AS MCQ

Name:

Mark:

Percentage:

1. 7. 13. 19. 25.

2. 8. 14. 20. 26.

3. 9. 15. 21. 27.

4. 10. 16. 22. 28.

5. 11. 17. 23. 29.

6. 12. 18. 24. 30.

AS MCQs

Q1.
Monochromatic light of wavelength 600 nm is used to illuminate a pair of slits 0.50 mm
apart. The fringes are observed at a distance of 1.50 m from the slits.

What is the separation of the fringes?

A 2.0 × 10−7 mm

B 1.8 × 10−3 mm

C 5.6 × 10−1 mm

D 1.8 mm
(Total 1 mark)

Q2.
A layer of liquid of refractive index 1.6 covers the horizontal flat surface of a glass block of
refractive index 1.5. A ray of light strikes the boundary between them at an angle such that
it travels along the boundary afterwards.

How does the ray strike the boundary?

A it travels in glass at an angle of 70° to the boundary

B it travels in glass at an angle of 20° to the boundary

it travels in the liquid at an angle of 70° to the

C
boundary

it travels in the liquid at an angle of 20° to the

D
boundary
(Total 1 mark)
Q3.
The diagram shows a ray of light travelling in air and incident on a glass block of refractive
index 1.5

What is the angle of refraction in the glass?

A 22.5°

B 23.3°

C 33.1°

D 59.4°
(Total 1 mark)

Q4.
A diffraction grating has 500 lines per mm. When monochromatic light is incident normally
on the grating the third-order spectral line is formed at an angle of 60° from the normal to
the grating.

What is the wavelength of the monochromatic light?

A 220 nm

B 580 nm

C 960 nm

D 1700 nm
(Total 1 mark)
Q5.
An electromagnetic wave enters a fibre-optic cable from air. On entering the cable, the
wave slows down to three-fifths of its original speed.

What is the refractive index of the core of the fibre-optic cable?

A 0.67

B 1.33

C 1.50

D 1.67
(Total 1 mark)

Q6.
What is the correct order of increasing photon energy in the electromagnetic spectrum?

1 is least energy, 4 is greatest energy.

Radio waves γ rays Visible light Infrared

A 1 4 3 2

B 4 1 2 3

C 1 4 2 3

D 4 1 3 2
(Total 1 mark)
Q7.
A uniform wire, fixed at both ends, is plucked in the middle so that it vibrates at the first
harmonic as shown.

What is the phase difference between the oscillations of the particles at P and Q?

A zero

(Total 1 mark)

Q8.
Which row shows the change in velocity, frequency and wavelength of an electromagnetic
wave as it travels from an optically less dense to an optically more dense medium?

Velocity Frequency Wavelength

A decreases decreases unchanged

B increases unchanged increases

C decreases unchanged decreases

D increases increases unchanged

(Total 1 mark)
Q9.
The least distance between two points of a progressive transverse wave which have a

phase difference of rad is 0.050 m. If the frequency of the wave is 500 Hz, what is the
speed of the wave?

A 25 m s–1

B 75 m s–1

C 150 m s–1

D 1666 m s–1
(Total 1 mark)

Q10.
The graph shows how the vertical height of a travelling wave varies with distance along
the path of the wave.

The speed of the wave is 20 cm s–1.

What is the period of the wave?

A 0.1 s

B 0.2 s

C 5.0 s
 D 10.0 s
(Total 1 mark)

Q11.
The graph shows the variation of stress with strain for a ductile alloy when a specimen is
slowly stretched to a maximum strain of εm and the stress is then slowly reduced to zero.

The shaded area

A represents the work done per unit volume when stretching the specimen

represents the energy per unit volume recovered when the stress is
B
removed

C represents the energy per unit volume which cannot be recovered

D has units of J m–1

(Total 1 mark)

Q12.
A steel wire W has a length l and a circular cross-section of radius r. When W hangs
vertically and a load is attached to the bottom end, it extends by e.
Another wire X made from the same material has the same load attached to it.

Which length and radius for X will produce an extension of ?

Length of X Radius of X

A 0.5l 2r

B l 4r

C 2l 2r

D 4l 4r
 (Total 1 mark)

Q13.
A load of 4.0 N is suspended from a parallel two-spring system as shown in the diagram.

