PHYSICS SECTION A (2) Semiconductor increases and metals

1. A Wheatstone bridge has resistance of 10 decreases

Ω,10Ω,10Ω and 30Ω in its four arms. What (3) Increases in both of them
resistance joined to 30Ω resistance will bring it to (4) Decreases in both of them
balanced condition?
(1) 15Ω resistance joined in parallel 6. In the given circuit, the switch S is closed at
(2) 30Ω resistance joined in parallel time t= 0 , then the correct statement for
(3) 30Ω resistance joined in series current i in resistance PQ as shown in the figure
(4) 10Ω resistance joined in parallel

2. A compartment of a train is lit by 20 identical

bulbs in series. one of the bulbs fuses and is
removed from the chain. The remaining bulbs (1) I = 20 mA for all time t
now light the room. The light in the compartment (2) I = 10 mA for all time t
will: (3) I = 20 mA at t= 0 and with time it goes to I=
(1) Increases 10 mA
(2) Decreases (4) I oscillate between 10 mA and 20 mA
(3) Neither increases nor decreases
(4) None 7. For which of the following dependencies of
drift velocity Vd on electric field E, is Ohm's law
3. A wire of length ‘l’ and resistance 100Ω is obeyed?
divided into 10 equal parts. The first 5 parts are (1) Vd ∝ E
connected in series while the next 5 parts are (2) Vd ∝ E³
connected in parallel. The two combinations are (3) Vd ∝ √E
1
again connected in series. The resistance of this (4) Vd ∝ E
final combination is
(1) 55Ω 8. AB is a wire of uniform resistance. The
(2) 60Ω galvanometer G shows no current when the
(3) 26Ω length AC=40 cm and CB=60cm as shown in the
(4) 52Ω figure. The resistance R is equal to

4. The potential difference (VP-VQ) between the

points P and Q in the part of the circuit as shown
in figure is
(1) 40 Ω
(2) 50 Ω
(3) 15 Ω
(1) 6V
(4) 30 Ω
(2) 9V
(3) -12V
9. Which of the following I-V graphs represents
(4) 12V
ohmic conductors?
5. With increase in temperature the conductivity
of:
(1) Metals increases and semiconductor
decreases (1)
 (1) 4:9
(2) 9:4
(3) 1:2
(2) (4) 2:1

13. Two resistors of resistances 10 Ω and 40 Ω

are connected with a capacitor of capacitance 0.1
𝜇F and ideal battery of emf 10V. When switch (S)
is closed, then initial current and current in
(3) steady state through the battery respectively are

(4)
(1) 1A, 1A
10. Two resistors of resistances 100 Ω and 200 (2) 0.1A, 0.2A
Ω are connected in parallel in an electrical circuit. (3) 1A, 0.2A
The ratio of thermal energy developed in 100 Ω (4) 0.2A, 1A
to that in 200 Ω in a given time is
(1) 1 : 2 14. When current flows through copper wire,
(2) 2 : 1 current density J, electric field E and motion of
(3) 1 : 4 electrons have directions such that:
(4) 4 : 1 (1) J & E in opposite direction
(2) Motion of electrons and E, in opposite
11. A wire of resistance 10Ω is stretched to direction
twice its original length . the resistance of the half (3) J & motion of electrons in same direction
of the stretched wire is (4) J, E & motion of electrons are in same
(1) 10 Ω direction
(2) 20 Ω
(3) 40 Ω 15. Two cells A and B of emf 4V and 2V with
(4) 80 Ω internal resistances 5Ω each are connected as
shown in figure. The potential difference VA
12. Six similar bulbs are connected as shown in across the terminals of cell A is
the figure with a DC source of emf E, and zero
internal resistance.
The ratio of power consumption by the bulbs
when (i) all are glowing and (ii) in the situation
when two from section A and one from section B
are glowing, will be :
(1) VA = 1.875V
(2) VA = 2.125V
(3) VA = 3.5V
(4) VA = 2.00V
16. A copper wire of length 10 m and radius
10−2
( ) has electrical resistance of 10 Ω. The
√𝜋
current density in the wire for an electric field
strength of 10 (V/m) is:
(1) 10⁴ A/m² (1) 2A
(2) 10⁶ A/m² (2) 2.5A
(3) 10⁻⁵ A/m2 (3) 1A
(4) 10⁵ A/m² (4) 1.25A

17. In the circuit shown below what will be the 21. Is it possible that any battery has some
reading of the voltmeter and ammeter constant non-zero value of emf but the potential
respectively? difference between the plates is zero?
(1) Not possible
(2) Yes, if another identical battery is joined in
supportive and series
(3) Yes, if another identical battery is joined in
opposition and series
(1) 200V, 1A (4) Yes, possible, if another similar battery is
(2) 800V, 2A joined in parallel
(3) 100V, 2A
(4) 220V, 2.2A 22. Which of the following acts as a circuit
protection device?
18. The V-I characteristics of a non-linear device (1) Inductor
is shown in the figure. The region showing (2) Conductor
negative resistance is (3) Switch
(4) Fuse

23. For the given circuit, find VA - VB

(1) OA
(2) AB
(3) CD
(4) BC
(1) 6V
(2) 4V
19. The charge Q (in coulomb) flowing through a
(3) 3V
resistance R = 10Ω varies with time t (in
(4) 2V
seconds) as Q = 2t-t2. The total heat produced is
40
(1) J 24. The current density J at cross-sectional area
3
20
(2) 3
J 𝐴 = (2𝑖̂ + 4𝑗̂ )𝑚𝑚2 is (2𝑗̂ + 2𝑘̂)𝐴𝑚−2 . The
(3)
80
J current flowing through the cross-sectional area
3
(4)
80
J is
7
(1) 12µA
20. The current flowing through the ideal (2) 8μΑ
ammeter in the circuit shown is (3) 4µA
(4) Zero
 ammeter is I2 when only S2 is closed and reading
25. The reading of ammeter in the circuit shown of ammeter is I3 when both S1 and S2 are closed
in the figure is then

(1) I1>I2>I3
(1) 3 A (2) I3>I2>I1
(2) 2 A (3) I3 >I1 >I2
(3) 1.5 A (4) I3<I1<I2
(4) 2.5 A
30. A 1600W -180V heater operates at 180V.
26. The terminal voltage of the battery, whose The resistance of heating coil is
emf is l0V and internal resistance 1 Ω, when (1) 20.25Ω
connected through an external resistance of 4 Ω (2) 21.5Ω
as shown in the figure is : (3) 18Ω
(4) 1200Ω

31. In the circuit shown, if a wire is connected

between points A and B, current through wire
(1) 8 V AB is
(2) 10 V
(3) 4 V
(4) 6 V

