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4024 Example Candidate Responses Paper 2 (For Examination From 2018)

This document provides example candidate responses for the Cambridge O Level Mathematics (Syllabus D) 4024 examination, showcasing various answers from the June 2022 exam series. Each response is accompanied by examiner commentary that explains the reasoning behind the marks awarded or omitted, helping educators understand the standards required for different levels of performance. The booklet serves as a resource for teachers to analyze and discuss candidate answers to improve students' exam techniques.

Uploaded by

Tooba Khurram
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© © All Rights Reserved
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Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
84 views42 pages

4024 Example Candidate Responses Paper 2 (For Examination From 2018)

This document provides example candidate responses for the Cambridge O Level Mathematics (Syllabus D) 4024 examination, showcasing various answers from the June 2022 exam series. Each response is accompanied by examiner commentary that explains the reasoning behind the marks awarded or omitted, helping educators understand the standards required for different levels of performance. The booklet serves as a resource for teachers to analyze and discuss candidate answers to improve students' exam techniques.

Uploaded by

Tooba Khurram
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Cambridge O Level
Mathematics (Syllabus D) 4024
For examination from 2022
© Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2022 v1
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge University Press & Assessment. Cambridge
University Press & Assessment is a department of the University of Cambridge.
Cambridge University Press & Assessment retains the copyright on all its publications. Registered centres are
permitted to copy material from this booklet for their own internal use. However, we cannot give permission to centres
to photocopy any material that is acknowledged to a third party even for internal use within a centre.
Contents
Introduction........................................................................................................................................................................4
Question 1.........................................................................................................................................................................6
Example Candidate Response 1.......................................................................................................................................6
Example Candidate Response 2.......................................................................................................................................8

Question 2.......................................................................................................................................................................10
Example Candidate Response 1.....................................................................................................................................10
Example Candidate Response 2..................................................................................................................................... 11

Question 3.......................................................................................................................................................................12
Example Candidate Response 1.....................................................................................................................................12
Example Candidate Response 2.....................................................................................................................................13

Question 4.......................................................................................................................................................................14
Example Candidate Response 1.....................................................................................................................................14
Example Candidate Response 2.....................................................................................................................................16

Question 5.......................................................................................................................................................................18
Example Candidate Response 1.....................................................................................................................................18
Example Candidate Response 2.....................................................................................................................................20

Question 6.......................................................................................................................................................................22
Example Candidate Response 1.....................................................................................................................................22
Example Candidate Response 2.....................................................................................................................................24

Question 7.......................................................................................................................................................................26
Example Candidate Response 1.....................................................................................................................................26
Example Candidate Response 2.....................................................................................................................................28

Question 8.......................................................................................................................................................................30
Example Candidate Response 1.....................................................................................................................................30
Example Candidate Response 2.....................................................................................................................................32

Question 9.......................................................................................................................................................................34
Example Candidate Response 1.....................................................................................................................................34
Example Candidate Response 2.....................................................................................................................................36

Question 10.....................................................................................................................................................................38
Example Candidate Response 1.....................................................................................................................................38
Example Candidate Response 2.....................................................................................................................................40
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Introduction
The main aim of this booklet is to exemplify standards for those teaching Cambridge O Level Mathematics (Syllabus
D) 4024, and to show how different candidates’ performance relate to the subjects curriculum and assessment
objectives.
In this booklet candidate responses have been chosen from the June 2022 exam series to exemplify a range of
answers.
For each question, the response is annotated with a clear explanation of where and why marks were awarded or
omitted. In this way, it is possible for you to understand what candidates have done to gain their marks and what they
could do to improve their answers.
This document provides illustrative examples of candidate work with examiner commentary. These help teachers
to assess the standard required to achieve marks beyond the guidance of the mark scheme. Therefore, in some
circumstances, such as where exact answers are required, there will not be much comment.

4024 June 2022 Question Paper 22


4024 June 2022 Mark Scheme 22

The questions and mark schemes used here are available to download from the School Support Hub. These files are:
Past exam resources and other teaching and learning resources are available on the School Support Hub:
www.cambridgeinternational.org/support

4
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

How to use this booklet


This booklet goes through the paper one question at a time. The candidate answers are set in a table. In the left-hand
column are the candidate answers, and in the right-hand column are the Examiner comments.

