Tentative Score

Participant ID 230738902074
Participant Name AJITPRASAD CHOUDHURY
Test Center Name Dew Nexus Soft Tech Private Limited
Test Date 18/10/2024
Test Time 9:00 AM - 12:00 PM
Subject SI Excise Mains Examination
Marks Obtained 81.25

Section : General English

Q.1 Select the most appropriate pair of homonyms to fill in the blanks.

Despite being _________ about his appearance, Shiven was still nervous when the doctor had
to find a _________ for the blood test.
Ans A. vain; vain

B. vein; vein

C. vain; vein

D. vein; vain

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801058315
Option 1 ID : 6306804155638
Option 2 ID : 6306804155640
Option 3 ID : 6306804155641
Option 4 ID : 6306804155639
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

One of the Engineering students ________ to build the model cycle.

Ans A. are coming forward

B. is coming forward

C. are came forward

D. is came forward

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680172385
Option 1 ID : 630680667965
Option 2 ID : 630680667966
Option 3 ID : 630680667967
Option 4 ID : 630680667964
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.3 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank and complete the given idiom.

Despite facing numerous setbacks, John continued to work hard and didn't let failures
discourage him. He truly believed that success was within his _____.
Ans A. reach

B. horizon

C. dream

D. fingertips

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680754701
Option 1 ID : 6306802958002
Option 2 ID : 6306802958005
Option 3 ID : 6306802958003
Option 4 ID : 6306802958004
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : -0.25

Q.4 Select the option that rectifies the underlined spelling error.

Smartphones and tablets have become ubiquetous in today's society, with almost everyone
owning one for communication, gaming and information purposes.
Ans A. ubequitous

B. ubiquitous

C. ubequitious

D. ubiquitious

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680749078
Option 1 ID : 6306802935844
Option 2 ID : 6306802935846
Option 3 ID : 6306802935847
Option 4 ID : 6306802935845
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : -0.25
Q.5 Fill in the blanks with the most suitable word from the given options.

The road was closed yesterday after a strike from the people over __________ excessive
amount collected at the toll booth.
Ans A. a

B. much

C. an

D. the

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 63068084613
Option 1 ID : 630680327988
Option 2 ID : 630680327991
Option 3 ID : 630680327990
Option 4 ID : 630680327989
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -0.25

Q.6 Select the most appropriate idiom to substitute the underlined group of words in the given
sentence.

I had a narrow escape in the morning; someone almost knocked me off my bike.

Ans A. a close shave

B. a wild goose chase

C. to catch a tartar

D. ​deadlock

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680791224
Option 1 ID : 6306803100622
Option 2 ID : 6306803100621
Option 3 ID : 6306803100620
Option 4 ID : 6306803100623
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.7 Select the most appropriate pair of homonyms to fill in the blanks.

Megha’s heartfelt speech managed to ________ a strong emotional response from the
audience, but she was careful to avoid any __________ content that could be deemed
inappropriate.
Ans A. elicit; illicit

B. illicit; elicit

C. elicit; elicit

D. illicit; illicit

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801058368
Option 1 ID : 6306804155837
Option 2 ID : 6306804155836
Option 3 ID : 6306804155835
Option 4 ID : 6306804155838
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.8 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given proverb.

Birds of a feather flock together.

Ans A. Everyone is unique.

B. Birds like to fly in groups.

C. Birds are migratory creatures.

D. Similar people tend to associate with each other.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801045992
Option 1 ID : 6306804106054
Option 2 ID : 6306804106052
Option 3 ID : 6306804106055
Option 4 ID : 6306804106053
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.9 Identify the option that describes what your mechanic said to your son using direct speech.
Ans A. The mechanic asked, “The car is needing a thorough check up to rectify the non-stop
smoke emission.”
B. The mechanic said, “The car needed a thorough check up to rectified the non-stop
smoke emission.”
C. The mechanic said, “The car needs a thorough check up to rectify the non-stop smoke
emission.”
D. The mechanic said that the car needs a thorough check up to rectify the non-stop
smoke emission.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680514518
Option 1 ID : 6306802010698
Option 2 ID : 6306802010700
Option 3 ID : 6306802010699
Option 4 ID : 6306802010697
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.10 The following sentence has been split into segments. One of them may contain a spelling
error. Select the segment that contains the spelling error from the given options. If there is
no error, select 'No error' as your answer.

The company has at last announced / that it will underrtake a full investigation / into the
accident on the premises.

Ans A. that it will underrtake a full investigation

B. No error

C. into the accident on the premises.

D. The company has at last announced

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680744643
Option 1 ID : 6306802918783
Option 2 ID : 6306802918785
Option 3 ID : 6306802918784
Option 4 ID : 6306802918782
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.11 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.
Please don’t delude yourself into thinking that the news is true.
Ans A. Enhance

B. Undeceive

C. Hustle

D. Chisel

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680673447
Option 1 ID : 6306802637229
Option 2 ID : 6306802637228
Option 3 ID : 6306802637231
Option 4 ID : 6306802637230
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -0.25

Q.12 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the highlighted word.

The teachers were taken aback at the impertinence of the suggestion by the students .
Ans A. Laziness

B. Rudeness

C. Happiness

D. Politeness

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801159910
Option 1 ID : 6306804559121
Option 2 ID : 6306804559120
Option 3 ID : 6306804559122
Option 4 ID : 6306804559119
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Q.13 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

After several years, the machine was still operational.

Ans A. Functional

B. Efficient

C. Effective

D. Broken

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680727290
Option 1 ID : 6306802849949
Option 2 ID : 6306802849951
Option 3 ID : 6306802849952
Option 4 ID : 6306802849950
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.14 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence.

Despite their efforts, the team faced the more worse outcome imaginable, with the project
failing to meet any of its critical deadlines.
Ans A. the more worst outcome imaginable

B. the worst outcome imaginable

C. the most bad outcome imaginable

D. the most worst outcome imaginable

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801057264
Option 1 ID : 6306804151474
Option 2 ID : 6306804151472
Option 3 ID : 6306804151473
Option 4 ID : 6306804151471
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined word segment in the given
sentence.

Despite his impressive strength, his childlike antics in the gym, like trying to show off with
exaggerated moves, often distracted others from their workouts.
Ans A. his behavioural antics

B. his superficial antics

C. his angelic antics

D. his childish antics

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801057249
Option 1 ID : 6306804151416
Option 2 ID : 6306804151418
Option 3 ID : 6306804151415
Option 4 ID : 6306804151417
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : -0.25
Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence.

Looking for a healthier option, she chose an alternate to sugary snacks, opting for fresh fruit
instead.
Ans A. chose alternating to sugary snacks

B. chose an alternative to sugary snacks

C. chose to alternate the sugary snacks

D. chose alternatively the sugary snacks

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801057255
Option 1 ID : 6306804151439
Option 2 ID : 6306804151442
Option 3 ID : 6306804151441
Option 4 ID : 6306804151440
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Q.17 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.

Mother said that they had been sleeping since the previous night.
Ans A. Mother said, “They are sleeping since last night.”

B. Mother said, “They had been sleeping for last night.”

C. Mother said, “They had slept since the previous night.”

D. Mother said, “They have been sleeping since last night”.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680514260
Option 1 ID : 6306802009666
Option 2 ID : 6306802009668
Option 3 ID : 6306802009667
Option 4 ID : 6306802009665
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : -0.25
Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

The detective found a clue in _____ alley, which led to an important lead in the investigation
of _______ mysterious case.
Ans A. the; no article

B. no article; the

C. a; an

D. the; the

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801047064
Option 1 ID : 6306804110372
Option 2 ID : 6306804110373
Option 3 ID : 6306804110370
Option 4 ID : 6306804110371
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Q.19 Select the most appropriate pair of homonyms to fill in the blanks.