27. Electric bulb 50W-100V glowing at full 10

(1) A from A to B
potential, used in parallel with battery 120V -10 3
10
ohm. Maximum number of bulbs that can be (2) A from B to A
3
20
connected so that they glow in full power is? (3) A from A to B
3
(1) 3 (4)
20
A from B to A
3
(2) 4
(3) 5 32. The resistances of the four arms A, B, C and
(4) 6 D of a wheatstone bridge as shown in the figure
are 10Ω, 20Ω, 30Ω and 60Ω respectively. The
28. Two bulbs of rated power 60 W and 100 W, emf and internal resistance of the cell are 15 V
same specified voltage 220V, are connected in and 2.5Ω respectively. If the galvanometer
series to a 440V DC source resistance is 80Ω then the net current drawn
(1) 60W bulb gives more brightness from the cell will be
(2) 100W bulb gives more brightness
(3) 100W bulb will get fused
(4) 60W bulb will get fused

29. In the circuit shown in the figure , reading of

ammeter is I1 when only S1 is closed , reading of
(1) 0.4 A (3) Bending or reorienting the wire does not
(2) 0.6 A change the validity of kirchhoff's rule
(3) 0.5 A (4) all of above
(4) 0.1 A
38. If each side of a regular polygon of n sides has
33. Two heaters A and B have power ratings of 1 a resistance R then the equivalent resistance
kW and 2kW respectively. Those two are first between any two adjacent vertices is;
connected in series and then in parallel to a fixed (1) nR
power source. The ratio of power outputs for R
(2) n
these two cases is: (n−R)R
(3)
(1) 1:2 nR
n
(4)
(2) 2:3 n−1

(3) 1:1
39. The Power dissipated across the 8 ohm
(4) 2:9
resistor in the circuit shown here is 2W. The
power dissipated across 3 ohm resistor is:
34. In a wheatstone bridge if the battery and
galvanometer are interchanged the deflection in
Galvanometer will
(1) Change in previous direction
(2) Not change
(3) Change in opposite direction (1) 2
(4) None of these (2) 1
(3) 0.5
35. A group of six identical cells each of emf E (4) 3
and internal resistance r joined in series to form a
loop. the terminal voltage across each cell is 40. The I-V characteristics shown in figure
(1) E represents:
(2) 6E
(3) E/6
(4) zero

SECTION B
36. Which of the following is designed to
interrupt the flow of electricity in case of an
overload or short circuit? (1) Ohmic conductors
(1) Resistor (2) Non–ohmic conductors
(2) Capacitor (3) Insulators
(3) Circuit Breaker (4) Superconductors
(4) Transformer
41. The equivalent resistance between point A
37. Point out the right statements about the and B in the circuit shown in figure is
validity of Kirchoff's junction rule:
(1) Based on conservation of charge
(2) Outgoing currents adds up and are equal to
incoming currents at a junction
(1) 30 Ω (3) Potential difference across cell of larger EMF
(2) 40 Ω may be zero
(3) 2 Ω (4) Potential difference can be zero only if EMF of
(4) Zero both cells are same

42. In the circuits shown below, the readings of 45. Electrical conductivity of a typical insulator is
voltmeters and the ammeters will be: about 10⁻²² times that of metal while heat
conductivity is about 10⁻³ because:
(1) In electrical conduction only free e⁻ take part
while in thermal conduction both lattice and
free e⁻ contribute
(2) During electrical conduction no. of free e⁻ are
considerably lesser as compare to the number
during thermal conduction
(1) V1 = V2 and I1 = I2 (3) During electrical conduction no. of collision
(2) V1 > V2 and I1 > I2
of free e⁻ are extremely large whereas during
(3) V1 > V2 and I1 = I2
thermal conductor no. of collision are small
(4) V1 = V2 and I1 > I2
(4) None
43. B1, B2 and B3 are three identical bulbs
connected as shown in Fig. When all the three 46. If we consider a mechanism where, the ends
bulbs glow, a current of 3A is recorded by the of the cylinder are supplied with fresh charges to
ammeter A. How much power is dissipated in the make up for any charges neutralised by electrons
circuit when all the three bulbs glow together? moving inside the conductor, in that case:
(1) There will be steady electric field in the
conductor
(2) There will be continuous current rather than
a current for a short period of time
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(1) 13 W (4) Neither (1) nor (2)
(2) 12 W
47. The resistance of a wire is R0. If it is
(3) 13.5 W
stretched to n times of its original length, then it's
(4) 2 W
new resistance will be
44. Two cells of unequal emf E₁ and E₂ having (1) n2R0
internal resistance r₁ and r₂ are connected as (2) nR0
shown in figure: - (3) 2nR0
(4) (n+1)R0

48. Initially, 5 resistors each of resistance R are

connected in series to a battery of emf E and
internal resistance R. Now these resistors are
(1) Potential difference across any of the cell
connected in parallel to the same battery, the
cannot be zero
power consumption across the combination of
(2) Potential difference across cell of smaller EMF
external resistors will become
may be zero
(1) 5 times
(2) 25 times
 1
(3) 2 times 53. Select the correct statements from the
(4) Remains same following
(a) The cell potential for mercury cell remains
49. A copper wire of radius 1 mm contains 1022 constant during its life.
free electrons per cubic meter. The drift velocity (b) In Leclanche cell Zn container act as cathode.
of free electrons when 10 A current flows (c) A secondary cell can be recharged after use
through the wire will be (Given, charge on by passing current through it in direction.
electron = 1.6×10-19 C) Choose the correct answer from the option
(1)
6.25
m/s given below.
𝜋
105 (1) a and b only
(2) 6.25 × m/s
𝜋 (2) b and c only
103
(3) 6.25 × m/s (3) a and c only
𝜋
(4) 6.25 × 103 𝑚/𝑠 (4) a, b and c