Answers are by real candidates in exam conditions. Examiner comments are


These show you the types of answers for each level. alongside the answers. These
Discuss and analyse the answers with your learners in explain where and why marks
the classroom to improve their skills. were awarded. This helps you
to interpret the standard of
Cambridge exams so you can
help your learners to refine
their exam technique.

5
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Question 1

Example Candidate Response 1 Examiner comments

1 1 The correct method for M1 is


seen to calculate the percentage
increase, however, it was common
to see candidates truncating
their answer rather than correctly
rounding it to 3 significant figures.
Mark for (a)(i) = 1 out of 1

Mark for (a)(i) = 1 out of 2

Mark for (b) = 3 out of 3

6
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Example Candidate Response 1, continued Examiner comments

3 3 This candidate demonstrates


a common misunderstanding of
how the cost of posting a parcel is
calculated. They calculate the cost
as $4.60 per whole kilogram and
$1.10 for the extra 0.5 kg. Careful
reading of the given information
is required to use this information
correctly for parcels with a mass of
more than 1 kg.
4 Mark for (c) = 0 out of 2

4 An answer of $12.43 to $12.44


was common. It comes from a
misunderstanding of the 7.2 %
increase and calculating the original
cost of posting this parcel as
92.8 % of $13.40. The 7.2 %
increase relates to the original cost
which is unknown and so $13.40 is
107.2 % of the original cost.
Mark for (d) = 0 out of 2

Total mark awarded =


5 out of 10

7
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Example Candidate Response 2 Examiner comments

1 1 The candidate finds the cost


to post these letters in cents and
not in dollars, a common error
amongst candidates. They should
be encouraged to read the whole
question in order to access all the
available marks.
2 Mark for (a)(i) = 0 out of 1

2 The method for finding 96


as a percentage of 84 is seen,
however this candidate makes a
common error of not subtracting
100 to progress further to find the
percentage increase, so they are
only awarded M1.

Mark for (a)(i) = 1 out of 2

3 3 The candidate finds the cost


in cents for Company A to post the
letters with the discount of 15 % for
the first method mark. Frequently,
candidates did not show a method
for their final answer, in this case a
method to reach the answer of 1190.
Mark for (b) = 1 out of 3

8
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Example Candidate Response 2, continued Examiner comments

4 4 No relevant work is seen for the


cost of the additional 2.5 kg which is
required to then calculate the cost of
posting the parcel.
Mark for (c) = 0 out of 2

5 5 A common misunderstanding
on this question was to decrease
$13.40 by 7.2 %, rather than
appreciate that $13.40 is equal to
107.2 % of the original cost. If a
question asks for the original cost,
then no marks are available if the
percentage is multiplied by the given
cost.

Mark for (d) = 0 out of 2

Total mark awarded =


2 out of 10

9
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Question 2

Example Candidate Response 1 Examiner comments

Mark for (a) = 2 out of 2

Mark for (b) = 2 out of 2


1 1 The candidate understands the
need to subtract 3 from both sides
of the equation, however the 1 on
the right-hand side of the equation
disappears.
Mark for (c) = 0 out of 2

2 A partial factorisation of this


2 expression, particularly the one
given by this candidate, is common.
The candidate is awarded B1. To
access all the marks on questions
of this form, a completely factorised
expression is required, in this
case with the factor 4r outside the
bracket.
3 Mark for (d) = 1 out of 2
3 In the working, this candidate
demonstrates understanding of how
to rearrange the equation to make
b the subject. This final answer
on the answer line was common.
All the marks for a rearrangement
are only available if an equation is
given for the final answer and not an
expression.
Mark for (e) = 0 out of 1
Total mark awarded =
5 out of 9

10
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Example Candidate Response 2 Examiner comments

1 A correct substitution into


the equation of the values of A
1 and p is shown. Having arrived at
the equation 23 = 15 + q, many
candidates have difficulty solving
this. Some arrived at the answer q =
-8, like this candidate, with another
common wrong answer being
2
23
q= .
15
Mark for (a) = 1 out of 2

2 A common misconception on
this question was knowing what is
3 required by the demand ‘Expand
and simplify’. Having expanded and
then attempted to simplify, many,
like this candidate, think further
work was required and attempted
a solution usually by setting the
expression equal to zero. M1 is
awarded for correct expansion of
brackets.
Mark for (b) = 1 out of 2

3 Errors are frequently seen in


the first step of the solution of this
equation, with the most common
errors being either 5y = 1 + 3 or
5y = –1 + 3.
4
Mark for (c) = 0 out of 2

