COMPRE EXAM - MICROPARA

1. Laboratory professional are at risk of disease 6. Smooth gray colonies showing no hemolysis c. Clostridium and Bacteroides spp.
transmission. The majority of cases of are recovered from an infected cat scratch on d. Bacteroides and Actinomyces spp.
laboratory-related infections are associated blood and chocolate agar but fail to grow on
11. Which actinomycete is partial acid-fast, has
with: MacConkey agar. The organisms are gram-
extensive aerial hyphae, and is lysozyme
a. Infectious aerosols negative pleomorphic rods that are both
resistant?
b. Contamination of abraded skin catalase and oxidase positive and strongly
a. Nocardia spp.
c. Puncture wounds indole positive. The most likely organism is:
b. Rhodococcus spp.
d. Person-to-person transmission a. Capnocytophaga spp.
c. Gordonia spp.
b. Pasteurella spp.
2. Anyone who enters an airborne infection d. Tsukamurella spp.
c. Proteus spp.
isolation room (AIRs) should wear a:
d. Pseudomonas spp. 12. Extensive aerial hyphae on tap water agar:
a. Regular mask
a. Rhodococcus spp.
b. Surgical mask 7. All organisms belonging to these genera are
b. Gordonia spp.
c. N95 mask small, curved, motile, gram-negative bacilli,
c. Streptomyces spp.
d. Gas mask except:
d. Tsukamurella spp.
a. Arcobacter
3. Biological safety cabinet wherein exhaust air
b. Campylobacter 13. Which species of Mycobacterium include a
is discharged outside the building; selected if
c. Enterobacter BCG strain used for vaccination against
radioisotopes, toxic chemicals, or carcinogens
d. Helicobacter tuberculosis?
will be used:
a. Tuberculosis
a. Class I 8. It causes GRANULOMATOUS DISEASE IN
b. Bovis
b. Class IIa ANIMALS and have been associated with soft
c. Kansasil
c. Class IIb tissue infection in humans following animal
d. Fortuitum/Chelonei complex
d. Class III bites:
a. Actinobacillus 14. Gold standard for detection of leptospiral
4. A selection and enrichment medium for
b. Campylobacter antibodies:
Streptococcus agalactiae in female, genital
c. Cardiobacterium a. Macroscopic slide agglutination test
specimens:
d. Kingella b. Microscopic agglutination test
a. Todd-Hewitt broth
c. IgM ELISA
b. Selenite broth 9. Large boxcar shaped gram-positive rods:
d. IgG ELISA
c. Skirow agar a. B. anthracis
d. New York City agar b. B. cereus 15. Fried egg colonies:
c. C. tetani a. B. pertussis
5. A zone of mm or greater is considered
d. C. perfringens b. M. tuberculosis
sensitive (positive) for the OPTOCHIN test.
c. M. pneumonia
a. 6 mm 10. The ethanol shock procedure is used to
d. M. hominis
b. 12 mm differentiate:
c. 14 mm a. Actinomyces and Bifidobacterium spp. 16. An antibiotic that inhibits cells wall
d. Any zone of inhibition b. Prevotella and Porphyromonas spp. synthesis is:
 COMPRE EXAM - MICROPARA
a. Chloramphenicol newly isolated enteroviruses have been 25. MIGRATING LARVA of this parasite/s can be
b. Penicillin distinguished numerically. found in the sputum:
c. Suronamide a. Coxsackievirus a. None
d. Colistin b. Echovirus b. A. lumbricoides
c. Poliovirus c. P. westermani
17. According to the Kirby-Bauer standard
d. Hepatitis A virus d. Both
antimicrobial susceptibility testing method,
what should be done when interpreting the 21. HAND FOOT AND MOUTH DISEASE is a 26. VISCERAL LARVAL MIGRANS is associated
zone size of a motile, swarming organism such vesicular oxanthemia usual caused by: with which of the following organisms?
