Nov 2024 Pathfinder-skills Level
Nov 2024 Pathfinder-skills Level
ACCOUNTANTS OF NIGERIA
PATHFINDER
NOVEMBER 2024 DIET
SKILLS LEVEL EXAMINATIONS
Question Papers
Suggested Solutions
Marking Guides
and
Examiners‟ Reports
163
FOREWARD
(ii) Unsuccessful candidates in the identification of those areas in which they lost
marks and need to improve their knowledge and presentation;
The answers provided in this publication do not exhaust all possible alternative
approaches to solving these questions. Efforts had been made to use the methods,
which will save much of the scarce examination time. Also, in order to facilitate
teaching, questions may be edited so that some principles or their application may be
more clearly demonstrated.
NOTES
1
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Page
FOREWARD 1
TABLE OF CONTENT 3
FINANCIAL REPORTING 4 - 41
PERFORMANCE MANAGEMENT 64 - 91
2
ICAN/242/Q/B1 Examination No.....................
FINANCIAL REPORTING
EXAMINATION INSTRUCTIONS
PLEASE READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS BEFORE THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE PAPER
1. Check your pockets, purse, mathematical set, etc. to ensure that you do not have
prohibited items such as telephone handset, electronic storage device,
programmable devices, wristwatches or any form of written material on you in the
examination hall. You will be stopped from continuing with the examination and
liable to further disciplinary actions including cancellation of examination result if
caught.
2. Write your EXAMINATION NUMBER in the space provided above.
3. Do NOT write anything on your question paper EXCEPT your Examination number.
5. Read all instructions in each section of the question paper carefully before
answering the questions.
6. Do NOT answer more than the number of questions required in each section,
otherwise, you will be penalised.
7. All solutions should be written in BLUE or BLACK INK. Any solution written in
PENCIL or any other COLOUR OF INK will not be marked.
8. You are required to attempt Question ONE (Compulsory), TWO Questions in
Section B and TWO Questions in Section C.
9. Check that you have collected the correct question paper for the examination you
are writing.
TUESDAY, NOVEMBER 19, 2024
FINANCIAL REPORTING
Time Allowed: 31/4 hours (including 15 minutes reading time)
QUESTION 1
The following is the trial balance of Konko-Below Plc for the year ended March 31,
2023.
Dr. Cr.
N’m N’m
Land and building 1,350
Plant and machinery 780
Investment properties:
Valuation at April 1, 2022 450
Purchases 391
Operating expenses 78
Loan interest paid 10
Rental of leased plant 110
Dividend paid 75
Inventories at April 1, 2022 189
Trade receivables 266
Revenue 1,392
Income from investment property 23
Ordinary shares at N1 each (fully paid) 750
Retained earnings at April 1, 2022 598
8% loan notes 250
Accm. depreciation at April 1, 2022:
- Buildings 300
- Plant 130
Trade payables 167
Deferred tax 62
Bank overdraft _____ 27
3,699 3,699
4
Additional Information:
(i) The land and buildings were purchased 15 years before the beginning of the
period. The cost of the land was N350million. No land and buildings have been
purchased by Konko-Below Plc since that date. On April 1, 2022 Konko-Below
PLC had its land and building professionally valued at N400million and
N875million respectively. The directors wish to incorporate these values into the
financial statements. The estimated life of the buildings was originally 50 years
and the remaining life has not changed as a result of the valuation.
- Later, the estate valuer Messers Ajasoco and company informed Konko-
Below PLC that investment properties of the type owned by Konko-Below Plc
had increased in value by 7% in the year ended March 31, 2023.
- Plant and machinery, other than the leased plant stated in (ii) below is
depreciated at 15% per annum using reducing balance method.
Depreciation of building, plant and machinery is charged to cost of sales.
(ii) On April 1, 2022 Konko-Below Plc entered into a lease for an item of plant
which had an estimated life of five (5) years. The lease period is also five (5)
years with annual rental of N110 million payable in advance from April 1, 2022.
The plant is expected to have a nil residual value at the end of its life. If
purchased the plant would have a cost of N460million and be depreciated on a
straight-line basis.
(iii) The loan notes was issued on July 1, 2022 with interest payable six monthly in
arrears.
(iv) The provision for income tax for the year to March 31, 2023 has been estimated
at N141.5million. The deferred tax provision at March 31, 2023 is to be
adjusted to a credit balance of N70.5million.
5
SECTION B: YOU ARE REQUIRED TO ATTEMPT TWO OUT OF THREE
QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION (40 MARKS)
QUESTION 2
However, the relative success of Orak Nigeria Limited over the last few years has
attracted interest from a number of potential buyers that want to acquire the
company. One of Orak Nig. Limited‟s main customers, Datamatic Plc, is now
considering making a bid for the entire share capital of Orak Nig. Limited thereby
effectively bringing Orak‟s services in-house. Datamatic Plc is of the opinion that the
specialist products that Orak Nig. Limited supplies it will now be under their
company‟s control.
The financial adviser to Datamatic Plc has obtained the following information relating
to Orak Nig. Limited.
Extract from financial statements of Orak Nig. Limited for the year ended Sept. 30,
2023
N’000
Revenue 220,950
Cost of sales 125,820
Other costs 78,030
Profit before tax 17,100
Profit for the year 11,970
Dividend paid 5,850
Non-current assets 80,460
Inventories 20,880
Receivables 13,140
Cash and cash equivalents 2,880
Payables 21,960
Ordinary share capital 9,000
Retained earnings 86,400
6
Information obtained from computer component manufacturers association (Industry
data)
Ratios
Average P/E ratio (for quoted companies) 9.0
Average annual growth in reported post-tax profit (2022 to 2023) 3.0%
Average pre-tax profit margin 5.1%
Average pre-tax ROCE 13%
Average receivables collection days 78
Average payables payment days 34
Average revenue per employee N2,313,000
The finance director of Datamatics Plc has provided the following summary of
Datamatics Plc recent performance as at September 30:
Required:
a. Compute the following ratios for Orak Nig. Limited
b. Analyse the financial position and performance of Orak Nigeria Limited for the
year ended Sept. 30, 2023 and determine if Datamatics Plc‟s investment in Orak
Nig. Limited will be worthwhile. (8 Marks)
(Total 20 Marks)
7
QUESTION 3
On October, 1 2022 Papaya Plc acquired 90% interest in Bafana Ltd by issuing
1,000,000 ordinary shares at an agreed value of N2 per share, paying N1,000,000 in
cash.
N’000
Property, plant and equipment 1,900
Inventories 700
Trade receivables 300
Cash and cash equivalents 100
Trade payables (400)
2,600
8
The consolidated statement of profit or loss for the year ended December 31 2022
N’000
Revenue 100,000
Cost of sales (75,000)
Gross profit 25,000
Administrative expenses (20,800)
Profit before taxation 4,200
Income tax expense (1,500)
Profit for the year 2,700
Profit attributable to owners of Papaya PLC 2,610
Non-controlling interests 90
2,700
The statement of changes in equity for year ended December 31, 2022 (Extract) was as
follows:-
Retained
earnings
N’000
Balance as at December 31, 2021 15,300
Total profit for the year 2,610
Balance at December 31, 2022 17,910
Additional information:
(i) All other subsidiaries are wholly owned.
(ii) Depreciation charged to the consolidated statement of profit or loss amounted
to N2,100,000.
(iii) There were no disposals of property, plant and equipment during the year.
(iv) Goodwill is not impaired.
(v) Non-controlling interests is valued on the proportionate basis.
Required:
Prepare consolidated statement of cash flows for Papaya Plc for the year ended
December 31, 2022, using indirect method in accordance with IAS 7 – Statement of
cash flows.
(Total 20 Marks)
9
QUESTION 4
Ogbagi Plc
Statement of profit or loss and other comprehensive income for the year ended
December 31, 2022
N’000 N’000
Revenue: 3,200,000
Interest income 20,000
Gain on sale of plant 16,000
3,236,000
Expenses:
Cost of sales 1,920,000
Staff remunerations 480,000
Depreciation on plant and equipment 100,000
Interest expense 16,000
Other expenses 304,000
(2,820,000)
Profit before tax 416,000
Income tax expense (120,000)
Profit for the year 296,000
Other comprehensive income
Gain on sale of investment 8,000
Attributable tax (2,400)
5,600
Total comprehensive income for the year 301,600
Ogbagi Plc
Comparative statements of financial position as at December 31
2022 2021 Increase/(decrease)
N’000 N’000 N’000
Cash at bank 226,200 240,000 (13,800)
Account receivables 316,000 280,000 36,000
Inventories 280,000 260,000 20,000
Prepayments 38,000 32,000 6,000
Interest receivable 400 600 (200)
Plant and equipment 660,000 600,000 60,000
Investment 56,000 48,000 8,000
Intangible assets 60,000 - 60,000
1,636,600 1,460,600 176,000
Accounts payables 180,000 168,000 12,000
Staff remuneration payable 20,000 16,000 4,000
Accrued interests 800 - 800
Other expenses payable 7,200 12,000 (4,800)
Current tax payable 64,000 56,000 8,000
10
Deferred tax liability 34,400 20,000 14,400
Long-term borrowings 280,000 240,000 40,000
Share capital 800,000 800,000 -
Retained earnings 244,600 148,600 96,000
Fair value reserve 5,600 - 5,600
1,636,600 1,460,600 176,000
Additional information:
(i) Plants which had a carrying amount of N40million was sold for N56million cash
and new equipment was purchased for N200million.
(ii) Intangibles valued at N60million were acquired for cash.
(iii) Borrowings of N40millon were made during the year and received in cash.
(iv) Dividends paid in cash amounted to N200million.
Required:
Prepare statement of cash flows for Ogbagi Plc for the year ended December 31, 2022
in accordance with IAS 7 using direct method.
(Total 20 Marks)
QUESTION 5
a. The IASB Framework states that several measurement bases are used for the
elements in financial statements
11
A financial analyst interested in investing in the company computed the
following ratios, in respect of the company, for the year ended December 31,
2022:
QUESTION 6
Total earnings for the year to December 31, 2021 were ₦3,600,000. Total
earning for the previous year 2020 were ₦3,300,000. Tax is payable at a rate of
30% on profits.
Required:
Calculate the basic Earnings Per Share (EPS) and diluted EPS for the year 2021,
and the comparative figures for the year 2020 for inclusion in the year 2021
financial statements. (8 Marks)
12
QUESTION 7
a. The preparation of financial statements requires a great deal of professional
judgment, honesty and integrity. Therefore, Chartered Accountants should
employ a degree of healthy skepticism when reviewing financial statements and
any analysis provided by the company‟s management.
Required:
i. Identify and explain THREE major inappropriate practices that can be discovered
whilst reviewing your client‟s financial statements and accompanying analysis.
(4½ Marks)
ii. Identify and explain THREE fundamental ethical considerations that
professional accountants should always consider. (4½ Marks)
b. Despite the largely global adoption of IFRS, users of financial statements still
experience problems when comparing financial statements of similar companies.