Mark for (d) = 2 out of 2

4 A common misconception
for this rearrangement is to think
that b would become the subject
if the equation is multiplied by 3.
Consideration needs to be given
to the present operation (in this
case multiplication) and then the
reverse operation (in this case
division) is needed when ‘undoing’
an operation.
Mark for (e) = 0 out of 1

Total mark awarded =


4 out of 9

11
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Question 3

Example Candidate Response 1 Examiner comments

Mark for (a) = 2 out of 2


Mark for (b) = 1 out of 1

1 1 A common error when selecting


the factors of 30 was not to include
the factor 1. This candidate uses the
information for the factors 2, 3 and
7
5 correctly giving an answer
50
which is awarded SC1.

Mark for (c) = 1 out of 2

2
2 The probability of the spinner
landing on an even number was
frequently seen on the answer line.
Some candidates make no further
progress having obtained this
probability, while others, like this
candidate, attempt to use the 3000,
but do so incorrectly.
Mark for (d) = 1 out of 2

Total mark awarded =


5 out of 7

12
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Example Candidate Response 2 Examiner comments

1 This candidate uses the table


correctly to find the fraction of
the pie chart that represents the
number 4. A common error is to
find the percentage of the pie chart
rather than the angle of the sector
as required. B1 is awarded for an
answer 17.5[%].
1
Mark for (a) = 1 out of 2

2 This candidate correctly


estimates the probability that the
spinner lands on a 3, however this
work is then replaced. A common
misconception is to assume that
2 the spinner is equally likely to
land on each number, ignoring the
information in the right-hand column
of the table, resulting in a probability
1
3 of .
5
Mark for (b) = 0 out of 1

3 The common misconception


of the previous part appears to be
carried over to this part with an
4
4
answer of , as 4 of the 5 numbers
5
are factors of 30. No indication is
seen in this part of 1, 2, 3 and 5
being factors of 30.
Mark for (c) = 0 out of 2
4 A continuation of the
misconception is seen again in
2
this part with being the required
5
probability. This probability is used
to estimate the number of times out
of the 3000 spins the spinner lands
on an even number. Throughout the
last three parts of the question a
fair spinner is assumed rather than
using the information given in the
table.
Mark for (d) = 0 out of 2
Total mark awarded =
1 out of 7

13
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Question 4

Example Candidate Response 1 Examiner comments

1 A misunderstanding of how
to split the pentagon into shapes
where each area can be calculated
is shown by this candidate. It was
1 common for candidates to work out
the area of a triangle with a base of
12 and height of 15, assuming that
this triangle was contained inside
the pentagon.
Mark for (a)(i) = 0 out of 2
2 2 This candidate realises that
Pythagoras is needed to calculate
the missing length of the perimeter.
However, they continue with the
previous common misunderstanding
and assume this length is part of the
12 by 15 triangle. The length found
is added to the four given lengths.
The candidate is awarded M1 for
12 + 15 + 4 + 9 + their h after their
attempt at Pythagoras’ to find h.
3 Mark for (a)(ii) = 1 out of 3

3 The candidate’s most accurate


answer (8.49 in this case) needs
to be in the required range for full
marks.
Mark for (b) = 3 out of 3

14
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Example Candidate Response 1, continued Examiner comments

Mark for (c)(i) = 3 out of 3

4 4 A common error seen was


to write an equation equating the
volume of the cube to the surface
area of the cuboid. Consideration of
the dimensions of each side of the
equation indicates that the cube of l
is a volume and not a surface area.
Mark for (c)(ii) = 0 out of 3

Total mark awarded =


7 out of 14

15
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Example Candidate Response 2 Examiner comments

1 Multiplying all the given


dimensions was a common
misconception as to how to
calculate the area of this pentagon.
Consideration of the dimensions
indicates a wrong formula (cm x cm
x cm x cm = cm4).
Mark for (a)(i) = 0 out of 2
1
2 This candidate arrives at the
correct perimeter for the pentagon.
However this perimeter must
not come from wrong working
(nfww on the mark scheme). The
working seen next to the shape
2
shows that the unknown length
of 10 is a rounded value coming
from Pythagoras, subtracting the
hypotenuse of a 9 by 4 triangle
from the hypotenuse of a 15 by 12
triangle. This is an incorrect method
for calculating the unknown length.
The candidate is awarded M1 for 12
+ 15 + 4 + 9 + their h after attempt
at Pythagoras' to find h.
Mark for (a)(ii) = 1 out of 3
3
3 A correct equation is written
by the candidate which earns M1.
Mistakes are then made in solving
this equation, firstly replacing the 4
by a 3. A common error was getting
as far as a value for the cube of r,
as seen by this candidate, and then
not obtaining the correct cube root
even if the cube root sign was seen.
Frequently the calculator was used
to find the square root.
Mark for (b) = 1 out of 3

