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GENERAL SCIENCE

The document contains 200 questions and answers designed for Grade 9 students preparing for the WASSEC exam in General Science. It covers a wide range of topics including states of matter, chemical reactions, properties of elements, and safety procedures in the lab. Each question is multiple-choice, providing a comprehensive review of essential scientific concepts.

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Leroy Mealor
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
8 views

GENERAL SCIENCE

The document contains 200 questions and answers designed for Grade 9 students preparing for the WASSEC exam in General Science. It covers a wide range of topics including states of matter, chemical reactions, properties of elements, and safety procedures in the lab. Each question is multiple-choice, providing a comprehensive review of essential scientific concepts.

Uploaded by

Leroy Mealor
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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WASSEC GRADE -9 PREPARATORY 200 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS IN

GENERAL SCIENCE

1. Which of the following is not a state of matter?


A. Solid
B. Liquid
C. Plasma
D. Energy
2. What is the smallest particle of an element?
A. Molecule
B. Atom
C. Compound
D. Ion
3. Which of these processes represents a physical change?
A. Burning wood
B. Melting ice
C. Rusting iron
D. Baking bread
4. What is the term for the change from liquid to gas?
A. Freezing
B. Condensation
C. Evaporation
D. Sublimation
5. What property of matter is measured in kilograms?
A. Volume
B. Mass
C. Density
D. Pressure
6. What is the center of an atom called?
A. Proton
B. Neutron
C. Nucleus
D. Electron cloud
7. Which subatomic particle has a negative charge?
A. Proton
B. Neutron
C. Electron
D. Nucleus
8. The atomic number of an element represents the number of:
A. Neutrons
B. Protons
C. Electrons
D. Valence electrons
9. Which element is represented by the symbol O?
A. Oxygen
B. Osmium
C. Gold
D. Potassium
10. Which of these is a noble gas?
A. Oxygen
B. Helium
C. Hydrogen
D. Nitrogen
11. What is the chemical formula for water?
A. H₂O₂
B. H₂O
C. HO
D. OH
12. A mixture in which particles are evenly distributed is called:
A. Suspension
B. Solution
C. Colloid
D. Compound
13. Which of the following is a compound?
A. Gold
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Iron
D. Oxygen
14. In saltwater, the salt acts as the:
A. Solvent
B. Solute
C. Solution
D. Compound
15. Which method is used to separate sand from water?
A. Evaporation
B. Filtration
C. Distillation
D. Condensation
16. What is the starting material in a chemical reaction called?
A. Product
B. Reactant
C. Catalyst
D. Solution
17. Which of the following is evidence of a chemical reaction?
A. Change in shape
B. Change in temperature