The musician was upset when he was called a ________ after claiming he could play the
_________, an ancient stringed instrument, with exceptional skill.
Ans A. liar; lyre

B. lyre; liar

C. liar; liar

D. lyre; lyre

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801058332
Option 1 ID : 6306804155702
Option 2 ID : 6306804155704
Option 3 ID : 6306804155701
Option 4 ID : 6306804155703
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Tanya’s ____________ driving style made it clear that she was in a hurry and not willing to wait,
as she ended up in bouts of road rage.
Ans A. massive

B. aggressive

C. cursive

D. passive

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801047086
Option 1 ID : 6306804110458
Option 2 ID : 6306804110459
Option 3 ID : 6306804110460
Option 4 ID : 6306804110461
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Q.21 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the
highlighted word in the given sentence.

The credit card was delivered by the wrong address.

Ans A. since

B. with

C. to

D. across

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801050635
Option 1 ID : 6306804124931
Option 2 ID : 6306804124930
Option 3 ID : 6306804124929
Option 4 ID : 6306804124932
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.22 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given proverb.

Too many cooks spoil the broth.

Ans A. If too many people are involved in a task or activity, it will not be done well

B. It only takes one bad person to ruin the entire group

C. A person who spends too much time deliberating about what to do loses the chance
to act altogether.
D. You must decide your solutions by yourself

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680751503
Option 1 ID : 6306802945443
Option 2 ID : 6306802945442
Option 3 ID : 6306802945444
Option 4 ID : 6306802945445
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -0.25

Q.23 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Burn your bridges

Ans A. To set bridges on fire

B. To keep good relationships

C. To close off future opportunities for any resolution

D. winning a card game

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801057280
Option 1 ID : 6306804151536
Option 2 ID : 6306804151537
Option 3 ID : 6306804151538
Option 4 ID : 6306804151535
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.24 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Eccentric
Ans A. Strange

B. Unusual

C. Normal

D. Peculiar

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680805400
Option 1 ID : 6306803155292
Option 2 ID : 6306803155291
Option 3 ID : 6306803155289
Option 4 ID : 6306803155290
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.25 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence.

The biologist presented a detailed analysis of the ecosystem but drew criticism for not
having arrived at a global concensus.
Ans A. ecosystem

B. biologist

C. concensus

D. detailed

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680852131
Option 1 ID : 6306803337581
Option 2 ID : 6306803337582
Option 3 ID : 6306803337580
Option 4 ID : 6306803337583
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
The stars are necessary or are thought to be necessary by the businessmen involved in films
because the public go to see this or that star rather than this or that story. Put two popular
stars opposite each other in practically any story you like, and their fans will attend the cinema.
The vast masses of film fans, who are adolescent in physical or at any rate mental age, know
very well what they want when they go to the pictures. They want elaborate dreams in which
they can take the place of hero and heroine. True, films built to more intelligent prescription get
made, and occasionally succeed. There is a small but resolute public for adult films made with
artistry and integrity. The patrons of the big commercial circuits want the player, and what is
more, want the players themselves, not as the characters they are supposed to play.

SubQuestion No : 26
Q.26 From the given options, select the opposite of 'Popular'.
Ans A. Despised

B. Poplar

C. Favourable

D. Populous

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680640209
Option 1 ID : 6306802506430
Option 2 ID : 6306802506428
Option 3 ID : 6306802506429
Option 4 ID : 6306802506431
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
 Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
The stars are necessary or are thought to be necessary by the businessmen involved in films
because the public go to see this or that star rather than this or that story. Put two popular
stars opposite each other in practically any story you like, and their fans will attend the cinema.
The vast masses of film fans, who are adolescent in physical or at any rate mental age, know
very well what they want when they go to the pictures. They want elaborate dreams in which
they can take the place of hero and heroine. True, films built to more intelligent prescription get
made, and occasionally succeed. There is a small but resolute public for adult films made with
artistry and integrity. The patrons of the big commercial circuits want the player, and what is
more, want the players themselves, not as the characters they are supposed to play.

SubQuestion No : 27
Q.27 Why does the public in general go to watch films? Select the inference that can be drawn
from the passage.
Ans A. The film fans do not know at all what they want.

B. They go to watch adult films made with artistry and integrity.

C. People go to shake hands with the patrons.

D. The public go to see this or that star, rather than the story of the film.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680640207
Option 1 ID : 6306802506422
Option 2 ID : 6306802506421
Option 3 ID : 6306802506423
Option 4 ID : 6306802506420
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
The stars are necessary or are thought to be necessary by the businessmen involved in films
because the public go to see this or that star rather than this or that story. Put two popular
stars opposite each other in practically any story you like, and their fans will attend the cinema.
The vast masses of film fans, who are adolescent in physical or at any rate mental age, know
very well what they want when they go to the pictures. They want elaborate dreams in which
they can take the place of hero and heroine. True, films built to more intelligent prescription get
made, and occasionally succeed. There is a small but resolute public for adult films made with
artistry and integrity. The patrons of the big commercial circuits want the player, and what is
more, want the players themselves, not as the characters they are supposed to play.

SubQuestion No : 28
Q.28 Select the most suitable title for the passage from the options given.
Ans A. Adolescent Fans

B. Businessmen and Films

C. Adult Films

D. Role of Film Stars

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680640205
Option 1 ID : 6306802506414
Option 2 ID : 6306802506412
Option 3 ID : 6306802506413
Option 4 ID : 6306802506415
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -0.25
 Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
The stars are necessary or are thought to be necessary by the businessmen involved in films
because the public go to see this or that star rather than this or that story. Put two popular
stars opposite each other in practically any story you like, and their fans will attend the cinema.
The vast masses of film fans, who are adolescent in physical or at any rate mental age, know
very well what they want when they go to the pictures. They want elaborate dreams in which
they can take the place of hero and heroine. True, films built to more intelligent prescription get
made, and occasionally succeed. There is a small but resolute public for adult films made with
artistry and integrity. The patrons of the big commercial circuits want the player, and what is
more, want the players themselves, not as the characters they are supposed to play.

SubQuestion No : 29
Q.29 What do the patrons of big commercial circuits want? Select the most appropriate option.
Ans A. They want the players themselves.

B. They want the fans.

C. They want the players as characters they are supposed to play.

D. They want adolescents to watch more movies.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680640208
Option 1 ID : 6306802506426
Option 2 ID : 6306802506427
Option 3 ID : 6306802506424
Option 4 ID : 6306802506425
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -0.25

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
The stars are necessary or are thought to be necessary by the businessmen involved in films
because the public go to see this or that star rather than this or that story. Put two popular
stars opposite each other in practically any story you like, and their fans will attend the cinema.
The vast masses of film fans, who are adolescent in physical or at any rate mental age, know
very well what they want when they go to the pictures. They want elaborate dreams in which
they can take the place of hero and heroine. True, films built to more intelligent prescription get
made, and occasionally succeed. There is a small but resolute public for adult films made with
artistry and integrity. The patrons of the big commercial circuits want the player, and what is
more, want the players themselves, not as the characters they are supposed to play.

SubQuestion No : 30
Q.30 What is the main idea of the passage? Select the most appropriate option.
Ans A. Popular stars put against each other

B. Patrons of commercial films

C. The impact of film stars on the public

D. Occasional success of Art Films

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680640206
Option 1 ID : 6306802506416
Option 2 ID : 6306802506419
Option 3 ID : 6306802506418
Option 4 ID : 6306802506417
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
 Comprehension:
Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

The order of planets in the solar system, starting from the one nearest to the Sun and working
outwards, is as follows: Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune and the
possible Planet Nine.

The inner four planets closest to the Sun — Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars — are often called
'terrestrial planets' because their surfaces are rocky. Pluto also has a rocky, albeit frozen,
surface but has never been grouped with the four terrestrials. The four large outer worlds —
Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune — are sometimes called the Jovian or 'Jupiter-like' planets
because of their enormous size relative to the terrestrial planets. They are also mostly made of
gases like hydrogen, helium and ammonia rather than of rocky surfaces, although astronomers
believe that some or all of them may have solid cores.