Required:
Discuss THREE reasons why the comparison of primary financial statements is problematic for
users. (6 Marks)
(Total 15 Marks)
13
SECTION A
SOLUTION 1
Konko-Below Plc
a) Statement of profit or loss and other comprehensive income for the year
ended March 31, 2023
Note N'm
Revenue 1,392.0
Cost of sales 1 (578.5)
Gross profit 813.5
Operating expenses (78.0)
Income from investment property 23.0
Fair value gain on Investment properties (7% × N450) 31.5
Operating profit 790.0
Finance cost 2 (50.0)
Profit before taxation 740.0
Income tax expenses 3 (150.0)
Profit for the year 590.0
Other comprehensive income:
Gain on revaluation of land & building 4 225.0
Total comprehensive income 815.0
Konko-Below Plc
b) Statement of changes in equity for the year ended march 31, 2023
Ordinary Revaluation Retained Total
share surplus earnings
N‟m N‟m N‟m N‟m
Balance b/f (April 1, 2022) 750 - 598 1,348
Profit for the year - - 590 590
Gain on revaluation - 225 - 225
Dividend paid - - (75) (75)
Balance to SOFP (March 31, 2022) 750 225 1,113 2,088
14
Konko-Below Plc
c) Statement of financial position as at March 31, 2023
Note N‟m
Non-current asset:
Property, plant and equipment 5 2,170.5
Investment properties (at fair value) 6 481.5
Total non-current assets 2,652.0
Current assets:
Inventory 216.0
Trade receivables 266.0
Total current assets 482.0
Total assets 3,134.0
Equity and liabilities:
Equity:
Ordinary shares of N1 each 750.0
Revaluation reserves on land and building 225.0
Retained earnings 1,113.0
Total equity 2,088.0
Non-current liabilities:
Deferred tax 3 b) 70.5
8% loan notes 250.0
Lease liabilities 7 275.0
Total non-current liabilities 595.5
Current liabilities:
Trade payables 167.0
Accrued interest expenses 8 5.0
Lease liabilities 7 110.0
Current tax payables 141.5
Bank overdraft 27.0
Total current liabilities 450.5
Total liabilities 1,046.0
Total equity and liabilities 3,134.0
Working notes
Wk 1: Cost of Sales N‟m
Opening inventories 189.0
Purchases 31.5
Closing inventories (216.0)
Depreciation (Wk 1) 214.5
SOPL 578.5
Wk 2: Lease rentals N‟m
Outstanding lease obligation 385
15
Net obligation at inception (N460 110) (350)
Lease obligation accrued interest 35
Finance cost on loan interest (8% x N250m x 9/12) 15
50
Wk 3a: Income tax expenses N‟m
Current year charges 141.5
Increase in deferred tax (Wk 3b) 8.5
Accrued to SOPL 150.0
Wk 3b: Deferred tax N‟m
Opening balance 62.0
Closing balance 70.5
Increase in deferred tax (Wk 3a) 8.5
Land Building
Wk 4: Gain on revaluation of land and building:
N‟m N‟m
Cost of land and building 31/3/2023 350 700
At valuation 31/3/2023 400 875
Gain on revaluation 50 175
Wk 5: Schedule of movement in PPE for the year ended March 31, 2023
Land Building P/Equip ROU Total
Cost/valuation: N‟m N‟m N‟m N‟m N‟m
Balance b/f 350.0 1,000.0 780.0 - 2,130.0
Additions - - - 460.0 460.0
Revaluation 50.0 175.0 - - 225.0
Balance c/f 400.0 1,175.0 780.0 460.0 2,815.0
Acc. depreciation:
Balance b/f - 300.0 130.0 - 430.0
Current year charges - 25.0 97.5 92.0 214.5
Balance c/f - 325.0 227.5 92.0 644.5
Carrying amount:
Balance c/f 400.0 850.0 552.5 368.0 2,170.5
Balance b/f 350.0 700.0 650.0 - 1700.0
Wk 6: Investment properties N‟m
Valuation at April 1, 2022 450.0
Fair value gain (7% x N450m) 31.5
Balance to SOFP 481.5
Wk 7: Lease liabilities N‟m
Fair value of Right of Use (ROU) 460.0
Payment made during the year (wk 9) (110)
Lease Interest 35
Balance to SOFP 385
16
Classified into:
Non-current 275
Current 110
385
Wk 8: 8% Loan Interest N‟m
SOPL Current year charges 15.0
Loan interest paid as per TB (10.0)
Accrued to SOFP 5.0
Examiner’s report
The question tests the preparation of single entity‟s final accounts, which requires the
presentation of statement of profit or loss and other comprehensive income, statement
of changes in equity and statement of financial position.
Majority of the candidates attempted the question and their performance was average.
The commonest pitfall was the inability of most candidates to apply the provisions of
IFRS 16 – lease, hence they could not properly identify the Right of Use (ROU) of the
leased assets as required under International Financial Reporting Standards. Also,
others could not properly account for deferred tax provisions in accordance with IAS
12- Income tax.
Candidates are advised to pay more attention to the preparation of final accounts of
single entity as this is a regular area of the syllabus that are examined at this level of
the institute‟s examinations.
Marking guide
Marks Marks
a) Preparation of statement of profit or loss and other
comprehensive income:
Title of the statement ¼
Determining the gross profit ¾
Determining the profit before taxation 1½
Income tax expenses ¼
17
Profit for the year ¼
Stating total comprehensive income ½
Workings for cost of sales 2
Workings for lease rentals 2
Workings for gain on revaluation 1½
Showing other workings for profit or loss items 1 10
b) Preparation of statement of changes in equity:
Title of the statement ½
Opening balance of components of equity 1½
Profit for the year 1
Gain on revaluation 1
Dividend paid 1
Total equity 1 6
c) Preparation of statement of financial position:
The title of the statement ¼
Non-current assets ¾
Current assets 1
Total assets ¼
Components of equity 1
Non-current liabilities 1
Current liabilities 1½
Total equity and liabilities ¼
Workings for movement in PPE 5¼
Workings for lease amortisation schedule 1
Workings for investment properties ¾
Workings for lease liabilities 1 14
Total 30
18
SECTION B
SOLUTION 2
(a) Computation of ratios of Orak Nigeria Limited for the year ended Sept. 30, 2023
S/N Ratios Orak Nig. Limited
= 95,130 x 100
Gross profit x 100 95,400
i) Gross profit to capital employed =
Capital employed = 99.72%
ii) Pre-tax profit to capital employed = Profit before Tax x 100 = 17,100 x 100
Capital employed 95,400
= 17.92%
Net profit margin = Profit for the year x 100 = 17,100 x 100
iv)
Revenue 220,950
= 7.74%
Revenue 220,950
v) Non-current asset turnover = =
Non-current asset 80,460
= 2.75 times
vi) Receivables collection period = Trade rec. x 365 days = 13,140 x 365 days
Revenue 220,950
= 22 days
Revenue 220,950,000
ix) Revenue per employee (N) = =
Number of employees 54 staff
= N4,091,667
19
xii) Current ratio = Current assets = 36,900
Current liabilities 21,960
= 1.68:1
(b) Analysis of financial position and performance of Orak Nig. Ltd for the year 2023
Based on the ratios calculated and the data provided in the financial statements,
here is an analysis of Orak Nigeria Ltd's financial performance and position.
Profitability
(i) Gross profit margin (43.1%)
Orak Nig. Ltd maintains a strong gross profit margin, indicating good
control over cost of sales relative to revenue. This level of profitability
suggests that the company effectively manages its production and
operational costs.
20
(vii) As Orak Ltd is currently paying high dividend, this will be good news for
shareholders of Datamatics Plc.
(viii) Also pre-tax ROCE and pre-tax profit margin 38% and 5% respectively are
higher than industry average which support the view that Orak Nig. Ltd. is
able to charge high prices. This would appear to be as a result of
specialisation of the service of Orak Nig. Ltd.
(ix) Should Orak Ltd acquire Datamatics Plc, Orak Limited will benefit from price
premium thereby generating better profitability for Datamatics Plc.
Liquidity
(i) Current ratio (1.68)
A current ratio above 1 shows that Orak Nig. Ltd has sufficient short-term
assets to cover its short term liabilities. This is a good liquidity position,
reducing the risk of cash flow problems.
(ii) Quick ratio (0.73)
The quick ratio indicates weaker liquidity after inventories are excluded,
suggesting some reliance on inventory turnover to meet liabilities.
Datamatics Plc should consider whether this reliance aligns with their risk
appetite.
Efficiency
(i) Receivables collection period (22 days)
Orak Nig. Ltd collects receivables efficiently within 22 days on average,
which is a positive indicator of cash flow management.
(ii) Payables payment period (64 days)
The company takes about 64 days to pay suppliers, which may suggest they
are effective in managing cash flow. However, this could strain supplier
relationships if extended further.
Investment efficiency
(i) Non-current asset turnover (2.75)
Orak Nig. Ltd current assets turnover is 2.75. However, the industrial
average is not provided for comparison.
(ii) Revenue per employee (₦2.313 million)
This is a good productivity ratio, when compared with the industrial
average.
21
Dividend sustainability
Dividend Cover (2.05)
The net profit at Orak Nig Ltd covers it dividend more than twice, indicating
the sustainability of the company. This is a positive indicator for Datamatics,
as it shows the company‟s ability to distribute profits without jeopardising
reinvestment opportunities.
22
Nig. Ltd. is acquired by Datamatics Plc, there may be need to change this
policy.
(vi) Inventory turnover of 61 days indicates that the production process within
Orak Nig. Ltd. is about two months and may be a reflection of the
complexity of the manufacturing process that it undertakes. This may
largely be as a result of safety checks, which are key features of supply of
specialised computer components and the time taken may contribute to the
61-day figure.
Recommendation
Datamatics Plc‟s investment in Orak Nigeria Limited appears to be worthwhile,
based on the following:
(i) Orak Nig. Ltd is generating strong gross profit margins and acceptable
ROCE, making it a profitable company.
(ii) Liquidity and operational efficiency ratios are within acceptable ranges.
(iii) Integration of Orak Nig. Ltd‟s services into Datamatics PLC could reduce
costs and increase operational synergies.
Examiner’s report
The question tests the computation and analyses of financial ratios for investment
decisions.
Majority of the candidate attempted the question and their performance was above
average.
The candidates performed very well in the computation of the required ratios, but
most could not give proper interpretation to the computed ratios.
Candidates are advised to pay more attention to the interpretation of financial
statements at this level of the institute‟s examination rather than focusing on
computation of relevant financial ratios.
23
Marking guide
Marks Marks
a) Computation of relevant ratios:
Calculation of:
Gross profit to ROCE 1
Pre-tax to ROCE 1
Gross profit margin 1
Net profit margin 1
Non-current asset turnover 1
Receivables collection period 1
Payables payment period 1
Inventory turnover 1
Revenue per employee 1
Dividend cover 1
Calculation of current ratio 1
Quick ratio 1 12
b) Analysis of financial position and performance
Analysis of financial performance:
Any 6 correct points at ¼ mark each 3
Analysis of financial position:
Any 8 correct points at ½ mark each 4
Stating recommendation ½
Stating reservation ½ 8
Total 20
24
SOLUTION 3
Papaya Plc
Consolidated statement of cash flows for the year ended December 31, 2022
Working notes
Wk 1: Increase/decrease in working capital
Inventory Trade rec. Trade pay.
N‟000 N‟000 N‟000
Opening balance 12,000 11,000 15,200
Acquisition of subsidiary 700 300 400
Expected closing balance 12,700 11,300 15,600
Actual closing balance 14,500 13,700 16,900
Increase/decrease (1,800) (2,400) (1,300)
25
Actual closing balance 1,500
Cash paid 1,000
Examiner’s report
The question examines the candidates‟ ability to prepare consolidated statement of
cash flows of a simple group, using the indirect method.
Most of the candidates attempted the question and their performance was below
average.
Those candidates that attempted the question approached it as if they were preparing
statement of cash flows for a single entity hence most of them did not make necessary
adjustments to reflect the effect of the subsidiary on the cash flow of the group and
this led to loss of valuable marks.
Candidates are advised to cover all sections of the syllabus, on group accounts and
other related topics for better performance in future examinations.
26
Marking guide
Marks
a) Preparation of consolidated statement of cash
flows
Title of the statement ½
Determination of cash flows from operating
activities 2¾
Determination of cash flows from investing
activities 1
Determination of cash flows from financing
activities 1
Stating cash and cash equivalents ¾
Determination of movement in working capital 4
Workings notes for taxation paid 1½
Stating working notes for cash purchase of PPE 1¾
Working notes for purchase of subsidiary 1
Calculation of dividend paid to NCI 1¾
Calculation of proceed on issue of shares 4
Total 20
SOLUTION 4
Ogbagi Plc
Statement of cash flows for the year ended December 31, 2022
Operating activities: N'000 N'000
Cash received from customers (Wk 2) 3,164,000
Cash paid to suppliers (Wk 3) (1,928,000)
Cash paid to employees (Wk 5) (476,000)
Cash paid for other operating expenses (Wk 4) (314,800)
Cash flow from operation 445,200
Interest Received (Wk 7) 20,200
Interest paid (Wk 6) (15,200)
Taxation paid (Wk 1) (100,000)
Net cash flows from operating activities 350,200
Investing activities:
Purchase of plant and equipment by cash (Wk 8) (200,000)
Purchase of intangible by cash (60,000)
Proceeds from disposal of plant (Wk 9) 56,000
Net cash flows from investing activities (204,000)
Financing activities:
Proceeds from issue of long-term borrowings 40,000
Dividend paid by cash (200,000)
Net cash flows from financing activities (160,000)
Net increase in cash and cash equivalents for the (13,800)
27
year
Cash and cash equivalents at the beginning 240,000
Cash and cash equivalents at the end 226,200
Working notes
Wk 1: Taxation paid N'000
Opening balance (56,000 + 20,000) 76,000
Income tax expense (120,000 + 2,400) 122,400
Expected closing balance 198,400
Actual closing balance (64,000 + 34,400) 98,400
Taxation paid 100,000
Wk 2: Cash received from customers N'000
Opening balance 280,000
Revenue for the year 3,200,000
Expected closing balance 3,480,000
Actual closing balance 316,000
Cash received from customers 3,164,000
28
Wk 6: Interest paid N'000
Opening balance –
Interest expense charged to SOPL 16,000
Expected closing balance 16,000
Actual closing balance 800
Interest paid 15,200
29
Examiner’s report
The question tests candidates‟ knowledge of preparation of statement of cash flows of
a single entity in accordance with provisions of IFRS 7, using direct method.