C. Change in state
D. Change in size
18. What type of reaction is represented by the equation: 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O?
A. Decomposition
B. Combustion
C. Combination
D. Neutralization
19. What is released in an exothermic reaction?
A. Heat
B. Light
C. Electricity
D. Sound
20. Which of these speeds up a chemical reaction without being consumed?
A. Reactant
B. Product
C. Catalyst
D. Solvent
21. Which of the following is an acid?
A. NaOH
B. HCl
C. H₂O
D. NH₃
22. What is the pH value of a neutral solution?
A. 1
B. 7
C. 10
D. 14
23. Which of the following is a characteristic of bases?
A. Sour taste
B. Bitter taste
C. Reacts with metals
D. Changes blue litmus to red
24. What is formed when an acid reacts with a base?
A. Salt and water
B. Carbon dioxide and water
C. Hydrogen gas
D. Oxygen gas
25. Which acid is found in lemon juice?
A. Acetic acid
B. Sulfuric acid
C. Citric acid
D. Hydrochloric acid
26. Who is known as the father of the periodic table?
A. Isaac Newton
B. Dmitri Mendeleev
C. Albert Einstein
D. John Dalton
27. Elements in the same group of the periodic table have similar:
A. Atomic masses
B. Physical states
C. Chemical properties
D. Number of neutrons
28. What is the element with the atomic number 1?
A. Oxygen
B. Helium
C. Hydrogen
D. Lithium
29. What do we call elements that are shiny and good conductors of heat and electricity?
A. Metalloids
B. Non-metals
C. Metals
D. Noble gases
30. Which of these is a halogen?
A. Chlorine
B. Sodium
C. Calcium
D. Neon
31. What type of energy is stored in chemical bonds?
A. Kinetic energy
B. Potential energy
C. Chemical energy
D. Thermal energy
32. The energy required to start a chemical reaction is called:
A. Bond energy
B. Kinetic energy
C. Activation energy
D. Potential energy
33. In photosynthesis, light energy is converted to:
A. Heat energy
B. Chemical energy
C. Nuclear energy
D. Mechanical energy
34. Which of the following reactions absorbs heat?
A. Exothermic
B. Endothermic
C. Combustion
D. Neutralization
35. The burning of fuel is an example of:
A. Physical change
B. Endothermic reaction
C. Exothermic reaction
D. Reversible reaction
36. Which state of matter has a definite shape and volume?
A. Solid
B. Liquid
C. Gas
D. Plasma
37. What happens to gas particles when they are heated?
A. They move more slowly
B. They collide less frequently
C. They move faster
D. They lose energy
38. What law states that volume and pressure are inversely proportional?
A. Boyle’s Law
B. Charles’s Law
C. Dalton’s Law
D. Avogadro’s Law
39. Which of the following describes plasma?
A. Solid with particles packed tightly
B. High-energy state of matter
C. Liquid with definite volume
D. Compressed gas
40. Dry ice changes directly into a gas. What is this process called?
A. Melting
B. Sublimation
C. Freezing
D. Deposition
41. What is the chemical formula for sodium chloride?
A. NaCl
B. KCl
C. NaCO₃
D. NaOH