Jupiter and Saturn are sometimes called the 'gas giants', whereas the more distant Uranus and
Neptune have been nicknamed the 'ice giants'. This is because Uranus and Neptune have more
atmospheric water and other ice-forming molecules, such as methane, hydrogen sulphide and
phosphene, which crystallise into clouds in the planets' frigid conditions, according to the
Planetary Society. For perspective, methane crystallises at minus −296 Fahrenheit (−183°
Celsius), according to the U.S. National Library of Medicine. Scientists estimate that the edge
of the solar system is about 9 billion miles (15 billion kilometres) from the Sun. Beyond the
heliopause lies the giant, spherical Oort Cloud, which is thought to surround the solar system.

SubQuestion No : 31
Q.31 Select an appropriate title for the passage from the following options.
Ans A. The planets of our solar system

B. Pluto - a dwarf planet

C. The solar system

D. The ninth planet Pluto

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680804777
Option 1 ID : 6306803152853
Option 2 ID : 6306803152856
Option 3 ID : 6306803152854
Option 4 ID : 6306803152855
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
 Comprehension:
Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

The order of planets in the solar system, starting from the one nearest to the Sun and working
outwards, is as follows: Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune and the
possible Planet Nine.

The inner four planets closest to the Sun — Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars — are often called
'terrestrial planets' because their surfaces are rocky. Pluto also has a rocky, albeit frozen,
surface but has never been grouped with the four terrestrials. The four large outer worlds —
Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune — are sometimes called the Jovian or 'Jupiter-like' planets
because of their enormous size relative to the terrestrial planets. They are also mostly made of
gases like hydrogen, helium and ammonia rather than of rocky surfaces, although astronomers
believe that some or all of them may have solid cores.

Jupiter and Saturn are sometimes called the 'gas giants', whereas the more distant Uranus and
Neptune have been nicknamed the 'ice giants'. This is because Uranus and Neptune have more
atmospheric water and other ice-forming molecules, such as methane, hydrogen sulphide and
phosphene, which crystallise into clouds in the planets' frigid conditions, according to the
Planetary Society. For perspective, methane crystallises at minus −296 Fahrenheit (−183°
Celsius), according to the U.S. National Library of Medicine. Scientists estimate that the edge
of the solar system is about 9 billion miles (15 billion kilometres) from the Sun. Beyond the
heliopause lies the giant, spherical Oort Cloud, which is thought to surround the solar system.

SubQuestion No : 32
Q.32 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word as found in the given passage.

Warming
Ans A. Heliopause

B. Frigid

C. Rocky

D. Albeit

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680804781
Option 1 ID : 6306803152872
Option 2 ID : 6306803152871
Option 3 ID : 6306803152870
Option 4 ID : 6306803152869
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -0.25
 Comprehension:
Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

The order of planets in the solar system, starting from the one nearest to the Sun and working
outwards, is as follows: Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune and the
possible Planet Nine.

The inner four planets closest to the Sun — Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars — are often called
'terrestrial planets' because their surfaces are rocky. Pluto also has a rocky, albeit frozen,
surface but has never been grouped with the four terrestrials. The four large outer worlds —
Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune — are sometimes called the Jovian or 'Jupiter-like' planets
because of their enormous size relative to the terrestrial planets. They are also mostly made of
gases like hydrogen, helium and ammonia rather than of rocky surfaces, although astronomers
believe that some or all of them may have solid cores.

Jupiter and Saturn are sometimes called the 'gas giants', whereas the more distant Uranus and
Neptune have been nicknamed the 'ice giants'. This is because Uranus and Neptune have more
atmospheric water and other ice-forming molecules, such as methane, hydrogen sulphide and
phosphene, which crystallise into clouds in the planets' frigid conditions, according to the
Planetary Society. For perspective, methane crystallises at minus −296 Fahrenheit (−183°
Celsius), according to the U.S. National Library of Medicine. Scientists estimate that the edge
of the solar system is about 9 billion miles (15 billion kilometres) from the Sun. Beyond the
heliopause lies the giant, spherical Oort Cloud, which is thought to surround the solar system.

SubQuestion No : 33
Q.33 What is the main idea of the given passage?
Ans A. The passage highlights all the celestial bodies of the Milky Way Galaxy along with their
characteristics.
B. The passage highlights the nine planets of our solar system and Pluto is still a planet
according to the Planetary Society.
C. The passage highlights the order of the planets in our solar system, along with their
characteristics and nicknames.
D. The passage highlights the reason behind calling Pluto a dwarf planet based upon its
characteristics.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680804778
Option 1 ID : 6306803152859
Option 2 ID : 6306803152860
Option 3 ID : 6306803152858
Option 4 ID : 6306803152857
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
 Comprehension:
Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

The order of planets in the solar system, starting from the one nearest to the Sun and working
outwards, is as follows: Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune and the
possible Planet Nine.

The inner four planets closest to the Sun — Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars — are often called
'terrestrial planets' because their surfaces are rocky. Pluto also has a rocky, albeit frozen,
surface but has never been grouped with the four terrestrials. The four large outer worlds —
Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune — are sometimes called the Jovian or 'Jupiter-like' planets
because of their enormous size relative to the terrestrial planets. They are also mostly made of
gases like hydrogen, helium and ammonia rather than of rocky surfaces, although astronomers
believe that some or all of them may have solid cores.

Jupiter and Saturn are sometimes called the 'gas giants', whereas the more distant Uranus and
Neptune have been nicknamed the 'ice giants'. This is because Uranus and Neptune have more
atmospheric water and other ice-forming molecules, such as methane, hydrogen sulphide and
phosphene, which crystallise into clouds in the planets' frigid conditions, according to the
Planetary Society. For perspective, methane crystallises at minus −296 Fahrenheit (−183°
Celsius), according to the U.S. National Library of Medicine. Scientists estimate that the edge
of the solar system is about 9 billion miles (15 billion kilometres) from the Sun. Beyond the
heliopause lies the giant, spherical Oort Cloud, which is thought to surround the solar system.

SubQuestion No : 34
Q.34 Based on your reading, which of the following options provides the correct summary of the
passage?
Ans A. There are nine planets in our solar system. The inner four planets, also known as
terrestrial planets, are closer to the Sun and are called Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars. The
larger outer four planets, also known as Jovian planets, are Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and
Neptune. And the ninth planet is Pluto. Pluto is still considered as a planet because it shows
some similar characteristics as other planets.
B. There are eight planets in our solar system. The inner four planets, also known as
Jovian planets, are Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune. The larger outer four planets, also
known as terrestrial planets, are closer to the Sun and are called Mercury, Venus, Earth and
Mars. All planets revolve around the Sun at different speeds. They are different from each
other with respect to their characteristics.
C. There are eight planets in our solar system. The inner four planets, also known as
terrestrial planets, are closer to the Sun and are called Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars. The
larger outer four planets, also known as Jovian planets, are Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and
Neptune. Jupiter and Saturn are called gas giants and Uranus and Neptune are known as ice
giants.
D. There are nine planets in our solar system: Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter,
Saturn, Uranus, Neptune and Pluto. They are arranged in the order from most nearest to most
farthest from the Sun. All the planets revolve around their axis and rotate around the Sun's
axis. They take different time periods to complete one rotation around the Sun.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680804779
Option 1 ID : 6306803152861
Option 2 ID : 6306803152863
Option 3 ID : 6306803152862
Option 4 ID : 6306803152864
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
 Comprehension:
Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

The order of planets in the solar system, starting from the one nearest to the Sun and working
outwards, is as follows: Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune and the
possible Planet Nine.

The inner four planets closest to the Sun — Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars — are often called
'terrestrial planets' because their surfaces are rocky. Pluto also has a rocky, albeit frozen,
surface but has never been grouped with the four terrestrials. The four large outer worlds —
Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune — are sometimes called the Jovian or 'Jupiter-like' planets
because of their enormous size relative to the terrestrial planets. They are also mostly made of
gases like hydrogen, helium and ammonia rather than of rocky surfaces, although astronomers
believe that some or all of them may have solid cores.