Many candidates attempted the question and performance was average.
The commonest pitfall of the candidates was their inability to correctly determine the
cashflows from operating activities, using the direct method. Some of the candidates
could not determine the cash received from customers, cash paid to suppliers as well
cash paid for other operating expenses.
Other candidates also used the indirect method despite the fact that the question
specifically requests for the use of direct method and this led to loss of valuable marks.
Candidates are advised to pay special attention to this area of the syllabus and other
relevant sections for better performance in future examinations of the institute.
Marking guide
Marks
a) Preparation of statement of cash flows
Title of the statement ¼
Determining cash received from customers 1¾
Determining cash paid to suppliers 2½
Determining cash paid to employees 1¾
Determining cash paid for other operating
expenses 2
Determining net cash flows from operating
activities 1¼
Determining cash flows from investing activities 1¼
Determining cash flows from financing activities 1
Stating cash and cash equivalents ¾
Workings notes for taxation paid 2¾
Workings notes for interest paid 1¼
Workings notes for cash purchase of plant and
machinery 1½
Determining profit on disposal of plant 1
Determining gain on fair value of investment 1
Total 20
30
SECTION C
SOLUTION 5
a) Bases of measurement:
i. Historical cost: Assets are measured at the amount of cash paid, or at the
fair value of the consideration given to acquire them. Liabilities are
measured at:
the amount of proceeds received in exchange for the obligation (for
example, bank loan or a bank overdraft), or
the amount of cash that will be paid to satisfy the liability.
ii. Current cost or current value is the basis used in current value
accounting/current cost accounting. Assets are measured at the amount that
would be paid to purchase the same or a similar asset currently. Liabilities
are measured at the amount that would be required to settle the obligation
currently.
iii. Realisable value (or settlement value): This method of measurement is
relevant when an entity is not a going concern and is faced with liquidation
(and a forced sale of its assets). Assets are measured at the amount that
could be obtained by selling them. Liabilities are measured at the amount
that would be required to settle them currently.
iv. Present value. Assets might be measured at the value of the future net cash
inflows that the item is expected to generate, discounted to a present value.
Similarly, a liability might be measured at the discounted present value of
the expected cash outflows that will be made to settle the liability.
b) Wadai Plc
i) Statement of profit or loss for the year ended December 31, 2022
Notes N'000 N'000
Revenue 4 40,000
Cost of sales:
Opening inventory 7 1,000
Purchases 34,000
35,000
Closing inventory 6 (5,000) (30,000)
Gross profit 5 10,000
Operating expenses (2,000)
Net profit for the year 3 8,000
31
Wadai Plc
ii) Statement of financial position as at December 31, 2022
Note N'000
Total non-current assets 50,000
Current assets:
Inventory 5,000
Other current assets 65,000
Total current assets 2 70,000
Total assets 120,000
Working notes
Wk 1: Determination of equity
Non-current assets = 5 = 50,000
Equity 4 Equity
Equity = 50,000 x 4 = N40,000
5
Wk 4: Determination of revenue
Net profit
= 20%
Revenue
Revenue = Net profit/20% = 8,000/0.20 = N40,000
Examiner’s report
The question tests candidates‟ knowledge of the bases of measurement in accordance
with IASB Framework in part a, while part b requires candidates to prepare
summarised statement of profit or loss and statement of financial position from
various financial ratios by generating relevant figures for the financial statements
from the interrelated financial ratios.
Most of the candidates did not attempt this question and the few that attempted
performed poorly.
The main pitfall of the candidates was their inability to identify how these financial
ratios are related and hence they could not use them to generate relevant figures for
the purpose of preparing the summarised financial statements.
Candidates should note that they are expected to be able apply accounting principles
and theories at the skills level of the institute examination hence they are advised to
emphasise the applications of the various accounting principles and theories in
various sections of the syllabus.
33
Marking guide
Marks Marks
a) Explanation of four bases of measurement at 1
mark each 4
b)i Statement of financial position:
Determining total current assets 1½
Determining equity 1½
Calculation of current liabilities 1½
Determining non-current assets 1
Derivation of closing inventory 1
Determining total assets and total liabilities ½ 7
b)ii Statement of profit or loss:
Determination of revenue ½
Estimation of opening inventory 1½
Determination of cost of sales ½
Determination of gross profit 1
Determination of net profit ½ 4
Total 15
SOLUTION 6
N3,600,000 N3,300,000
Basic EPS = Earnings attributable to ordinary shareholders
Weighted average number of ordinary shares 12,000,000 12,000,000
= N0.30 per share = N0.28 per share
Where:
X = Interest savings (net of tax) on convertible
bond that qualifies for dilution
Y = No. of ordinary shares that would be
exchanged for the convertible bond.
34
Working notes
Test of dilution
b) INTERNAL MEMO
This memo aims to provide an overview of the advantages and limitations of Earnings
Per Share (EPS) as a performance indicator for users of financial statements.
Advantages of EPS
(i) Simplicity and comparability: EPS provides a straightforward measure of
profitability on a per-share basis, allowing investors to easily compare the
earnings performance of different companies within the same industry.
(ii) Decision-making tool for investors: Investors often use EPS as a key metric to
evaluate potential returns, aiding in decision-making about buying, holding, or
selling shares.
35
(iii) Market sentiment indicator: A rising EPS trend indicates strong company
performance, often leading to increased investor confidence and positive market
sentiment.
(iv) Basis for valuation metrics: EPS is a core input in widely used valuation ratios
like the Price-Earnings (P/E) ratio, helping investors assess the relative value of a
company's stock.
(v) Trend analysis: It can be used to evaluate and compare the EPS of the same
entity in different years. Thus, it is useful in trend analysis of an entity‟s EPS.
(vi) Performance measurement: It measures performance from the perspectives of
investors and potential investors
(vii) Earning distribution: It points out earnings distributable to the entity‟s
shareholders
Limitations of EPS
(i) Ignores capital structure: EPS does not account for differences in capital
structure, such as debt levels. Two companies with similar EPS but different risk
profiles (e.g., high vs. low debt) may not be equally attractive.
(ii) Subject to accounting manipulation and window dressing: EPS can be
manipulated through accounting practices, such as share buybacks or changes in
depreciation methods, which may not reflect genuine operational improvements.
(iii) Fails to consider cash flows: EPS focuses solely on accounting profits,
disregarding cash flows. This limits its usefulness for evaluating a company's
ability to meet financial obligations or invest in growth.
Best regards,
Finance Manager
36
Examiner’s report
The question examines candidates‟ knowledge of computation of basic and diluted
earnings per share (EPS) and the advantages and limitations of the EPS as
performance indicators to users of financial statements.
Few candidates attempted the question and performance was below average.
Most candidates could not correctly calculate the basic and diluted earnings per share
(EPS). However, they were able to explain the advantages and limitations of the EPS
as a performance indicator to users of financial statements.
Candidates are advised to pay more attention to all areas of the syllabus most
especially the relevant international accounting standards at this level of the institute
examination.
Marking guide
Marks Marks
a) Calculation of basic and diluted earnings per
share with comparative figures:
Calculation of basic EPS and comparative 4
figures
Calculation of diluted EPS and its comparative
figures 4 8
b)ii Memo addressed to board of directors
explaining advantages and limitations of EPS:
Presentation of report in memo format 2
Explaining four (4) advantages at ½ mark each 2
Explaining three (3) limitations at 1 mark each 3 7
Total 15
SOLUTION 7
37
debt covenants. This distorts the financial position and may lead to
inaccurate assessments of the company‟s solvency.
(iii) Overstatement of asset values: Inflating the value of assets such as
inventory, accounts receivable, or intangible assets, such as goodwill, can
artificially improve a company's statement of financial position. This often
involves using unrealistic assumptions or failing to account for
impairments. Overstated assets mislead stakeholders about the true net
worth and financial stability of the company.
(iv) Misclassification of expenses: Companies may intentionally misclassify
operating expenses as capital expenditures to improve reported
profitability. This inflates current period profits while understating actual
costs. A company classifies routine repair and maintenance costs as
improvements to non-current assets, which should be expensed in the
income statement rather than capitalised on the statement of financial
position. This misclassification distorts both the income statement and the
statement of financial position misleading stakeholders about the
company's operational efficiency and financial position.
(v) Window dressing of the year-end financial position
Examples may include:
Agreeing with customers that receivables are paid on shorter term
around year end, so that trade receivables collection period is reduced
and operating cash flows are enhanced.
Modifying the supplier payment cycle by delaying payment normally
made in the last month of the current year until first month of the
following year. This will improve the cash position.
39
(iii) Local laws and cultural influences: Despite IFRS adoption, local laws, tax
systems, and cultural practices may influence how companies prepare and
disclose financial statements. For example, taxation rules can affect
reported profits differently across regions. This can reduce comparability
even when companies report under the same IFRS standards.
(iv) Impact of different economic environments: Companies operating in diverse
countries face varying economic environments, such as inflation rates,
exchange rates and interest rates. These differences can significantly
influence financial results and ratios, making direct comparisons between
companies challenging.
A company operating in a high-inflation economy may show distorted asset
values or costs compared to a company in a low-inflation economy, despite
similar operational performance.
(v) Use of management estimates and judgments: Financial statements often
rely on management's estimates and judgments, such as in valuing
inventory, calculating depreciation, or assessing impairment. These
subjective decisions can vary widely between companies, even within the
same industry, affecting comparability.
One company may use aggressive assumptions for revenue recognition,
while another applies conservative assumptions, leading to different
reported earnings despite similar underlying operations.
(vi) Different accounting policies: There is still flexibility allowed in the choice of
accounting policies adopted by companies. One important choice involves
the option to revalue PPE. This will have an impact on assets and equity
values in the financial statements (statement of financial position) and also
the amount of depreciation in the statement of profit or loss.
(vii) Different format of financial statements: A characteristic of IFRS is that it is
flexible in terms of how statements are presented. All statements required
minimum disclosures but do not specify precise formats. Furthermore the
statement of profit or loss can be presented in different formats (by function
or by nature) making comparison particularly difficult.
(viii) Different year-ends: Company may prepare their financial statements at any
month end of their choice. Some companies involved in seasonal trading
may chose a year end that presents a more favourable impression of their
financial position than is typical for the year, others may not.
These factors highlight the inherent challenges in achieving full
comparability of financial statements, even under global accounting
standards like IFRS.
40
Examiner’s report
The question tests candidates‟ knowledge of possible inappropriate practices that
could exist in financial statements when carrying out its review. The question also
requires candidates to identify and explain fundamental ethical considerations which
professional accountants should always consider as well as to state the reasons why
comparison of primary financial statements is problematic to users despite the global
adoption of IFRS.
Most candidates attempted the question and performance was average.
Majority of the candidates were able to identify and explain major inappropriate
practices when reviewing financial statements. They could also clearly state the
fundamental ethical considerations that professional accountants should always
consider. However, only few of them could state the reasons why comparison of
primary financial statements is problematic to users.
Candidates are advised to ensure to cover all sections of the syllabus for better
performance in future examinations of the institute.
Marking guide
Marks Marks
a)i Identification and explanation of three (3) major
inappropriate practices at 1½ mark each 4½
ii Identification and explanation of three (3) fundamental
ethical considerations that professional accountants should
always consider at 1½ marks each 4½ 9
b) Stating three (3) reasons why comparison of primary
financial statement is problematic for users at 2 marks each 6
Total 15
41
ICAN/242/Q/B2 Examination No...........................