42. Which of the following is a balanced chemical equation?


A. H₂ + O₂ → H₂O
B. 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O
C. H₂O + O₂ → H₂O₂
D. H₂ + 2O₂ → 2H₂O
43. What does the law of conservation of mass state?
A. Energy is destroyed in a reaction.
B. Mass can be created.
C. Mass is neither created nor destroyed.
D. Energy can be converted to mass.
44. The reaction: CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂ is an example of:
A. Synthesis
B. Decomposition
C. Combustion
D. Double replacement
45. What does the subscript "2" in H₂O indicate?
A. Two molecules of hydrogen
B. Two atoms of hydrogen
C. Two molecules of water
D. Two atoms of oxygen
46. Which of the following is a property of metals?
A. Poor conductor of heat
B. Brittle
C. Ductile
D. Non-malleable
47. What is the main component of rust?
A. Iron sulfate
B. Iron oxide
C. Iron chloride
D. Iron hydroxide
48. Which of these is a non-metal?
A. Aluminum
B. Copper
C. Sulfur
D. Zinc
49. What property allows metals to be drawn into wires?
A. Conductivity
B. Brittleness
C. Ductility
D. Elasticity
50. Which of the following metals reacts vigorously with water?
A. Copper
B. Sodium
C. Iron
D. Gold
51. What is the main gas responsible for acid rain?
A. Carbon monoxide
B. Sulfur dioxide
C. Methane
D. Oxygen
52. What is the chemical formula for ozone?
A. O₂
B. O₃
C. O₄
D. H₂O
53. Which of these is a greenhouse gas?
A. Nitrogen
B. Argon
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Oxygen
54. Which of the following helps to reduce water pollution?
A. Burning plastics
B. Dumping waste in rivers
C. Treating sewage
D. Using fertilizers
55. The layer of the atmosphere that protects us from ultraviolet radiation is:
A. Troposphere
B. Ozone layer
C. Stratosphere
D. Mesosphere
56. 56. What should you wear when working with acids?
A. Sandals
B. Safety goggles
C. Jewelry
D. Open gloves
57. 57. What should you do if a chemical spills on your skin?
A. Rub it off with a cloth
B. Wash it immediately with water
C. Ignore it
D. Cover it with a bandage
58. Why should you never smell a chemical directly?
A. It can damage the glassware.
B. It can harm your respiratory system.
C. It is unnecessary.
D. It can neutralize the chemical.
59. Which symbol indicates a flammable substance?
A. Skull and crossbones
B. Flame
C. Corrosive
D. Exclamation mark
60. 60. What is the first step in using a Bunsen burner?
A. Light the match first.
B. Turn on the gas first.
C. Check for leaks.
D. Open the air valve fully.
61. 61. What is the pH range of an acidic solution?
A. 0–7
B. 7–14
C. Exactly 7
D. Greater than 14
62. 62. What type of bond forms when electrons are shared?
A. Ionic
B. Covalent
C. Metallic
D. Hydrogen
63. 63. What is the molar mass of water (H₂O)?
A. 16 g/mol
B. 18 g/mol
C. 20 g/mol
D. 22 g/mol
64. 64. What is the charge of an electron?
A. Positive
B. Neutral
C. Negative
D. Varies with conditions
65. 65. Which element is the most abundant in the Earth's crust?
A. Oxygen
B. Silicon
C. Aluminum
D. Iron
66. 66. Which type of bond is formed between metal and non-metal atoms?
A. Covalent bond
B. Metallic bond
C. Ionic bond
D. Hydrogen bond
67. 67. What type of bond is formed when two atoms share electrons?
A. Ionic
B. Covalent
C. Metallic
D. Polar
68. 68. Which compound contains an ionic bond?
A. H₂O
B. NaCl
C. CO₂
D. NH₃
69. 69. In metallic bonding, the electrons are:
A. Shared between two atoms
B. Transferred from one atom to another
C. Delocalized and move freely
D. Shared unequally
70. 70. What is the term for a molecule with a slightly positive end and a slightly negative end?