50. The effective resistance of a parallel 54. Following limiting molar conductivities are
connection that consists of four wires of equal given as
length, equal area of cross-section and same Λ0(Ca(OH)2) = x Scm2 mol
material is 0.25 Ω. What will be the effective Λ0(Ca(NO3)2) = y Scm2 mol
resistance if they are connected in series? Λ0(NH4NO3) = z Scm2 mol
(1) 4Ω Λ0m (in S cm2 mol-1) for NH4OH will be
(2) 0.25 Ω 𝑦 𝑥
(1) 2 - 2 + z
(3) 0.5 Ω 𝑥
(2) 2 -
𝑦
+z
2
(4) 1Ω 𝑧
(3) 𝑥 - 𝑦 + 2
𝑧
CHEMISTRY SECTION A (4) 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 2
51. The correct value of cell potential in volts for
the reaction that occurs when the following two 55. If the E0 > 0, then the correct option is
half cells are connected, is (1) ΔG0cell < 0, Keq > 1
𝐹𝑒 2+ (𝑎𝑞) + 2𝑒 − ⟶ 𝐹𝑒(𝑠) 𝐸° = −0.44 𝑉 (2) ΔG0cell > 0, Keq < 1
2− (𝑎𝑞)
𝐶𝑟2 𝑂7 + 14𝐻 + 6𝑒 ⟶ 2𝐶𝑟 3+ + 7𝐻2 𝑂
+ −
(3) ΔG0cell < 0, Keq < 1
E° = +1.33 V (4) ΔG0cell > 0, Keq > 1
(1) +1.77 V
(2) +2.65 V 56.During the electrolysis of water, the following
(3) +0.01 V reaction occurs at the cathode:
(4) +0.89 V (1) 2H₂O(l) → O₂(g) + 4H⁺(aq) + 4e⁻
(2) 2H₂O(l) + 2e⁻ → H₂(g) + 2OH⁻(aq)
52. Find the emf of the cell in which the following (3) Cl⁻(aq) → ½ Cl₂(g) + e⁻
reaction takes place at 298 K (4) Na⁺(aq) + e⁻ → Na(s)
Ni(s) + 2Ag+(0.001 M) ⟶ Ni2+(0.001 M) + 2Ag(s)
(Given that Ecell° = 1.05 V, 2.303 RT/F = 0.059 at 57. Which of the following statements is true
298 K) about fuel cells?
(1) 1.0385 V (1) They convert chemical energy directly into
(2) 1.385 V electrical energy without combustion.
(3) 0.9615 V (2) They utilize a continuous flow of reactants
(4) 1.05 V and products.
(3) They have a very high efficiency compared to number of
traditional combustion engines. ions/volume
(4) All of the above
C k iii Extensive property
58. During the discharge of a lead-acid battery,
the following reaction occurs at the anode: D ∆rGcell iv Increases with
(1) Pb(s) + 2SO₄²⁻(aq) → PbSO₄(s) + 2e⁻ dilution
(2) PbO₂(s) + 4H⁺(aq) + 2SO₄²⁻(aq) + 2e⁻ →
PbSO₄(s) + 2H₂O(l) A B C D
(3) Pb²⁺(aq) + 2e⁻ → Pb(s) (1) 1 4 3 2
(4) 2H₂O(l) → O₂(g) + 4H⁺(aq) + 4e⁻ (2) 1 4 2 3
(3) 4 1 3 2
59. Which of the following statements is correct? (4) 4 1 2 3
(1) Ecell and ∆rG of cell reaction both are
extensive properties
(2) Ecell and ∆rG of cell reaction both are 62. Match the terms given in Column I with the
intensive properties units given in Column II.
(3) Ecell is an intensive property while ∆rG of cell
reaction is an extensive property
Column I Column II.
(4) Ecell is an extensive property while ∆rG of cell
reaction is an intensive property A Λm i S cm−1

60. B E0cell ii J
I. Q= It
C k iii S cm2mol-1
II. Charge required for oxidation or
reduction depends on the stoichiometry D ∆rGcell iv V
of electrode reaction.
III. Charge on 1 electron 1.6021×10-19 C
A B C D
IV. Charge on 1 mole of electron 1.6021×10-
(1) 3 4 1 2
19 C
(2) 4 3 2 1
V. Unit of current is Coulomb (C)
(3) 3 4 2 1
VI. 1F = 96500 C mol −1
(4) 4 3 1 2
Which of the following statements are incorrect?
(1) I and II
(2) II and III
63. Which of the following statements regarding
(3) IV and V
given cell representation is/are correct?
(4) VI and I
𝐶𝑑(𝑠)|𝐶𝑑 2+ (𝑎𝑞)||𝐴𝑔+ (𝑎𝑞)|𝐴𝑔(𝑠)
(i) In the given cell, Cd electrode act as an anode
61.Match the terms given in Column I with the whereas Ag electrode acts as a cathode.
items given in Column II. (ii) In the given cell, Cd electrode acts as a
Column I Column II. cathode whereas the Ag electrode acts as a
anode.
A Λm i Intensive property (iii) Ecell = EAg/Ag+ - ECd2+/Cd
(1) (i) and (ii)
B E0cell ii Depends on
(2) Only (ii)
(3) Only (i) (3) A is false but R is true.
(4) (i) and (iii) (4) Both A and R are true R. R is the correct
explanation of A
64. The specific conductivity of 0.1 N KCl
solution is 0.0129 Ω–1cm–1.The resistance
68. Consider the following statements.
of the solution in the cell is 100 Ω . The cell Statement-l: The conductivity of an electrolytic
solutions increases on dilution.
constant of the cell will be.
Statement-II: The molar conductivity of an
(1) 1.10
electrolytic solution increases on dilution.
(2) 1.29
In the light of above statements choose the
(3) 0.56 correct option among the following
(4) 2.80 (1) Both statement-I and statement-II are true
(2) Both statement-l and statement-II are false
65. Assertion (A) Copper sulphate solution is (3) Statement-l is true but statement-II is false
stored in zinc pot. (4) Statement-l is false but statement-Il is true
Reason (R) Zinc is more reactive than copper so
it displaces copper from copper sulphate. 69.E0Ag+/Ag= 0.8 V and EZn2+/Zn= -0.76 V. When
(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason these electrodes are connected to construct a
is a correct explanation for assertion. working cell, then value of E0cell will be
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason (1) 1.56 V
is not a correct explanation for assertion. (2) -1.56 V
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect. (3) 0.04 V
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. (4) -0.04 V