THE INSTITUTE OF CHARTERED ACCOUNTANTS OF NIGERIA
42
THE INSTITUTE OF CHARTERED ACCOUNTANTS OF NIGERIA
SKILLS LEVEL EXAMINATION – NOVEMBER 2024
QUESTION 1
Hellen Ayee, a Ph.D Accounting degree holder, recently joined a renowned firm of
chartered accountants as a new audit staff. She was excited at the insights she gained
upon completion of the firm‟s mandatory orientation period for new hires. During her
first assignment at the audit of a medium sized manufacturing entity, she overheard
the supervisor and other more experienced members of the audit team discussing a
N500 million difference between the actual revenue figure as per trial balance and the
revenue of N75 billion obtained by an audit-intern staff. As the brainstorming session
continued, Hellen understood that N500 million is material to the financial statements
of the manufacturing entity. She also gathered that the audit team had, as part of the
approved work programme, tested controls and noted no exceptions. However, the
difficulty started when the difference of N500 million was recorded. Rightly, Hellen
joined the discussion and together with the audit team, they read and understood the
substantive work areas of the work programme.
The supervisor, being satisfied with Hellen‟s contribution, reassigned the audit of
revenue to Hellen with the following instructions:
(i) Familiarise yourself with all the work done to date on revenue;
(ii) Perform the substantive analytical procedures on revenue as well as complete
other remaining substantive procedures; and
(iii) Document your conclusions.
The supervisor, recognising that the engagement is for the statutory audit of the
financial statements of the manufacturing entity meant for filing in Nigeria, and
having noted that you are writing the Skills level of the ICAN Examinations and
therefore, have sufficient knowledge and relevant experience to review Hellen‟s work,
assigned the responsibility to you.
43
Required:
a. During the review of Hellen‟s work, you noted the necessity to explain the
objectives and the need for audit and assurance to her.
Required:
i. Explain the objectives of an external audit and differentiate an audit from
an assurance engagement. (3 Marks)
ii. Identify the parties to an audit engagement and highlight the key
differences between the responsibilities of the directors of the
manufacturing entity and the audit firm. (3 Marks)
b. During your review of Hellen‟s work, she wondered about the rights and duties
of the external auditor. S. 404 of the Companies and Allied Matters Act 2020 (as
amended), requires the auditor to form an opinion on matters stated in
schedule 5 to CAMA.
Required:
Explain to Hellen the matters in schedule 5 to CAMA. (6 Marks)
c. As you were about to complete your review of Helen‟s work, the audit-intern
staff joined and you needed to provide some coaching.
Required:
i. Explain the FOUR guidelines used by auditors to determine the reliability
of audit evidence (8 Marks)
ii. Define “Analytical procedures” in accordance with ISA 520 (2 Marks)
iii. Explain FOUR issues ISA 520 requires the auditor to consider when using
analytical procedures in substantive testing (8 Marks)
(Total 30 Marks)
SECTION B: YOU ARE REQUIRED TO ATTEMPT TWO OUT OF THREE QUESTIONS
IN THIS SECTION (40 MARKS)
QUESTION 2
The Committee of Sponsoring Organisations of the Treadway Commission (COSO)
describes internal control as a process, effected by an entity‟s board of directors,
management, and other personnel, designed to provide reasonable assurance
regarding the achievement of objectives in the following categories: effectiveness and
efficiency of operations; in the reliability of reporting; and in compliance with
applicable laws and regulations.
Required:
a. Describe an internal control system. (2 Marks)
b. Explain the different types of internal controls. (6 Marks)
c. Explain FOUR components of internal controls. (8 Marks)
d. State the FOUR limitations of internal controls. (4 Marks)
(Total 20 Marks)
44
QUESTION 3
During the recently concluded Annual General Meeting (AGM) of New-Level Insurance
Plc, the statutory auditors, Messrs Aliyu & Ayodele (Chartered Accountants) informed
the shareholders that they are independent of New-Level Insurance Plc, and that they
conducted their audit in sufficient detail to identify material errors or misstatement in
the financial statements, if any existed. In turn, the shareholders, knowing that the
financial statements were audited to levels of materiality, sought to understand from
the auditors the areas for improvement noted for management action during the audit.
A fellow ICAN student shared the excerpt with you as part of your discussions.
Required:
a. Explain “Audit” and “Assurance”. (3 Marks)
b. Explain the concept of “True and Fair View”. (4 Marks)
c. Discuss the importance of the materiality concept to an external auditor.
(4 Marks)
d. State TWO reasons to justify the requirement for an auditor to be independent
of the audit client. (4 Marks)
e. In terms of ISA 320, explain when the statutory auditor is required to apply the
concept of materiality. (5 Marks)
(Total 20 Marks)
QUESTION 4
The IFAC Code provides additional guidance for all professional accountants on how to
respond to Non-Compliance with Laws and Regulations (NOCLAR).
Required:
a. State FIVE examples of NOCLAR. (5 Marks)
b. Explain NOCLAR framework as it relates to the professional accountant.
(5 Marks)
c. Explain FIVE steps the professional accountant will take when he becomes
aware of NOCLAR. (10 Mark)
(Total 20 Marks)
45
SECTION C: YOU ARE REQUIRED TO ATTEMPT TWO OUT OF THREE QUESTIONS IN
THIS SECTION (30 MARKS)
QUESTION 5
Qual-Bank Limited, a leading bank in Nigeria, has recently recognised the significance
of staying abreast of developments in the digital space and has accordingly deployed
a state-of-the-art online enterprise system for all its banking operations. The
shareholders, being technologically savvy, are concerned that the statutory auditors
may not have the skill and experience to audit a bank such as theirs. They understand
that such technological advancement in the bank certainly calls for the deployment of
digitally supported audit techniques, if they are to have any confidence in the audit
report.
The Institute of Chartered Accountants of Nigeria (ICAN) had since, through so many
fora, including mandatory training and conferences, equipped members of the
Institute to not only adapt to technological changes in their clients‟ environment but
indeed to be ahead of the curve. It is, therefore, to be expected that Tomiwa, the Lead
Partner in Tomiwa Chuks & Co, with a wealth of experience in auditing financial
institutions, is also well-versed in the application of digital techniques in the provision
of audit services.
Together with his teammates, Tomiwa led effort towards updating the team‟s risk
assessment, planning, execution and reporting phases of the audit of Qual-Bank to
reflect the significant changes at the bank and to the admiration of management,
directors and shareholders. Specifically, Tomiwa implemented integrated real-time
audit software into the audit process to:
You have also deepened your understanding of digital/IT audit techniques and as part
of the Qual-Bank audit team, you are required to:
a. Explain THREE likely challenges Tomiwa Chuks & Co would face in its just
implemented advanced audit software. (9 Marks)
46
QUESTION 6
High-Flier Nigeria Limited was incorporated in 2003. This visionary company became
known as a symbol of innovation and a commitment to excellence. With the passage of
time, the company's success stood firmly on the core principles of transparency,
accountability, and the presentation of fair financial statements.
At the heart of High-Flier Nigeria Limited's corporate ethos, is the profound
understanding of the principal-agent theory - a concept of paramount significance in
the realm of corporate governance. This theory emphasises the need for directors to
meticulously render accounts of their stewardship to the shareholders.
This accountability is not a mere formality but the very essence of their corporate
narrative.
Required:
a. Explain the Principal-agent relationship. (2 Marks)
b. In the context of the above scenario,
i. Who is the principal?
ii. Who is the agent? (2 Marks)
c. Explain the concept of stewardship. (2 Marks)
d. Explain TWO reasons for which stewardship account is rendered. (4 Marks)
e. Explain the concept of accountability. (2 Marks)
f. Describe “financial statements”. (3 Marks)
(Total 15 Marks)
QUESTION 7
Trade and other receivables often form a substantial part of current assets, and the
amounts could be significant to the financial statements of an entity. If not well
managed, recovery could be expensive and in some instances some balances may be
lost.
You are the staff responsible for the audit of trade and other receivables during the
year-end statutory audit of Nano-Manufacturing Limited, a company based in Port
Harcourt, Nigeria, with approximately 65% of sales on credit.
Required:
a. Describe TWO principal risks of misstatement of the balances of trade
receivables balances. (2 Marks)
b. Explain FOUR purposes of a direct confirmation of receivables. (6 Marks)
c. Explain the FOUR requirements of ISA 505 as they relate to the auditor
maintaining control over external confirmation requests. (4 Marks)
d. Enumerate THREE steps you would take if the client‟s management refuses to
allow you to send a confirmation request. (3 Marks)
(Total 15 Marks)
47
SOLUTION 1
The secondary objectives are to prevent and detect errors and frauds,
and to give recommendations for improvements in the internal control
system to management or those charged with governance.
48
Differences in responsibilities of directors and audit firm
The directors are responsible for:
The preparation of the financial statements in line with the relevant
standards and extant laws and regulations;
Giving the auditors access to their premises and locations;
Giving explanations to all the auditors‟ queries; and
Providing all records and information required by the auditors.
49
c. Coaching aspect to the audit intern staff
i. Reliability: This relates to the integrity and credibility of the evidence. The
following factors assist in assessing the reliability of an audit evidence:
Documentary evidence is more reliable than oral evidence;
Original documents are more reliable than photocopies;
Evidence obtained from outsider source is more reliable than one from
insider source;
Evidence from satisfactory internal control is more reliable than the one
obtained from poor internal control; and
Evidence generated by auditor himself is more reliable than evidence
from client or internal source.
Being compulsory, virtually all the candidates attempted the question, but
performance was below average.
The common pitfalls were the misrepresentation of the objectives of an external audit
and assurance engagements, and specific functions of the external auditors as they
relate to Schedule 5 to Companies and Allied Matters Act 2020 (CAMA).
Candidates are advised to read widely making use of the Institute‟s Pathfinders and
Study Text to prepare for future examinations.
50
Marking guide
Marks Marks
(a) i. Objectives of external audit
Primary objective ½
Secondary objective ½
Differences between audit and assurance engagements
Any 2 correct points @ 1 each 2 3
SOLUTION 2
51
b) Types of Internal control
iii. Physical controls - These include controls over the physical security of
assets and records to prevent unauthorised use, theft or damage.
Examples include limiting access to inventory areas to a restricted
number of authorised personnel, and requiring authorisation for access
to computer programs and data files.
c) ISA 315 identifies five components which together make up the internal
control system:
i. The control environment
The „control environment‟ is often referred to as the general
„attitude‟ to internal control of management and employees in the
organisation.
52
ii. The entity’s risk assessment process
Within a strong system of internal control, management should
identify, assess and manage business risks, on a continual basis.
Significant business risks are any events or omissions that may
prevent the entity from achieving its objectives.
v. Monitoring of controls
It is important within an internal control system that management
should review and monitor the operation of the controls, on a systematic
basis, to satisfy themselves that the controls remain adequate and that
they are being applied properly. ISA 315 requires the auditor to obtain
an understanding of this monitoring process.
53
d) Limitations of internal controls
Internal control systems are never fool proof. All systems, no matter how
effective they may appear to be, have several limitations. These include:
i. Human error may result in incomplete or inaccurate processing which
may not be detected by control systems;
ii. Certain types of controls may not be cost-effective to be established in an
organisation;
iii. Controls may be in place, but they may be ignored or overridden by
employees or management; and
iv. Collusion may render segregation of duties to be ineffective. Collusion
means that two or more people work together to avoid a control, possibly
for the purpose of committing fraud.
Examiner’s report
The question tests candidates‟ knowledge of internal control system and internal
controls.
About 90% of the candidates attempted the question, but the performance was fair.
The common pitfall of the candidates was mix-up of meanings of types and
components of internal control.
Candidates ate enjoined to be meticulous in their studies. This would ensure proper
assimilation of professional knowledge and scholarship.
Marking guide
Marks
(a) Description of internal control 2
(b) Types of internal control
3 correct points @ 2marks each 6
(c) Components of internal control
4 correct points @ 2 marks each 8
(d) Limitations of Internal control
4 correct points @ 1 mark each 4
Total 20
54
SOLUTION 3
b. The auditor reports on whether the financial statements give a true and fair view,
or present fairly, the position of the entity as at the end of the financial period
and of the performance of the entity during the period. The auditor does not
certify or guarantee that the financial statements are correct.