A. Polar molecule
B. Non-polar molecule
C. Ionic compound
D. Metallic compound
71. 71. What is the solute in a saltwater solution?
A. Water
B. Salt
C. Both salt and water
D. None of the above
72. 72. A solution that contains the maximum amount of solute that can dissolve is called:
A. Unsaturated
B. Saturated
C. Supersaturated
D. Dilute
73. 73. What increases the rate at which a solute dissolves in a solvent?
A. Decreasing temperature
B. Stirring the solution
C. Using larger solute particles
D. Adding more solute
74. 74. Which of the following substances is insoluble in water?
A. Sugar
B. Salt
C. Sand
D. Alcohol
75. 75. What is the universal solvent?
A. Alcohol
B. Water
C. Acetone
D. Oil
76. 76. Which of the following is a unit of temperature?
A. Joule
B. Kelvin
C. Newton
D. Mole
77. 77. Heat flows from:
A. Cold to hot objects
B. Hot to cold objects
C. Objects with equal temperatures
D. Solid to gas only
78. 78. What is the boiling point of water at standard atmospheric pressure?
A. 0°C
B. 25°C
C. 100°C
D. 212°C
79. 79. Which process absorbs heat from the surroundings?
A. Condensation
B. Freezing
C. Melting
D. Combustion
80. 80. What happens to particles when a substance is heated?
A. They move slower.
B. They gain energy and move faster.
C. They stop moving.
D. They become heavier.
81. 81. Which piece of equipment is used to measure the volume of a liquid?
A. Beaker
B. Graduated cylinder
C. Test tube
D. Bunsen burner
82. 82. What is the purpose of a test tube holder?
A. To stir solutions
B. To hold hot test tubes
C. To measure liquids
D. To heat substances
83. 83. What should you do before starting a lab experiment?
A. Ignore the instructions
B. Wear proper safety equipment
C. Mix all chemicals first
D. Clean up your station
84. 84. What is used to separate a mixture of sand and salt?
A. Filtration and evaporation
B. Decantation
C. Chromatography
D. Sublimation
85. 85. What color does blue litmus paper turn in an acidic solution?
A. Blue
B. Red
C. Green
D. Yellow
86. 86. What is the molar mass of carbon dioxide (CO₂)?
A. 12 g/mol
B. 32 g/mol
C. 44 g/mol
D. 28 g/mol
87. 87. Avogadro’s number is:
A. 6.02 × 10²³
B. 3.14
C. 1.66 × 10⁻²⁴
D. 9.81 m/s²
88. 88. Which element has the symbol Fe?
A. Lead
B. Iron
C. Silver
D. Fluorine
89. 89. What type of reaction is CH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O?
A. Combination
B. Combustion
C. Decomposition
D. Single replacement
90. 90. What is the main component of natural gas?
A. Ethane
B. Methane
C. Propane
D. Butane
91. 91. Which gas is used in fire extinguishers?
A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Nitrogen
D. Helium
92. 92. What is the charge of a neutron?
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Neutral
D. Varies
93. 93. The chemical name for table sugar is:
A. Glucose
B. Fructose
C. Sucrose
D. Lactose
94. 94. What is the pH of pure water?
A. 0
B. 7
C. 14
D. 10
95. 95. Which process converts a liquid to a gas?
A. Melting
B. Freezing
C. Evaporation
D. Condensation
96. 96. What is the chemical symbol for gold?
A. Ag
B. Au
C. Gd
D. Ga
97. 97. Which element is liquid at room temperature?
A. Bromine
B. Oxygen
C. Sodium
D. Magnesium
98. 98. What is the primary gas in Earth's atmosphere?
A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Hydrogen
99. 99. Which instrument is used to measure atmospheric pressure?
A. Thermometer
B. Barometer
C. Hygrometer
D. Calorimeter
100. What is the process by which plants make food using sunlight?
A. Respiration
B. Digestion
C. Photosynthesis
D. Fermentation