66. Assertion: Electrolysis of NaCl solution gives 70. Which of the following statements is true
chlorine at anode instead of O2. about the concentration of electrolytes and cell
Reason: Formation of oxygen at anode requires potential in a galvanic cell?
over voltage. (1) Increasing electrolyte concentration decreases
(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason cell potential.
is a correct explanation for assertion. (2) Decreasing electrolyte concentration
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason increases cell potential.
is not a correct explanation for assertion. (3) Cell potential remains constant regardless of
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect. electrolyte concentration (within a reasonable
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. range).
(4) The effect of concentration on cell potential
67. Assertion: In equation ∆rG = −nFEcell, the depends on the specific reaction.
value of ∆rG depends on n
71.Which of the following is an example of a
Reason: Ecell is an intensive property and ∆rG is
secondary battery (rechargeable)?
an extensive property. In the light of the above
(1) Dry cell
statements, choose the correct answer from the
(2) Lead-acid battery
options given below:
(3) Lithium-ion battery
(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
(4) Both 2 and 3
correct explanation of A.
(2) A is true but R is false.
72. Standard electrode potential of cell H2|H || In the light of the data given, which of the
Ag+|Ag is following reaction would takes place.
(1) 0.8 V (1) 2Ag+ + Pb →Pb2+ + 2Ag
(2) – 0.8 V (2) Pb + 2H+→Pb2+ + H2
(3) – 1.2 V
(3) 2Ag+ + 2H+→2Ag+ + H2
(4) 1.2 V
(4) Both 1 & 2
73.Which of the following statements about
electrolytic cells is NOT true? 78. Calculate the equilibrium constant for the
(1) They use electrical energy to drive non- reaction, Zn(s) +Cu+2(aq) → Zn+2 (aq) + Cu (s)
spontaneous reactions. [Given E0cell=1.1V]
(2) The cathode is the site of reduction. (1) 2 x1032
(3) The overall cell reaction is always exothermic. (2) 2 x1034
(4) An external power source is required. (3) 2 x1037
(4) 2 x1039
74. Electrocatalysis is the acceleration of an
electrochemical reaction by a catalyst. Which of 79. 6A current with 75% efficiency is passed
the following statements about electrocatalysis is through a cell for 6 h? (z = × −). The amount of
NOT true? metal deposited will be
(1) Electrocatalysts can lower the activation (1) 22.4 g
energy of the reaction. (2) 36.0 g
(2) They can increase the current density at a (3) 32.4 g
specific potential. (4) 38.8 g
(3) Electrocatalysts are not consumed in the
80.At 298 K, the standard electrode potentials of
reaction.
Cu2+/Cu, Zn2+ /Zn, Fe2+/Fe and Ag+/Ag are 0.34V,
(4) All electrocatalysis processes are highly
- 0.76 V, - 0.44 V and 0.80 V, respectively. On the
efficient.
basis of standard electrode potential, predict
75. Conductivity of a solution is directly which of the following reactions can not occur?
proportional to (1) CuSO4 + Fe(s) ⟶ FeSO4(aq) +Cu(s)
(1) Dilution (2) FeSO4 + Zn(s) ⟶ ZnSO4(aq) + Fe(s)
(2) Number of ions (3) 2CuSO4(aq) + 2Ag(s) ⟶ 2Cu(s) + Ag2SO4(aq)
(3) Current density (4) CuSO4(aq) + Zn(s) ⟶ ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
(4) Volume of the solution
81. Standard electrode potential for the cell with
76. The electrolyte used in Leclanche cell is cell reaction
(1) paste of KOH and ZnO Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) ⟶ Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s) is 1.1 V.
(2) 38% solution of H2SO4 Calculate the standard Gibbs energy change for
(3) moist paste of NH4Cl and ZnCl2 the cell reaction. (Given: F = 96487 C mol-1)
(4) moist sodium hydroxide (1) −200.27 J mol-1
(2) −200.27 kJ mol-1
77. The half-cell reaction with their (3) −212.27 kJ mol-1
appropriate standard reduction potential are - (4) −212.27 J mol-1
(i) Pb+2 + 2e–→ Pb (E° = – 0.13 V)
82. Given below are half cell reactions:
(ii) Ag+ + e–→ Ag (E° = +0.80 V)
will the permanganate ion, MnO4- liberate O2 from
water in the presence of an acid?
(1) Yes, because E°cell = +0.287 V
(2) No, because E°cell = −0.287 V
(3) Yes, because Ecell° = +2.733 V
(4) No, because E°cell= −2.733 V
Choose the correct answer from the options
83.Molar conductance of an electrolyte increase given below.
with dilution according to the (1) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)- (i), (D)-(iv)
equation: (2) (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)- (iv), (D)-(i)
(3) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)- (ii), (D)-(iv)
(4) (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)- (iii), (D)-(ii)
Which of the following statements are true?
(a) This equation applies to both strong and weak
SECTION B
electrolytes. 86. The atomic weight of Al is 27. When a
(b) Value of the constant A depends upon the current of 5 Faradays is passed through a solution
nature of the solvent. of Al ions, the weight of Al deposited is
(c) Value of constant A is the same for both BaCl2 (1) 27 gm
and MgSO4. (2) 36 gm
(d) Value of constant A is same for both BaCl2 (3) 45 gm
and Mg(OH)2. (4) 39 gm
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below: 87. During electrolysis of NaCl solution, part of
(1) A and B only the reaction is Na++e- → Na. This is termed as
(2) A, B and C only (1) Oxidation
(3) B and C only (2) Reduction
(4) B and D only (3) Deposition
(4) Cathode reaction
84. Specific conductance of a 0.1 N KCl solution
at 23oC is 0.012 ohm–1 cm–1. Resistance of cell 88. The value of resistivity of 0.1 M solution of an
containing the solution at same temperature was electrolyte is 77Ω cm. The molar conductivity of
found to be 55 ohm. The cell constant is the solution is nearly
(1) 0.0616 cm–1 (1) 158 S cm² mol-1
(2) 0.66 cm–1 (2) 130 S cm² mol-1
(3) 6.60 cm–1 (3) 105 S cm² mol-1
(4) 660 cm–1 (4) 50 S cm² mol-1

85. Match List-I (Cell notations) with List-II (E° 89.Given below are two statements
value) Statement-l: During electrolysis of H2SO4
solution at higher concentration, SO42- converted
to S2O82- at anode. is
Statement-II: During electrolysis of dilute Anode Cathode
sulphuric acid water is oxidised at anode. (1) Zinc cup Carbon rod
In the light of above statements choose the (2) Carbon cup Zinc rod
correct option among the following (3) Zinc rod Carbon cup
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are false (4) Zinc cup Zinc rod
(2) Statement-l is true but statement-II is false
(3) Statement-l is false but statement-II is true 94. Electrode potential for Mg electrode varies
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are true according to the equation
0.059 1
𝐸𝑀𝑔2+/𝑀𝑔 = 𝐸°𝑀𝑔2+/𝑀𝑔 − 𝑙𝑜𝑔 [𝑀𝑔2+].
90. The E° value of A /A, B /B and C /C are
+ + + 2

0.25 V, +1.5 V and 0.85 V respectively. The The graph of 𝐸𝑀𝑔2+/𝑀𝑔 vs log[Mg2+] is
order of their reducing power is
(1) A > C > B
(2) A > B > C
(3) B > A > C
(4) C > B > A

