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X MATHS All Chapters - SAT 4

The document is a mathematics question paper for Class X, consisting of 5 sections (A-E) with a total of 80 marks and a duration of 3 hours. Each section contains various types of questions including multiple-choice, short answer, and case-based questions, covering a range of mathematical concepts. General instructions outline the structure of the paper, including internal choices and requirements for neat figures.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
31 views9 pages

X MATHS All Chapters - SAT 4

The document is a mathematics question paper for Class X, consisting of 5 sections (A-E) with a total of 80 marks and a duration of 3 hours. Each section contains various types of questions including multiple-choice, short answer, and case-based questions, covering a range of mathematical concepts. General instructions outline the structure of the paper, including internal choices and requirements for neat figures.

Uploaded by

swapnil.cuttack
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 9

BHASHYAM BLOOMS

SAT 4 (SET -2)

Class: X Max Marks: 80


Subject: Mathematics Time: 3hrs

General Instructions:
1. This Question Paper has 5 Sections A-E.
2. Section A has 20 MCQs carrying 1 mark each.
3. Section B has 5 questions carrying 02 marks each.
4. Section C has 6 questions carrying 03 marks each.
5. Section D has 4 questions carrying 05 marks each.
6. Section E has 3 case based integrated units of assessment (04 marks each) with sub-
parts of the values of 1, 1 and 2 marks each respectively.
7. All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice in 2 Qs of 5 marks, 2 Qs of
3 marks and 2 Questions of 2 marks has been provided. An internal choice has been
provided in the 2 marks questions of Section E.
8. Draw neat figures wherever required. Take π =22/7 wherever required if not stated.

Section A

Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. Lowest value of x2+ 4x + 2 is 1M


(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 2 (d) 4

2. The pair of equations y = 0 and y = − 7 has 1M


(a) one solution (b) two solutions
(c) infinitely many solutions (d) no solution

3. The equation 2x2+ 2(p + 1) x + p = 0, where p is real, always has roots that are 1M
(a) Equal (b) Equal in magnitude but opposite in sign
(c) Irrational (d) Real

4. A dealer sells a toy for Rs 24 and gains as much percent as the cost price of the toy.
Find cost price of the toy. 1M
(a) Rs 18 (b) Rs 20 (c) Rs 22 (d) none

5. It is given that, ABC  EDF such that AB = 5 cm, AC = 7 cm, DF = 15 cm and


DE = 12 cm then the sum of the remaining sides of the triangles is 1M
(a) 23.05 cm (b) 16.8 cm (c) 6.25 cm (d) 24 cm

6. In the given figure, x is 1M


ab ac bc ac
(a) (b) (c) (d)
ab bc bc ac

3 cos ec A
7. If cos A = then find 1M
5 1  tan 2 A
4 5 3 4
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 4 4 3
8. A pole casts a shadow of length 2 3 m on the ground, when the Sun’s elevation is
60º. Find the height of the pole. 1M
(a) 4 m (b) 6 m (c) 2 m (d) 3 m

9.The length of a string between a kite and a point on the ground is 85 m. If the string
15
makes an angle  with level ground such that tan  = , then the height of kite is 1M
8
(a) 75 m (b) 78.05 m (c) 226 m (d) None of these

10. From an external point P, tangents PA and PB are drawn to a circle with centre O. If
CD is the tangent to the circle at a point E and PA = 14 cm. The perimeter of PCD is
1M
(a) 14 cm (b) 21 cm (c) 28 cm (d) 35 cm

11. In the given figure, three circles with centres P, Q and R are drawn, such that the
circles with centres Q and R touch each other externally and they touch the circle with
centre P, internally. If PQ = 10 cm, PR = 8 cm and QR = 12 cm, then the diameter of the
largest circle is: 1M

(a) 30 cm (b) 20 cm (c) 10 cm (d) None of these

12. The area of a circular ring formed by two concentric circles whose radii are 5.7 cm
and 4.3 cm respectively is (Take  = 3.1416) 1M
(a) 44 sq. cm. (b) 66 sq. cm. (c) 22 sq. cm. (d) 33 sq. cm.
13.The sum of the areas of two circle, which touch each other externally, is 153 . If the
sum of their radii is 15, then the ratio of the larger to the smaller radius is 1M
(a) 4 :1 (b) 2 :1 (c) 3 :1 (d) None of these