101. Which of the following is a characteristic of living things?

A. Sleeping

B. Respiration

C. Growing only in size

D. Eating food

102. What is the basic unit of life?

A. Tissue

B. Organ

C. Cell

D. Organ system

103. Which of the following is NOT part of the cell theory?

A. All living things are made up of cells

B. Cells are the basic unit of life

C. Cells arise from pre-existing cells

D. All cells contain chloroplasts

104. Which organelle is responsible for energy production in cells?

A. Nucleus

B. Mitochondria

C. Ribosome

D. Chloroplast

105. The process by which plants make their own food is called:

A. Respiration

B. Transpiration
C. Photosynthesis

D. Germination

106. The heart is made up of what type of muscle?

A. Skeletal muscle

B. Cardiac muscle

C. Smooth muscle

D. Voluntary muscle

107. Which part of the human body is responsible for filtering waste from the blood?

A. Liver

B. Lungs

C. Kidney

D. Heart

108. What is the main function of red blood cells?

A. Fighting infection

B. Carrying oxygen

C. Clotting blood

D. Regulating temperature

109. What is the primary site of digestion in the human body?

A. Stomach

B. Small intestine

C. Large intestine

D. Liver

110. Which of these is part of the central nervous system?

A. Brain

B. Spinal cord
C. Nerves

D. Both A and B

111. What is the term for a group of the same species living in the same area?

A. Community

B. Ecosystem

C. Population

D. Habitat

112. The primary source of energy for ecosystems is:

A. Plants

B. The sun

C. Oxygen

D. Animals

113. What is a herbivore?

A. An animal that eats only meat

B. An animal that eats plants

C. An animal that eats both plants and meat

D. An animal that eats decomposed matter

114. The non-living components of an ecosystem include:

A. Plants and animals

B. Air and water

C. Soil and bacteria

D. Producers and consumers

115. Which term refers to the role an organism plays in its environment?

A. Habitat

B. Ecosystem
C. Niche

D. Community

116. What is the main pigment used in photosynthesis?

A. Hemoglobin

B. Chlorophyll

C. Carotene

D. Anthocyanin

117. The movement of water in plants through the xylem is called:

A. Translocation

B. Transpiration

C. Osmosis

D. Absorption

118. What type of root system is found in monocot plants?

A. Taproot system

B. Fibrous root system

C. Adventitious root system

D. None of the above

119. Which of the following is a function of the stem in plants?

A. Photosynthesis

B. Absorption of nutrients

C. Transport of water and nutrients

D. Anchoring the plant to the soil

120. What is the reproductive part of a flowering plant?

A. Stem

B. Leaf
C. Flower

D. Root

121. The process by which living organisms produce new organisms of their own kind is
called:

A. Fertilization

B. Reproduction

C. Germination

D. Growth

122. Which type of reproduction involves only one parent?

A. Asexual reproduction

B. Sexual reproduction

C. Fertilization

D. Pollination

123. What is the male reproductive organ in flowering plants?

A. Pistil

B. Sepal

C. Stamen

D. Petal

124. In humans, fertilization occurs in the:

A. Uterus

B. Ovary

C. Fallopian tube

D. Vagina

125. What term describes the fusion of male and female gametes?

A. Pollination
B. Fertilization

C. Implantation

D. Germination

126. The physical appearance of an organism is called:

A. Genotype

B. Phenotype

C. Chromosome

D. Allele

127. What is the basic unit of heredity?

A. Gene

B. DNA

C. Chromosome

D. Protein

128. Which of the following determines the sex of a baby in humans?

A. X and Y chromosomes

B. Autosomes

C. Mitochondria

D. Ribosomes

129. A change in the DNA sequence is called:

A. Mutation

B. Replication

C. Translation

D. Transcription

130. What is the shape of DNA?

A. Linear
B. Circular

C. Double helix

D. Single strand

131. Which of the following is a macronutrient?

A. Iron

B. Vitamin C

C. Protein

D. Zinc

132. The primary source of energy for humans is:

A. Proteins

B. Fats

C. Carbohydrates

D. Vitamins

133. What is the deficiency disease caused by lack of vitamin C?

A. Rickets

B. Scurvy

C. Beriberi

D. Kwashiorkor

134. Which organ is responsible for producing bile?

A. Stomach

B. Pancreas

C. Liver

D. Intestine

135. What enzyme breaks down starch into maltose?

A. Lipase
B. Protease

C. Amylase

D. Maltase

136. Which of the following is a communicable disease?

A. Diabetes

B. Malaria

C. Hypertension

D. Cancer

137. What organism causes malaria?

A. Virus

B. Bacteria

C. Fungus

D. Protozoan

138. A balanced diet contains:

A. Carbohydrates only

B. All food groups in the right proportions

C. Excess proteins and vitamins

D. Only fats and oils

139. Which of the following is a symptom of anemia?

A. Yellow skin

B. Fatigue

C. Excessive thirst

D. High blood pressure

140. Vaccination is an example of:

A. Curative healthcare
B. Preventive healthcare

C. Palliative healthcare

D. Natural immunity

141. Bacteria reproduce by a process cal led:

A. Binary fission

B. Budding

C. Spores

D. Fragmentation

142. What type of microorganism is responsible for causing tuberculosis?

A. Bacteria

B. Virus

C. Protozoa

D. Fungi

143. Fungi are classified into the kingdom:

A. Plantae

B. Animalia

C. Protista

D. Fungi

144. Which of the following is NOT a beneficial role of microorganisms?

A. Nitrogen fixation

B. Decomposition

C. Causing diseases

D. Fermentation

145. The process by which microorganisms break down dead organic matter is called:

A. Photosynthesis
B. Germination

C. Decomposition

D. Respiration

146. Deforestation can lead to:

A. Increased biodiversity

B. Soil erosion

C. More oxygen in the atmosphere

D. Increased rainfall

147. The term "endangered species" refers to species that:

A. Are threatened by human activity

B. Are immune to diseases

C. Have a stable population

D. Are found only in specific ecosystems

148. What is the process of converting waste into reusable materials called?

A. Pollution

B. Recycling

C. Combustion

D. Incineration

149. Which of the following is an example of an invasive species?

A. Native trees

B. Domestic pets

C. An organism not native to an area

D. Protected plants

150. Global warming is primarily caused by:

A. Increased rainfall
B. Increased levels of greenhouse gases

C. More volcanic eruptions

D. Decreased sunlight

151. Which of the following human activities contributes to air pollution?

A. Deforestation

B. Burning fossil fuels

C. Planting trees

D. Recycling

152. Which of these is a renewable resource?

A. Coal

B. Petroleum

C. Wind energy

D. Natural gas

153. What is the term for the gradual destruction of the ozone layer?

A. Global warming

B. Acid rain

C. Ozone depletion

D. Greenhouse effect

154. Which of the following is a direct result of water pollution?

A. Ozone layer depletion

B. Decreased biodiversity

C. Soil fertility increase

D. Renewable energy development

155. Overfishing is harmful because it:

A. Increases fish population


B. Reduces food sources for humans

C. Improves aquatic ecosystem health

D. Can lead to species extinction

156. Who is considered the father of modern taxonomy?

A. Charles Darwin

B. Carl Linnaeus

C. Albert Einstein

D. Gregor Mendel

157. Which of the following is the correct scientific name for humans?

A. Homo sapiens

B. Homo erectus

C. Homo habilis

D. Homo sapiens sapiens

158. The classification system used today includes which of the following levels?

A. Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

B. Domain, Kingdom, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

C. Kingdom, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

D. Family, Genus, Class, Order, Phylum, Species

159. The species is defined as:

A. A group of organisms capable of interbreeding and producing


fertile offspring

B. A group of organisms sharing the same habitat

C. Organisms that look alike

D. Organisms of the same genus

160. Which of the following is the largest taxonomic group?


A. Family

B. Genus

C. Kingdom

D. Species

161. The main function of chloroplasts is to:

A. Break down food

B. Control cell division

C. Conduct photosynthesis

D. Store genetic information

162. Which of the following is the product of photosynthesis?

A. Carbon dioxide and water

B. Glucose and oxygen

C. Oxygen and nitrogen

D. Glucose and carbon dioxide

163. In cellular respiration, glucose is broken down to release:

A. Oxygen

B. Water

C. Energy (ATP)

D. Carbon dioxide

164. Where does cellular respiration occur in the cell?

A. Nucleus

B. Mitochondria

C. Ribosomes

D. Chloroplasts

165. What are the two stages of photosynthesis?


A. Glycolysis and fermentation

B. Light-dependent and light-independent

C. Transpiration and evaporation

D. Respiration and digestion

166. The fusion of male and female gametes in plants is called:

A. Pollination

B. Germination

C. Fertilization

D. Budding

167. The male reproductive organ of a flower is called:

A. Stigma

B. Anther

C. Pistil

D. Ovary

168. Which part of the flower becomes the fruit?

A. Stigma

B. Anther

C. Ovary

D. Style

169. Which of these methods is NOT a form of asexual reproduction in plants?