91.If standard reduction potential of three redox

couples Pb2+ /Pb, Mg 2+ /Mg and Zn2+ /Zn are -
0.13 V, -2.36 V and -0.76 V respectively. The 95. The molar conductance of NaCl, HCl and
correct order of reducing power is CH3COONa at infinite dilution is 126.45,
(1) Pb > Zn > Mg 426.16 and 91.0 S cm2 mol–1 respectively.
(2) Zn > Pb > M The molar conductance of CH3COOH at infinite
(3) Mg > Zn > Pb dilution is. Choose the right option for your
(4) Zn > Mg > Pt answer.
(1) 390.71 𝑆 𝑐𝑚2mol-1
92. Aluminium displaces hydrogen from dilute (2) 698.28 𝑆 𝑐𝑚2mol-1
HCl whereas silver does not. The e.m.f. of a cell (3) 540.48 𝑆 𝑐𝑚2mol-1
prepared by combining Al/Al3+ and Ag/Ag+ is 2.46 (4) 201.28 𝑆 𝑐𝑚2mol-1
V. The reduction potential of silver electrode is
0.80 V. The reduction potential of aluminium 96.On electrolysing a solution of dilute H2SO4
electrode is between platinum electrodes, the gas evolved at
(1) 1.66 V the anode is
(2) 3.26 V (1) SO2
(3) 3.26 V (2) SO3
(4) -1.66 V (3) O2
(4) H2
93. What is the anode and cathode in the cell
given in the Figure? 97.On electrolysis of dil. sulphuric acid using a
Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained at
the anode will be:
(1) Oxygen gas
(2) H2S gas
(3) SO2 gas
(4) Hydrogen gas
98.Corrosion can be prevented using various
methods. Which of the following is an example of 104.Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading from
a sacrificial anode? (1) testicular lobules to rete testis
(1) Painting the metal surface (2) rete testis to vas deferens
(2) Applying a cathodic protection system (3) vas deferens to epididymis
(3) Using a more corrosion-resistant metal for (4) epididymis to urethra.
the application
(4) All of the above 105. Seminal plasma in human males is rich in
(1) fructose and calcium
99.Which of the following factors can affect the (2) glucose and calcium
rate of an electrochemical reaction? (3) DNA and testosterone
(1) Concentration of reactants (4) ribose and potassium.
(2) Surface area of the electrodes
(3) Temperature 106. Which of the following cells during
(4) All of the above gametogenesis is normally diploid ?
(1) Spermatogonia
100.The conductivity of an electrolyte solution (2) Primary polar body
depends on the concentration of ions present. (3) Secondary polar body
Which of the following solutions would have the (4) Spermatid
highest conductivity?
(1) Distilled water 107.Shortest phase in the menstruation cycle of
(2) 0.1 M NaCl solution women is:
(3) Saturated NaCl solution (1) Menses
(4) Concentrated sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄) (2) Luteal phase
(3) Ovulatory phase
BIOLOGY – PART I (4) Follicular phase
SECTION A
101. Oxytocin helps in 108.Milk secreted from the cells of alveoli of
(1) Child birth and lactation mammary lobes reaches nipple through the
(2) Lactation and implantation lactiferous duct (L), mammary duct (M),
(3) Lactation but not child birth mammary tubule (T) and mammary ampulla (A).
(4) Childbirth but not Lactation Choose the option which shows the correct
order.
102. The layer which undergoes cyclical changes (1) TMAL
during menstrual cycle is (2) MTLA
(1) Perimetrium (3) MTAL
(2) Myometrium (4) ATML
(3) Endometrium
(4) Both (2) and (3) 109. Select the correct statements
A. Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its inside
103. Sertoli cells are found in by two types of cells called male germ cells
(1) ovaries and secrete progesterone (spermatogonia) and Sertoli cells
(2) adrenal cortex and secrete adrenaline B. Leydig cells synthesise and secrete testicular
(3) seminiferous tubules and provide nutrition hormones called androgens.
germ cells
(4) pancreas and secrete cholecystokinin.
C. The male sex accessory ducts include rete (3) Oxytocin stimulates the differentiation of
testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas mammary glands during pregnancy.
deferens (4) Oxytocin triggers the release of colostrum for
D. The seminiferous tubules of the testis open newborn feeding.
into the rete testis through vasa efferentia
E. The epididymis leads to vas deferens that 113.. Which is absent in human sperm?
ascends to the abdomen and loops over the (1) Nucleus
urinary bladder. (2) Mitochondria
F. The male accessory glands include paired (3) Centriole
seminal vesicles, a prostate and paired (4) Endoplasmic reticulum
bulbourethral glands, testis
114.Select the correct sequence for transport of
(1) A, B, C, E, F sperm cells in male reproductive system.
(2) A, B, C, E (1) Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia Vas
(3) A, B, C, D deferens → Ejaculatoiy duct → Inguinal canal
(4) All of the above → Urethra → Urethral meatus
(2) Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia →
110.Which of the following events occurs during Rete testis → Inguinal canal Urethra
the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle? (3) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa
(1) Release of ovum efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens →
(2) Follicular development Ejaculatory duct → Urethra → Urethral
(3) Secretion of progesterone by the corpus meatus
luteum (4) Seminiferous tubules → Vasa efferentia →
(4) Menstruation Epididymis → Inguinal canal → Urethra

