NEET 2025

Physics Wallah
Scholarship Test
Preparation Kit for Class 11
 CONTENT
About 3
Physics Wallah Scholarship Test Syllabus And Exam Pattern 4
Scholarship Tests Preparation Study Material 6
Scholarship Tests Mock Tests 18
Mock Test 1 19
Mock Test 2 51
Mock Test 3 84
Mock Test 4 117
Mock Test 5 149

Other Useful Resources 182

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 ABOUT

W
elcome to the comprehensive guide for preparing for the Physics Wallah Scholarship Tests in
2024! This eBook is meticulously crafted to serve as your ultimate companion on the journey
to success in the PWNSAT(Physics Wallah National Scholarship Cum Admission Test) and
PWSAT(Physics Wallah Scholarship cum Admission Test) for Class 11 ( NEET aspirants). Let’s delve
into the key aspects shaping your understanding and preparation.

• Physics Wallah Scholarship Test:

• Syllabus and Exam Pattern:
Understanding the exam syllabus and exam pattern is fundamental to devising a strategic study
plan. Uncover the key topics, subjects, and question formats that constitute the Physics Wallah
scholarship test, providing a roadmap for focused preparation.

• Scholarship Test Preparation Study Material

This eBook recommends a curated set of study materials that are comprehensive and aligned with
the scholarship test syllabus. These materials are designed to provide a thorough understanding of
the concepts, ensuring that students are well-prepared for the test.

• Mock Tests
“The Physics Wallah Scholarship Test 2024 Preparation Kit for Class 11” includes a series of 5 mock
tests for NEET aspirants to help them gauge their readiness for the test. These mock tests cover the
entire syllabus and mimic the difficulty level of the actual exam. Regular practice with mock tests
not only improves time management skills but also enhances confidence levels. It enables students
to identify their strong and weak areas, facilitating targeted revision and improvement.

Coaching centers, especially institutions like Physics Wallah, provide expert guidance, comprehensive
study materials, and a structured approach to learning. The insights shared in this eBook will under-
score the advantages of seeking professional coaching to enhance your academic performance. This
eBook will also elucidate the significance of scholarship tests in the larger context of competitive ex-
aminations, illustrating how success in this scholarship test can propel you toward achieving your aca-
demic and professional goals.

Embark on this transformative journey with the Physics Wallah Scholarship Test 2024 Preparation Kit
for Class 11, and let your aspirations take flight.

Happy learning!

Warm regards,
Team Careers360

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 Physics Wallah
Scholarship Test
If you take the Physics Wallah scholarship tests and achieve a good rank, you can secure scholarships
for up to 90% financial assistance at the Physics Wallah Coaching Center for IIT JEE or NEET exam
preparation. The dedicated faculty at Physics Wallah is committed to providing high-quality learning,
fostering individual growth, and implementing effective study plans.

In summary, taking this scholarship test, getting admission to Physics Wallah Coaching Center, and
studying dedicatedly will help you crack the NEET exam.

To learn more about this scholarship test, please refer to the provided link.

Syllabus And Exam Pattern

Exam Pattern
Total no.of Questions 40
Question Type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Subject Wise Question Count Physics (10), Chemistry (10), Botany (10), Zoology (10)
Total Marks 160
Marking Scheme Each question is allotted (+4) Marks for each correct response
and (-1) for each incorrect answer.
Duration 1 hour

Syllabus
Subject Chapter
PHYSICS Physical World
Units and Measurements,
Motion in a Straight Line
Motion in a Plane
Laws of Motion
Work, Energy and Power
CHEMISTRY Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
Structure of Atom
Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
BOTANY Cell: The Unit of Life
Cell Cycle and Cell Division

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 The Living World
Biological Classification
ZOOLOGY Biomolecules
Breathing and Exchange of Gases
Body Fluids and Circulation
Excretory Products and Their Elimination
Locomotion and Movement

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 Scholarship Tests
Preparation Study Material

PHYSICS
Chapter Name - Physics and Measurement
Concept Name STUDY LINKS

Physical Quantity STUDY HERE

Fundamental And Derived Quantities And Units STUDY HERE

System Of Unit STUDY HERE

Practical Units STUDY HERE

Dimensions Of Physical Quantities STUDY HERE

Dimensionless Quantities STUDY HERE

Applications Of Dimensional Analysis STUDY HERE

Significant Figures STUDY HERE

Errors Of Measurements STUDY HERE

Chapter Name - Kinematics

Concept Name STUDY LINKS

Kinematics Terminologies STUDY HERE

Mathematical Tools STUDY HERE

Scalars And Vectors STUDY HERE

Vector Addition And Vector Subtraction STUDY HERE

Multiplication Of Vectors STUDY HERE

Distance And Displacement STUDY HERE

Speed And Velocity STUDY HERE

Acceleration STUDY HERE

Kinematics Graphs STUDY HERE

Equation Of Motions STUDY HERE

Uniform Circular Motion STUDY HERE

Motion Of Body Under Gravity STUDY HERE

Projectile Motion STUDY HERE

Horizontal Projectile Motion STUDY HERE

Equation Of Path Of A Projectile STUDY HERE

Projectile On An Inclined Plane STUDY HERE

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 Relative Velocity STUDY HERE

Boat River Problem STUDY HERE

Rain-man Problem STUDY HERE

Chapter Name - Laws of Motion

Concept Name STUDY LINKS

Inertia STUDY HERE

Forces STUDY HERE

Common Forces In Mechanics STUDY HERE

Equilibrium Of Concurrent Forces STUDY HERE

Newton’s First Law Of Motion STUDY HERE

Linear Momentum STUDY HERE

Newton's Laws Of Motion STUDY HERE

Acceleration Of Block On Horizontal Smooth Surface STUDY HERE

Acceleration Of Block On Smooth Inclined Plane STUDY HERE

Motion Of Bodies In Contact STUDY HERE

Motion Of Blocks When Connected With String STUDY HERE

Motion Of Connected Blocks Over Pulley STUDY HERE

Spring Force STUDY HERE

Apparent Weight Of Body In A Lift STUDY HERE

Recoiling Of Gun STUDY HERE

Rocket Propulsion STUDY HERE

Friction STUDY HERE

Kinetic Friction STUDY HERE

Static Friction STUDY HERE

Graph Between Applied Force And The Force Of Friction STUDY HERE

Angle Of Repose STUDY HERE

Calculation Of Necessary Force In Different Conditions On Rough Surface STUDY HERE

Acceleration Of Block Against Friction STUDY HERE

Motion Of Two Bodies One Resting On The Other STUDY HERE

Motion Of An Insect In The Rough Bowl STUDY HERE

Minimum Mass Hung From The String To Just Start The Motion STUDY HERE

Maximum Length Of Hung Chain STUDY HERE

Coefficient Of Friction Between A Body And Wedge STUDY HERE

Stopping Of Block Due To Friction STUDY HERE

Sticking Of A Block With Accelerated Cart STUDY HERE

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 Centripetal Force And Centrifugal Force STUDY HERE

Sticking Of Person With The Wall Of Rotor STUDY HERE

Skidding Of Vehicle On A Level Road STUDY HERE

Skidding Of Object On A Rotating Platform STUDY HERE

Bending A Cyclist STUDY HERE

Banking Of Road STUDY HERE

Reaction Of Road On Car STUDY HERE

Centripetal Force For Non-uniform Circular Motion STUDY HERE

Chapter Name - Work Energy and Power

Concept Name STUDY LINKS

Work Done By A Constant Force STUDY HERE

Work Done By Variable Force STUDY HERE

Conservative And Non-conservative Forces STUDY HERE

Basics Of Energy And Its Various Forms STUDY HERE

Kinetic Energy STUDY HERE

Potential Energy STUDY HERE

Law Of Conservation Of Energy STUDY HERE

Vertical Circular Motion STUDY HERE

Power STUDY HERE

Collision STUDY HERE

Types Of Collision STUDY HERE

Elastic And Inelastic Collision STUDY HERE

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 CHEMISTRY

Chapter Name - Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

Concept Name STUDY LINKS

Nature and Characteristics of Matter STUDY HERE

Properties of Matter and Their Measurement STUDY HERE

Uncertainty In Measurement STUDY HERE

Laws Of Chemical Combination For Elements And Compounds STUDY HERE

DALTON'S ATOMIC THEORY STUDY HERE

Atomic Mass And Molecular Mass STUDY HERE

Mole Concept Basic STUDY HERE

Percent Composition Formula STUDY HERE

Empirical and Molecular Formula STUDY HERE

Stoichiometric Calculations STUDY HERE

Gravimetric Analysis STUDY HERE

Molarity And Mole Fraction STUDY HERE

Law of Equivalence STUDY HERE

Some Basic Concept in Chemistry Formula STUDY HERE

Chapter Name - Atomic Structure

Concept Name STUDY LINKS

Thomson atomic model STUDY HERE

Rutherford atomic model and its limitations STUDY HERE

Atomic Number(Z), Mass number(A), Isotopes and Isobars STUDY HERE

Electromagnetic radiation STUDY HERE

Planck's quantum theory STUDY HERE

Photoelectric effect STUDY HERE

Hydrogen Spectrum STUDY HERE

Bohr's Model Of An Atom STUDY HERE

Zeeman and Stark's effect. STUDY HERE

De Broglie Relationship STUDY HERE

Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle STUDY HERE

Frequency, Time Period and Angular Frequency STUDY HERE

Quantum Numbers STUDY HERE

Shape of Orbitals STUDY HERE

Radial nodes and planar nodes STUDY HERE

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 Hund's Rule, Pauli Exclusion Principle, and the Aufbau Principle STUDY HERE

Electronic Configuration of Elements STUDY HERE

Stability Of Orbitals: Half-Filled And Completely-Filled STUDY HERE

Chapter Name - Classification of Elements and Periodic table

Concept Name STUDY LINKS

Development Of Modern Periodic Table STUDY HERE

Mendeleev’s Periodic Table STUDY HERE

Modern Periodic Table STUDY HERE

Electronic Configuration In Periods And Groups STUDY HERE

Nomenclature Of Elements With Atomic Number STUDY HERE

Classification Of Elements And Periodicity In Properties STUDY HERE

Metals, Non-metals And Metalloids STUDY HERE

Atomic Size & Atomic Radius STUDY HERE

Ionisation Enthalpy STUDY HERE

Electron Gain Enthalpy STUDY HERE

Electronegativity STUDY HERE

Physical And Chemical Properties Of Elements STUDY HERE

Modern Periodic Table Trend STUDY HERE

Chapter Name - Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Concept Name STUDY LINKS

Chemical Bonding STUDY HERE

Lewis Electron Dot Structures STUDY HERE

Formal Charge And Its Properties STUDY HERE

Limitations Of The Octet Rule STUDY HERE

Ionic Bond Or Electrovalent Bond STUDY HERE

Lattice Energy STUDY HERE

Bond Parameters - Bond Order, Angle, Length, And Energy STUDY HERE

Dragos Rule STUDY HERE

Resonance Structures STUDY HERE

Fajan’s Rule STUDY HERE

Valence Bond Theory STUDY HERE

Pi Bonds STUDY HERE

Hybridisation STUDY HERE

Vsepr Theory STUDY HERE

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 Molecular Geometry STUDY HERE

Molecular Orbital Theory STUDY HERE

Energy Level Diagram STUDY HERE

Dipole Moment STUDY HERE

Ionic Bond - Partially Covalent In Nature STUDY HERE

Van Der Waals Forces STUDY HERE

Hydrogen Bonding STUDY HERE

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 BOTONY

Chapter Name - Cell: The Unit of Life

Concept Name STUDY LINKS

Cell: Introduction, Discovery, Size and Cell Theory STUDY HERE

Different Types of Cell STUDY HERE

Prokaryotic Cells STUDY HERE

Eukaryotic Cells STUDY HERE

Difference between Prokaryotic Cell and Eukaryotic Cell STUDY HERE

The Cell Wall STUDY HERE

The Plasma Membrane STUDY HERE

Cytoplasm STUDY HERE

Cell nucleus STUDY HERE

Ribosomes STUDY HERE

Semi-autonomous Organelles: Mitochondria and Chloroplast STUDY HERE

Plastids and Different Types of Plastids STUDY HERE

Components of the Endomembrane System STUDY HERE

Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER) STUDY HERE

The Golgi Apparatus STUDY HERE

Lysosomes and Vacuoles STUDY HERE

MICROBODIES STUDY HERE

The Cytoskeleton STUDY HERE

Flagella and Cilia STUDY HERE

Centrosome and Centrioles STUDY HERE

Cell: Introduction, Discovery, Size and Cell Theory STUDY HERE

Chapter Name - Cell Cycle and Cell Division

Concept Name STUDY LINKS

Definition and Phases of Cell Cycle STUDY HERE

M-Phase : An Overview STUDY HERE

Mitosis Definition and Stages Of Mitosis STUDY HERE

Significance of Mitosis STUDY HERE

Introduction to Meiosis STUDY HERE

Different Phases of Meiosis I STUDY HERE

Different Phases of Meiosis II and its Significance STUDY HERE

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 Checkpoints in the Cell Cycle STUDY HERE

Difference between Meiosis and Mitosis STUDY HERE

Chapter Name - The Living World

Concept Name STUDY LINKS

Concept of Living and Need for Classification STUDY HERE

Taxonomic Hierarchy In Biological Classification STUDY HERE

Chapter Name - Biological Classification

Concept Name STUDY LINKS

Classification Systems STUDY HERE

Three domains of life STUDY HERE

History of Classification of Organisms STUDY HERE

Characteristics And Classification Of Monera STUDY HERE

Archaebacteria STUDY HERE

Eubacteria STUDY HERE

Cell Envelope STUDY HERE

Gram Staining STUDY HERE

Cytoplasm and Its Components STUDY HERE

Extracellular structures in Bacteria STUDY HERE

Cyanobacteria STUDY HERE

Mycoplasma STUDY HERE

Characteristics of Kingdom Protista STUDY HERE

Kingdom Protista STUDY HERE

Decomposer Protists STUDY HERE

Protozoa STUDY HERE

Kingdom Fungi STUDY HERE

Phycomycetes (Algal fungi) STUDY HERE

Ascomycetes (Sac fungi) STUDY HERE

Basidiomycetes (Club fungi) STUDY HERE

Deuteromycetes (Imperfect fungi) STUDY HERE

Lichen and Mycorrhiza STUDY HERE

Viruses, Viroids and Prions STUDY HERE

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 ZOOLOGY

Chapter Name - Biomolecules

Concept Name STUDY LINKS

Biomolecules: Definition STUDY HERE

Chemical Composition Analysis in Living Tissues STUDY HERE

Intramolecular and Intermolecular Bonds STUDY HERE

Properties of Water STUDY HERE

Function Group : Carbon STUDY HERE

Isomers and Stereoisomers STUDY HERE

Synthesis and Degradation of Biomolecules STUDY HERE

Classification and Examples of Carbohydrates STUDY HERE

Monosaccharides : Definition and Examples STUDY HERE

Ring Structure of Monosaccharides STUDY HERE

Disaccharides : Definition and Examples STUDY HERE

Polysaccharides : Definition, Types and Examples STUDY HERE

Lipids and Fatty Acids STUDY HERE

Classification Of Lipids STUDY HERE

Formation of Amino Acids STUDY HERE

Formation of Peptide Bond STUDY HERE

Types of Structure of Proteins : Primary, Secondary and Tertiary STUDY HERE

Nucleotides and Nucleic Acids STUDY HERE

Nucleic Acids - DNA and RNA STUDY HERE

ATP : An Overview STUDY HERE

Enzymes : Classification Active Sites , Models and Inhibition STUDY HERE

Active Site and models of the Enzyme STUDY HERE

Factors Affecting Enzyme Activity STUDY HERE

Metabolites and their types STUDY HERE

Chapter Name - Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Concept Name STUDY LINKS

Introduction to respiratory system STUDY HERE

Respiratory Organs in Different Organisms STUDY HERE

Human respiratory system STUDY HERE

Thoracic Cavity: Location and Function STUDY HERE

Overview of the Process of Respiration STUDY HERE

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 Mechanism of Breathing STUDY HERE

