EBD_7341

168 Polity

6 Polity
1. Which of the following is not a Parliamentary Committee? 7. Who among the following was never a Deputy Prime
[2007-I] Minister of India? [2007-II]
(a) Demands for Grants Committee (a) Devi Lal (b) GL Nanda
(b) Committee on Public Accounts (c) LK Advani (d) YB Chavan
(c) Committee on Public Undertakings 8. Which one of the following is the subject of the Narasimhan
(d) Committee on Esti mates Committee Reports of years 1991 and 1998? [2007-II]
2. Consider the following statements [2007-I] (a) Administrative Reforms
1. A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Council of (b) Banking Reforms
States. (c) Constitutional Reforms
2. The Council of States cannot reject a Money Bill nor (d) Electoral Reforms
amend it. 9. Consider the following statements [2007-II]
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1. The Annual Appropriation Bill is passed by the Lok
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Sabha in the same manner as any other Bill.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be
3. Which one of the following statements in not correct? initiated by an introduction of a Bill in either Lok
[2007-I] Sabha or Rajya Sabha.
(a) The Vice-President of India holds office for a period Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
of five years (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(b) The Vice-President of India can be removed by a simple (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
majority of votes passed in the Rajya Sabha only 10. Who of the following constitutes a Finance Commission
(c) The Vice-President of India continues to be in office for a State in India? [2007-II]
even after the expiry of his term till his successor (a) The President of India
takes over (b) The Governor of the State
(d) The Supreme Court of India has to look into all disputes (c) The Union Finance Minister
with regard to the election of the Vice-President of India (d) The Union Cabinet
4. Who was the President of India at the time of proclamation (d) Any sitting Judge of High Court or Supreme Court
of emergency in the year 1976? [2007-I] 11. Consider the following statements about the Attorney-
(a) V.VGiri General of India? [2007-II]
(b) Giani Zail Singh 1. He is appointed by the President of India
(c) Fakhr-ud-din Ali Ahmad 2. He has the right to take part in the proceeding of the
(d) Shankar Dayal Sharma Parliament.
5. The Sarkaria Commission Report deal with which one the 3. He has the right of audience in all courts in India.
following? [2007-I] Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Corruption in India (b) Centre-state relations (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) local governance (d) Inter-river dispute (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
6. Assertion (A) The number of the Members of the Union 12. Who among the following can be the Chairperson of the
Public Service Commission is preserved in the Constitution National Human Rights Commission? [2007-II]
of India. (a) A Member of either House of Parliament
Reason (R) The Union Public Service Commission was (b) A Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India
constituted under the provisions in the Constitution of India. (c) A social worker actively involved in the promotion
Codes [2007-II] of human rights
(a) Bath A and R are true and R is the correct explanation 13. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution
of A of India includes the disqualification of a Legislator on
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct grounds of defection? [2007-II]
explanation of A (a) 8th Schedule (b) 7th Schedule
(c) A is true, but R is false (c) Schedule (d) 10th Schedule
(d) A is false, but R is true
Polity 169

14. Who among the following determines the authority who 20. Consider the following statements [2008-I]
shall readjust the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha to 1. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs constitute Consultative
the states and division of each State into territorial Committees of Members of both the Houses of Parliament.
constituencies? [2007-II] 2. The main purpose of these Committees are to provide a
(a) The President of India forum for formal discussions between the Government
(b) The Parliament of India and Members of Parliament on polices and programmes
(c) The Chief Election Commissioner of India of the Government.
(d) The Lok Sabha alone Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
15. Consider the following statements [2007-II] (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
1. The maximum number of the Judges of the Supreme (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Court of India is prescribed in the Constitution of 21. In which part of the Constitution, details of citizenship
India. are mentioned? [2008-I]
2. The maximum number of the Members of the Union (a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV
Public Service Commission is prescribed in the 22. Match the following [2008-I]
Constitution of India. List I List II
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (Schedule in the (Subject)
(a) Only I (b) Only 2 Constitution of India)
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 A. Tenth Schedule 1. Languages
16. Consider the following statements [2007-II] B. Eighth Schedule 2. Provisions as to
1. When the Vice-President of India acts as the President disqualification on the
of India, he performs simultaneously the functions grounds of defection
of the Chairman of Rajya Sabha. C. First Schedule 3. Validation of certain Acts
2. The President, of India can promulgate ordinances and Regulations
at any time except when both Houses of Parliament D. Ninth Schedule 4. The States
are in session. Codes
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A B C D A B C D
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 2 3 4 1
17. Which schedule of the Constitution of India contains the 23. Financial distribution between the Union and the State
three lists that divide powers between the Union and the takes place on the basis of the recommendations of which
sates? [2008-I] one of the following? [2008-I]
(a) Fifth (b) Sixth (a) The National Development Council
(c) Seventh (d) Eigth (b) The Inter-State Council
18. What does the 93rd Constitutional Amendment deal with? (c) The Planning Commission
[2008-I] (d) The Finance Commission
(a) Inclusion of Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali 24. Who among the following was the first Law Minister of
languages in the Eighth Schedule India? [2008-I]
(b) Inclusion of service tax levied by Union and collected (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
and appropriated by the Union and the states in the (b) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
Seventh Schedule (c) Dr BR Ambedkar
(c) Free and compulsory education for all children (d) T Krishnamachari
between the age of 6 and 14 years 25. Who is the Chairman of second Administrative Reforms
(d) No reservation in Panchayats need to be made in Commission? [2008-I]
favour of Scheduled Castes in Arunachal Pradesh (a) Bimal Jalan (b) Dr Karan Singh
19. Consider the following statements [2008-I] (c) M Veerappa Moily (d) Ahmed Patel
1. The Union Executive consists of the President and 26. Assertion (A) An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed
the Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as be a decree of a Civil Court. [2008-II]
the head. Reason (R) Award of Lok Adalat is final and binding on
2. The President may, by writing under his hand all parties, and no appeal lies against thereto before any
addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office. court
3. Executive power of the Union is vested in the Prime Codes
Minister. (a) Bath A and R are true and R is the correct explanation ofA
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 explanation of A
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Only 2 (c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
 EBD_7341
170 Polity

27. Sarkaria Commission was established to study [2008-II] (a) Nagpur (b) Panaji
(a) President and Governoers' relations (c) Pune (d) Aurangabad
(b) Centre-State relations 34. Consider the following statements [2008-II]
(c) State and Panchayat body relations 1. The Chairman and the Members of the UPSC are
(d) President and Prime Minister' relations appointed by the President.
28. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 2. The Chairman and the Members of the UPSC are
[2008-II] eligible for further employment under the Government.
Article 26 of the Constitution of India states that subject Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
to public order, morality and health, every religious (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
denomination or any section there of shall have the right. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. to establish and maintain institutions for religious 35. Department of Official Language (Raj Bhasha Vibhag)
and charitable purposes. comes under which one of the following Ministries?
2. to manage its own affairs in matters of religion. [2008-II]
3. to own and acquire movable and immovable property. (a) Ministry of Culture
Select the correct answer using the codes given below (b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3 (c) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above (d) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
29. Consider the following statements on Parliamentary 36. With respect to Article 371 A of the Constitution of India,
Committees [2008-II] the Governor of which one of the following States has
1. Members of the Rajya Sabha are not associated with special responsibility with respect to law and order of the
the Committees on Public Accounts and Public State? [2008-II]
Undertakings. (a) Asom (b) Manipur
2. Members of the Committee on Estimates are drawn (c) Nagaland (d) Andhra Pradesh
from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. 37. Consider the following statements [2009-I]
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1. The Ministries Departments of the Union Government
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 are created by the Prime Minister.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. The Cabinet Secretary is the Ex-officio Chairman of
30. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee recommended which the Civil Services Board.
one of the following Panchayati Raj structures? [2008-II] Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) Gram Panchayat at the village level and Panchayat (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Samiti at the block level only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Panchayat Samiti at the block level and Zilla Parishad 38. The Veerapa Moily Commission in its report on
at the district level only Administrative Reforms among other aspects has
(c) Gram Panchayat at the village level, Panchayat Samiti suggested doing away with which one of the following
at the block level and Zilla Parishad at the district pairs of Articles of the Constitution of India? [2009-I]
level (a) Articles 305 and 306 (b) Articles 307 and 308
(d) Gram Panchayat at the village level and Zilla Parishad (c) Articles 308 and 309 (d) Articles 310 and 311
Parishad at the district level only 39. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of
31. Who among the following was the Finance Minister of the following pairs is not correctly matched [2009-I]
India in the Interim Government during 1946-1947?
[2008-II] Subject List
(a) R K Shanmukham Chetty (a) Stock Exchanges The State List
(b) John Mathai (b) Forest The Concurrent List
(c) Liaquat Ali Khan (c) Insurance The Union List
(d) Chintamanrao Deshmukh
(d) Marriage and Divorce The Concurrent List
32. Consider the following statements [2008-II]
1. Article 46 of the Constitution of India provides for
free legal aid to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled 40. Which of the following is not a recommendation of the
Ashok Mehta Committee on Panchayati Raj ? [2009-I]
Tribes.
(a) Open participation of political parties in Panchayati
2. Article 14 of the Constitution of India provides for
Raj affairs
equality before law.
(b) Creation of a three-tier system
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Scheduled Tribes
33. The Bombay High Court does not have a bench at which (d) Compulsory powers of taxation to Panchayati Raj
Institution
one of the following places? [2008-II]
Polity 171

41. In which one of the following Minsitries the census 3. In the performance of his duties he shall have the
organisation has been functioning on a permanent footing right of audience in all courts of India.
since 1961? [2009-I] Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Health and Family Welfare (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3
(b) Home Affairs (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Social Justice and Empowerment 48. In which of the following years the Fundamental Duties
(d) Human Resource Development have been added to the existent Fundamental Rights in
42. Consider the following Vice-Presidents of India [2009-I] the Constitution of India? [2009-I]
1. V.VGiri 2. M Hidayatullah (a) 1965 (b) 1976
3. BD Jatti 4. GS Pathak (c) 1979 (d) 1982
49. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of
Which one of the following is the correct chronology of
the Parliament? [2009-I]
their tenures?
(a) The Public Accounts Committee
(a) 1, 4, 3, 2 (b) 2, 1, 3, 4
(b) The Estimates Committee
(c) 3, 2, 1,4 (d) 4, 1,3, 2 (c) The Committee on Public Undertakings
43. Who among the following was the first Speaker of the (d) The Committee on Petitions
Lok Sabha? [2009-I] 50. Who among the following recommends to the Parliament
(a) M A Ayyangar (b) G V Mavalankar for the abolition of the Legislative Council in a State?
(c) Sardar Hukam Singh (d) N Sanjiva Reddy [2009-II]
44. Which one of the following is the correct chronological (a) The President of India
order of the tenures of the following Presidents of Indian (b) The Governor of the concerned State
National Congress? (c) The Legislative Council of the concerned State
1. Jagjivan Ram 2. K Kamaraj (d) The Legislative Assembly of the concerned State
3. P D Tandon 4. U N Dhebar 51. The Sachar Committee Report pertains to [2009-II]
(a) 1 2 4 3 (a) Indian federalism
(b) 2 3 4 1 (b) Economic development of backward regions
(c) 3 4 2 1 (c) Indian Muslims
(d) 3 4 1 2 (d) OBC's
45. According to Article 164(1) of the Constitution of India, in 52. The 73rd Amendment of the Constitution provided
three States there shall be a Minister in charge of tribal welfare constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj Institutions.
who may in addition be in charge of the welfare of the Which of the following are the main features of this provision?
Scheduled Castes and Backward Classes. Which one of the [2009-II]
following States is not covered by the Article? [2009-I] 1. A three-tier system of Panchayati Raj for all states.
(a) Jharkhand (b) Punjab 2. Panchayat election in every 5 years.
3. Not less than 33% of seats are reserved for women.
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Odisha
4. Constitution of district planning committies to prepare
46. Match the following [2009-I]
development plans.
List I List II Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(Provision of the (Source) (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
Constitution of India) (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
A. Amendment of the Constitution of 53. Which of the following would be construed as a reasonable
Constitution Germany restriction of the right to freedom'? [2009-II]
(a) When the state disallows a candidate from securing
B. Directive Principles Constitution of
votes in the name of religion
Canada (b) When the state disallows citizens from forming a club
C. Emergency Power of Constitution of out of State funds that denies access to women
the President South Africa (c) When the Government of Nagaland disallows temporary
D. The Union-State Irish Constitution residents to buy immovable property in Nagaland.
Relations (d) All of the above
Codes : 54. In India the Supreme Command of the Armed Forces is,
vested in the President. This means that in the exercise of
A B C D A B C D
this power [2009-II]
(a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 3 4 1 2
(a) he/she cannot be regulated by law
(c) 1 4 2 3 (d) 3 7 4 2
(b) he/she shall be regulated by law
47. Consider the following statements with respect to the (c) during war, the President seeks advice only from the
Attorney General of India [2009-I] Chiefs of the Armed Forces
1. He is appointed by the President. (d) during war the President can suspended the
2. He must have the same qualifications as are required Fundamental Rights of citizens
by a Judge of High Court.
 EBD_7341
172 Polity

55. Which one of the following is not a correct description of 63. Consider the following statements [2009-II]
the Directive Principles of State Policy? [2009-II] 1. A person who was born on January, 26th, 1951 in
(a) Directive Principles are not enforceable by the courts Rangoon, whose father was a citizen of India by birth
(b) Directive Principles have a political sanction at the time of his birth is deemed to be an Indian
(c) Directive Principles are declaration of objective for citizen by descent.
State Legislation 2. A person who was born on July, 1st 1988 in Itanagar,
(d) Directive Principles promise equal income and free whose mother is a citizen of India at the time of his
health care for all Indians birth but the father was not, is deemed to be a citizen
56. Which one of the following jurisdictions of the Indian of India by birth.
judiciary covers Public Interest Litigation? [2009-II] Which of the statements given above is/are corrcet?
(a) Original Jurisdiction (b) Appellate Jurisdiction (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Epistolary Jurisdiction (d) Advisory Jurisdiction (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
57. The quorum for Joint Sitting of the Indian Parliament is 64. Who among the following was elected President of India
[2009-II] unopposed? [2009-II]
(a) One- twelveth of the total number of members of the (a) Dr Rajendra Prasad
House (b) Dr S Radhakrishnan
(b) One-sixth of the total numbers of members of the House (c) Dr Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
(c) One-tenth of the total number of members of the House (d) K R Narayanan
(d) Two-third of the total number of members of the House 65. Which one of the following rights conferred by the
58. According to the Constitution (Fifty Second Amendment Constitution of India is also available to non-citizens?
Act, 1985 as amended in 2003, a legislator attracts [2009-II]
disqualification under the 10th Schedule if [2009-II] (a) Freedom of speech, assembly and form association
1. he voluntarily gives up the membership of the party (b) Freedom to move, reside and settle in any part of the
on whose ticket he was elected. territory of India
2. he votes or abstains from voting contrary to any (c) Freedom to acquire property or to carry on any
occupation, trade or business
direction issued by his political party.
(d) Right to constitutional remedies
3. as a result of split, less than one third of the members
66. The function of a Protem Speaker is to [2009-II]
formed a new group or party in the house.
(a) conduct the proceeding of the House in the absence
4. a member who has been elected as a independent
of the Speaker
member joins any political party.
(b) officiate as Speaker when the Speaker is unlikely to
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
be elected
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) swear members and hold charge till a regular Speaker
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
is elected
59. Who among the following Indian Prime Ministers could
(d) scrutinize the authenticity of the election certificates
not vote for himself during the 'Vote of Confidence' that of members
he was seeking from the Lok Sabha? [2009-II] 67. If the Prime Minister is a member of the Rajya Sabha
(a) VP Singh (b) PV Narasimha Rao [2009-II]
(c) Chandra Sekhar (d) Manmohan Singh (a) He/she has to get elected to the Lok Sabha within 6 months
60. Which one of the following states does not have Vidhan (b) He/she can declare the government's policies only
Parishad? [2009-II] in the Rajya Sabha
(a) Bihar (b) Maharashtra (c) He/she cannot take part in the voting when a vote of
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Uttar Pradesh no confidence is under consideration
61. Identify the correct sequence of passing a Budget in the (d) He/she cannot take part in the budget deliberation in
Parliament [2009-II] the Lok Sabha
(a) Vote on Account, Finance Bill, Appropriation Bill 68. Under which of the following conditions security deposits
Discussion on Budget of a candidate contesting for a Lok Sabha seat is returned
(b) Finance Bill, Appropriation Bill, Discussion on to him/her? [2009-II]
Budget, Vote on Accounts 1. The nomination made by the candidate if found to
(c) Discussion on Budget, Vote on Account, Finance be invalid.
Bill, Appropriation Bill 2. The candidate has withdrawn his/her nomination
(d) Discussion on Budget, Appropriation Bill, Finance even though it is found valid.
Bill, Vote on Account 3. The candidate lost the polls but secured l/6th of the
62. Which one of the following Commissions is not provided total number of valid votes polled in that election.
in the Constitution of India? [2009-II] Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Planning Commission (b) UPSC (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 3
(c) Finance Commission (d) Election Commission (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
Polity 173
69. Consider the following statements with respect to the (a) The religion cannot be mobilised for political ends
Comptroller and Auditor General of India [2010-I] (b) Abolishing untouchability from the country
1. He shall only be removed from office in like manner (c) The basic structures of the Constitution, as defined
and on the ground as a Judge of the Supreme Court. in the preamble, cannot be changed
2. He shall not be eligible for further office either under (d) Right to life and liberty cannot be suspended under
the Government of India or under the Government of any circumstance
any State after he has ceased to hold his office. 77. Which of the following statements regarding the
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Fundamental Duties contained in the Constitution of India
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 are correct? [2010-II]
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Fundamental Duties can be enforced through writ
70. Which one of the following International Human Rights
jurisdiction.
Instruments has been signed by India but not yet
2. Fundamental Duties have formed a part of the
ratified ? [2010-I]
Constitution since its adoption.
(a) Convention on the right of the child.
(b) Convention on the Elimination of all forms of 3. Fundamental Duties became a part of the Constitution
discrimination against women in accordance with the recommendations of the
(c) Convention on the political rights of women Swaran Singh Committee.
(d) Convention on the nationality of married women 4. Fundamental Duties are applicable only to the citizens
71. The Constitution (74th) Amendment Act makes mention of India.
of the [2010-I] Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) composition of the National Development Council (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4
(b) structure of the Planning Commission of India (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
(c) functions of the State Finance Commission 78. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights is also
(d) functions of the Kaveri Water Authority available to a foreigner on Indian soil? [2010-II]
72. Under which of the following conditions can citizenship (a) Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion,
be provided in India? [2010-I] race, caste, sex or place of birth
1. One should be born in India. (b) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
2. Either of whose parents was born in India (c) Protection of life and personal liberty according to
3. Who has been a resident of India for not less than procedure established by law
five years. (d) To practice any profession or to carry on any
Select the correct answer using the codes given below occupation, trade or business
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) None of these DIRECTIONS (Qs. 79-81) : The following questions are based
73. Which one of the following is a human right as well as a on the following passage.
Fundamental Rights under the Constitution of India? Civil society has become the leitmotif of movements struggling
[2010-I] to free themselves from unresponsive and often tyrannical post
(a) Right to Information (b) Right to Education
colonial elites. If the first wave of liberation took place along
(c) Right to Work (d) Right to Housing
with decolonisation, the second wave comes up against those
74. Consider the following statements [2010-I]
very elites who had taken power after decolonisation. I see the
1. The total elective membership of the Lok Sabha is
distributed among the States on the basis of the beginning of an authentic civil society in the voice of those
population and the area of the State. outside the ambit of norms laid down by the state-ecology,
2. The 84th Amendment Act of the Constitution of India gender, class-in the resistance of those who refuse to let the
lifted the freeze on the delimitation of constituencies state site its projects wherever it places, in the voice of those
imposed by the 42nd Amendment. who reject corrupt elites in the political passions of those
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? whose nerves are not numbed by consumer capitalism, in the
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 letters to the newspapers, in oral communication. These are
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 people who do not opt out of civil society, but who demand
75. Who among the following Indian Prime Ministers that the state deliver what it has promised in the Constitution
resigned before facing a vote of no-confidence in the Lok and the law, who demand State accountability, who expand the
Sabha? [2010-I] sphere of rights to encompass those which has arisen out of
(a) Chandra Shekhar the struggles of the people.
(b) Morarji Desai 79. What are the methods adopted by civil society activists?
(c) Chaudhary Charan Singh [2010-II]
(d) VP Singh (a) Written and oral communication
76. For which one of the following Judgements of the Supreme (b) Social movements
Court of India, the Kesavananda Bharati vs State of India (c) Resistance movements, individually or collectively
case is considered a landmark? [2010-I] (d) Collective people's struggles
 EBD_7341
174 Polity

80. What does the author mean by 'authentic civil society'? 84. What does the author mean by nyaya? [2010-II]
[2010-II] (a) Judiciary and judicial processes
(a) People who have lost faith in parliamentary system (b) The rule of law and the Constitution
(b) Citizens who are not corrupt but do not vote (c) A concept of justice that combines theories of justice
(c) Citizens who passionately advocate the cleansing with the practice of democracy
of institutional malpractice and societal injustices (d) Universal theories of justice that are applicable as
through non parliamentary methods standards in all societies
(d) Activists who want moral accountability and judicial 85. Zero Hour in the Indian Parliament starts at [2010-II]
redress of all wrong doings in society (a) first hour of the sitting (b) last hour of the sitting
81. What are the demands not generated by people's struggle? (c) 12 : 00 noon (d) no fixed timings
(a) Good delivery of public services [2010-II] 86. The core of political democracy lies in the basic axiom of
(b) Rule of law electoral democracy which is based on [2010-II]
(c) State accountability (a) Right to education (b) Freedom of speech
(d) Uniform civil code (c) Right to equality (d) Universal adult franchise
87. Which one of the following statements regarding judiciary
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 82-84) : The following questions are based
in India is not correct? [2010-II]
on the following passage.
(a) District Courts in India are presided over by a Judge
A government in a democratic country has to respond to on- (b) The District and Session Judge is the principal court
going priorities in public criticism and political reproach and to of civil jurisdiction
the threats to survival it has to face. The removal of long (c) The Munsiff's Court has both civil and criminal
standing deprivations of the disadvantaged people of our jurisdiction
country may, in effect, be hampered by the biases in political (d) The District and Session Judge has the power to
pressure, in particular when the bulk of the social agitation is impose capital punishment
dominated by new problems that generate immediate and noisy 88. The impeachment of the President of India can be initiated
discontent among the middle class Indians with a voice. If the in [2010-II]
politically active threats are concentrated only on some specific (a) either house of the Parliament
new issues, no matter how important (such as high prices of (b) a joint siting of both houses of the Parliament
consumer goods for the relatively rich, or the fear that India's (c) the Lok Sabha alone
political sovereignty might be compromised by its nuclear deal (d) the Rajya Sabha alone
with the USA), rather than on the terrible general inheritance of 89. Formal or procedural democracy does not by any means
India of acute deprivation, deficient schooling, lack of medical guarantee [2010-II]
attention for the poor and extraordinary under nourishment (a) political and civil rights
(especially of children and also of young women), then the (b) constitutionalism
pressure on democratic governance acts relentlessly towards (c) the rule of law
giving priority to only those particular new issues rather than (d) absence of caste discrimination
to the gigantic persistent deprivations that are at the root of so 90. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
much inequity and injustice in India. The perspective of [2010-II]
realisation of justice and that of an adequately broad nyaya are 1. A registered voter in India can contest an election to
central not only to the theory of justice, but also to the practice Lok Sabha from any constituency in India.
of democracy. 2. As per the Representation of the People Act, 1951, if
82. What are the 'new issues that dominate the middle class a person is convicted of any offence and sentenced
led social agenda today? [2010-II] to an imprisonment of 2 years or more, he will be
(a) Price rise, progressive taxation and the Indo-USA disqualified to contest election.
nuclear deal Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(b) Acute deprivation, malnourishment and famines (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Dowry deaths, gender inequalities and price rise (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither I nor 2
(d) Illiteracy, poverty and infart mortality 91. Why is political power sharing through different levels of
83. What is the minimum mandate of a democratic government? government desirable in a democracy? [2010-II]
[2010-II] 1. It helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between
(a) Respond to ongoing priorities in public criticism and various social groups.
threats to survival by decisive public action 2. It decreases the possibility of arbitrary decision-making.
(b) Respond to demands of middle class pressure groups 3. It prompts people's participation at different levels
on an urgent basis of government.
(c) Preempt social agitations by enacting sensitive laws Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(d) Attend to severity threats that threaten national (a) Only 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3
sovereignty (c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 2
Polity 175

92. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (b) MPs and MLAs of a State have the same number of
[2010-II] votes
1. In India, the constitutional remedy under Article 32 (c) all MPs and MLAs have one vote each
is available only in case of Fundamental Rights, not (d) MPs and MLAs of different States have different
in the case of rights which follow from some other numbers of votes
provision in the Constitution. 98. Which one among the following is not correct?
2. Both the Supreme Court and High Courts can issue A special category state invariably [2011-I]
the writs of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, (a) is a border State (b) has harsh terrain
certiorari and quo warranto only for the purpose of (c) has low literacy rate (d) has poor infrastructure
enforcement of Fundamental Rights. 99. Despite being a Republican State, India is a member of the
Select the correct answer using the codes given below Commonwealth of Nations whose head is the British
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Monarch. This is because [2011-I]
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) this mernbership does not affect the sovereign nature
93. In India the right to 'freedom of speech and expression' is of the Indian Republic
restricted on the grounds of [2010-II] (b) this membership only shows that the British ruled
1. the sovereignty and integrity of India. over India
2. contempt of court. (c) members of the association are sovereign and
3. friendly relation with foreign states. independent
4. protection of minorities. (d) it is a symbol of the unity among the members of the
Select the correct answer using the codes given below association
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 100. The tenure of every Panchayat shall be for five years from
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4 the date of [2011-I]
94. Which of the following statements with regard to Inter- (a) its first meeting
State Council is/are correct? [2010-II] (b) issue of notification for the conduct of elections to
1. It was established under the provisions of the the Panchayat
Constitution of India. (c) declaration of the election results
2. The Council is a recommendatory body. (d) taking oath of office by the elected members
3. There is a standing committee of the Council under 101. Which one among the following is not true of the Planning
the Chairmanship of the Prime Minister of India to Commission? [2011-I]
process matters for consideration of the Council. (a) It is an advisory body and makes recommendations
Select the correct answer using the codes given below to the Cabinet
(a) Both 1 and 3 (b) Only 2 (b) It is responsible for the execution of development
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these programmes and plans
95. Which one among the following is a function of the Pro- (c) It is responsible for formulation of a plan for the most
Tem Speaker of the Lok Sabha? [2011-I] effective and balanced utilisation of the country's
(a) Conduct of the proceedings of the house in the resources
absence of the Speaker (d) It indicates the factors which tend to retard economic
(b) To check if the election certificates of the members development
of the house are in order 102. Which among the following statements regarding Lord
(c) Swear in the members of the house and hold the Ripon's plan for local self-government in India is/are
charge till a regular Speaker is elected correct? [2011-I]
(d) Give his assent to the bills passed by the house 1. The district should be the maximum area served by
96. The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India one Committee or Local Board.
extends to [2011-I] 2. The Local Boards should consist of a large majority
(a) treaties and agreements signed by the Government of nominated official members and be presided over
of India by an official member as Chairman.
(b) disputes between the Government of India and one Select the correct answer using the codes given below
or more States (a) Only 1 (b) Onty 2
(c) disputes relating to implementation of the Directive (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Principles of State Policy 103. Which of the following features is/are contrary to the
(d) a bill passed by the Parliament which is violative of norms of a federal polity? [2011-I]
the Constitution 1. Common All India Service
97. The President of India is elected by a proportional 2. Single integrated judiciary
representation system through single transferable vote. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
This implies that [2011-I] (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) each elected MP or MLA has an equal number of votes (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
 EBD_7341
176 Polity

104. The Civil Liability of Nuclear Damage Bill, passed in the 109. Statement I ' The Fundamental Rights protect the rights
Lok Sabha on August 2010, does not make provision for and liberties of the people against encroachment by the
[2011-I] legislative and executive wings of the government.
(a) establishment of claims commission and appointment Statement II The Fundamental Rights guarantee the rights
of claims commissioner of the citizens.
(b) a liability cap of `1500 crore on an operator in case of 110. Statement I The principle of equality before the law is not
an accident applicable to the President of India.
(c) a liability cap of `1500 crore also on the Government Statement II The President of India enjoys some special
of India in case of an accident privileges under the Constitution of India
(d) liability of the operator even if an accident is unintentional 111. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of
105. Which of the following statements regarding writ of India need the ratification by the legislatures of not less
certiorari is/are correct? [2011-I] than one-half of the states to effect amendment? [2011-I]
1. There should be court, tribunal or an officer having 1. The manner of election of the President of India.
legal authority to determine the questions of deciding 2. Extent of the executive power of the Union and the
Fundamental Rights with a duty to act judicially. states.
2. Write of certiorari is available during the tendency of 3. Powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts.
proceedings before a subordinate court. 4. Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only I (b) Only 2 (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
106. Which one among the following statements regarding the 112. Which of the following statements with respect to the
constitutionally guaranteed Right to Education in India is judiciary in India is/are correct? [2011-I]
correct? [2011-I] 1. Unlike in the United States, India has not provided
(a) This right covers both child and adult illiteracy and for a double system of courts.
therefore, universally guarantees education to all 2. Under the Constitution of India, there is a single
citizens of India integrated system of courts for the Union as well as
(b) This right is a child right covering the age group of 6 to the states.
14 years and becomes operational from the year 2015 3. The organisation of the subordinate judiciary varies
(c) This right has been taken from the British Constitution slightly from state to state.
which was the first Welfare State in the world Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(d) This right has been given to all Indian children (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
between the ages of 6 to 14 years under the 86th (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
Constitutional Amendment Act 113. Consider the following statements about the powers of
the President of India [2011-I]
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 107-110) : The following questions consist
1. The President can direct that any matter on which
of two statements. Statement I and Statement II. You are to
decision has been taken by a Minister should be
examine these two statements carefully and select the answers
placed before the Council of Ministers.
to these questions using the codes given below. [2011-I]
2. The President can call all information relating to
Codes proposals for legislation.
(a) Both the Statements are true and Statement II is the correct 3. The President has the right to address and send
explanation of Statement I messages to either House of the Parliament.
(b) Both the Statements are true, but Statement II is not the 4. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to
correct explaination of Statement I the administration of the Union must be
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false communicated to the President.
(d) Statement I is false, but Statement li is true Which of the statements given above are correct?
107. Statement I Adjournment is a short recess within the (a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
session of the Parliament ordered by the Presiding Officer (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1,2, 3 and 4
of the House. 114. There are different arguments given in favour of power
Statement II When the Presiding Officer adjourns the sharing in a democratic political system. [2011-I]
House without fixing any date or time of the next meeting Which one of the following is not one of them?
of the House, it is known as adjournment sine die. (a) It reduces conflict among different communities
108. Statement I By virtue of a law passed by the Parliament of (b) Majority community does not impose its will on others
India in the year 2003, the people of Indian origin residing (c) Since, all are affected by the policies of the government,
in 16 countries enjoy dual citizenship status. they should be consulted in the governance of the
Statement II This law enables them to participate in country
economic activities, cast their vote or get elected to (d) It speeds up the decision-making process and
various legislative bodies in India. improves the chances of unity of the country
Polity 177
115. The Chief Election Commissioner of India holds office for 2. Reserve the Bill passed by the state legislature for
a period of [2012-I] consideration of the President.
(a) six years 3. Return the Bill, other than a money Bill, for
(b) during the pleasure of the President reconsideration of the legislature.
(c) for 6 years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(d) for 5 years or till the age of 60 years, whichever is earlier (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
116. Which of the following Committees are the Committees of (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above
Parliament? [2012-I] 122. Which one among the following is not guaranteed by the
1. Public Accounts Committee Constitution of India? [2012-I]
2. Estimates Committee (a) Freedom to move freely throughout the country
3. Committee on Public Undertakings (b) Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
Select the correct answer using the code given below (c) Freedom to own, acquire and dispose property
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 anywhere in the country
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Freedom to practice any trade or profession
117. According to the Administrative Tribunal Act, 1985. the 123. The Constitution of India divided the states of India in
Central Administrative Tribunal adjudicates disputes and categories A, B, C and D in the year 1950.
complaints with respect to the service of persons who are In this context which of the following statements is
[2012-I] correct ? [2012-I]
(a) appointed to pubic services and posts in connection (a) The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of
with the affairs of the Union except members of the category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive
Defence services head of category B states. The Governor was the
(b) official and servants of the Supreme Court or any executive head of categories C and D states
High Courts (b) The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category
(c) members of the Secretarial staff of the Parliament or A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive
any state legislatures head of categories B and C states. The Governor
(d) members of the Defence services was the executive head of the category D states
118. With reference to the conduct of government business in (c) The Governor was the executive head of category A
the Parliament of India, the term 'closure' refers to [2012-I] states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of
(a) suspension of debate at the terminafan of a day's category B states. The Chief Commissioner was the
sitting of the Parliament executive head of categories C and D states
(b) a rule of legislative procedure under which further (d) The Governor was the executive head of category A
debate on a motion can be hatted states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive
(c) the termination of a Parliamentary session head of category B states. The Rajpramukh was the
(d) refusal on the part of tie Government to have the executive head of categories C and D states
opposition look at important documents 124. The Kamraj Plan was a plan formulated in 1963 by then
119. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court of [2012-I]
India gave verdicts which have a direct bearing on the (a) Union Cabinet Minister, whereby a new Constitution
Centre-State relations? [2012-I] for the Indian National Congress was proposed
(a) Keshavananda Bharati case (b) Chief Minister of Madras, whereby the senior
(b) Vishakha case ministers were asked to leave government and work
(c) S R Bommai case to rejuvenate the party
(d) Indira Sawhney case (c) Chief Minister of Madras, whereby a new set of
120. Which of the following are envisaged as being part o f principles for accepting donations for the party work
the 'Right against Exploitation' in the Constitution of India? was proposed
[2012-I] (d) Chief Minister of Madras to root out corruption from
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour. India
2. Abolition of untouchability. 125. Which of the following condition/conditions must be
3. Protection of the interests of the minorities. fulfilled by the NRIs to be eligible to vote in elections in
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories India? [2012-I]
and mines. 1. They must be physically present in their place of
Select the correct answer using the codes given below origin to exercise their franchise.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 2. NRIs whether they have acquired citizenship of other
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 countries or not are eligible to vote.
121. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 3. Eligible NRIs have to register by filling up form 6-A
Under the provisions of Article 200 of the Constitution of with electoral registration office.
India the Governor of a state may [2012-I] Select the correct answer using the codes given below
1. Withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the state (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
legislature. (c) Only 2 (d) Only 3
 EBD_7341
178 Polity

126. The purpose of Directive Principles of State Policy is to (b) Article 14, would enable the court to strike down a-
[2012-I] statute which failed to achieve the socialist goal to
(a) lay down positive instructions which would guide the fullest extent
State Policy at all levels (c) Article 25, would enable the court to ensure freedom
(b) implement Gandhiji's idea for a decentralised state guaranteed under that Article
(c) check the use of arbitrary powers by the government (d) Article 23, would enable the court to reduce inequality
(d) promote welfare of the backward sections of the society in income and status
127. Which one among the following pairs of level of government 133. Consider the following statements According to Hindu
and legislative power is not correctly matched? [2012-I] Law, marriage is defined as [2012-I]
(a) Central Government : Union List 1. A contract 2. A sacrament
(b) Local Governments : Residuary powers 3. Mutual understanding 4. Indissoluble
(c) State Governments : State List Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(d) Central and State Government : Concurrent List (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
128. Which one among the following is the distinguishing (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
factor between a pressure group and a political party? 134. Under which law it is prescribed that all proceedings in
[2012-I] the Supreme Court of India shall be in English language?
(a) Pressure groups are confined to a few, while political (a) The Supreme Court Rules, 1966 [2012-I]
parties involve larger number of people (b) A Legislation made by the Parliament
(b) Pressure groups do not seek active political power, (c) Article 145 of the Constitution of India
political parties do (d) Article 348 of the Constitution of India
(c) Pressure groups do not politically motivate people, 135. Which among the following conditions are necessary
while political parties do for the issue of writ of quo warranto? [2012-I]
(d) Political parties take political stance, while pressure 1. The office must be public and must be created by a
groups do not bother about political issues Statute or by the constitution itself.
129. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation the 2. The office must be a substantive one and not merely
duration of the Lok Sabha can be extended for a period the function or employment of a servant at the will
(a) not exceeding three months [2012-I] and during the pleasure of another.
(b) not exceedng nine-months 3. There has been a contravention of the Constitution
(c) of one year at a time or a Statute or Statutory Instrument, in appointing
(d) of two years at a time such person to that office.
130. With regard to the powers of the Rajya Sabha, which one Select the correct answer using the codes given below
among the following statements is not correct? [2012-I] (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(a) A money bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
(b) The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or 136. The Constitution of India is republican because it
amend a money bill (a) provides for an elected Parliament [2012-I]
(c) The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual (b) provides for adult franchise
Financial Statement (c) contains a bill of rights
(d) The Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the (d) has no hereditary elements
Demands for Grants 137. Take the case of dignity and equal rights for women. How
131. Suppose a Legislation was passed by the Parliament do democracies help? [2012-I]
imposing certain restrictions on newspapers. These (a) Women in democracies have equal degree of political
included page ceiling, price and advertisements. The representation in legislatures
legislation is included in the Ninth Schedule to the (b) Women in democracies have guaranteed rights and
Constitution of India. In this context, which one among are always treated with respect
the following statements is correct? [2012-I] (c) Women in democracies are not subjected sex
(a) The legislation is invalid as it violates the Freedom discrimination in most aspects of social life
of Press (d) In democracies, the principle of equality is accepted
(b) The legislation is valid by virtue of Article 31 B as legal norm, which makes it easier to guarantee
(c) The legislation is invalid as it imposes unreasonable their freedom and dignity
restrictions under Article 19 (2) of the Constitution 138. Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties
(d) The legislation is valid as the Press is not a citizen of citizens under the Constitution of India? [2012-I]
under Article 19 of the Constitution (a) To provide friendly co-operation to the people of the
132. Which one among the following statements is not correct? neighbouring countries
[2012-I] (b) To protect monuments of national importance
The word 'socialist' in the Preamble of the Constitution of (c) To defend the country and render national service
India read with when called upon to do so
(a) Article 39 (d), would enable the court to uphold the (d) To know more and more about the history of India
constitutionality of nationalisation laws
Polity 179

139. Which one among the following is not an attribute of 145. The Instrument of Instructions contained in the Goverment
sustainability of Indian democratic model? [2012-II] of India Act, 1935 has been incorporated in the
(a) Unity in diversity in socio-cultural patterns Constitution of India in the year 1950 as [2012-II]
(b) Sustained economic growth specially after the 1990s (a) Fundamental Rights
(c) Regular elections in the centre and states since 1950s (b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) A strong industrial base with a vibrant federal structure (c) Extent of Executive Power of State
140. The Preamble is useful in constitutional interpretation (d) Conduct of business of the Government of India
because it [2012-II] 146. The Rights to Information means and includes [2012-II]
(a) uses value loaded words 1. Inspection of documents.
(b) contains the real objective and philosophy of the 2. Taking out files from office to any place desired by
constitution makers the applicant.
(c) is a source of power and limitation 3. Taking photograph of files.
(d) gives and exhaustive list of basic features of the 4. Obtaining information in tapes.
Constitution Select the correct answer using the codes given below
141. In the Rajya Sabha, the states have been given seats (a) 1, 2, 3, and 4
(a) in accordance with their population [2012-II] (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) equally (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) on the basis of population and economic position (d) 2 and 4 only
(d) on the basis of present economic status 147. Consider the following statements [2012-II]
142. What is/are the major difference/differences between 1. In India, only two Union Territories have Legislative
a written and an unwritten Constitution? [2012-II] Assemblies.
1. A written Constitution is the formal source of all 2. Mizoram, Nagaland and Meghalaya, the three North-
Constitutional Laws in the country and the unwritten Eastern States of India, have only one seat each in
Constitution is not the formal source. the Lok Sabha.
2. A written Constitution is entirely codified whereas Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
an unwritten Constitution is not. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Select the correct answer using the codes given below (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 148. Wh ich among the following provisions of the
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the National Social
143. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may be removed from office Assistance Programme launched by the Government of
by [2012-II] India? [2012-II]
(a) the majority party in the house adopting a no- 1. Fundamental Rights
confidence motion 2. Fundamental Duties
(b) a resolution passed by not less than half of the total 3. Directive Principles of State Policy
membership of the house Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(c) a resolution passed by at least two-thirds of the total (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
membership of the house (c) Only 3 (d) All of these
(d) a resolution passed by a majority of all the members 149. With reference to Lok Adalats, which one among the
of the house following statements is correct? [2012-II]
144. Match the following [2012-II] (a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters
List I List II at pre-litigative state and not those matters pending
(Act) (Feature) before any court
(b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and
A. The Indian Councils Introduction of provincial
not criminal in nature
Act, 1892 autonomy
(c) Lok Adalats has not been given any statutory status
B. The Indian Councils Introduction of the so far
Act, 1909 Indian principle of election (d) No appeal lies in a civil court against the order of the
C. The Government of Introduction of diarchy in Lok Adalat
India -Act, 1919 provinces 150. Delimitation of constituencies and determination of
D. The Government of Introduction of separate constituencies reserved for Scheduled Castes and
India Act, 1935 electorate for the Muslims Scheduled Tribes are done by [2012-II]
(a) Election Commission
Codes (b) Delimitation Commission
A B C D A B C D (c) Planning Commission
(a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 1 3 4 2 (d) Election Commission with the assistance of Delimitation
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 1 4 3 2 Commission
 EBD_7341
180 Polity

151. Which one among the following statements about the 3. At anytime before noon on the day preceding the
functioning of political parties in a democracy is not date so fixed, any member may give notice in writing
correct? [2012-II] of a motion that another member be chosen as the
(a) Political parties give political education to the people Deputy Speaker of the House.
(b) Political parties serve as a link between the government Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
and the people (a) 2 and 3 (b) Only 2
(c) Political parties fight elections and try to get the (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
maximum number of their candidates elected 157. Which one among the following is not included in the
(d) None of the above Fundamental Rights embodied in the Constitution of India?
152. Which one among the following is not a recommendation [2012-II]
of the Sarkaria Commission on the appointment of the (a) Right to Equality
Governor in a state? [2012-II] (b) Right to Freedom
(a) He/She must not have participated in active politics (c) Right against Exploitation
at least for sometime before his/her appointment as (d) Right to Information
Governor 158. Which one among the following countries redefined the
(b) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court may be principles of 'Panchashila' for the purpose of domestic
consulted by the President in selecting a Governor politics? [2013-I]
(c) The Governor's term of office of five years should (a) Ghana (b) China
not be disturbed except very rarely (c) Indonesia (d) Sri Lanka
(d) The Governor should not be the native of the state 159. The Parliament of India passed the Panchayats Extension
153. Which one among the following writs literally means you to Scheduled Areas Law popularly known as PESA law.
many have the body? [2012-II] Which one among the following statements regarding
(a) Certiorari (b) Habeas Corpus PESA law is not correct? [2013-I]
(c) Mandamus (d) Quo Warranto (a) PESA was meant to provide self-governance in the
154. Which one among the following is not a fundamental duty scheduled areas
of the citizen of India? [2012-II] (b) PESA disempowers Gram Sabhas
(a) To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit (c) PESA protects the interests of the tribals
of inquiry and reform (d) PESA conducts public hearings to protect inheritance
(b) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence rights of the tribals
(c) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and 160. How does participatory budgeting seek to make the
integrity of India functioning of local governance institutions more
(d) To practice family planning and to control population transparent and accountable? [2013-I]
155. The writ of Prohibition is issued by a superior court 1. By allowing citizens to deliberate and negotiate over
[2012-II] the distribution of public resources.
(a) to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding 2. By allowing citizens to play a direct role in deciding
its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of how and where resources should be spent.
natural justice 3. By allowing historically excluded citizens with access
(b) to an inferior court or body exercising judicial or to important decision-making venues.
quasijudicial functions to transfer the record to Select the correct answer using the codes given below
proceedings in a case for its review (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) where it can call upon a person to show under what (c) Only 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
authority he/she is holding the office 161. The Constituent Assembly of India convened to prepare
(d) to an authority to produce an illegally detained the Constitution of India appointed a sub-committee
person before the court for trial headed by Gopinath Bordoloi. [2013-I]
156. Consider the following statements relating to the Which of the following recommendations was/were made
procedure of the election of the Speaker and the Deputy by the committee?
Speaker of the Lok Sabha [2012-II] 1. Fifth Schedule for the North-East Frontier (Assam)
1. The election of a Speaker shall be held on such date Tribal and Excluded Areas.
as the Prime Minister may fix and the Secretary 2. Constitution of District Councils in all autonomous
General shall send to every member . notice of this districts of Assam.
date. 3. Sixth Schedule for the North-East Frontier (Assam)
2. The election of a Deputy Speaker shall be held on Tribal and Excluded Areas.
such date as the Speaker may fix and the Secretary 4. Demarcation of territories in North-East India.
General shall send to every member notice of this Select the correct answer using the codes given below
date. (a) Only 1 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 4
Polity 181

162. Consider the following statements [2013-I] (b) The enforcement of Articles 20 and 21 cannot be
1. The Anti-Defection Law bans an elected member from suspended
voting against the explicit mandate of his/her party. (c) Punishments can be prescribed by a State Legislation
2. The Anti-Defection provisions do not apply if one-third for offences under Part III of the Constitution of India
of the members of a party disobey the mandate of the (d) The Fundamental Rights can be abrogated by law
party and constitute themselves as a separate party. made by the Parliament with regard to members of the
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? forces charged with the maintenance of public order
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 169. Besides representation, the Parliament of India is also a
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 deliberative body with diverse functions. [2013-I]
163. Which one among the following is not a constitutional Which one among the following is not a function of the
body in India? [2013-I] Parliament of India?
(a) Comptroller and Auditor General (a) Ventilating the grievances of the people
(b) National Commissioner for religious and Linguistic (b) Executing major policy decisions
Minorities (c) Holding the government accountable for its actions
(c) National Commission for Scheduled Castes and expenditure
(d) National Human Rights Commission (d) Amending the Constitution
164. Which one among the following committees of the Parliament 170. Consider the following statements regarding e-courts,
of India has no members of the Rajya Sabha? [2013-I] launched recently in India [2013-I]
(a) Public Accounts Committee 1. They will facilitate hearing of cases via video
(b) Estimates Committee conferencing.
(c) Public Undertakings Committee 2. They will follow the same procedures that are laid
(d) Departmentally Related Standing Committee on Finance out for the bench for hearing appeals in an open
165. India's Look East Policy was conceived in the early 1990s court.
at a time when India was in the process of adjusting to the Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
post-cold war watershed changes in the international (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
geostrategic environment. The Look East Policy [2013-I] (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. reflects both historical imperatives and contemporary 171. The Governor may recommend the imposition of the
compulsion of the post-cold war new world order. President's rule in the state [2013-II]
2. seeks to optimise India's synergies in the extended (a) on the recommendation of the State Legislature
Asia-Pacific neighbourhood. (b) on the recommendation of the President
3. has led to India's participation in Asia-Pacific forums (c) on the recommendation of the Chief Minister
like ASEAN, East Asia Summit, BIMSTEC and other (d) if he is convinced that the Government of the State
institutions. cannot be carried on in accordance with the
Select the correct answer using the codes given below provisions of the Constitution of India
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 172. Power of the Supreme Court of India to decide the dispute
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Only 2 between centre and state falls under [2013-II]
166. Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties (a) advisory jurisdiction
of citizens under the Constitution of India? [2013-I] (b) original jurisdiction
(a) To provide friendly cooperation to the people of the (c) appellate jurisdiction
neighbouring countries (d) constitutional jurisdiction
(b) To visit the monuments of national importance 173. Electoral disputes arising out of Presidential and Vice-
(c) To defend the country and render national service Presidential Elections are settled by [2013-II]
when called upon to do so (a) Election Commission of India
(d) To know more and more about the religions of India (b) Joint Committee of Parliament
167. The Government of India Act, 1919 [2013-I] (c) Supreme Court of India
1. Established a bicameral legislature at the centre. (d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
2. Introduced dyarchy in the provincial executive. 174. Which of the following statements is not correct? [2013-II]
3. Introduced a Federal System of Government in India. (a) A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council
Select the correct answer using the codes given below of States
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (b) The Council of States has no power to reject or amend
(c) 1,2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 a Money Bill
168. Which one among the following statements is not correct? (c) the Council of Ministers is responsible to the House
[2013-I] of the People and not to the Council of States
(a) The right conferred by Article 32 cannot be suspended (d) The House of the People has special powers with
except by virtue of Article 359 (1) of the Constitution respect to the State List compared to the Council of
of India States
 EBD_7341
182 Polity