16
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Example Candidate Response 2, continued Examiner comments

4 4 The volume of the cuboid is


calculated, a common error.
Mark for (c)(i) = 0 out of 3

5 5 This candidate continues the


previous error by writing an equation
equating the volume of the cube to
the volume of the cuboid.
Mark for (c)(ii) = 0 out of 3

Total mark awarded =


2 out of 14

17
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Question 5

Example Candidate Response 1 Examiner comments

Mark for (a)(i) = 1 out of 1


1 1 Instead of calculating the
midpoint of the intervals, the
candidate calculates the class width
of the intervals and attempts to use
these to calculate the estimate of
the mean. This is a very common
error.
Mark for (a)(ii) = 0 out of 3

18
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Example Candidate Response 1, continued Examiner comments

2 2 Candidates frequently
completed the table by writing
the cumulative frequencies.
The difference between the way
intervals are written in the first row
of a cumulative frequency table
compared to a frequency table
should be noted.
Mark for (b)(i) = 0 out of 2

3 Mark for (b)(ii) = 1 out of 1

3 The candidate finds the value of


k if 55 % of the adults took between
50 seconds and k seconds. It was
extremely common for the answer
to be 200. The candidate is awarded
M1 for the method of finding 55 %
of 120.
Mark for (b)(iii) = 1 out of 3

Total mark awarded =


3 out of 10

19
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Example Candidate Response 2 Examiner comments

1 Reading the requirements of the


1
question is essential for candidates
to access the marks. A common
error on this question was to give a
probability rather than a number of
students.
Mark for (a)(i) = 0 out of 1
2
2 A common misconception when
calculating the estimated mean is
to sum the midpoints and divide
by the number of intervals. By
doing this candidates do not take
into consideration the number of
students in each interval.
Mark for (a)(ii) = 1 out of 3

20
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Example Candidate Response 2, continued Examiner comments

3 3 The candidate correctly finds


the frequency of 22. It is unclear
how the remaining three frequencies
have been calculated.
Mark for (b)(i) = 0 out of 2
4
4 The candidate uses their
frequency values in the table in
attempting to find an estimate of the
median. Using the direction given
in the demand was required, in this
5 case using the cumulative frequency
diagram.
Mark for (b)(ii) = 0 out of 1

5 This candidate correctly


calculates 55 % of 120 and then
uses the graph to find the time with
a cumulative frequency of 66. This
was the most common mistake
on this part of the question, with
many not taking into account the
information given about 55 % of the
adults taking between 125 seconds
and k seconds. The candidate is
awarded M1 for the correct method
to find 55% of 120.
Mark for (b)(iii) = 1 out of 3
Total mark awarded =
2 out of 10

21
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Question 6

Example Candidate Response 1 Examiner comments

1 1 A common wrong line drawn


instead of the required line is the
one this candidate draws, y = 2.
Mark for (a) = 0 out of 2

2 2 Understanding of the graphical


solution of simultaneous equations
is demonstrated by this candidate,
giving the value of x and the value
of y where their line intersects the
given line.
Mark for (b) = 1 out of 1

22
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Example Candidate Response 1, continued Examiner comments

3 3 Following through from the


previous error, the candidate is able
to identify the region R by shading
the correct side of each line.
Mark for (c)(i) = 2 out of 2
4
4 This candidate makes a
common error of giving some of the
coordinates of the possible positions
of Z rather than finding the number
of possible positions of Z. Careful
reading of the question to ‘Find the
number of ...’, indicates that one
number is needed as the answer.
Mark for (c)(ii)(a) = 0 out of 1

Mark for (c)(ii)(b) = 2 out of 2

Total mark awarded =


5 out of 8

23
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Example Candidate Response 2 Examiner comments

1 1 A common error candidates


made when drawing this line was
to join (0, 2) to (7, 0). The point (7,
0) is a point on the line, but (0, 2)
is not. Making use of the working
space provided to calculate at least
three points on the line should be
encouraged.
Mark for (a) = 0 out of 2
2 2 Not using the method of solution
stated in the question was frequently
seen with many candidates using
an algebraic method, often leading
to errors. A follow through mark
for x = 0, y = 2 is available for this
candidate if they realised that the
point where their line crosses the
given line is the graphical solution
for simultaneous equations.
Mark for (b) = 0 out of 1