Lung Volumes and Capacities STUDY HERE

Exchange of Gases STUDY HERE

Oxygen Transport and Oxygen Dissociation Curve STUDY HERE

Bohr's Effect on Oxygen Dissociation Curve STUDY HERE

Transport of Carbon Dioxide STUDY HERE

Release of Oxygen at the Tissue Level STUDY HERE

Regulation of Respiration STUDY HERE

Disorders of the Respiratory System STUDY HERE

Chapter Name - Body Fluids and Circulation

Concept Name STUDY LINKS

Body fluid - Definition and Examples STUDY HERE

Composition of Blood STUDY HERE

Blood Coagulation STUDY HERE

ABO and Rh Blood Group System STUDY HERE

Circulatory System and Its Types STUDY HERE

Double Circulation In Humans STUDY HERE

Coronary Circulation STUDY HERE

Anatomy of the Human Heart STUDY HERE

Blood vessels and their system STUDY HERE

Conducting System of Heart STUDY HERE

Functioning of Human Heart STUDY HERE

Human lymphatic system STUDY HERE

Cardiac cycle STUDY HERE

Different types of Heart Sounds STUDY HERE

Heart rate and Cardiac Output STUDY HERE

Regulation of Cardiac Activity STUDY HERE

Electrocardiogram (ECG) STUDY HERE

Disorders of Circulatory System STUDY HERE

Chapter Name - Excretory Products and Their Elimination

Concept Name STUDY LINKS

Overview on an Excretory System STUDY HERE

Types of Animals Based on Excretory Wastes STUDY HERE

Krebs-Henseleit Cycle STUDY HERE

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 Other Excretory Products STUDY HERE

Some common excretory organs in animals. STUDY HERE

Human Excretory System: Kidneys STUDY HERE

Parts of Human Excretory System STUDY HERE

Structure of Nephron and its Types STUDY HERE

Juxtaglomerular Apparatus STUDY HERE

Net Filtration Pressure STUDY HERE

Glomerular Filtration Rate and Filtration Fraction STUDY HERE

Counter-Current Mechanism STUDY HERE

Ultrafiltration STUDY HERE

Tubular Reabsorption STUDY HERE

Tubular Secretion STUDY HERE

Regulation of Kidney Function STUDY HERE

Micturition STUDY HERE

Characteristics of Urine STUDY HERE

Disorders of the Excretory System STUDY HERE

Hemodialysis STUDY HERE

Chapter Name - Locomotion And Movement

Concept Name STUDY LINKS

Difference Between Movement And Locomotion STUDY HERE

Types Of Movement In The Human Body STUDY HERE

Muscles And Their Types STUDY HERE

Skeletal Muscles : Structure And Types STUDY HERE

Difference Between Red And White Fibres STUDY HERE

Skeletal Muscles : Structure And Types STUDY HERE

Muscle Contraction- Contractile Proteins And Their Functions STUDY HERE

Mechanism Of Muscle Contraction STUDY HERE

Cori Cycle STUDY HERE

Types Of Movements According To Muscle Contraction STUDY HERE

Human Skeletal System : An Overview STUDY HERE

Axial Skeleton System : The Skull STUDY HERE

Vertebral Column : An Overview STUDY HERE

Ribs And Rib Cage STUDY HERE

Appendicular Skeleton : Upper Limb STUDY HERE

Appendicular Skeleton : Lower Limb STUDY HERE

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 Joints STUDY HERE

Types Of Synovial Joints STUDY HERE

Disorders Of Muscular And Skeletal System STUDY HERE

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 NEET
Mock Tests

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 Mock Test 1

Physics
Q. 1 The dimension of where is permittivity of free space and E is electric field, is

Option 1:
M L T-1

Option 2:
M L2 T-2

Option 3:
M L-1 T-2

Option 4:
M L2 T-1

Correct Answer:
M L-1 T-2

Solution:

Q. 2 A body is moving with velocity 30m/s towards east. After 10 seconds its velocity becomes
40m/s towards north. The average acceleration of the body is

Option 1:
1m/s2

Option 2:
7m/s2

Option 3:
7m/s2

Option 4:
5m/s2

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 Correct Answer:
5m/s2
Solution:
As we learnt in

Acceleration -

Rate of change of velocity with time.

For: a=change in velocity / change in time

- wherein

Eg. A car starting from rest accelerates uniformly to a speed of 75 m/s in 12 seconds. What is car’s acceleration ?

75 m/s

a = 6.25 m/s2

Av - acceleration

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 Q. 3 The mass of a lift is 2000 kg. When the tension in the supporting cable is 28000 N, then its
acceleration is:

Option 1:
4 ms-2 upwards.

Option 2:
4 ms-2 downwards.

Option 3:
14 ms-2 upwards.

Option 4:
30 ms-2 downwards.

Correct Answer:
4 ms-2 upwards.

Solution:

Let us suppose the lift is going upward

T - mg = ma

So, our assumption is correct. The lift is going upward with acceleration

Q. 4 An engine pumps water continously through a hose. Water leaves the hose with velocity V
and m is the mass per unit length of the water jet. What is the rate at whoch kinetic energy is
imparted to water?

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 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As discussed in

Kinetic energy -

- wherein

kinetic Energy is never negative

m - mass per unit length

rate of mass leaving the hose per second =

Rate of

Q. 5 The density of a material in CGS system of units is 4 g/cm3. In a system of units in which unit
of length is 10 cm and unit of mass is 100 g, the value of density of material will be

Option 1:
400

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 Option 2:
0.04

Option 3:
0.4

Option 4:
40

Correct Answer:
40
Solution:
As learnt in

To convert a physical quantity from one system to other -

- wherein

Q. 6 A projectile is fired at an angle of with the horizontal. Elevation angle of the projectile at
its highest point as seen from the point of projection is

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

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 Correct Answer:

Solution:
As we learnt in

Maximum Height -

Maximum vertical distance attained by projectile during its journey.

- wherein

Special Case

If U is doubled, H become four times and T becomes twice provided Q & g are constant.

and

Horizontal Range -

Horizontal distance travelled by a projectile from the point of projectile to the point on the ground where it hits.

- wherein

Special case of horizontal range

For man horizontal range.

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 Q. 7 A body under the action of a force , acquires an acceleration of
1m/s2. The mass of this body must be

Option 1:
10kg

Option 2:
20kg

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As we learnt in

Newton's 2nd Law -

Therefore

- wherein

in C.G.S & S.I

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 Given

Q. 8 An explosion blows a rock into three parts. Two parts go off at right angles to each other.
These two are, 1 kg first part moving with a velocity of and 2 kg second part moving
with a velocity of . If the third part flies off with a velocity of , its mass would
be

Option 1:
7 kg

Option 2:
17 kg

Option 3:
3 kg

Option 4:
5 kg

Correct Answer:
5 kg

Solution:
As we learnt in

Inelastic Collision -

Law of conservation of momentum hold good but that of kinetic energy is not

- wherein

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 Net momentum of the two pieces 1kg and 2kg

momentum of third piece =

mass of 3rd Piece =

Q. 9 Taking into acount of the significant figures, what is the values of 9.99m - 0.0099 m?

Option 1:
9.9801 m

Option 2:
9.98 m

Option 3:
9.980 m

Option 4:
9.9 m

Correct Answer:
9.98 m

Solution:
The result of an addition or subtraction in the number having different precisions should be reported to
the same number of decimal places as are present in the number having the least number of decimal
places.

Here 9.99 is having least number of decimal places, so

9.99-0.0099=9.9801~9.98

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 Q. 10 Two particle A abd B are moving in uniform circular motion in concentric circles of radii
with speed respectively . Their time period of rotation is the same
. The ratio of angular speed of A to that of B will be :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:
1:1

Correct Answer:
1:1

Solution:
Relation of Angular Velocity frequency and Time period -

- wherein

Angular Velocity

n = frequency

T = time period

For A and B

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 as

Chemistry
Q. 1 20.0 g of a magnesium carbonate sample decomposes on heating to give carbon dioxide and
8.0 g magnesium oxide. What will be the percentage purity of magnesium carbonate in the
sample ?

(At. Wt. : Mg = 24)

Option 1:
75

Option 2:
96

Option 3:
60

Option 4:
84

Correct Answer:
84

Solution:
As we learnt in

Number of Moles = given mass of substance/ molar mass of the substance

By the stoichiometry of the reaction above, we know that 1 mol of the gives 1 mol of MgO.

moles of MgO obtained

Moles of MgO that should have been obtained in a pure sample = 0.238

moles of in the sample

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 = moles of MgO in the sample

= 0.2

Q. 2 The orbital angular momentum of a p-electron is given as:

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As we learned in

The orbital angular momentum is given by where l is the azimuthal quantum number

for p orbital,

orbital angular momentum

Therefore, the correct option is (1).

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 Q. 3 Which of the following arrangements represents the correct order of least negative to most
negative electron gain enthalpy for C, Ca, Al, F, O?

Option 1:
Ca < Al < C < O < F

Option 2:
Al < Ca < O < C < F

Option 3:
Al < O < C < Ca < F

Option 4:
C < F < O < Al < Ca

Correct Answer:
Ca < Al < C < O < F

Solution:
As we learnt

Variation of electron gain enthalpy in periodic table -

1. Electron gain enthalpy decreases down the group.

2. Generally, electron gains enthalpy increases (more negative) along the period.

Electron gain enthalpy increases along the period as the attraction between incoming electron and the
nucleus increases or Zeff Increases.

Also, it decreases down the group due to increased atomic size.

Increasing order of electron gain enthalpy:

Ca < Al < C < O < F

Q. 4 According to MO theory which of the following lists ranks the nitrogen species in terms of
increasing bond order?

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

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 Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Q. 5 If Avogadro number NA, is changed from 6.022 x 1023 mol-1 to 6.022 x 1020 mol-1, this would
change :

Option 1:
the definition of mass in units of grams.

Option 2:
the mass of one mole of carbon.

Option 3:
the ratio of chemical species to each other in a balanced equation.

Option 4:
the ratio of elements to each other in a compund.

Correct Answer:
the mass of one mole of carbon.

Solution:
As we learnt in

One mole is the amount of a substance that contains as many particles or entities as there are atoms in
exactly 12 g (or 0.012 kg) of the 12C isotope.

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 1 mole of substance = 6.0221367 X 1023 units of that substance (such as atoms, molecules, or ions). The
number 6.0221367 X 1023 is known as Avogadro's number or Avogadro's constant.

1 mol of carbon has mass = 12 g

atoms of carbon mass = 12 g

So if now, 1 mole = 6.022 1020

then 6.022 1020 atoms of carbon mass =

1 mol of carbon atom mass = 0.012 g

Hence, option number (2) is correct.

Q. 6 The angular momentum of electron in 'd' orbital is equal to:

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Hence the correct answer is option 4.

Q. 7 Be2+ is isoelectronic with which of the following ions?

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 Option 1:
H+

Option 2:
Li+

Option 3:
Na+

Option 4:
Mg2+

Correct Answer:
Li+

Solution:
Electronic config of

Electronic config of

Be2+ is isoelectronic with

Option (2) is correct answer.

Q. 8 During change of O2 to ion, the electron adds on which one of the following orbitals?

Option 1:
orbital

Option 2:
orbital

Option 3:
orbital

Option 4:
orbital

Correct Answer:
orbital

Solution:
The incoming electron during change of to will enter in .

Q. 9 6.02 1020 molecules of urea are present in 100 mL of its solution. The concentration of
solution is:

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 Option 1:
0.1 M

Option 2:
0.02 M

Option 3:
0.01 M

Option 4:
0.001 M

Correct Answer:
0.01 M

Solution:
As we learnt in

no. of moles = mol = 10-3 mol

Vol. = 100 ml

Molarity, M =

Therefore, Option(3) is correct.

Q. 10 Maximum number of electrons in a subshell with : l= 3 and n = 4 is :

Option 1:
14

Option 2:
16

Option 3:
10

Option 4:
12

Correct Answer:
14

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 Solution:
As we learned in

Magnetic Quantum Number (m) -

For any sub-shell (defined by the ‘l ’value) values of m are possible and these values are given by :

m = – l, – ( l –1), – ( l – 2)... 0,1... ( l – 2), ( l –1), l

l = 3 and n = 4 represent 4f.

Total number of electrons in a subshell

= 2(2l+1) = 2(2X3+1) =14

Hence f subshells can contain maximum 14 electrons.

Therefore, the correct option is (1).

Biology Section

Botany
Q. 1 During cell growth, DNA synthesis takes place in

Option 1:
S Phase

Option 2:
G1 phase

Option 3:
G2 phase

Option 4:
M phase

Correct Answer:
S Phase

Solution:
As we have learnt in

S - phase (DNA synthesis phase):

Following G1, the cell enters the S stage, when DNA synthesis or replication occurs.
At the beginning of the S stage, each chromosome is composed of one DNA double helix.
Following DNA replication, each chromosome is composed of two identical DNA double helix molecules.
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 Each double helix is called a chromatid.
Another way of expressing these events is to say that DNA replication has resulted in duplicated
chromosomes, and the two chromatids will remain attached until they are separated during mitosis.
If the initial amount of DNA is denoted as 2C then it increases to 4C.
However, there is no increase in the chromosome number; if the cell had diploid or 2n number of
chromosomes at G1, even after S phase the number of chromosomes remains the same, i.e., 2n.

-Hence, the correct answer is S-Phase.

Q. 2 Select the incorrect statement with reference to mitosis :

Option 1:
Spindle fibers attach to centromere of chromosomes

Option 2:
Chromosomes decondense at telophase

Option 3:
Splitting of centromere occurs at anaphase

Option 4:
All the chromosomes lie at the equator at metaphase

Correct Answer:
Spindle fibers attach to centromere of chromosomes

Solution:
In Mitosis, spindle fibers attach to the kinetochore of the chromatids.

Hence option 1 is incorrect

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 Q. 3 As we go from species to kingdom in a taxonomic hierarchy, the number of common
characteristics

a. Will decrease

b. Will increase

c. Remain same

d. May increase or decrease

Solution:
The answer is option a). Will decrease

The number of common characteristics decreases in the Linnaean system of hierarchy as we move from
species to kingdom, while it increases in the descending order.

Q. 4 Give below are two statement :

Statement I :

Mycoplasma ca pass through less than 1 micron filter size

Statement II :

Mycoplasma are bacteria with cell wall

In light of the above statement s, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below :

Option 1:
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Option 2:
Statement I is correct but Statemet II is incorrect

Option 3:
Statement I is incorrect but Statemet II is correct

Option 4:
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Correct Answer:
Statement I is correct but Statemet II is incorrect

Solution:
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 Myoplasm are the smallest cells and hence can pass through filters less than 1 m. These are 'Jokers of
Microbiology' as these can change their shape because they lack cell walls. Hence statement 1 is correct
and 2 is incorrect.

Q. 5 Which of the following statements with respect to Endoplasmic Reticulum is incorrect ?

Option 1:
SER is devoid of ribosomes

Option 2:
In prokaryotes only RER are present

Option 3:
SER are the sites for lipid synthesis

Option 4:
RER has ribosomes attached to ER

Correct Answer:
In prokaryotes only RER are present

Solution:
ER is absent in prokaryotes. Hence RER (Rough ER) and SER (smooth ER) are both absent. Option 2 is
correct

Q. 6 Regarding Meiosis, which of the statement is incorrect ?

Option 1:
DNA replication occurs in S phase of Meiosis-II

Option 2:
Pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination occurs in Meiosis - I

Option 3:
Four haploid cells are formed at the end of Meiosis - II

Option 4:
There are two stages in Meiosis, Meiosis - I and II

Correct Answer:
DNA replication occurs in S phase of Meiosis-II

Solution:
DNA replication occurs during S-phase. This is the part of Interphase which is before Meiosis I

Hence, Option (1) is correct.

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 Q. 7 Which of the following is a defining characteristic of living organisms?

Option 1:
Growth

Option 2:
Ability to make sound

Option 3:
Reproduction

Option 4:
Response to external stimuli

Correct Answer:
Response to external stimuli

Solution:
Ans: The answer is option (4) Response to external stimuli

Explanation: The other character than the response to the stimuli might not be apparent for any time, but
the response to the stimuli could be confirmed whenever required and thus can be considered as the
defining characteristic of living organisms.

Q. 8 In the taxonomic categories which hierarchial arrangement in ascending order is correct in

case of animals ?

Option 1:
Kingdom, Class, Phylum, Family, Order, Genus, Species

Option 2:
Kingdom, Order, Class, Phylum, Family, Genus, Species

Option 3:
Kingdom, Order, Phylum, Class, Family, Genus, Species

Option 4:
Kingdom, Phylum,Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

Correct Answer:
Kingdom, Phylum,Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

Solution:
Correction order is

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 Kingdom

Phylum

Class

Order

Family

Genus

Species

Q. 9 Match List - I with List - II.

List I List II

a Metacentric i Centromere situated close to the end forming one

chromosome extremely short and one very long arms

b Acrocentric ii Centromere at the terminal end

chromosome

c Sub-metacentric iii Centromere in the middle forming two equal arms of

chromosomes

d Telocentric iv Centromere slightly away from the middle forming one

chromosome shorter arm and one longer arm

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Option 1:
(a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)

Option 2:
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

Option 3:
(a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)

Option 4:
(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)

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 Correct Answer:
(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
Solution:

Metacentric Centromere lies in the middle forming two equal arms of chromosomes.

Sub-Metacentric Centromere slightly away from the middle forming one shorter arm and one longer
arm.

Acrocentric Centromere situated close to the end forming one extremely short and one very long arm.