Jupiter and Saturn are sometimes called the 'gas giants', whereas the more distant Uranus and
Neptune have been nicknamed the 'ice giants'. This is because Uranus and Neptune have more
atmospheric water and other ice-forming molecules, such as methane, hydrogen sulphide and
phosphene, which crystallise into clouds in the planets' frigid conditions, according to the
Planetary Society. For perspective, methane crystallises at minus −296 Fahrenheit (−183°
Celsius), according to the U.S. National Library of Medicine. Scientists estimate that the edge
of the solar system is about 9 billion miles (15 billion kilometres) from the Sun. Beyond the
heliopause lies the giant, spherical Oort Cloud, which is thought to surround the solar system.

SubQuestion No : 35
Q.35 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word as found in the given passage.

Minuscule
Ans A. Outward

B. Heliopause

C. Enormous

D. Planetary

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680804780
Option 1 ID : 6306803152866
Option 2 ID : 6306803152868
Option 3 ID : 6306803152865
Option 4 ID : 6306803152867
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : -0.25

Section : Odia Language

Q.1

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801157015
Option 1 ID : 6306804547263
Option 2 ID : 6306804547265
Option 3 ID : 6306804547264
Option 4 ID : 6306804547266
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Q.2

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801157998
Option 1 ID : 6306804551128
Option 2 ID : 6306804551129
Option 3 ID : 6306804551130
Option 4 ID : 6306804551131
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.3

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801126958
Option 1 ID : 6306804428026
Option 2 ID : 6306804428029
Option 3 ID : 6306804428028
Option 4 ID : 6306804428027
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.4

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801125536
Option 1 ID : 6306804422341
Option 2 ID : 6306804422342
Option 3 ID : 6306804422343
Option 4 ID : 6306804422344
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.5

Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801104833
Option 1 ID : 6306804339861
Option 2 ID : 6306804339864
Option 3 ID : 6306804339862
Option 4 ID : 6306804339863
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : -0.25

Q.6

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801126977
Option 1 ID : 6306804428104
Option 2 ID : 6306804428103
Option 3 ID : 6306804428105
Option 4 ID : 6306804428102
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.7

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801124943
Option 1 ID : 6306804419990
Option 2 ID : 6306804419989
Option 3 ID : 6306804419988
Option 4 ID : 6306804419987
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.8

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801135239
Option 1 ID : 6306804461135
Option 2 ID : 6306804461134
Option 3 ID : 6306804461136
Option 4 ID : 6306804461137
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.9

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801135308
Option 1 ID : 6306804461410
Option 2 ID : 6306804461413
Option 3 ID : 6306804461411
Option 4 ID : 6306804461412
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -0.25

Q.10

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801162592
Option 1 ID : 6306804569716
Option 2 ID : 6306804569719
Option 3 ID : 6306804569717
Option 4 ID : 6306804569718
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.11

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801146963
Option 1 ID : 6306804507990
Option 2 ID : 6306804507987
Option 3 ID : 6306804507989
Option 4 ID : 6306804507988
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -0.25

Q.12

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801144712
Option 1 ID : 6306804499018
Option 2 ID : 6306804499021
Option 3 ID : 6306804499020
Option 4 ID : 6306804499019
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.13

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801124953
Option 1 ID : 6306804420027
Option 2 ID : 6306804420028
Option 3 ID : 6306804420030
Option 4 ID : 6306804420029
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -0.25

Q.14

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801154692
Option 1 ID : 6306804538689
Option 2 ID : 6306804538690
Option 3 ID : 6306804538688
Option 4 ID : 6306804538687
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.15

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801104560
Option 1 ID : 6306804338770
Option 2 ID : 6306804338769
Option 3 ID : 6306804338771
Option 4 ID : 6306804338772
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -0.25

Q.16

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801135260
Option 1 ID : 6306804461219
Option 2 ID : 6306804461218
Option 3 ID : 6306804461220
Option 4 ID : 6306804461221
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.17

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801126982
Option 1 ID : 6306804428124
Option 2 ID : 6306804428123
Option 3 ID : 6306804428122
Option 4 ID : 6306804428125
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Q.18

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801100949
Option 1 ID : 6306804325045
Option 2 ID : 6306804325043
Option 3 ID : 6306804325044
Option 4 ID : 6306804325046
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.19

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801135277
Option 1 ID : 6306804461285
Option 2 ID : 6306804461283
Option 3 ID : 6306804461284
Option 4 ID : 6306804461282
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Q.20

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801144675
Option 1 ID : 6306804498870
Option 2 ID : 6306804498872
Option 3 ID : 6306804498873
Option 4 ID : 6306804498871
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
 Comprehension:

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801161284
Option 1 ID : 6306804564538
Option 2 ID : 6306804564535
Option 3 ID : 6306804564537
Option 4 ID : 6306804564536
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
 Comprehension:

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801161287
Option 1 ID : 6306804564550
Option 2 ID : 6306804564548
Option 3 ID : 6306804564547
Option 4 ID : 6306804564549
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
 Comprehension:

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801161282
Option 1 ID : 6306804564529
Option 2 ID : 6306804564528
Option 3 ID : 6306804564527
Option 4 ID : 6306804564530
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
 Comprehension:

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801161285
Option 1 ID : 6306804564539
Option 2 ID : 6306804564541
Option 3 ID : 6306804564540
Option 4 ID : 6306804564542
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
 Comprehension:

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801161280
Option 1 ID : 6306804564521
Option 2 ID : 6306804564520
Option 3 ID : 6306804564522
Option 4 ID : 6306804564519
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
 Comprehension:

SubQuestion No : 26
Q.26

Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801146786
Option 1 ID : 6306804507282
Option 2 ID : 6306804507280
Option 3 ID : 6306804507279
Option 4 ID : 6306804507281
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
 Comprehension:

SubQuestion No : 27
Q.27

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801146787
Option 1 ID : 6306804507285
Option 2 ID : 6306804507283
Option 3 ID : 6306804507286
Option 4 ID : 6306804507284
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -0.25
 Comprehension:

SubQuestion No : 28
Q.28

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801146785
Option 1 ID : 6306804507275
Option 2 ID : 6306804507278
Option 3 ID : 6306804507277
Option 4 ID : 6306804507276
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
 Comprehension:

SubQuestion No : 29
Q.29

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801146788
Option 1 ID : 6306804507287
Option 2 ID : 6306804507290
Option 3 ID : 6306804507289
Option 4 ID : 6306804507288
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
 Comprehension:

SubQuestion No : 30
Q.30

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801146789
Option 1 ID : 6306804507293
Option 2 ID : 6306804507291
Option 3 ID : 6306804507292
Option 4 ID : 6306804507294
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
 Comprehension:

SubQuestion No : 31
Q.31

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801157977
Option 1 ID : 6306804551045
Option 2 ID : 6306804551044
Option 3 ID : 6306804551046
Option 4 ID : 6306804551047
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
 Comprehension:

SubQuestion No : 32
Q.32

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801157980
Option 1 ID : 6306804551058
Option 2 ID : 6306804551057
Option 3 ID : 6306804551059
Option 4 ID : 6306804551056
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
 Comprehension:

SubQuestion No : 33
Q.33

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801157979
Option 1 ID : 6306804551052
Option 2 ID : 6306804551053
Option 3 ID : 6306804551055
Option 4 ID : 6306804551054
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : -0.25
 Comprehension:

SubQuestion No : 34
Q.34

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801157978
Option 1 ID : 6306804551048
Option 2 ID : 6306804551050
Option 3 ID : 6306804551049
Option 4 ID : 6306804551051
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
 Comprehension:

SubQuestion No : 35
Q.35

Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801157981
Option 1 ID : 6306804551061
Option 2 ID : 6306804551062
Option 3 ID : 6306804551063
Option 4 ID : 6306804551060
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Section : General Science

Q.1 What is the role of emulsifiers in food products?