Although the phrase „true and fair view‟ has no legal definition, the term „true‟
implies free from error, and „fair‟ implies that there is no undue bias in the
financial statements or the way in which they have been presented. In preparing
the financial statements, a large amount of judgement is though exercised by the
directors.
Applying the concept of materiality means that the auditor will not aim to
examine every number in the financial statements. He will concentrate his efforts
on the more significant items in the financial statements, either because of their
value, or because there is a greater risk that they could be omitted or stated
incorrectly.
55
d. Reasons to justify the requirements for an auditor to be independent of
the audit client include:
i. To avoid undue influence from management of the entity;
ii. To ensure that the auditor complies with all relevant laws and financial
reporting requirements; and
iii. To ensure that the auditor does not have any financial or other vested
interest in the client‟s organisation.
Examiner’s report
The question tests the candidates‟ knowledge of audit and assurance, and
independence of the auditor on materiality concept.
About 80% of the candidates attempted the question, but performance was just fair.
The common pitfall was the candidates‟ inability to explain the fundamental audit
issues.
Candidates are advised to study very well for the next examination and make use of
the Institute‟s Study Text and other relevant publications.
Marking guide
Marks
(a) Explanation of audit and assurance 3
(b) Explanation of true and fair View 4
(c) Explanation of importance of materiality 4
(d) Justification of auditors independence
(2 marks any two) 4
(e) Concept of materiality
Any 2 correct points @ 2 ½ marks 5
Total 20
56
SOLUTION 4
57
Examiner’s report
The question tests candidates‟ knowledge of Non-Compliance with Laws and
Regulations (NOCLAR).
About 10% of the candidates attempted the question, and performance was fair.
The pitfall of the candidates was lack of proper coverage of the subject syllabus,
especially the current issues in auditing.
Marking guide
Marks
(a) Examples of NOCLAR
1 mark each for 5 correct points 5
SOLUTION 5
58
b) Methods of obtaining audit evidence for substantive testing include:
i. Inspection - Obtaining evidence about an item by sighting it. For
example, an auditor can obtain evidence about the existence of tangible
non-current assets by going to look at them or to confirm existence
physically;
ii. Observation -The auditor can obtain evidence by watching a procedure
and seeing how it is carried out, for instance, physical inventory count
process;
Examiner’s report
The question tests candidates‟ knowledge of challenges in the implementation of
advanced audit software in the audit process and audit evidence.
About 80% of the candidates attempted the question, but performance was only fair.
The common pitfall of the candidates was their inability to explain computer audit
software and associated issues and challenges.
Candidates are advised to be adequately equipped with modern audit techniques and
issues.
59
Marking guide
Marks
(a) Likely challenges Tomiwa Chuks & Co. would face for
implementation of advanced audit software
3 marks each subject to maximum of 3 points 9
(b) Methods of obtaining audit evidence for substantive testing
1 mark each for any correct 6 points 6
Total 15
SOLUTION 6
c) Stewardship
The directors play a stewardship role in the affairs of the company. They look
after the assets of the company and manage them on behalf of the
shareholders. In small companies, the shareholders may be the same people as
the directors. However, in most large companies, the two groups are different.
i. The directors are usually different and distinct from the owners - the
shareholders.
ii. To present a record of the financial affairs to the owners at the end of a
period.
e) Accountability
As agents for the shareholders, the board of directors should be accountable to
the shareholders. For the directors to show their accountability to the
shareholders, it is a general principle of company law that the directors are
required to prepare annual financial statements, which are presented to the
shareholders for their approval.
60
f) Financial Statements
The financial statements refer to the compendium comprising:
i. Statement of financial position;
ii. Statement of profit or loss and other comprehensive income;
iii. Statement of changes in equity;
iv. Statement of cashflows; and
v. Statement of value-added.
Examiner’s report
The question tests the candidates‟ knowledge of the Principal - Agent relationship,
stewardship and accountability as they relate to audit and financial statements.
About 75% of the candidates attempted the question and the performance was fair.
The common pitfall of the candidates was their inability to relate their solutions on
Principal and Agent, Stewardship and Accountability to the scenario as required by
the question.
Candidates are expected to relate their theoretical knowledge to the practical and
relevant requirements of the question.
Marking guide
Marks Marks
(a) Explanation of Principal-agent relationship 2
(b) i. Definition of principal 1
ii. Definition of an Agent 1 2
(c) Explanation of concept of stewardship 2
(d) Reasons for stewardship
Any two correct reasons at 2 marks each 4
(e) Explanation of concept of accountability 2
(f) Description of financial statements
Stating three correct components 3
Total 15
61
SOLUTION 7
ii. Rights and obligations assertion - That the client entity has the legal
right to the amounts receivable;
iv. Cut-off assertion - That transactions have been recorded in the correct
accounting period.
c) The requirements of ISA 505 that the auditor should maintain control
over external confirmation requests include:
i. Deciding on the information to be confirmed or requested;
ii. Selecting the “confirming party” (for example, the financial
director/controller at the entity contacted);
iii. Designing the confirmation requests (including an instruction for
responses to be sent directly to the auditor); and
iv. Sending the requests himself.
62
Examiner’s report
The question tests the candidates‟ knowledge of substantive procedures as they relate
to receivables and ISA 505 - External confirmations.
About 80% of the candidates attempted the question, and performance was fair.
The common pitfall of the candidates was their inability to explain the requirements of
ISA 505.
Candidates are advised to read widely, especially taking note of relevant International
Standards on Auditing (ISAs) in their studies.
Marking guide
Marks
(a) Principal risks of misstatement of trade receivable
1 mark each for any 2 points 2
(b) Purposes of direct confirmation of receivables
1½ mark each for any correct 4 points 6
(c) Requirements of ISA 505 on auditor‟s control over
external confirmation request
1 mark each for any 4 points 4
(d) Steps to take on client‟s management refusal to allow
confirmation request
1 mark each for any 3 points 3
Total 15
63
ICAN/242/Q/B4 Examination No....................
PERFORMANCE MANAGEMENT
EXAMINATION INSTRUCTIONS
1. Check your pockets, purse, mathematical set, etc. to ensure that you do not have
prohibited items such as telephone handset, electronic storage device,
programmable devices, wristwatches or any form of written material on you in the
examination hall. You will be stopped from continuing with the examination and
liable to further disciplinary actions including cancellation of examination result if
caught.
2. Write your EXAMINATION NUMBER in the space provided above.
3. Do NOT write anything on your question paper EXCEPT your examination number.
4. Do NOT write anything on your docket.
5. Read all instructions in each section of the question paper carefully before
answering the questions.
6. Do NOT answer more than the number of questions required in each section,
otherwise, you will be penalised.
7. All solutions should be written in BLUE or BLACK INK. Any solution written in
PENCIL or any other COLOUR OF INK will not be marked.
8. A formula sheet and discount tables are provided with this examination paper.
9. You are required to attempt Question ONE (compulsory), any TWO Questions in
Section B and any Two questions in Section C.
10. Check that you have collected the correct question paper for the examination you
are writing.
PERFORMANCE MANAGEMENT
QUESTION 1
Kayode Limited (KL) manufactures and sells a product (XW) which is widely used in
the construction industry. Although XW (and competitors‟ products) have sold well for
many years, KL believes that products of this type are now reaching the end of their
life cycles because of concerns about their long term environmental impact. KL has
adopted a strategy which is designed to achieve profitability for XW in what the
company believes will be for the short remaining product‟s lifespan as indicated
below:
The only variable cost of manufacturing XW is raw materials. The following table
shows the standard variable cost of manufacturing 95 kilograms of XW:
Last month, KL produced 19,000 kilograms of XW and sold these for ₦368 per kilogram
(₦18 per kilogram higher than the budgeted selling price). The actual sales quantity
represented a 30% market share and was 5% less than the budgeted sales quantity.
When KL was preparing its budget, the budget committee assumed that the company
would have a 25% market share.
The actual costs of the raw materials purchased and used last month were as follows:
Raw material A 9,800 kg @ ₦165 per kg = ₦1,617,000
Raw material B 6,800 kg @ ₦175 per kg = ₦1,190,000
Raw material C 4,400 kg @ ₦295 per kg = ₦1,298,000
Total cost ₦4,105,000
65
Required:
a. Determine KL‟s budgeted and actual contribution for XW for last month. Then,
carry out a variance analysis to reconcile the budgeted and actual contribution in
as much detail as possible from the information provided. (22 Marks)
QUESTION 2
Okekedem Nigeria Limited is considering the use of Activity-Based Costing (ABC)
approach in its overhead recovery. The company manufactures 2 products known as
Alpham and Betam.
Required:
a. i. Use the traditional approach to determine the direct labour hourly rate for the
company. (1 Mark)
ii. Use the direct labour hour rate to compute the overhead rate attributable to a
unit of Alpham and Betam products. (2 Marks)
66
b. i. Determine the cost driver rate using the ABC approach (9 Marks)
ii. Compute the overhead rate per unit of each products using the ABC
approach. (3 Marks)
c. If the unit material and labour costs for the products are as shown below,
determine their unit selling prices where the company adheres to a policy of 20%
profit margin using the two overhead absorption methods.
QUESTION 3
Agege and Sons Bakery Limited uses absorption costing technique in its
accounting system. The company produces and sells three bakery products, namely
Four Corner Loaf (F), Round Corner Loaf (R) and Executive Loaf (E) which are
substitutes for each other. The following standard selling prices and cost data relate to
these three products:
Annual budgeted fixed production overhead was N4,320,000. The company policy is
that overhead will be absorbed on a machine hour basis. The standard machine hour
for each product and the monthly budgeted level of production and sales for each
product are as follows:
Product F R E
Standard machine hour per unit 0.3 hr 0.6 hr 0. 8 hr
Monthly budgeted production and sales (units) 10,000 13,000 9,000
Actual volumes and selling prices for the three products in a particular month
are as follows:
Product F R E
Actual selling price per unit (N) 220 260 320
Actual production and sales (unit) 9,500 13,500 8,500
67
You are required to:
a. Calculate the following variances for the particular month:
i. Sales price variance (2 Marks)
ii. Sales volume variance (2 Marks)
iii. Sales mix variance; and (3 Marks)
iv. Sales quantity variance. (3 Marks)
b. Determine the monthly budgeted profit for the company. (6 Marks)
c. Discuss the significance of sales mix variances in a variance accounting system.
(4 Marks)
(Total 20 Marks)
QUESTION 4
Paint Masters Limited is a fast growing paint manufacturing company established six
years ago. The company sells its products directly to retailers, wholesalers and also
accepts special orders directly from customers.
On May 1, 2021 a special order for a gallery painting was received from the Arts
Gallery, a non-profit making government department. The work, if the order is
accepted, would be carried out in addition to the normal work of the company. As a
result of existing commitments, some weekend and overtime working would be
required to complete the painting of the gallery.
A part-time accounting trainee has produced the following cost estimates based on the
resources required for the contract:
N
Direct materials - Paint Deluxe (book value) 50,000
- Paint Unique (purchase price) 40,000
Direct labour - Skilled 300 hours @ N150.00 45,000
- Unskilled 150 hours @ N100.00 15,000
Variable overhead 350 hours @ N110.00 38,500
Painting equipment depreciation 300 hours @ N200.00 60,000
Fixed production costs 250 hours @ N150.00 37,500
Estimating Department costs 2,500
Public Relation (PR) costs 10,000
298,500
The management of Paint Masters Limited is of the view that securing this contract
will lead to considerable publicity for the company and is geared to presenting a
competitive tender to win the order.
68
The following notes are relevant to the cost estimate above:
(a) Material Paint Deluxe to be used is currently in stock at a value of N50,000. It is
of an unusual colour which has not been used for some time. The replacement
price of the paint is N90,000, while the scrap value of the one in stock is
N30,000. The project manager does not foresee any alternative use for the paint
if it is not used for the gallery painting.
(b) Paint Unique required for the contract is not held in stock. It would have to be
bought in bulk at a cost of N80,000. 70% of the paint purchased would be used
for the contract and no other use is foreseen for the remaining portion of the
purchase.
(c) Skilled direct labour is in short supply and to accommodate the gallery painting
contract, 50% of the time required would be worked at weekends for which a
premium of 30% above the normal hourly rate is paid. The normal hourly rate is
N150.00 per hour.