Telocentric Centromere at the terminal end.

Hence, the correct option is (4)

Q. 10 The appearance of recombination nodules on homologous chromosomes during meiosis

characterizes :

Option 1:
Bivalent

Option 2:
Sites at which crossing over occurs

Option 3:
Terminalization

Option 4:
Synaptonemal complex

Correct Answer:
Sites at which crossing over occurs

Solution:
Prophase I of meiosis I is a unique phase that involves the recombination of genetic material between
homologous chromosomes. This occurs in the pachytene stage where the non-sister chromatics of the
homologous chromosomes cross over and the exchange of genetic material takes place. Recombination
modules are the sites at which the non-sister chromatids Cross over.

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 Hence, the correct option is (2)

Zoology
Q. 11 Which one out of A-D given below correctly respresents the structural formula of the basic
amino acid

A B C D

Option 1:
C

Option 2:
D

Option 3:
A

Option 4:
B

Correct Answer:
D

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 Solution:
A. It is the structure of glutamic acid which is an acidic amino acid.

B. It is the structure of serine which is an acidic amino acid.

C. It is a neutral amino acid.

D. It is the structure of lysine which is a basic amino acid. These have 2 amino groups and 1 carboxyl
group.

Q. 12 When you hold your breath, which of the following gas changes in blood would first lead to
the urge to breathe ?

Option 1:
falling CO2 concentration

Option 2:
rising CO2 and falling O2 concentration

Option 3:
falling O2 concentration

Option 4:
rising CO2 concentration

Correct Answer:
rising CO2 concentration

Solution:
As we learnt learnt

Partial pressure of CO2 as compared to O2 -

As the solubility of CO2 is 20-25 times higher than that of O2, the amount of CO2 that can diffuse through
the diffusion membrane per unit difference in partial pressure is much higher compared to that of O2.

AND

Carbon dioxide (CO2) -

Carbon dioxide (CO2) which is harmful is also released during the above catabolic reactions.

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 Holding of breath will increase the amount of CO2 in blood.

Q. 13 Which one is the most abundant protein in the animal world

Option 1:
Trypsin

Option 2:
Hemoglobin

Option 3:
Collagen

Option 4:
Insulin

Correct Answer:
Collagen

Solution:
Collagen is most abundant protein of animal world, found is extra cellular matrix, form bones.

Rubisco is the most abundant protein of planet or planet world.

Q. 14 Removal of proximal convoluted tubule from the nephron will result in:

Option 1:
No change in quality and quantity of urine

Option 2:
No urine formation

Option 3:
More diluted urine

Option 4:
More concentrated urine

Correct Answer:
More diluted urine

Solution:
The urine will be more diluted if the proximal convoluted tubule is removed from the nephron.
PCTs are essential for an intricate framework that reabsorbs the majority of the water, ions and particles
from the urinary space once more into the body, which is an interaction called "tubular reabsorption."

Hence, the correct answer is option 3).

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 Q. 15 Select the correct statement regarding the specific disorder of muscular or skeletal system :-

Option 1:
Muscular dystrophy - age related shortening or muscles.

Option 2:
Osteoporosis - decrease in bone mass and higher chance of fractures with advancing age.

Option 3:
Myasthenia gravis - Auto immune disorder which inhibits sliding of myosin filaments

Option 4:
Gout - inflammation of joints due to extra deposition of calcium.

Correct Answer:
Osteoporosis - decrease in bone mass and higher chance of fractures with advancing age.

Solution:
As we learnt in

Disorders Of Muscular And Skeletal System -

Osteoporosis

- wherein

Age-related disorder characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chances of fractures.
Decreased levels of estrogen is a
common cause.

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 Q. 16 Given below is the diagrammatic representation of one of the categories of small molecular
weight organic compounds in the living tissues. Identify the category shown and the one
blank component "X" in it.

Category Component

Option 1:
Cholesterol Guanin

Option 2:
Amino acid NH2

Option 3:
Nucleotide Adenine

Option 4:
Nucleoside Uracil

Correct Answer:
Nucleoside Uracil

Solution:
As we learnt in

Nucleoside -

A nitrogenous base is limited to the pentose sugar through a N-glycosidic linkage to form a nucleoside.

- wherein

Eg: ladenosine or deoxyadenosine, guanosine or deoxyguaonisine

Nucleoside is made up of ribose sugar and nitrogenous base only. Uracil forms nucleoside with only
ribose sugar. So, the option with category nucleoside component uracil is correct.
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 Q. 17 People who have migrated from the planes to an area adjoining Rohatang Pass about six
months back :

Option 1:
have more RBCs and their haemoglobin has a lower binding affinity to O2.

Option 2:
are not physically fit to play games like football.

Option 3:
suffer from altitude sickness with symptoms like nausea, fatigue, etc.

Option 4:
have the usual RBC count but their haemoglobin has very high binding affinuty to O2.

Correct Answer:
have more RBCs and their haemoglobin has a lower binding affinity to O2.

Solution:
Due to high altitude, where O2 is less. The person will face nausea, fatigue, etc.

Q. 18 A certain road accident patient with unknown blood group needs immediate blood
transfusion. His one doctor friend at once offers his blood. What was the blood group of the
donor?

Option 1:
Blood group B

Option 2:
Blood group AB

Option 3:
Blood group O

Option 4:
Blood group A

Correct Answer:
Blood group O

Solution:
As we learnt in

Universal Donors -

Group ‘O’ blood can be donated to persons with any other blood group
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 - wherein

‘O’ group individuals are called ‘universal donors’

O is a universal donor because all antigens are absent.

Q. 19 The maximum amount of electrolytes and water (70 - 80 percent) fromthe glomerular filtrate
is reabsorbed in which part of the nephron?

Option 1:
Ascending limb of loop of Henle

Option 2:
Distal convoluted tubule

Option 3:
Proximal convoluted tubule

Option 4:
Descending limb of loop of Henle

Correct Answer:
Proximal convoluted tubule

Solution:
As we learnt in

FUNCTION OF THE TUBULES -

Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT)

- wherein

PCT is lined by simple cuboidal brush border epithelium which increases the surface area for
reabsorption. Nearly all of the essential nutrients, and 70-80 per cent of electrolytes and water are
reabsorbed by this segment

PCT reabsorbs 70-80% of water and electrolytes

Q. 20 Select the correct matching of the type of the joint with the example in human skeletal
system:

Type of joint Example

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 Option 1:
Cartilaginous joint - between frontal and pariental

Option 2:
Pivot joint - between third and fourth cervical vertebrae

Option 3:
Hinge joint - between humerus and pectoral girdle

Option 4:
Gliding joint - between carpals

Correct Answer:
Gliding joint - between carpals

Solution:
As we learnt in

Example of synovial joints -

gliding joint

- wherein

joint between the carpals

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 Mock Test 2

Physics
Q. 1 A block of mass m is in contact with the cart C as shown in the figure.

The coefficient of static friction between the block and the cart is . The acceleration of
the cart that will prevent the block from falling satisfies

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

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 Q. 2 Each of the two strings of length 51.6 cm and 49.1 cm are tensioned separately by 20 N
force. Mass per unit length of both the strings is same and equal to 1 g/m. When both the
strings vibrate simultaneously the number of beats is:

Option 1:
7

Option 2:
8

Option 3:
3

Option 4:
5

Correct Answer:
7

Solution:

frequency of the string is given as

where Mass per unit length of string

frequency of first-string

similarly, the frequency of second-string

and The number of beats will be the difference in frequencies of the two strings.
Number of beats

Q. 3 The area of a rectangular field of length and breadth after rounding

off the value for correct significant digits is

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 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

In product or division by arithmetic rules the answer must have least no of significant figures

Hence corrrect option is 3

Q. 4
The dimension of where is permittivity of free space and E is electric field, is:

Option 1:
ML2T-2

Option 2:
ML-1T-2

Option 3:
ML2T-1

Option 4:
MLT-1

Correct Answer:
ML-1T-2

Solution:

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 As we learnt in

Dimension -

The power to which fundamental quantities must be raised in order to express the given physical
quantities.

Q. 5 A boy standing at the top of a tower of 20m height drops a stone. Assuming g=10ms-2, the
velocity with which it hits the ground is

Option 1:
10.0m/s

Option 2:
20.0m/s

Option 3:
40.0m/s

Option 4:
5.0m/s

Correct Answer:
20.0m/s

Solution:
As we learnt in

3rd equation or Velocity –displacement equation -

Final Velocity

Displacement

Initial velocity

acceleration
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 -

u=0

v = 20 ms-1

Q. 6 A gramophone record is revolving with an angular velocity . A coin is placed at a distance r

from the centre of the record. The static coefficient of friction is . The coin will revolve with
the record if

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Q. 7 A body of mass 1 kg is thrown upwards with a velocity 20 m/s. It momentarily comes to rest
after attaining a height of 18 m. How much energy is lost due to air friction? ( )

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 Option 1:
30 J

Option 2:
40 J

Option 3:
10 J

Option 4:
20 J

Correct Answer:
20 J

Solution:
As discussed in

Net work done by all the forces give the change in kinetic energy -

- wherein

Loss in Energy =

Q. 8 The density of material in CGS system of units is 4g/cm3. In a system of units in which unit of
length is 10 cm and unit of mass is 100g, the value of density of material will be

Option 1:
0.4

Option 2:
40

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 Option 3:
400

Option 4:
0.04

Correct Answer:
40
Solution:
As we learnt in

To convert a physical quantity from one system to other -

- wherein

Q. 9 The speed of a swimmer in still water is 20 m/s . The speed of river water is 10 m/s and is
flowing due east . If he is standing on the south bank and wishes to cross he river along the
sortest path , the angle at which he should make his strokes w.r.t north is given by :

Option 1:
30 west

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:
30 west

Solution:
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 Boat - River Problem -

To cross river in the shortest path

condition ( velocity of boat along river flow must be zero)

width of river

v = Speed of Boat w.r.t. river

u = speed of river

Q. 10 A man of 50 kg mass is standing in a gravity free space at a height of 10 m above the floor.
He throws a stone of 0.5 kg mass downwards with a speed 2 m/s. When the stone reaches
the floor, the distance of the man above the floor will be

Option 1:
20 m

Option 2:
9.9 m

Option 3:
10.1 m

Option 4:
10 m

Correct Answer:
10.1 m

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 Solution:
Let the speed of the man in an upward direction be V

Applying conservation of linear momentum of man and stone system:

Time taken by stone to reach the ground

Distance covered by man in 5 s,

Thus distance of man above the floor h=10+0.1=10.1 m

Chemistry
Q. 1 In an experiment it showed that 10 ml of 0.05M solution of chloride required 10 mL of 0.1 M
solution of AgNO3 , which of the following will be the formula of the chloride (X stands for
the symbol of the element other than chlorine):

Option 1:
X2Cl

Option 2:
X2Cl2

Option 3:
XCl2

Option 4:
XCl4

Correct Answer:
XCl2

Solution:
Moles = Molarity X volume in litre.

No. of moles of AgNO3=M X V = 0.1 X 10 (In ml) = 0.1 X 10 X 10-3 (in L) = 10-3 mol

No. of moles the chloride= 0.05 X 10 X 10-3 (in L)= 0.5 x 10-3 mol.

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 Suppose the formula for the chloride is XCln then moles of chloride ion = n x 0.5 x 10-3

The reaction goes as follows:

Then, going by stoichiometry we get

1 mol of Ag = 1 mol of Cl

so. 10-3 mol = n x 0.5 x 10-3

So, the formula is XCl2

Therefore, the correct option is (3).

Q. 2 The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electron of rubidium atom (Z = 37)
is :

Option 1:
5, 1, 1,+ 1/2

Option 2:
6,0,0 + 1/2

Option 3:
5,0,0 + 1/2

Option 4:
5,1,0 + 1/2

Correct Answer:
5,0,0 + 1/2

Solution:
Rb (37): 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p6 5s1

for 5s,

n = 5, l = 0, m= 0, s=+1/2 or -1/2

Q. 3 The species Ar, K+ and Ca2+ contain the same number of electrons. In which order do their
radii increase ?

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 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As we learned in

In the case of isoelectronic species, radius decreases with an increase in nuclear charge.

So, the increasing order of radii of given species

Therefore, the correct option is (1).

Q. 4 Which one of the following pairs is isostructural (i.e. having the same shape and
hybridization)?

Option 1:
[BCl3 and BrCl3]

Option 2:
[NH3 and ]

Option 3:
[NF3 and BF3]

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
, trigonal planar

, T-shaped

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 , pyramidal

, trigonal planar

, pyramidal

, trigonal planar

, tetrahedral

, tetrahedral

Q. 5 6.02 x 1020 molecules of urea are present in 100 mL of its solution. The concentration of the
solution is:

Option 1:
0.01 M

Option 2:
0.001 M

Option 3:
0.1 M

Option 4:
0.02 M

Correct Answer:
0.01 M

Solution:
As we learnt in

Molarity (M) = (Number of moles of solute)/(volume of solution in litres)

Molarity is defined as the number of moles of the solute in 1 litre of the solution.

No. of molecules (given) =

No. of moles

Volume of solution = 100 ml = 0.1 L

Therefore,

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 Therefore, the correct option is (1).

Q. 6
Based on equation , certain conclusions are written. Which

of them is not correct?

Option 1:
For n = 1, the electron has more negative energy that it does for n = 6 which means that the electron
is more loosely bound in the smallest allowed orbit.

Option 2:
The negative sign in equation simply means that the energy of an electron bound to the nucleus is
lower than it would be if the electrons were at the infinite distance from the nucleus.

Option 3:
Larger the value of n, the larger is the orbit radius.

Option 4:
The equation can be used to calculate the change in energy when the electron changes orbit.

Correct Answer:
For n = 1, the electron has more negative energy that it does for n = 6 which means that the electron
is more loosely bound in the smallest allowed orbit.

Solution:
The electron is more tightly bound in the smallest allowed orbit.

Hence n = 1, the electron has more negative energy implied the smallest orbit electron is more strongly
bound.

Therefore, the correct option is (1).

Q. 7 The formation of the oxide ion O2-(g), from oxygen atom requires first an exothermic and
then an endothermic step as shown below:

Thus process of formation of in gas phase is unfavourable even though is

isoelectronic with neon. It is due to the fact that

Option 1:
Electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained by achieving noble gas configuration.

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 Option 2:
ion has comparatively smaller size than oxygen atom.

Option 3:
Oxygen is more electronegative.

Option 4:
Addition of electron in oxygen results in larger size of the ion.

Correct Answer:
Electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained by achieving noble gas configuration.
Solution:
The first electron gain enthalpy of the Oxygen atom is negative, as when the electron is added, the
attractive forces between the incoming electron and nucleus outweigh the repulsions in between
electrons.

But on adding the second electron, the repulsions take over attractive forces, hence it's an endothermic
process.

The correct answer is option 1.

Q. 8 Which of the following species contains three bond pairs and one lone pair around the
central atom?

Option 1:
H2 O

Option 2:
BF3

Option 3:

Option 4:
PCl3

Correct Answer:
PCl3

Solution:

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 Q. 9 Amongst the elements with following electronic configurations, which one of them may have
the highest ionization energy?

Option 1:
Ne [3s23p2]

Option 2:
Ar [3d104s24p3 ]

Option 3:
Ne [3s23p1]

Option 4:
Ne [3s23p3]

Correct Answer:
Ne [3s23p3]

Solution:
Option (d) has the highest ionisation energy because of extra stability associated with half-filled 3p-
orbital. In option (b), the presence of 3d10 electrons offers shielding effect, as a result the 4p3 electrons do
not experience much nuclear charge and hence the electrons can be removed easily.

Q. 10 XeF2 is isostructural with:

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 Option 1:
BaCl2

Option 2:
TeF2

Option 3:

Option 4:
SbCI3

Correct Answer:

Solution:
To find hybridization,

Where,

V is the number of valence electron central atom

M is the number of surrounding atoms except for O

Q is charge present(if any)

SN is the steric number which is equal to the total number of bond pair and lone pair of electrons.

For XeF2

Hence,sp3d hybridization, 2 bond pair and 3 lone pair.

For

Hence, hybridization is sp3d, 2 bond pair and 3 lone pair.

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 Therefore, Option(3) is correct.

Biology Section

Botany
Q. 1 The term 'Nuclein' for the genetic materials was used by:

Option 1:
Mendel

Option 2:
Franklin

Option 3:
Meischer

Option 4:
Chargaff

Correct Answer:
Meischer

Solution:
The term nuclein was given by Friedrich Meishner

Q. 2 Which one of the following never occurs during mitotic cell division?

Option 1:
Movement of centrioles towards opposite poles

Option 2:
Pairing of homologous chromosomes

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 Option 3:
Coiling and condensation of the chromatids

Option 4:
Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes

Correct Answer:
Pairing of homologous chromosomes
Solution:
Pairing of homologous chromosomes accurate prophase, I of meiosis.