175. Which of the following pairs of constitutional authority 181. The Planning Commission of India has been constituted
and procedure of appointment is/are correctly matched? [2013-II]
[2013-II] (a) under constitutional provision with specific mention
1. President : Elected by an electoral college consisting for it
of elected MLAs and MPs (b) through an Act of Parliament
2. Vice-President: Elected by an electoral college (c) through a cabinet decision in this regard
consisting of MLAs and MPs (d) through constitutional amendment
3. Speaker : The House of People chooses after its first 182. The functions of the committee on estimates, as incorporated
sitting in the Constitution of India, shall be to [2014-I]
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 1. report what economies, improvements in organisation,
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 1 efficiency or administrative reform may be effected.
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 2. suggest alternative policies in order to bring about
176. Among the following ideals and philosophy, identify those efficiency and economy in administration.
enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution of India. 3. examine whether the money is well laid out within
1. Sovereign democratic republic. [2013-II] the limits of the policy implied in the estimates.
2. Socialism and secularism. 4. examine the reports, if any, of the Comptroller and
3. Capitalism and free trade. Auditor General on the public undertakings.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1,2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
177. The Judge of the High Courts in India is administered 183. Political theory [2014-I]
oath of office by [2013-II] 1. deals with the ideas and principles that shape
(a) the Chief Justice of the High Court Constitutions.
(b) the Governor of the State 2. clarifies the meaning of freedom, equality and justice.
(c) the President of India 3. probes the significance of principles of rule of law,
(d) the Chief Justice of India separation of power and judicial review.
178. Match the following [2013-II] Select the correct answer using the codes given below
List I (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 1
List II (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
(Commission/
(Mandate) 184. The subject matter of an adjournment motion in the
Committee)
Parliament [2014-I]
A. Sachar Committee 1. Anti-Sikh Riots, 1984
1. must be directly related to the conduct of the Union
B. Srikrishna 2. Socio-economic and Government.
Commission educational conditions 2. may involve failure of the Government of India to
of Muslims in india perform its duties in accordance with the Constitution.
C. Ranganath Misra 3. Bombay Communal Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Commission Riots 1992 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
D. Nanavati (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Linguistic and religious
Commission minorities in India 185. The Departmental Committee of the Parliament of India
on the welfare of the Schedule Castes (SCs) and the
Codes: Scheduled Tribes (STs) shall [2014-I]
A B C D A B C D 1. examine whether the Union Government has secured
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 2 4 3 1 due representation of the SCs and the STs in the
(a) 1 4 3 2 (b) 1 3 4 2 services and posts under its control.
179. Which of the following freedoms is not specifically 2. report on the working of the welfare programmes for
mentioned in the Constitution of India cas a Fundamental the SCs and the STs in the Union Territories.
Right but has been subsequently upheld by the Supreme Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Court as such? [2013-II]
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) Freedom of trade, occupation and business
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the country
186. Which of the following statements relating to Comptroller
(c) Freedom of association and union
and Auditor General in India is/are correct? [2014-I]
(d) Freedom of the press
1. He/She is not an officer of the Parliament but an
180. In the SR Bommai vs Union of India case, which one
officer under the President.
among the following features of the Constitution of India
2. He/She is an independent constitutional authority
was upheld by the Supreme Court as a basic structure?
not directly answerable to the House.
(a) Liberalism [2013-II]
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(b) Secularism
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Dignity of the human person
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Freedom of religion
Polity 183
187. The principle of "collective responsibility' under (b) Provision for an Indian Union of Provinces and States
parliamentary democracy implies that [2014-I] (c) All the members of the Constituent Assembly were
1. a motion of no-confidence can be moved in the Council to be indians
of Ministers as a whole as well as an individual minister. (d) British Goverment was to supervise the affairs of the
2. no person shall be nominated to the cabinet except Constituent Assembly
on the advice of the Prime Minister. 193. Which of the following principles is/are taken into
3. no person shall be retained as a member of the Cabinet consideration by the Speaker while recognising a
if the Prime minister says that he shall be dismissed. parliamentary party or group? [2014-I]
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 1. An association of members who have an organisation
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 both inside and outside the House
(c) Only 3 (d) 2 and 3 2. An association of members who shall have at least
188. The Committee on Public Accounts under the Constitution one-third of the total number of members of the House
of India is meant for [2014-I] 3. An association of members who have a distinct
1. the examination of accounts showing the programme of parliamentary work
appropriation of sums granted by the House for the Select the correct answer using the codes given below
expenditure of the Government of India (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Onfy 1
2. scrutinising the report of the Comptroller and (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
Auditor-General 194. The Annual Financial Statement of the Government of
3. suggesting the form in which estimates shall be India in respect of each financial year shall be presented
presented to the Parliament to the House on such day as the [2014-I]
Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Speaker may direct
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (b) President of India may direct
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these (c) Parliament may decide
189. The citizenship means [2014-I] (d) Finance Minister may decide
1. full civil and political rights of the citizens. 195. There are provisions in the Constitution of India which
2. the right of suffrage for election to the House of the
empower the Parliament to modify or annual the operation
People (of the Union) and the Legislative Assembly
of certain provisions of the Constitution without actually
of every state.
amending them. [2014-I]
3. the right to become a Member of the Parliament and
They include
Member of Legislative Assemblies.
1. any law made under Article 2 (relating to admission
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
or establishment of new states)
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
2. any law made under Article 3 (relating to formation
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
190. Which of the statements relating to the Deputy Speaker of new states)
of the Lok Sabha is/are correct? [2014-I] 3. amendment of First Schedule and Fourth Schedule
1. The office of the Deputy Speaker acquired a more Select the correct answer using the codes given below
prominent position after the enforcement of the (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
Constitution of India in 1950. (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of these
2. He/She is elected from amongst the members. 196. Which of the following statements in the context of
3. He/She holds office until he/she ceases to be a structure of the Parliament is/are correct? [2014-I]
member of the House. 1. The Parliament of India consists of the President,
Select the correct answer using the codes given below the Council of States and the House of the People.
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 2. The President of India is directly elected by an
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 electoral college consisting of the elected members
191. After a Bill has been passed by the Houses of the of both the Houses of the Parliament only.
Parliament, it is presented to the President who may either Select the correct answer using the codes given below
give assent to the Bill or with hold his assent. The (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
President may [2014-I] (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) assent within six months 197. The legislative power of the Parliament includes making
(b) assent or reject the Bill as soon as possible laws [2014-I]
(c) return the Bill as soon as possible after the Bill is 1. on matters not enumerated in the Concurrent List
presented to him with a message requesting the and State List.
House to reconsider the Bill 2. in respect of entries in the State List if two or more
(d) with hold his assent even if the Bill is passed again State Legislatures consider it desirable
by the Houses 3. for implementing any treaty agreement or convention
192. Which one among the following was not a proposal of with any country even if it falls in the State List.
the Cabinet Mission, 1946? [2014-I] Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) The Constituent Assembly was to be constituted on (a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 2
the democratic principle of population strength (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
 EBD_7341
184 Polity

198. Consider the following statements [2014-I] 203. 'The Draft Constitution as framed only provides a
1. Forming a cooperative society is a Fundamental machinery for the government of the country. It is not a
Right in India. contrivance to install any particular party in power as has
2. Cooperative societies do not fall within the ambit of been done in some countries. Who should be in power is
the Right to Information Act, 2005. left to be determined by the people, as it must be, if the
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? system is to satisfy the test of democracy'. [2014-I]
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 The above passage from Constituent Assembly debates
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is attributed to
199. Match the following [2014-I] (a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Dr B R Ambedkar
List II (c) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
List I
(Role in making of the (d) Acharya J B Kriplani
(Person) 204. Certain Bills can not be introduced or proceeded with
Constitution of India)
unless the recommendation of the President is received.
Member. Drafting
A. Rajendra Prasad 1. However, no recommendation is required in some other
Committee cases. In which one of the following cases such
Chairman.Constituent recommendation is not required? [2014-I]
B. T T Krishanamachari 2.
Assembly (a) For introduction of Bills and for moving amendments
Chairman. Drafting relating to financial matters
C. H C Mukherjee 3. (b) For introduction of a Bill relating to formation of new
Committee
states or of alternation of areas of existing states
Vice Chairman. (c) For moving of an amendment making provision for
D. B R Ambedkar 4.
Constituent Assembly the reduction or abolition of any tax
Codes (d) For introduction of a Bill or moving of an amendment
A B C D A B C D affecting taxation in which states are interested
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 2 4 1 3 205. Consider the following statements about local government
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 3 1 4 2 in India: [2014-II]
200. Which one of the following statements regarding the 1. Article 40 of Indian Constitution provides for the
Departmental Committee of the Parliament of India on the State to organize village panchayats and endow them
empowerment of women is correct? [2014-I] with such powers and authority as may be necessary
(a) The Committee will consist of members of the Lok to make them function as units of self-government.
Sabha only 2. The 73rd and 74th Constitution Amendments inserted
Part IX and IX A in the Constitution.
(b) A Cabinet Minister can be a member of the Committees
3. The provisions in Parts IX and IX A of Indian
(c) The term of office of the members of the Committee Constitution are more or less parallel and analogous.
shall not exceed two years 4. The 73rd Constitution Amendment is applicable to
(d) It reports on the working of welfare programmes for all states irrespective of size of population.
the women Which of the statements given above are correct?
201. Consider the following statements about democracy (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
[2014-I] (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. It consists with the formation of government elected 206. Which of the following is/are department(s) in Ministry
by the people. of Defence ? [2014-II]
2. In democracy, those currently in power have a fair 1. Department of Defence
chance of losing. 2. Department of Defence Research and Development
3. Each vote has one value. 3. Department of Defence Production
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 4. Department of Defence Finance
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(c) Only 1 (d) 2 and 3 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
202. Which of the following statements are correct regarding (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 only
Joint Session of the Houses of the Parliament in India? 207. Consider the following statements about State Election
[2014-I] Commission ? [2014-II]
1. It is an enabling provision, empowering the President 1. The State Election Commissioner shall be appointed
to take steps for resolving deadlock between the two by the Governor of the State.
Houses. 2. The State Election Commission shall have the power
2. It is not obligatory upon the President to summon of even preparing the electoral rolls besides the power
of superintendence, direction and control of election
the Houses to meet in a joint sitting.
to the panchayats.
3. It is being notified by the President. 3. The State Election Commissioner cannot be removed
4. It is frequently resorted to establish the supremacy in any manner from his office until he demits himself
of the Lok Sabha. or completes his tenure.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only
Polity 185

208. Which of I the following statements about Indian Judiciary (a) Members of the armed forces
is not correct ? [2014-II] (b) Members of the forces charged with the
(a) The Constitution of India has not provided for responsibility of maintenance of public order
double system of courts as in the United States (c) Members of the forces employed in connection with
(b) The organization of the subordinate judiciary in India the communication systems set up in the country
varies slightly from State to State (d) Members of the forces employed in connection with
(c) Every State in India has separate High Court the communication systems set up for maintenance
(d) The Supreme Court has issued direction to constitute of public order
an All India Judicial Service to bring about uniformity 214. Notification regarding commencement on cessation of a
in designation of officers in criminal and civil side state of war is the responsibility of [2015-I]
209. Which among the following about the Rangarajan Panel (a) Ministry of Home Affairs
Report on poverty estimation (submitted in July, 2014) is/ (b) Ministry of Defence
are correct? [2014-II] (c) Ministry of External Affairs
1. The report states that three out of ten people in India (d) None of the above
are poor 215. Parliamentry Democracy is one where [2015-I]
2. The report endorsed the Tendulkar committee 1. a balance of popular participation and elite rule takes
suggestion on determining poverty line in India place
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 2. the government is responsible not to the public but
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only to the elected representatives.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. the parliamentarians are delegated the responsibility
210. Which of the following about the principles of Panchsheel of thinking and acting on behalf of their constituents.
are correct ? [2014-II] Select the correct answer using the code given below :
1. These are a set of five principles governing relations (a) 1, 2 and 3
between States (b) 2 and 3 only
2. The assumption of Panchsheel was that newly (c) 1 and 3 only
independent States after decolonization would be (d) 2 only
able to develop a new and more principled approach 216. When martial law is imposed, Parliament cannot make law
to international relations in respect of which one of following matters? [2015-I]
3. The first formal codification in treaty form was done (a) Indemnify any person in respect of any act done by
in an agreement between China and India him in connection with the maintenance of order in
Select the correct answer using the code given below : the area where martial law was in force
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (b) Parliament can by law validate any sentence passed
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only when martial law was in force in the area
211. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court (c) A law of Parliament can validate forfeiture ordered
rule that Constitutional - Amendments were also laws when martial law was in force in the area
under Article 13 of the Constitution of India, which could (d) Any act done under martial law can be validated by
be declared void for being inconsistent with Fundamental Parliament by law
Rights ? [2015-I] 217. Which among the following features of a federal system
(a) Keshavanand Bharati Case is not found in the Indian Political System ? [2015-I]
(b) Golaknath Case (a) Dual citizenship
(c) Minerva Mills Case (b) Distribution of powers between the Federal and the
(d) Maneka Gandhi Case State Governments
212. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct for (c) Supremacy of the Constitution
the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India? [2015-I] (d) Authority of the Courts to interpret the Constitution
1. It was inserted by the first amendment in 1951. 218. Which of the following is not true of Article 32 of the
2. It includes those laws which are beyond the purview Indian Constitution ? [2015-I]
of judicial review. (a) It gives the Supreme Court and the High Courts the
3. It was inserted by the 42nd Amendment. power to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental
4. The laws in the Ninth Schedule are primarily those Rights.
which pertain to the matters of national security. (b) It is included in Part III of the Indian Constitution
Select the correct answer using the code given below : and is therefore itself a Fundamental Right.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Dr. Ambedkar called it the ‘very soul of the Indian
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 3 only Constitution’.
213. Which one of the following categories of persons is not (d) An aggrieved person has no right to complain under
treated at par so far as the availability of Fundamental Article 32 where a Fundamental Right has not been
Rights is concerned ? [2015-I] violated.
 EBD_7341
186 Polity

219. Which of the following statements is/are not true for the Select the correct answer using the code given below.
category of the Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) inserted (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4
by the amendment to the Citizenship Act of India in 2003? (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 only
[2015-I] 225. Which of the following is/are not central feature(s) of
1. It gives dual citizenship to Persons of Indian Origin Article 343 of the Constitution of India?
(PIO) who are citizens of another country. 1. Hindi in Devanagari Script shall be the national
2. It gives Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) who are language of the Union.
citizens of another country, an OCI card without 2. The official language of the Union shall be Hindi in
citizenship. Devanagari Script.
3. It permits the OCI to vote in general elections in India. 3. English language shall continue to be used for official
4. It allows the OCI to travel to India without visa. purposes within States.
Select the correct answer using the code given below : 4. If two or more States agree, Hindi language should
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 be the official language of communication between
(c) 3 only (d) 2 and 4 the States.
220. The power to decide the date of an election to a State Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Legislative Assembly rests with the [2015-I] (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 only
(a) President of India (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 only
(b) Chief Minister and his/her Cabinet 226. After the general elections, the Protem Speaker is
(c) Election Commission of India (a) elected by the Lok Sabha [2015-II]
(d) Parliament (b) appointed by the President of India
221. Which one of the following statements is not correct ? (c) appointed by the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
[2015-I] (d) the senior most member of the Lok Sabha
(a) The President cannot pardon a person sentenced 227. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
by a Court Martial. using the code given below the Lists : [2015-II]
(b) The supreme command of the defence forces of the List-I List-II
Union vests in the President, but its exercise has to (Leader) (Party)
be regulated by law. A. Shyama Prasad 1. Communist Party of
(c) A person awarded rigorous imprisonment cannot Mukherjee India
be compelled to do hard work as this would amount B. Minoo Masani 2. Bharatiya Jana Sangh
to violation of Article 23 of the Constitution of India. C. S. A. Dange 3. Swatantra Party
(d) The Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007 excludes the D. Ashok Mehta 4. Praja Socialist Party
powers of the High Courts under Article 226 of the Code :
Constitution of India in relation to service matters A B C D
of persons in the armed forces. (a) 2 3 1 4
222. Which would be the most appropriate description concerning (b) 4 1 3 2
the Punjab Naujawan Bharat Sabha ? [2015-I] (c) 2 1 3 4
It aspired to (d) 4 3 1 2
(a) do political work among youth, peasants and workers. 228. Which of the following is/are not central tenet(s) of the
(b) spread the philosophy of revolution among students. Constitution of India? [2015-II]
(c) initiate discussions regarding anti-imperialism among 1. Prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion
workers. 2. Gives official status to certain religions
(d) help the formation of a Trade Union Movement in Punjab. 3. Provides freedom to profess any religion
223. The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains 4. Ensures equality of all citizens within religious
provisions for the administration of Tribal areas. Which communities
of the following States is not covered under this
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Schedule? [2015-I]
(a) Assam (b) Manipur (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) Meghalaya (d) Tripura (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 only
224. A Bill is deemed to be a 'Money Bill' if it has any provisions 229. The Constitution of India guarantees freedom of thought
dealing with [2015-II] and expression to all its citizens subject to [2015-II]
1. imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation 1. implementation of Directive Principles
of any tax 2. Fundamental Duties
2. appropriation of money from the Consolidated Fund 3. Right to Equality
of India Select the correct answer using the code given below.
3. imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties (a) l and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
4. payment of fee for licences or fee for service rendered (c) 1 only (d) l, 2 and 3
Polity 187
230. Which one of the following is not a component of the 3. opening Hindu religious institutions of a public
Realist Theory? [2015-II] character to all Hindus
(a) The State is the preeminent actor 4. defamation or incitement to an offence
(b) State sovereignty is important for the affirmation of Select the correct answer using the code given below.
juridical authority over territory (a) 1,2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) The primary objective of all States is survival (c) 3 and 4 only (d) l and 2 only
(d) Survival can be assured in cooperation with 237. Which of the following Fundamental Rights is / are
international organizations available to non-citizens? [2015-II]
231. Which one of the following does not form part of Immanuel 1. Equality before Law
Kant's theory of 'perpetual peace'? [2015-II] 2. Right against Discrimination
(a) Republican Constitutionalism 3. Equality of Opportunity
(b) Federal contract among States to abolish war 4. Protection of Life and Personal Liberty
(c) World Government Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(d) Transformation of individual consciousness (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 4 only
232. Which one of the following statements about the process (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
of the Parliament to make new States is not correct? 238. Which of the following statements about the formation of
[2015-II] the Constituent Assembly is/are correct? [2015-II]
(a) The Parliament may by law form a new State and alter 1. The members of the Constituent Assembly were
the boundaries or names of existing States. chosen on the basis of the provincial elections of 1946.
(b) A Bill to this effect cannot be introduced in the Parliament 2. The Constituent Assembly did not include
except on the recommendation of the President. representatives of the Princely States.
(c) A Bill to this effect may be referred by the President 3. The discussions within the Constituent Assembly were
to the Legislature of the affected State. not influenced by opinions expressed by the public.
(d) Such a law will fall under the purview of Article 368. 4. In order to create a sense of collective participation,
233. Which one of the following statements with regard to submissions were solicited from the public.
India's economy between 1814 to 1860 is not correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below.
[2015-II] (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3
(a) Between 1814 and 1850, four commodities dominated (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
India's exports-raw silk, opium, cotton and indigo. 239. Which of the following laws have been repealed by the
(b) Between 1814 and 1860, five commodities dominated Constitution of India? [2015-II]
India's exports-raw silk, opium, cotton, indigo and jute. 1. The Government of India Act, 1935
(c) Indigo and raw silk required processing techniques. 2. The Indian Independence Act, 1947
(d) Indigo and raw silk were financed by foreign capital. 3. The Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949
234. Which of the following statements with regard to citizenship 4. The Preventive Detention Act, 1950
provisions of the Constitution of India is/ are correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below.
[2015-II] (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 4 only
1. No person shall be a citizen of India by virtue of (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
Article 5, or be deemed to be a citizen of India by 240. A writ of Habeas Corpus for the release of a person can be
virtue of Article 6 or Article 8, if he /she has voluntarily issued [2015-II]
acquired the citizenship of any foreign State. 1. where the arrest or detention has taken place in
2. The Parliament has power to make any provision with contravention of the procedure established by law
respect to the acquisition and termination of 2. to secure the release of a person imprisoned on a
citizenship and all other matters relating to citizenship. criminal charge
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 3. where the arrest has taken place for contempt of
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Court or the Parliament
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Select the correct answer using the code given below.
235. The protection against arrest and detention under Article (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
22 of the Constitution of India is not available to (c) 1 only (d) l and 2 only
1. an enemy alien [2015-II] 241. Which one of the following changes has not been made
2. a person detained under a preventive detention law to the Citizenship Act of India by the Amendment in 2015?
3. a foreigner [2015-II]
4. an overseas citizen of India (a) The Overseas Citizens of India will now be called the
Select the correct answer using the code given below. Overseas Citizens of India Cardholders
(a) l and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 (b) The Non-Resident Indians are entitled to vote in
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 only elections in India
236. Freedom of conscience under the Constitution of India is (c) The Persons of Indian Origin have been placed at
subject to [2015-II] par with the Overseas Citizens of India
1. public order, morality and health (d) The Persons of Indian Origin are now entitled to
2. a law providing for social welfare and reform lifelong visa to visit India
 EBD_7341
188 Polity

242. Which one of the following statements about Electoral 250. Consider the following statements: [2016-I]
Government in India is not correct? 1. The province of Assam was created in the year 1911
(a) The superintendence, direction and control of elections 2 Eleven districts comprising Assam were separated
are vested in the Election Commission of India. from the Lieutenant Governorship of Bengal and
(b) There is one general electoral roll for every territorial established as an independent administration under
constituency. a Chief Commissioner in the year 1874
(c) The Parliament has the power to make laws relating Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?
to the delimitation of constituencies. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(d) The Supreme Court of India has the authority to (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
scrutinize the validity of a law relating to delimitation 251. Consider the following statements about the President of
of constituencies. India. [2016-I]
243. Which one of the following is not a recommendation of 1. The President has the right to address and send message
the Fourteenth Finance Commission? to The Council of Ministers to elicit specific information
(a) Share of States in Central Divisible Pool is increased 2. The President can call for information relating to
from 32 per cent to 42 per cent proposal for legislation
(b) Area under forest cover is an important variable in 3. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to
distribution of States' share among States administration of the Union must be communicated
to the President
(c) Fiscal discipline is dropped as a variable in
Which of the statements given above are correct?
distribution of States share among States
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Sector specific grant is recommended as in the
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
previous Finance Commissions
252. In which one of the following cases, the Constitutional
244. With which one of the following countries. India has signed
validity of the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights of
an MoU under the International Cooperation on Divorce) Act 1986, was upheld by the Supreme court of
Brahmaputra and Sutluj rivers? [2016-I] India? [2016-I]
(a) Pakistan (b) China (a) Muhammad Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum
(c) Bangladesh (d) Nepal (b) Danial Latifi v. Union of India
245. Which of the following is / are Constitutional Body / Bodies? (c) Mary Roy v. State of Kerala
[2016-I] (d) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
1. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes 253. Which one of the following is not among th aims of the
2. National Commission for Women Second Five Year Plan (1956 - 57 to 1960 - 61)?
3. National Commission for Minorities (a) Rapid industrialization with particular emphasis on
4. National Human Right Commission the development of basic and heavy industrics
Select the correct answer using the code given below (b) Large expansion of employment opportunities
(a) 1 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) Achieve self - sufficiency in food grains and increase
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 agricultural production to meet the requirements of
246. Which one of the following nations not a member of the industry and exports
Eurasian Economic Union ? [2016-I] (d) Reduction of inequalities in income and wealth and a
(a) Belarus (b) Russia more even distribution of economic power
(c) Kazakhstan (d) Uzbekistan 254. The National Policy for Children, 2013 recognizes every
247. BRICS leader signed the agreement to establish a New person as a child below the age of: [2016-I]
Development Bank at the summit held in: [2016-I] (a) 12 years (b) 14 years
(a) New Delhi, India (2012) (c) 16 years (d) 18 years
(b) Durban, South Africa (2013) 255. A Member of Lok Sabha does not become disqualified to
(c) Fortoleza, Brazil (2014) continue as a Member of the House if the Member [2016-I]
(d) Ufa, Russia (2015) (a) voluntarily gives up his / her membership of the
248. The category of Overseas citizens of india was entered in political party from which he /she was elected
the citizenship Act of India through an amendement in (b) is expelled by the political party from which he / she
the year: [2016-I] had been elected to the House
(a) 1986 (b) 1992 (c) Joins a political party after being elected as an
(c) 1996 (d) 2003 independent candidate
249. The Right to Education was added to the fundamental (d) abstains from voting contrary to the direction by his
Rights in the Constitution of India through the [2016-I] / her political party
(a) Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002 256. Which one of the following language is not recognized in
(b) Constitution (93th Amendment) Act, 2005 the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India [2016-I]
(c) Constitution (87th Amendment) Act, 2003 (a) English (b) Sanskrit
(d) Constitution (97th Amendment) Act, 2011 (c) Urdu (d) Nepali
Polity 189
257. What were the 12 states of the Sikh confederacy called ? 263. Consider the following statements : [2016-I]
[2016-I] 1. The President of India shall have the power to
(a) Misl (b) Gumata appoint and remove the Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Sardari (d) Rakhi 2. The Speaker has to discharge the function of his office
258. Which of the statement given below is / are correct? [2016-I] himself throughout of his office term and cannot
1. The ideal of a common civil code is set forth in Article delegate his function to the Deputy Speaker during
44 of the Constitution of India his absence from the station or during his illness.
2. In certain respects, the High Courts in India have been Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
given more extensive power than the Supreme Court (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
3. The Supreme Court of India, the first fully independent (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Court for the country was set up under the Constitution 264. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (2005)
of India in 1950 was concerned with [2016-I]
Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) reforms in institutional arrangements for good
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only governance
(c) 1 only (d) 3 only (b) reforms in the Indian Penal Code and the Criminal
259. Which one of the following Articles Schedules in the Justice System
Constitution of India deals with Autonomous District (c) creating an ombudsma mechanism for reduction of
Councils? [2016-I] corription in public life
(a) Eighth Schedule (b) Article 370 (d) devising new measures for urban governance and
(c) Sixth Schedule (d) Article 250 management
260. Which of the following statement about Comptroller and 265. As per the Constitution of india, the Writ of Prohibition
Auditor General of India (CAG) are correct? [2016-I] relates to an order : [2016-I]
1. The CAG will hold office for a period of six years 1. issued against judicial and quasi judicial authority
from the date he assumes the office, He shall vacate 2. to prohibit an inferior Court from proceeding in a
office on attaining the age of 65 years, if earlier than particular case where it has no jurisdiction to try
the expiry of the 6 years term 3. to restrain a person from holding a public office to
2. The powers of CAG are derived from the Constitution when he is not entitled
of India Select the correct answer using the code given below :
3. The CAG is a multi-member body appointed by the (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
President of India in constitution with the prime (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Minister and the Council of Ministers 266. Who among the following Prime Ministers of India were
4. The CAG may be removed by the President only on defeated by a vote of No Confidence ? [2016-I]
an address from both Houses of Parliament, on the 1. Morarji Desai 2. Viswanath Pratap Singh
grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity 3. H.D. Deve Gowda 4. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
Select the correct answer using the code given below : Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1,2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only
261. Which of the following statements relating to the 267. Which of the following statements regarding Rajya Sabha
Scheduled Tribe and other Traditional Forest Dwellers is / are correct ? [2016-I]
(Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 are correct ? 1. The maximum Permissible strength of Rajya Sabha is 250
[2016-I] 2. In Rajya Sabha, 238 members are elected indirectly
1. The Act recognizes forest rights of forest dwelling from the States and Union Territories.
Scheduled Tribes who have been occupying the 3. It shares legislative powers equally with Lok Sabha
forest land before October 25, 1980 in matters such as creation of All India Services
2. The onus of implementation of the Act lies at the Select the correct answer using the code given below.
level of the State / UT Governments (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
3. The Act seeks to recognize and vest certain forest (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only
rights in the forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes and 268. Which of the following statements relating to the office
other traditional forest dwellers of the President of India are correct ? [2016-I]
Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1. The President has the power to grant pardon to a
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only criminal in special case
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 2. The President can promulgate ordinances even when
262. In which one of the following judgments of the the Parliament is in session
Consitutional Bench of the Supreme Court of India, the 3. The President can dissolve the Rajya Sabha during
‘rarest of rare’ principle in the award of death penalty was emergency.
first laid down? [2016-I] 4. The President has the power to nominate two member
(a) Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab (1980) in the Lok Sabha from the Anglo Indian community
(b) Gopalanachari v. State of Kerala (1980) Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(c) Dr. Upendra Boxi v. State of UP (1983) (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4
(d) Tukaram v. State of Maharashtra (1979) (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 only 4
 EBD_7341
190 Polity