Ans A. Preserving freshness by inhibiting bacterial growth

B. Enhancing sweetness by interacting with taste receptors

C. Improving texture by stabilising oil and water mixtures

D. Enhancing colour by binding to pigments

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680619030
Option 1 ID : 6306802422398
Option 2 ID : 6306802422399
Option 3 ID : 6306802422397
Option 4 ID : 6306802422396
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -0.25
Q.2 Which of these helps in explaining blood flow in artery?
Ans A. Le Chatelier's Principle

B. Torricelli’s Law

C. Henry's Law

D. Bernoulli’s Principle

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680770927
Option 1 ID : 6306803021596
Option 2 ID : 6306803021593
Option 3 ID : 6306803021595
Option 4 ID : 6306803021594
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Q.3 Which of the following is a cutting-edge web portal, a significant leap in data management,
that was launched by National Institute of Technology Calicut in August 2024?
Ans A. Nivahika

B. Netscape

C. Microsoft

D. Lycos

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801095102
Option 1 ID : 6306804301676
Option 2 ID : 6306804301677
Option 3 ID : 6306804301679
Option 4 ID : 6306804301678
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.4 Which of the following statements is true for litmus solution?

Ans A. It is a green dye.

B. It turns red in alkaline solutions.

C. It is extracted from lichen.

D. It is an inorganic compound.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680754006
Option 1 ID : 6306802955250
Option 2 ID : 6306802955253
Option 3 ID : 6306802955251
Option 4 ID : 6306802955252
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.5 Which of the following is the integrated generator monitoring control system developed by
the Indian Army and launched on 10 June 2024?
Ans A. BrahMos warhead

B. The Kali

C. Agni

D. Vidyut Rakshak

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801045788
Option 1 ID : 6306804105252
Option 2 ID : 6306804105253
Option 3 ID : 6306804105255
Option 4 ID : 6306804105254
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -0.25

Q.6 Which of the following bioactive plant alkaloids of the Liliaceae family induces
polyploidisation in plants?
Ans A. Atropine

B. Strychnine

C. Ephedrine

D. Colchicine

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680711297
Option 1 ID : 6306802786845
Option 2 ID : 6306802786846
Option 3 ID : 6306802786847
Option 4 ID : 6306802786848
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.7 Which of the following vitamins plays an important role in collagen synthesis and absorption
and utilisation of iron in the body?
Ans A. D

B. A

C. C

D. B

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680640685
Option 1 ID : 6306802508235
Option 2 ID : 6306802508232
Option 3 ID : 6306802508234
Option 4 ID : 6306802508233
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -0.25
Q.8 The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) created India's first locally
made tank designed for mountain warfare. What is its name?
Ans A. Zorawar

B. Vishnu

C. Arjun

D. Agni

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801145701
Option 1 ID : 6306804502993
Option 2 ID : 6306804502994
Option 3 ID : 6306804502996
Option 4 ID : 6306804502995
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1

Q.9 What is the primary objective of Project NAMAN, which was launched by the Indian Army in
August 2024?
Ans A. To enhance the combat capabilities of the Indian Army

B. To provide dedicated support and services to defence pensioners, veterans and their
families
C. To promote defence research and innovation

D. To establish new military stations across India

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801065050
Option 1 ID : 6306804182481
Option 2 ID : 6306804182482
Option 3 ID : 6306804182484
Option 4 ID : 6306804182483
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Q.10 Identify the correct match of measurable quantities with their units.
Ans A. i. Density----- kilogram per cubic metre
ii. Pressure------pascal
B. i. Pressure------ erg
ii. Temperature---- kelvin
C. i. Weight ------- watt
ii. Length----- metre
D. i. Volume----- cubic metre
ii. Density----- kilogram per second

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680770495
Option 1 ID : 6306803019891
Option 2 ID : 6306803019892
Option 3 ID : 6306803019889
Option 4 ID : 6306803019890
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Section : Current Events

Q.11 In which of the following countries did the 2024 Lausanne Diamond League take place?
Ans A. Italy

B. Germany

C. Switzerland

D. France

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801057050
Option 1 ID : 6306804150636
Option 2 ID : 6306804150635
Option 3 ID : 6306804150634
Option 4 ID : 6306804150633
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : -0.25

Q.12 Which film was honoured with the Palme d'Or at the Cannes Film Festival for 2024?
Ans A. Anora

B. All We Imagine as Light

C. The Substance

D. Emilia Perez

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801064693
Option 1 ID : 6306804181081
Option 2 ID : 6306804181082
Option 3 ID : 6306804181084
Option 4 ID : 6306804181083
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -0.25

Q.13 Who among the following sportsmen has been awarded with Arjuna Award 2023 for Chess?
Ans A. Gukesh D

B. Vidith Gujrathi

C. Vishwanathan Anand

D. R Vaishali

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680742628
Option 1 ID : 6306802910824
Option 2 ID : 6306802910825
Option 3 ID : 6306802910823
Option 4 ID : 6306802910822
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.14 In November 2023, India’s first female Supreme Court Judge, Fathima
Beevi, passed away. She was also the former governor of which of the
following states?
Ans A. Kerala

B. Tamil Nadu

C. Bihar

D. Uttar Pradesh

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680629443
Option 1 ID : 6306802463844
Option 2 ID : 6306802463845
Option 3 ID : 6306802463843
Option 4 ID : 6306802463842
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -0.25

Q.15 At which newly inaugurated convention centre was the G20 Leaders’ Summit in 2023 hosted
by New Delhi?
Ans A. Bharat Mandapam Convention Centre

B. Pragati Maidan Convention Centre

C. India Gate Convention Centre

D. Rajpath Convention Centre

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801057367
Option 1 ID : 6306804151868
Option 2 ID : 6306804151869
Option 3 ID : 6306804151867
Option 4 ID : 6306804151870
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1

Q.16 India attended the 24th meeting of the Council of Head of States of the Shanghai
Cooperation Organisation (SCO) held in _____.
Ans A. Tashkent, Uzbekistan

B. Beijing, China

C. Astana, Kazakhstan

D. Moscow, Russia

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801057040
Option 1 ID : 6306804150593
Option 2 ID : 6306804150594
Option 3 ID : 6306804150595
Option 4 ID : 6306804150596
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : -0.25
Q.17 Which of the following taxes was abolished in Union Budget 2024-25 in July 2024?
Ans A. Angel Tax

B. Security Transition Tax

C. Capital Gain Tax

D. Income Tax

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801050102
Option 1 ID : 6306804122755
Option 2 ID : 6306804122754
Option 3 ID : 6306804122753
Option 4 ID : 6306804122756
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.18 On 15th February 2024, the Constitution bench of the Supreme Court held that electoral
bonds violate citizens' Right to Information under which Article number?
Ans A. Article 18

B. Article 17(2)(b)

C. Article 21

D. Article 19(1)(a)

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801050039
Option 1 ID : 6306804122505
Option 2 ID : 6306804122507
Option 3 ID : 6306804122508
Option 4 ID : 6306804122506
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Q.19 Who among the following former Indian players received their induction into the
International Tennis Hall of Fame in Newport, USA, in 2024?

i. Leander Paes
ii. Vijay Amritraj
iii. Mahesh Bhupathi
iv. Sania Mirza
Ans A. ii and iv

B. ii, iii and iv

C. i and ii

D. i, ii, iii and iv

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801063559
Option 1 ID : 6306804176605
Option 2 ID : 6306804176606
Option 3 ID : 6306804176603
Option 4 ID : 6306804176604
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : -0.25
Q.20 Which Indian wrestler announced retirement after being disqualified from Olympics 2024?
Ans A. Aman Sehrawat

B. Nisha Dahiya

C. Anshu Malik

D. Vinesh Phogat

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801050021
Option 1 ID : 6306804122433
Option 2 ID : 6306804122435
Option 3 ID : 6306804122436
Option 4 ID : 6306804122434
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Section : History of India

Q.21 According to Megasthenes, out of six subcommittees of military, the first subcommittee
looked after the ______.
Ans A. Horses