Movement of centrioles towards opposite holes, coiling and condensation of the chromatics and
attachment of spindle fibers to the kinetochores of chromosomes Occur in both meiosis and mitosis.

Hence, the correct option is (2).

Q. 3 Which one of the following belongs to the family Muscidae?

Option 1:
Fire fly

Option 2:
Grasshopper

Option 3:
Crockroach

Option 4:
House fly

Correct Answer:
House fly

Solution:
Correct option is (d)

House fly

Q. 4 The size of Pleuropneumonia - like Organism (PPLO) is

Option 1:
1-2

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 Option 2:
10 -20

Option 3:
0.1

Option 4:
0.02

Correct Answer:
0.1
Solution:
PPLO is pleuropneumonia-like organisms. It is also known as mycoplasma (jokers of microbiology) and
has a diameter of 0.1 micrometers.

Q. 5 Which of the following pair of organelles does not contain DNA?

Option 1:
Mitochondria and Lysosomes

Option 2:
Chloroplast and Vacuole

Option 3:
Lysosomes and Vacuoles

Option 4:
Nuclear envelope and Mitochondria

Correct Answer:
Lysosomes and Vacuoles

Solution:

Mitochondria -

Each mitochondria is a double membrane bound structure with the outer membrane and the inner
membrane dividing its lumen distinctly into two aqueous compartments.

- wherein

It is the site of aerobic respiration. It produces cellular energy in the form of ATP, hence called as 'power
house' of the cell.

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 Nucleus, Mitochondria and Plastids contain DNA. Mitochondria and plastids are called semi autonomus
because they can form some of the proteins using their own DNA . Vacuoles and lysosomes do not
conatin DNA.

Q. 6 Attachment of spindle fibers to kinetochores of chromosomes becomes evident in:

Option 1:
Teleophase

Option 2:
Prophase

Option 3:
Metaphase

Option 4:
Anaphase

Correct Answer:
Metaphase

Solution:
Spindle fibres attached tothe kinetochore are clearly evident in Metaphase

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 Q. 7 Match the following events that occur in their respective phases cell cycle and select the
correct option:

(a) G1 Phase (i) Cell grows and organelle duplication

(b) S phase (ii) DNA replication and chromosome

duplication

(c) G2 phase (iii) Cytoplasmic growth

(d) Metaphase in M- (iv) Alignment of chromosomes

phase

Option 1:
a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

Option 2:
a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

Option 3:
a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

Option 4:
a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

Correct Answer:
a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

Solution:
G1, S and G2 are stages of Interphase while M phase is the mitotic phase

(a) G1 Phase (i) Cell grows and organelle duplication

(b) S phase (ii) DNA replication and chromosome duplication
(c) G2 phase (iii) Cytoplasmic growth
(d) Metaphase in M-phase (iv) Alignment of chromosomes
Q. 8 Given below are two statements:

Statement I: RNA mutates at a faster rate.

Statement II: Viruses having RNA genome and shorter life span mutate and evolve faster.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below:

Option 1:
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

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 Option 2:
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

Option 3:
Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Option 4:
Statement I false but Statement II is true.

Correct Answer:
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Solution:
Option 1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

Both statements are correct. RNA generally mutates at a faster rate compared to DNA due to the inherent
properties of RNA molecules. Viruses with RNA genomes tend to have higher mutation rates, and their
shorter life spans allow for faster evolution through the accumulation of mutations. These mutations
contribute to the diversity and adaptability of RNA viruses.

Q. 9 Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

Option 1:
Viroids lack a protein coat.

Option 2:
Viruses are obligate parasites.

Option 3:
Infective constitiuent in viruses is the protein coat.

Option 4:
Prions consist of abnormally folded proteins.

Correct Answer:
Infective constitiuent in viruses is the protein coat.

Solution:

Viruses -

Nucleoprotein entity which require living host to replicate themselves utilising its synthetic machinery.

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 Viruses are made up of protein coat and genetic material. The genetic material is inserted into the
host for multiplication and growth of viruses. Hence, genetic material is the infectious constituent.

Q. 10 Which of the following are NOT considered as the part of endomembrane system?
A. Mitochondria B. Endoplasmic Reticulum
C.Chloroplast D. Golgi complex
E. Peroxisomes

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Option 1:
A and D only

Option 2:
A, C and E only

Option 3:
A and D only

Option 4:
A, D and E only

Correct Answer:
A, C and E only

Solution:
Mitochondria, Chloroplasts, and Peroxisomes are not considered part of the endomembrane system. The
endomembrane system primarily includes the endoplasmic reticulum and the Golgi complex, which are
involved in the synthesis, modification, and transport of proteins and lipids within the cell.

Mitochondria are responsible for cellular respiration and energy production, and they have their own
distinct membrane system separate from the endomembrane system. Chloroplasts are found in plant
cells and are responsible for photosynthesis, which involves the conversion of light energy into chemical
energy. Peroxisomes are involved in various metabolic processes, including the breakdown of fatty acids,
detoxification of harmful substances, and synthesis of certain lipids. These organelles have their own
unique functions and are not part of the endomembrane system.

Option 2 is the correct answer

Zoology
Q. 11 The essential chemical components of many coenzymes are:

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 Option 1:
Vitamins

Option 2:
Proteins

Option 3:
Nucleic acids

Option 4:
Carbohydrates

Correct Answer:
Vitamins

Solution:
Vitamins are the most essential chemical components of many coenzymes.

Q. 12 Which one of the following is the correct statement for respiration in human?

Option 1:
Cigarette smoking may lead of inflammation of bronchi

Option 2:
Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre in pons region of brain can increase the duration of
inspiration

Option 3:
Workers in grinding and stone - breaking industries may suffer, from lung fibrosis

Option 4:
About 90%of carbon dioxide (CO2) is carried by haemoglobin as carbamino haemoglobin

Correct Answer:
Workers in grinding and stone - breaking industries may suffer, from lung fibrosis

Solution:
As we learnt in

DISORDERS OF RESPIRATORY SYSTEM -

Occupational Respiratory Disorders

- wherein

In certain industries, especially those involving grinding or stone-breaking, so much dust is produced that
the defense mechanism of the body cannot fully cope with the situation. Long exposure can give rise to
inflammation leading to fibrosis (proliferation of fibrous tissues) and thus causing serious lung damage.
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 lung fibrosis occurrs due to dust

Q. 13 Figure shows schematic plan of blood circulation in humans with labels A to D. Identify the
label and give its function/s.

Option 1:
D - Dorsal aorta - takes blood from heart to body parts, PO2 = 95 mm Hg

Option 2:
A - Pulmonary vein - takes impure blood from body parts, PO2 = 60 mm Hg

Option 3:
B- Pulmonary artery -takes blood from heart to lungs, PO2 = 90 mm Hg

Option 4:
C - Vena Cava - takes blood from body parts to right auricle, PCO2 = 45 mm Hg

Correct Answer:
C - Vena Cava - takes blood from body parts to right auricle, PCO2 = 45 mm Hg

Solution:

as we have studied in-

Double circulation in humans

The circulation in humans is referred to as being double circulation as it includes two circulations i.e.
systemic circulation and pulmonary circulation

Systemic circulation

Systemic circulation is important for transporting oxygen and nutrients to different tissues of the body
and removing carbon dioxide and other wastes from the tissue
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 This type of circulation includes flow of oxygenated blood from the left ventricle to all parts of the body
and deoxygenated blood from various body parts to the right atrium.
The arteries of the systemic circulation arise from aorta. It also includes bronchial arteries which carry
nutrients to the lungs
Veins bring deoxygenated blood into the superior vena cava, inferior vena cava or the coronary sinus
which opens into the right atrium

Pulmonary circulation

Pulmonary circulation includes the flow of deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs and
return of oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium.
The pulmonary trunk arises from the right ventricle and then bifurcates into the right pulmonary artery
and left pulmonary artery
Right pulmonary artery and left pulmonary artery supply deoxygenated blood to the right and left lungs
respectively. Exchange of gases occurs in lungs
Similarly, two pulmonary veins from each lung transport oxygenated blood to the left atrium

Human blood circulation is responsible for the transport of nutrients and oxygen to the different parts of
the body.
Oxygen-rich blood travels through the pulmonary vein and the left atrium into the left ventricle. So, the
partial pressure of oxygen will be very high.
The pulmonary artery carries the deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs.

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 Since the blood is deoxygenated, the blood will have a more partial pressure of carbon dioxide than
oxygen.
Aorta carries the oxygen-rich blood from the left side of the heart to the body.
The vena cava is responsible for carrying the deoxygenated blood from the lower and middle parts of the
body to the right atrium.
The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in vena cava or veins is equal to 45 mm Hg.
The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood is equal to 100 mm Hg.

Hence, the correct answer is ' Vena Cava - takes blood from body parts to right auricle, PCO2 = 45 mm Hg'

Q. 14 Which of the following causes an increase in sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted
tubule?

Option 1:
Increase in aldosterone levels

Option 2:
Increase in antidiuretic hormone levels

Option 3:
Decrease in aldosterone levels

Option 4:
Decrease in antidiuretic hormone levels

Correct Answer:
Increase in aldosterone levels

Solution:
As we learnt in

Aldosterone -

Aldosterone acts mainly at the renal tubules and stimulates the reabsorption of Na+ and water and
excretion of K+ and phosphate ions.

- wherein

Thus, aldosterone helps in the maintenance of electrolytes, body fluid volume, osmotic pressure and
blood pressure. Small amounts of androgenic steroids are also secreted by the adrenal cortex which play
a role in the growth of axial hair, pubic hair and facial hair during puberty

Reabsorption of Na+ and water in DST

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 Q. 15 The characteristics and an example of a synovial joint in humans is:

Characteristics Examples

Option 1:

lymph filled between two bones, limited gliding joint between

movement carpals

Option 2:

fuid cartilage between two bones, limited movements Knee joint

Option 3:

fluid filled between two joints, provides cushion skull bones

Option 4:

fluid filled synovial cavity between two joint between atlas and
bones axis

Correct Answer:

fluid filled synovial cavity between two joint between atlas and
bones axis

Solution:

As we have learnt in:

Synovial or Freely Movable Joints:

Synovial joints are characterised by the presence of a fluid-filled synovial cavity between the articulating
surfaces of the two bones.
Such an arrangement allows considerable movement.

All articulations between bones that help in a certain kind of movement are placed at a distance from
each other to prevent friction between them during movement. This space between the two bones is
filled with synovial fluid that also helps reduce friction. For example the ball and socket joint of the pelvic
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 girdle, the pivotal joint between the atlas and the axis.-

Q. 16 A phosphoglyceride is always made up of:

Option 1:
a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a phosphate group which is also attached to a
glycerol molecule

Option 2:
only a saturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also
attached

Option 3:
only an unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also
attached

Option 4:
a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is
also attached

Correct Answer:
a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is
also attached

Solution:
As we learnt in

Hydrolases -

Enzymes catalyzing hydrolysis of ester, ether, peptide, glycosidic , C-C, C-halide or P-N bonds

Fatty acids are esterified with glycerol. Fatty acids can be saturated or unsaturated.

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 Q. 17 The figure shows a diagrammatic view of human respiratory system with labels A, B, C and D.
Select the option which gives correct identification and main function and/or characteristic.

Option 1:

D - Lower end of lungs - diaphragm pulls it down during inspiration.

Option 2:
A - trachea - long tube supported by complete cartilaginous rings for conducting inspired air.

Option 3:
B - pleural membrane - surround ribs on both sides to provide cushion against rubbing.

Option 4:
C - Alveoli - thin walled vascular bag like structures for exchange of gases.

Correct Answer:
C - Alveoli - thin walled vascular bag like structures for exchange of gases.

Solution:
The trachea (or windpipe) is a wide, hollow tube that connects the larynx (or voice box) to the bronchi of
the lungs.

The lungs are surrounded by two membranes, the pleurae. The outer pleura is attached to the chest wall
and is known as the parietal pleura; the inner one is attached to the lung and other visceral tissues and is
known as the visceral pleura. In between the two is a thin space known as the pleural cavity or pleural
space. It is filled with pleural fluid, a serous fluid produced by the pleura.

The alveoli are tiny air sacs within the lungs where the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide takes
place. The pulmonary alveoli are the terminal ends of the respiratory tree.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Alveoli - thin walled vascular bag like structures for exchange of gases.'

Q. 18 Which one of the following human organs is often called the '' Graveyard'' of RBC's?

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 Option 1:
Kidney

Option 2:
Spleen

Option 3:
Liver

Option 4:
Gall bladder

Correct Answer:
Spleen

Solution:
As we learnt in

Lifespan of RBCs -

RBCs have an average life span of 120 days after which they are destroyed in the spleen (graveyard of
RBCs).

Spleen is the graveyard of RBCs

Q. 19 Choose the correctly matched pair:

Option 1:
Inner lining of salivary ducts - Ciliated epithelium

Option 2:
Moist surface of buccal cavity - Glandular epithelium

Option 3:
Tubular parts of nephrons - Cuboidal epithelium

Option 4:
Inner surface of bronchioles - squamous epithelium

Correct Answer:
Tubular parts of nephrons - Cuboidal epithelium

Solution:
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 As we learnt in

FUNCTION OF THE TUBULES -

Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT)

- wherein

PCT is lined by simple cuboidal brush border epithelium which increases the surface area for
reabsorption. Nearly all of the essential nutrients, and 70-80 per cent of electrolytes and water are
reabsorbed by this segment

Cuboidal epithelium is present in tubular part of nephrons.

Q. 20 The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due to:

Option 1:
extension of myosin filaments in the central portion of the A - band.

Option 2:
the absence of myofibrils in the central portion of A - band.

Option 3:
the central gap between myosin filaments in the A-band.

Option 4:
the central gap between actin filaments extending through myosin filaments in the A -band.

Correct Answer:
the central gap between actin filaments extending through myosin filaments in the A -band.

Solution:

As we have learnt in Sarcomere -

The smallest unit of the skeletal muscle is called the sarcomere.

The sarcomere consists of the thick and thin filament.
The thin filament is made up of the globular protein called actin.
The thick filament is made up of the protein called myosin.
The light bands contain actin and are called I-band or Isotropic band, whereas the dark band called ‘A’ or
Anisotropic band contains myosin.
Both the proteins are arranged as rod-like structures, parallel to each other and also to the longitudinal
axis of the myofibrils.
In the centre of each ‘I’ band is an elastic fibre called ‘Z’ line which bisects it.
The thin filaments are firmly attached to the ‘Z’ line.
The thick filaments in the ‘A’ band are also held together in the middle of this band by a thin fibrous
membrane called ‘M’ line.
The ‘A’ and ‘I’ bands are arranged alternately throughout the length of the myofibrils.

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 The portion of the myofibril between two successive ‘Z’ lines is considered as the functional unit of
contraction and is called a sarcomere. The length of a sarcomere is about 2 -3 micron
In a resting state, the edges of thin filaments on either side of the thick filaments partially overlap the free
ends of the thick filaments leaving the central part of the thick filaments.
This central part of thick filament, not overlapped by thin filaments is called the ‘H’ zone.

- Hence, the correct answer is 'the central gap between actin filaments extending through myosin
filaments in the A -band.'

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 Mock Test 3

Physics
Q. 1 A particle of mass M starting from rest undergoes uniform acceleration. If the speed
acquired in time T is V, the power delivered to the particle is

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Power delivered in time T is

or

Hence correct option is 2.

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 Q. 2 A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and there are 50m divisions in its cirular sacle.
The pitch of the screw gauge is:

Option 1:
0.01mm

Option 2:
0.25 mm

Option 3:
0.5 mm

Option 4:
1.0 mm

Correct Answer:
0.5 mm

Solution:
As, Least count of screw gauge =

So,

Q. 3 A small block slides down on a smooth inclined plane, starting from rest at time t=0. Let Sn
be the distance travelled by the block in the interval
t=n-1 to t=n.