269. According to Census 2011, which one of the following is 1. Article 19 (Protection of right to freedom of speech)
the correct sequence of States in decreasing order of their 2. Article 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty)
total size of population? [2016-II] 3. Article 15 (Prohibition of discrimination)
(a) Kerala, Jharkhand, Assam, Punjab 4. Article 16 (Equality of opportunity)
(b) Jharkhand, Kerala, Assam, Punjab Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(c) Kerala, Jharkhand, Punjab, Assam (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(d) Jharkhand, Kerala, Punjab, Assam (c) l, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 only
270. Which among the following Acts were repealed by Article 276. A citizen of India will lose his or her citizenship if he or she
395 of the Constitution of India? [2016-II] [2016-II]
1. The Government of lndia Act, 1935 1. renounces Indian citizenship
2. The Indian Independence Act, 1947 2. voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country
3. The Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949 3. marries a citizen of another country
4. The Government of India Act, 1919 4. criticizes the Government
Select the correct answer using the code given below. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (a) l, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 and 4
271. On 26th November, 1949, which of the following provisions 277. Which one of the following statements is not correct with
of the Constitution of India came into effect? [2016-II] respect to protection of individuals being tried for offences?
1. Citizenship 2. Elections [2016-II]
3. Provisional Parliament 4. Fundamental Rights (a) A confession can never be used as evidence against
Select the correct answer using the code given below. the accused.
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (b) The accused must have violated an existing law.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) l and 2 Only (c) An accused cannot be tried and punished for the
272. Which of the following statements regarding the Constituent same offence again.
Assembly of India is/are correct? [2016-II] (d) The quantum of punishment must be provided in law
1. The Assembly was elected indirectly by the members as it existed on the date of commission of an offence.
of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies. 278. Which one of the following statements is not correct with
2. The elections were held on the basis of Universal respect to Article 32 of the Constitution of India? [2016-II]
Adult Franchise. (a) It provides remedies to citizens for the enforcement
3. The scheme of election was laid down by the Cabinet of fundamental rights.
Delegation. (b) It is a part of fundamental rights.
4. The distribution of seats was done on the basis of (c) The Supreme Court cannot refuse a writ petition
the Mountbatten Plan. under Article 32 on the ground of delay.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (d) Protection under Article 32 also applies to the
(a) 1 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 enforcement of ordinary law which has nothing to
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 only do with the fundamental rights.
273. The All India Census was [2016-II] 279. Which one of the following writs is issued by the Supreme
1. first attempted in 1872 Court to secure the freedom of a person upon unlawful
2. regularly undertaken since 1881 arrest? [2016-II]
3. always undertaken as a five-year exercise (a) Habeas Corpus (b) Mandamus
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (c) Certiorari (d) Quo Warranto
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only 280. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India,
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1,2 and 3 which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?
274. The basic structure doctrine with regard to the Constitution [2016-II]
of India relates to [2016-II] (a) To respect the National Flag
1. the power of judicial review (b) To defend the country
2. the judgment in Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) (c) To provide education to one's child
3. the constraints on Article 368 of the Constitution of (d) To promote village and cottage industries
India 281. Under Article 352 of the Constitution of India, an emergency
4. the judgment in Golaknath case (1967) can be declared it security of any part of India is threatened
Select the correct answer using the code given below. ' by [2016-II]
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 1. war 2. external aggression
(c) l and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only 3. armed rebellion 4. internal disturbance
275. Which of the following fundamental rights as enshrined Select the correct answer using the code given below.
in the Constitution of India belong only to the citizens? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
[2016-II] (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2 only
Polity 191
282. 'Which one of the following statements is not true of the 3. The laws relating to delimitation of constituencies
Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005? are made by the Election Commission of India.
[2016-II] 4. No election shall be called in question except by an
(a) This Act provides civil remedies to protect a woman election petition.
subjected to domestic violence. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(b) Onlywomen can make a complaint under this legislation. (a) 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) Relief may be sought only against the husband or a (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 4 only
male live-in partner with whom the woman has lived 288. Which one of the following statements with regard to the
in a domestic relationship. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes is not correct?
(d) The Act includes not just wives but also women in [2016-II]
marriage-like relationships. (a) The Union and every State Government shall
283. Which of the following are constitutional provisions and consult the Commission on all major policy matters
laws for the protection of the rights of the Scheduled affecting Scheduled Tribes.
Castes in India? [2016-II] (b) All the reports of the Commission and its
1. Article 17 of the Constitution of India recommendations shall be laid only before Lok Sabha.
2. The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 (c) The Commission, while investigating any matter, has
3. The Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes all the powers of a Civil Court.
(Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 (d) The Commission has the power to regulate its own
Select the correct answer using the code given below. procedures.
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only 289. The right to form associations and unions is a right
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only [2016-II]
284. Which one of the following is not true about the powers (a) guaranteed to everybody
of the Supreme Court? [2016-II] (b) to freedom guaranteed to citizens only
(a) The Supreme Court has original and exclusive (c) to equality before law
jurisdiction in inter- governmental disputes. (d) to life and personal liberty
(b) The Supreme Court has advisory jurisdiction on a
290. Some Indian territory was transferred in 2015 to Bangladesh
question of law or fact which may be referred to it
by following which procedure? [2016-II]
by the President of India.
(a) By an agreement between the Government of India
(c) The Supreme Court has the power to review its own
and the Government of Bangladesh
judgment or order.
(b) By a legislation passed by the Parliament amending
(d) The Supreme Court has the exclusive power to issue
Schedule 1 to the Constitution of India
writs to protect the fundamental rights of the people.
(c) By amending Schedule 1 to the Constitution of India
285. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India pertains
to the administration of tribal areas in which of the by exercising amending power of the Parliament
following States? [2016-II] (d) By amending Schedule 1 to the Constitution of India
(a) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram by exercising amending power of the Parliament and
(b) Meghalaya, Tripura, Manipur and Mizoram ratification by sixteen State Legislatures
(c) Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya and Tripura 291. Which one of the following statements is correct in relation
(d) Manipur, Meghalaya, Tripura and Arunachal Pradesh to the GST Bill passed by the Rajya Sabha in August 2016?
286. Which one of the following statements with regard to the [2017-I]
Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India is not correct? (a) It will replace all central taxes, duties, etc., only by a
[2016-II] single tax.
(a) It was inserted by the Constitution (First Amendment) (b) It will subsume central as well as State taxes, duties, etc.
Act, 1951. (c) GST will be levied on alcoholic liquor for human
(b) The Acts and Regulations specified in the Ninth consumption at a uniform rate of 25 percent.
Schedule shall become void on the ground that it violates (d) Petroleum and petroleum products shall not be
a fundamental right in Part III of the Constitution. subjected to the levy of GST.
(c) The Supreme Court has the power of judicial review 292. To be eligible to contest election under the Haryana
of an Act included in the Ninth Schedule on the Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2015, a candidate should
doctrine of basic structure. [2017-I]
(d) The appropriate Legislature can repeal or amend an 1. have a functional toilet at home
Act specified in the Ninth Schedule. 2. have payment slips of power bills
287. Which of the following statements with regard to the 3. not be a cooperative loan defaulter
conduct of elections in India is / are not correct?[2016-II] 4. have studied minimum matriculation irrespective of
1. The responsibility for the prepara tion of the electoral category
rolls is vested in the Election Commission of India. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
2. The Model Code of Conduct comes into existence (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
as soon as the date of the election is announced. (c) l, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 only
 EBD_7341
192 Polity

293. Arrange the following Commissions chronologically on 1. The executive power of the Union shall be vested in
the basis of their date of setting : [2017-I] the President.
1. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission 2. The executive power shall be exercised by the
2. The Eleventh Finance Commission President only through officers subordinate to him.
3. Punchhi Commission 3. The supreme command of the defence forces of the
4. Sarkaria Commission Union shall be vested in the President.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 4, 2, 1,3 (b) 4, 3, 2,1 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3, 2, 4,1 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only
294. Which of the following statements with regard to 299. Which of the following statements regarding Article 21 of
Panchayats in India are correct? [2017-I] the Constitution of India is/ are correct? [2017-I]
1. Seats in a Panchayat are filled by direct election from 1. Article 21 is violated when the under-trial prisoners
are detained under judicial custody for an indefinite
the territorial constituencies in the Panchayat area.
period.
2. The Gram Sabha is the body of persons registered in
2. Right to life is one of the basic human rights and not
the electoral rolls relating to a village within the
even the State has the authority to violate that right.
Panchayat area. 3. Under Article 21, the right of a woman to make reproductive
3. The Panchayats work on the principle of constitutional choices is not a dimension of personal liberty.
autonomy. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
4. The State Legislature may by law endow the Panchayats (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) l and 2 only
with the power and authority to enable them to function. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 300. Which of the following statements is/ are correct regarding
(a) l, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 Right to Education in India? [2017-I]
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 only 1. Free and compulsory education should be provided
295. Which of the following statements regarding Indian federal to all children of the age of six to fourteen years.
system is/are correct? [2017-I] 2. The imperative of the provision of the Right to
1. All States have equal representation in the Rajya Sabha. Education Act, 2009 is that schools must have
2. Consent of a State is not required for altering its qualified teachers and basic infrastructure.
boundaries. 3. There should be quality education without any
3. There is no dual citizenship in India. discrimination on the ground of economic, social and
Select the correct answer using the code given below. cultural background.
(a) l, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(c) l and 3 only (d) 2 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
296. Which of the following are the powers of the Supreme (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only
Court of India? [2017-I] 301. Which one of the following statements regarding freedom
1. Original jurisdiction in a dispute between the to manage religious affairs as per the Constitution of India
Government of India and one or more States is not correct? [2017-I]
2. The power to hear appeals from the High Courts (a) Every religious denomination shall have the right to
3. Passing decrees and orders for doing justice in any manage its own affairs in matters of religion except
matter before it. some minor communities.
4. Render advice to the President of India in matters of law (b) Every religion or any section thereof shall have the right
to own and acquire movable and immovable property.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(c) Every religious community has the right to establish
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
and maintain institutions for religious and charitable
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 3 and 4 only
purposes.
297. In the elections to the provincial legislatures in 1937 in (d) Every community has the right to manage its own
British India [2017-I] affairs in matters of religion.
1. only about 10 to 12 percent of the population had 302. Which one of the following statements relating to
the right to vote protection against arrest and detention of individuals
2. the untouchables had no right to vote under Article 22 is not correct? [2017-I]
3. the Congress won an absolute majority in five out of (a) No person who is arrested shall be detained in custody
eleven provinces without being informed of the grounds for such arrest.
4. the Muslim League won more than 80 percent of the (b) No person shall be denied the right to consult, and
seats reserved for Muslims be defended by, a legal practitioner of his / her choice.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (c) Every person who is arrested and detained in custody
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 only shall be produced before the nearest Magistrate
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 within a period of one week of such arrest.
298. Which of the following statements relating to the powers (d) The right to protection against arrest is not available
of the President of India is/are correct? [2017-I] to a person in jail pursuant to a judicial order.
Polity 193

303. Which one of the following indices is now used by the 308. Which one of the following constitutional authorities
Reserve Bank of India to measure the rate of inflation in inquires and decides in case of doubts and disputes arising
India? [2017-I] out of election of the President and Vice President of India?
(a) NASDAQ Index (b) BSE Index [2017-I]
(c) Consumer Price Index (d) Wholesale Price Index (a) The Supreme Court of India
304. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding (b) The Election Commission of India
the Preamble of the Indian Constitution? [2017-I] (c) The Parliamentary Committee
1. The Preamble by itself is not enforceable in a Court (d) The High Court of Delhi
of Law. 309. In which two Indian States of the four mentioned below, it
2. The Preamble states the objectives which the is necessary to hold certain minimum educational
Constitution seeks to establish and promote. qualifications to be eligible to contest Panchayat Elections?
3. The Preamble indicates the source from which the [2017-II]
Constitution derives its authority. 1. Punjab 2. Haryana
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 3. Karnataka 4. Rajasthan
(a) l, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(c) l and 3 only (d) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4
305. Which one of the following statements relating to cultural (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4
and educational rights in India is not correct? [2017-I] 310. Which of the following statements about ‘delegation’ is/
(a) Every section of the citizens has the right to conserve are correct? [2017-II]
its language, script or culture. 1. It is the abdication of responsibility.
(b) No citizen shall be denied admission into any 2. It means conferring of specified authority by a lower
educational institution maintained by the State or authority to a higher one.
receiving aid out of State funds on grounds of 3. It is subject to supervision and review.
religion, race or language. 4. It is a method of dividing authority in the organization.
(c) The State shall, in granting aid to educational Select the correct answer using the code given below.
institutions, discriminate against any educational (a) 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only
institution on the ground that it is under the (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
management of a majority community. 311. Which of the following features were borrowed by the
(d) All minorities, whether based on religion or language, Constitution of India from the British Constitution?
shall have the right to establish and administer [2017-II]
educational institutions of their choice. 1. Rule of Law 2. Law-making Procedure
306. Which one of the following statements relating to the 3. Independence of Judiciary 4. Parliamentary System
Directive Principles of State Policy is not correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below.
[2017-I] (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4
(a) The provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4
of India shall not be enforceable by any Court. 312. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution
(b) The Directive Principles of State Policy are fundamental of India has fixed the number of Members of the Rajya
in the governance of the country. Sabha to be elected from each State? [2017-II]
(c) It shall be the duty of the State to apply the Directive (a) Fifth Schedule (b) Third Schedule
Principles in making laws. (c) Sixth Schedule (d) Fourth Schedule
(d) The Directive Principles are directed in making India 313. The Fundamental Rights guaranteed in the Constitution
an advanced capitalist country of the world. of India can be suspended only by
307. Which one of the following statements is not correct (a) a proclamation of National Emergency
regarding the Office of the Vice President of India? (b) an Act passed by the Parliament
[2017-I] (c) an amendment to the Constitution of India
(a) The Vice President is elected by an electoral college (d) the judicial decisions of the Supreme Court
consisting of the elected members of both the Houses 314. Which of the following statements about the 73rd and 74th
of the Parliament. Constitution Amendment Act is/are correct? [2017-II]
(b) The Vice President is elected in accordance with the 1. It makes it mandatory for all States to establish a
system of proportional representation by means of three-tier system of Government.
single transferable vote. 2. Representatives should be directly elected for five
years.
(c) The Vice President shall not be a member of either
3. There should be mandatory reservation of one-third
House of the Parliament or of a House of the
of all seats in all Panchayats at all levels for women.
Legislature of any State.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(d) The Vice President of India shall be ex officio
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Chairman of the Council of States and shall not hold
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
any office of profit.
 EBD_7341
194 Polity

315. A Joint Sitting of the Parliament is resorted to, for resolving (a) N. G. Ayyangar (b) K. M. Munshi
the deadlock between two Houses of the Parliament for (c) B. N. Rau (d) Muhammad Saadulah
passing which of the following Bills? [2017-II] 321. Which one of the following criteria got the highest weight
1. Money Bill for determination of shares of States in the formula given
2. Constitutional Amendment Bill by the 14th Finance Commission? [2017-II]
3. Ordinary Bill (a) Population (b) Income distance
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (c) Area (d) Tax effort
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only 322. A Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha can be held up by
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 the Rajya Sabha for how many weeks? [2017-II]
316. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (a) Two (b) Three
[2017-II] (c) Four (d) Five
1. The Directive Principles of State Policy are meant for 323. Constitutional safeguards available to Civil Servants are
promoting social and economic democracy in India. ensured by [2017-II]
2. The Fundamental Rights enshrined in Part III of (a) Article 310 (b) Article 311
the Constitution of India are ordinarily subject to (c) Article 312 (d) Article 317
reasonable restrictions. 324. A writ issued to secure the release of a person found to be
3. Secularism is one of the basic features of Constitution detained illegally is [2017-II]
of any country. (a) Mandamus (b) Habeas corpus
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (c) Certiorari (d) Prohibition
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 325. Which one of the following cannot be introduced first in
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 the Rajya Sabha? [2017-II]
317. The President of India is elected by an Electoral College (a) Constitutional Amendment
comprising of elected members of which of the following? (b) CAG Report
[2017-II] (c) Annual Financial Statement
1. Both the Houses of the Parliament (d) Bill to alter the boundaries of any State
326. The National Commission for Women was created by
2. The Legislative Assemblies of States
[2017-II]
3. The Legislative Councils of States
(a) an amendment in the Constitution of India
4. The Legislative Assemblies of NCT of Delhi and
(b) a decision of the Union Cabinet
Puducherry
(c) an Act passed by the Parliament
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(d) an order of the President of India
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 327. Who among the following was the Chief Justice of India
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 when Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was introduced in
318. Consider the following statements about the Scheduled the Indian Judicial System? [2017-II]
Castes and the Scheduled Tribes under the provisions of (a) M. Hidayatullah (b) A. S. Anand
the Constitution of India : [2017-II] (c) A. M. Ahmadi (d) P. N. Bhagwati
1. State can make any special provision relating to 328. Which one of the following statements about the All India
their admission to the Government educational Services is correct? [2017-II]
institutions. (a) The All India Services may be created by an Act of
2. State can make any special provision relating to the Parliament.
their admission to the private educational (b) The endorsement of the Rajya Sabha is not essential
institutions aided by the State. for the creation of the All India Services.
3. State can make any special provision relating to (c) The rules of recruitment to the All India Services are
their admission to the private educational determined by the UPSC.
institutions not aided by the State. (d) The conditions of service to the All India Services
4. State can make any special provision relating to may be altered by the UPSC.
their admission to the minority educational 329. Which one of the following statements about emergency
institutions as described in Article 30. provisions under the Constitution of India is not correct?
Which of the statements given above are correct? [2017-II]
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only (a) The powers of the Union Executive extend to giving
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 directions to the States concerning the exercise of
319. Article 21 of the Constitution of India includes [2017-II] their powers.
1. Rights of transgenders (b) The Union Executive can issue a provision relating
2. Rights of craniopagus twins to reduction of salaries of employees of the State
3. Rights of mentally retarded women to bear a child Governments.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (c) Governors have no emergency powers like the
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only President of India.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) If the Governor of a State is satisfied that a situation
320. Who among the following was not a member of the has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of
Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly? the State is threatened, he may declare financial
[2017-II] emergency in the State.
Polity 195
330. Why was constitutional amendment needed for introducing 3. He is a whole-time counsel for the Government.
GST? [2017-II] 4. He must have the same qualifications as are
(a) States were not willing to agree with the Union for required to be a judge of the Supreme Court.
introduction of GST without amendment in the Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Constitution. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(b) GST was to be implemented on concurrent base and (c) 3 only (d) 1 only
Article 246 was inadequate for such a case. 336. Under which one of the following Amendment Acts was
(c) The Empowered Committee of Finance Ministers had Sikkim admitted into the Union of India? [2018-I]
recommended for constitutional amendment. (a) 35th (b) 36th
(d) The GST Council had recommended for constitutional (c) 37th (d) 38th
amendment so that its power enhances. 337. Which one of the following statements in respect of the
331. Which of the following are the functions of the National States of India is not correct? [2018-I]
Human Rights Commission (NHRC)? [2018-I] (a) States in India cannot have their own constitutions.
1. Inquiry at its own initiative on the violation of (b) The State of Jammu and Kashmir has its own constitution.
human rights. (c) States in India do not have the right to secede from
2. Inquiry on a petition presented to it by a victim. the Union of India.
3. Visit to jails to study the condition of the inmates. (d) The maximum number of members in the Council of
4. Undertaking and promoting research in the field Ministers of Delhi can be 15 percent of the total
of human rights. 338. Which one among the following States of India has the
Select the correct answer using the code given below. largest number of seats in its Legislative Assembly?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only [2018-I]
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) West Bengal (b) Bihar
332. A person is disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Tamil Nadu
a Member of either House of the Parliament if the person 339. Which of the following statements about the Ordinance-
[2018-I] making power of the Governor is/are correct? [2018-I]
1. holds any office or profit under the Government 1. It is a discretionary power.
of India or the Government of any State other than 2. The Governor himself is not competent to withdraw
an office declared by the Parliament by law not to the Ordinance at any time.
disqualify its holder Select the correct answer using the code given below.
2. is an undischarged insolvent (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
3. Is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule of the (c) Both 1and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Constitution of India 340. Which one of the following is not an International Human
4. Is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a Rights Treaty? [2018-I]
competent Court (a) International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (b) Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Discrimination against Women
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities
333. According to the Election Commission of India, in order (d) Declaration on the Right to Development
to be recognized as a ‘National Party’, a political party 341. In the context of elections in India, which one of the
must be treated as a recognized political party in how following is the correct full form of VVPAT? [2018-I]
many States? [2018-I] (a) Voter Verifiable Poll Audit Trail
(a) At least two States (b) At least three States (b) Voter Verifying Paper Audit Trail
(c) At least four States (d) At least five States (c) Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail
334. Which one of the following Amendments to the (d) Voter Verifiable Paper Account Trial
Constitution of India has prescribed that the Council of 342. Which of the following statements relating to the duties
Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of total number of of the Governor is / are correct? [2018-II]
members of the House of the People or Legislative 1. The duties of the Governor as a constitutional Head
Assembly in the States? [2018-I] of the State do not become the subject matter of
(a) 91st Amendment (b) 87th Amendment questions or debate in the Parliament.
(c) 97th Amendment (d) 90th Amendment 2. Where the Governor takes a decision independently
335. Which of the following statements about attorney General of his Council of Ministers or where he acts as the
of India is/are not correct? [2018-I] Chief Executive of the State under President’s rule,
1. He is the first Law Officer of the Government of India. his actions are subject to scrutiny by the Parliament.
2. He is entitled to the privileges of a Member of the Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Parliament. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
 EBD_7341
196 Polity

343. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution 351. Which one of the following criteria is not required to be
of India deals with the special provision with respect to qualified for appointment as Judge of the Supreme Court?
the State of Assam? [2018-II] [2018-II]
(a) Article 371A (b) Article 371 B (a) At least five years as a Judge of a High Court
(c) Article 371C (d) Article 371D (b) At least ten years as an Advocate of a High Court
344 Provisions of which one of the following Articles of the (c) In the opinion of the President, a distinguished Jurist
Constitution of India apply to the State of Jammu and (d) At least twenty years as a Sub Judicial Magistrate
Kashmir? [2018-II] 352. Which one of the following is not among the duties of the
(a) Article 238 (b) Article 370 Chief Minister? [2018-II]
(c) Article 371 (d) Article 371G (a) To communicate to the Governor of the State all
decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the
345. Which one of the following Schedules to the Constitution
administration of the affairs of the State and
of India provides for setting up of Autonomous District
proposals for legislation
Councils? [2018-II]
(b) To furnish information relating to the administration
(a) Third Schedule (b) Fourth Schedule of the State and proposals for legislation as the
(c) Fifth Schedule (d) Sixth Schedule Governor may call for
346. Who has the power of annulment or suspension of Acts (c) To communicate to the President all decisions of the
and Resolutions of the Autonomous District and Regional Council of Ministers relating to the administration of
Councils? [2018-II] the State in the monthly report
(a) The Governor (d) To submit for the consideration of the Council of
(b) The President Ministers any matter on which a decision has been
(c) The Chief Minister of the State taken by a Minister but has not been considered by
(d) The Prime Minister the Council, if the Governor so requires
347. The audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General 353. Which one of the following is not considered a part of the
of India relating to the accounts of the Union shall be Legislature of States? [2018-II]
submitted to [2018-II] (a) The Governor (b) TheLegislative Assembly
(a) the President (c) The Legislative Council (d) The Chief Minister
(b) the Speaker of the Lok Sabha 354. Which one of the following regarding the ordinance-
(c) the Prime Minister making power of the Governor is not correct? [2018-II]
(d) the Vice President (a) It is not a discretionary power.
348. Which of the following is not related to the powers of the (b) The Governor may withdraw the ordinance anytime.
Governor? [2018-II] (c) The ordinance power can be exercised when the
(a) Diplomatic and military powers Legislature is not in session.
(b) Power to appoint Advocate General (d) The aid and advice of ministers is not required for
declaring the ordinance.
(c) Summoning, proroguing and dissolving State Legislature
355. The Deccan Agriculturalists’ Relief Act of 1879 was
(d) Power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remission
enacted with which one of the following objectives?
of punishments
[2019-I]
349. Which one of the following regarding the procedure and (a) Restore lands to the dispossessed peasants
conduct of business in the Parliament is not correct? [2018-II] (b) Ensure financial assistance to peasants during social
(a) To discuss State matters and religious occasions
(b) To discuss issues of the use of police force in suppressing (c) Restrict the sale of land for indebtedness to outsiders
the Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe communities (d) Give legal aid to insolvent peasants
(c) To discuss issues in dealing with violent disturbances in 356. Which among the following writs is issued to quash the
an Undertaking under the control of the Union Government order of a Court or Tribunal? [2019-I]
(d) To discuss issues for putting down the demands of (a) Mandamus (b) Prohibition
the industrial labour (c) Quo Warranto (d) Certiorari
350. Which of the following is not under the powers and 357. Which among the following statements about the power
functions of the Election Commission of India? to change the basic structure of the Constitution of India
(a) Superintendence, direction and control of the is/are correct? [2019-I]
preparation of electoral rolls 1 It falls outside the scope of the amending powers of
(b) Conduct of elections to the Parliament and to the the Parliament.
Legislature of each State 2 It can be excercised by the people through
(c) Conduct of election to the office of the President representatives in a Constituent Assembly.
and the Vice President 3 It falls within the consitituent powers of the Parliament.
(d) Appointment of the Regional Commissioners to a Select the correct answer using the code below.
ssist the Election Commission in the performance of (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
the functions conferred on the Commission (c) 1 only (d) 2 and 3
Polity 197