The spring constant of each spring is 20 N m–1. The elastic energy, in J, stored in the
system is

A 0.1

B 0.2

C 0.4

D 0.8
(Total 1 mark)

Q14.
For which of the following relationships is the quantity y related to the quantity x by the

relationship

x y

A energy stored in a spring extension of the spring

B gravitational field strength distance from a point mass

C de Broglie wavelength of an electron momentum of the electron

D period of a mass-spring system spring constant (stiffness) of the spring

(Total 1 mark)
Q15.
A steel wire has a cross-sectional area 0.5 mm2. The Young modulus of steel is 2.0 × 1011
Pa. Assume the wire obeys Hooke’s law.

What load must be suspended from the wire to produce an extension which is 0.1% of the
original length?

A 40 N

B 50 N

C 100 N

D 200 N
(Total 1 mark)

Q16.
Two identical balls, X and Y, are at the same height and a horizontal distance of 25 cm
apart.

X is projected horizontally with a velocity of 0.10 m s–1 towards Y at the same time that Y
is released from rest. Both X and Y move freely in the absence of air resistance.

What is the distance between the balls 1.0 s later?

A 0.15 m

B 0.25 m

C 2.4 m

D 4.9 m
(Total 1 mark)
Q17. The diagram shows the path of a projectile launched from ground level with a speed of 25 m
s–1 at an angle of 42° to the horizontal.

What is the horizontal distance from the starting point of the projectile when it hits the
ground?

A 23 m

B 32 m

C 47 m

D 63 m
(Total 1 mark)

Q18. A non-uniform sign is 0.80 m long and has a weight of 18 N

It is suspended from two vertical springs P and Q. The springs obey Hooke’s law and the
spring constant of each spring is 240 N m–1

The top end of spring P is fixed and the top end of spring Q is adjusted until the sign is
horizontal and in equilibrium.

What is the extension of spring Q?

A 0.014 m
 B 0.038 m

C 0.049 m

D 0.061 m
(Total 1 mark)

Q19.
The graph shows how the force F applied to an object varies with time t.

What is the momentum gained by the object from t = 0 to t = 10 s?

A 18 kg m s–1

B 32 kg m s–1

C 40 kg m s–1

D 58 kg m s–1

(Total 1 mark)
Q20.
A car’s engine produces a useful output power of 6.5 × 104 W

The car of mass 950 kg is moving up a hill at a steady speed.

The slope of the hill is 12° to the horizontal. Resistive forces on the car are negligible.

What is the steady speed of the car?

A 7.0 m s–1

B 12 m s–1

C 34 m s–1

D 68 m s–1

(Total 1 mark)

Q21.
Electromagnetic radiation incident on a metal surface can cause electrons to be emitted.

Which of the following statements is correct?

Every photon incident on the surface causes

A
an electron to be emitted.

All the emitted electrons have the same

B
energy.

The range of energy of the emitted electrons

C
depends on the intensity of the radiation.

If the incident radiation is of a single

frequency, the number of electrons emitted
D
per second increases if the intensity of the
radiation increases.
(Total 1 mark)
Q22.
The graph of neutron number against proton number shows three nuclei P, Q and R.

Which row identifies an isotope of P and the nucleon number of this isotope of P?

Isotope of P Nucleon number of

isotope of P

A Q y+1
B Q x+y+1
C R x+y+1
D R x+1
(Total 1 mark)

Q23.
The decay of a neutral kaon K0 is given by the equation

K0 → X + Y + v̅ e
What are X and Y?

X and Y

A e+ and e–

B μ+ and e–
 C π+ and e–

D π– and e+
(Total 1 mark)

Q24.
What interactions are involved in the production of a strange particle and its decay into
non-strange particles?

Production Decay

A strong weak

B strong strong

C weak strong

D weak weak
(Total 1 mark)

Q25.
An atom of gains 3 electrons.

What is the specific charge of the ion?

A 1.80 × 107 C kg–1

B –1.80 × 107 C kg–1

C 4.19 × 107 C kg–1

D –4.19 × 107 C kg–1

(Total 1 mark)
Q26.
In this resistor network, the emf of the supply is 12 V and it has negligible internal
resistance.

What is the reading on a voltmeter connected between points X and Y?

A 0V

B 1V

C 3V

D 4V
(Total 1 mark)

Q27.
A gas containing doubly-charged ions flows to give an electric current of 0.64 A

How many ions pass a point in 1.0 minute?