24
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Example Candidate Response 2, continued Examiner comments

3 3 This candidate demonstrates a


good understanding of the first two
inequalities. The line x = 5 is drawn,
but the shading is the wrong side of
the line for that given inequality. The
4
candidate is awarded B1 for x = 5
drawn.
Mark for (c)(i) = 1 out of 2

4 This candidate gives the


coordinates of a possible position of
Z in their region. The question asks
for the number of possible positions
5 and not the coordinates.
Mark for (c)(ii)(a) = 0 out of 1

5 Candidates frequently gave


a list of numbers in answer to
this question rather than a list of
coordinates which the question asks
for.
Mark for (c)(ii)(b) = 0 out of 2

Total mark awarded =


1 out of 8

25
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Question 7

Example Candidate Response 1 Examiner comments

Mark for (a)(i) = 1 out of 1


1 It was common for candidates
1 just to refer to the motion as being
constant. In describing the motion
it is necessary for candidates to
make reference to the speed being
constant or the acceleration being
2 zero.
Mark for (a)(ii) = 0 out of 1

2 A common misconception
was to assume that the value of T
could be found by dividing the total
distance by the maximum speed,
resulting in the common answer of
3 93. Appreciation of distance being
the area under a speed-time graph
is needed for the candidates to
access any marks.
Mark for (a)(iii) = 0 out of 3

3 The candidate finds the speed


in metres per minute. Conversion to
kilometres per minute is required for
a method mark.
Mark for (a)(iv) = 0 out of 2

26
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Example Candidate Response 1, continued Examiner comments

4 4 The candidate demonstrates


understanding of both a distance
written to the nearest kilometre and
a time to the nearest 0.1 hours and
is awarded B1 for 352.5 seen. The
common error when finding the
upper bound for the average speed
is to use the upper bound for both
the distance and the time. When the
calculation is a division, the upper
bound is found by dividing an upper
bound by a lower bound. Here M1
is awarded for the division with their
bounds.
Mark for (b) = 2 out of 3

Total mark awarded =


3 out of 10

27
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Example Candidate Response 2 Examiner comments

Mark for (a)(i) = 1 out of 1

1 1 The candidate needs to refer to


the speed being constant to give an
adequate description on the motion.
This was a common description
candidates gave.
Mark for (a)(ii) = 0 out of 1
2
2 This candidate makes some
attempt to relate the distance to the
area under the speed-time graph.
The area of the middle rectangle
is correct and is awarded M1. Two
mistakes are seen: the first area
being taken as a rectangle and the
base of the last triangle written as
3 90-T. The latter was a common error
usually resulting in an answer of 76.
Mark for (a)(iii) = 1 out of 3

3 The candidate makes the


common error of multiplying by 1000
and dividing by 3600, instead of
dividing by 1000 and multiplying by
3600.
Mark for (a)(iv) = 0 out of 2

28
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Example Candidate Response 2, continued Examiner comments

4 4 The candidate gives the correct


upper bound for the distance and
is awarded B1. However, although
they know the formula to calculate
the average speed, they are unable
to deal correctly with the given
accuracy of the time.
Mark for (b) = 1 out of 3

Total mark awarded =


3 out of 10

29
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Question 8

Example Candidate Response 1 Examiner comments

1 1 This candidate shows the


correct method to find the matrix A.
An arithmetic mistake is made with
one of the elements, which was a
common error, usually with one of
the elements in the first column. B1
is awarded for 3 correct elements in
the final answer.
Mark for (a) = 1 out of 2

2 2 The given determinant is used


correctly to find the value of p. When
finding the inverse of matrix B, this
candidate uses the determinant
correctly, however does not find the
adjoint of matrix B. B2 is awarded
for p = – 3.

Mark for (b) = 2 out of 3

30
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Example Candidate Response 1,continued Examiner comments

3 3 It was common for candidates


to know that the required
transformation is a translation.
Many, like this candidate, did not
give the required vector or gave an
incorrect vector.