Then, the ratio is:

Option 1:

Option 2:

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 Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

From to

From

From

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 Q. 4 A body of mass M hits normally a rigid wall with velocity V and bounces back with the same
velocity. The impulse experienced by the body is:

Option 1:
Zero

Option 2:
MV

Option 3:
1.5 MV

Option 4:
2 MV

Correct Answer:
2 MV

Solution:
As we learnt in

Impulse -

Impulse = Change in momentum

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 Q. 5 Force F on a particle moving in a straight line varies with distance d as shown in the figure.
The work done on the particle during its displacement of 12 m is:

Option 1:
13 J

Option 2:
18 J

Option 3:
21 J

Option 4:
26 J

Correct Answer:
13 J

Solution:
As we learnt in

Definition of work by constant force -

w=

I.e The scalar product of the force vector ( ) and the displacement vector ( )

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 Work done = Area under (f.d) graph = Area of rectangle ABCD + Area of triangle DCE

Q. 6 A vehicle travels half the distance with speed v and the remaining with speed 2v. Its average
speed is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Q. 7 The dimension of are :

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 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Permittivity of free space -

- wherein

speed of light

C=

so dimension of

Q. 8 A missile is fired for maximum range with an initial velocity of 20m/s. If g=10m/s2, the range
of the missile is

Option 1:
40m

Option 2:
50m

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 Option 3:
60m

Option 4:
20m

Correct Answer:
40m
Solution:
As learnt in

Q. 9 A person of mass 60 kg is inside a lift of mass 940 kg and presses the button on control
panel. The lift starts moving upwards with an acceleration 1.0 m/s2. If g = 10 ms-2, the
tension in the supporting cable is:

Option 1:
1200 N

Option 2:
8600 N

Option 3:
9680 N

Option 4:
11000 N

Correct Answer:
11000 N

Solution:

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 Q. 10 An engine pumps water through a hose pipe. Water passes through the pipe and leaves it
with a velocity of 2 m/s. The mass per unit length of water in the pipe is 100 kg/m. What is
the power of the engine?

Option 1:
800 W

Option 2:
400 W

Option 3:
200 W

Option 4:
100 W

Correct Answer:
400 W

Solution:

Chemistry
Q. 1 When 22.4 litres of H2(g) is mixed with 11.2 litres of Cl2(g), each at S.T.P, the moles of HCl(g)
formed is equal to:

Option 1:
1 mol of HCl (g)

Option 2:
2 mol of HCl (g)

Option 3:
0.5 mol of HCl (g)

Option 4:
1.5 mol of HCl (g)

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 Correct Answer:
1 mol of HCl (g)
Solution:
As we learnt in

Number of Moles of a gas at STP = given volume of gas / 22.4 litre

Concept of limiting reagent and excess reagent -

The reactant which gets consumed and thus limits the amount of product formed is called the limiting
reagent.

Therefore, 22.4 L volume at STP is occupied by

Therefore, 11.2 L volume will be occupied by,

Since, Cl2 possesses a minimum number of moles,

thus it is the limiting reagent.

As per the equation,

Therefore, the correct option is (1).

Q. 2 What is the maximum number of orbitals that can be identified with the following quantum
numbers?

n= 3, l = 1, ml = 0

Option 1:
1

Option 2:
2

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 Option 3:
3

Option 4:
4

Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
As we learnt in

Only one orbital, 3pz has following set of quantum numbers n = 3, l= 1, ml = 0

Therefore, the correct option is (1).

Q. 3 Amongst the elements with following electronic configurations, which one of them may have
the highest ionization energy?

Option 1:
Ne [3s23p2]

Option 2:
Ar [3d104s24p3]

Option 3:
Ne [3s23p1]

Option 4:
Ne [3s23p3]

Correct Answer:
Ne [3s23p3]

Solution:
Ionization energy generally increases from left to right along the period while decreasing from top to
bottom in a group.

Also, the half and fully filled are more stable electronic configurations.

Ne [3s23p3] and Ar [3d104s24p3] are more stable due to half filled p - orbitals but Ne [3s23p3] is smaller in
size hence, more ionization energy.

Q. 4 Which of the following is paramagnetic ?

Option 1:
NO+

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 Option 2:
CO

Option 3:

Option 4:
CN-

Correct Answer:

Solution:
superoxide has one unpaired electron. Since paramegnetism is shown by those molecules which
have at least one unpaired electron, hence, is paramagnetic.

Q. 5 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g O2 in a closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess
and how much?

(At. wt.Mg = 24; O = 16)

Option 1:
Mg, 0.16 g

Option 2:
O2 , 0.16 g

Option 3:
Mg, 0.44 g

Option 4:
O2, 0.28 g

Correct Answer:
Mg, 0.16 g

Solution:
The reaction is as follows:

moles of

moles of

According to reaction stoichiometry, 1 mole of Mg require 1/2 moles of O2.

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 So, moles of Mg require moles of O2 or 0.02083 moles of O2

Clearly, O2 is the limiting reagent.

moles of Mg required by 0.0175 moles of O2

we know 1 mole of Mg = 24 gram

so, 0.00667 mol = 0.00667 X molar mass

= 0.00667 X 24

= 0.16 g

Therefore, the correct option is (1).

Q. 6 Which of the following is not permissible arrangement of electrons in an atom?

Option 1:
n = 5, = 3, m = 0, s = + 1/2

Option 2:
n = 3, = 2, m = -3, s = - 1/2

Option 3:
n = 3, = 2, m = -2, s = - 1/2

Option 4:
n = 4, = 0, m = 0, s = - ?

Correct Answer:
n = 3, = 2, m = -3, s = - 1/2

Solution:
For an electron, n may be 1, 2....and l = 0 to (n - 1) and m = -l to l (including 0) and s = -1/2, +1/2 .

n = 3, l = 2, m = -3, s = - 1/2 is not permissible arrangement of electrons in an atom. because if l = 2 then m

can take the value from -2 to +2.

Therefore, the correct option is (2).

Q. 7 The pressure exerted by 6.0 g of methane gas in a 0.03 m3 vessel at 129°C is (Atomic masses
:C = 12.01, H = 1.01 and R = 8.314 JK-1 mol-1)

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 Option 1:
215216 Pa

Option 2:
13409 Pa

Option 3:
41648 Pa

Option 4:
31684 Pa

Correct Answer:
41648 Pa

Solution:
Given, the mass of CH4​, w = 6g
Volume of CH4​, V = 0.03m3
T = 129 oC = 129 + 273 = 402 K
R = 8.314 J K−1 mol−1

The molecular mass of CH4​, M=12.01+4.04=16.05

Hence, Option 3 is correct.

Q. 8 In which of the following molecules / ions , , and , the central atom is

sp2 hybridized?

Option 1:
and H2O

Option 2:
and H2O

Option 3:
BF3 and

Option 4:
and

Correct Answer:
BF3 and

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 Solution:
For hybridisation there are 3σ bonds or 2σ bonds with a lone pair (lp) of electrons.

Hence and have hybridization.

Q. 9 What is the mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00m aqueous solution?

Option 1:
0.177

Option 2:
1.770

Option 3:
0.0354

Option 4:
0.0177

Correct Answer:
0.0177

Solution:
As we learnt in

Given,

It is a 1.0 molal aqueous solution.

If we have 1 mole of solute in 1 molal solution.

Then, wt. of solvent will be = 1 kg

It is an aqueous solution means the solvent is water.

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 Option 4 is correct.

Q. 10 A 0.66 kg ball is moving with a speed of 100 m/s. The associated wavelength will be (h = 6.6 x
10-34 Js)

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Therefore, the correct option is (3).

Biology Section

Botany
Q. 1 The concept of " Omnis cellula -e-cellula" regarding cell division was first proposed by:

Option 1:
Rudolf Virchow

Option 2:
Theodore Schwann

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 Option 3:
Schleiden

Option 4:
Aristotle

Correct Answer:
Rudolf Virchow
Solution:

Cell Theory -

Cell theory states that all living matter, from the simplest of unicellular organisms to every complex
higher plants and animals, is composed of cells and each cell can act independently but functions as an
inetgral part of complete organism

Rudolf Virchow proposed the concept of " Omnis cellula -e-cellula" which means that the new cells arise
from the pre - existing cells. Thus, the first concept of the cell division was given by Rudolf Virchow.

Q. 2 Match the following events that occur in their respective phases cell cycle and select the
correct option:

(a) G1 Phase (i) Cell grows and organelle duplication

(b) S phase (ii) DNA replication and chromosome

duplication

(c) G2 phase (iii) Cytoplasmic growth

(d) Metaphase in M- (iv) Alignment of chromosomes

phase

Option 1:
a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

Option 2:
a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

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 Option 3:
a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

Option 4:
a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

Correct Answer:
a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
Solution:
G1, S and G2 are stages of Interphase while M phase is the mitotic phase

(a) G1 Phase (i) Cell grows and organelle duplication

(b) S phase (ii) DNA replication and chromosome duplication
(c) G2 phase (iii) Cytoplasmic growth
(d) Metaphase in M-phase (iv) Alignment of chromosomes
Q. 3 Select the correctly written scitific name of Mango which was first described by Carolus
Linnaeus :

Option 1:
Mangifera indica Car. Linn.

Option 2:
Mangifera indica Linn.

Option 3:
Magniferra indica

Option 4:
Magnifera Indica

Correct Answer:
Mangifera indica Linn.

Solution:

Nomenclature -

Science of providing distinct and proper names to an organism.

- wherein

There is a need to standardize the naming of an organism, so that it is known by same name across the world.

The scientific name along with the name of the author is written as :

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 Mangifera indica Linn.

Q. 4 In eubacteria, a cellular component that resembles eukaryotic cells is:

Option 1:
Plasma membrane

Option 2:
Nucleus

Option 3:
Ribosomes

Option 4:
Cell wall

Correct Answer:
Plasma membrane

Solution:
As we learnt in

Eubacteria -

Cosmopolitan in distribution

Rigid cell wall is present.

- wherein

They are of two type.

Bacteria
Cyano Bacteria

Eubacteria's cell wall is composed of peptidoglycan whereas in other eukaryotes, some consist of
cellwall (plant - composed of cellulose) while in others they are absent. Plasma membrane is composed of
phospholipoprotein in both.

Q. 5 The shorter and longer arm of a sub-metacentric chromosomes are referred as:

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 Option 1:
s- arm and l-arm respectively

Option 2:
p - arm and q- arm respectively

Option 3:
q- arm and p - arm respectively

Option 4:
m - arm and n - arm respectively

Correct Answer:
p - arm and q- arm respectively

Solution:

Types of chromosomes -

Based on the position of centromere, the chromosomes can be classified into four types:

1) Metacentric chromosome- middle centromere forming two equal arms.

2) Sub-metacentric- centromere slightly away from the center.

3)Acrocentric- centromere is situated close to its end

4)Telocentric- terminal centromere

- wherein

In submetacentric chromosomes the centromere is palced at submedian. The arms become unequal in
length. The short arm is called the p- arm and the long one is called q-arm.

Q. 6 In mitotic cycle, the correct sequence of phases is

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 Option 1:
G1, S, G2, M

Option 2:
M, G1, G2, S

Option 3:
G1, G2, S, M

Option 4:
S, G1, G2 , M

Correct Answer:
G1, S, G2, M

Solution:
The cell cycle consists of Interphase and Mitotic phase.
Interphase consists of G1, S and G2 phase
Mitotic phase consists of karyokinesis and cytokinesis

Q. 7 Select the correct combination of the statements (a-d) regarding the characteristics of
certain organisms

(a) Methanogens are Archaebacteria which produce methane in marshy areas

(b) Nostoc is a filamentous blue-green alga which fixes atmospheric nitrogen

(c) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria synthesize cellulose from glucose

(d) Mycoplasma lack a cell wall and can survive without oxygen

The correct statements are

Option 1:
(b), (c)

Option 2:
(a), (b), (c)

Option 3:
(b), (c), (d)

Option 4:
(a), (b), (d)

Correct Answer:
(a), (b), (d)

Solution:

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 In marshy places, archaebacteria called methanogens create methane. A filamentous blue-green
alga called nostoc fixes nitrogen in the atmosphere.

Since it has no cell walls, mycoplasma can live without oxygen.

Hence, option D is the right answer.

Q. 8 Which of the following statements is not correct ?

Option 1:
Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic enzymes.

Option 2:
The hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes are active under acidic .

Option 3:
Lysosomes are membrane bound structures.

Option 4:
Lysosomes are formed by the process of packaging in the endoplasmic reticulum.

Correct Answer:
Lysosomes are formed by the process of packaging in the endoplasmic reticulum.

Solution:

Golgi Apparatus -

Principally performs the function of packaging materials, to be delivered either to intracellular targets or
secreted outside of the cell.

- wherein

It is the important site for the formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids.

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 Lysosomes are the membrane found hydrolytic enzymes containing vesicles that are given off through
the golgi bodies.

Q. 9 Among eukaryotes, replication of DNA takes place in–

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The correct option is Option 2) S phase.

During the cell cycle of eukaryotes, DNA replication occurs during the S (synthesis) phase. The cell cycle
consists of different phases, including G1 (gap 1), S phase, G2 (gap 2), and M (mitosis) phase.

In the S phase, the cell's DNA is replicated, producing two identical copies of each chromosome. This
replication process ensures that each daughter cell receives a complete set of genetic information during
cell division. The S phase is characterized by active DNA synthesis, with DNA polymerases synthesizing
new DNA strands based on the existing template strands.

Therefore, DNA replication specifically takes place during the S phase of the cell cycle in eukaryotes.

Q. 10 Some hyperthermophilic organisms that grow in highly acidic (pH 2) habitats belong to the
two groups:

Option 1:
Liverworts and yeasts

Option 2:
Eubacteria and archaea

Option 3:
Cyanobacteria and diatoms

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 Option 4:
Protists and mosses

Correct Answer:
Eubacteria and archaea
Solution:
The creatures that are hyperthermophilic can endure temperatures of up to 120 degrees Celsius.
Some of these creatures can even endure at pH levels as low as 2. The bacterial and
archaebacterial species make up these organisms. These are prokaryotic species that can endure
harsh environments.

Hence, choice B is the right response.

Zoology
Q. 11 For its activity, Carboxypeptidase requires:

Option 1:
Iron

Option 2:
Niacin

Option 3:
Copper

Option 4:
Zinc

Correct Answer:
Zinc

Solution:
Carboxypeptidase is an enzyme that is secreted in the small intestine and it requires zinc as a cofactor for
its activity.

Q. 12 Reduction in pH of blood will:

Option 1:
reduce the rate of heart beat.

Option 2:
reduce the blood supply to the brain.

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 Option 3:
decrease the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen.

Option 4:
release bicarbonate ions by the liver.

Correct Answer:
decrease the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen.
Solution:

Oxygen Transport and Oxygen Dissociation Curve -

Blood is the medium of transport for and .

About 97 percent of is transported by RBCs in the blood.
The remaining 3 percent of is carried in a dissolved state through the plasma.
Haemoglobin is a red coloured iron-containing pigment present in the RBCs.
can bind with haemoglobin in a reversible manner to form oxyhaemoglobin. This is called O2-Hb
association.
Each haemoglobin molecule can carry a maximum of four molecules of .
Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is primarily related to the partial pressure of .

As we learnt in

Oxygen Dissociation Curve -

A sigmoid curve is obtained when percentage saturation of haemoglobin with O2 is plotted against the
. This curve is called the Oxygen dissociation curve and is highly useful in studying the effect of factors
like , H+ concentration, etc., on binding of O2 with haemoglobin.

- wherein

High concentration of H+ will reduce the pH, which will decrease the affinity of Hb with .

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 Q. 13 In mammals, which blood vessel would normally carry largest amount of urea?

Option 1:
Renal Vein

Option 2:
Dorsal Aorta

Option 3:
Hepatic Vein

Option 4:
Hepatic Portal Vein

Correct Answer:
Hepatic Vein

Solution:
Urea is synthesized in the liver maximum amount of urea is present in hepatic vein & urinal in renal Vein.

Q. 14 Figure shows human urinary system with structures labelled A to D. Select option which
correctly identifies them and gives their characteristics and/or functions.

Option 1:
D - Cortex - outer part of kidney and do not contain any part of nephrons.

Option 2:
A - Adrenal gland - located at the anterior part of kidney. Secrete Catecholamines which stimulate
glycogen breakdown.

Option 3:
B - Pelvis - broad funnel shaped space inner to hilum, directly connected to loops of Henle.

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 Option 4:
C - Medulla - inner zone of kidney and contains complete nephrons.

Correct Answer:
A - Adrenal gland - located at the anterior part of kidney. Secrete Catecholamines which stimulate
glycogen breakdown.
Solution:

As we have leant in:

Human Excretory System: Anatomy of Kidneys -

Towards the centre of the inner concave surface of the kidney is a notch called hilum through which
ureter, blood vessels and nerves enter.
A section through the kidney reveals an outer region called the renal cortex and an inner region called the
medulla.
The medulla is divided into a few conical masses (medullary pyramids) projecting into the calyces.
Emerging from the hilum is the renal pelvis, which is formed from the major and minor calyces in the
kidney.
The cortex extends in between the medullary pyramids as renal columns called Columns of Bertini.

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 A- Adrenal gland. The adrenal gland is a gland present on the upper pole of the kidney towards the
anterior surface. It has two parts cortex and medulla. Medulla releases catecholamines namely
adrenaline and noradrenaline. These help in increasing the blood sugar levels. One such mechanism is
glycogen breakdown.

B-Pelvis. The pelvis is a broad funnel-shaped space inner to the hilum. It is directly connected to
convoluted tubules but not to loops of Henle.

C.-Medulla. The medulla is the inner part of the kidney. It contains only loop of Henley of the nephrons
but not the complete nephron.

