SEC. : XI-NEET_GTN-01 WARM UP PAPER DATE : 03.02.

2025
XI-NEET-GTN-01
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

Important Instructions :
1. The test Booklet consists of 100 questions. The maximum marks are 400.
3. Mark only one correct answer out of four alternatives.
4. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars/marking.
5. Use of Calculator is not allowed.
6. Dark the circle in the space provided only.
7. Use of white fluid or any other material which damage the answer sheet, is not permissible on the Answer
Sheet.

Subject Syllabus

PHYSICS COMPLETE XI SYLLABUS

CHEMISTRY COMPLETE XI SYLLABUS

BOTANY COMPLETE XI SYLLABUS

ZOOLOGY COMPLETE XI SYLLABUS

GTN–01 (XI-NEET-NC) WARM_UP (Date: 03-02-2025)

PHYSICS
1. The graph plotted between phase angle (  ) and displacement of a particle from equilibrium position
(y) is a sinusoidal curve as shown below. Then the best matching is

Column I Column II
A K.E. versus phase angle I
curve

B P.E. versus phase angle II

curve

C T.E. versus phase angle III

curve

D Velocity versus phase angle IV

curve

1) A  I; B  II; C  III; D  IV 2) A  II; B  I; C  III; D  IV

3) A  II; B  I; C  IV; D  III 4) A  II; B  III; C  IV; D  I
2. Assume that in space potential energy U-depends on x-coordinate only by:
U   x  3  2  x 
2

A mass of can be kept on x-axis. In each position indicated in column-I, comment on the situation from
column-II
Column I Column II
A 7 P Stable equilibrium
x
3
B x2 Q Unstable equilibrium
C x3 R Neutral equilibrium
S Not in equilibrium
Match the column
1) A  P, B  P, C  Q 2) A  S, B  P, C  Q
3) A  P, B  S, C  Q 4) A  Q, B  P, C  P
3. If pressure at half the depth of a lake is equal to 2/3 pressure at the bottom of the lake, then what is
the depth of the lake? ( Patm  105 Pa, g  10 m / s 2 )
1) 10m 2) 20m 3) 60m 4) 30m

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4. Statement I: Two isothermal curves cannot intersect each other.
Statement II: The isothermal change takes place rapidly, so the isothermal curves have very high
slope.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) If both statements are true 2) If Statement I is false but statement II is true.
3) If Statement I is true but Statement II is false 4) If both the statements are false.
I max
5. If two waves have amplitude ratio 10:1, then is (approximately)
I min
1) 10 : 1 2) 1 : 10 3) 2 : 3 4) 3 : 2
6. Assertion (A): When a planet is at maximum distance from the sum, is speed is minimum.
Reason (R): The motion of planet around the sun does not follow the law of conservation of angular
momentum.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1) If both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) If both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) If (A) is true but (R) is false
4) If both the (A) and (R) are false.
7. Raindrops are falling vertically with a velocity 10 m/s. To a cyclist moving on a straight road, the
rain drops appear to be coming with a velocity of 20 m/s. The velocity of the cyclist is
1) 10 m/s 2) 10 3 m/s 3) 20 m/s 4) 20 3 m/s
8. A block of mass 200g is kept stationary on a smooth inclined plane by applying a minimum
horizontal force F  x N as shown in figure. The value of x is ______.

1) 4 2) 24 3) 12 4) 8
9. A plank of mass m is moving with a speed v along a frictionless horizontal track. A block of mass
m
moving with speed 2v collides with plank elastically as shown in the figure, the final speed of plank is
2

5v 2v
1) 2) v 3) 4) None of these
3 3
10. A circular disc D1 of mass M and radius R has two identical discs D 2 and D3 of the same mass M
and radius R attached rigidly at its opposite ends (see figure). The moment of inertia of the system
about the axis OO’, passing through the centre of D1 , as shown in the figure, will be