as a Proteus species? a. Coxsackievirus a. A. duodenale
a. The swarming area should be ignored b. Echovirus b. D. medinensis
b. The results of the disk diffusion method are c. Poliovirus c. T. canis
invalid d. Hepatitis A virus d. T. spiralis
c. The swarming area should be measured as the
22. This virus causes erythema infectiosum 27. The intestinal nematode considered
growth boundary
(fifth disease), aplastic crises in patients with capable of vertical transmission and the
d. The isolate should be retested after diluting to a
chronic hemolytic anemias, and fetal infection potential cause for congenital infections
0.05 McFarland standard
and stillbirth: a. A. duodenale
18. Which test is used for the determination of a. Measles virus b. A. lumbricoides
inducible clindamycin resistance in b. EBV c. E. vermicularis
staphylococci and streptococci? c. Papillomavirus c. T. trichiura
a. E-test d. Parvovirus B19
28. The usual habitat od Trichinella spiralis
b. D-zone test
23. Most common cause of ASEPTIC adults in man is:
c. A-test
MENINGITIS, an inflammation of the brain a. Muscle
d. CAMP test
parenchyma, and have been isolated from b. Intestine
19. Dimorphic fungi exhibit: more than 40% of patients with this disease c. Liver
a. A mycelial phase at 25-30̊ C and a yeast phase a. CMV d. Blood
at 35-37̊ C b. HIV
c. Rotavirus 29. This filarial worm is found within the rain
b. A yeast phase at 25-30̊ C and a mycelial phase
d. Enteroviruses forest of West and Central Africa. The organism
at 35-37̊ C
is transmitted through a bite of the TABANID FLY
c. Both a mycelial phase and a yeast phase at 25-
24. NS 1 ELISA: or deer fly of the genus Chrysops:
30̊ C, depending on the isolation medium
a. Dengue fever a. W. bancrofti
d. A yeast phase only in vivo and a mycelial phase
b. Yellow fever b. B. malaryi
only in vitro
c. Filarial worm infection c. L. loa
20. ENTERIC CYTOPATHIC HUMAN ORPHAN d. Malaria d. O. vulvulos
become the disease associated with these
agents was not initially known. Since 1967,
 COMPRE EXAM - MICROPARA
30. An OPERCULATED CESTODE EGG that can d. P. falciparum c. Spirals
be recovered in human feces is: d. Variable shape
36. It is able to bind beta globulin factor H, a
a. C. sinensis
regulatory protein of the alternate complement 41. In many clinical laboratories, the swelling
b. D. latum
pathway involved in the degradation of C3b, it phenomena help in identification of the certain
c. P. westermani
also binds to organism named as
d. D. caninum
a. Protein A a. Quelling reaction
31. The third Taenia species: b. M protein b. Swelling
a. T. saginata c. Identification
37. Which of the following organisms able
b. T. solium d. Pathology
tohydrolyze sodium Hippurate to benzoic acid
c. T. granulosus
and glycine? 42. A piece of DNA having the ability to move
d. T. asiatica
a. Streptococcus agalactiae from one site to another either between the
32. Tania saginata and T. solium may live up to: b. Streptococcus pneumonia DNAs of plasmids bacterias bacteriophages or
a. 2 to 3 days c. Listeria monocytogenes within the DNA molecule is called
b. 2 to 3 weeks d. Enterococcus faecalis a. Vector
c. Less than 1 year b. Transposons
38. The colonial appearance of this bacteria on
d. 25 years c. Plasmid
BAP agar is gray, translucent, smooth,
d. Template
33. Larger, usually eccentric refractile granules glistening colonies, which may also have a dry
may be on one side of karyosome (“basket claylike consistency: 43. The site for the nutrients in the cytoplasm is
nucleus”) a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae a. Vacuole
a. E. histolytica b. Neisseria elongata b. Food vacuole
b. E. coli c. Moraxella catarrhalis c. Granules
c. E. nana d. Moraxella osloensis d. Cytosol
d. L. butschlii
39. The circular double-stranded and 44. Peptidoglycan is the essential sugar present
34. Continent affected by Chagas’ disease: extrachromosomal DNA can replicate in the bacterial
a. America independently of the bacterial chromosomes a. Cytoplasm
b. Africa called: b. Cell wall
c. Asia a. Plasmid c. Ribosome
d. Antartica b. Cosmic d. Antartica
c. Vector
35. Rapid Diagnostic Tests (RDTs) for malaria d. Template 45. The size of the bacteria ranges from:
detect histidine rich protein 2 (HRP-2) which is a. 0.2-5 μm
only produced by: 40. Pleomorphic is the term used particularly b. 0.3-4 μm
a. P. vivax for bacteria having c. 0.02-0.2 μm
b. P. malariae a. One shape d. 0.2-0.4 μm
c. P. ovale b. Rods
 COMPRE EXAM - MICROPARA
46. The flagellum is the part of the bacteria that identification test. The best combination of 55. The disease that S. saprophyticus most
help in organisms to use is: often causes is:
a. Digestion a. S. saprophyticus and S. epidermis a. Folliculitis
b. Movement b. Stomatococci and Micrococci b. Endocarditis
c. Respiration c. S. aureus and S. saprophyticus c. UTI
d. Selection d. Micrococci and S. epidermidis d. TSS

47. The toxin produced by some bacterial 52. A gram-positive coccus gives the following 56. A technologist performs a thermonuclease
species that is lethal to other bacterias is reactions: test on a staphylococcal isolate as follows:
named as • Catalase: Bubbles • A drop of broth culture is placed in a DNAse
a. Bacteriocins • Bacitracin: Small zone of inhibition agar well
b. Bacterial toxin • Furazolidone: No zone of inhibition • The plate is incubated for 2 hrs at 35 ̊ C
c. Poison • Modified oxidase: Blue color • A pink halo is present in the agar
d. Lethal secretion The technologist should now: surrounding the well
a. Identify and report the organism as The technologist should:
48. The process of formation of spores in
Stomatococcus spp. a. Report the isolate as S. aureus
certain bacterias is termed as
b. Identify and report the organism as b. Report the isolate as Staphylococci not S.
a. Sporulation
Micrococcus spp. aureus
b. Spore formation
c. Perform a staph latex agglutination test c. Repeat the test; incubate DNase test medium
c. Resistant structure formation
d. Repeat the catalase test with positive and at room temperature
d. Capsules
negative controls d. Repeat the test; boil the broth culture for 25
49. Endotoxin is present in the outer membrane mins
53. The gram stain of a lemon-yellow colony
of the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria
shows gram-positive cocci in tetrads. This 57. A nasal swab is inoculated onto an MSA
known as
organism is most likely: plate and incubated overnight at 35 ̊ C. An
a. Polysaccharides
a. Micrococcus spp. examination of the plate shows numerous
b. Lipopolysaccharides
b. Stomatococcus spp. colonies on yellow agar. This culture is most
c. Sugars
c. S. aureus likely to contains:
d. Lipid
d. S. epidermidis a. Micrococcus spp.
50. The approximate number of gene in the b. Coagulase-negative staphylococci
54. Which of the following media are c. S. aureus
prokaryotic DNA is
appropriate for culturing coagulase-negative d. Stomatococcus spp.
a. 200
staphylococci? Mark all that apply:
b. 2000
a. EMB agar 58. A gram-positive coccus gives the following
c. 2500
b. MacConkey agar reactions:
d. 2100
c. Blood agar • Catalase: Bubbles
51. A technologist is developing a laboratory’s d. CNA agar • Slide coagulase: Clumps in saline
quality control procedure for the novobiocin • Clumps when plasma added
 COMPRE EXAM - MICROPARA
The technologist should: d. S. cremoris
a. Inoculate an MSA plate
64. S. pneumoniae produces which of the
b. Perform a tube coagulase test
following type of colonies?
c. Perform a novobiocin susceptibility test
a. Alpha-haemolytic
d. Identify the organism as S. aureus
b. Beta-haemolytic
59. A gram-positive coccus from a urine culture c. Non-haemolytic
gives the following reactions: d. Alpha-, Beta-haemolytic
• Catalase: Positive (+)
65. Which of the following is the causative
• Staph latex agglutination: Negative (-)
agent of dental caries?
The technologist should:
a. S. pneumoniae
a. Report the organism as coagulase-negative
b. S. pyogenes
staphylococci
c. S. mutans
b. Report the organism S. aureus
d. S. faecalis
c. Perform a tube coagulase test
d. Perform a novobiocin susceptibility test 66. Which of the following genus of species
occurs in human feces:
60. The test that distinguishes staphylococci
a. Peptococcus
from streptococci is:
b. Coprococcus
a. Catalase
c. Sarcina
b. Modified oxidase
d. Ruminococcus
c. Coagulase
d. Bacitracin susceptibility

61. The family Micrococcaceae do not exhibit