4 Mark for (c)(i) = 1 out of 2

4 This candidate uses the matrix


correctly to find (and not replace)
two of the coordinates of shape C.
To access any marks at least one
more point is required.
Mark for (c)(ii) = 0 out of 2

Total mark awarded =


4 out of 9

31
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Example Candidate Response 2 Examiner comments

1 1 The correct method is seen for


finding matrix A. It was common for
an error to be made with one of the
elements, in this case when dividing
by –3. B1 is awarded for 3 correct
elements in the final answer.
Mark for (a) = 1 out of 2

2
2 A common error when trying
to find the matrix was to write the
determinant of B as 2p – 8, leading
to p = 5. This candidate is able
to follow through their mistake
correctly, using the determinant and
their adjoint matrix and is awarded
B1.
Mark for (b) = 1 out of 3

32
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Example Candidate Response 2, continued Examiner comments

3 3 It was common to see


candidates drawing shape C
the same size as shape A. This
candidate, like many, assumes the
given matrix represents a translation
2 to the left and 2 down.
Mark for (c)(i) = 2 out of 2
Mark for (c)(ii) = 0 out of 2

Total mark awarded =


4 out of 9

33
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Question 9

Example Candidate Response 1 Examiner comments

1 1 The correct method for


calculating PQ is shown in the
working. The candidate makes
the extremely common error of
not writing the value of PT to at
least 3 decimal places. To access
full marks when being required to
show a value to a given accuracy,
candidates need to show a value to
greater accuracy than that given in
the demand.
Mark for (a) = 1 out of 2

2
2 The candidate incorrectly places
the angle of elevation in triangle
PQS resulting in QS = 12.11. This
value was frequently seen for QS,
either from the given error or from
a misapplication of the tangent
formula, with the angle of elevation
correctly placed. Their value of QS
is then applied correctly into the
explicit form of the cosine rule for
cos Q. The candidate is awarded
M2 for the correct use of cosine rule
with their QS.
Mark for (b) = 2 out of 5

34
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Example Candidate Response 1, continued Examiner comments

Mark for (c) = 4 out of 4

Total mark awarded =


7 out of 11

35
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Example Candidate Response 2 Examiner comments

Mark for (a) = 2 out of 2

1 1 The candidate makes a wrong


assumption that angle QSR can be
calculated by subtracting 36 (the
angle of elevation) from 180.
Mark for (b) = 0 out of 5

36
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Example Candidate Response 2, continued Examiner comments

2 2 The candidate assumes that


the given values can be used in the
sine rule to calculate PT, either by
assuming the triangle is isosceles
or by misapplying the sine rule.
This was a common error made
by the candidates, failing to realise
that angle PTQ could be calculated
by considering the angle sum of a
triangle.
Mark for (c) = 0 out of 4

Total mark awarded =


2 out of 11

37
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Question 10

Example Candidate Response 1 Examiner comments

1 1 This candidate starts again from


the second line and correctly works
out the values of e. Frequently
candidates did not give coordinates
of the form (e, e) for the final answer,
instead using one of each value in
the coordinates, as seen in these
answers.
Mark for (a) = 4 out of 5

38
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Example Candidate Response 1, continued Examiner comments

2 2 This candidate finds a correct


algebraic expression for the
gradient of DF to earn M1. This is
then equated to the gradient of the
perpendicular of DF, which was a
common error.
Mark for (b)(i) = 1 out of 4

3 3 When attempting to find the


value of k, this candidate makes
a common error of using the
coordinates of D in the equation
rather than the coordinates of the
midpoint of DF.
Mark for (b)(ii) = 0 out of 3

Total mark awarded =


5 out of 12

39
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Example Candidate Response 2 Examiner comments

1 1 The correct algebraic


expression is seen for the square
of DE. A common error when
expanding (e –- 4)2 was to write
e2 + 16. This candidate also
incorrectly equates this to 400
instead of 20.
Mark for (a) = 1 out of 5

40
Example Candidate Responses – Paper 2

Example Candidate Response 2, continued Examiner comments

2 2 The candidate calculates the


correct gradient of DF to earn B1.
They then make a common error
giving the algebraic expression for
the gradient of DF as 5f/(–f), coming
from use of the coordinates of F and
no use of the coordinates of D.
Mark for (b)(i) = 1 out of 4

3 The candidate makes the


3
common error of attempting
to find the value of k when the
perpendicular line is through F.
They also make a further error,
missing the 2 on the left-hand
side of the equation. Use of the
midpoint of DF is required for the
perpendicular bisector.
Mark for (b)(ii) = 0 out of 3

Total mark awarded =


2 out of 12

41
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