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2 4
1) 3MR 2 2) MR 2 3) MR 2 4) MR 2
3 5
11. Weight of a body of mass m decreases by 1% when it is raised to height h above the earth’s surface.
If the body is taken to a depth h in a mine, then its weight will
1) decrease by 0.5% 2) decrease by 2% 3) increase by 0.5% 4) increase by 1%
12. Two rods having length 1 and  2 , made of materials with the linear expansion coefficient 1 and
 2 , were soldered together. The equivalent coefficient of linear expansion for the obtained rod is

1 2   2 1 11   2  2 11   2  2  2 1  1 2

1) 2) 3) 4)
1   2 1   2 1   2 1   2
13. What is the unit vector perpendicular to the following vectors 2iˆ  2ˆj  kˆ and 6iˆ  3jˆ  2kˆ ?
ˆi  10ˆj  18kˆ ˆi  10ˆj  18kˆ ˆi  10ˆj  18kˆ ˆi  10ˆj  18kˆ
1) 2) 3) 4)
5 17 5 17 5 17 5 17
14. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum in the experiment is recorded as
2.63s, 2.56s, 2.42s, 2.71s and 2.80s respectively. The average absolute error is
1) 0.1 s 2) 0.11 s 3) 0.01s 4) 1.0s
15. Planck’s constant (h), speed of light in vacuum (c) and Newton’s gravitational constant (G) are three
fundamental constants. Which of the following combinations of these has the dimension of length?
hc Gc hG hG
1) 2) 3/2
3) 3/2
4)
G h c c5/2
16. A particle suspended from a string of length  is given a horizontal speed u  3 g at the bottom.
Then for the particle match the following column

Column I Column II
A Speed at B P 7 mg
B Speed at C Q 5g
C Tension in string at B R 7g
D Tension in string at C S 4 mg
1) A  R, B  Q, C  P, D  S 2) A  R, B  P, C  Q, D  S
3) A  P, B  Q, C  S, D  R 4) A  Q, B  P, C  S, D  R
17. Assertion(A): A body subjected to three concurrent forces cannot be in equilibrium.
Reason(R): A body is in equilibrium if sum of all the concurrent forces is equal to zero.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) If both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) If both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3) If (A) is true but (R) is false
4) If (A) is false but (R) is true.
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18. Assertion(A): In projectile motion, when horizontal range is n times the maximum height, the angle
4
of projection is given by tan   .
n
Reason (R): In the case of horizontal projection, the vertical velocity increases with time.
1) If both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) If both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) If (A) is true but (R) is false.
4) If (A) is false but (R) is true.
19. In figure the co-efficient of friction between the floor and the body B is 0.1. The co-efficient of
friction between the bodies B and A is 0.2. A force F is applied as shown on B. The mass of A is m/2
and of B is m. Which of the following statements is not true?

1) The bodies will move together if F = 0.25 mg.

2) The body A will slip with respect to B if F = 0.5 mg.
3) The bodies will move together if F = 0.5 mg
4) The bodies will be at rest if F = 0.1mg.
20. Two soap bubbles of radii r1  4cm and r2  5cm , are touching each other over a common surface
as shown in figure. The radius of surface S1S2 will be

1) 4 cm 2) 20 cm 3) 5 cm 4) 4.5 cm
21. For a periodic motion represented by the equation Y  sin t  cos t
The amplitude of the motion is
1) 0.5. 2) 2 3) 1 4) 2
22. The relation between the particles velocity u and wave velocity v is
dy v dy
1) u   v 2) u  3) u  v 4) u  v 
dx  dy  dx
 
 dx 
23. Ram (R) and Lakhan (L) are moving towards each other with a speed of 2 m/s relative to the train.
The length of the train is 20m, and the train is running towards the east with a speed of 2 m/s. Find
the time when they meet.