14. If xi ’s are the mid-points of the class intervals of grouped data, f i ’s are the
corresponding frequencies and x is the mean, then  ( f x  x) is equal to
i i 1M
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 1 (d) 2

15. If the radius of the sphere is increased by 100%, the volume of the corresponding
sphere is increased by 1M
(a) 200% (b) 500% (c) 700% (d) 800%

16. A bag contains 3 red and 2 blue marbles. If a marble is drawn at random, then the
probability of drawing a blue marble is: 1M
2 1 3 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 4 5 3

17. Someone is asked to take a number from 1 to 100. The probability that it is a prime,
is 1M
8 3 1 13
(a) (b) (c) (d)
25 4 4 50

18. In a frequency distribution, the mid value of a class is 10 and the width of the class
is 6. The lower limit of the class is 1M
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 12

DIRECTION: In the question numbers 19 and 20, a statement of assertion (A) is


followed by a statement of Reason (R). Choose the correct option

19. Statement A (Assertion): Common difference of the AP  5, 1, 3, 7, .......... is 4.


Statement R(Reason): Common difference of the AP a, a + d, a + 2d, .......... is given by
d = a2− a1 1M

(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation
of assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

4
20. Statement A (Assertion): The value of sin  = is not possible.
3
Statement R(Reason): Hypotenuse is the largest side in any right-angled triangle. 1M

(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation
of assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
Section B

Section B consists of 5 questions of 2 marks each.

21.Three bells toll at intervals of 9, 12, 15 minutes respectively. If they start tolling
together, after what time will they next toll together? 2M
(OR)
Show that 5 6 is an irrational number.

22. Find the ratio in which the point (3, k) divides the line segment joining the points
(5, 4) and (2, 3). Also find the value of k. 2M

23. In figure, common tangents AB and CD to the two circles with centres O1 and O2
intersect at E. Prove that AB = CD. 2M

24.The fourth term of an AP is 11. The sum of the fifth and seventh terms of the AP is
34. Find the common difference. 2M

25. A man arranges to pay off a debt of RS. 3600 by 40 annual instalments which form
an arithmetic series. When 30 of the instalments are paid, he dies leaving one-third of
the debt unpaid, find the value of the first instalment. 2M
(OR)
If the nth term of an AP is given by an = 5n − 3, then find the sum of first 10 terms.

Section C

Section C consists of 6 questions of 3 marks each.

26. From a solid right circular cylinder of height 14 cm and base radius 6 cm, a right
circular cone of same height and same base removed. Find the volume of the remaining
solid. 3M
(OR)
A metallic cylinder has radius 3 cm and height 5 cm. To reduce its weights, a conical
3 8
hole is drilled in the cylinder. The conical hole has a radius of cm and its depth
2 9
cm. calculate the ratio of the volume of metal left in the cylinder to the volume of metal
taken out in conical shape.
27. Prove that the tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through
the point of contact. 3M

(OR)
PB is a tangent to the circle with centre O to B. AB is a chord of length 24 cm at a
distance of 5 cm from the centre. It the tangent is length 20 cm, find the length of PO.

28. (a) One card is drawn from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards. Find the probability of
getting :(i) a non-face card, (ii) a black king. 2M
(b) In a family of two children find the probability of having at least one girl. 1M

1 1 1 1
29.Solve for x:    3M
( x  1)( x  2) ( x  2)( x  3) ( x  3)( x  4) 6

30. Amit, standing on a horizontal plane, find a bird flying at a distance of 200 m from
him at an elevation of 30. Deepak standing on the roof of a 50 m high building, find the
angle of elevation of the same bird to be 45. Amit and Deepak are on opposite sides of
the bird. Find the distance of the bird from Deepak. 3M

31.A train covered a certain distance at a uniform speed. If the train would have been
10km/h faster, it would have taken 2 hours less than the scheduled time. And, if the
train were slower by 10 km/hr, it would have taken 3 hr more than the scheduled time.
Find the distance covered by the train. 3M
Section D
Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each.