B. Foot-Soldiers

C. Elephants

D. Navy

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680595788
Option 1 ID : 6306802331342
Option 2 ID : 6306802331340
Option 3 ID : 6306802331341
Option 4 ID : 6306802331343
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : -0.25

Q.22 Which of the following is the correct Month and Year of passing the 'Regulating Act?'
Ans A. July 1773

B. June 1773

C. April 1773

D. May 1773

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680656232
Option 1 ID : 6306802568873
Option 2 ID : 6306802568874
Option 3 ID : 6306802568872
Option 4 ID : 6306802568871
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.23 Which of the following Greek writers had stated about the existence of multiplicity of cities
during the Mauryan period?
Ans A. Plutarch

B. Arrian

C. Strabo

D. Justin

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680571258
Option 1 ID : 6306802234072
Option 2 ID : 6306802234071
Option 3 ID : 6306802234069
Option 4 ID : 6306802234070
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.24 Who among the following rulers fixed standard weights and measures all over the empire
and issued a coin called 'Rupia'?
Ans A. Akbar

B. Sher Shah Suri

C. Islam Shah

D. Muhammad Adil Shah

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680766158
Option 1 ID : 6306803003057
Option 2 ID : 6306803003058
Option 3 ID : 6306803003060
Option 4 ID : 6306803003059
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -0.25

Q.25 Which of the following was primarily the language of administration under the Delhi
Sultanate?
Ans A. Arabic

B. Turkic

C. Persian

D. Hindavi

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680333528
Option 1 ID : 6306801297387
Option 2 ID : 6306801297385
Option 3 ID : 6306801297386
Option 4 ID : 6306801297388
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.26 Which organisation was formed to counter the propaganda of Brahmo Samaj?
Ans A. Tattvabodhini Sabha

B. Prarthana Samaj

C. Dev Samaj

D. Dharma Sabha

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680595359
Option 1 ID : 6306802329629
Option 2 ID : 6306802329631
Option 3 ID : 6306802329632
Option 4 ID : 6306802329630
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : -0.25

Q.27 Who among the following Governor Generals was active in planning Permanent Settlement
and afterwards succeeded Lord Cornwallis?
Ans A. John Shore

B. Lord Wellesly

C. Warren Hastings

D. Robert Clive

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680577904
Option 1 ID : 6306802260429
Option 2 ID : 6306802260428
Option 3 ID : 6306802260430
Option 4 ID : 6306802260431
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : -0.25

Q.28 When did the States Enquiry Committee report was submitted to Lord Linlithgow, the
Viceroy, during his visit to Orissa?
Ans A. In 1939

B. In 1941

C. In 1936

D. In 1935

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801135474
Option 1 ID : 6306804462051
Option 2 ID : 6306804462052
Option 3 ID : 6306804462053
Option 4 ID : 6306804462050
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -0.25
Q.29 The 'Missile Man of India' is _________________________.
Ans A. Satish Dhawan

B. Vikram Sarabhai

C. Dr Homi J Bhabha

D. Dr APJ Abdul Kalam

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801148031
Option 1 ID : 6306804512224
Option 2 ID : 6306804512223
Option 3 ID : 6306804512225
Option 4 ID : 6306804512222
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Q.30 In which year did Raja Ram Mohan Roy found the 'Atmiya Sabha'?
Ans A. 1814

B. 1817

C. 1815

D. 1819

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680656451
Option 1 ID : 6306802569746
Option 2 ID : 6306802569747
Option 3 ID : 6306802569749
Option 4 ID : 6306802569748
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Section : Geography

Q.31 Which of the following states in India is known for its significant reserves of natural gas?
Ans A. Haryana

B. Telangana

C. Uttarakhand

D. Gujarat

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680695589
Option 1 ID : 6306802724596
Option 2 ID : 6306802724597
Option 3 ID : 6306802724598
Option 4 ID : 6306802724595
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -0.25
Q.32 Which of the following regions in India experiences intense low pressure by early June,
attracting monsoon winds?
Ans A. Coastal Islands

B. Eastern Ghats

C. Northern Plains

D. Western Ghats

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680594068
Option 1 ID : 6306802324522
Option 2 ID : 6306802324520
Option 3 ID : 6306802324523
Option 4 ID : 6306802324521
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : -0.25

Q.33 Which of the following states has the largest deposit of Chromite as per the National Mineral
Inventory as of 01 April 2020?
Ans A. Chhattisgarh

B. Maharashtra

C. Madhya Pradesh

D. Odisha

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680717858
Option 1 ID : 6306802812972
Option 2 ID : 6306802812970
Option 3 ID : 6306802812971
Option 4 ID : 6306802812969
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Q.34 The Cape of Good Hope is a rocky point on the southern tip of the Cape Peninsula. The Cape
Peninsula sticks out from southwestern Africa into the _____________.
Ans A. Atlantic Ocean

B. Pacific Ocean

C. Arabian Sea

D. Indian Ocean

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801064274
Option 1 ID : 6306804179430
Option 2 ID : 6306804179432
Option 3 ID : 6306804179433
Option 4 ID : 6306804179431
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -0.25
Q.35 Arrange the following rivers of India from North to South.

Godavari-Krishna-Kaveri-Mahanadi
Ans A. ​Mahanadi-Godavari-Krishna-Kaveri

B. Krishna-​Godavari-Mahanadi-Kaveri

C. ​Krishna-​Mahanadi-Kaveri-Godavari

D. ​Godavari-Kaveri-Mahanadi-Krishna

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680695606
Option 1 ID : 6306802724664
Option 2 ID : 6306802724665
Option 3 ID : 6306802724666
Option 4 ID : 6306802724663
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1

Q.36 Which of the following regions is an example of an alpine tundra in India?

Ans A. The Thar Desert

B. Himalayan Mountains

C. Deccan Plateau

D. The Rann of Kutch

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801077576
Option 1 ID : 6306804232303
Option 2 ID : 6306804232302
Option 3 ID : 6306804232304
Option 4 ID : 6306804232305
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -0.25

Q.37 What was the primary goal of India’s Green Revolution?

Ans A. To enhance agricultural productivity and food security

B. To promote environmental conservation

C. To increase industrial production

D. To address water scarcity

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680683245
Option 1 ID : 6306802675702
Option 2 ID : 6306802675700
Option 3 ID : 6306802675699
Option 4 ID : 6306802675701
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.38 The confluence of Alaknanda and Bhagirathi rivers forms the ______.
Ans A. Godavari

B. Brahmaputra

C. Ganga

D. Yamuna

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680595670
Option 1 ID : 6306802330870
Option 2 ID : 6306802330871
Option 3 ID : 6306802330869
Option 4 ID : 6306802330868
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.39 Which of the following agriculture seasons begin with the onset of winter in October-
November and ends in March-April?
Ans A. Rabi

B. Monsoon

C. Kharif

D. Zaid

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680655711
Option 1 ID : 6306802566826
Option 2 ID : 6306802566829
Option 3 ID : 6306802566827
Option 4 ID : 6306802566828
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -0.25

Q.40 The full form of ITCZ is _____________________.

Ans A. Inter-Tropical Compact Zone

B. Inter-Tropical Combine Zone

C. Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone

D. Inter-Tropical Compress Zone

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680648105
Option 1 ID : 6306802537638
Option 2 ID : 6306802537636
Option 3 ID : 6306802537635
Option 4 ID : 6306802537637
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Section : Indian polity and Economy

Q.41 Odisha Industrial Infrastructure Development Corporation (IDCO), which was set up in the
year ________, has been acting as the nodal agency for providing industrial infrastructure and
land for industrial and infrastructure projects in Odisha.
Ans A. 1975

B. 1990

C. 1995

D. 1981

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801146928
Option 1 ID : 6306804507836
Option 2 ID : 6306804507838
Option 3 ID : 6306804507839
Option 4 ID : 6306804507837
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : -0.25

Q.42 How does the Human Development Index (HDI) differ from the Gross Domestic Product
(GDP) per capita and other development indicators?
Ans A. HDI accounts for income distribution, while GDP per capita does not.