358. When a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, the 4. A Judge of the Supreme Court can resign his office
right to move a Court for the enforcement of all Fundamental by writing under his hand addressed to the Chief
Rights remains suspended, except [2019-I] Justice of India.
(a) Article 20 and Article 21 Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(b) Article 21 and Article 22 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) Article 19 and Article 20 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4
(d) Article 15 and Article 16 364. Rajya Sabha has exclusive jurisdiction in [2019-II]
359. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution (a) creation of new States
of India lays down that no citizen can be denied the use (b) declaring a war
of wells, tanks and bathing Ghats maintained out of State (c) financial emergency
funds? [2019-I] (d) authorizing Parliament to legislate on a subject in the
(a) Article 14 (b) Article 15 State List
(c) Article 16 (d) Article 17 365. Which one among the following is not a part of the
360. Which one of the following is not a correct statement Fundamental Rights (Part III) of the Constitution of India?
regarding the provision of Legislative Council in the State [2019-II]
Legislature? (a) Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced
(a) The States of Bihar and Telangana have Legislative labour
Councils. (b) Prohibition of employment of children in factories
(b) The total number of members in the Legislative (c) Participation of workers in management of industries
Council of a State shall not exceed one-third of the (d) Practice any profession, or to carry on any
total number of members in the Legislative Assembly. occupation, trade or business
(c) One-twelfth of all members shall be elected by 366. Which of the following statements relating to the Fifth
electorates consisting of local bodies and authorities. Schedule of the Constitution of India is not correct ?
(d) One-twelfth of all members shall be elected by [2019-II]
graduates residing in the State. (a) It relates to the special provision for administration
361. Which one of the following is not correct about the of certain areas in the States other than Assam,
Panchayats as laid down in Part IX of the Constitution of
Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
India? [2019-I]
(b) Tribal advisory councils are to be constituted to give
(a) The Chairperson of a Panchayat needs to be directly
advice under the Fifth Schedule.
elected by people in order to exercise the right to
(c) The Governor is not authorized to make regulations
vote in the Panchayat meetings.
to prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by, or among
(b) The State Legislature has the right to decide whether
members of the Scheduled Tribes.
or not offices of the Chairpersons in the Panchayats
(d) The Governors of the States in which there are
are reserved for SCs, STs or women.
scheduled areas have to submit reports to the
(c) Unless dissolved earlier, every Panchayat continues
President regarding the administration of such areas.
for a period of five years.
(d) The State Legislature may by law make provisions 367. Consider the following statements with regard to the
for audit of accounts of the Panchayats. formation of new States and alteration of boundaries of
362. Which one of the following statements about the existing States : [2019-II]
provisions of the Constitution of India with regard to the 1. Parliament may increase the area of any State.
State of Jammu and Kashmir is not correct? [2019-I] 2. Parliament may diminish the area of any State.
(a) The Directive Principles of State Policy do not apply. 3. Parliament cannot alter the boundary of any State.
(b) Article 35A gives some special rights to the 4. Parliament cannot alter the name of any State.
permanent residents of the State with regard to Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?
employment, settlement and property. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) Article 19(1)(f) has been omitted. (c) 3 and 4 (d) 4 only
(d) Article 368 is not applicable for the amendment of 368. Consider the following statements : [2019-II]
Constitution of the State. 1. The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed
363. Which of the following statements as per the Constitution by the President of India upon the recommendations
of India are not correct ? [2019-II] of the Governor of the concerned State.
1. The President tenders his resignation to the Chief 2. As provided in the Code of Civil Procedure, High
Justice of India. Courts have original appellate advisory jurisdiction
2. The Vice-President tenders his resignation to the at the State level.
President of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
3. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
removed from his office in the like manner as the (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
President of India.
 EBD_7341
198 Polity

369. Which one of the following forms of Constitution contains (a) The Government of India Act, 1858
the features of both the Unitary and Federal Constitution? (b) The Indian Councils Act, 1909
[2019-II] (c) The Government of India Act, 1919
(a) Unitary (b) Federal (d) The Government of India Act, 1935
(c) Quasi-Federal (d) Quasi-Unitary 379. Which one of the following statements with regard to the
370. Article 371A of the Constitution of India provides special functioning of the Panchayats is not correct? [2020-I]
privileges to [2019-II] (a) Panchayats may levy, collect and appropriate taxes,
(a) Nagaland (b) Mizoram duties, tolls, etc.
(c) Sikkim (d) Manipur (b) A person who has attained the age of 25 years will
371. How many Zonal Councils were set up vide Part-Ill of the be eligible to be a member of a Panchayat.
States Re-organization Act, 1956 ? [2019-II] (c) Every Panchayat shall ordinarily continue for five
(a) Eight (b) Seven years from the date of its first meeting.
(c) Six (d) Five (d) A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution
372. Which provision of the Constitution of India provides shall continue only for the remainder of the full period.
that the President shall not be answerable to any Court in 380. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding
India for the exercise of powers of his office ? [2019-II] the Members of Parliament Local Area Development
(a) Article 53 (b) Article 74 Scheme (MPLADS)? [2020-I]
(c) Article 361 (d) Article 363 (a) Members of the Parliament (MPs) sanction, execute
373. Which law prescribes that all proceedings in the Supreme and complete works under the scheme.
Court shall be in English language ? [2019-II] (b) Nominated Members of the Parliament can recommend
(a) Article 145 of the Constitution of India works for implementation anywhere in the country.
(b) Article 348 of the Constitution of India (c) The scheme is fully funded by the Government of India.
(c) The Supreme Court Rules, 1966 (d) The annual entitlement per MP is `5 crore.
(d) An Act passed by the Parliament 381. Overseas Indians can exercise franchise in an election to
374. The total number of members in the Union Council of the Lok Sabha under which of the following conditions?
Ministers in India shall not exceed [2019-II] 1. They must be citizens of India. [2020-I]
(a) 10% of the total number of members of the Parliament 2. Their names must figure in the electoral roll.
(b) 15% of the total number of members of the Parliament 3. They must be present in India to vote.
(c) 10% of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(d) 15% of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
375. Which one of the following is not enumerated in the (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 only
Constitution of India as a fundamental duty of citizens of 382. Which one of the following was added as a fundamental
India? [2019-II] duty through the Constitution (86th Amendment) Act,
(a) To safeguard public property 2002? [2020-I]
(b) To protect and improve the natural environment (a) To strive towards excellence in individual and
(c) To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry collective activity
(d) To promote international peace and security (b) To provide opportunities for education to one’s child
376. Which one of the following conditions laid down in the between the age of 6 and 14 years
Constitution of India for the issue of a writ of Quo- (c) To work for the welfare of women and children
Warranto is not correct ? [2019-II] (d) To promote peace and harmony
(a) The office must be public and it must be created by a 383. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution
Statute of India protects a person against double jeopardy? [2020-I]
(b) The office must be a substantive one (a) Article 20 (b) Article 21
(c) There has been a contravention of the Constitution (c) Article 22 (d) Article 23
or a Statute in appointing such person to that office 384. Which one of the following Articles was defended by Dr.
(d) The appointment is in tune with statutory provision B. R. Ambedkar on the plea that it would be used as ‘a
377. Under which one of the following Article of the matter of last resort’? [2020-I]
Constitution of India, a statement of estimated receipts (a) Article 352 (b) Article 359
and expenditure of the Government of India has to be laid (c) Article 356 (d) Article 368
before the Parliament in respect of every financial year ? 385. What is the ground on which the Supreme Court can refuse
[2019-II] relief under Article 32? [2020-I]
(a) Article 110 (b) Article 111 (a) The aggrieved person can get remedy from another court
(c) Article 112 (d) Article 113 (b) That disputed facts have to be investigated
378. Which one of the following Acts reserved seats for women (c) That no fundamental right has been infringed
in Legislatures in accordance with the allocation of seats (d) That the petitioner has not asked for the proper writ
for different communities? [2020-I] applicable to his/her case
Polity 199

386. Who among the following stated in the Constituent (c) the State Election Commission
Assembly that on 26th January, 1950, India was going to (d) the Election Commission of India
enter a life of contradictions? [2020-I] 389. The 11th Schedule of the Constitution of India distributes
(a) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (b) Jawaharlal Nehru powers between [2020-I]
(c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) S. P. Mukherjee (a) the Union and the State Legislatures
387. The power of the Supreme Court to decide in the case of (b) the State Legislatures and the Panchayat
a dispute between two or more States is called [2020-I] (c) the Municipal Corporation and the Panchayat
(a) original jurisdiction (b) inherent jurisdiction (d) the Gram Sabha and the Panchayat
(c) plenary jurisdiction (d) advisory jurisdiction 390. The provisions of the Constitution of India pertaining to
388. The power to legislate on all matters relating to elections the institution of Panchayat do not apply to which one of
to Panchayats lies with [2020-I] the following States? [2020-I]
(a) the Parliament of India (a) Meghalaya (b) Tripura
(b) the State Legislatures (c) Assam (d) Goa

1. (a) Demands for Grants Committees are Departmentally Consolidated Fund of India. The procedure for passing
Related Standing Committees.After the General this Bill is the same as in the case of other money Bills.
Discussion on the Budget is over, the House is adjourned An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only
for a fixed period. During this period, the Demands for by the introduction of a Bill in either House of Parliament.
Grants of the Ministries/ Departments are considered by The procedure of amendment in the constitution is laid
the Committees. It is not a parliamentary committee. down in Part XX (Article 368) of the Constitution of India.
2. (c) Money Bills can be introduced only in Lok Sabha. 10. (b) According to Article 243 (I) the governor of the state
Money bills passed by the Lok Sabha are sent to the shall set up the Finance Commission within the period of one
Rajya Sabha.Rajya Sabha(Council of States) cannot reject year. State Finance Commissions receive grants from the
or amend this bill. It can only recommend amendments. Finance Commission that is set up by the central government.
3. (b) According to Article 67, a Vice-President may be 11. (d) Attorney General of India is appointed by the President
removed from his office by a resolution of the Council of of India under Article 76(a) of the Constitution and holds
States passed by a majority of all the then members of the office during the pleasure of the President.
Council and agreed to by the House of the People. 12. (b) The Human Right Commission consists of a chairman
4. (c) In India, "the Emergency" refers to a 21-month period in and other four members. The chairman should be a retired
1975-77 when Prime Minister Indira Gandhi unilaterally had a chief justice of India.
state of emergency declared across the country.Fakhruddin 13. (d) The 10th Schedule to the Indian Constitution is
Ali Ahmed was the President at that time. known as Anti-Defection Law. It was inserted by the 52nd
5. (b) Sarkaria Commission was set up in June 1983 to Amendment Act 1985 to the Constitution. It sets the
examine the relationship and balance of power between provisions for disqualification of elected members on the
state and central government. grounds of defection to another political party.
6. (d) A is false because the constitution without specifying 14. (b) According to article 82 of Indian Constitution, the
the strength of the Commission has left the matter to the parliament of India shall readjust the allocation of seats in
discretion of the president, who determines its the Lok Sabha to the states and division of each state into
composition. According to article 315, the UPSC consists territorial constituencies.
of a chairman and other members appointed by the 15. (a) Article 124 (a) of the Indian Constitution stipulates
president of India. Articles 315 to 323 of Part XIV of the that "There shall be a Supreme Court of India constituting
constitution provide for a Public Service Commission for of a Chief Justice of India and, until Parliament by law
the Union and for each state. prescribes a larger number, of not more than seven other
7. (b) Gulzarilal Nanda became the Prime Minister of India Judges". At present the Supreme Court consists of thirty
for two short periods following the deaths of Jawaharlal one judges (one chief justice and thirty other judges).
Nehru in 1964 and Lal Bahadur Shastri in 1966. Under article 315 the UPSC consists of a chairman and
8. (b) Two expert committees were established under former other members appointed by the president of India. The
RBI Governor M. Narasimhan in 1991 and 1998 to look constitution without specifying the strength of the
into all aspects of the financial system in India. The report Commission has left the matter to the discretion of the
of this committee had comprehensive recommendations president, who determines its composition.
for financial sector reforms including the banking sector 16. (b) Article 65 of the Indian Constitution says that while
and capital markets. acting as president or discharging the functions of
9. (b) The Appropriation Bill is intended to give authority president, the Vice President does not perform the duties
to Government to incur expenditure from and out of the of the office of the chairman of Rajya sabha.
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200 Polity

Article 123 of the Constitution grants the President certain simpler method of conciliation instead of the process of
law making powers to promulgate Ordinances when either arguments in court.
of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session and 27. (b) Sarkaria Commission was set up by the central
hence it is not possible to enact laws in the Parliament. government of India in June 1983 to examine the relationship
17. (c) 7th Schedule gives allocation of powers and and balance of power between state and central
functions between Union & States. It contains 3 lists: governments in the country and suggest changes within
Union List (97 Subjects) the framework of Constitution of India.
States List (66 subjects) 28. (d) Article 26 of the Indian Constitution states freedom
Concurrent List(52 subjects) to manage religious affairs subject to public order, morality
18. (c) Parliament passed the 93rd Constitution Amendment and health, every religious denomination or any section
Bill relating to the provision of reservation for socially and thereof shall have the right-
educationally backward classes of citizen or for the SCs (a) to establish and maintain institutions for religious
and STs related to admission in educational institutions. and charitable purposes;
19. (d) The Union executive consists of the President, the (b) to manage its own affairs in matters of religion;
Vice-President, and the Council of Ministers with the Prime (c) to own and acquire movable and immovable property;
Minister as the head to aid and advise the President.He and
may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice- (d) to administer such property in accordance with law
President, resign his office (Article 61). According to article 29. (d) Committee on Public Accounts and Committee on
52,executive power of the Union is vested in the President. Public Undertakings consist of 15 members elected by
20. (c) The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs handles affairs the Lok Sabha and 7 members of the Rajya
relating to the Parliament of India and works as a link Sabha.Committee on Estimates consists of 30 members
between the two chambers, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya who are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst
Sabha. It constitutes consultative committees of members its members.
of Parliament and makes arrangements for holding their 30. (c) The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was appointed by
meetings, both during and between sessions. the Government of India in January 1957 to examine the
21. (b) Details of Citizenship are mentioned in part ll(Article working of the Community Development Programme(1952).It
5-11) of the constitution. recommended a 3-tier Panchayati Raj system-Gram Panchayat
22. (b) Schedule X was added by 52nd amendment in 1985. at the village level, Panchayat Samiti at the block level, and
It contains provisions of disqualification on the grounds Zila Parishad at the district level.
of defection. 31. (c) Liaquat Ali Khan became the first Finance Minister
Schedule Vlll contains List of 22 languages of India of India in the Interim Government during 1946-1947.
recognized by Constitution. 32. (b) Article 46 deals with Promotion of educational and
Schedule l deals with the List of States & Union Territories. economic interests of the weaker sections of the people,
Schedule IX Contains acts & orders related to land tenure, and in particular, of the Scheduled Castes and the
land tax, railways, and industries. Added by Ist amendment Scheduled Tribes and shall protect them from social
in 1951.Laws underSchedule IXare beyond the purview injustice and all forms of exploitation. It does not provide
of judicial review even though they violate fundamental free legal aid to them. According to Article 14, "the State
rights enshrined under part III of the Constitution. shall not deny to any person equality before the law or
23. (d) The Finance Commission is constituted by the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India".
President under article 280 of the Constitution, mainly to 33. (c) The Bombay High Court has benches in Nagpur,
give its recommendations on distribution of tax revenues Aurangabad and Panaji.
between the Union and the States and amongst the States 34. (a) According to Article 316(a)of the Indian
themselves. Constitution, the chairman and the members of the UPSC
24. (c) Jawaharlal Nehru took charge as the first Prime are appointed by the president. Under Article 316(3) a
Minister of Indiaon 15 August 1947, and chose 15 other person who holds office as a member of a Public Service
members for his cabinet in which B. R. Ambedkar was the Commission shall, on the expiration of his term of office,
first law minister of India. be ineligible for re-appointment to that office.
25. (c) The 2nd Administrative Reforms Commission was 35. (b) Department of Official language(Raj Bhasha Vibhag)
initially set up under the Chairmanship of Mr. Veerappa comes under Ministry of Home affairs.
Moily, who resigned with effect from 1st April 2009. He was 36. (c) Article 371A deals with the special provision with
succeeded by V. Ramachandran. The Commission was to respect to the State of Nagaland.
prepare a detailed blueprint for revamping the public 37. (b) The Government of India (Allocation of Business)
administration system in India. Rules, 1961 are made by the President of India under Article
77 of the Constitution for the allocation of business of the
26. (b) The award of the Lok Adalat is fictionally deemed to
Government of India. The Ministries/Departments of the
be decrees of Court and therefore the court has all the
Government are created by the President on the advice of
powers in relation thereto as it has in relation to a decree
the Prime Minister under these Rules. The Cabinet
passed by itself. This includes the powers to extend time in
Secretary is the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services
appropriate cases. The award passed by the Lok Adalat is
Board of the Republic of India.
the decision of the court itself, though, arrived at by the
Polity 201
38. (d) The Second Administrative Reforms Commission were Originally ten in number, but by the 86th Amendment
(ARC) was constituted under the Chairmanship of in 2002 they were increased to eleven.
Veerappa Moily in 2005 for preparing a detailed blueprint 49. (b) The estimates committee is the largest committee of
for revamping the public administrative system. the parliament. This Committee consists of 30 members
Article 310 -Tenure of office of persons serving the Union who are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst
or a State its members. The term of office of the Committee is one
Article 311 -Dismissal, removal or reduction in rank of persons year. The committee was constituted in 1950 on the
employed in civil capacities under the Union or a State. recommendation of John Mathai, the then finance minister
39. (a) Stock Exchange is the subject of union list. of India.
40. (b) Creation of a three-tier system was not the 50. (d) The legislative assembly of the concerned state
recommendation of Ashok Mehta Committee. According to recommends to the parliament for the abolition of the
this committee,the 3-tier system of Panchayati Raj should be legislative council in a state (Article 169).
replaced by the 2-tier system. Ashoka Mehta committee was 51. (c) The Rajinder Sachar Committee was commissioned
appointed by the Janata Government under the chairmanship to prepare a report on the latest social, economic and
of Ashoka Mehta. educational condition of the Muslim community of India.
41. (b) The responsibility of conducting the decennial It was appointed by the Indian Prime Minister Manmohan
Census rests with the Office of the Registrar General and Singhin 2005.
Census Commissioner, India under Ministry of Home 52. (a) The salient features of the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992 are: -
Affairs, Government of India. · To provide 3-tier system of Panchayati Raj for all States
42. (a) Correct chronological order of the Vice-Presidents having population of over 20 lakhs.
of India is as follows: · To hold Panchayat elections regularly every 5 years.
1. V.V .Giri - 1967 · To provide reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes,
2. G.S Pathak 1969 Scheduled Tribes and women (not less than 33%)
3. B.D Jatti-1974 · To appoint State Finance Commission to make
4. M Hidayatullah- 1979 recommendations as regards the financial powers of the
43. (b) Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar became the Speaker of Panchayats.
the Provisional Parliament on 26 November 1949 and · District planning committee to role of consolidate the
continued to occupy the office till the 1st Lok Sabha that plans prepared by panchayats and municiplalities was
provided as per 74th Amendment.
was constituted in 1952.
53. (d)
44. (c) Correct chronological order of the presidents of
54. (b) According to Article 53(b) of the Indian Constitution
Indian National Congress is -
the supreme command of the Defence Forces of the Union
1. Purushottam Das Tandon-1950 shall be vested in the President and the exercise thereof
2. U. N. Dhebar- 1955 shall be regulated by law.
3. K. Kamaraj- 1964 55. (d) The Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines
4. Jagjivan Ram- 1970 for creating a social order characterized by social,
45. (b) According to Article 164(1) in the State of Bihar, economic, and political justice, liberty, equality, and
Madhya Pradesh and Orissa, there shall be a Minister in fraternity as enunciated in the constitution's preamble. It
charge of tribal welfare who may in addition be in charge of does not promise equal income and free healthcare for all
the welfare of the Scheduled Castes and backward classes Indians.
or any other work. Punjab is not covered by the Article. 56. (b) PIL (Public Interest Litigation) writ petition can be
46. (b) Constitution of India is unique in itself. Many features filed in Supreme Court under Article 32 only if a question
of our constitution are borrowed from various sources concerning the enforcement of a fundamental right is
around the world. involved. Under Article 226, a writ petition can be filed in
1. Amendment of the constitution - Constitution of a High court whether or not a Fundamental Right is
South Africa involved. Thus, it comes under appellate jurisdiction.
2. Directive Principles- Irish Constitution 57. (c) The quorum to constitute a joint sitting shall be one-
3. Emergency Powers of the President- Constitution of tenth of the total number of members of the Houses.
the Germany 58. (d) The Tenth Schedule ( Anti-Defection Act) was
4. The Union State Relations- Constitution of Canada included in the Constitution in 1985 by the Rajiv Gandhi
47. (b) The Attorney General of India is the chief legal ministry and sets the provisions for disqualification of
advisor of Indian government. He is appointed by the elected members on the grounds of defection to another
President of India under Article 76(1) of the Constitution. political party.
He must be a person qualified to be appointed as a Judge 59. (b). P V Narasimha Rao could not vote for himself during
of the Supreme Court. The Attorney General has the right vote of confidence.
of audience in all Courts in India as well as the right to 60. (c) Up to 2014, seven (out of twenty-nine) states have a
Legislative Council: Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Jammu and
participate in the proceedings of the Parliament. He holds
Kashmir, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana and Uttar
office during the pleasure of the President.
Pradesh.Tamilnadu does not have Legislative Council.
48. (b) The Fundamental Duties were added to the
61. (d) The correct sequence is, Discussion on Budget,
Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976 on the Appropriation Bill, Finance Bill, Vote on Account.
recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. They
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202 Polity

62. (a) The Planning Commission was set up by a Resolution 73. (b) The Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002
of the Government of India in March 1950.It is not provided inserted Article 21-A in the Constitution of India to provide
in the constitution of India. free and compulsory education of all children in the age
63. (c) A person born in India on or after 26th January 1950 group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right.
but before 1st July 1987 is a citizen of India by birth This is recognized in the International Covenant on
irrespective of the nationality of his parents, considered Economic, Social and Cultural Rights as a human right
citizen of India by birth if either of his parents is a citizen that includes the right to free, compulsory primary
of India at the time of his birth. The citizenship of India is education for all.
mentioned in Articles 5 to 11 (Part II).
74. (c) The total elective membership of the Lok Sabha is
64. (c) Dr.Neelam Sanjiva Reddy was the sixth President of
distributed among States in such a way that the ratio
India. After the death of Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed in
between the number of seats allotted to each State and
office,Reddy was elected unopposed. He was only
population of the State is, as far as practicable, the same
President to be elected thus, after being unanimously
for all States. The 84th Amendment to the Constitution
supported by all political parties including the opposition
(which was numbered as the 91st Amendment Bill before
Congress party. He was elected president on 21 July 1977.
it was passed in Parliament) lifted the freeze on the
65. (c) Freedom to acquire property or to carry on any occupation
delimitation of constituencies, as stipulated by the 42nd
trade or business is also available to non citizens.
Constitution amendment of 1976, and allowed delimitation
66. (c) Protem Speaker performs the duties of the office of
within States on the basis of the 1991 Census.
the Speaker from the commencement of the sitting of the
75. (c) OnAugust 20, 1979, Charan Singh resigned without
new Lok Sabha till the election of the Speaker. Protem
moving the motion after the Congress withdrew support.
speaker is mainly an operating and temporary speaker.
76. (c) Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala(1973)is a
67. (c) He/she cannot take part in the voting when a vote of
landmark decision of the Supreme Court of India that
no confidence is under consideration.
outlined the Basic Structure doctrine of the Constitution.In
68. (d) The deposit made by a candidate shall be returned if
the case, the Supreme Court ruled that all provisions of
the following conditions are satisfied:-
the constitution, including Fundamental Rights can be
(i) the candidate is not shown in the list of contesting
amended. However, the Parliament cannot alter the basic
candidates, that is to say, either his nomination was
structure of the constitution like secularism, democracy,
rejected or after his nomination was accepted, he withdrew
federalism, separation of powers.
his candidature; or
77. (d) The fundamental duties are defined as the moral
(ii) he dies before the commencement of the poll; or
obligations of all citizens to help promote a spirit of
(iii) he is elected; or
patriotism and to uphold the unity of India. The
(iv) he is not elected but gets more than 1/6th of the total
Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the
number of valid votes polled by all the candidates at the election.
Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, upon the
69. (c) Under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution the
recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. The
Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is an
fundamental duties are contained in Art. 51APart IV(a).
authority who audits all receipts and expenditure of the
The fundamental duties however are non-justifiable in
Government of India and the state governments, including
character. This means that no citizen can be punished by
those of bodies and authorities substantially financed by
a court for violation of a fundamental duty.
the government. The CAG shall only be removed from
78. (c) According to article 21 of the Indian Constitution,
office in like manner and on the like grounds as a judge of
no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty
the Supreme Court of India :Article148(a)
except according to procedure established by law. The
The Comptroller and Auditor General shall not be eligible
Supreme Court of India on 19 June 2013 in its decision
for further office either under the Government of India or
established that right to life and liberty, enshrined under
under the Government of any State after he has ceased to
Article 21 of the Constitution, is available to foreign
hold his office:Article 148(d)
nationals also.
70. (d) Convention on the nationality of married women has
been signed by India but not yet ratified. India signed the 79. (c) Resistance movements, individually or collectively
convention on 15th May 1957. is the methods adopted by civil society.
71. (c) 74th Amendment deals with Muncipalities and urban 80. (d) According to author, authentic civil society means
local bodies. The Finance Commission Constituted under "Activists who want moral accountability and juridical
243-I shall review the Financial Position of Muncipalities. redress of all wrongdoing in society.
72. (a) Under article 5 of the Indian Constitution Citizenship 81. (d) Uniform civil code is not generated by people's
at the commencement of the Constitution every person struggle.
who has his domicile in the territory of India and
82. (a) New issues that dominate the middle class led social
(a) who was born in the territory of India; or
(b) either of whose parents was born in the territory of agenda today are price rise, progressive taxation, and the
India; or Indo -USA nuclear deal.
(c) who has been ordinarily resident in the territory of 83. (a) The minimum mandate of a democratic government
India for not less than five years preceding such is to respond to ongoing priorities in public criticism and
commencement, shall be a citizen of India. threats to survival by decisive public action.
Polity 203
84. (c) nyaya is a concept of justice that combines theories · defamation,
of justice with the practice of democracy. · incitement to an offence,
85. (c) In Indian parliament, Zero hour starts at 12:00 noon. · Sovereignty and integrity of India.
Zero Hour in Parliament starts at 12 noon during which 94. (c) The Inter-State Council was established under Article
members raise matters of importance, especially those that 263 of the Constitution of India through a Presidential
cannot be delayed. Nobody knows which issue a member Order dated 28 May 1990. As the article 263 makes it clear
would raise during this hour. that the Inter-State Council is not a permanent
86. (d) The core of political democracy is based on Universal constitutional body for coordination between the States
adult Franchise. pertaining to civil matters in India. of the Union. It can be established 'at any time' if it appears
87. (c) District Munsiff Court (District Munsif Court) is the to the President that the public interests would be served
court of the lowest order handling matters by the establishment of such a Council. The Council is a
88. (a) Under Article 61, the President of India can be recommendatory body. The Council shall consist of Prime
removed from the office by a process of impeachment for Minister (Chairman), Chief Ministers of all States and
the violation of the Constitution. The impeachment is to union territories (Member), Administrators (UT) and Six
be initiated by either House of Parliament. Ministers of Cabinet rank to be nominated by the Prime
89. (c) Procedural democracy is a democracy in which the Minister (Member). Home minister chairs the standing
people or citizens of the state have less influence than in committee.
traditional liberal democracies. This type of democracy is 95. (c) Protem speaker is chosen with the agreement of the
characterized by voters choosing to elect representatives members of the Lok Sabha and legislative assembly, so
in free elections. Procedural democracy is quite different that he can carry on the activities untilthe permanent
from substantive democracy, which is manifested by equal speaker is chosen. Protem speaker is appointed for a limited
participation of all groups in society in the political time period. Generally in such a condition when the Lok
process.Namibia, Angola, and Mozambique are examples Sabha and Legislative Assemblies have been elected, but
of examples of procedural democracies. the vote for the speaker and deputy speaker has not taken
90. (b) A registered voter in India can contest an election to place.
Lok Sabha from any constituency in India except 96. (b) The original jurisdiction of supreme court of India
autonomous Districts of Assam, Lakshadweep and Sikkim. extends to all cases between the Government of India and
According to Section 8 of Representation of Peoples Act the States of India or between Government of India and
1951,a person convicted of any offence and sentenced to states on side and one or more states on other side or
imprisonment for not less than two years [other than any cases between different states.
offence referred to in sub-section (a) or sub-section (b)] 97. (c) Irrespective of the fact that a number of seats may
shall be disqualified from the date of such conviction and have to be filled, this system postulates one vote for each
shall continue to be disqualified for a further period of six voter with the reservation that this single vote is
years since his release. transferred to other candidates. This is the reason why
91. (b) Power sharing helps in reducing the conflict between this system is known as "single transferable vote system."
various social groups. Hence, power sharing is necessary 98. (c) As per Gadgil formula a special category state gets
for maintaining social harmony and peace.Power sharing preferential treatment in federal assistance and tax breaks.
helps in avoiding the tyranny of majority. The tyranny of The special-category states get significant excise duty
majority not only destroys the minority social groups but concessions and thus help these states attract large
also the majority social group. It decreases the possibility number of industrial units to establish manufacturing
of arbitrary decision making.People's voice forms the basis facilities within their territory. 90% of the central assistance
of a democratic government (people's participation at is treated as grant and remaining 10% is considered as
different levels of government). loan unlike other states which get 30% grant and 70%
92. (c) According to Article 32, when an individual feels loan.
that he has been "unduly deprived" of his fundamental 99. (b) The Commonwealth of Nations is an intergovernmental
rights, he can move the Supreme Court and seek justice. organisation of 53 member states that were mostly territories
Apart from the Supreme Court, the High Courts also have of the former British Empire. The membership only shows
that the British ruled over India.
the power to protect fundamental rights. Like the apex
100. (a) According to Article 243(E), every Panchayat, unless
court, they also can issue writs for the enforcement of
sooner dissolved under any law for the time being in force,
fundamental rights of the citizens. The both courts can
shall continue for five years from the date appointed for
issue five different writs - Certiorari, Habeas Corpus, its first meeting and no longer.
Mandamus, Prohibition, and Quo Warranto. 101. (b) The Planning Commission was established in March
93. (a) Freedom of speech and expression is restricted on 1950 by an executive resolution of the government of India.
the ground of : The Planning Commission is neither constitutional nor a
· security of the State, statutory body. In India, it is the supreme organ of
· friendly relations with foreign States, planning for social and economic development. It is not
· public order, responsible for taking and implementing decisions. It is
· decency and morality, only a staff agency, an advisory body and has no executive
· contempt of court, responsibility.
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204 Polity