A. Budding

B. Cutting

C. Pollination

D. Layering

170. Pollination is the transfer of pollen from:


A. One plant to another plant

B. Anther to ovule

C. Male flower to female flower

D. Anther to stigma

171. In a food chain, which organisms are always the primary producers?

A. Herbivores

B. Carnivores

C. Decomposers

D. Plants

172. What is the term for organisms that break down dead plant and animal matter?

A. Producers

B. Consumers

C. Decomposers

D. Herbivores

173. An example of a secondary consumer in a food chain could be:

A. Grass

B. Frog

C. Snake

D. Hawk

174. In an ecosystem, energy flows from:

A. Decomposers to producers

B. Producers to consumers

C. Consumers to decomposers

D. All of the above

175. The 10% rule in energy transfer refers to:


A. The amount of energy passed from one trophic level to the next

B. The energy lost through heat

C. The percentage of sunlight converted to energy

D. The energy used in photosynthesis

176. What is composting?

A. Incinerating waste

B. Converting organic waste into usable fertilizer

C. Recycling plastic

D. Filtering water

177. Which of the following is NOT biodegradable?

A. Food scraps

B. Paper

C. Plastic bags

D. Leaves

178. What is the purpose of landfills?

A. To burn waste

B. To store biodegradable waste

C. To recycle waste materials

D. To dispose of waste safely

179. Which of the following methods can be used to reduce waste in landfills?

A. Reducing the production of plastic

B. Increasing incineration

C. Using more disposable products

D. Exporting waste

180. What is the main purpose of sewage treatment plants?


A. To generate electricity

B. To filter out harmful pollutants from wastewater

C. To produce drinking water

D. To recycle plastic

181. What is the unit of force?

A. Newton

B. Joule

C. Watt

D. Pascal

182. Which of the following is a vector quantity?

A. Speed

B. Distance

C. Velocity

D. Time

183. What is the formula for calculating speed?

A. Speed = Distance × Time

B. Speed = Time / Distance

C. Speed = Distance / Time

D. Speed = Mass / Time

184. What type of energy is stored in a stretched spring?

A. Kinetic energy

B. Chemical energy

C. Elastic potential energy

D. Thermal energy

185. What is the effect of increasing the temperature on the resistance of a conductor?
A. Increases resistance

B. Decreases resistance

C. No effect

D. The resistance becomes zero

186. What is the SI unit of work?

A. Newton

B. Joule

C. Watt

D. Ampere

187. Which of the following is NOT a form of energy?

A. Heat

B. Light

C. Speed

D. Sound

188. Which of the following materials is the best conductor of electricity?

A. Wood

B. Plastic

C. Copper

D. Rubber

189. In which direction does heat flow?

A. From high to low temperature

B. From low to high temperature

C. In a circular motion

D. In a straight line

190. Which of the following is the best example of a machine?


A. Hammer

B. Screwdriver

C. Lever

D. All of the above

191. Which type of wave requires a medium to travel?

A. Light wave

B. Sound wave

C. Radio wave

D. Microwaves

192. What does the term "refraction" refer to?

A. The bending of light when it passes through different media

B. The spreading of light from a single point

C. The absorption of light by a surface

D. The bouncing of light off a surface

193. Which of the following is the best insulator?

A. Aluminum

B. Wood

C. Copper

D. Iron

194. What is the primary cause of tides in the ocean?

A. Earth's rotation

B. The gravitational pull of the moon and the sun

C. Wind currents

D. Ocean temperature

195. What is the function of the diaphragm in the human respiratory system?
A. To carry oxygen to the blood

B. To filter air

C. To regulate breathing rate

D. To control the movement of air into and out of the lungs

196. Which of the following types of energy is stored in food?

A. Kinetic energy

B. Potential energy

C. Chemical energy

D. Thermal energy

197. In an electric circuit, what is the purpose of a fuse?

A. To reduce current flow

B. To increase voltage

C. To protect the circuit from overload

D. To store electrical energy

198. What is the name of the force that opposes the motion of objects in fluids?

A. Gravity

B. Friction

C. Air resistance

D. Tension

199. What happens to the frequency of a wave when its wavelength increases?

A. The frequency increases

B. The frequency decreases

C. The frequency remains the same

D. The frequency becomes zero

200. Answer: B) The frequency decreases

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