D-Cortex. Cortex is the outer part of the kidney. It contains glomerulus, PCT and DCT of the nephron.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Adrenal gland - located at the anterior part of the kidney. Secrete
Catecholamines which stimulate glycogen breakdown.'

Q. 15 Select the correct statement with respect to locomotion in humans:

Option 1:
The joint between adjacent vertebrae is a fibrous joint.

Option 2:
A decreased level of progesterone causes osteoporosis in old people.

Option 3:
Accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints causes their inflammation.

Option 4:
The vertebral column has 10 thoracic vertebrae.

Correct Answer:
Accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints causes their inflammation.

Solution:
As we learnt in

Disorders Of Muscular And Skeletal System -

Gout

- wherein

Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals.

Accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints and their inflammation called gout

Q. 16 Which one of the following statements is wrong?

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 Option 1:
Sucrose is a disaccharide.

Option 2:
Cellulose is a polysaccharide.

Option 3:
Uracil is a pyrimidine.

Option 4:
Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid.

Correct Answer:
Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid.

Solution:
As we learnt in

Amino acids that occur in proteins -

The R-group in proteinaceous amino acids could be

Hydrogen- amino acids is called glycine

methyl group -alanine, and

hydroxyl methyl - serine

- wherein

Glycine is simplest amino acid with hydrogen as side group.

Q. 17 Asthma may be attributed to:

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 Option 1:
bacterial infection of the lungs

Option 2:
allergic reaction of the mast cells in the lungs

Option 3:
inflammation of the trachea

Option 4:
accumulation of fluid in the lungs

Correct Answer:
allergic reaction of the mast cells in the lungs

Solution:
As we learnt in

DISORDERS OF RESPIRATORY SYSTEM -

Asthma

- wherein

Asthma is a difficulty in breathing causing wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles.

Asthma is one inflammation is bronchi and bronchioles due to a secretion of mast cells causes allergy.

Q. 18 Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is:

Option 1:
same as that in the aorta.

Option 2:
more than that in the carotid.

Option 3:
more than that in the pulmonary vein.

Option 4:
less than that in the venae cavae.

Correct Answer:
more than that in the pulmonary vein.

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 Solution:
As we learnt in

pulmonary artery and the aorta -

The openings of the right and the left ventricles into the pulmonary artery and the aorta respectively are
provided with the semilunar valves.

- wherein

The valves in the heart allows the flow of blood only in one direction, i.e., from the atria to the ventricles
and from the ventricles to the pulmonary artery or aorta. These valves prevent any backward flow.

The correct answer is (3), more than pulmonary vein pulmonary artery pressure is 3-20 mm Hg

Q. 19 Which one of the following options gives the correct categorisation of six animals according
to the type of nitrogenous wastes (A,B,C), they give out?

A B C

AMMONOTELIC UREOTELIC URICOTELIC

Option 1:

Frog, Aquatic Cockroach,

Lizards Amphibia, Pigeon
Humans

Option 2:

Aquatic Frog, Pigeon,Lizards

Amphibia Humans Cockroach

Option 3:

Aquatic Amphibia Cockroach, Frog,Pigeon,

Humans Lizards

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 Option 4:

Pigeon, Humans Aquatic, Cockroach,

Amphibia, Frog
Lizards

Correct Answer:

Aquatic Frog, Pigeon,Lizards

Amphibia Humans Cockroach

Solution:
As we learnt in

Ureotelic Animals -

Terrestrial adaptation necessitated the production of lesser toxic nitrogenous wastes like urea and uric
acid for conservation of water.

- wherein

Mammals, many terrestrial amphibians and marine fishes mainly excrete urea and are called ureotelic
animals.

Q. 20 Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as:

Option 1:
Spasm

Option 2:
Fatigue

Option 3:
Tetanus

Option 4:
Tonus

Correct Answer:
Tetanus

Solution:
As we learnt in

Disorders Of Muscular And Skeletal System -

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 Tetany

- wherein

Rapid spasms (wild contractions) in muscle due to low Ca++ in body fluid.

The correct answer is (3) tetanus, This disease is caused by bacteria Clostridium tetani. The bacteria
release a poison tetanospasmin in the body resulting in the blockage of nerve signals from the spinal cord
to the muscles thus causing muscle spasms and results in lockjaw.

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 Mock Test 4

Physics
Q. 1 A student measured the diameter of a small steel ball using a screw gauge of least count
0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and zero of circular scale division coincides with
25 divisions above the reference level. If screw gauge has a zero error of — 0.004 cm, the
correct diameter of the ball is

Option 1:
0.053 cm

Option 2:
0.525 cm

Option 3:
0.521 cm

Option 4:
0.529 cm

Correct Answer:
0.529 cm

Solution:
Reading of screw gauge = MSR+VSR*LC+ZERO ERROR

Q. 2 A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5 at t=4s a ball is dropped out of a window by
a person sitting in the car .what is the velocity and acceleration of the ball at t=6s?

(Take )

Option 1:
20 ,5

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 Option 2:
20 ,0

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
[ along horizontal direction ]

at

Ball when released at from to

Q. 3 A particle moves in a circle of radius 5 cm with constant speed and time period 0.2 The
acceleration of the particle is

Option 1:
15m/s2

Option 2:
25m/s2

Option 3:
36m/s2

Option 4:
5m/s2

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 Correct Answer:
5m/s2
Solution:
As we learnt in

Centripetal acceleration -

When a body is moving in a uniform circular motion, a force is responsible to change direction of its velocity.This
force acts towards the centre of circle and is called centripetal force.Acceleration produced by this force is centripetal
acceleration.

- wherein

Figure Shows Centripetal acceleration

Q. 4 A ball moving with velocity 2 m/s collides head on with another stationary ball of double the
mass. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.5 then their velocities (in m/s) after collision will be

Option 1:
0, 2

Option 2:
0, 1

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 Option 3:
1, 1

Option 4:
1, 0.5

Correct Answer:
0, 1
Solution:
solution

Q. 5 The dimensions belong to the?

Option 1:
self inductance

Option 2:
magnetic permeability

Option 3:
electric permittivity.

Option 4:
magnetic flux.

Correct Answer:
magnetic permeability

Solution:
We know that,

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 the force per unit length between two current-carrying conductors is

The correct option is (2)

Q. 6 A particle of unit mass undergoes one-dimensional motion such that its velocity varies
according to

where and n are constants and x is the position of the particle. The acceleration of the
particle as a function of x, is given by:

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As we learnt in

Acceleration -

Rate of change of velocity with time.

For: a=change in velocity / change in time

- wherein

Eg. A car starting from rest accelerates uniformly to a speed of 75 m/s in 12 seconds. What is car’s acceleration ?

0
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 75 m/s

a = 6.25 m/s2

Q. 7 Which one of the following statements is incorrect ?

Option 1:
Frictional force opposes the relative motion.

Option 2:
Limiting value of static friction is directly proportional to normal reaction.

Option 3:
Rolling friction is smaller than sliding friction.

Option 4:
Coefficient of sliding friction has dimensions of length.

Correct Answer:
Coefficient of sliding friction has dimensions of length.

Solution:
As we have learned

Kinetic or Dynamic Friction -

kinetic friction
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 coefficient of kinetic friction

R = reaction

- wherein

depends on the nature of surface in contact.

Coefficient of sliding friction is dimension lessThis is incorrect

Q. 8 The potential energy of a system increases if work is done

Option 1:
Upon the system by a non conservative force

Option 2:
By the system against a conservative force

Option 3:
By the system against a non conservative force

Option 4:
upon the system by a conservatice force

Correct Answer:
upon the system by a conservatice force

Solution:

Conservative Force -

- wherein

Negative of the rate of change of potential energy with respect to position

If work done upon the system by a conservative force

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 Q. 9 A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined wedge ABC of inclination as shown in
the figure. The wedge is given an acceleration 'a' towards the right. The relation between a
and for the block to remain stationary on the wedge is

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As we have learned

Equilibrium of Concurrent Forces -

If all the forces working on a body are acting on the same point then they are said to be concurrent.

- wherein

Three forces will be in equilibrium if they are represented by three sides of triangle taken in order

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 For Block to be stationary net force along the plane =0

Q. 10 The dimesnions of

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As we learnt in

Dimension -

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 The power to which fundamental quantities must be raised in order to express the given physical
quantities.

Chemistry
Q. 1 The number of water molecules is maximum in :

Option 1:
18 molecules of water

Option 2:
1.8 gram of water

Option 3:
18 gram of water

Option 4:
18 moles of water

Correct Answer:
18 moles of water

Solution:
Mole Concept -

one mole = 6.0221367 1023 = NA

Let us check the number of molecules in each option.

18 molecules of water have 18 molecules

1.8 grams of water has

18 grams of water has

18 moles of water has 18 NA molecules

Therefore, the correct option is (4).

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 Q. 2 Which one of the following ions has electronic configuration [Ar]3d6?

(At. nos. Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27, Ni = 28)

Option 1:
Co3+

Option 2:
Ni3+

Option 3:
Mn3+

Option 4:
Fe3+

Correct Answer:
Co3+

Solution:
The electronic configuration of

Correction option is 1.

Q. 3 Among the following which one has the highest cation to anion size ratio?

Option 1:
CsI

Option 2:
CsF

Option 3:
LiF

Option 4:
NaF

Correct Answer:
CsF

Solution:
The cation to anion size ratio will be maximum when the cation is of largest size and the anion is of
smallest size. Among the given species, has maximum size among given cations and has the
smallest size among given anions, thus CsF has the highest ratio.

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 Q. 4 In Which of the following ionisation processes the bond energy increases and the magnetic
behavior changes from paramagnetic to diamagnetic?

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Magnetic behavior of molecule -

If all the molecular orbital's electrons in a molecule are doubly occupied, the substance is diamagnetic

Bond strength -

The energy required to break one mole of bonds of a particular type in the gaseous state is called bond
energy or bond strength.

we know,

Bond energy Bond order

Now,

Electronic config of

B.O =

Electronic config of

B.O =

Since there are no unpaired electrons in NO+ as there are in NO,

NO+ is diamagnetic while NO is paramagnetic due to 1 unpaired electron.

Q. 5 What is the mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 m aqueous solution ?

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 Option 1:
0.177

Option 2:
1.770

Option 3:
0.0354

Option 4:
0.0177

Correct Answer:
0.0177

Solution:
As we learned in

Q. 6 The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation
between their wavelengths i.e and will be:

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
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 We know that,

Hence, the option number (2) is correct.

Q. 7 The correct order of the decreasing ionic radii among the following isoelectronic species is :

Option 1:
K+ > Ca2+ > Cl- > S2-

Option 2:
Ca2+ > K+ > S2- > Cl-

Option 3:
Cl- > S2- > Ca2+ > K+

Option 4:
S2- > Cl- > K+ > Ca2+

Correct Answer:
S2- > Cl- > K+ > Ca2+

Solution:
For isoelectronic species zeff increases, radii decreases

Q. 8 Which one of the following molecules contains no bond?

Option 1:

Option 2:

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 Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Pi bond -

This type of bond is formed by sidewise or lateral over lapping of two half filled atomic orbitals.

- wherein

It has no bond as H does not have any vacant orbitals for a bond

Q. 9 Which of the following represents the correct order of increasing electron gain enthalpy with
negative sign for the elements O, S, F and Cl

Option 1:
Cl < F < O < S

Option 2:
O < S < F < Cl

Option 3:
F < S < O < Cl

Option 4:
S < O < Cl < F

Correct Answer:
O < S < F < Cl
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 Solution:
As we learnt

Variation of electron gain enthalpy in periodic table -

1. Electron gain enthalpy decreases down the group.

2. Generally, electron gains enthalpy increases (more negative) along the period.

Period second elements have lower electron gain enthalpy than period third elements due to smaller size
of period second elements, on addition of extra electron,it experience more electronic replusions but
due to larger of size of period third elements, the repulsions are less and hence higher electron gain
enthalpy.

Also, 17th group elements (Cl and F) have higher electron gain enthalpy than 16th group elements (O and
S)

Cl and F > O and S (Electron gain enthalpy)

and citing above reasons, we can say

Cl > F and S > O

Overall, we have the following order of electron gain enthalpy:

Cl > F > S > O

Q. 10 Which one of the following species has plane triangular shape?

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:
CO2

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Species with sp2 hybridization are plane triangular in shape. Among the given species NO3- is
hybridised with no lone pair of electrons on the central atom, N. whereas, N3, and CO2 are sp
hybridised with a linear shape

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 is hybridised with a bent shape.

Biology Section

Botany
Q. 1 Which of the following functions is carried out by cytoskeleton in a cell ?

Option 1:
Nuclear division

Option 2:
Protein synthesis

Option 3:
Motility

Option 4:
Transportation

Correct Answer:
Motility

Solution:
The correct answer is Option 3) Motility.

The cytoskeleton is a network of protein filaments found in the cytoplasm of cells. It plays a crucial role in
providing structural support, maintaining cell shape, and facilitating various cellular processes. One of the
key functions of the cytoskeleton is cell motility, which includes the movement of cells themselves and the
movement of cellular components within the cell.

The cytoskeleton is responsible for the movement of cells through processes such as amoeboid
movement, ciliary/flagellar movement, and muscle contraction. It provides the necessary structure and
organization for these movements to occur.

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 While nuclear division (Option 1) is primarily regulated by the spindle apparatus during mitosis and
meiosis and protein synthesis (Option 2) is carried out by ribosomes, the cytoskeleton is not directly
involved in these specific processes.

Transportation (Option 4) can involve the cytoskeleton indirectly, as it provides tracks or highways for
intracellular transport, but it is not the primary function of the cytoskeleton. The cytoskeleton's primary
role in transportation is to help maintain the cellular architecture and provide support for the transport
systems.

Therefore, the correct function carried out by the cytoskeleton in a cell is Option 3) Motility.

Q. 2 Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere?

Option 1:
Metaphase I

Option 2:
Metaphase II

Option 3:
Anaphase II

Option 4:
Telophase

Correct Answer:
Anaphase II

Solution:
The correct option is Option 3) Anaphase II.

During meiosis, which is the process of cell division that produces gametes (sex cells), the division of the
centromere occurs during Anaphase II.

Anaphase II is the stage in meiosis II where the sister chromatids, which are the replicated copies of the
chromosomes, are separated. The centromere, which holds the sister chromatids together, divides and
allows the chromatids to move towards opposite poles of the cell.

In contrast, in Metaphase I, the homologous pairs of chromosomes align at the cell's equator, and the
centromeres are still intact. Metaphase II is when the individual chromosomes line up at the equator, and
the centromeres are ready to divide in Anaphase II.

Therefore, it is during Anaphase II of meiosis that the division of the centromere occurs.

Q. 3 Biodiversity of a geographical region represents

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 Option 1:
Genetic diversity present in the dominant species of the region

Option 2:
Species endemic to the region

Option 3:
Endangered species found in the region

Option 4:
The diversity in the organisms living in the region

Correct Answer:
The diversity in the organisms living in the region

Solution:
Edward Wilson, a sociobiologist, popularized the term "biodiversity" to describe the total diversity
(varieties and variabilities) of all levels of biological organization of plants, animals, fungi, and
other life forms.

The correct response is option 4).

Q. 4 Organisms called methanogens are most abundant in a:

Option 1:
Sulphur rock

Option 2:
cattle yard

Option 3:
polluted stream

Option 4:
hot spring

Correct Answer:
cattle yard

Solution:
As we learnt in

Methanogens -

Autotrophs
Obligate anaerobes
Gram negative bacteria
Produce methane gas from CO2 or formic acid
Lives in digestive tracks of grazing animals and rotten selvage.

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 - wherein

Eg. Methane coccus

Methanebacterium

Q. 5 How many different proteins does the ribosome consist of ?

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

The correct option is Option 1) 80.

The ribosome is a complex molecular machine involved in protein synthesis. It is composed of two
subunits, the large subunit and the small subunit, which come together during protein synthesis and
dissociate afterward. These subunits consist of a combination of proteins and RNA molecules called
ribosomal RNA (rRNA).

In eukaryotes, the ribosome consists of 80 different proteins in total. The large subunit contains
approximately 50 different proteins, while the small subunit contains around 30 different proteins. These
proteins play essential roles in various aspects of protein synthesis, including mRNA binding, tRNA
binding, and catalyzing the formation of peptide bonds.

Therefore, Option 1) 80 is the correct answer for the number of different proteins that the ribosome
consists of.

Q. 6 The process of appearance of recombination nodules occurs at which sub stage of prophase
I in meiosis?

Option 1:
Zygotene

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 Option 2:
Pachytene

Option 3:
Diplotene

Option 4:
Diakinesis

Correct Answer:
Pachytene
Solution:
The correct option is Option 2) Pachytene.

Recombination nodules, also known as recombination sites or synaptonemal complexes, are structures
that facilitate the exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes during meiosis.
These structures are important for genetic recombination and the generation of genetic diversity.