111. Which hormones are produced by the 115.Arrange the components of mammary gland.
placenta in pregnancy? (from proximal to distal).
A. hCG B. FSH (a) Mammary duct
C. hPL D. LH (b) Lactiferous duct
E. Estrogen F. Progestogens (c) Alveoli
G. Relaxin (d) Mammary ampulla
(1) A, B, C, D (e) Mammary tubules
(2) A, C, D, E, F Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(3) A, C, E, F, G options given below:
(4) All of the above (1) (e) →(c) →(d) → (b) →(a)
(2) (c) → (a) → (d) →(e) → (b)
112.Parturition is induced by a complex (3) (b) →(c) →(e) →(d) →(a)
neuroendocrine mechanism involving the release (4) (c) →(e) →(a) → (d) →(b)
of oxytocin. Which of the following correctly
describes the role of oxytocin in parturition? 116.How many secondary spermatocytes are
(1) Oxytocin is released by the fully developed required to form 400 million spermatozoa?
foetus and placenta to initiate uterine (1) 400 million
contractions. (2) 50 million
(2) Oxytocin is secreted by the maternal pituitary (3) 100 million
in response to mild uterine contractions. (4) 200 million
117.At which stage of life the oogenesis process (1) The spermatogonia present on the inside wall
is initiated? of seminiferous tubules
(1) Birth (2) The spermatids are transformed into
(2) Adult spermatozoa (sperms) by the process called
(3) Puberty spermiogenesis
(4) Embryonic development stage (3) After spermiogenesis, sperm heads become
embedded in the Sertoli cells, and are finally
118. Extrusion of second polar body from egg released from the seminiferous tubules by the
occurs process called spermination
(1) Simultaneously with first cleavage (4) Spermatogenesis starts before birth
(2) After entry of sperm but before fertilisation
(3) After fertilisation 124.Select the incorrect statement about
(4) Before entry of sperm into ovum. oogenesis
119. Which of the following hormone levels will (1) Oogenesis is initiated during the embryonic
cause release of ovum (ovulation) from the development stage
graffian follicle? (2) Each primary oocyte then gets surrounded by
(1) Low concentration of LH a layer of granulosa cells and is called the
(2) Low concentration of FSH primary follicle
(3) High concentration of Estrogen (3) At puberty only 40,000-60,000 primary
(4) High concentration of Progesterone follicles are left in each ovary.
(4) The primary follicles get surrounded by more
120. Receptors for sperm binding in mammals layers of granulosa cells and a new theca and
are present on: are called secondary follicles
(1) Perivitelline space
(2) Zona pellucida 125. What is the fate of the first polar body
(3) Corona radiata produced during oogenesis?
(4) Vitelline membrane (1) It undergoes further division to form
additional polar bodies.
121.Which of the following secretes the (2) It fuses with the secondary oocyte to form a
hormone, relaxin, during the later phase of mature female gamete.
pregnancy? (3) It degenerates and does not contribute to the
(1) Foetus formation of a mature gamete.
(2) Uterus (4) It develops into a follicle and prepares for
(3) Graafian follicle fertilization.
(4) Corpus luteum
126. Which of the following statements about
122. In spermatogenesis, reductional division of the menstrual cycle is/are correct?
chromosomes occurs during conversion of A. Menstruation occurs if the released ovum is
(1) Primary spermatocytes to secondary not fertilized.
spermatocytes B. The menstrual flow is the result of the
(2) Spermatogonia to primary spermatocytes breakdown of the endometrial lining of the
(3) Spermatids to sperms uterus.
(4) Secondary spermatocytes to spermatids C. Lack of menstruation is always indicative of
pregnancy.
123. Select the incorrect statement about
D. The follicular phase is characterized by the
Spermatogenesis
growth of primary follicles in the ovary.
E. The luteal phase is marked by the secretion (3) A is true but R is false.
of large amounts of progesterone by the (4) A is false but R is true.
corpus luteum.
(1) A, B, D and E 130. Which of the following statements regarding
(2) A, B, C’ D the development of the human embryo is correct
(3) B, C, D, E (1) The foetus develops limbs and digits by the
(4) All of the above end of the first month of pregnancy.
(2) The major organ systems, including the limbs
127. Assertion: Fertilisation can only occur if and external genital organs, are well-developed
the ovum and sperms are transported by the end of the second trimester.
simultaneously to the ampullary region of the (3) The first movements of the foetus and
fallopian tube. appearance of hair on the head are observed
Reason: The motile sperms swim rapidly and pass by the end of the ninth month.
through the cervix, enter into the uterus, and (4) The first sign of growing foetus may be noticed
finally reach the ampullary region of the fallopian by listening to the heart sound carefully
tube where the ovum is also transported for through the stethoscope.
fertilisation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the 131. Colostrum is the milk produced during the
correct answer from the options given below: initial few days of lactation and contains several
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct antibodies essential for newborn resistance.
explanation of A. Which of the following statements is true
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the regarding colostrum?
correct explanation of A. (1) Colostrum is produced throughout the entire
(3) A is true but R is false. duration of lactation.
(4) A is false but R is true. (2) Colostrum lacks antibodies and is primarily
composed of fats and carbohydrates.
128. The blastomeres in blastocyst are arranged (3) Colostrum is recommended for breastfeeding
into two layers. The outer layer is called during the initial period of infant growth.
1. Troposphere (4) Colostrum is produced by the mammary
2. Trophoblast glands before pregnancy
3. Tropical germ layer
4. Trophocytes 132.For approximately how long during the
human female's menstrual cycle are progesterone
129. Assertion: The sex of the baby is concentrations high enough to maintain the uterus
determined by the father and not by the mother. in a proper condition for pregnancy?
Reason: The sex chromosome pattern in the (1) All of the cycle
human female is XX, while in the male, it is XY. (2) None of the cycle
The sperm carries either an X or a Y (3) During the first half of the cycle
chromosome, determining the sex of the baby (4) During the second half of the cycle
upon fertilisation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the 133.Which one of the following statements about
correct answer from the options given below: morula in humans is correct?
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (1) It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an
explanation of A. uncleaved zygote but much more DNA.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the (2) It has far less cytoplasm as well as less DNA
correct explanation of A. than in an uncleaved zygote.
(3) It has more or less equal quantity of 139.The difference between spermiogenesis and
cytoplasm and DNA as in uncleaved zygote spermiation is
(4) It has about 100-150 blastomeres (1) in spermiogenesis spermatids are formed,
while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed
134. A change in the amount of yolk and its (2) in spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed,
distribution in the egg will affect while in spermiation spermatids are formed
(1) pattern of cleavage (3) in spermiogenesis spermatozoa from Sertoli
(2) number of blastomeres produced cells are released into the cavity of
(3) fertilisation seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation
(4) formation of zygote. spermatozoa are formed
(4) in spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed,
135. In human female, the blastocyst while in spermiation spermatozoa are
(1) forms placenta even before implantation released from Sertoli cells into the cavity of
(2) gets implanted into uterus 3 days after seminiferous tubules
ovulation 140. The base of the sertoli cells adhere to the
(3) gets nutrition from uterine endometrial basal
secretion only after implantation lamina and their apical ends frequently expand into
(4) gets implanted in endometrium by the the ........... of the seminiferous tubules.
trophoblast cells. (1) Surface
(2) Lumen
BIOLOGY – PART II (3) Outer membrane
SECTION B (4) Inner layer
136. Which of the following groups of cells in the
male gonad represent haploid cells? 141.What induces the completion of the meiotic
(1) Spermatogonial cells division of the secondary oocyte?
(2) Germinal epithelial cells (1) Contact of the sperm with the zona pellucida
(3) Secondary spermatocytes layer of the ovum
(4) Primary spermatocytes (2) The entry of the sperm into the cytoplasm of
the ovum through the zona pellucida and the
137. Assume 2n = 12 in a hypothetical species. In plasma membrane
gametogenesis, the number of chromosomes in a (3) Entry of the sperm in the ampullary-isthmic
spermatid would be and in a first polar body would junction
be (4) Copulation
(1) 6,6
(2) 3,3 142. The ____ is a tiny finger-like structure which
(3) 3,6 lies at the upper junction of the two labia minora
(4) 6,3 above the urethral opening.
(1) Clitoris
138. Which of the following layers in an antral (2) Hymen
follicle is acellular? (3) Scrotum
(1) Stroma (4) Testis
(2) Zona pellucida
(3) Granulosa 143. Which of the following statement regarding
(4) Theca interna male and female reproductive events is correct
(1) Sperm and ovum formation occurs
throughout life
(2) Sperm formation occurs throughout life but (1) A - Ejaculatory Duct, B - Bulbourethral gland,
ovum formation ceases at around fifty years C - Seminal Vesicle, D - Prostate
of age. (2) A - Ejaculatory Duct, B - Prostate, C -
(3) Ovum formation occurs throughout life but Bulbourethral gland, D - Seminal Vesicle
sperm formation ceases at around fifty years (3) A - Ejaculatory Duct, B - Seminal Vesicle, C –
of age. Prostate, D - Bulbourethral gland
(4) Both sperm formation ovum formation ceases (4) A - Ejaculatory Duct, B - Bulbourethral gland,
at around fifty years of age. C - Prostate, D - Seminal Vesicle

144. hCG, hPL and relaxin are produced in 148. Mark the incorrect statement
women (1) Each Testis has about 250 compartments
(1) At the time of puberty called testicular lobules
(2) Only during pregnancy (2) Each testicular lobule has 1-3 highly coiled
(3) At the time of menopause seminiferous tubules
(4) During menstruation (3) Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its inside
by male germ cells only
145. During oogenesis, each diploid cell produces (4) Leydig cells are found in the interstitial spaces
(1) Four functional eggs of testicular lobules
(2) Two functional eggs and two polar bodies
(3) One functional egg and two polar bodies 149. What is the function of LH surge in the
(4) Four functional polar bodies menstrual cycle?
(1) Induce follicular development
146. Identify the structure X correctly: (2) Stimulate secretion of estrogen
(3) Trigger rupture of Graafian follicle
(4) Initiate menstruation

150. During oogenesis, at which stage does the

primary oocyte complete its first meiotic division
(1) Prophase I
(2) Secondary follicle
(3) Tertiary follicle
(4) Primary follicle
(1) Morula
(2) Blastocyst SECTION A
(3) Ootid 151. Given below are two statements:
(4) Blastomere Statement I: Spermatogenesis starts at the age
of puberty due to significant increase in the
147. Identify A, B, C and D correctly secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone
(GnRH).
Statement II: When the Graafian follicle
ruptures to release the secondary oocyte (ovum)
from the ovary this process is called ovulation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is 154. Identify A B C D in the following diagram
incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement Il are
incorrect

152. Identify A B C D in the following diagram

(1) A-Sertoli cells, B-Interstitial cell, C-
Spermatogonia, D-Spermatozoa
(2) A-Interstitial cell B-Spermatogonia C-
Spermatozoa D- Sertoli cells
(3) A-Spermatozoa B-Sertoli cells C-Interstitial
cell D-Spermatogonia
(4) A-Interstitial cell B-Spermatozoa C-Sertoli
cells D-Spermatogonia