(d) Unskilled labour is presently under-utilised, at present 300 hours per week are
recorded as idle time. If the painting work is carried out at a weekend, 30
unskilled hours would have to occur at this time, but the employees concerned
would be given two hours‟ time off (for which they would be paid) in lieu of
each hour worked.
(e) Variable overhead represents the cost of operating the gallery painting contract.
(f) When not being used by the company, the painting equipment is rented out to
outside clients for N5,000.00 per hour. This earns a contribution of N4,000.00.
There is unlimited demand for this facility.
(g) Fixed production costs would be incurred irrespective of the gallery contract.
(h) The cost of the estimating department represents time spent in discussions with
the Arts Gallery Committee for the painting contract.
(i) The Public Relation costs relate to miscellaneous expenses allowable for the
contract.
Required:
a. Prepare a revised cost estimate using relevant cost approach, showing clearly,
the minimum price that the company should accept for the contract. Give
reasons for each resource valuation in your cost estimate. (15 Marks)
69
SECTION C: YOU ARE REQUIRED TO ATTEMPT TWO OUT OF THE THREE
QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION (30 MARKS)
QUESTION 5
The most recent published results for Tinko Plc. (TP) are shown below:
Published
(Nm)
Profit before tax for year ending 31 December 13.6
Summary of consolidated statement of financial position at 31 December:
Non-current assets 35.9
Current assets 137.2
Less: Current liabilities (95.7)
Net current assets 41.5
Total assets less current liabilities 77.4
Borrowings (15.0)
Deferred tax provisions (7.6)
Net assets 54.8
Capital and reserves 54.8
An analyst working for a stockbroker has taken these published results, made the
adjustments shown below, and has reported his conclusion that „the management of
TP is destroying value‟.
70
Analyst‟s adjustments to summary of consolidated statement of financial position at 31
December
(Nm)
Capital and reserves 54.8
Adjustments
Add: Borrowings 15.0
Deferred tax provisions 7.6
R&D 17.4 Last 7 year‟s expenditure
Advertising 10.5 Last 7 year‟s expenditure
Goodwill 40.7 Written off against reserves on acquisitions in
previous years
Adjusted capital employed 146.0
Required return 17.5 12% cost of capital
Adjusted profit 16.1
Value destroyed 1.4
The Chairman of TP has obtained a copy of the analyst‟s report.
Required:
a. As the finance controller of TP, explain the principles of the approach taken by the
analyst. (5 Marks)
b. Comment on the treatment of the specific adjustments to R&D, Advertising,
Interest and Borrowings and Goodwill. (10 Marks)
(Total 15 Marks)
QUESION 6
Oforogere Nigeria Limited is a company located in Onitsha which manufactures motor
cycles. The company has two divisions: The engine division and the assembly division.
The engine division manufactures and sells a standard engine as used by the Motor
cycle. The engine division supplies the manufactured engines to both the assembly
division and external customers. The following information is available for the period
in respect of the engine division:
The Assembly division of the company can use the engine in the manufacture of motor
cycle. The Assembly division currently purchases 10 motor cycle engines at a cost of
N58,000 per engine.
71
Required:
a. i. If the engine division is selling all that it can manufacture to outside
customers in the intermediate market and N6,000 variable costs per engine
can be avoided on transfers within the company, due to reduced selling costs,
what is the acceptable range, if any, for the transfer price between the two
divisions? (2 Marks)
ii. If the engine division has ample idle capacity to handle all assembly divisions
needs, what is the acceptable range , if any , for the transfer prices between
the two divisions? (3 Marks)
iii. If the engine division is selling all that it can produce to outside customers in
the intermediate market, what is the acceptable range, if any, for the transfer
price between the two divisions? (4 Marks)
QUESTION 7
PT manufactures and sells a number of products. All of its products have a life cycle of
six months or less. PT uses a four stage life cycle model (introduction; Growth;
Maturity; and Decline) and measures the profits from its products at each stage of
their life cycle.
PT has recently developed an innovative product. Since the product is unique, it was
decided that it would be launched with a market skimming pricing policy. However,
PT expects that other companies will try to enter the market very soon.
This product is generating significant unit profits during the introduction stage of its
life cycle. However there are concerns that the unit profits will reduce during the other
stages of the product‟s life cycle.
Required:
Explain the likely changes that will occur in the unit selling prices and in the unit
production costs, compared to the proceeding stage for each of the following:
i. Growth (9 Marks)
ii. Maturity stages of the new products‟ life cycle (6 Marks)
(Total 15 Marks)
72
Formulae
Learning curve
Y = axb
Where Y = cumulative average time per unit to produce x units
a = the time taken for the first unit of output
x = the cumulative number of units produced
b = the index of learning (log LR/log2)
LR = the learning rate as a decimal
Demand curve
P = a – bQ
change in price
b
change in quantity
a = price when Q = 0
MR = a – 2bQ
Y = 𝑎 + 𝑏𝑋
𝑛 𝑋𝑌 − ( 𝑋)( 𝑌)
where b = 2
𝑛 𝑋 − 𝑋 2
𝑦 𝑏 𝑥
a = −
𝑛 𝑛
73
The Miller-Orr Model
1
3 3
x Transaction Cost x Variance of Cash flows
4
𝑆𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑑 = 3 x
Interest rate as a proportion
Annuity Table
n = number of periods
1 0·990 0·980 0·971 0·962 0·952 0·943 0·935 0·926 0·917 0·909 1
2 1·970 1·942 1·913 1·886 1·859 1·833 1·808 1·783 1·759 1·736 2
3 2·941 2·884 2·829 2·775 2·723 2·673 2·624 2·577 2·531 2.487 3
4 3·902 3·808 3.717 3·630 3.546 3.465 3·387 3·312 3·240 3·170 4
5 4·853 4·713 4·580 4·452 4·329 4·212 4·100 3·993 3.890 3·791 5
6 5·795 5·601 5·417 5·242 5·076 4·917 4·767 4·623 4.486 4·355 6
7 6·728 6.472 6·230 6·002 5·786 5·582 5·389 5·206 5·033 4·868 7
8 7·652 7·325 7·020 6·733 6·463 6·210 5·971 5·747 5·535 5·335 8
9 8·566 8·162 7·786 7.435 7·108 6·802 6·515 6·247 5·995 5·759 9
10 9·471 8·983 8·530 8·111 7·722 7·360 7·024 6·710 6.418 6·145 10
11 10·368 9·787 9·253 8·760 8·306 7·887 7.499 7·139 6·805 6.495 11
12 11·255 10·575 9·954 9·385 8·863 8·384 7·943 7·536 7'161 6·814 12
13 12·134 11·348 10·635 9·986 9·394 8·853 8·358 7·904 7·487 7·103 13
14 13·004 12·106 11·296 10·563 9·899 9·295 8·745 8·244 7·786 7·367 14
15 13·865 12·849 11·938 11·118 10·380 9·712 9·108 8·559 8·061 7·606 15
(n) 11% 12% 13% 14% 15% 16% 17% 18% 19% 20%
1 0·901 0·893 0·885 0·877 0·870 0·862 0·855 0·847 0·840 0·833 1
2 1·713 1·690 1·668 1·647 1·626 1·605 1·585 1·566 1·547 1·528 2
3 2.444 2.402 2·361 2·322 2·283 2·246 2·210 2·174 2·140 2·106 3
4 3·102 3·037 2·974 2·914 2·855 2·798 2·743 2.690 2·639 2.589 4
5 3·696 3·605 3·517 3·433 3·352 3·274 3·199 3·127 3·058 2·991 5
6 4·231 4·111 3·998 3·889 3·784 3·685 3·589 3.498 3.410 3·326 6
7 4·712 4·564 4.423 4·288 4·160 4·039 3·922 3·812 3·706 3·605 7
8 5·146 4·968 4.799 4·639 4.487 4·344 4·207 4·078 3·954 3·837 8
9 5·537 5·328 5·132 4·946 4·772 4·607 4.451 4·303 4·163 4·031 9
10 5·889 5·650 5.426 5·216 5·019 4·833 4·659 4.494 4·339 4·192 10
11 6·207 5·938 5·687 5.453 5·234 5·029 4·836 4·656 4.486 4·327 11
12 6·492 6·194 5·918 5·660 5·421 5·197 4·988 4·793 4·611 4.439 12
13 6·750 6.424 6·122 5·842 5·583 5·342 5·118 4·910 4·715 4·533 13
14 6·982 6·628 6·302 6·002 5·724 5.468 5·229 5·008 4·802 4·611 14
15 7·191 6·811 6.462 6·142 5·847 5·575 5·324 5·092 4·876 4·675 15
74
75
SECTION A
SOLUTION 1
a) Kayode Limited
Budgeted contribution last month
Budgeted Selling price/kg = ₦368 - ₦18 = ₦350
Budgeted VC/kg = ₦19,000/95kg = ₦200
Budgeted contribution/kg ₦150
Budgeted sales quantity = 19,000kg/0.95* = 20,000kg
Total budgeted contribution = 20,000 kg × ₦150 = ₦3,000,000
(* Actual sales were 95% of budget)
Actual Price – Budgeted Price x Actual Qty = (₦368 – 350)(19,000) = ₦342,000 (F)
19,000 20,000
(25%) X (₦150) = 625,000 (A)
30% 25%
77
Reconciliation of contribution
₦‟000 ₦‟000
Budgeted Contribution 3,000
Material Price Variance 81(A)
Material Mix Variance 34(A)
Material Yield Variance 190(A)
Material Usage Variance 224 (A)
Sales Price Variance 342 (F)
Market Size Variance 625 (A)
Market Share Variance 475 (F)
Sales Volume Variance 150 (A)
Actual Contribution 2,887
b) The strategy seems to have centred around trying to achieve an increased share
of a declining market. The evidence for this is that market share increased
significantly (from budgeted 25% to actual 30%). This helped somewhat to offset
the fact that the total market shrank very significantly in by 20.83% (from 80,000
units budgeted to 63,333 units actual).
How was this achieved? It seems likely that the quality of the product was
deliberately improved. All of the variances in relation to raw materials are
unfavourable. KL may have purchased more expensive versions of the raw
materials (MPV ₦81,000 (A)), combined them in ways which made use of the
more expensive types B and C (MMV ₦34,000 (A)), and been more stringent in the
removal of wastage in production (MYV ₦190,000 (A)).
Was this financially successful? In short, yes. The combined cost of the 3 raw
materials referred to above is ₦305,000. But the benefits (in terms of an
increased market share and a higher selling price) were ₦342,000 (F) +
₦475,000 (F) = ₦817,000 (F).
So it could be said that there was a net gain from the strategy of (₦817,000 –
₦305,000 = ₦512,000).
Why then was the actual total contribution for the month below budget? Only
because of the market size variance (₦625,000 (A)) which was uncontrollable by
the company. If the company had not adopted the strategy that it did, then the
decrease in contribution experienced would have been far worse than it actually
was.
78
Examiner’s report
This is a compulsory question that tests candidates‟ knowledge of how to handle
advanced variance analysis and reconciliation of budgeted contribution with actual
contribution. The question also tests with the analysis of Product life cycle as it relates
to variance accounting.
Being a compulsory question, it was attempted by most candidates. The candidates
recorded average performance.
The pitfall is that most candidates failed to compute material mix and material yield
variances. Candidates are encouraged to study the Institute‟s Study Text when
preparing for future examination.
Marking guide
Marks Marks Marks
1a. Budgeted Contribution
Actual Contribution
Reconciliation of Budgeted and Actual
Contribution 22
b. Evaluation of the Product life cycle in variance
analysis. 8 30
SECTION B
SOLUTION 2
79
b.i. Computation of cost driver absorption rate
S/n Activity Cost Cost Total Cost driver
Allocated (N) Driver Activity(N) rate (N)
1. Set up cost 2,928,000 No. of set up 72,120 40.599
2. Special handling 2,400,000 No. of special 6,000,000 0.40
cost parts
3. Customer 1,160,000 No. of invoices 2900 400
invoicing costs
4. Material handling 2,520,000 No. of batches 2412 1044.77
cost
5. Other overheads 4,300,000 Labour hours 5,400,000 0.80
6. 13,328,000
Examiner’s report
This question tests candidates understanding of using ABC approach for overhead
estimation. The candidates recorded an average performance.
The pitfall noticed was the candidates‟ failure to determine the cost driver rate of the
activities.
Candidates are advised to study the Institute‟s Study Text when preparing for future
examination.