1) 4s 2) 2s 3) 5s 4) 6s

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24. On a two-lane road, car A is travelling with a speed of 36 km h 1 . Two cars B and C approach car A
in opposite directions with a speed of 54km h 1 each. At a certain instant, when the distance AB is
equal to AC, both being 1 km, B decides to overtake A before C does. What minimum acceleration
of car B is required to avoid an accident?
1) 1ms 2 2) 3ms 2 3) 5ms 2 4) 8 ms 2
25. Two stones are simultaneously thrown at t = 0 towards each other along a straight line, as shown in
the diagram. Gravity is acting downwards g  10m / s 2 . The time when two stones collide is

1) 2s 2) greater than 2s 3) less than 2s 4) exactly 2.5s

CHEMISTRY
26. In which of the following pairs, do 1 g of each have an equal number of molecules?
1) N 2 O and CO 2) N 2 and C3O2 3) N 2 and CO 4) N 2 and CO 2
27. What will be the longest wavelength line in Balmer series of spectrum?
1) 546 nm 2) 656 nm 3) 566 nm 4) 556 nm
28. The successive ionization energies of an element ‘A’ are IE 1  6.0eV, IE 2  18.8eV, IE 3  30.2eV and
IE 4  120 eV . Formula of oxide of element A is
1) AO3 2) A 2 O3 3) AO 2 4) AO
29. Which of the following order incorrectly represents the property indicated?
1) F  Cl   Br   I   polarizability 2) NaF  Na 2O  Na 3 N  Covalent character
3) Na   Mg 2  Al3  Si 4   Polarizing power 4) All are correct
30. The number of nodal planes present in  * s  antibonding orbitals is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 0 4) 3
31.  H  U  for the formation of carbon monoxide (CO) from its elements of 298K is

 R  8.314 JK 1
mol1 
1) 1238.78J mol 1 2) 2477.57 J mol1 3) 2477.57 J mol1 4) 1238.78 J mol1
32. Calculate heat released upon formation of 35.2g carbon dioxide from carbon and dioxygen gas.
[Given: C  s   O 2  g   CO 2  g  ;  c H  393.5 kJ mol1 ]
1) 314.8kJ 2) 4.132 kJ 3) 8.264 kJ 4) 31.48 kJ
33.  B  g   C  g 
A gaseous phase reaction is allowed to attain equilibrium as A  g  
At constant pressure P, partial pressure of A at equilibrium is 0.5P. Then value of K p is
1) 0.5 P 2) 0.25 P 3) 0.75 P 4) 0.125 P
5
34. The buffer solution is made up of HA (having K a  1.8  10 ) and NaA of total molarity 0.29. The
pH of the acidic buffer, with concentration of salt equal to 0.09 M, is
(log 1.8  0.255; log 45  1.653 )
1) 4.4 2) 9.6 3) 7 4) 5.2

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35. In the half reaction S2 O32  S4 O62 , the number of electron (s) that must be added is
1) 1 on right side 2) 2 on right side 3) 2 on left side 4) 4 on left side
36. Al reacts with conc. H 2SO 4 and forms
1) SO3 2) SO 2 3) H 2 4) S  vap 
37. Assertion (A): Both 106g of sodium carbonate and 12g of carbon have the same number of carbon
atoms.
Reason(R): Both contain 1g atom of carbon which contains 6.02  1023 carbon atoms.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
38. Given below are two statements:
Statement (I): The orbitals having same energy are called as degenerate orbitals.
Statement (II): In hydrogen atom, 3p and 3d orbitals are not degenerate orbitals.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
39. Statement (I): Lothar Meyer plotted the physical properties such as atomic volume, melting point
and boiling point against atomic weight.
Statement (II): In the Lothar Meyer curve, alkali metals occupied peak position on the curve.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
40. Assertion (A): Ionic reactions are faster than molecular reactions.
Reason(R): Ionic bonds are weaker than covalent bonds.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
41. Match the following
Column I Column II
(A) Stotal  0 I At equilibrium process
(B) Stotal  0 II Spontaneous process
(C) Stotal  0 III Non-spontaneous process
1) A-III, B-I, C-II 2) A-II, B-III, C-I
3) A-I, B-II, C-III 4) A-III, B-II, C-I