155.Given below are two statements:

(1) A-Lactiferous duct B-Mammary lobe C- Statement I: The release of sperms into the
Mammary alveolus D-Mammary duct seminiferous tubules is called spermiation.
(2) A-Mammary lobe B-Lactiferous duct C- Statement II: Spermiogenesis is the process of
Mammary duct D-Mammary alveolus formation of sperms from spermatogonia.
(3) A-Mammary lobe B-Mammary alveolus C- In the light of the above statements, choose the
Lactiferous duct D-Mammary duct most appropriate answer from the options given
(4) A-Mammary lobe B-Mammary alveolus C- below:
Mammary duct D- Lactiferous duct (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect
153. Which of the following statements are (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct regarding female reproductive cycle? correct
A. In non-primate mammal’s cyclical changes (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
during reproduction are called oestrus cycle. (4) Both Statement I and Statement Il are
B. First menstrual cycle begins at puberty and is incorrect
called menopause.
C. Lack of menstruation may be indicative of 156. Which of the following statements are true
pregnancy. for spermatogenesis but do not hold true for
D. Cyclic menstruation extends between Oogenesis?
menarche and menopause. (a) It results in the formation of haploid gametes
E. Choose the most appropriate answer from (b) Differentiation of gamete occurs after the
the options given below. completion of meiosis
(1) A and D only (c) Meiosis occurs continuously in a mitotically
(2) A and B only dividing stem cell population
(3) A, B and C only (d) It is controlled by the Luteinising Hormone
(4) A, C and Donly (LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
(e) secreted by the anterior pituitary
(f) It is initiated at puberty (2) Foetal right ovary before birth
Choose the most appropriate answer from the (3) Both ovaries before birth
options given below: (4) Both ovaries after birth
(1) (c) and (d) only
(2) (b) and (c) only 163.The correct sequence for formation of
(3) (b), (d) and (e) only mature female gamete is
(4) (b), (c) and (e) only (1) Oogonia primary oocytes primary
follicle secondary follicles
157.The first movements of the foetus and (2) Oogonia primary follicles secondary
appearance of hair on the head are usually follicles primary oocytes
observed during the :- (3) primary oocytes primary
(1) 3rd month follicles secondary follicles Oogonia
(2) 4th month (4) primary follicles secondary
(3) 5th month follicles Oogonia primary oocytes
(4) 8th month
164. During fertilisation sperm comes in contact
158.Three germ layers are formed during which with which layer of ovum
stage of embryonic development: - (1) Zona reticulata
(1) Morula (2) Zona pellucida
(2) Blastula (3) Zona corona
(3) Gastrula (4) Zona radiata
(4) In any two stages
165. Given below is an incomplete flowchart
159.When does oogenesis start in human females? showing influences of hormones on gametogenesis
(1) At the onset of puberty in human females Identify A, B, C and D
(2) During embryonic development
(3) At the time of birth Hypothalamus
(4) At age of 18 years ⬇ A
Anterior Pituitary
160. Progesterone secreted by graafian follicle is ⬇ B
essential for C
(1) The process of oogenesis ⬇
(2) The process of fertilisation D
(3) Implantation of fertilised ovum and other ⬇
events of pregnancy Uterus
(4) For parturition (1) A – FSH, B – LH, C – Ovary, D –
Progesterone
161. The signal for parturition originated from (2) A – GnRH, B – FSH and LH , C – Ovary,
fully developed foetus is termed as D – Estrogen and Progesterone
(1) Foetal Rejection action (3) A – GnRH, B – FSH, C – testis, D –
(2) Foetal Ejection Reflex Testosterone
(3) Foetal maturity response (4) A – LH, B – FSH, C – testis, D –Testosterone
(4) Foetal delivery Response
166. Read the given statements and select the
162. Gamete mother cell (Oogonia) are formed in correct option.
(1) Foetal Left ovary before birth
Statement A: Breast-feeding during the initial (1) A – Progesterone, B – oestrogen, C – LH, D
period of infant growth is recommended by – FSH
doctors for bringing up a healthy baby. (2) A – Progesterone, B – oestrogen, C – FSH, D
Statement B: The milk produced during initial – LH
few days of lactation contains few antigens (3) A – Progesterone, B – FSH, C – oestrogen, D
absolutely essential to develop resistance for the – LH
new-born babies. (4) A – oestrogen, B – LH, C – FSH, D –
(1) Both statements A and B are correct oestrogen
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct 170. Read the following statements carefully.
(4) Only statement B is correct Statement A: All the sexual intercourses that
take place in human beings lead to fertilisation
167. The scrotum helps in thermoregulation and pregnancy.
required during spermatogenesis. The Statement B: Fertilisation can only occur if the
temperature maintained by the scrotum is ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously
(1) 2–2.5°C higher than the normal internal body to the uterine region.
temperature. (1) Both statements A and B are correct
(2) 8–8.5°C lower than the normal internal body (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
temperature. (3) Only statement A is correct
(3) 2–2.5°C lower than the normal internal body (4) Only statement B is correct
temperature.
(4) 5–6.5°C higher than normal internal body 171. Select the correct statement.
temperature (1) Isthmus is the convoluted part of oviduct
(2) Human ovaries are located one on each side
168. A woman undergoes spontaneous abortion. of the upper abdomen
The foetus which is expelled by her has fine hair, (3) The shape of the uterus is like an upright pear
eyelashes, eye-lids that are separated etc. During (4) After puberty, alternate ovaries generally
which trimester would the abortion would have release one secondary oocyte per month
occurred?
(1) Start of first trimester 172. Which of the following is a component of
(2) End of first trimester secondary follicle?
(3) Start of second trimester (1) Zona pellucida
(4) End of second trimester (2) Theca externa and theca interna
(3) Primary oocyte
169. The following graph shows the levels of (4) Fluid-filled cavity
pituitary hormones during menstrual cycle. What
does A, B, C and D 173.Find out the incorrect match w.r.t. human.
(1) Mammary lobes in both breasts– 30-40
(2) Testicular lobules in testes – 500
(3) Sperm count in a healthy male per ejaculate–
200-300 million
(4) Number of primary follicles in ovaries– 6000-
8000 at puberty

