such that are in
G.P. Then the product of the integral values of K and L is___________.

75. The total number of distinct real values of „t‟ for which | | is__________.
PHYSICS
1. C 2. D 3. B 4. B 5. B 6. C 7. A 8. C 9. D 10. A
11. B 12. C 13. C 14. D 15. C 16. D 17. C 18. B 19. D 20. B
21. -13 22. 9 23. 8 24. 701 25. 25

CHEMISTRY

26. D 27. C 28. B 29. C 30. D


31. C 32. C 33. D 34. B 35. C 36. D 37. D 38. B 39. B 40. C
41. C 42. C 43. C 44. B 45. B 46. 3 47. 8 48. 4 49. 6 50. 1

MATHEMATICS

51. D 52. C 53. D 54. C 55. D 56. C 57. C 58. D 59. D 60. B
61. C 62. B 63. C 64. B 65. A 66. C 67. B 68. C 69. B 70. B
71. 20 72. 4 73. 10 74. 64 75. 2

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