B. HDI is calculated based on subjective surveys, while GDP per capita relies on objective
economic data.
C. HDI provides a comprehensive measure of human well-being, while GDP per capita
only measures economic output.
D. HDI includes environmental sustainability as a component, while GDP per capita does
not.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680725456
Option 1 ID : 6306802842937
Option 2 ID : 6306802842938
Option 3 ID : 6306802842936
Option 4 ID : 6306802842939
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.43 Which financial institution of India has been actively involved in financing and supporting
renewable energy projects, such as solar and wind power, to promote sustainable
development and environmental conservation?
Ans A. Infrastructure Development Finance Company (IDFC)

B. Export-Import Bank of India (EXIM Bank)

C. Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA)

D. National Housing Bank (NHB)

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680725441
Option 1 ID : 6306802842876
Option 2 ID : 6306802842879
Option 3 ID : 6306802842878
Option 4 ID : 6306802842877
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.44 Which of the following is a duty of the Prime Minister of India?
Ans A. Advising the President on the appointment of the Chief Justice of India

B. Appointing the Governors of States

C. Directly administering Union Territories

D. Recommending Lok Sabha dissolution to the President

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680784795
Option 1 ID : 6306803075458
Option 2 ID : 6306803075459
Option 3 ID : 6306803075461
Option 4 ID : 6306803075460
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Q.45 What is the main directive of Article 43-B, which was inserted by the 97th Amendment into
the Indian Constitution?
Ans A. To promote the voluntary formation and autonomous functioning of cooperative
societies
B. To regulate the taxation of cooperative societies

C. To provide financial support to cooperative societies

D. To mandate government control over cooperative societies

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801044822
Option 1 ID : 6306804101441
Option 2 ID : 6306804101440
Option 3 ID : 6306804101443
Option 4 ID : 6306804101442
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.46 Which of the following is NOT included in the Right to Freedom of the Indian Constitution?
Ans A. Freedom to reside and settle in any part of India

B. Freedom of speech and expression

C. Freedom to assemble peaceably and without arms

D. Freedom to strike

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680783752
Option 1 ID : 6306803071379
Option 2 ID : 6306803071376
Option 3 ID : 6306803071377
Option 4 ID : 6306803071378
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.47 In which year was the Orissa High Court formally inaugurated?
Ans A. 1954

B. 1952

C. 1948

D. 1950

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801126310
Option 1 ID : 6306804425457
Option 2 ID : 6306804425456
Option 3 ID : 6306804425454
Option 4 ID : 6306804425455
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.48 In which of the following Parts of the Indian Constitution are the Fundamental Rights
mentioned?

Ans A. Part II

B. Part VI

C. Part III

D. Part IV

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680716857
Option 1 ID : 6306802809045
Option 2 ID : 6306802809044
Option 3 ID : 6306802809043
Option 4 ID : 6306802809042
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : -0.25

Q.49 What is the primary function of the Export-Import Bank of India (EXIM Bank)?
Ans A. Providing credit facilities to small-scale industries

B. Regulating the export-import sector in India

C. Regulating the insurance sector in India

D. Promoting foreign trade and investment by providing financial assistance

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680725433
Option 1 ID : 6306802842845
Option 2 ID : 6306802842844
Option 3 ID : 6306802842846
Option 4 ID : 6306802842847
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.50 FEMA Act replaced which of the following acts?
Ans A. FERA Act, 1973

B. The Geneva Conventions Act, 1960

C. The Central Excises (Conversion to Metric Units) Act, 1960

D. The Companies Act,1956

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801148064
Option 1 ID : 6306804512356
Option 2 ID : 6306804512357
Option 3 ID : 6306804512355
Option 4 ID : 6306804512354
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Section : Mental ability

Q.51 Mina starts from Point A and drives 7 km towards east. He then takes a right turn, drives 5
km, turns right and drives 12 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 12 km. He takes a
final right turn, drives 5 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards
which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again?

(Note: All turns are 90 degree turns only unless specified.)

Ans A. 7 km to the south

B. 5 km to the east

C. 8 km to the north

D. 6 km to the south

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680750150
Option 1 ID : 6306802940093
Option 2 ID : 6306802940091
Option 3 ID : 6306802940094
Option 4 ID : 6306802940092
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.52 In a certain code language, ‘CARD’ is coded as ‘2468’ and ‘BLOC’ is coded as ‘3815’. What is
the code for ‘C’ in the given code language?
Ans A. 1

B. 2

C. 5

D. 8

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680959474
Option 1 ID : 6306803761683
Option 2 ID : 6306803761684
Option 3 ID : 6306803761685
Option 4 ID : 6306803761682
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Q.53 C is the brother of A. B is the sister of C. E is the mother of B. E is married to D. F is married

to C. Y is the husband of X. A is the father of X. How is F related to X?
Ans A. Father’s brother’s wife

B. Father’s sister

C. Father’s mother’s sister

D. Mother’s sister

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680285017
Option 1 ID : 6306801108044
Option 2 ID : 6306801108043
Option 3 ID : 6306801108045
Option 4 ID : 6306801108046
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1

Q.54 All 61 people are standing in a row facing north. Mr. Kanchi is 11th from the left end while
Mr. Cha is 26th from the right end. How many people are there between Mr. Kanchi and Mr.
Cha?
Ans A. 22

B. 26

C. 24

D. 28

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680905897
Option 1 ID : 6306803548724
Option 2 ID : 6306803548726
Option 3 ID : 6306803548725
Option 4 ID : 6306803548727
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.55 In a certain code language,
W + V means W is the sister of V,
W # V means W is the husband of V,
W $ V means W is the daughter of V,
W % V means W is the mother of V and
W @ V means W is the brother of V.
Based on the above, how is K related Y, if Y % P # K % R?
Ans A. Sister

B. Daughter

C. Wife

D. Son’s wife

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680746309
Option 1 ID : 6306802925379
Option 2 ID : 6306802925376
Option 3 ID : 6306802925378
Option 4 ID : 6306802925377
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Q.56 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given
in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts,
decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:
All squares are trapeziums.
All trapeziums are rhombuses.

Conclusions:
(I) Some rhombuses are squares.
(II) All rhombuses are squares.
Ans A. Only conclusion (I) follows.

B. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

D. Only conclusion (II) follows.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680917753
Option 1 ID : 6306803596161
Option 2 ID : 6306803596164
Option 3 ID : 6306803596163
Option 4 ID : 6306803596162
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.57 Taylor starts from Point A and drives 3 km towards the East. He then takes a right turn,
drives 8 km, turns left and drives 5 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 2 km. He then
takes a right turn and drive 7 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 6 km and stops at Point P.
How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach
Point A again? (All turns are 90 degrees turns only unless specified)
Ans A. 12 km to the South

B. 13 km to the East

C. 15 km to the West

D. 14 km to the West

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680750678
Option 1 ID : 6306802942150
Option 2 ID : 6306802942151
Option 3 ID : 6306802942153
Option 4 ID : 6306802942152
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.58 Refer to the given letter, symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be
done from left to right only.