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42. Match the following
Column I Column II
(i) Degree of dissociation a No. of moles dissociated
No.of moles taken
(ii) Oswald’s dilution law b  K/C
(iii) Ionization constant of c  H O  OH  
 3  
water
(iv) Catalyst d Helps in attaining equilibrium at appropriate time
e K a  K b for conjugate acid base pair
1) i  d; ii  b; iii  c; iv  d
2) i  c; ii  b; iii  a; iv  d
3) i  a, b; ii  d; iii  c,e; iv  b
4) i  a, b; ii  b; iii  c,e; iv  d
43. Assertion (A): Equivalent weight of KMnO 4 in acidic medium is M/5 (M = molecular weight) while in
basic medium, it is equal to M/3.
Reason(R): In acidic medium, 1 mole of MnO 4 gains 5 moles of electrons while in basic medium it gains
3 moles of electrons.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
4) (A) is false, but (R) is true
44. Statement (I): CH3  NH  CHO is a secondary amide.
Statement (II): CH3  NH  CHO is named as N-methyl methanal.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true 2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false 4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
45. Statement (I): Hyperconjugation can be regarded as no bond resonance.
Statement (II): Hyperconjugation is not possible in alkenes and alkylarenes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true 2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false 4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
46. Read the following statements:
Column I Column II
A Alkane + X  hv p Water + carbon dioxide
2

B 
Alkane + O2   q Alkanal
C Mo 2O3
Alkane + O2   r Haloalkane
D Cr2 O3 /A 2 O3 , 773K s Benzene
n-hexane 
10 20 atm


1) A  p; B  q; C  r;D  s 2) A  p; B  q; C  s;D  r
3) A  r; B  p; C  q;D  s 4) A  r; B  p; C  s;D  q

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47. The IUPAC name of the compound having the formula CH  C  CH  CH 2 is:
1) 1-butyn-3-ene 2) but-1-yn-3-ene 3) 1-buten-3-yne 4) 3-buten-1-yne
48. The most stable carbocation, among the following, is
 
1) CH 3  CH 2  CH 2 2)  CH3 3 C  CH  CH 3
 
3) CH 3  CH 2  CH  CH 2  CH 3 4) CH 3  CH  CH 2  CH 2  CH 3
49. In the reaction with HCl, alkene reacts in accordance with the Markovnikov’s rule, to give a product
1-chloro-1-methylcyclohexane. The possible alkene is:

1) 2) 3) (1) and (2) 4)

50. Predict the correct intermediate and product in the following reaction:
H 2O, H 2SO 4
H3C  C  CH 
HgSO
 Intermediate  Product
4 A  B
1) A : H3C  C  CH 2 , B : H3C  C  CH 2
| |
OH SO 4
2) A : H 3C  C  CH3 , B : H3C  C  CH
|| |
O OH
3) A : H3C  C  CH 2 , B : H 3C  C  CH 3
| ||
OH O
4) A : H3C  C  CH 2 , B : H 3C  C  CH 3
| ||
SO 4 O

BOTANY
51. Life-cycle of Polysiphonia and Cedrus respectively are
1) Haplontic and Diplontic 2) Haplodiplontic and Diplontic
3) Haplodiplontic and Haplontic 4) Diplontic and Haplontic
52. Which one of the following is not a feature of facilitated transport in plants?
1) Requires special membrane proteins
2) Net transport of molecules occurs from a low to a high concentration
3) Transport saturates
4) Respond to protein inhibitors.
53. For the first time action spectrum was obtained by
1) Joseph Priestley 2) Jan Ingenhousz 3) T.W. Engelmann 4) Cornelius van Niel
54. Path of electrons between PS-II and PS-I is
1) Uphill and Uphill, respectively 2) Downhill and Downhill, respectively
3) Uphill and Downhill, respectively 4) Downhill and Uphill, respectively
55. How many kingdoms w.r.t. Whittaker’s kingdom classification system exhibit only autotrophic and
only heterotrophic mode of nutrition respectively?
1) 1 and 1 2) 1 and 2 3) 2 and 1 4) 2 and 4