Marking guide
Marks Marks Marks
2a.i. Direct Labour hourly rate 1
ii. Unit overhead rate 2 3
bi. Cost driver rate 9
ii. Unit overhead rate using ABC approach 3 12
c. Computation of unit selling price 5 20
81
SOLUTION 3
a. Calculate the Sales Price, Sales volume Profit, Sales mix profit and Sales quantity
profit variances
(i) Sales price variance = AS - SS = AQS (ASP - SSP)
For F = (220 - 200 ) 9,500 = N190,000 (F)
For R = (260 - 250 ) 13,500 = N135,000 (F)
For E = (320 - 300) 8,500 = N170,000 (F)
Total sales price variance = N495,000 (F)
(ii) Sales volume variance:
= (AQS in Standard Proportion - BQ) SSP
F = (9,843.75 - 10,000) 200 = 31,250A
R = (12,796.875 – 13,000) 250 = N50,781.25 (A)
E = (8,859.375 - 9,000) 300 = N42,187.50 (A)
Total N124,218.75 (A)
82
b. Monthly Budgeted Profit
Budgeted Sales
N
F= 10,000 x 200 = 2,000,000
R= 13,000 x 250 = 3,250,000
E= 9,000 x 300 = 2,700,000
7,950,000
Budgeted/Standard Costs
Variable Material Unit Cost Volt Total variable cost
Cost Labour N
F 75 12 6= 93 x 10,000 = 930,000
R 90 15 7.5 = 112.5 x 13,000 = 1,462,500
E 114 18 9= 141 x 9,000 = 1,269,200 3,661,500
4,288,500
Fixed Cost (4320000/12) 360,000
Budgeted Profit 3,928,500
Examiner’s report
The question tests candidates‟ understanding of advanced variance analysis - Sales
Price variance, Sales mix variances, Sales volume variances and sales quantity prices.
It also tests candidates‟ ability to determine budgeted contribution as well as the
explanation of the implication of sales mix in variance accounting.
The attempt on this question by candidates was very moderate. The candidates
recorded average performance.
The Pitfalls noticed were: The candidates‟ inability to compute the standard mix
/proportions on actual sales; and Deduction of annual fixed overhead when what was
required is monthly fixed overhead.
Candidates are advised to use the Institute‟s Study Text intensively when preparing for
future examination.
83
Marking guide
Marks Marks Marks
3a.i. Sales price variance 2
ii. Sales volume variance 2
iii. Sales mix variance 3
iv. Sales quantity variance 3 10
b. Determination of monthly budgeted profit 6
c. Significance of sales mix variances in variance 4 20
SOLUTION 4
84
4 Direct labour - unskilled
The weekend work results in 75 hours‟ time off in lieu, this with the 120
(150 – 30) other hours worked totals 125 hours which is less than the 300
hours of idle time which are already being paid for, thus there is no
incremental cost.
5. Variable overhead
This is a future cost which will be incurred if the work is undertaken and
therefore is relevant.
6. Painting Equipment
The depreciation is a sunk cost and should be ignored. However, the use of
the painting machine has an opportunity cost. If this work is undertaken,
the machine is not available for hire. The opportunity cost is the
contribution which would be earned from hiring:
(300 hours x N1,000) = N300,000
7. Fixed production cost: As these costs are unaffected by the decision, they
should be ignored.
(b) Other non-monetary factors that should be taken into consideration are:
Is there sufficient capacity to undertake the project?
Is the customer credit worthy?
Has the company the necessary skills and quality to execute the contract?
Is the contract likely to lead to future contracts?
Is these other lucrative contract for the company in future?
Will project publicity translate to positive contribution to the company?
Does the company have required expertise?
Examiner’s report
This is a popular question which tests computation of revised cost estimate using
relevant costing approach. The attempt by candidates was more than average.
Performance on this questing remains average.
The pitfall noticed was the inability of candidates to decipher relevant cost items that
should be computed and added to the cost estimate.
Candidates are advised to study the Institute‟s Study Text when preparing for future
examination.
85
Marking guide
Marks Marks Marks
4 a. Preparation of revised cost estimate 15
b. Identify 4 non-monetary factors in accepting
the Art Gallery contract 5 20
SOLUTION 5
(a) The analyst has adopted the principles of economic value added (EVA). EVA is an
estimate of a firm‟s economic profit, or the value created in excess of the required
return of the company. The idea is that value is created when the return on the
firm‟s economic capital employed exceeds the cost of that capital. This amount
can be determined by making adjustments to GAAP accounting as presented by
the analyst. Adjustments are made to the reported financial accounting profit
and also to the statement of financial position, as follows:
i) Some of the revenue expenditure, such as research and development and
advertising, provide future benefits over several years but financial
accounting requirements often require such expenditure to be written off in
the year in which they are incurred. This understates the value added
during a particular period;
ii) The profits computed to meet financial accounting requirements do not take
into account the cost of equity finance provided by the shareholders. The
only cost of capital that is taken into account is interest on borrowed funds
(i.e. the cost of debt finance). Profits should reflect the cost of both debt and
equity finance; and
iii) A better measure of the managers‟ ability to create value is to adjust the
traditional financial statements for those expenses that are likely to provide
benefits in future periods. The economic value added measure attempts to
meet this requirement.
86
Advertising
Advertising expenditure adds value by supporting future sales arising from
increasing customer awareness and brand loyalty. Based on the same
justification as research and development expenditure, advertising should be
capitalised for the EVA calculation and added back to profits. The ₦10.5m added
back in the statement of financial position reflects the costs incurred in building
up future income. Some of this cost should be depreciated based on the value of
future benefits eroded during the period.
Goodwill
Goodwill refers to price paid for the business in excess of the current cost of net
assets. Goodwill payments should therefore add value to the company. Hence the
amount written off is added back to profits since it represents part of the
intangible assets value of the business. The cumulative write off of ₦40.7m is
added back in order to provide a more realistic value of the capital base from
which a return should be generated. This is because it represents an element of
the value of the business. The value of goodwill should be regularly reviewed
and the amount eroded written off against profits.
Examiner’s report
The question tests candidates‟ understanding of economic value added (EVA)
principle.
The question was averagely attempted by candidates as it was not a popular question.
The candidates recorded low performance.
The pitfall noticed was candidates‟ lack of understanding of the principles of EVA
approach to performance measurement.
Candidates are advised to study the Institute‟s Study Text when preparing for future
examination.
87
Marking guide
Marks Marks Marks
5 a. Explanation of the Economic value Added
principle (EVA) 5
b. Comment on the treatment of specific
adjustments like R&D, Advertising, Interest,
Borrowings and Goodwill 10 15
SOLUTION 6
a.i. The lowest acceptable price from selling Division, The transfer price will be
Transfer price = Variable cost -Avoidable costs +selling Price Less Variable costs
ii. Since the Engine division has idle capacity, it does not have to give up any
capacity to external customer.
Thus from the view point of the selling Division (Engine Division)
The transfer price = Variable cost Plus unit contribution on lost sales.
Transfer Price = N32,000 + (N58,000 - N58,000/ 10) = N32,000 - 0 =
N32,000.
Since the Assembly division is unwilling to pay more than N58,000 that is, the
price it is currently paying the outside supplier for the engines, thus the transfer
price it is willing to pay as a buying division will be within range.
Hence the transfer price is N32,000 and N58,000.
iii. The engine division sells all it can produce in the market, it can give some of the
engines to assembly division to enable it do its own business. Thus the engines
division has opportunity costs for loss of sales or transfers to Assembly Divisions
therefore the transfer price.
Since the Assembly division can purchase from outside supplier at N58,000, it
will be not advantageous for the buying divisions, to buy from Engine
Divisions at N60,000 per unit.
88
b. Meaning of Environmental management Accounting and reasons why it is
reported upon:
Examiner’s report
This question tests candidates‟ knowledge of transfer pricing approach in Performance
Management.
Many candidates attempted the question but failed to understand the requirements of
the question. Therefore, the candidates recorded average performance.
The major pitfall noticed was the inability of candidates to understand the mechanism
for computing transfer prices under the following situations: Where the manufacturing
company can sell all that it manufactured to outside customers; Transfer at a lower
variable cost to a division within the company where there are ample idle capacity;
and where it can sell all it can produce to outside customers.
Candidates are advised to pay special attention to the requirements of questions
before answering them. They should also use the Institute‟s Study Text when preparing
for future examination.
89
Marking guide
Marks Marks Marks
6a.i. Transfer Price when selling division can sell all
product to external buyer and can transfer to
internal users at a reduced variable cost. 2
ii. Transfer Price where there is idle capacity. 3
iii. Transfer price where the selling division can sell
all to outside customers. 4 9
b. Explanation of environmental management
accounting and reason for the importance of the
report on environmental activities. 6 15
SOLUTION 7
(i) Growth Stage
Compared to the introduction stage likely changes are as follows:
Direct materials are being bought in larger quantities and therefore PT may
be able to negotiate better prices from its suppliers thus causing unit
material costs to reduce;
Direct labour costs may be reducing if the product is labour intensive due to
the effects of the learning and experience curves; and
Fixed production costs are being shared by a greater number of units.
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(ii) Maturity Stage
Compared to the growth stage the likely changes are as follows:
Direct labour costs are unlikely to be reducing any longer as the effect of the
learning and experience curves has ended. Indeed the workers may have started
working on the next product so that their attention towards this product has
diminished with the result that direct labour costs may increase.
Overhead costs are likely to be similar to those of the end of the growth stage as
optimum batch sizes have been established and are more likely to be used in this
maturity stage of the product life cycle where demand is more easily predicted.
Examiner’s report
The question tests candidates‟ understanding of likely changes that will occur in unit
selling price and unit cost of production in product life cycle situation especially
during growth and maturity stages.
Many candidates attempted the question, but performance was poor.
The pitfalls noticed were: Candidates‟ failure to read the questions to decipher the
requirements; and Candidates‟ failure to limit their discussion to the growth and
maturity stages made them miss the points.
Candidates are advised to pay special attention to the requirements of questions
before attempting them. They should also use the Institute‟s Study Text when
preparing for future examination.
Marking guide
Marks Marks Marks
7.i. Explain the changes in unit selling prices and
unit production costs on growth stage of a
product life cycle. 9
ii. Explain the changes in unit selling prices and
unit production costs on maturity stage of a
product life cycle. 6 15
91
ICAN/242/Q/B5 Examination No....................
THE INSTITUTE OF CHARTERED ACCOUNTANTS OF NIGERIA
3. Do NOT write anything on your question paper EXCEPT your Examination number.
5. Read all instructions in each section of the question paper carefully before answering
the questions.
6. Do NOT answer more than the number of questions required in each section, otherwise,
you will be penalised.
7. All solutions should be written in BLUE or BLACK INK. Any solution written in PENCIL
or any other COLOUR OF INK will not be marked.
8. You are required to attempt Question ONE (Compulsory), TWO Questions in Section
B and TWO Questions in Section C.
9. Check that you have collected the correct question paper for the examination you are
writing.
QUESTION 1
a. Following the directive of the Minister of Health to the Medical Research Council
(MRC) to relocate its storage facility to the Federal Capital Territory, the Director
signed an agreement with Kaftan Nigeria Limited to lease its medical cooling
system for a 6-year term beginning from January 1, 2020 at the rate of
N4.85million per annum payable at the end of each year. The terms of the
agreement showed that the medical cooling system has an estimated economic
life of 6 years and the facility would have no scrap value by the end of year 4.
The following additional information was made available by the director of
accounts:
The lessor entity sets the annual rental to ensure a rate of return on its
investment at 12%.
The fair value of the medical cooling system is N22million.
It is the practice of the entity to use straight line depreciation for assets of
similar type.
The medical cooling system reverts to the lessor and there is no option of
renewal.
Required:
i. Prepare the journal entries in the books of the lessor and the lessee at the
inception of the lease. (5 Marks)
ii. Justify the choice of the lease based on IPSAS-13-Leases. (2 Marks)
Required:
Prepare the journal entries in the books of the corporation in accordance with
IPSAS 16 - Investment Properties. (4½ Marks)
i. During the year ended December 31, 2020, office equipment worth
N72,050,000 was acquired from Woodmate Nigeria Limited and the
company charged additional N823,680 to cover the installation cost. An
agreement was reached to pay 75% of the cost of the equipment during
the year while the balance was paid later in January 2021.
iii. During the year, a forensic laboratory worth N1.3billion was donated by
a recognised professional accounting body to the University as part of
their support towards the commencement of the degree programme.