174. Select the mismatch.

(1) Insemination – Transfer of sperms into
the female genital tract (3) Gets nutrition from uterine endometrial
(2) Implantation – Formation and secretion only after implantation.
development of blastocyst and its attachment to (4) Gets implanted in the endometrium by the
myometrium. trophoblast cells.
(3) Fertilisation – Fusion of sperm and
ovum 180.The secretory phase in the human menstrual
(4) Parturition – Process of delivery of the cycle is also called.
baby (1) Follicular phase lasting for about 6 days.
(2) Luteal phase and lasts for about 13 days.
175. The process of childbirth is called parturition (3) Follicular phase and lasts for about 13 days.
which is induced by a complex neuroendocrine (4) Luteal phase and lasts for about 6 days
mechanism involving these hormones except
(1) Estrogen 181.The part of fallopian tube closest to the ovary
(2) Oxytocin is
(3) CRH (1) Isthmus
(4) hPL (2) Infundibulum
(3) Cervix
176. The phase of menstrual cycle which shows (4) Ampulla
presence of thickest endometrium is
(1) Proliferative phase 182.What is the correct sequence of sperm
(2) Luteal phase formation?
(3) Follicular phase (1) Spermatid, spermatocyte, spermatogonia,
(4) Preovulatory phase spermatozoa
(2) Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatozoa
177.The yellow-coloured structure which
(3) Spermatogonia, spermatozoa, spermatocyte
releases a chemical messenger which in turn
(4) Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatid,
maintains the endometrium by which the
spermatozoa
pregnancy is maintained. Which yellow structure
is being talked about?
183.Menstrual flow occurs due to the lack of
(1) Corpus luteum
(1) Progesterone
(2) Graafian follicle
(2) FSH
(3) Corpus albicans
(3) Oxytocin
(4) Placenta
(4) Vasopressin
178.Secretions from which one of the following
are rich in fructose, calcium and some enzymes? 184.Which one of the following is not the function
(1) Male accessory glands of placenta?
(2) Liver (1) Facilitates supply of oxygen and nutrients to
(3) Pancreas embryo.
(4) Salivary glands (2) Secretes oestrogen.
(3) Facilitates the removal of carbon dioxide and
179. In human female, the blastocyst waste material from embryo.
(1) Forms placenta even before implantation. (4) Secretes oxytocin during parturition
(2) Get implanted into the uterus 3 days after
ovulation. 185. Which of the following cells during
gametogenesis is normally diploid?
(1) Primary polar body Statement II: Both LH and FSH attain a peak
(2) Spermatid level in the middle of cycle (about 14
(3) Spermatogonia 28th day).
(4) Secondary polar body Choose the correct option.
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is
SECTION B incorrect
186.The figure given below shows the structure (2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
of sperm. Identify the correct feature correct
corresponding to the marked structures A, B, C (3) Both statement I and II are correct
and D. (4) Both statement I and II are incorrect

189. Placenta acts as a/an :

(1) Ultrafilter
(2) Endocrine gland
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of above

190. Choose the option which labels correctly

the female reproductive system
(1) A - Head: Its anterior portion is covered by a
structure filled with enzymes that helps in the
fusion of male and female gametes.
(2) B - Middle piece: It contains a haploid
nucleus.
(3) C - Neck: It possess few ribosomes which
produces energy for the process of
fertilisation.
(4) D - Tail: It releases energy source for
swimming of sperm. (1) 1-Fallopian tube 2-Uterus 3- fimbriae 4-
Ovary 5- Cervix 6-Vagina
187. Assertion : Testicular lobules are the (2) 1-Fallopian tube 2-cervix 3-ovary 4-Uterus 5-
compartment present in testis. fimbriae 6-Vagina
Reason : These lobules are involved in process (3) 1-Uterus 2-fallopian tube 3- fimbriae 4-vagina
of fertilization. 5- Cervix 6-ovary
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the (4) 1-Fallopian tube 2-ovary 3- fimbriae 4-uterus
Reason is the correct explanation of the 5- Cervix 6-Vagina
Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the 191.. Select the option which correctly matches
Reason is not the correct explanation of the the endocrine gland with its hormone and its
Assertion. function.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. (1) Ovary – FSH – stimulates follicular
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false. development and the secretion of oestrogen
(2) Placenta – Oestrogen – initiates secretion of
188. Statement I: Menstrual flow lasts for 3-5 the milk.
days.
(3) Corpus luteum – Oestrogen – essential for
maintenance of endometrium
(4) Leydig – Androgen – Initiates the cells for
production of sperms

192.Given below are two statements: one is

labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled
as Reason R.
Assertion A: Endometrium is necessary for
implantation of blastocyst.
Reason R: In the absence of fertilization, the
corpus luteum degenerates that causes (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
disintegration of endometrium. (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
In the light of the above statements, choose the (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
correct answer from the options given below: (4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A. 195.Given below are two statements: one is
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled
correct explanation of A. as Reason R:
(3) A is true but R is false. Assertion A: FSH acts upon ovarian follicles in
(4) A is false but R is true. female and Leydig cells in male.
Reason R: Growing ovarian follicles secrete
193.Given below are two statements: estrogen in female while interstitial cells secrete
Statement I: Vas deferens receives a duct from androgen in male human being.
seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as the In the light of the above statements, choose the
ejaculatory duct. correct answer from the options given below
Statement II: The cavity of the cervix is called (1) A is true but R is false
cervical canal which along with vagina forms birth (2) A is false but Ris true
canal. (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
In the light of the above statements, choose the explanation of A.
correct answer from the options given below: (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. correct explanation of A
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
196.Identify the correct option A, B, C, D w.r. t
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
to spermatogenesis.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
true.

194. Match the following columns and select the

correct option

(1) FSH, Sertoli cells, Leydig cells,

Spermatogenesis
(2) ICSH, Leydig cells, Sertoli cell,
Spermatogenesis
(3) FSH, Leydig cells, Sertoli cells, Spermiogenesis VII. Rectum VIII. Anus
(4) ICSH, Interstitial cells, Leydig cell, IX. Bulbourethral X. Scrotum
Spermiogenesis gland
(1) A-IV, B-V, C-I, D-III, E-IX, F-X, G-II
197.Fill in the blanks: (2) A-V, B-III, C-I, D-II, E-IV, F-VI, G-VIII
a. Zygote divides to form ...1... which is (3) A-IV, B-V, C-X, D-IX, E-VIII, F-VII, G-VI
implanted to uterus. (4) A-X, B-IX, C-VIII, D-IV, E-III, F-II, G-I
b. The structure which provides vascular
connection between foetus and uterus is 199. Identify A, B in the following diagram
called ...2...
c. Inner cell mass contains certain cells called
...3... which have the potency to give rise to all
the tissues and organs.
d. By the end of ...4..., most of the major organ
system are formed, for example, the limbs
and external genital organs are well-
developed.
e. Immediately after implantation, the ...5...
differentiates into an outer layer called
ectoderm and an inner layer called endoderm.
(1) 1-morula, 2-umbilical cord, 3-trophoblast, 4-
second trimester, 5-stem cells
(2) 1-blastocyst, 2-placenta, 3-stem cells, 4- first
trimester, 5-trophoblast
(3) 1-blastocyst, 2-umbilical cord, 3-stem cells, 4-
second trimesters, 5-inner cell mass
(1) A-Progesterone, B- FSH
(4) 1-blastocyst, 2-placenta, 3-stem cells, 4-first
(2) A- LH, B- Estrogen
trimester, 5-inner cell mass.
(3) A-FSH, B- Progesterone
(4) A-LH, B- Progesterone
198.. Identify the parts labelled A to G in the
diagram of the male reproductive system from
the list
200. Identify the structure with 8 to 16
blastomere

I. Fundus II. Uriniferous tubules (1) F

III. Seminiferous iv. Seminal vesicle (2) E
tubules (3) H
V. Prostate VI. Ejaculatory duct (4) G