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56. Which of the given protozoan causes ‘sleeping sickness’?
1) Entamoeba 2) Paramoecium 3) Tryanosoma 4) Amoeba
57. From which of the given regions of root tip, root hairs develop?
1) Region of root cap 2) Region of meristematic activity
3) Zone of elongation 4) Zone of maturation.

58. is the floral formula of

1) Gloriosa 2) Petunia 3) Potato family 4) Indigofera
59. Which of the given is a non-defining property of living organisms?
1) Metabolism 2) Cellular organisation
3) Consciousness 4) Growth
60. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. taxonomic categories of housefly
1) Genus – Musca
2) Order – Insecta
3) Family – Musidae
4) Phylum – Arthropoda
61. Vascular bundles are conjoint and open in
1) Dicot root 2) Monocot root 3) Dicot stem 4) Monocot stem
62. There is no secondary growth in monocot root, because
1) Of presence of large pith 2) Vascular bundle is polyarch in them
3) Of absence of cambium 4) Root never increases its girth.
63. The characteristic red colour in members of rhodophyceae is due to the predominance of
1) r-phycoerythrin 2) r-phycocyanin 3) Fucoxanthin 4) Chlorophyll b
64. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. photosystem II
1) The reaction centre is P680
2) PS II occurs on appressed surface of thylakoids
3) Found in grana lamellae
4) Associated with splitting of water and release of O 2
65. Select the incorrect match
1) Conidia – Penicillium
2) Rhizome – Banana
3) Zoospores – Chlamydomonas
4) Sucker – Pistia
66. Which of the following is not a human disease caused by bacteria?
1) Typhoid 2) Citrus canker 3) Tetanus 4) Cholera
67. Which of the given elements is activator for both RubisCo and PEPCase?
1) Mg 2  2) Zn 2  3) Mn 2 4) Cl
68. For every CO 2 molecule entering Calvin cycle, how many molecules ATP and NADPH are required
respectively?
1) 3 and 2 2) 2 and 3 3) 4 and 5 4) 5 and 4
69. Which of the given steps is catalysed by Pacemaker enzyme w.r.t. EMP pathway?
1) Glucose to Glucose -6-phosphate
2) Fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate
3) 2-phosphoglycerate to phosphoenolpyruvate
4) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate to 1, 3-bisphosphoglyceric acid.

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70. Which one of given respiratory substrate has minimum RQ?
1) Glucose 2) Protein 3) Oxalic acid 4) Tripalmitin
71. All of the given are features associated with meristematic cells, except
1) Have dense protoplasm 2) Increased vacuolation
3) High respiration rate 4) Contain large nucleus
72. Choose the incorrect pair
1) Yeast - Budding 2) Bacteria – Fission
3) Fungi – Spores 4) Lizards – True Regeneration
73. Statement I: When water with labelled oxygen was used for photosynthesis, oxygen released is also
labelled.
Statement II: Oxygen released during photosynthesis comes from water.
1) Statement I and II are correct 2) Statement I and II are incorrect
3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect 4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct
74. Which one of the following compounds, acts as the connecting link between Glycolysis and Kreb’s
Cycle
1) Pyruvic acid 2) Acetyl CoA 3) OAA 4) Citric acid
75. Select the compound which is derivative of carotenoid.
1) Auxin 2) Ethylene 3) Cytokinin 4) Abscisic acid

ZOOLOGY
76. Animals belonging to phylum-Chordata are fundamentally characterised by the presence of structure
noted as A, B, C and D. Identify A, B, C and D.