The appearance of recombination nodules occurs during the substage of prophase I called Pachytene.
Prophase I is the longest and most complex phase of meiosis, consisting of several sub-stages: leptotene,
zygotene, pachytene, diplotene, and diakinesis.

During Pachytene, homologous chromosomes pair up and undergo synapsis, where they become closely
associated. The synaptonemal complex, which includes the recombination nodules, forms between the
paired chromosomes. This complex helps to align the homologous chromosomes and promote the
exchange of genetic material through a process called crossing over.

After Pachytene, the chromosomes continue to condense and undergo further changes in the
subsequent sub-stages of prophase I, namely diplotene and diakinesis. In diplotene, the synaptonemal
complex becomes more visible, and the homologous chromosomes begin to separate but remain
connected at specific points called chiasmata. Diakinesis is the final sub-stage of prophase I, where the
chromosomes fully condense and prepare for metaphase I.

Therefore, the appearance of recombination nodules occurs at the substage of prophase I called
Pachytene, as stated in Option 2.

Q. 7 Which one of the following organisms is not an example of eukaryotic cells?

Option 1:
paramecium caudatum

Option 2:
Escherichia coli

Option 3:
Euglena viridis

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 Option 4:
Amoeba proteus

Correct Answer:
Escherichia coli
Solution:
As we learnt in

Bacteria -

Microscopic, Unicellular, true prokaryotes reproduced by binary fission

Ribosome 70 S

- wherein

Divided in to four type based on shape.

Coccus
Bacillus
Vibrio
Spirula

Escherichia coli is a bacteria which belongs to prokaryotes.

Q. 8 Which of the following statements regarding mitochondria is incorrect ?

Option 1:
Outer membrane is permeable to monomers of carbohydrates, fats and proteins.

Option 2:
Enzymes of electron transport are embedded in outer membrane.

Option 3:
Inner membrane is convoluted with infoldings.

Option 4:
Mitochondrial matrix contains single circular DNA molecule and ribosomes.

Correct Answer:
Enzymes of electron transport are embedded in outer membrane.

Solution:

Mitochondria -

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 Each mitochondria is a double membrane bound structure with the outer membrane and the inner
membrane dividing its lumen distinctly into two aqueous compartments.

- wherein

It is the site of aerobic respiration. It produces cellular energy in the form of ATP, hence called as 'power
house' of the cell.

Mitochondria are the ATP producing organelles. The electron transport chain is responsible for
generation of ATPs through chemiosmosis.The enzymes for the electron transport chain are embedded in
inner membrane.

Q. 9 Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during

Option 1:
Pachytene

Option 2:
Zygotene

Option 3:
Diplotene

Option 4:
Leptotene

Correct Answer:
Diplotene

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 Solution:
The dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during the diplotene stage.

Q. 10 Infectious proteins are present in

Option 1:
Satellite viruses

Option 2:
Gemini viruses

Option 3:
Prions

Option 4:
Viroids

Correct Answer:
Prions

Solution:
Prions are infectious proteins. It is entirely made of protein, which folds to create a certain
structure. Many degenerative brain conditions, including kuru, mad cow disease, Creutzfeldt-
Jakob disease, fatal familial insomnia, and an uncommon type of hereditary dementia known as
Gerstmann-Straeussler-Scheinker disease are caused by it. It has RNA that is covered in a protein
sheath. Geminiviruses have a protein coat (capsid) and single-stranded DNA, which aid in their
ability to enter their host. Viroids lack a protein capsule and are only made up of RNA molecules.
Option C is the right answer.

Zoology
Q. 11 Which of the following are not polymeric?

Option 1:
Nucleic acids

Option 2:
Proteins

Option 3:
Polysaccharides

Option 4:
Lipids

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 Correct Answer:
Lipids
Solution:
As we learnt in

Lipids -

Lipids are water insoluble. They could be simple fatty acids, that has a carboxyl group attached to an R-
group. The R-group could be a methyl (-CH3) or ehtyl (-C2H5)

Lipids are fatty acids.

Q. 12 Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking:

Option 1:
Emphysema

Option 2:
Asthma

Option 3:
Respiratory acidosis

Option 4:
Respiratory alkalosis

Correct Answer:
Emphysema

Solution:
As we learnt in

DISORDERS OF RESPIRATORY SYSTEM -

Emphysema

- wherein

Emphysema is a chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged due to which respiratory surface is
decreased. One of the major causes of this is cigarette smoking.

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 Q. 13 The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from

Option 1:
Heart

Option 2:
Stomach

Option 3:
Kidneys

Option 4:
Intestine

Correct Answer:
Intestine

Solution:
Hepatic portal veins carry the deoxygenated blood from the gastrointestinal tract, gallbladder, pancreas
and spleen to the liver. It carries the nutrient rich blood to the liver which is further processed there and
returned back to the heart via inferior vena cava.

Hence the correct answer is 'intestine'

Q. 14 A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) activities :

Option 1:
adrenal cortex to release aldosterone

Option 2:
adrenal medulla to release adrenaline

Option 3:
posterior pituitary to release vasopressin

Option 4:
juxta glomerular cells to release rennin

Correct Answer:
juxta glomerular cells to release rennin

Solution:
As we learnt in

Mechanisms for the regulation of glomerular filtration rate -

Mechanism is carried out by juxta glomerular apparatus (JGA).

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 - wherein

JGA is a special sensitive region formed by cellular modifications in the distal convoluted tubule and the
afferent arteriole at the location of their contact. A fall in GFR can activate the JG cells to release renin
which can stimulate the glomerular blood flow and thereby the GFR back to normal.

GFR can activate the JG cells to release renin.

Q. 15 Out of 'X' pairs of ribs in humans only 'Y' pairs are true ribs. Select the option that correctly
represents values of X and Y and provides their explanation :

Option 1:
X = 12, Y = 7 True ribs are attached dorsally to vertebral column and ventrally to the sternum

Option 2:
X = 12, Y = 5 True ribs are attached dorsally to vertebral column and sternum on the two ends

Option 3:
X = 24, Y = 7 True ribs are dorsally attached to vertebral column but are free on ventral side

Option 4:
X = 24, Y = 12 True ribs are dorsally attached to vertebral column but are free on ventral side

Correct Answer:
X = 12, Y = 7 True ribs are attached dorsally to vertebral column and ventrally to the sternum

Solution:
As we learnt in

True ribs -

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 The human rib cage is made up of 24 ribs, that is 12 pairs, of which 7 pairs are true as they are attached
to the sternum, while other 5 ribs are false ribs attached to the sternum by coastal cartilages of the ribs
above them. So, the correct answer is 'X=12, Y=5 True ribs are attached dorsally to vertebral column and
sternum on the two ends'

Q. 16 Which one of the following statements is correct, with reference to enzymes?

Option 1:
Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme

Option 2:
Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme

Option 3:
Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme

Option 4:
Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Cofactor

Correct Answer:
Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme

Solution:
As we learnt in

Co-enzymes as cofactor -

A cofactor is an organic compound and their association with the apoenzyme is only transient, usually
occurs during the course of catalysis.

- wherein

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 Eg: NAD and NADP.

Coenzymes are transiently associated with apoenzyme, forming a holoenzyme

Q. 17 Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli. They do not collapse even after forceful
expiration, because of :

Option 1:
Residual Volume

Option 2:
Inspiratory Reserve Volume

Option 3:
Tidal Volume

Option 4:
Expiratory Reserve Volume

Correct Answer:
Residual Volume

Solution:

As we have learnt in

Residual Volume (RV): Volume of air remaining in the lungs even after a forcible expiration. This
averages 1100 mL to 1200 mL. It prevents lungs from collapsing.

Hence,t he correct answer is 'Residual Volume'

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 Q. 18 Adult human RBCs are enucleate. Which of the following statement(s) is/are most
appropriate explanation for this feature?

(a) They do not need to reproduce

(b) They are somatic cells

(c) They do not metabolize

(d) All their internal space is available for oxygen transport

Options :

Option 1:
Only (d)

Option 2:
Only (a)

Option 3:
(a), (c) and (d)

Option 4:
(b) and (c)

Correct Answer:
Only (d)

Solution:
In human RBC, the nucleus is lost during maturation. This provides lot of space for oxygen transport due
to presence of haemoglobin. RBC lacks other organelles like mitochondria as well.

Hence, the statement ' All their internal space is available for oxygen transport' is correct.

Q. 19 Which of the following statements is correct?

Option 1:
The ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water

Option 2:
The descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water

Option 3:
The ascending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water

Option 4:
The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to electrolytes

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 Correct Answer:
The ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water
Solution:
As we learnt in

MECHANISM OF CONCENTRATION OF THE FILTRATE -

The flow of blood through the two limbs of vasa recta is also in a counter current pattern. The proximity
between the Henle’s loop and vasa recta, as well as the counter current in them help in maintaining an
increasing osmolarity towards the inner medullary interstitium, i.e., from 300 mOsmol L–1 in the cortex to
about 1200 mOsmol L–1 in the inner medulla.

- wherein

Only salt goes outside in ascending loop, not water.

Q. 20 The pivot joint between atlas and axis is a type of :

Option 1:
Fibrous joint

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 Option 2:
Cartilaginous joint

Option 3:
Synovial joint

Option 4:
Saddle joint

Correct Answer:
Synovial joint
Solution:

As we have learnt in types of Synovial Joints -

The six types of synovial joints are the pivot, hinge, saddle, plane, condyloid and ball and socket joints.
Pivot joints are found in neck region between atlas and axis.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Synovial joint'

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 Mock Test 5

Physics
Q. 1 A toy car with charge q moves on a frictionless horizontal plane surface under the influence
of a uniform electric field . Due to the force q , its velocity increases from 0 to 6 m/s in
one second duration. At that instant the direction of the field is reversed. The car continues
to move for two more seconds under the influence of this field. The average velocity and the
average speed of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are
respectively

Option 1:
1 m/s, 3.5 m/s

Option 2:
1 m/s , 3 m/s

Option 3:
2 m/s , 4 m/s

Option 4:
1.5 m/s , 3 m/s

Correct Answer:
1 m/s , 3 m/s

Solution:
As we have learned

2nd equation or Position- time equation -

Displacement

Initial velocity

acceleration

time

velocity increases from 0 to 6 m/s

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 velocity decreases from 6 to 0 m/s

but car continues to move forword

since acceleration is same

car's velocity increases from 0 to -6 m/s

Distance travelled in first second

Total displacement = 3m

Average velocity = 3/3 =1 m/s

Total Distance =(3+3+3)m =9m

Average speed =

Q. 2 A block of mass 10 Kg is in contact against the inner wall of a hollow cylinder drum of radius
1 m . The coefficient of friction between the block and the iner wall of the cylinder is 0.1 .
The minimum angular velocity needed for the cylinder to keep the block stationary when
the cylinder is vertical and rotating about its axis will be

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

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 Correct Answer:

Solution:
Sticking of Person with the wall of Rotor(Death well) -

F = weight of person (mg)

- wherein

F = friction force

Fc = centrifugal force

Wmin = minimum angular velocity

coefficient of friction

r = radius of Rotor

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 Q. 3 A body projected vertically from the earth reaches a height equal to earth's radius before
returning to the earth. The power exerted by the gravitational force is greatest

Option 1:
at the highest position of the body

Option 2:
at the instant just before the body hits the earth

Option 3:
it remains constant all through

Option 4:
at the instant just after the body is projected

Correct Answer:
at the instant just before the body hits the earth

Solution:
As discussed in

Power if the force is constant -

- wherein

Power exerted by a force P = F.v

The power exerted by the gravitational force is greatest and the instant just before the body hits the
earth.

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 Q. 4 In an experiment the percentage of error occured in the measurement of physical quantities
A,B C and D are 1 % , 2 % , 3 % and 4 % respectively . Then the maximum percentage of
error in the measurement X , where will be :

Option 1:
(3/13) %

Option 2:
16 %

Option 3:
- 10 %

Option 4:
10 %

Correct Answer:
16 %

Solution:

Error in quantity raised to some power -

- wherein

= absolute error in measurement of a

= absolute error in measurement of b

= absolute error in measurement of x

Q. 5 A ball is projected with a velocity , at an angle of with the vertical direction . It's
speed at the highest point of its trajectory will be:

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 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:
Zero

Correct Answer:

Solution:

At the topmost position, the speed of the projectile is

Hence the correct option is 1

Q. 6 A particle moving with velocity is acted by three forces shown by the vector triangle PQR .
The velocity of the particle will :

Option 1:
increase

Option 2:
derease

Option 3:
remain constant
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 Option 4:
change acording to the smallest force QR

Correct Answer:
remain constant
Solution:

Equilibrium of Concurrent Forces -

If all the forces working on a body are acting on the same point then they are said to be concurrent.

- wherein

Three forces will be in equilibrium if they are represented by three sides of triangle taken in order

As

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 Q. 7 A body initially at rest and sliding along a frictionless track from a height h (as shown in the
figure) just completes a vertical circle of diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to

Option 1:

Option 2:
D

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As we have learned

If only conservative forces act on a system, total mechnical energy remains constant -

For particles to complete circle

also

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 Q. 8 Plane angle and solid angle have:

Option 1:
Dimensions but no units

Option 2:
No units and no dimensions

Option 3:
Both units and dimensions

Option 4:
Units but no dimensions

Correct Answer:
Units but no dimensions

Solution:

Both plane angle and solid angle don't have dimensions, But the units of plane angle and solid angle
are radian (rad) and steradian (sr) respectively.
the correct option is (4)

Q. 9 The position vector of a particle as a function of time is given by :

Where R is in meters, t is in seconds and denote unit vectors along x-and y-directions,
respectively. Which one of the following statements is wrong for the motion of particle ?

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 Option 1:
Magnitude of acceleration vector is where is the velocity of particle.

Option 2:
Magnitude of the velocity of particle is 8 meter/ second

Option 3:
Path of the particle is a circle of radius 4 meter.

Option 4:
Acceleration vector is along .

Correct Answer:
Magnitude of the velocity of particle is 8 meter/ second

Solution:
Position
Velocity:
Acceleration:
acceleration is along

Magnitude of velocity:

Magnitude of acceleration:

The path of the particle is a circle of radius 4.

Q. 10 A shell of mass is at rest initially. It explodes into three fragments having mass in the ratio
2:2:1. If the fragments having equal mass fly off along mutually perpendicular directions with
speed , the speed of the third (lighter) fragment is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

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 Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The ratio of the masses of the fragments is

Since initially the shell is at rest and also external force is zero

The speed of the lighter fragment is

Hence the correct option is 2

Chemistry
Q. 1 10 g of hydrogen and 64 g of oxygen were filled in a steel vessel and exploded. Amount of
water produced in this reaction will be -

Option 1:
1 mol

Option 2:
2 mol

Option 3:
3 mol

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 Option 4:
4 mol

Correct Answer:
4 mol
Solution:
The reaction will be-

Two moles of H2 and one mole of O2 will produce two moles of water.

5 Moles of H2 can produce 5 moles of water while 2 moles of O2 can produce 4 moles of water.

Thus, O2 is the limiting reactant and 4 moles H2O will be produced.

Therefore, the correct option is (4).

Q. 2 According to the Bohr Theory, which of the following transitions in the hydrogen atom will
give rise to the least energetic photon?

Option 1:
n = 6 to n = 1

Option 2:
n = 5 to n = 4

Option 3:
n = 5 to n = 3

Option 4:
n = 6 to n = 5

Correct Answer:
n = 6 to n = 5

Solution:
According to Bohr's theory,

now, let's check all option

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 Q. 3 The correct order of the decreasing ionic radii among the following isoelectronic species are:

Option 1:
Ca2+ > K+ > S2- > Cl-

Option 2:
Cl- > S2- > Ca2+ > K+

Option 3:
S2- > Cl- > K+ > Ca2+

Option 4:
K+ > Ca2+ > Cl- > S2-

Correct Answer:
S2- > Cl- > K+ > Ca2+

Solution:
As we know,

The size of isoelectronic species is directly proportional to the effective nuclear charge experienced by
outermost electrons.

On the increase of positive charge or removal of electrons, Zeff increases while on the addition of
electrons, it decreases.

Therefore, the order of ionic radii is:

S2- > Cl- > K+ > Ca2+

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 Q. 4 The state of hybridization of C2, C3, C5 and C6 of the hydrocarbon,

is in the following sequence:

Option 1:
sp3 , sp2 , sp2 and sp

Option 2:
sp, sp2 , sp2 and sp3

Option 3:
sp, sp2 , sp3 and sp2

Option 4:
sp, sp3 , sp2 and sp3

Correct Answer:
sp, sp3 , sp2 and sp3

Solution:

Q. 5 25.3 g of sodium carbonate (Na2CO3) is dissolved in enough water to make 250 ml of

solution. If sodium carbonate dissociates completely, the molar concentration of sodium ion
(Na+) and carbonate ion are respectively (Molar mass of Na2CO3 = 106 g mol-1

Option 1:
0.477 M and 0.477 M

Option 2:
0.955 M and 1.910 M

Option 3:
1.910 M and 0.955 M

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 Option 4:
1.90 M and 1.910 M

Correct Answer:
1.910 M and 0.955 M
Solution:

Therefore, the correct option is (3).