102. (d) Lord Ripon's plan for local Self government in India citizens of India. The seven fundamental rights recognised
isas follows: by the Indian constitution Aliens (persons who are not
1. The sub-division, not the district, should be the citizens) are also considered in matters like equality before
maximum area served by one committee or local board law. They are enforceable by the courts, subject to certain
with primary boards under it serving very small areas, so restrictions. It protects the rights and liberties of the people
that each member of it might possess knowledge of and against encroachment by the legislative and executive
interest in its affairs. wings of the government.
2. The local boards should consist of a large majority 110. (a) According to Article 361, the principle of equality
of elected non-official members, and theyshould be before the law is not applicable to the president of India
presided over by a non-official member. because the president of India enjoys some special
103. (d) India is a Quasi-Federal country because the privileges under the Constitution of India.
Constitution of India is federal in nature but unitary in 111. (a) Bills that have to be passed by Special Majority and
spirit. It has common features of a federation such as
also to be ratified by not less than one-half of the State
written Constitution, supremacy of Constitution, rigidity
Legislatures . This comprises of Constitutional
of Constitution, two governments, division of powers,
Amendment Bills which seek to make any change in
bicameralism as well as unitary features like single
articles relating to:
Constitution, integrated judiciary and All-India Services
etc. · The Election of the President.
104. (c) The Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Bill 2010 fixes · The extent of the Executive Power of the Union and
liability for nuclear damage and specifies procedures for the States.
compensating victims. Clause '6' of this act defines the · The Supreme Court and the High Courts.
share of financial liability. It states that the liability of an · Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule.
operator for each nuclear incident shall be for nuclear · The representation of States in Parliament.
reactors having power equal to 10 MW or above Rs. 1,500 · The provisions of Article 368 itself.
crores. An operator shall not be liable for any nuclear 112. (d) The U.S. court system is divided into two
damage due to natural disaster, act of armed conflict, war, administratively separate systems, the federal and the
terrorism etc. state, each of which is independent of the executive and
105. (b) If a lower court or tribunal gives its decision but legislative branches of government. One of the unique
based on wrong jurisdiction the affected party can move features of the Indian Constitution is that, notwithstanding
this writ to a higher court like supreme court or High Court. the adoption of a federal system and existence of Central
The writ of certiorari issued to subordinate judicial or quasi Acts and State Acts in their respective spheres, it has
judicial body when they act. generally provided for a single integrated system of Courts
· Without or in excess of jurisdiction to administer both Union and State laws. At the apex of
· In violation of the prescribed procedure the entire judicial system, exists the Supreme Court of
· In contravention of principles of natural justice India below which are the High Courts in each State or
· Resulting in an error of law apparent on the face of record. group of States. Below the High Courts, lies a hierarchy
106. (d) The 86th amendment to the Constitution approved of Subordinate Courts.
in 2002 providing free and compulsory education to all 113. (c) According to Article 78 it shall be the duty of the
children age 6 to 14 years has been notified. It included Prime Minister-
Article 21(a) in the Indian constitution making education (a) to communicate to the President all decisions of the
a fundamental right. council of Ministers relating to the administration of the
107. (b) 'Adjournment' refers to postpone the further affairs of the union and proposals for legislation;
transaction of the business for specified time by the (b) to furnish such information relating to the
presiding officer of the House. Adjournment terminates administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals
the sitting of the House which meets again at the time for legislation as the President may call for;
appointed for the next sitting. Adjournment sine die refers (c) if the President so requires, to submit for the
to termination of a sitting of the House without any definite consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on
date being fixed for the next sitting. which a decision has been taken by a Minister.
108. (c) The Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) scheme was 114. (b)
introduced by amending The Citizenship Act, 1955 in 115. (c) The Chief Election Commissioner holds office for a
August 2005. The scheme was launched during the term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years,
Pravasi Bharatiya Divas convention at Hyderabad in 2006. whichever is earlier.
Overseas citizens of India will not enjoy the following 116. (d) There are three Financial Committees in the Indian
rights even if resident in India: (i) the right to vote, (ii) the Parliament mentioned below:
right to hold the offices of President, Vice-President, Judge 1. Estimates Committee- This Committee consists of 30
of Supreme Court and High Court, Member of Lok Sabha, members who are elected by the Lok Sabha every year
Rajya Sabha, Legislative Assembly or Council (iii) from amongst its members. The term of the Committee is
appointment to Public Services (Government Service). one year.
109. (a) Fundamental Rights guarantee civil liberties such that 2. Committee on Public Undertakings- The Committee
all Indians can lead their lives in peace and harmony as on Public Undertakings consists of 22 members(15
Polity 205
members from Lok Sabha and 7 members from Rajya constitution. The Directive Principles may be said to
Sabha) .The term of the Committee is one year. contain the philosophy of the constitution. The Directive
3. Public Accounts Committee- This Committee consists principles are broad directives given to the state in
of 22 members (15 members from Lok Sabha and 7 members accordance with which the legislative and executive
from the Rajya Sabha.). The term of the Committee is one powers of the state are to be exercised.
year. 127. (b) The State list contains 66 subjects of local or state
117. (a) The Central Administrative Tribunal has been importance. The state governments have the authority to
established for adjudication of disputes with respect to make laws on these subjects. These subjects include
recruitment and conditions of service of persons police, local governments, trade, commerce and
appointed to public services and posts in connection with agriculture. Parliament has exclusive power to make any
the affairs of the Union or other local authorities within law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the
the territory of India. Concurrent List or State List.
118. (a) "Closure" is one of the means by which a debate Note: Residuary Power retained by a governmental
may be brought to a close by a majority decision of the authority after certain powers have been delegated to other
House, even though all members wishing to speak have authorities.
not done so. 128. (b) Pressure groups do not seek active political power,
119. (c) S. R. Bommai v. Union of Indiawas a landmark political parties do. Political parties exist to gain power
judgment of the Supreme Court of India regarding over governmental policy by winning elections for political
provisions of Article 356 of the Constitution of India and office. Interest groups do not necessarily have their
related issues. This case had huge impact on Centre-State members run for office and they vote in a nonpartisan
Relations. The misuse of Article 356 was stopped after way, supporting candidates who promote their point of
this judgment.Article 356 deals with imposition of view.
President's Rule over a State of India. 129. (c) While a proclamation of emergency is in operation,
120. (c) Articles 23 and 24 of the Indian Constitution this period may be extended by Parliament by law for a
safeguard women and children and others against period not exceeding one year at a time.Under Article 352
exploitation of various forms. the president can declare a national emergency when the
Article 23 declares slave trade, prostitution and human security of India or part of it is threatened by war or external
trafficking a punishable offence. aggression or armed rebellion.
Article 24 of the Indian Constitution prohibits employment 130. (c) A Money Bill cannot be introduced in Rajya Sabha.
of children below the age of 14 years in dangerous jobs Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or amend a
like factories and mines. Money Bill. It can only make recommendations on the
121. (d) All of the above statements are correct. Money Bill. Whether a particular Bill is a Money Bill or
122. (c) The Indian Constitution does not recognize property not is to be decided by the Speaker of Lok Sabha. Rajya
right as a fundamental right. In the year 1978, the 44th Sabha may discuss the Annual Financial Statement. It
amendment eliminated the right to acquire, hold and has no power to vote on the Demands for Grants.
dispose of property as a fundamental right. 131. (b) Article 31B of the Constitution of India ensured that
123. (c) The constitution of 1950 distinguished between three any law in the 9th Schedule could not be challenged in
main types of states: courts and Government can rationalize its programme of
The Part A states were ruled by an elected governor and social engineering by reforming land and agrarian laws.
state legislature. In other words laws under Ninth Schedule are beyond the
The Part B states were governed by a rajpramukh. purview of judicial review even though they violate
The Part C states were governed by a chief commissioner fundamental rights enshrined under part III of the
appointed by the President of India. Constitution. On the one hand considerable power was
The Part D states were administered by a lieutenant given to legislature under Article 31B and on the other
governor appointed by the central government. hand the power of judiciary was curtailed, this is the
124. (b) K. Kamaraj resigned from the Tamil Nadu Chief starting point of tussle between legislature and judiciary.
Minister Post on 2 October 1963. He proposed that all 132. (c)
senior Congress leaders should resign from their posts 133. (b) According to Hindu Law, marriage is defined as a
and devote all their energy to the revitalization of the Holy Sanskar (Sacrament).
Congress. This is known as the Kamaraj Plan. Six Union 134. (d) Article 348 of Indian Constitution mentions the
Ministers and six Chief Ministers including Lal Bahadur language to be used in Supreme Court and the High Courts.
Shastri, Jagjivan Ram, Morarji Desai, Biju Patnaik and S.K. According to the article 348, the language of all
Patil followed suit and resigned from their posts. proceedings in the Supreme court and in every high court
125. (a) NRIs can’t vote if they have acquired citizenship of shall be English.
other country. 135. (d) All the conditions given in the question are necessary
126. (a) The purpose of Directive Principle of State Policy is for issuing writ of quo warranto. The conditions necessary
to lay down positive instructions which would guide State for the issue of a writ of quo warranto are as follows :
Policy at all levels. The Directive Principles of State Policy (i) The office must be public and it must be created by a
contained in Part IV, Articles 36-51 of the Indian statue or by the constitution itself.
 EBD_7341
206 Polity

(ii) The office must be a substantive one and not merely · Any reproduction of image or images embodied in
the function or employment of a servant at the will and such microfilm (whether enlarged or not).
during the pleasure of another. · Any other material produced by a computer or any
(iii) There has been a contravention of the constitution on other device
or a statute or statutory instrument, in appointing such person It does not include taking photograph of files.
to that office. 147. (a) Delhi and Puducherry have their own elected
136. (a) The constitution of India is republican because it legislative assemblies and the executive councils of
provides for an elected parliament. ministers.
137. (d) Right to Equality refers to the equality in the eyes of 148. (c) The National Social Assistance Programme(NSAP)
law, discarding any unfairness on grounds of caste, race, represents a significant step towards the fulfilment of the
religion, place of birth and sex. It provides equal right to Directive Principles in Article 41 of the Constitution. It
women. came into effect from 15th August 1995.
138. (c) The Forty Second Constitution Amendment Act, 149. (d) Award has the same effect as of a Civil Court decree. The
1976 has incorporated ten Fundamental Duties in Article Supreme Court has held that award of the Lok Adalat is as
51(a) of the constitution of India. The 86th Constitution good as the decree of a Court. The award of the Lok Adalat is
Amendment Act 2002 has added one more Fundamental fictionally deemed to be decrees of Court and therefore the
Duty in Article 51(a) of the constitution of India. As a courts have all the powers in relation thereto as it has in relation
result, there are now 11 Fundamental Duties of the citizen to a decree passed by itself. It was the legal services authority
of India. act 1987, which gave statutory status to Lok Adalat.
139. (b) Sustained economic growth specially after the 1990s, 150. (b) Delimitation commission of India is a Commission
is not an attribute of sustainability of Indian democratic established by Government of India under the provisions
model. of the Delimitation Commission Act. In India, such
140. (b) The preamble is useful in constitutional interpretation Delimitation Commissions have been constituted 4 times
because it contains the real objective and philosophy of - in 1952 under the Delimitation Commission Act, 1952, in
the constitution makers. 1963 under Delimitation Commission Act, 1962, in 1973
141. (a) In the Rajya Sabha the states have been given seats under Delimitation Act, 1972 and in 2002 under Delimitation
on the basis of population. Act, 2002. The main task of the commission is to redraw
142. (c) A written constitution is one which is found in one the boundaries of the various assemblyand Lok Sabha
or more than one legal documents duly enacted in the constituencies based on a recent census. The
form of laws. It is precise, definite and systematic and representation from each state is not changed during this
codified. An unwritten constitution is one in which most exercise. However, the number of SC and ST seats in a state
of the principles of the government have never been is changed in accordance with the census.
enacted in the form of laws. It consists of customs, 151. (a) "Political parties give political education to the people"
conventions, traditions and some written laws bearing is not the function of political parties in a democracy.
different dates. It is not codified. It is unsystematic, 152. (b) Sarkaria Commission was set up in June 1983 by the
indefinite and unprecise.So, Written constitution is the central government of India. According to the commission,
formal source of all constitutional laws and Unwritten Chief Minister should be consulted before appointing the
Constitution is not the formal source. Governor.
143. (d) The Speaker of Lok Sabha may be removed from his 153. (b) Habeas corpus writs literally means you should have
office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by the body. It is writ that a person may seek from a court to
a majority of all the then members of the House. No obtain immediate release from an unlawful confinement.
resolution for the purpose of removal of the Speaker or the 154. (d) To practise family planning and to control population,
Dy. Speaker shall be moved unless at least fourteen days is not a fundamental duty of the citizen of India. The
notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution. Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the
144. (a) The Indian Council Act 1892- Introduction of the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. Originally
principle of election ten in number, the Fundamental Duties were increased to
The Indian Council Act 1909- Introduction of separate eleven by the 86th Amendment in 2002, which added a
electorate for the Muslims duty on every parent or guardian to ensure that their child
The government of India act 1919- Introduction of diarchy or ward was provided opportunities for education between
in provinces the ages of six and fourteen years.
The government of India Act 1935- Introduction of 155. (a) The writ of Prohibition is an order from a superior
provincial autonomy. court to a lower court or tribunal directing the judge and
145. (b) The Directive Principles resemble the instrument of the parties to cease the litigation because the lower court
instructions enumerated in the "government of India Act does not have proper jurisdiction to hear or determine the
of 1935". matters before it.
146. (c) The right to information includes 156. (a) · Election of Speaker shall be held on such date as
· Any document, manuscript and file the President may fix, and the Secretary-General shall send
· Any microfilm, microfiche and facsimile copy notice of this dateto every member.
of a document;
Polity 207
· The election of a Deputy Speaker shall be held on authorised person within 15 days of such incident. As per
such date as the Speaker may fix and the Secretary-General the 1985 Act, a 'defection' by one-third of the elected
shall send notice of this dateto every member. members of a political party was considered a 'merger'.
· At any time before noon on the day preceding the Finally, the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003,
date so fixed, any member may give notice in writing, changed this. So now at least two-thirds of the members
addressed to the Secretary-General, of a motion that of a party have to be in favour of a "merger" for it to have
another member be chosen as the Deputy Speaker of the validity in the eyes of the law.
House and the notice shall be seconded by a third member 163. (b) National Commission for Religious and Linguistic
and shall be accompanied by a statement by the member Minorities was constituted by Government on 29 October
whose name is proposed in the notice that he is willing to 2004 to look into various issues related to Linguistic and
serve as Deputy Speaker, if elected. Religious minorities in India. It is also called Ranganath
157. (d) RTI act was passed by Parliament on 15 June 2005 Misra Commission because it was chaired by former Chief
and came fully into force on 12 October 2005. Justice of India Justice Ranganath Misra.
It has been given the status of a fundamental right under 164. (b) The Estimates Committee is a Parliamentary
Article 19(a) of the Constitution. Article 19 (a) under which Committee consisting of 30 Members, elected every year
every citizen has freedom of speech and expression and by the Lok Sabha from amongst its Members. The
have the right to know how the government works, what Chairman of the Committee is appointed by the Speaker
role does it play, what are its functions and so on. from amongst its members. The term of office of the
158. (c) Indonesia redefined the principles of Panchashila for Committee is one year.
the purpose of domestic politics. It has been suggested 165. (a) 'Look East' policy does not optimize India's synergies
that the five principles had partly originated as the five in the extended Asia-Pacific neighbourhood. In many
principles of the Indonesian state. In June 1945 Sukarno cases, India's membership to these forums has been a
had proclaimed five general principles or pancasila on which result of attempts by the region to balance China's growing
future institutions were to be founded. Panchashila influence in the area. Notably, Japan brought India into
comprises of five principles held to be inseparable and ASEAN+6 to dilute the ASEAN+3 process, where China
interrelated: is dominant, while Singapore and Indonesia played a
1. Belief in the one and only God significant role in bringing India into the East Asia Summit.
2. Just and civilized humanity The United States and Japan have also lobbied for India's
3. The unity of Indonesia membership in the Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation.
4. Democracy 166. (c) One of the fundamental duties is to "defend the
5. Social justice country and render national service when called upon to
159. (b) Panchayats Extension to Scheduled Areas do so."
Act(PESA) is a law enacted by the Government of India 167. (d) This act made the central legislature bicameral. The
to cover the "Scheduled areas" which are not covered in first house which was central legislature with 145 members
the 73rd amendment or Panchayati Raj Act of the Indian (out of which 104 elected and 41 nominated) was called
Constitution. It was enacted on 24 December 1996 to central Legislative Assembly and second with 60 members
enable Gram Sabhas to self-govern their natural resources. (out of which 33 elected and 27 nominated) was called
160. (d) Participatory Budgeting is a democratic process of Council of States.It Introduced Diarchy in the provincial
deliberation by citizens, civic officials and elected executive. Federal system of Government was introduced
representatives on the issues that need attention and in India by The Government of India Act 1935.
collectively arriving at decisions that would directly be 168. (c) The State shall not make any law which takes away
included in the budget of the government. Participatory or abridges the rights conferred by this Part lll and any
budgeting empowers the citizens to present their demands law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent
and priorities for improvement and influence through of the contravention, be void.
discussions and negotiations the budget allocations made 169. (b) Our Parliamentary system blends the legislative and
by their municipalities. It is an opportunity in which the the executive organs of the State in as much as the
common citizens can decide about the allocation and executive power is wielded by a group of Members of the
distribution of public expenditure in their areas or regions. Legislature who command majority in the Lok Sabha.
161. (c) Sub-committee headed by Gopinath Bordoloi was 170. (c) The E-courts project was established in 2005.
appointed by the constituent Assembly of India to According to the project, all the courts including taluk
recommend the future pattern of administration of the courts will get computerized. As per the project in 2008, all
North Eastern Frontiers Areas. the District courts were initialised under the project. In
162. (a) The grounds for disqualification under the Anti- 2010, all the District courts were computerized. The project
Defection Law are as follows: also includes producing witnesses through video
If he votes or abstains from voting in such House contrary conferencing. The judicial service centres are available in
to any direction issued by his political party or anyone all court campuses. The Public as well as the advocates
authorised to do so, without obtaining prior permission. can walk in directly and ask for the case status, stage and
As a pre-condition for his disqualification, his abstention next hearing dates.
from voting should not be condoned by his party or the
 EBD_7341
208 Polity