1) A-Notochord, B-Nerve cord, C-Gill slits, D-Post-anal

2) A-Nerve cord, B-Notochord, C-Gill slits, D-Post-anal part
3) A-Nerve cord, B-Gill slits, C-Post-anal part, D-Notochord
4) A-Nerve cord, B-Gill slits, C-Notochord, D-Post-anal part

77. Which of the option is correct for the statements given below?
I. Commonly called sea walnuts or comb jellies.
II. Bioluminescence is well-marked
III. Body bear eight external rows of ciliated comb plates.
IV. Have flame cells for osmoregulation and excretion
V. Alimentary canal is complete with a well-developed muscular pharynx.
Ctenophores Platyhelminthes Aschelminthes
(1) I, II, III IV V
2) IV I, II III, V
3) I, II III, IV V
4) IV, V II, III I

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78. Frog’s heart is
1) Neurogenic and 4 chambered
2) myogenic and 2 chambered
3) neurogenic and 3 chambered
4) myogenic and 3 chambered
79. Match the following columns.
Column I Column II
(Connective tissues) (Location )
A. Smooth muscles 1. Biceps
B. Cardiac muscles 2. Gall bladder
C. Skeletal muscles 3. Osteocytes
D. Bones 4. Myocardium
Codes
A B C D
1) 2 4 1 3
2) 3 4 2 1
3) 1 2 3 4
4) 4 3 2 1
80. Which of the following statements is incorrect about the frog?
(i) Eyes are bulged out and covered by a nictitating membrane that protects them while in water.
(ii) On either side of the eyes a membranous tympanum (ear) receives sound signals.
(iii) Frogs exhibit sexual dimorphism.
(iv) Feet have webbed digits that help in swimming.
(v) The hind limbs end in four digits and they are larger and muscular than fore limbs that end in five
digits.
1) (i) and (iv) 2) (v) only 3) (ii) and (iii) 4) (iv) only
81. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on
1) Pre-synaptic membrane 2) Tips of axons
3) Post –synaptic membrane 4) Membrane of synaptic vesicles
82. Match the items given in column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:
Column I Column II
(Function) (Part of Excretory system)
A. Smooth muscles 1. Biceps
B. Cardiac muscles 2. Gall bladder
C. Skeletal muscles 3. Osteocytes
D. Bones 4. Myocardium
1) A-I; B-IV; C-II; D-III
2) A-IV; B-I; C-II; D-III
3) A-II; B-IV; C-I; D-III
4) A-III; B-IV; C-I; D-II

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GTN–01 (XI-NEET-NC) WARM_UP (Date: 03-02-2025)
83. Select the correct match of the types of neuron present in column I with its location given in column
II.
Column I Column II

A. Fall in GFR I Activate the JG cells to release renin

B. Angiotensin II II Increases the glomerular blood pressure and thereby GFR
C. Renin III Carries out the conversion of angiotensinogen in the liver to
angiotensin I.
D. Aldosterone IV Causes reabsorption of Na  and water from the distal parts of
the tubule. This also leads to an increase in blood pressure and
GFR.
Codes
A B C D
1) I II III IV
2) III IV II I
3) III I II IV
4) II IV III II
84. After forceful inspiration, the amount of air that can be breathed out by maximum forced expiration
is equal to
1) IRV + ERV + TV + RV 2) IRV + RV + ERV
3) IRV + TV + ERV 4) TV + RV + ERV
85. Almost same pCO2 in humans is found in
1) oxygenated blood and tissues 2) deoxygenated blood and oxygenated blood
3) deoxygenated blood and tissues 4) All of the above
86. In man, the urea is mainly produced in
1) Liver 2) Kidneys 3) Gall bladder 4) Spleen
87. Assertion (A) The end of T-wave marks the end of ventricular systole.
Reason (R) T-wave represents the return of ventricles from excited to normal state which is
repolarisation.
1) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) If A is true, but R is false
4) If A is false, but R is false.
88. The opening and closing of semilunar valves depend upon
1) increased and decreased pressure in ventricles
2) atrial diastole
3) duration of nerve impulse to travel through atria and ventricles
4) Amount of blood presents in left ventricle.
89. Match the following columns
Column I Column II
(Types of WBCs) (Functions)
A. Basophils I Phagocytes
B. Neutrophils II Secrete histamine, serotonin and
heparin
C. Eosinophils III Allergic reaction
D. Lymphocytes IV Immunity