A 2.0 × 1018

B 4.0 × 1018

C 1.2 × 1020
 D 2.4 × 1020

(Total 1 mark)

Q28.
The current in the cell is 10 A as shown.

What is the current in the 2.0 Ω resistor?

A 0.35 A

B 2.86 A

C 3.50 A

D 7.14 A
(Total 1 mark)

Q29.
Electrons moving in a beam have the same de Broglie wavelength as protons in a
separate beam moving at a speed of 2.8 × 104 m s–1.

What is the speed of the electrons?

A 1.5 × 101 m s–1

B 2.8 × 104 m s–1

C 1.2 × 106 m s–1

D 5.1 × 107 m s–1

 (Total 1 mark)

Q30.
The graph shows how the potential difference V across an electrical component varies
with current I in the component.

A tangent has been drawn on the curve at point P for a current of I2.

What is the resistance of the electrical component when the current in the component is
I2?
A

(Total 1 mark)
Mark schemes

Q1.

D
[1]

Q2.
D
[1]

Q3.
C
[1]

Q4.
B
[1]

Q5.
D
[1]

Q6.

A
[1]

Q7.
A
[1]

Q8.
C
[1]

Q9.
C
[1]

Q10.
 B
[1]

Q11.
C
[1]

Q12.
D
[1]

Q13.
B
[1]

Q14.
C
[1]

Q15.

C
[1]

Q16.
A
[1]

Q17.
D
[1]

Q18.
D
[1]

Q19.
D
[1]

Q20.
 C
[1]

Q21.

D
[1]

Q22.
B
[1]

Q23.
C
[1]

Q24.
A
[1]

Q25.
B
[1]

Q26.
B
[1]

Q27.
C
[1]

Q28.
B
[1]

Q29.
D
[1]

Q30.
C
[1]
Examiner reports

Q3.
This question was set up to test the students’ ability to spot that 35° was not the angle of
incidence. This indeed proved to catch a lot of students out, with almost 60% of students
selecting distractor A. Errors of this type can be minimised by completing the ray diagram
and marking the angle to be determined. Doing this gives the students a chance to take
stock of the information, making it less likely to misinterpret the data.

Q4.
83.2% correct

Q5.
89.2% correct

Q7.
Only 35% of students answered this question correctly. The most popular incorrect
response was distractor C. Knowledge of the phase relationship between points on a
stationary wave is expected. Students should be familiar with characteristics of a
stationary wave, not simply limited to no net energy transfer and node / antinode
positions.

Q8.
Approximately 35% of students selected distractor A as their answer. Students need to be
able to recall that wavelength decreases as velocity decreases as light enters a more
optically dense medium.

Q12.
44.5% correct

Q16.
Less than 50% of students selected the correct answer. Distractor B was the most
frequently selected incorrect response. In selecting distractor B, students did not take
account of the horizontal motion of ball X.

Q18.
43.0% correct

Q19.
Most students were able to determine the momentum gained by the object. Each of the
distractors gained about 15% of student responses.
Q20.
The most popular answer here was the correct answer (41% of students); certainly higher
achieving candidates seemed confident with this calculation.

Q22.
The majority of students (63.3%) were able to identify the correct answer. The most
common incorrect answer was A; here students correctly identified the isotope but had not
given sufficient thought to P’s nucleon number.

Q23.
Here, again, most students (70.1%) selected the correct response. The most common
wrong answer was D.

Q24.
Just over 50% of students selected the correct answer. The most frequent incorrect
response was distractor D; students were familiar with the possible non-conservation of
strangeness in decay but did not know that strangeness must be conserved in the
production of strange particles.

Q27.
58.3% correct

Q28.
This proved one of the most accessible questions in section C, with nearly 80% of
students selecting the correct answer. However, it was noted that the supporting working
was not particularly convincing. Many students used the ratio of 4:2:1 for the current ratio
rather than the ratio ¼: ½: 1. This error may have resulted in students obtaining the wrong
answer if asked for the current in either the 4 Ω or 1 Ω resistor.

Q30.
Despite this idea being tested last year, students still seem to be unaware of how to
determine resistance at a point on a curved V-I graph. The resistance is the ratio of the
voltage and current at that point and not the gradient of the tangent to the curve.
Distractor B was the most common answer selected by students; 32.1% of them gained
the mark.