171. (d) President's rule refers to Article 356 of the Constitution 180. (b) The case of S.R.Bommai vs Union of India is a landmark
of India deals with the failure of the constitutional machinery case in the purview of the Indian Constitutional history
of an Indian state. In the event that government in a state is relating to the proclamation of emergency under Article 356
not able to function as per the Constitution, the state comes of the Constitution. The case mainly came up with the issue
under the direct control of the central government, with of the power of the President to issue proclamation under
executive authority exercised through the Governor instead Article 356 of the Constitution including the power to dissolve
of a Council of Ministers headed by an elected Chief State Legislative Assemblies and also issues relating to
Minister accountable to the state legislature. Article 356 is federalism and secularism as a part of basic structure.
invoked if there has been failure of the constitutional 181. (c) The Planning Commission was established in March
machinery in any states of India. 1950 by an executive resolution of the Government of
172. (b) Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court(Article India, on the recommendation of the Advisory Planning
131): Supreme court has power to decide disputes Board constituted in 1946, under the chairmanship of KC
· between the Government of India and one or more States Neogi. Thus, the Planning Commission is neither
· between the Government of India and any State or States constitutional nor a statutory body. Planning commission
on one side and one or more other States on the other has been replaced by new institution namely NITI Aayog.
· between two or more States. 182. (c) The Committee on Public Undertakings examines the
173. (c) All doubts and disputes arising out of or in reports of the Comptroller & Auditor General on public
connection with the election of a President or Vice- undertakings.
President shall be inquired into and decided by the 183. (d) Political Theory deals with the study of political
Supreme Court whose decision shall be final (Article 71(a)). institutions as well as with theories of state, law, liberty,
174. (d) The Constitution empowers Parliament of India to equality and representation.
make laws on the matters reserved for States (States List). 184. (b) The subject matter of the motion must have a direct
However, this can only be done if Rajya Sabha first passes or indirect relation to the conduct or default on the part of
the Union Government and must precisely pinpoint the
a resolution by two-thirds supermajority granting such a
failure of the Government of India in the performance of
power to the Union Parliament. The union government
its duties in accordance with the provisions of the
cannot make a law on a matter reserved for states without
Constitution and Law.
an authorisation from Rajya Sabha.So the House of People
185. (a) The main functions of the Committee are to consider
does not have special powers with respect to the state
all matters concerning the welfare of the Scheduled Castes
list.
and Scheduled Tribes, falling within the purview of the
175. (c) The Vice-President is elected by an Electoral College,
Union Government and the Union Territories, to consider
which consists of the members of the Lok Sabha and Rajya
the reports submitted by the National Commission for
Sabha (both elected and nominated members).
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes and to examine
176. (a) According to the preamble of Indian Constitution,
the measures taken by the Union Government to secure
India is aSovereign, Socialist, Secular and Democratic
republic. Capitalism and free trade is not enshrined in the due representation of the Scheduled Castes and
preamble of the Indian constitution. Scheduled Tribes in services and posts under its control.
177. (b) According to Article 219 of Indian Constitution (Oath 186. (b) The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is
or affirmation by Judges of High Courts) every person appointed by the President of India. CAG is an authority
appointed to be a Judge of a High Court shall, before he that was established by the Constitution of India under
enters upon his office, make and subscribe before the article 148. Report of CAG of Union Accounts to be
Governor of the State, or some person appointed in that submitted to President who causes them to be laid before
behalf by him, an oath or affirmation according to the form each house of parliament.
set out for the purpose in the Third Schedule. 187. (d) Cabinet collective responsibility is a tradition in
178. (a) The Rajinder Sachar Committeewas appointed in 2005 parliamentary governments in which the prime minister is
by the then Indian Prime Minister Manmohan Singh to responsible for appointing the cabinet ministers. It is the
prepare a report on the latest social, economic and Prime Minister who enforces collective responsibility
educational condition of the Muslim community of India. amongst the Ministers through his ultimate power to
Srikrishna Commission was constituted by the Government dismiss a Minister. No person shall be nominated to the
of Maharashtra for investigating the causes of the Bombay cabinet except on the advice of the Prime Minister.
Riots. Secondly, no person shall be retained as a Member of the
Ranganath Misra Commission was constituted by the Cabinet if the Prime Minister says that he should be
Government of India on 29 October 2004 to look into dismissed. In India, a Motion of No Confidence can be
various issues related to Linguistic and Religious introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
minorities in India. 188. (c) The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is a committee
Nanavati commission was established by the Indian of selected members of Parliament, constituted by the
Government in 2000 to investigate the 1984 anti-Sikh riots. Parliament of India, for the auditing of the expenditure of
179. (d) The constitution of India does not specifically the Government of India. Its chief function is to examine
mention the freedom of press. Freedom of press is implied the audit report of Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)
from the Article 19(a)(a) of the Constitution. after it is laid in the Parliament.
Polity 209
189. (d) All statements are true. Citizenship is covered in Part be regulated in such States by Parliament by law.
II of the Indian constitution (articles 5-11). Article 253- Legislation for giving effect to international
190. (c) The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the vice- agreements notwithstanding anything in the foregoing
presiding officer of the Lok Sabha.He/She is elected from provisions of this Chapter, Parliament has power to make
amongst the members. It acquired a more prominent any law for the whole or any part of the territory of India
position after 1950. He holds office till either he ceases to for implementing any treaty, agreement or convention with
be a member of the Lok Sabha or he himself resigns. any other country or countries or any decision made at
191. (c) Article 111 of the Indian constitution stipulates that any international conference, association or other body.
the President shall give assent to a bill passed by both 198. (c) With the enactment of the 97th amendment to the
houses of the parliament or return the bill as soon as Constitution of India and its inclusion in Part IX of the
possible for reconsideration with his recommendation. Constitution, formation of cooperative societies has
192. (d) The Cabinet mission arrived on March 24, 1946. The become one of the fundamental rights of an Indian citizen.
objective of this mission was to: Cooperative societies have thus come under the ambit of
· Devise a machinery to draw up the constitution of The Right to Information Act. Cooperative societies
Independent India. normally include cooperative banks, credit societies, sugar
· Make arrangements for interim Government. factories, distilleries, handloom-power loom factories,
· Thus the mission was like a declaration of India's distilleries, milk producing societies, water supply
independence. societies etc.
· British Government was to supervise the affairs of 199. (a) The Constitution of India was drafted by the
the constituent Assembly, was not the aim of the mission. constituent assembly and it was set up under the cabinet
193. (c) In recognizing a parliamentary party or group, the Mission plan on 16 May 1946. Dr. Rajendra Prasad then
speaker shall take into consideration the following became the President of the Constituent Assembly.
principles: Tiruvellore Thattai Krishnamachari was a member of
An association of members who propose to form a drafting committee. Harendra Coomar Mookerjee was the
parliamentary party: Vice-president of the Constituent Assembly of India for
1. Shall have an association of members who have a drafting the Constitution of India. Bhimrao Ambedkar was
distinct programme of parliamentary work appointed Chairman of the Constitution Drafting
2. Shall have an organization both inside and outside Committee.
the house 200. (d) The Committee on Empowerment of Women was
3. Shall have at least a strength equal to the quorum constituted on 29th April 1997. The Committee consists
fixed to constitute a sitting of the house i.e one tenth of of 30 Members of whom 20 are nominated by the Speaker
the total number of members of the house. from amongst the Members of Lok Sabha and 10 are
194. (b) According to article 112,the President shall in respect nominated by the Chairman, Rajya Sabha from amongst
of every financial year cause to be laid before both the the Members of the Rajya Sabha. A Minister cannot be
Houses of Parliament a statement of the estimated receipts nominated a Member of the Committee. The term of the
and expenditure of the Government of India for that year, Committee does not exceed one year. One of the functions
in this Part referred to as the annual financial statement. of the committee is to report on the working of the welfare
195. (a) Article 2- (Admission or establishment of new States) programmes for the women.
Parliament may by law admit into the Union, or establish 201. (b) Democracy is a form of government that allows people
new States on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit. to choose their rulers. In a democracy only leaders elected
Article 3- Formation of new States and alteration of areas, by the people can rule the country. A democracy must be
boundaries or names of existing States. based on a free and fair election where those currently in
Amendment in the First and Fourth schedule can be done power have a fair chance of losing. Each adult citizen must
through constitution amendment bill. have one vote and each vote must have one value.
196. (a) Article 79- There shall be a Parliament for the Union 202. (b) Article 108 of the Constitution empowers the President
which shall consist of the President and two Houses to to summon a joint session of both houses "for the purpose
be known respectively as the council of States and the of deliberating and voting on the Bill". In India, if a bill has
House of the People. been rejected by any house of the parliament and if more
Article 54 - The President shall be elected by the members than six months have elapsed, the President may summon
of an electoral college consisting of the elected members a joint session for purpose of passing the bill. If at the joint
of both Houses of Parliament; and the elected members of sitting the Bill is passed with or without amendments with
the Legislative Assemblies of the States. a majority of total number of members of the two Houses
197. (d) Article 248- Parliament has exclusive power to make present and voting, it shall be deemed to be passed by
any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the both the Houses. It is not frequently restored to establish
Concurrent List or State List. the supremacy of the Lok Sabha.
Article 252- If it appears to the Legislatures of two or more 203. (b) On 29 August 1947, the Drafting Committee was
States to be desirable that any of the matters with respect appointed with Dr B. R. Ambedkar as the Chairman along
to which Parliament has no power to make laws for the with six other members assisted by a constitutional
States except as provided in Articles 249 and 250 should advisor. These members were Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant,
 EBD_7341
210 Polity

K M Munshi, Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer, N Gopala swami 215. (b) Popular participation is unmediated; the people are
Ayengar, B L Mitter and Md. Saadullah. A Draft the government, there is no separate elite or ruling-class
Constitution was prepared by the committee and between the government and their people. This is an
submitted to the Assembly on 4 November 1947.This is indirect and limited form of democracy where the people
Ambedkar's second argument rested on the legitimacy of choose who shall make decisions on their behalf. In the
the democratic system. responsible democracy, the government is responsible
204. (c) The recommendation of the president is required for first to the parliament's lower house, which is more
introduction of money bills or for moving amendments to numerous, directly elected and thus more representative
acts relating to financial matters, except those making than the upper house. The people vote for their
provision for the reduction or abolition of any tax. So, for representative who speaks on behalf of their constituents.
option (c) president's recommendation is not required. 216. (d) Any act done under martial law cannot be validated
205. (b) 73 rd constitution amendment is applicable to all by parliament by law.
states except Jammu & Kashmir. 217. (a) Dual Citizenship is not found in the Indian political
206. (b) Ministry of Defence comprises of four Departments system. The Indian Constitution does not allow dual
as Department of Defence (DOD), Department of Defence citizenship. Automatic loss of Indian citizenship covered
Production (DDP), Defence Research & Development in Section 9(1) of the Citizenship act 1955, provides that
organisation (DRDO) and Department of Ex-Servicemen any citizen of India who by naturalisation or registration
Welfare (DESW). acquires the citizenship of another country shall cease
207. (b) Three Election Commissioners in the each State shall to be a citizen of India. Indian Government has started
be appointed by the Governor of the respective State from OCI (Overseas citizen of India) Scheme in 2005.According
a penal of five names for each office forwarded by the to the scheme if you are already a Person of Indian origin
Election Commission of Bharatto the provision of the (POI) and have taken up citizenship abroad, you can take
Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act, 1992 and the up benefits of OCI scheme, which gives you the same
Constitution (Seventy-fourth Amendment) Act, 1992, travel and residence privileges like other Indians but you
whereunder the constitution of State Election Commissions are not allowed to vote and take up jobs in Government
and appointment of State Election Commissioners are sector.
contemplated to superintend, direct and control the 218. (d) Under Article 226,a High Court can issue these writs
preparation of the electoral rolls for, and the conduct of not only for the purpose of enforcement of the
elections to Panchayats and Municipalities. Election fundamental rights but also for the redress of any other
Commissioner of a State can be removed by the Full Bench injury or illegality, owing to contravention of the ordinary
of State Judicial Commission on the basis of enquiry and law.
investigation made by a judicial committee constituted for 219. (c) It does not permit the OCI to vote in general election
the purpose, consisting of two Chief Justices and one Judge in India. On the occasion of first Pravasi Bhartiya Diwas
from different High Courts. on 9th January 2003, former Prime Minister AtalBihari
208. (c) Every state in India does not have a separate High Vajpayee had made an announcement for grant of dual
Court .The constitution provides that parliament may by citizenship to PIOs. The necessary Legislation was
law establish a common High Court for two or more states introduced by the Government of India in Parliament in
and a Union Territory. May 2003.
209. (a) The Panel has dismissed the tendulkar committee report. 220. (c) The power to decide the date of an election a state
210. (c) legislative assembly rests with the election commission of India.
211. (a) Kesavananda Bharati. v. State of Kerala is a landmark 221. (a) Option (a) is not correct. Under Article 72 of the
decision of the Supreme Court of India that outlined the Indian Constitution the Indian President is empowered
Basic Structure doctrine of the Constitution Upholding to grant pardon, he can reprieve, respite or remit the
the validity of clause (4) of article 13 and a corresponding punishment in all cases where the punishment or sentence
provision in article 368(3) inserted by the 24th is by a court martial.
Amendment. The Court settled in favour of the view that 222. (b) Punjab Naujawan Bharat Sabha aspired to spread
Parliament has the power to amend the Fundamental the philosophy of revolution among students.
Rights also. 223. (b) Tribal areas generally mean areas having
212. (c) The Ninth Schedule was added by the 1 st preponderance of tribal population. However, the
Amendment 1951 to protect the laws included in it from Constitution of India refers tribal areas within the States
judicial scrutiny on the ground of violation of fundamental of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura & Mizoram, as those areas
rights.However in 2007 Supreme Court ruled that the laws specified in Parts I, II, IIA & III of the table appended to
included in it after 24 April 1973 are now open to judicial paragraph 20 of the Sixth Schedule.
review. 224. (a) A Bill shall be deemed to be a money Bill if it contains
213. (a) Members of Armed Forces are not treated at par so the following matters
far as the availability of Fundamental Rights is concerned. (I) The imposition abolition, remission, alteration or
214. (c) Notification regarding commencement or cessation regulation of any tax
of a state of war is the responsibility of Ministry of External (II) The regulation of the borrowing of money or the
Affairs. giving of any guarantee by the Government of India, or
Polity 211
the amendment of the law with respect to any financial 235. (a) Article 22 of the Constitution of India states that no
obligations undertaken or to be undertaken by the protection against arrest and detention is available to
Government of India. enemy of foreign state or a person detained under
(III) The custody of the consolidated fund or the preventive detention law.
contigency Fund of India, The payment of money into or 236. (b)
withdrawal of money from any such fund. (i) Morality, health and other provisions relating to
225. (a) Hindi wrtten in Devanagari script is to be the official fundamental rights.
language of the Union. However, for the period of fifteen (ii) Regulate or religious practice: and
years from the commencement of the constitution (i.e., (ii) Provide for social welfare and reform or throw open
from 1950 to 1965), the English language would continue Hindu religious institutions for public character to all
to be used for all the official purposes of the union for classes and sections of Hindus.
which it was used before 1950. Even after fifteen years, 237. (b) Equality before law and protection of life and
parliment many provide for the continued use of English personal liberty are available to non citizens by
language for the specific purposes. fundamental Rights of Indian Constitution.
226. (b) After the general election and newly formed 238. (d) The formation of the Constituent Assembly includes
government, the legislative section prepares a list of senior the following facts-
Lok Sabha member (MPs), This list is submitted to the (i) On the basis of the provincial election of 1946, the
minister of parliamentary affairs through this process a members of the Constituent Assembly were choosen.
pro tem Speaker is seleced and is approved by the (ii) Opinions were invited from the public to evolve a
President. sense of mass participation.
227. (a) Leader Party 239. (c) The Government of Indfia Act 1935 and the abolition
Shyama Prasad Mukherjee - Bhartiya Jana Sangh of Privy council Jurisdiction Act 1949. were repealed by
Minoo Masani - Swatantra Party the Constitution of India. It took place due to out of use
S.A. Dange - Communist Party of in free India.
India 240. (c) Habeas Corpus is a legal remedy to provide relief to
Ashok Mehta - Praja Socialist Party detaines from unlawful imprisonment.
228. (d) There is no provison in the Constitution of India to 241. (b) Citizenship Act of India (amendment 2015) entitles
give official status to a particular religion. the NRI to vote in elections in India.
229. (c) The Part IV of the Constitution of India provides 242. (d) Under Article 82 of the constitution, after every
the Directive Principle of State Policy. This policy has census, the delimitation commission demarcates the
the following categories- social justice, economic welfare, boundary of parliamentary constituency on the basis of
foreign policy, legal and administrative matters. Delimitation Act.
230. (d) Realists believe in self assistance. They think that 243. (c) The fourteenth finance commission wants the states
no other country may be trusted for the survival. to share a larger fiscal responsibility for the
231. (c) Immanuel Kant (22 April, 1724 - 12 Feb 1804), a great implementation of the scheme.
German philosopher proposed the theory of perpetual 244. (b) India has signed a Memorandum of Understanding
peace containing following points:- (MoU) with China in Beijing on October 2013 for
(i) No standing army existance. strengthening cooperation on Trans-border Rivers.
(ii) No any independent state will be interfered with any 245. (d) Constitutional bodies are formed by the constitution
other dominion state. which helps the government to run properly.
(iii) No state will be interfered by another state 246. (d) Uzbekistan in not a member of the Eurasian Economic
constitutionally. Union.
(iv) Existance of universal peace policy. 247. (c) BRICS Leaders signed to set up a Development Bank at
232. (d) The Bill may be introduced in either house of Parliament the 6th BRICS summit held in Fortaleza, Brazil, (15th July 2014).
to form a new state. It needs a Prior Permission of the 248. (d) In year 2003, by an amendment in constitution the
President before introduction of the Bill. category of 'Overseas Citizen of India' was entered in the
Moreover, the Constitution (Article 4) itself declares that Citizenship Act of India.
laws made for admission or establishment of new states 249. (a) In 2002, through the 86th amendement act, the Right
(under Article 2) and formation of new states and to Education was added to the Fundamental Rights.
alternation of areas, boundaries or names of existing 250. (c) Assam Province was created in the year (1911) when
states (under Articles 3) are not to be considered as eleven districts comprising it were separated from the Lt.
amendments of the Constitution under Article 368. Governorship of Bengal and established as an independent
233. (b) During the period of 1814-1850, commodities such as administration under a chief commissioner.
251. (d) The rights of Indian President-
cotton, opium and raw silk were exported from British India.
(i) To address the Council of Ministers
Indigo was not dominately exported during that time.
(ii) To send message to the Council of Ministers.
234. (c) Generally citizenship is terminated due to possession
(iii) To Call for information regarding proposals of Legislation.
of citizenship of any foreign state. The parliament has
(iv) The president will receive all decisions of the council
power about acquisition and termination of citizenship
of Ministers concerned with administration of the Union.
of a person.
 EBD_7341
212 Polity

252. (b) In the Case of Danial Latifi Vs. Union of India, the court by the President from among persons who have achieved
decision gave. The extension to the right of a muslim woman distinction in literature, art, science and social services.
to get maintenance till she gets remarriage. 268. (b) The President can dissolve the Lok Sabha only. On
253. (c) The third five year plan (1961-1966) had no objective the other hand, President can nominate 12 member in Rajya
to increase wheat production and other agricultural Sabha.
products. 269. (a)
254. (d) The National policy for children 2013 states - Ranking of States and 2011
(i) a child is any person below 18 years old. Union Territories by
(ii) Childhood is an integral part of life. populations
(iii) Every child is unique and important national asset. India/State/Union Population 2011
(iv) All Children have the right to grow in a family environment. Territory
255. (b) A MP elected from a particular party does not become
Kerala 3,33,87,677
disqualified for a member of a house, when he is expelled
by that particular party. Jharkhand 3,29,66,238
256. (a) The recognized languages in the 8th Schedule of the Assam 3,11,69,272
constitution - Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri, Gujarati, Punjab 2,77,04,236
Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Maithili, Malayalam,
Hence, option (a) is correct.
Manipuri, Marathi, Nepalli, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit,
Earthquakes occur at places where 2 tectonic plates
Santhali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu & Urdu.
interact. These can be convergent boundaries, Divergent
257. (c) Misl was confederation of 12 sovereign states of the
sikh confederacy. They were - Phulkian, Ahluwalia, Bhangi, boundaries or transform faults.
Kanheya, Ramgarhia, Singhpuria, Panjgarhia, Nishanwalia, Intensity of earthquake decreases with distance from the
Sukerchakia, Dallewalia, Nakai and Shaheedan. epicenter.
258. (a) Article 44 of the constitution states about the existence 270. (a) The Government of India Act, 1935 and The Indian
of uniform civil code for all citizens in the country. Independence Act, 1947, together with all enactments
Each High court has power to issue to any person within amending or supplementing the latter act, but not
it jurisdiction, orders different writs including habeas including the abolition of Privy Council jurisdiction act,
corpus, mandamus, prohibition quo-warranto and certiorari. 1949 are hereby repealed by Article 395 of the Constitution
Supreme Court of India was established on January 28, of India.
1950. It is the highest Judicial forum. 271. (b) The constitution came into force on 26 January 1950,
259. (c) The sixth schedule to the constitution of India deals but some provisions relating to Citizenship, Elections,
with Autonomous District Councils (ADCs). provisional parliament, temporary & transitional
260. (a) The CAG is an authority, established by the provisions were given immediate effect on 26 November
constitution. Who audits all receipts and expenditure of 1949.
the Government of India and the State Governments. 272. (d) The members of the Constituent assembly were
261. (b) On 29th December, 2006 the Scheduled Tribes and indirectly elected by the members of the provincial
other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest assemblies by method of single transferable vote system
Rights) Act came into force. of proportional representations. The membership plan was
262. (a) The principle of 'Rarest of Rare' has been laid down roughly as per suggestions of the Cabinet Mission plan.
by the top court in the landmark judgement in Bachan The basis of divisions of seats was "population" roughly
Singh versus State of Punjab in 1980. in 1:10 Lakh ratio.
263. (d) The speaker has the authority to discharge the 273. (c) In 1872 the first census was conducted in India in
functions of his office in his whole term but can't delegate different parts. The first All India census was conducted
his functions to the Deputy Speaker during his absence. in the year 1881 and since then it is a decennial regular
The Speaker of Lok Sabha can be removed by passing a event.
resolution in Lok Sabha with an absolute majority, that is, 274. (a) The process of judicial scrutiny of legislative acts is
majority of votes of the total members in the house. called Judicial Review. If law passed by parliament violates
264. (a) The Second Administrative Reforms Commission any provision of the constitution, the Supreme Court has
(2005) was setup by the Government of India as a the power to declare such a law invalid.
committee of inquiry to prepare a detailed blueprint for The Supreme Court held the view in Kesavananda Bharti
revamping the public administration system. case that Article 368 did not enable Parliament to alter the
265. (a) A Writ of prohibition is issued primarily to prevent basic structure or framework of the Constitution.
an inferior court from exceeding its jurisdiction, or acting Parliament could not use its amending powers under
contrary to the rule of natural justice. The writ lies only Article368 to 'alter' the 'basic structure' or framework of
against a body exercising public functions of a judicial or the constitution.
quasi-judicial character. 275. (c) Article 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty) is
266. (c) Vishwanath Pratap Singh, H.D. Deve Gowda, Atal available to foreigners and Citizens both.
Bihari Vajpayee were defeated by a vote of 'no confidence'. 276. (c) The citizenship cannot be deprived merely on the
267. (a) The Constitution lays down 250 as the maximum ground of marriage with a foreigner and criticizing the
strength of the Rajya Sabha, out of which 12 are nominated Government.
Polity 213
277. (a) form associations or unions; to move freely throughout
278. (d) Only the fundamental rights guaranteed by the the territory of India; to reside in any part of India; to
constitution can be enforced under Article-32 and not practice any profession, or to carry on any , trade or
any other rights. business.
279. (a) Habeas Corpus- The court can order a person who 290. (c) Exchange of territories between India and Bangladesh
has detained another person to produce the body of the took place by passing of the Constitution (119th
latter before it. Amendment) Bill by the Parliament of India on 7th May
280. (d) The fundamental duties include to abide by the 2015. The bill proposed to amend the 1st schedule of the
Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the constitution to exchange the disputed territories occupied
by both the nations in accordance with the India-
National Flag and the National Anthem; to uphold and protect
Bangladesh Land Boundary Agreement-1974.
the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India; to defend the
The bill now after the assent of the President entered in to
country and render national service when called upon to do the statue book as Constitution 100th Amendment Act
so; to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as 2015.
the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen 291. (b) Goods and Services Tax (GST) will replace all central
years. and state taxes by a single tax. Petroleum products like
281. (a) Under Article 352 of the constitution of India a kerosene, naphtha and LPG will be under GST, while five
Proclamation of Emergency can be declared if security of items, including crude oil, natural gas, aviation fuel, diesel
India or any territory is threatened by war or by external and petrol have been excluded. Alcohol for human
aggression or by armed rebellion. consumption will be out of GST.
282. (c) The aggrieved wife or female may also file a complaint 292. (a) The Haryana Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Bill, 2015
against a relative of the husband or the male partner with is an amendment of the Haryana Panchayati Raj Act, 1994.
whom the woman has lived in a domestic relationship. The minimum eligibility of a candidate for contesting
283. (c) Article 17 of the constitution of India deals with election are: having a functional toilet at home, having
untouchability and enforcement of any disability arising power bills payment slips, should not be a cooperative
out of Untouchability is an offence punishable in loan defaulter, and having minimum matriculation degree
accordance with law. The protection of civil rights act, for people in the general category, middle standard or
1955 deals with punishment for the preaching and practice class 8th passed for the women (general) and Scheduled
of untouchability and for matters connected with it. The caste candidates, and class V passed for women SC
scheduled castes and the scheduled tribes (prevention of candidates.
atrocities) act, 1989 forbids any atrocities against them 293. (a) Sarkaria Commission was set up in June 1983 to
and any offence under this act is punishable. study balance of power between Indian states and central
284. (d) The power to issue writs including Habeas Corpus, governments. The Eleventh Finance Commission was
Mandamus, Quo Warrento, Certiorari, and Prohibition for constituted by the President on July 3, 1998 to make
the protection of the fundamental rights of the citizen is recommendations on several things like Chapter I of Part
not exclusive to Supreme Court. The high courts are also XII of the Constitution. Second Administrative Reforms
empowered to issue writs in these cases. The Citizens can Commission was constituted on 31 August 2005 to reform
approach either the high court or directly to Supreme Court. the public administrative system. Punchhi Commission
285. (a) The Sixth Schedule of the constitution of India was constituted on April 28, 2007.
pertains to administration of tribal areas in states of 294. (c) Panchayati system functions as a system of
Tripura,Meghalaya,Mizoram and Assam. governance in India in which gram panchayats acts as
286. (b) Article 31-B was inserted by the First Constitutional basic units of local administration. A village with
population of 1500 and more forms Gram Sabha. Article
(Amendment) Act 1951 which states that without
243G, empower State legislatures to provide Panchayats
prejudiced to the generality of the provisions contained
with powers and authority to enable them to function.
in Article 31-A, none of the Acts and Regulations specified
Seats in a Panchayat are filled by persons chosen by
in the Ninth Schedule of the constitution of India nor any
direct election from territorial constituencies in the
of the provisions thereof shall be deemed to be void.
Panchayat area.
287. (a) Article 327 empowers the Parliament to make 295. (b) Part XI of the Indian constitution mentions
provision from time to time with respect to all matters distribution of power between the federal government
relating to, or in connection with, elections to either house (the Centre) and the states in India. Parliament can make
of parliament or to the house or either house of the laws to alter the boundaries of states. India does not
legislature of a state including the delimitation of recognize dual citizenship.
constituencies. 296. (a) The Supreme Court of India is the highest judicial
As per article 329 of the constitution of India no election body in India and exercises extensive powers in the form
to either house of parliament or to the house or either of original, appellate and advisory jurisdictions. It has
house of the legislature of a state shall be called in question jurisdiction to solve conflicts between the central and
except by an election petition presented to authority. state governments and enjoys power to pass decree or
288. (b) The commission presents an annual report to the make order to do justice. It has special advisory
President. The president places all such reports before jurisdiction in matters which may specifically be send to
the Parliament. it by the President.
289. (b) Under the Right to Freedom all citizens have the right 297. (a) Provincial elections in British India (1937) under the
to freedom of speech and expression; to assemble; to Government of India Act 1935 were held in eleven
 EBD_7341
214 Polity