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GTN–01 (XI-NEET-NC) WARM_UP (Date: 03-02-2025)
Codes
A B C D
1) I II III IV
2) II I III IV
3) I IV II III
4) IV I II III
90. A fall in the GFR activates the
1) JG cells to release renin 2) JG cells to release aldosterone
3) JG cells to release epinephrine 4) JG cells to release nor-epinephrine.
91. Indication of diabetes mellitus is/are
1) the presence of glucose in urine 2) the presence of ketone bodies in urine
3) the presence of amino acid in urine 4) Both (1) and (2)
92. For how long, contraction of the muscles continues in sliding filament theory?
1) Till ATP binds to myosin head 2) Till ADP binds to myosin head
3) Till Ca 2 present in sarcoplasm 4) Till polymerisation of myosin head is going on
93. Flat bone on the ventral midline of thorax to which ribs are attached is
1) coccyx 2) sternum 3) sacrum 4) ribs
94. Select the correct matching of the type of the joint with the example in human skeletal system.
Types of Joint Examples
(1) Cartilaginous joint Between frontal and parietal
(2) Pivot joint Between 3rd and 4th cervical vertebrae
(3) Hinge joint Between humerus and pectoral girdle
(4) Gliding joint Between carpals
95. Consider the following statements and choose the correct option from the codes given below.
I. More than one half the volume of all brain cells are neuroglia.
II. Multipolar neuron are with one axon and two or more dendrites
III. Unipolar neuron are found in embroyonic stage
IV. Astrocytes, oligodendrocytes and microglia, are three different types of neuroglial cells.
1) I and IV are correct 2) II and IV are correct 3) All are correct 4) All are incorrect.
96. During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre the potential on the inner side of the
plasma membrane has which type of electric charge?
1) First positive then negative and continue to be negative
2) First negative then positive and continue to be positive
3) Firs positive then negative and again back to positive
4) First negative then positive and again back to negative.
97. A person entering an empty room suddenly finds a snake right in front on opening the door. Which
one of the following is likely to happen in his neurohormonal control system?
1) Sympathetic nervous system is activated releasing epinephrine and nor-epinephrine from adrenal
medulla
2) Neurotransmitters diffuse rapidly across the cleft and transmit a nerve impulse
3) Hypothalamus activates the parasympathetic division of brain
4) Sympathetic nervous system is activated releasing epinephrine and nor-epinephrine from adrenal
cortex.

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GTN–01 (XI-NEET-NC) WARM_UP (Date: 03-02-2025)
98. Identify A, B and C in the diagrammatic representation of the mechanism of hormone action.

Select the correct option from the following

1) A-Steroid hormone, B-Hormone-receptor complex, C-Protein
2) A-Protein hormone, B-Receptor, C-Cyclic AMP
3) A-Steroid hormone, B-Receptor, C-Second messanger
4) A-Protein hormone, B-Cyclic AMP, C-Hormone-receptor complex.
99. Consider the following statements.
I. Parathyroid gland regulates calcium and phosphate level in the blood
II. PTH stimulates reabsorption of Ca2+ absorption by renal tubules and increases Ca2+ absorption
from digested food.
Select the correct option.
1) Both I and II are true 2) Both I and II are false
3) I is true, II is false 4) I is false II is true.
100. Acromegaly is caused due to
1) excess secretion of GH in adults
2) hyposecretion of MSH in children
3) reduced secretion of gonadotropins in adults
4) hypersecretion of PRL in adults.

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