(Left) & 6 @ £ 8 $ % 4 5 7 & 1 * 2 3 Ω 9 # (Right)

How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and
also immediately followed by a number?
Ans A. 3

B. 2

C. 4

D. 1

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680959415
Option 1 ID : 6306803761448
Option 2 ID : 6306803761447
Option 3 ID : 6306803761449
Option 4 ID : 6306803761446
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.59 Vishal ranked 15th from the top and 44th from the bottom in his class. How many students
are there in his class?
Ans A. 56

B. 57

C. 58

D. 59

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680903442
Option 1 ID : 6306803539398
Option 2 ID : 6306803539397
Option 3 ID : 6306803539396
Option 4 ID : 6306803539399
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.60 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
(Left) 473 987 324 527 648 (Right)
(Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
NOTE: All the operations to be performed from left to right.
After adding 1 to the third digit of every number, what will be the resultant if the third digit of
the second-smallest number is added to the third digit of the greatest number?
Ans A. 12

B. 13

C. 14

D. 15

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680368183
Option 1 ID : 6306801434173
Option 2 ID : 6306801434174
Option 3 ID : 6306801434175
Option 4 ID : 6306801434176
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1

Section : Numerical ability test

Q.61

Ans A. 18

B. 13

C. 12

D. 9

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680931660
Option 1 ID : 6306803651453
Option 2 ID : 6306803651452
Option 3 ID : 6306803651454
Option 4 ID : 6306803651455
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Q.62 The 1-digit number to be added to the 6-digit number 909541 so that it is completely
divisible by 11 is:
Ans A. 4

B. 5

C. 3

D. 1

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680950608
Option 1 ID : 6306803727084
Option 2 ID : 6306803727081
Option 3 ID : 6306803727082
Option 4 ID : 6306803727083
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : -0.25

Q.63 Amit invested a certain sum of money at 5% per annum simple interest. If he receives an
interest of ₹43994 after 10 years, the sum (in ₹) he invested is:
Ans A. 88527

B. 87988

C. 87749

D. 87957

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680808916
Option 1 ID : 6306803169244
Option 2 ID : 6306803169243
Option 3 ID : 6306803169245
Option 4 ID : 6306803169246
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.64

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680827136
Option 1 ID : 6306803239879
Option 2 ID : 6306803239881
Option 3 ID : 6306803239882
Option 4 ID : 6306803239880
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -0.25

Q.65 There are 89 members in group A, 37 members in group B and 15 members in group C. All
the members of these groups went to a restaurant. The average amount spent on each
member of group A, B and C is ₹355, ₹136 and ₹491, respectively. The total average amount
(in ₹) spent per member is:
Ans A. 307

B. 313

C. 316

D. 312

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680984907
Option 1 ID : 6306803863748
Option 2 ID : 6306803863746
Option 3 ID : 6306803863747
Option 4 ID : 6306803863745
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.66 The list price of a television set is ₹75000. It is sold to a retailer after two successive
discounts of 4% and 5%. The retailer wants to earn a profit of 42% on his cost after allowing
a 20% discount (on its new list price) to the customer. At what price should he list the
television set?
Ans A. ₹121253

B. ₹121337

C. ₹121410

D. ₹121420

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680995099
Option 1 ID : 6306803904426
Option 2 ID : 6306803904424
Option 3 ID : 6306803904423
Option 4 ID : 6306803904425
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.67 Two pipes can fill a tank in 88 hours and 61 hours, respectively. The time (in hours) required
to fill the tank when both pipes are opened simultaneously is:
Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680947846
Option 1 ID : 6306803716077
Option 2 ID : 6306803716079
Option 3 ID : 6306803716078
Option 4 ID : 6306803716076
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.68

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680297298
Option 1 ID : 6306801156662
Option 2 ID : 6306801156659
Option 3 ID : 6306801156660
Option 4 ID : 6306801156661
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.69 Kalpana and Sudha got 776 and 664 marks respectively in an examination. If Kalpana scored
97% marks, then what is the percentage of marks scored by Sudha?
Ans A. 85%

B. 83%

C. 81%

D. 86%

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801021543
Option 1 ID : 6306804009222
Option 2 ID : 6306804009220
Option 3 ID : 6306804009221
Option 4 ID : 6306804009223
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.70 Write the expanded form of (8a + 4b + 7c)2.

Ans A. 64a2 + 16b2 + 49c2 + 64ab + 56bc + 112ac

B. 64a2 + 16b2 + 49c2 + 68ab + 56bc + 112ac

C. 64a2 + 16b2 + 49c2 + 64ab + 51bc + 112ac

D. 64a2 + 16b2 + 49c2 + 64ab + 56bc + 122ac

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680827376
Option 1 ID : 6306803240839
Option 2 ID : 6306803240840
Option 3 ID : 6306803240842
Option 4 ID : 6306803240841
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1

Section : Basic Computer literacy

Q.71 How do you perform page formatting in Microsoft (MS) Word?

Ans A. By clicking on the 'Page Format' button in the toolbar

B. By using the Layout tab and its options for margins, orientation and size

C. By right-clicking on the page and selecting 'Page Setup' from the context menu

D. By selecting 'Format Page' from the Format menu

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680793136
Option 1 ID : 6306803107897
Option 2 ID : 6306803107899
Option 3 ID : 6306803107898
Option 4 ID : 6306803107896
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -0.25

Q.72 Which of the following accurately describes the main contribution of Ada Lovelace to the
field of computing?
Ans A. Creating the first programming language

B. Writing the first algorithm intended for implementation on a machine

C. Developing the first commercial computer

D. Inventing the first mechanical computer

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680969555
Option 1 ID : 6306803802718
Option 2 ID : 6306803802716
Option 3 ID : 6306803802717
Option 4 ID : 6306803802715
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.73 How can you access the Word Options dialog box to customize settings in Microsoft Word?
Ans A. Go to the Home tab → Word Options

B. Go to the View tab → Help menu

C. Go to the References tab → Search Options

D. Go to the File tab → Options

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680980194
Option 1 ID : 6306803844685
Option 2 ID : 6306803844686
Option 3 ID : 6306803844687
Option 4 ID : 6306803844684
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -0.25

Q.74 What is the keyboard shortcut to autofit the width of a column in Excel?
Ans A. Alt + H + O + A

B. Alt + H + O + I

C. Ctrl + W

D. Ctrl + Space

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680745850
Option 1 ID : 6306802923575
Option 2 ID : 6306802923577
Option 3 ID : 6306802923576
Option 4 ID : 6306802923578
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Q.75 In a Windows OS, which setting allows a user to swap the functions of the left and right
mouse buttons, making the right button the primary button for selecting and clicking?
Ans A. Double-Click Speed

B. ClickLock

C. Pointer Options

D. Button Configuration

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801058374
Option 1 ID : 6306804155862
Option 2 ID : 6306804155861
Option 3 ID : 6306804155859
Option 4 ID : 6306804155860
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -0.25
Q.76 Which of the following is an example of an absolute cell reference in MS-Excel?
Ans A. A1

B. $A1

C. A$1

D. $A$1

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801052086
Option 1 ID : 6306804130705
Option 2 ID : 6306804130708
Option 3 ID : 6306804130707
Option 4 ID : 6306804130706
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -0.25

Q.77 What kind of boot, which involves turning off all third-party services and loading only the
drivers that are required, may be configured through system configuration?
Ans A. Boot Manager

B. Clean boot

C. Safe Mode Boot

D. Local Boot

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680777085
Option 1 ID : 6306803046040
Option 2 ID : 6306803046039
Option 3 ID : 6306803046038
Option 4 ID : 6306803046037
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -0.25

Q.78 Which of the following types of memory is typically used as the main memory in a computer
system?
Ans A. Flash Memory

B. Read-Only Memory (ROM)

C. Random Access Memory (RAM)

D. Cache Memory

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 6306801056059
Option 1 ID : 6306804146745
Option 2 ID : 6306804146742
Option 3 ID : 6306804146744
Option 4 ID : 6306804146743
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : -0.25
Q.79 What option allows you to print multiple slides per page in MS-PowerPoint 2019
presentation?

Ans A. Slide Sorter View

B. Outline View

C. Handouts

D. Notes Pages

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680824489
Option 1 ID : 6306803229629
Option 2 ID : 6306803229628
Option 3 ID : 6306803229626
Option 4 ID : 6306803229627
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -0.25

Q.80 Which setup option in Microsoft PowerPoint allows you to apply consistent formatting
across all slides in a presentation?
Ans A. Slide Sorter

B. Design Ideas

C. Slide Master

D. Slide Layout

Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 630680915721
Option 1 ID : 6306803587951
Option 2 ID : 6306803587950
Option 3 ID : 6306803587949
Option 4 ID : 6306803587948
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1