provinces, including Madras, Bihar, Orissa. Indian 306. (d) The Directive Principles of State Policy are a set of
National Congress won in eight of the provinces. The guidelines for central and state governments of India for
All-India Muslim League won 106 seats (about 80% of framing laws and policies. These are contained in Part IV
total Muslim seats). Untouchables were allowed to vote. (Article 36-51) in Indian Constitution, and though not
Around 30.1 million people, including 4.25 million women, enforceable, the principles, are fundamental in the
had the right to vote. governance of the country. They aim to promote social
298. (c) The President of India is the head of the executive of and economic democracy through a welfare state.
the Union Government and all executive powers are 307. (a) Vice-President is elected by an Electoral College, which
exercised by him/her either directly or through the consists of the members of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
subordinate officers. President can appoint the important (both elected and nominated members). He/she is the ex
officers in Central Government including the Attorney- officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha. The qualification
General for India. The supreme commander of all the for getting elected as Vice president is that he/she should
defense services is the President. be more than 35 years of age and should not hold any
299. (b) Supreme Court of India has ruled that it is the violation office of profit.
of Article 21 of the Indian Constitution if an under-trial 308. (a) All doubts and disputes arising related to the
prisoner is held in custody for long period, and such election of a President or Vice-President are inquired into
prisoner has the right to get bail. Article 21 also ensures and decided by the Supreme Court and its decision is
woman’s right to make reproductive choices and is treated final. If the election of a person as President or
considered as personal liberty of women. Vice-President is declared null by the Supreme Court,
300. (a) Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education any acts by him/her in the exercise of powers and duties
(RTE) Act, 2009 was enacted on 4 August 2009, which as President or Vice-President shall not be invalidated.
focuses on free and compulsory education for children 309. (b) Rajasthan is the first state to brought minimum
between 6 and 14, quality of education, no discrimination qualification of Class X for contesting the zilla parishad or
in education based on socio-economic and cultural panchayat samiti polls, Class VIII to contest sarpanch
background, schools with qualified teachers with basic elections, and Class V for scheduled areas. The minimum
infrastructure, standards relating to pupil teacher ratios, education qualification set by the Haryana law to contest
etc. panchayat polls is Class X for general candidates, Class
301. (a) Freedom to manage religious affairs under Constitution VIII pass for women and Dalits, Class V for Dalit women.
of India ensures establishing and maintaining institutions 310. (b) Delegation means conferring of specified authority
for religious and charitable purposes, managing its own by a lower authority to a higher one. It is a method of
affairs in religious matters, own and acquire movable and dividing authority in the organization.
immovable property, and administering such property in 311. (c) Rule of Law and Parliamentary system are borrowed
accordance with law. features of Constitution of India from British Constitution.
302. (c) Protection against arrest and detention of Feature of Independence of Judiciary is taken from US
individuals under Article 22 ensures that every person Constitution. Law making procedure has been borrowed
who is arrested and detained in custody shall be produced from Japan.
before the nearest magistrate within a period of twenty- 312. (d) The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution provides
four hours of such arrest excluding the time taken for the for allocation of seats to the States and Union Territories
journey from the place of arrest to the court of the in Rajya Sabha. The allocation of seats is made on the
magistrate. basis of the population of each State. Consequent on
303. (c) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has considered Consumer the reorganization of States and formation of new States,
Price Index (CPI), a measure of changes in the price level the number of elected seats in the Rajya Sabha allotted
of the market of consumer goods, as the new parameter to to States and Union Territories has changed from time to
measure of inflation in India. Earlier, RBI had given more time since 1952.
importance to Wholesale Price Index (WPI) than CPI as 313. (a) During a national emergency, many Fundamental
the key to measure inflation. NASDAQ is a stock market Rights of Indian citizens can be suspended. The six
index of the common stocks and securities. BSE Index is a freedoms under Right to Freedom are automatically
stock market index of companies listed on Bombay Stock suspended. By contrast, the Right to Life and Personal
Exchange. Liberty cannot be suspended according to the original
304. (a) Preamble is a brief introductory statement to the Constitution.
Constitution of India which sets out the guiding purpose and 314. (*)
principles of the document, and it indicates the source from 315. (c) A joint sitting of parliament is resorted to for resolving
which the document derives its authority, meaning, the people. the deadlock between two houses of the parliament for
Preamble is not an integral part of the Indian passing of only Ordinary Bill and Finance Bill , not for
constitution and therefore it is not enforceable in a court of law. Constitution amendment and Money Bill.
305. (c) The Cultural and Educational Rights is guaranteed 316. (c) The Directive Principles of State Policy are meant for
under articles 29 and 30 of Indian constitution guarantees. promoting social and economic democracy in India. The
Article 30 mentions that all minority communities have Fundamental Rights enshrined in Part III of the constitution
the right to establish and administer educational of India are ordinarily subject to reasonable restrictions.
institutions of their choice and that the state shall not 317. (c) The President is elected by the members of an
discriminate on the grounds of religion or language while electoral college consisting of the elected members of
granting aid to educational institutions.
Polity 215
both the Houses of Parliament and the elected members Constitutional Amendment Bill 2011. But he failed to make
of the Legislative Assemblies of States and the Union consensus between Centre and State. Since its first day,
Territories of Delhi and Pondicherry. the BJP led NDA government trying to push the biggest
318. (c) 1,2 and 3 are correct. tax reform since 1947. In the Union budget also Union
319. (d) Article 21 of the Constitution of India, 1950 provides Finance Minister repeated the importance of GST. The
that, “No person shall be deprived of his life or personal States do not have the powers to levy a tax on supply of
liberty except according to procedure established by law.” services while the Centre does not have power to levy tax
320. (c) The Drafting Committee had seven members: Alladi on the sale of goods. Thus, the Constitution does not
Krishnaswami Ayyar, N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar ; B.R. vest express power either in the Central or State
Ambedkar, K.M Munshi, Mohammad Saadulla, B.L. Mitter Government to levy a tax on the ‘supply of goods and
and D.P. Khaitan. B N Rau was the Constitutional Advisor. services’. Moreover, the Constitution also does not
321. (b) In the formula given by the Fourteen Finance empower the States to impose tax on imports. Therefore, it
Commission, income inequality in the states got 50% is essential to have Constitutional Amendments for
weightage in the tax distribution and population got empowering the Centre to levy tax on sale of goods and
17.5% weightage. ‘Forest cover’ was assigned 7.5% States for levy of service tax and tax on imports and other
weightage, ‘area’ 15 per cent weightage and tax effort got consequential issues. As part of the exercise on
10% weightage. Constitutional Amendment, there would be a special
322. (a) A Money Bill after having been passed by the Lok attention to the formulation of a mechanism for upholding
Sabha, and sent to Rajya Sabha for its recommendations, the need for a harmonious structure for GST along with
has to be returned to Lok Sabha by the Rajya Sabha, with in the concern for the powers of the Centre and the States in
a period of fourteen days from the date of its receipt, with or a federal structure. Thus the Constitution of India has
without recommendations. been amended by the Constitution (one hundred and first
323. (b) The Constitution of India through Article 311, thus amendment) Act, 2016 recently for this purpose. Article
protects and safeguards the rights of civil servants in 246Aof the Constitution empowers the Centre and the
Government service against arbitrary dismissal, removal States to levy and collect the GST.
and reduction in rank. Such protection enables the civil 331. (d) All are correct.
servants to discharge their functions boldly, efficiently 332. (b) A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as,
and effectively. and for being, a member of either House of Parliament-(a) if
324. (b) “Habeas Corpus” is a Latin term which literally means he holds any office of profit under the Government of India
“you may have the body.” The writ is issued to produce or the Government of any State, other than an office declared
a person who has been detained , whether in prison or in by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder; (b) if he is
private custody, before a court and to release him if such of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent
detention is found illegal. court; (c) if he is an undischarged insolvent; (d) if he is not
325. (c) The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual a citizen of India or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship
Financial Statement. of a foreign State, or is under any acknowledgment of
326. (c) The National Commission for Women was set up as allegiance or adherence to a foreign State; (e) if he is so
statutory body in January 1992 under the National disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament. A
Commission for Women Act, 1990 ( Act No. 20 of 1990 of person shall be disqualified for being a member of either
Govt.of India) to review the Constitutional and legal House of Parliament if he is so disqualified under the Tenth
safeguards for women; recommend remedial legislative Schedule.
measures, facilitate redressal of grievances and advise 333. (c) According to the Election Commission of India, in
the Government on all policy matters affecting women. order to be recognized as a 'National Party', a political
327. (d) In August 1985, P N Bhagwati became Chief Justice party must be treated as a recognized political party in
of India. As a supreme court judge, Bhagwati introduced atleast four States. The other two conditions are: Secure
the concepts of public interest litigation and absolute at least 6% of the valid vote in an Assembly or a Lok
liability to the Indian judicial system. Sabha General Election in any four or more states and won at
328. (a) The Parliament can create new All-India Services least 4 seats in a Lok Sabha General Election from any State
(including an All-India Judicial Service), if the Rajya Sabha or States; Win at least 2% of the total Lok Sabha seats in a
passes a resolution declaring that it is necessary or expedient Lok Sabha General Election and these seats have to be won
in the national interest to do so. from at least 3 states.
329. (d) If the Governor of a State is satisfied that a situation 334. (a) Amendments to the Constitution of India has prescribed
has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of the that the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of
State is threatened, he may declare financial emergency total number of members of the House of the People or
in the State. Legislative Assembly in the States.
330. (a) The constitutional bill was presented by Union 335. (c) The Attorney General of India is the Indian
Finance Minister on 19th November 2014 to facilitate easy government's chief legal advisor, and is primary lawyer in
implementation of GST Law. The idea about GST was the Supreme Court of India. He can be said to be the
first time initiated by former Union Finance Minister lawyer from government's side. He is appointed by the
P. Chidambaram. Under UPA Regime by introducing 115th President of India under Article 76(1) of the Constitution
 EBD_7341
216 Polity

and holds office during the pleasure of the President. He has 341. (c) Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) is a
right of audience in all courts within the territory of India. He method of providing feedback to voters using a ballot
has also the right to speak and take part in proceedings of less voting system. It is intended as an independent
both the houses of both the houses of parliament including verification system for voting machines designed to allow
joint sittings. But cannot vote in parliament. Further, he can voters to verify that their vote was cast correctly, to detect
also be made a member of any parliamentary committee but possible election fraud or malfunction, and to provide a
in the committee also, he has no power to vote. He has all the means to audit the stored electronic results. It contains
powers and privileges that of a member of parliament.. He name of the candidate (for whom vote has been casted)
must be a person qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the and symbol of the party/ individual candidate.
342. (b) Where the Governor takes a decision independently of
Supreme Court or an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the
his Council of Ministers or where he acts as the Chief Executive
President and must be a citizen of India. He/She is not a full-
of the State under President’s rule, his actions are subject to
time counsel of the Government.
scrutiny by the Parliament. This statement is correct .
336. (b) Sikkim became a state of India via the Thirty-sixth 343. (b) Article 371B in The Constitution Of India 1949 provides
Amendment Act, 1975 on 26th April, 1975. The Sikkim special provision with respect to the State of Assam
State day is observed on 16th May of every year because Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution, the President
this was the day when the first Chief Minister of Sikkim may, by order made with respect to the State of Assam,
assumed office. provide for the constitution and functions of a committee
337. (d) Article 1 of the Constituion of India uses the word of the Legislative Assembly of the State consisting of
"Union of states" instead of "federation of states" thus members of that Assembly elected from the tribal areas
states do not have right to secede. Jammu and kashmir specified in Part I of the table appended to paragraph 20 of
has its own Constitution as per article 370. No other state the Sixth Schedule and such number of other members of
has their own constitution. As per article 239AA of Indian that Assembly as may be specified in the order and for the
Constitution, number of Cabinet Ministers cannot exceed modifications to be made in the rules of procedure of that
ten percent of Delhi assembly seats. Assembly for the constitution and proper functioning of
338. (a) Total membership of legislative assembly varies such committee.
according to the state's population. Uttar Pradesh have 344. (b) Article 370 of the Indian constitution is an article
the highest membership- 403 followed by West Bengal- that gives autonomous status to the state of Jammu and
294 and Maharashtra- 288. Kashmir. The article is drafted in Part XXI of the
339. (d) The ordinance-making power of the governor under Constitution: Temporary, Transitional and Special
Article 214 is similar to that of the president under Article Provisions.
123. The governor can issue ordinance only when two 345. (d) Sixth Schedule, the four states viz. Assam,
conditions are fulfilled ; (a) the governor can only issue Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram contain the Tribal Areas
ordinances when the legislative assembly of a state both which are technically different from the Scheduled Areas.
houses in session or where there are two houses in a state Though these areas fall within the executive authority of
both houses are not in session. (b) the governor must be the state, provision has been made for the creation of the
satisfied that circumstance exist which render it necessary District Councils and regional councils for the exercise of
for him to take immediate action. The court cannot question the certain legislative and judicial powers.
the validity or the ordinance on the ground that there was 346. (a) If at any time the Governor is satisfied that an act or
no necessity or sufficient ground for issuing the ordinance resolution of a District or a Regional Council is likely to
by the governor. The existence of such necessity is not a endanger the safety of India _504[or is likely to be
justiciable discretionary. The exercise of ordinance-making prejudicial to public order], he may annul or suspend such
power is not discretionary. The governor exercises this act or resolution and take such steps as he may consider
power on the advice of the cabinet. It is not a discretionary necessary (including the suspension of the Council and
power and shall be exercised with aid and the advice of the assumption to himself of all or any of the powers
members. The Governor himself shall be competent to vested in or exercisable by the Council) to prevent the
withdraw the ordinance at any time. commission or continuance of such act, or the giving of
340. (d) There are nine core international human rights effect to such resolution.
treaties- International Convention on the Elimination of 347. (a) The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General
All Forms of Racial Discrimination (ICERD); International of India relating to the accounts of the Union shall be
Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR); submitted to the president, who shall cause them to be
International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural laid before each House of Parliament.
Rights (ICESCR); Convention on the Elimination of All 348. (a) Diplomatic and military powers is related to the powers
Forms of Discrimination against Women; Convention of the President. It is not the power of Governor.
against Torture and Other Cruel, Inhuman or Degrading 349. (b) Use of police force comes under state list so
Treatment or Punishment; Convention on the Rights of statement (b) is not correct.
the Child; International Convention on the Protection of 350. (d) The President appoints Regional Commissioners
the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their after consultation with the election commission to assist
Families; International Convention for the Protection of the election Commissioner.
All Persons from Enforced Disappearance; Convention 351. (d) Eligibility of a judge of the Supreme Court
on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities. A judge of one high court or more (continuously), for at
least five years, or.
Polity 217
An advocate there, for at least ten years, or. mentioned in the Constitution that is the manner same as
A distinguished jurist, in the opinion of the president, removal of a Supreme Court Judge. A Judge of SC may
power conferred by clause(2) of article 124 of the resign his office, by submitting his resignation letter to
Constitution of India. the President.
352. (c) To communicate to the President all decisions for 364. (d) Rajya Sabha in India’s Parliament has certain exclusive
the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of powers with respect to the following: Enable the parliament
the State in the monthly report is not the duties of the to make law on a matter of state list. Creation of new All
Chief Minister.
India Services. Enforcing proclamation of emergency when
353. (d) Legislature of States consist of (a) The Governor (b)
The Legislative Assembly (c) The Legislative Council. Lok Sabha is dissolved.
354. (d) The exercise of ordinance-making power is not 365. (c) The Constitution offers all citizens, individually and
discretionary. The governor exercises this power on the collectively, some basic freedoms. These are guaranteed in
advice of the cabinet. the Constitution in the form of six broad categories of
355. (b) Deccan Riots Commission was set up in 1878 to look Fundamental Rights, which are justiciable. Article 12 to 35
into the causes of the Deccan riots. In 1879, the contained in Part III of the Constitution deal with
Agriculturists Relief Act was passed which ensured that Fundamental Rights. These are:
the farmers could not be arrested and imprisoned if they Right to equality, including equality before law,
were unable to pay their debts. prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race,
356. (d) The writ of certiorari can be issued by the Supreme caste, sex or place of birth, and equality of opportunity
Court or any High Court for quashing the order already in matters of employment.
passed by an inferior court, tribunal or quasi-judicial Right to freedom of speech and expression, assembly,
author-ity. association or union, movement, residence, and right to
357. (c) If the Supreme Court finds any law made by the practice any profession or occupation (some of these
Parliament inconsistent with the constitution, it has the rights are subject to security of the State, friendly relations
power to declare that law to be invalid. Thus, to preserve with foreign countries, public order, decency or morality).
the ideals and philosophy of the original constitution, the Right against exploitation, prohibiting all forms of forced
Supreme Court has laid down the basic structure doctrine. labour, child labour and traffic in human beings.
According to the doctrine, the Parliament cannot destroy Right to freedom of conscience and free profession,
or alter the basic structure of the doctrine. practice, and propagation of religion.
358. (a) Where a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, Right of any section of citizens to conserve their culture,
the President may by order declare that the right to move language or script, and right of minorities to establish and
any court for the enforcement of such of the rights administer educational institutions of their choice; and
conferred by Part 3 (fundamental rights) except Art 20 & Right to constitutional remedies for enforcement of
21 and all proceedings pending in any Court for the Fundamental Rights.
enforcement of the same shall remain suspended for the 366. (c) The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with
period during which the proclamation is in force. the administration and control of Scheduled Areas as
359. (b) Article 15 states Prohibition of discrimination on well as of Scheduled Tribes residing in any State other
grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. No than the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and
citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, Mizoram.
place of birth or any of them, be subject to any disability, In the Article 244(1) of the Constitution, expression
liability, restriction or condition with regard to- (a) access Scheduled Areas means such areas as the President may
to shops, public restaurants, hotels and places of public by order declare to be Scheduled Areas.
entertainment; or (b) the use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats, The President may at any time by order direct that
roads and places of public resort maintained wholly or the whole or any specified part of a Scheduled Area shall
partly out of State funds or dedicated to the use of the cease to be a Scheduled Area or a part of such an area;
general public. increase the area of any Scheduled Area in a State after
360. (c) One third are elected by members of local bodies such consultation with the Governor of that State; alter, but only
as municipalities, gram sabhas/gram panchayats, by way of rectification of boundaries, any Scheduled Area;
panchayat samitis and Zila Parishads. on any alteration of the boundaries of a State on the
361. (a) The chairperson of a panchayat can be elected directly admission into the Union or the establishment of a new
or indirectly, as the legislature may provide. State, declare any territory not previously included in any
362. (c) Article 19 (1) (f) and 31 (2) have not been abolished State to be, or to form part of, a Scheduled Area; rescind, in
for this State and hence, properly still stands guaranteed relation to any State of States, any order or orders made
to the people of Jammu and Kashmir. under these provisions and in consultation with the
363. (d) President removal from office is to be in accordance Governor of the State concerned, make fresh orders
with procedure prescribed in Article 61 of the redefining the areas which are to be Scheduled Areas.
Constitution. He may, by writing under his hand 367. (c) The Fifth Amendment of the Constitution of India,
addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office. officially known as The Constitution (Fifth Amendment)
Comptroller and Auditor General of India can be removed Act, 1955, empowered the President to prescribe a time
by the President only in accordance with the procedure limit for a State Legislature to convey its views on
 EBD_7341
218 Polity

proposed Central laws relating to the formation of new 373. (b) Article 348 (1) of the Constitution of India provides
States and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of that all proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every
existing States.The amendment also permitted the President High court shall be in English Language until Parliament
to extend the prescribed limit, and prohibited any such bill by law otherwise provides.
from being introduced in Parliament until after the expiry 374. (d) All union cabinet members shall submit in writing to
of the prescribed or extended period. The 5th Amendment the President to propose proclamation of emergency by
re-enacted the proviso to Article 3 of the Constitution. the president in accordance with Article 352. According to
Under the proviso to Article 3 of the Constitution (relating the Constitution of India, the total number of ministers in
to formation of new States and alteration of areas, the council of ministers must not exceed 15% of the total
number of members of the Lok Sabha.
boundaries or names of existing States), no bill for the purpose
375. (d) The Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State
of forming a new state, increasing or decreasing the area of
Policy and Fundamental Duties are sections of the
any state or altering the boundaries or name of any state
Constitution of India that prescribe the fundamental
could be introduced in. obligations of the states to its citizens and the duties and
368. (b) The Governor of each State shall appoint a person the rights of the citizens to the State
who is qualified to be appointed as a Judge of a High To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and
Court to be Advocate General for the State. The Governor institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem;
appoints the Advocate General of the state. The person To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our
who is appointed should be qualified to be appointed a national struggle for freedom;
judge of a high court. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity
The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is a procedural law of India.
related to the administration of civil proceedings in India. 376. (d) The word Quo Warranto literally means “under what
The Code is divided into two parts: the first part contains authority?” This kind of a writ is issued to ensure that the
158 sections and the second part contains the First person holding a public office to which he is not entitled.
Schedule, which has 51 Orders and Rules. The writ of quo-warranto is used to prevent illegal
The act clarified that the provisions of the Civil Procedure assumption of any public office or usurpation of any public
Code as amended by the Act would have an overriding office by anybody. The fundamental basis of the
effect over any rules of the High Court or of the proceeding of Quo Warranto is that the public has an
amendments made by the state government concerned. interest to see that an unlawful claimant does not usurp a
369. (c) A unitary system is governed constitutionally as one public office. For example, a person of 62 years has been
single unit, with one constitutionally created legislature. appointed to fill a public office whereas the retirement age
... In Unitary Constitution the provinces are subordinate is 60 years. Now, the appropriate High Court has a right to
to the centre, but in federal constitution, there is a division issue a writ of Quo Warranto against the person and declare
of powers between the federal and the state governments. the office vacant.
Quasi federal refers to government organized similar to a 377. (c) Annual financial statement. (1) The President shall in
respect of every financial year cause to be laid before both
union of states under a central government rather than the
the Houses of Parliament a statement of the estimated
individual governments of the separate states.
receipts and expenditure of the Government of India for
Quasi federal refers to a system of government where the
that year, in this Part referred to as the annual financial
distribution of powers between the centre and the state statement.
are not equal. India is a federation with a unitary bias and 378. (d) Salient Features of the Government of India Act 1935
is referred as a quasi federal state because of strong central were as follows:
machinery. States are also dependent on the centre for Abolition of provincial dyarchy and introduction of
resources. dyarchy at centre.
370. (a) 371A. Special provision with respect to the State of Abolition of Indian Council and introduction of an
Nagaland.—(1) Notwithstanding anything in this advisory body in its place.
Constitution,— Provision for an All India Federation with British India
No Act of Parliament in respect of— (i) religious or social territories and princely states.
practices of the Nagas, (ii) Naga customary law and Elaborate safeguards and protective instruments for minorities.
procedure, (iii) administration of civil and criminal justice Supremacy of British Parliament.
involving decisions according to Naga customary law, (iv) Increase in size of legislatures, extension of franchise,
ownership and transfer of land and its resources. division of subjects into three lists and retention of
371. (d) Originally five councils were created as per the States communal electorate.
Reorganization Act 1956 as follows: Northern Zonal Separation of Burma from India.
Council: Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, 379. (b) Functioning of Panchayat:
Punjab, Rajasthan, National Capital Territory of Delhi and Implementing various initiatives to create clean, beautiful
Union Territory of Chandigarh. and green villages.
372. (c) Article 361 of the co situation of India extends protection Implementing Poverty Eradication initiatives through
to the president from legal liability. He enjoys personal Maharashtra Rajya Gramin Jivanonnati Abhiyan.
immunity legal liability for his official acts. During his term of Providing shelter and shelter related facilities under
office, he is immune from any criminal proceedings. Pradhan Mantri Gramin Awaas Yojana
Polity 219
Empowering Panchayati Raj System by empowering which may, prima facie, appear to have been infringed. It
public representatives under development program is possible very often to decide questions of fact on
through training. affidavits. If the petition and the affidavits in support
380. (a) Nominated Members of the Lok Sabha and Rajya thereof are not convincing and the Court is not satisfied
Sabha may also select works for implementation in one that the petitioner has established his fundamental right
or more districts, anywhere in the country. MPs can also or any breach thereof, the Court may dismiss the petition
recommend work of upto Rs. 25 lakhs per year outside
on the ground that the petitioner has not discharged the
their constituency or state of election to promote national
unity, harmony and fraternity. MPs can recommend work onus that lay on him.
of upto 25 lakh for Natural Calamity in the state and upto 386. (a) While concluding the debate in the constituent
Rs. 1 crore in the country in case of Calamity of Severe assemble, as chairperson of drafting committee,
Nature. Babasaheb had said that, “On the 26th of January 1950,
381. (a) An overseas elector is a person who is a citizen of we are going to enter into a life of contradictions. In
India and who has not acquired citizenship of any other politics we will have equality and in social and economic
country and is otherwise eligible to be registered as a life we will have inequality. In politics we will be
voter and who is absenting from his place of ordinary recognizing the principle of one man one vote and one
residence in India owing to his employment, education vote one value. In our social and economic life, we shall,
or otherwise is eligible to be registered as a voter in the by reason of our social and economic structure, continue
constituency in which his place of residence in India as to deny the principle of one man one value.
mentioned in his passport is located. According to the 387. (a) In India, the Supreme Court has original, appellate
provisions of Section 20A of the Representation of
and advisory jurisdiction.[1] Its exclusive original
People Act, 1950, an NRI settled in foreign land can
become an elector in electoral roll in India. jurisdiction extends to all cases between the Government
382. (b) The 86th amendment to constitution of India in 2002, of India and the States of India or between Government
provided right to education as a fundamental right in part- of India and states on one side and one or more states on
III of the Constitution. A new article 21A was inserted other side or cases between different states. Original
which made right to education a fundamental right for jurisdiction is related to cases which are directly brought
children between 6-14 years. to the Supreme Court Cases which require the
383. (a) Article 20 of the Indian Constitution provides protection interpretation of the constitution or cases relating to the
in respect of conviction for offences, and article 20(2) denial of fundamental rights are heard In the supreme
contains the rule against double jeopardy which says that court. In case there is a dispute between two or more
“no person shall be prosecuted or punished for the same states or between the union and the states, the Supreme
offence more than once.” The protection under clause (2) of Court decides such cases. In addition, Article 131 of the
Article 20 of Constitution of india. Constitution of India grants original jurisdiction to the
384. (c) Article 356 deals with imposition of President’s Rule
Supreme Court on all cases involving the enforcement of
over a State of India. When a state is under President’s
Rule, the elected state government (led by the Chief fundamental rights of citizens.
Minister and the Council of Ministers) is dismissed and 388. (b) Article-243 A. Gram Sabha. - A Gram Sabha may
Council of ministers is suspended at legislature, and exercise such powers and perform such functions at the
administration is conducted directly by the Governor of village level as the Legislature of a State fixing tenure of
the state. The Governor is an appointee of the President 5 years forPanchayats and holding elections within a
and thus, effectively, a functionary of the Union period of 6 months in theevent of supersession of any
Government. Bhimrao Ambedkar, chairman of the Panchayat, disqualifications for membership of
Drafting Committee of the Constitution of India, referred Panchayats.
to Article 356 as a dead letter of the Constitution. In the 389. (d) The 11th Schedule distributes powers between the
constituent assembly debate it was suggested that Article State Legislature and the Panchayat just as the 7th
356 is liable to be abused for political gains. The Supreme Schedule distributes powers between the Union and the
Court said that Article 356 is an extreme power and is to State Legislature. Powers to impose taxes and financial
be used as a last resort in cases where it is manifest that
resource.It can also assign to a Panchayat various taxes,
there is an impasse and the constitutional machinery in a
duties.
State has collapsed.
390. (a) Part-IX of the Constitution of India deals with the
385. (c) The Supreme Court does not countenance the
Panchayati Raj system for the rural areas. It consists of
proposition that, on an application under Article 32 of
definitions of various terms, composition, duration,
the Constitution, the Court may decline to entertain the
reservation, powers, etc. of a Panchayat. It states that
same on the simple ground that it involves the
this part does not apply to the states of Nagaland,
determination of disputed questions of fact or on any
Meghalaya, and Mizoram.
other ground. The Court would be failing in its duty as
the custodian and protector of the fundamental rights,