Q. 6 The total number of atomic orbitals in fourth energy level of an atom is:

Option 1:
8

Option 2:
16

Option 3:
32

Option 4:
4

Correct Answer:
16

Solution:
For a given value of n, l can have n values ranging from 0 to n-1.

for n = 4, l = 0, 1, 2, 3

we have s, p, d & f orbitals

Total orbitals =

Total orbitals =

Therefore, the correct option is (2).

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 Q. 7 Which of the following oxide is amphoteric?

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
is an amphoteric oxide because it reacts with acids as well as bases to form corresponding salts.

is an amphoteric in nature as it acts as both acid and base.

is basic. and are acidic in nature.

The correct answer is option 3.

Q. 8 What is the dominant intermolecular force or bond that must be overcome in converting
liquid CH3OH to a gas?

Option 1:
Dipole-dipole interaction

Option 2:
Covalent bonds

Option 3:
London dispersion force

Option 4:
Hydrogen bonding

Correct Answer:
Hydrogen bonding

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 Solution:
Due to Hydrogen bonding

Q. 9 Mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 molal aqueous solution is :

Option 1:
1.7700

Option 2:
0.1770

Option 3:
0.0177

Option 4:
0.0344

Correct Answer:
0.0177

Solution:
1.00 molal solution means 1 mole of solute in 1 kg (or 1000 g) of water.

Number of moles of solute = 1

Number of moles of solvent = 1000/18 = 55.55

Mole Fraction of solute = 1/ (1+ 55.55) = 0.017

Therefore, the correct option is (3).

Q. 10 Which one is a wrong statement ?

Option 1:
The electronic configuration of N atom is

Option 2:
An orbital is designated by three quantum numbers while an electron in an atom is designated by
four quantum numbers.

Option 3:
Total orbital angular momentum of electron in 's' orbital is equal to zero.

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 Option 4:
The value of m for dz2 is zero.

Correct Answer:
The electronic configuration of N atom is

Solution:
The correct configuration of N is

Therefore, the correct option is (1).

Biology Section

Botany
Q. 1 Select the incorrect match :

Option 1:
Submetacentric chromosomes - L - shaped chromosomes

Option 2:
Allosomes - Sex chromosomes

Option 3:
Lampbrush chromosomes - Diplotene bivalents

Option 4:
Polytene chromosomes - oocytes of amphibians

Correct Answer:
Polytene chromosomes - oocytes of amphibians

Solution:
As we learnt in

Diplotene -

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 The fourth stage of prophase I, marked by dissolution of synaptonemal complex and the tendency of the
recombined homologous chromosomes of the bivalents to separate. The X-shaped structures are called
chiasmata.

- wherein

Types of chromosomes -

Based on the position of centromere, the chromosomes can be classified into four types:

1) Metacentric chromosome- middle centromere forming two equal arms.

2) Sub-metacentric- centromere slightly away from the center.

3)Acrocentric- centromere is situated close to its end

4)Telocentric- terminal centromere

- wherein

Polytene chromosomes are found in salivary glands of insects of order Diptera.

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 Q. 2 Given below are two statements:

Statement I: During G0 phase of cell cycle, the cell is metabolically inactive.

Statement II: The centrosome undergoes duplication during S phase of interphase.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:

Option 1:
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Option 2:
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

Option 3:
Statement I is correct but statement II incorrect.

Option 4:
Statement I is incorrect but statement II correct.

Correct Answer:
Statement I is incorrect but statement II correct.

Solution:
The correct answer is Option 4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

Statement I: During G0 phase of the cell cycle, the cell is metabolically inactive.
This statement is incorrect. The G0 phase of the cell cycle is a resting phase where cells exit the cell cycle
and temporarily halt their division. However, cells in the G0 phase can still be metabolically active and
perform their specific functions. They may carry out normal cellular activities, such as protein synthesis
and energy production, even though they are not actively dividing.

Statement II: The centrosome undergoes duplication during S phase of interphase.

This statement is correct. The centrosome, a cellular organelle involved in cell division, undergoes
duplication during the S phase of interphase. The centrosome consists of two centrioles, and each
centriole replicates to form a new pair of centrioles. This duplication ensures that each daughter cell
produced during cell division receives a complete set of centrioles.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

Q. 3 Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its particular named
taxonomic category?

Option 1:
Tiger-tigris, the species

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 Option 2:
Cuttle fish-mollusca, a class

Option 3:
Humans-primata, the family

Option 4:
Housefly-musca, an order

Correct Answer:
Tiger-tigris, the species
Solution:
As we learnt in

Binomial Nomenclature -

It is a system of naming organism, in which it is given only one name consisting of two words. First word is the
gencric name and second is specific name.

- wherein

E.g Homo sapiens, Magnifera indica,Ocimum sanctum. It was given by Carolus Linnaeus.

Biological nomenclature of tiger is Panthera tigris. Here, 'Panthera' is genus and 'tigris' is species.

Q. 4 T.O. Diener discovered a:

Option 1:
Free infectious DNA

Option 2:
Infectious protein

Option 3:
Bacteriophage

Option 4:
Free infectious RNA

Correct Answer:
Free infectious RNA

Solution:
T.O. Diener discovered viroids(infectious RNA) that cause potato tuber disease. The correct option
is d.
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 Q. 5 Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide
simultaneously . Such strings of ribosomes are termed as

Option 1:
Plastidome

Option 2:
Polyhedral bodies

Option 3:
Polysome

Option 4:
Nucleosome

Correct Answer:
Polysome

Solution:
As we learnt in

Ribosomes -

It is a complex made up of RNA and protein and is the site for protein synthesis.

- wherein

Several ribosomes may attach to a single mRNA and form chains called polyribosomes or polysome.

The phenomenon of association of many ribosomes with single m-RNA leads to formation of polyribosomes or
polysomes or ergasomes.

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 Q. 6 Match List I with List II :

List I List II

A. M phase I. Proteins are synthesized

B. Phase II. Inactive phase

C. Quiescent III. Interval between mitosis and initiation of

stage DNA replication

D. Phase IV. Equational division

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Option 1:
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

Option 2:
A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

Option 3:
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Option 4:
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Correct Answer:
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Solution:
A. M phase IV. Equational division
B. G₂ Phase I. Proteins are synthesized
C. Quiescent stage II. Inactive phase
D. G₁ Phase III. Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III.

Q. 7 Phylogenetic system of classification is based on :

Option 1:
Morphological features

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 Option 2:
Chemical constituents

Option 3:
Floral characters

Option 4:
Evolutionary relationships

Correct Answer:
Evolutionary relationships
Solution:
The phylogenetic tree depicts the relationships between species based on their shared ancestors.
The correct option is d.

Q. 8 Which of the following events does not occur in rough endoplasmic reticulum ?

Option 1:
Cleavage of signal peptide

Option 2:
Protein glycosylation

Option 3:
Protein folding

Option 4:
Phospholipid synthesis

Correct Answer:
Phospholipid synthesis

Solution:
As we learnt in

RER and SER -

The endoplasmic reticulum bearing ribosomes on their surface is called rough endoplasmic reticulum
(RER), in the absence of ribosomes, they appear smooth and are called smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(SER).

- wherein

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 Phospholipid synthesis does not take place in RER. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum are involved in lipid synthesis.

Q. 9 Select the correct statements.

A. Tetrad formation is seen during Leptotene.
B. During Anaphase, the centromeres split and chromatids separate.
C. Terminalization takes place during Pachytene.
D. Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER are reformed during Telophase.
E. Crossing over takes place between sister chromatids of homologous chromosome.

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

Option 1:
A and C only

Option 2:
B and D only

Option 3:
A, C and E only

Option 4:
B and E only

Correct Answer:
B and D only

Solution:
The correct answer is Option 2) B and D only.

Statement A: Tetrad formation is seen during Leptotene.

This statement is incorrect. Tetrad formation, also known as synapsis, occurs during the zygotene stage of
prophase I of meiosis. During leptotene, chromosomes start to condense, but they have not yet formed
tetrads.

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 Statement B: During Anaphase, the centromeres split and chromatids separate.
This statement is correct. During anaphase of mitosis or meiosis II, the centromeres split, and the sister
chromatids separate, moving toward opposite poles of the cell.

Statement C: Terminalization takes place during Pachytene.

This statement is incorrect. Terminalization occurs during diplotene, not pachytene, which is a substage
of prophase I of meiosis. Terminalization refers to the movement of chiasmata (sites of crossing over)
towards the ends (terminals) of the homologous chromosomes.

Statement D: Nucleolus, Golgi complex, and ER are reformed during Telophase.

This statement is correct. During telophase of mitosis or meiosis, the nuclear envelope reforms, and the
nucleolus, Golgi complex, and endoplasmic reticulum (ER) are reformed.

Statement E: Crossing over takes place between sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
This statement is incorrect. Crossing over, also known as recombination, occurs between non-sister
chromatids of homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis. It results in the exchange of
genetic material between homologous chromosomes.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2) B and D only.

Q. 10 Given below is the diagram of a bacteriophage. In which one of the options all the four parts
A, B, C and D are correct?

A B C D

Option 1:

Tail fibres Head Sheath Collar

Option 2:

Sheath Collar Head Tail fibres

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 Option 3:

Head Sheath Collar Tail fibres

Option 4:

Collar Tail fibres Head Sheath

Correct Answer:

Head Sheath Collar Tail fibres

Solution:
Bacteriophages are bacteria-infecting viruses.

The T4 phage, which infects Escherichia coli, has a polyhedral head connected to a helical tail, a
typical bacteriophage structure.

Many phages have fibres in their tails that adhere to the host cell.

Thus, the correct answer is 'A - Head, B - Sheath, C - Collar, D - Tail fibres'.

Zoology
Q. 11 Which of the following is least likely to be involved in stabilizing the three-dimensional
folding of most proteins?

Option 1:
Hydrogen bonds

Option 2:
Electrostatic interaction

Option 3:
Hydrophobic interaction

Option 4:
Ester bonds

Correct Answer:
Ester bonds

Solution:

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 H bonds, Hydrophobic interaction, and electrostatic interactions are weak interactions and are capable of
stabilizing the tertiary structure of proteins. Whereas the

Q. 12 Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some air always remains in the lungs which can
never be expelled because

Option 1:
there is a negative pressure in the lungs

Option 2:
there is negative intrapleural pressure pulling at the lung walls

Option 3:
there is a positive intrapleural pressure

Option 4:
pressure in the lungs is higher than the atmospheric pressure

Correct Answer:
there is negative intrapleural pressure pulling at the lung walls

Solution:
Lungs do not collapse between breaths, and some air always remains in the lungs, which can never be
expelled due to the negative intrapleural pressure that pulls at the lung walls.

Q. 13 Serum differs from blood in

Option 1:
lacking globulins

Option 2:
lacking albumins

Option 3:
lacking clotting factors

Option 4:
lacking antibodies

Correct Answer:
lacking clotting factors

Solution:

As we have learnt,
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 Blood is composed of a clear, pale-coloured, watery fluid called plasma in which different types of blood
cells are suspended.
The serum is that part of the blood which is similar in composition with plasma but does not contain
clotting factors of blood. It includes all proteins not used in blood clotting and all the electrolytes,
antibodies, antigens, hormones, etc.

Hence, the correct answer is 'lacking clotting factors'

Q. 14 A decrease in blood pressure/volume will not cause the release of:

Option 1:
Renin

Option 2:
Atrial Natriuretic Factor

Option 3:
Aldosterone

Option 4:
ADH

Correct Answer:
Atrial Natriuretic Factor

Solution:
ANF is atrial natriuretic factor causes vasodilation and leads to decrease of blood pressure.
The increase in the blood flow to the atria of the heart causes the release of ANF.
It is mainly released by the atria of the heart in response to high blood volume.
It reduces the water, sodium, and adipose concentration in the circulatory system and thus reduces blood
pressure.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Atrial Natriuretic Factor'

Q. 15 Osteoporosis, an age-related disease of skeletal system, may occur due to

Option 1:
immune disorder affecting neuro-muscular junction leading to fatigue

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 Option 2:
high concentration of Ca++ and Na+

Option 3:
decreased level of estrogen

Option 4:
accumulation of uric acid leading to inflammation of joints

Correct Answer:
decreased level of estrogen
Solution:
As we learnt in

Disorders Of Muscular And Skeletal System -

Osteoporosis is an age related disorder of skeletal system caused due to weakening of bones by
decreased Ca++ and oestrogen levels. Osetrogen helps in decreasing the resorption of bone by
decreasing osteoclastic activity. As the oestrogen levels decrease the osteoclastic activity increases and
more ca++ is withdrawn into blood from bone resulting in osteoporosis.

Hence, the correct answer is 'decreased level of estrogen'

Q. 16 A non-proteinaceous enzyme is

Option 1:
lysozyme

Option 2:
ribozyme

Option 3:
ligase

Option 4:
deoxyribonuclease

Correct Answer:
ribozyme

Solution:
The correct option is Option 2) ribozyme.

A non-proteinaceous enzyme is an enzyme that does not consist of protein but rather is composed of
RNA molecules. These RNA-based enzymes are called ribozymes. Ribozymes can catalyze various
biochemical reactions, similar to protein-based enzymes.

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 Q. 17 The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli of the lungs is

Option 1:
equal to that in the blood

Option 2:
more than that in the blood

Option 3:
less than that in the blood

Option 4:
less than that of the carbon dioxide

Correct Answer:
more than that in the blood

Solution:
Alveoli are the site of gaseous exchange and have a higher partial pressure of oxygen than that of blood.
Blood is rich in carbon dioxide at cell and tissue level due to cellular respiration. The higher partial
pressure of oxygen in alveoli allow diffusion of oxygen into the blood.

Hence the correct answer is 'more than that in the blood'

Q. 18 Name the blood cells, whose reduction in number can cause clotting disorder, leading to
excessive loss of blood from the body.

Option 1:
Erythrocytes

Option 2:
Leucocytes

Option 3:
Neutrophils

Option 4:
Thrombocytes

Correct Answer:
Thrombocytes

Solution:
As we learnt in

Components of Blood -

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 Platelets

- wherein

Platelets also called thrombocytes, are cell fragments produced from megakaryocytes (special cells in the
bone marrow). Blood normally contains 1,500,00-3,500,00 platelets mm–3. Platelets can release a variety
of substances most of which are involved in the coagulation or clotting of blood. A reduction in their
number can lead to clotting disorders which will lead to excessive loss of blood from the body.

Q. 19 The part of nephron involved in active reabsorption of sodium is

Option 1:
distal convoluted tubule

Option 2:
proximal convoluted tubule

Option 3:
Bowman's capsule

Option 4:
descending limb of Henle's loop

Correct Answer:
proximal convoluted tubule

Solution:

As we have learnt in:

Tubular Reabsorption in PCT:

About 65% of the reabsorption occurs in the PCT.

Glucose, amino acids, vitamins, hormones, sodium, potassium, chlorides, phosphates, bicarbonates,
much of water and urea from the filtrate are absorbed.
Sulphates and creatinine are not reabsorbed.
Sodium and potassium are reabsorbed by the primary active transport.
Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed by the secondary active transport.
Water is reabsorbed by osmosis.

Therefore, Sodium reabsorption occurs through tubular reabsorption in proximal and distal convoluted
tubules only. The proximal convoluted tubule is involved in active reabsorption of sodium into the
peritubular capillary network and passive flow of water flows. It accounts for 67% of sodium reabsorption.
DCT reabsorption of sodium is also an active process but is under hormonal regulation i.e., conditional
response.

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 Hence, the correct answer is 'proximal convoluted tubule'

Q. 20 Name the ion responsible for unmasking of active sites for myosin for cross-bridge activity
during muscle contraction.

Option 1:
Calcium

Option 2:
Magnesium

Option 3:
Sodium

Option 4:
Potassium

Correct Answer:
Calcium

Solution:

As we have learnt in mechanism of Muscle Contraction -

Mechanism of muscle contraction is best explained by the sliding filament theory which states that
contraction of a muscle fibre takes place by the sliding of the thin filaments over the thick filaments.
Calcium is the ion released into the sarcoplasm from sarcoplasmic reticulum during the polarisation.
Ca++ attaches to the Troponin-C. This brings a conformational change in the tropomyosin.
As a result unmasking of active sites on actin for myosin takes place. Cross bridges are formed between
actin and myosin. This results in muscle contraction.
Magnesium is used in phosphorylation reactions involving ATP.
Sodium and potassium help in maintaining the membrane potential.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Calcium'

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