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Cisco 200-301 CCNA Exercises – Worksheet 21

1. Read the text. 2. TOP TIPS

CCNA Exam v1.1 (CCNA 200-301) is a 120-minute exam  Manage your time well.
associated with the CCNA certification. This exam tests a
 Review your answer before moving to
candidate's knowledge and skills related to network the next question (no turning back).
fundamentals, network access, IP connectivity, IP services,
security fundamentals, and automation and programmability.  Learn the areas of emphasis and any
recent changes.
Source: https://learningnetwork.cisco.com/

LET’S PRACTICE with real exercises from the exam

1. What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?
A. TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol.
B. TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol.
C. TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol.
D. TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol.

2. Refer to the exhibit below. What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?

A. The interface is receiving excessive broadcast traffic.

B. The bandwidth setting of the interface is misconfigured.

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 C. The cable connection between the two devices is faulty.
D. The interface is operating at a different speed than the connected device.

3. How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery?
A. TCP uses retransmissions, acknowledgment, and parity checks, and UDP uses cyclic redundancy checks only
B. TCP uses two-dimensional parity checks, checksums, and cyclic redundancy checks, and UDP uses
retransmissions only
C. TCP uses checksum, acknowledgements, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only
D. TCP uses checksum, parity checks, and retransmissions, and UDP uses acknowledgements only

4. How does a Cisco Unified Wireless Network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?
A. It allows the administrator to assign the channels on a per-device or per-interface basis.
B. It segregates devices from different manufactures onto different channels.
C. It analyzes client load and background noise and dynamically assigns a channel.
D. It alternates automatically between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz on adjacent access points.

5. When a switch receives a frame for a known destination MAC address, how is the frame handled?
A. flooded to all ports except the one from which it originated
B. forwarded to the first available port
C. sent to the port identified for the known MAC address
D. broadcast to all ports

6. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit
represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this
design?

A. This design will function as intended.

B. Spanning-tree will need to be used.
C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme.
D. The connection between switches should be a trunk.

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 E. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.

7. What is a function spine-and-leaf architecture?

A. Offers predictable latency of the traffic path between end devices.
B. Exclusively sends multicast traffic between servers that are directly connected to the spine.
C. Mitigates oversubscription by adding a layer of leaf switches.
D. Limits payload size of traffic within the leaf layer.

8. What is a characteristic of a SOHO network?

A. includes at least three tiers of devices to provide load balancing and redundancy
B. connects each switch to every other switch in the network
C. enables multiple users to share a single broadband connection
D. provides high throughput access for 1000 or more users

9. Refer to the exhibit. The link between PC1 and the switch is up, but it is performing poorly. Which interface
condition is causing the performance problem?

A. There is an issue with the fiber on the switch interface.

B. There is a duplex mismatch on the interface.
C. There is an interface type mismatch.
D. There is a speed mismatch on the interface.

10. What are two benefits that the UDP protocol provide for application traffic? (Choose two.)
A. UDP traffic has lower overhead than TCP traffic
B. UDP provides a built-in recovery mechanism to retransmit lost packets
C. The CTL field in the UDP packet header enables a three-way handshake to establish the connection
D. UDP maintains the connection state to provide more stable connections than TCP
E. The application can use checksums to verify the integrity of application data

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11. (DRAG AND DROP) Match the characteristics of network architectures from the left onto the type of
architecture on the right.
1. Single device handles the core and the distribution layer
2. Enhances network availability A. Collapsed Core
3. More cost-effective than other options B. Three-Tier
4. Most appropriate for small network designs
5. Separate devices handle the core and the distribution layer

12. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are connected via a Cat5 Ethernet cable that is tested successfully. The
interfaces are configured as access ports and are both in a down status. What is the cause of the issue?

A. The speed settings on the switches are mismatched

B. The distance between the two switches is not supported by Cat5
C. The switches are configured with incompatible duplex settings
D. The portfast command is missing from the configuration

13. How is RFC 1918 addressing used in a network?

A. They are used to access the Internet from the internal network without conversion.
B. They are used in place of public addresses for Increased security.
C. They are used with NAT to preserve public IPv4 addresses.
D. They are used by Internet Service Providers to route over the Internet.

14. Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure?
A. NAT
B. 6 to 4 tunneling
C. L2TPv3
D. dual-stack

15. An engineer must update the configuration on two PCs in two different subnets to communicate locally
with each other. One PC is configured with IP address 192.168.25.128/25 and the other with
192.168.25.100/25. Which network mask must the engineer configure on both PCs to enable the
communication?
A. 255.255.255.248
B. 255.255.255.224

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 C. 255.255.255.0
D. 255.255.255.252

16. A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address
2001:0EB8:00C1:2200:0001:0000:0000:0331/64. To simplify the configuration, the administrator has decided
to compress the address. Which IP address must the administrator configure?
A. ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:22:1::331/64
B. ipv6 address 21:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64
C. ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:2200:1:0000:331/64
D. ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64

17. What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two.)
A. A BNC connector is used for fiber connections
B. The glass core component is encased in a cladding
C. The data can pass through the cladding
D. Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber
E. Fiber connects to physical interfaces using RJ-45 connections

18. How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?
A. The access point must not be connected to the wired network, as it would create a loop
B. The access point must be connected to the same switch as the WLC
C. The access point must directly connect to the WLC using a copper cable
D. The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC

19. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge?

SW1: 0C:E0:38:41:86:07 -
SW2: 0C:0E:15:22:05:97 -
SW3: 0C:0E:15:1A:3C:9D -
SW4: 0C:E0:18:A1:B3:19 -

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 A. SW1
B. SW2
C. SW3
D. SW4

20. What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?

A. Frames are sent to all ports, including those that are assigned to other VLANs.
B. Frames are sent to every port on the switch that has a matching entry in MAC address table.
C. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port.
D. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN.

21. Refer to the exhibit. Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path, users
at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB. What is the cause of the
intermittent connectivity issue?

A. Interface errors are incrementing.

B. High usage is causing high latency.
C. An incorrect SFP media type was used at SiteA.
D. The sites were connected with the wrong cable type.

22. Which action is taken by switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?
A. If a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err-
disabled.
B. When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port, a syslog message is generated.
C. As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked, data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused.

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 D. If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power, it assumes the device
has failed and disconnects it.

23. What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?

A. to transmit wireless traffic between hosts
B. to analyze traffic and drop unauthorized traffic from the Internet
C. to forward traffic within the same broadcast domain
D. to pass traffic between different networks

24. Which key function is provided by the data plane?

A. Originating packets
B. Exchanging routing table data
C. Making routing decisions
D. Forwarding traffic to the next hop

25 A client experiences slow throughput from a server that is directly connected to the core switch in a data
center. A network engineer finds minimal latency on connections to the server, but data transfers are
unreliable, and the output of the show interfaces counters errors command shows a high FCS-Err count on the
interface that is connected to the server. What is the cause of the throughput issue?
A. a physical cable fault
B. a speed mismatch
C. high bandwidth usage
D. a cable that is too long

KEY
1. D
2. C
3. C
4. C
5. C
6. C
7. A
8. C
9. B
10. A e E.

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11.
1. A 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. B

12. A
13. C
14. B
15. C
16. D
17. B e D.
18. D
19. C
20. C
21. A
22. A
23. D
24. D
25. A

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