32.(a) If  and  are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial p(x) = x2  2x + 3 then find
 1  1
the quadratic polynomial whose zeroes are , 3M
 1  1
(b) If sum of the squares of zeroes of the quadratic polynomial p(x) = x 2  8x + k is 40,
find the value of k. 2M

33. In figure, DEFG is a square in a triangle ABC right angled at A. Prove that
(i) AGF DBG (ii) AGF EFC 5M

(OR)
Prove that If a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle to intersect the other two
sides in distinct points, then the other two sides are divided in the same ratio.

Using the above theorem, prove that the diagonals of a trapezium divide each other
proportionally.

34. In an acute angled triangle ABC, if tan (A+B  C) = 1, sec (B+C  A) = 2, find the
values of A, B and C. 5M
(OR)
If cosec  sin = a and sec  cos = b then prove that a2b2(a2+b2+3) = 1.
35. Figure, shows a sector of a circle, centre O, containing an angle θ. Prove that

Perimeter of the shaded region is r(tan  + sec θ+ − 1). 5M
180

Section E

Section E consists of 3 case study-based questions of 4 marks each.

36. Case study based - 1: Lavanya wants to organize her birthday party. She is very
happy on her birthday. She is very health conscious, thus she decided to serve fruits
only in her birthday party.

She has 36 apples and 60 bananas at home and decided to serve them. She wants to
distribute fruits among guests. She does not want to discriminate among guests, so she
decided to distribute fruits equally among all.

(i) How many maximum guests Lavanya can invite? 1M

(ii) How many apples and bananas will each guest get? 1M

(iii) Lavanya decide to add 42 mangoes also. In this case how many maximum guests
Lavanya can invite? 2M
(OR)
If Lavanya decide to add 3 more mangoes and remove 6 apples in total fruits, in this
case how many maximum guests Lavanya can invite?
37. Case study based -2: Morning assembly is an integral part of the school’s schedule.
Almost all the schools conduct morning assemblies which include prayers, information
of latest happenings, inspiring thoughts, speech, national anthem, etc. A good
school is always particular about their morning assembly schedule. Morning assembly is
important for a child’s development. It is essential to understand that morning assembly
is not just about standing in long queues and singing prayers or national anthem, but
it’s something beyond just prayers. All the activities carried out in morning assembly by
the school staff and students have a great influence in every point of life. The positive
effects of attending school assemblies can be felt throughout life.

Have you noticed that in school assembly you always stand in row and column and this
make a coordinate system. Suppose a school have 100 students and they all assemble in
prayer in 10 rows as given below.

Here A, B, C and D are four friend Amar, Bharat, Colin and Dravid.
(i) What is the distance between A and B ? 1M
(ii) What is the distance between C and D ? 1M
(iii) What is the distance between A and C ? 2M

(OR)
What is the distance between D and B ?
38. Case study based - 3: Heart Rate : The heart rate is one of the ‘vital signs,’ or the
important indicators of health in the human body. It measures the number of times per
minute that the heart contracts or beats. The speed of the heartbeat varies as a
result of physical activity, threats to safety, and emotional responses. The resting heart
rate refers to the heart rate when a person is relaxed. While a normal heart rate does
not guarantee that a person is free of health problems, it is a useful benchmark for
identifying a range of health issues. After the age of 10 years, the heart rate of a person
should be between 60 and 100 beats per minute while they are resting.

Thirty women were examined by doctors of AIIMS and the number of heart beats per
minute were recorded and summarised as follows.

Based on the above information, answer the following questions.


(i) What is the mean heart beats per minute for these women ? 1M
(ii) What is the upper limit of median value of heart beats per minute for these
women ? 1M
(iii) What is the lower limit of mode value of heart beats per minute for these
women ? 2M
(OR)
How many women are having heart beat in range 68-77?
.

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