The intervention was to assist in securing a full accreditation from the
Nigeria Universities Commission.
94
iv. During the year ended December 31, 2020, the storage section of the
chemistry laboratory owned by the university was gutted by fire. Though
the carrying amount of the building as at the date of the fire incidence
was put at N423,050,000, the fair value of the building after the fire
incidence was estimated by a valuer to be N218,600,000.
vi. On January 1, 2020, three (3) project vehicles were acquired for
monitoring the Students‟ Industrial Work Experience Scheme (SIWES)
programme at N8,250,000 each. The estimated useful life and the
residual value at year 4 for each vehicle is N0.7million. The university
decided to dispose the vehicles for N6million at the end of the second
year. The accounting policy of the university is to depreciate PPE on
straight-line basis.
Required:
Journalise the above entries in the books of the State University in
accordance with IPSAS 17 - Property, Plant and Equipment. (8½ Marks)
QUESTION 2
a. Identify the responsibilities of a Micro Pension Contributor who seeks to operate
a Retirement Savings Account (RSA). (5 Marks)
b. Enumerate FOUR criteria for eligibility for participation in a Micro Pension Plan
and identify FOUR documents necessary during registration for a Micro Pension
Plan. (4 Marks)
c. Highlight SIX provisions of the Pensions Reform Act 2014 (as amended) on the
administration of contingent withdrawal in a Micro Pension Plan. (6 Marks)
95
d. Explain the conditions to be met for an individual to convert from Micro Pension
Plan to a mandatory contribution plan. (5 Marks)
(Total 20 Marks)
QUESTION 3
Pension Reform Act 2014 (as amended) established uniform set of rules, regulations
and standards for the administration of pension scheme in Nigeria.
QUESTION 4
a. Enumerate FIVE benefits of each of the following components of the Treasury
Single Account (TSA)
E-payment (5 Marks)
E-collection (5 Marks)
Public debt and taxation are the methods used by governments to finance the
economic activities of the country. It has also been argued in some quarters that tax
financing is preferable to debt financing.
96
Required:
a. Explain the concept of public debt, “distinguishing between bilateral and
multilateral debts”. State ONE example each. (6 Marks)
b. Explain TWO conditions under which debt finance would be preferable
(3 Marks)
c. Identify and explain FOUR reasons to justify the need for public debts
(6 Marks)
(Total 15 Marks)
QUESTION 6
The government, as an instrument of social controls, wholly or partly owns public
enterprises.
Required:
Discuss FIVE factors to justify the need for public enterprises.
(Total 15 Marks)
QUESTION 7
b. Enumerate the steps that the Federal Government or its agencies must take
before seeking the approval of the National Assembly on their request for
external borrowing. (4 Marks)
c. Identify the requirements for raising funds from the domestic capital market by
State Government. (6 Marks)
(Total 15 Marks)
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SECTION A
SOLUTION 1
a.
i Medical Research Council (MRC)
Journal entries
Recognising the lease at inception
S/N Details Dr Cr Narration
Lessee: ₦ ₦
i. Lease PPE (Generator) 19,938,350 To recognise lease
Provision for interest 9,161,650 assets and associated
Lease liability 29,100,000 liability
Lessor
i. Account receivable 19,938,350 To recognise asset
Lease asset (Generator) 19,938,350 leased to the lessee
at inception
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bi. Non-investment properties
Property held for sale in the ordinary courses of operations or in
the process of construction or development for such sale.
Property being constructed or developed on behalf of third parties
e.g., where a service department of a ministry enters into
construction contracts with entities external to its government.
Owner-occupied property including property held for future use as
owner-occupied property held for future development as
subsequent use as owner-occupied property. Property occupied by
employees such as housing for military or police personnel.
Property that is being constructed or developed for future use as
investment property. Until construction or development is
complete, at which time the property become investment property;
such property does not meet investment property status.
Property held to provide a social service and which also generates
cash flows; and
Property held for strategic purpose, which could be accounted for
in accordance with IPSAS 17 (Property, Plant and Equipment).
99
Swapping of 2-storey building
Details Dr Cr Narration
N’000 N’000
Investment property 23,000 To recognise the investment
Bank 23,000 property in the books
100
v. PPE 1,500,000 Acquisition of PPE
Bank 1,500,000
Examiner’s report
The question is in four parts. Part (a) of the question tests candidates‟ knowledge on
the preparation of journal entries in the book of the lessor and lessee at the inception
of the lease in accordance to IPSAS 13 - Leases. Part (b) requires the candidates to
identify the features of non-investment properties and prepare journal entries in
accordance to IPSAS 16 -Investment Properties. Part (c) requires the candidates to
prepare journal entries on some transactions as related to property, plants and
equipment in accordance to IPSAS 17 - Property, Plants and Equipment, while part (d)
requires to enumerate measures by which asset impairment can be determined in
accordance with IPSAS 21 - Impairment of Non - Cash Generating Units.
All the candidates attempted the question and their performance was below average
The common pitfalls were the inability of the candidates to understand the provisions
of IPSAS 13 - Leases; IPSAS 16 - Investment Properties; IPSAS 17 - Property, Plants and
Equipment; and IPSAS 21 - Impairment of Non - Cash Generating Units.
Candidates are advised to have adequate knowledge of the relevant provisions of the
syllabus and to make use of the Institute‟s Pathfinder and the Study Text for better
performance in the Institute‟s future examinations.
Marking guide
Marks Marks
ai. Journal entries
Correct journal entries - Lessee 3¼
Correct journal entries – Lessor 1¾
ii. Type of lease and justification
Type of lease at 1 mark 1
Any two (2) justifications at ½ mark each 1 7
102
c. Journal entries for state-owned university
Correct journal entries 8½
SECTION B
SOLUTION 2
103
ii. The following documents shall be provided at the point of
registration:
Evidence of membership of a registered association, union or
cooperative society
Certificate of business registration
Certificate of incorporation
Letter of employment
Bank Verification Number (BVN)
Other documentation as may be specified by the PFA
104
iv. Conversion from micro pension plan to mandatory contribution
plan
The micro pension contributor shall be eligible to participate under
Section 2(1) of the Pension Reform Act, 2014 where the secures
employment in the formal sector with an organisation that has three
(3) or more employees.
The micro pension contributor shall formally request for conversion,
attaching all necessary documents specified in the guidelines for the
registration of contributors/members issued by the commission.
The micro pension contributor shall retain the existing RSA.
Micro pension contributor may withdraw the total balance of the
contingent portion of the RSA prior to conversion.
Where the micro pension contributor chooses not to withdraw the
contingent portion, the balance of the contingent portion shall be
merged with the retirement benefits portion of the RSA prior to
conversion.
At conversion, the PFA shall move the micro pension contributor‟s
RSA balance to the appropriate fund under the multi-fund structure.
Where an eligible contributor fails or refuses to request for
conversion to the mandatory contribution after one (1) month of
receiving remittance from the new employer, the PFA shall
automatically change the status of the contributor upon receiving
the second remittance.
The PFA shall notify the employer of the status of the RSA of the
contributor.
The PFA shall forward monthly returns on conversion to the
Commission.
Examiner’s report
The question is in four parts. Part (a) of the question requires the candidates to explain
the responsibilities of a micro pension contributor, while part (b) requires the
candidates to enumerate criterial for eligibility to participate and document necessary
requirements and registration for micro pension plan. Also, part (c) of the question
requires the candidates to highlight the provisions of Pension Reform Act 2014 (as
amended) on the administration of contingent withdrawals in a micro pension plan
and part (d) requires the candidates to explain the conditions to be met for an
individual to convert from micro pension plan to a mandatory contribution plan.
105
Few candidates attempted the question and their performance was below average.
The commonest pitfall was the inability of the candidates to properly identify and
explain the provisions of Pension Reform Act 2014 (as amended) as it affects micro
pension plan.
Candidates are advised to make use of ICAN Pathfinders and the Study Text for better
performance in the Institute‟s future examinations.
Marking guide
Marks Marks
a Responsibilities of a micro pension contributor
Identification of any five responsibilities 5
SOLUTION 3
a. Processes of remitting contributions into Retirement Savings Account by
contributors as in the PRA (2014):
i. Every employee to whom this Act applies shall maintain an account, (in
this Act referred to as “Retirement Savings Account”) in his name with
any Pension Fund Administrator of his choice.
ii. The employee shall notify his employer of the Pension Fund
Administrator chosen and the identity of the retirement savings account
opened under (i) above.
iii. The employer shall:
Deduct at source the monthly contribution of the employee; and
Not later than 7 working days from the day the employee is paid
his salary, remit an amount comprising the employee‟s
contribution under paragraph of this subsection and the
106
employer‟s contribution to the Pension Fund Custodian specified
by the Pension Fund Administrator of the employee.
iv. Upon receipt of the contributions remitted under (iii) above, the Pension
Fund Custodian shall notify the Pension Fund Administrator who shall
cause to be credited the retirement savings account of the employee for
whom the employer had made the payment;
v. Where an employee fails to open such Retirement Savings Account within
a period of six months after assumption of duty, his employer shall,
subject to guidelines issued by the Commission, request a Pension Fund
Administrator to open a nominal retirement savings account for such
employee for the remittance of his pension contributions;
vi. An employer who fails to deduct or remit the contributions within the
time stipulated in (iii) above shall, in addition to making the remittance
already due, be liable to a penalty to be stipulated by the Commission;
vii. The penalty referred to in (vi) above shall not be less than 2 percent of
the total contribution that remains unpaid for each month or part of each
month the default continues and the amount of the penalty shall be
recoverable as a debt owed to the employee‟s retirement savings
account, as the case may be;
viii. An employee shall not have access to his retirement savings account or
have any dealing with the Pension Fund Custodian with respect to the
retirement savings account except through the Pension Fund
Administrator; and
ix. The Commission shall determine the cost of recovery of un-remitted
contributions and the sources to defray the cost, which may include the
amount recovered as penalty pursuant to (vi) above.
107
iv. Where an officer exempted under (ii) above dies in service or in the
course of duty, the Federal Government Pension Transitional
Arrangements Directorate (PTAD) and the Federal Capital Territory
Pension Transitional Arrangements Directorate shall cause to be paid, en-
bloc to his next- of- kin or designated survivors, a gratuity and pension to
which the officer would have been entitled at the date of his death
calculated on the basis of applicable computations under the existing
Pay-As-You-Go Pension scheme of the public service of the Federation
and Federal Capital Territory.
ii. Where an employee retires before the age of 50 years, the employee may
request for withdrawal of lump sum of money of not more than 25% per
cent of the amount standing to the credit of the retirement savings
account, provided that such withdrawals shall only be made after six
months of such retirement and the retired employee does not secure
another employment.
108
iii. Where an employee has accessed the amount standing in his retirement
savings account pursuant to (ii) above, such employee shall subsequently
access the balance in the retirement savings account in accordance with
(i) above.
iv. If an officer retires and is less than 50 years, on the advice of suitably
qualified physician or properly constituted medical board, certifying that
the employee is no longer mentally and physically capable of carrying
out the function of his office, the officer may withdraw;
vii. If the officer is retired due to total or permanent disability either of mind
or body, may withdraw retirement savings account.
viii. Where the employee retires before the age of 50 years in accordance with
the terms and conditions of employment, the officer shall be entitled to
make withdrawals
Examiner’s report
The question is in three parts and it relates to the provisions of Pension Reform Act,
2014 (as amended). Part (a) of the question requires candidates to explain processes
of remitting contributions into Retirement Savings Account (RSA). Part (b) of the
question requires the candidates to highlight the categories of persons exempted from
the Contributory Pension Scheme (CPS), while part (c) requires candidates to explain
the procedures for payment of retirement benefits to holders of Retirement Savings
Account (RSA).
Majority of the candidates attempted the question and their performance was average.
The commonest pitfall was the inability of the candidates to properly identify and
explain the provisions of Pension Reform Act 2014 (as amended).
109
Candidates are advised to read widely and ensure they have adequate knowledge of the
relevant sections of the syllabus. They should also make use of Pathfinders and the
Study Text of the Institute and other relevant learning materials on this aspect of the
syllabus for better performance in future examinations.
Marking guide
Marks
a Processes of remitting contributions into Retirement Savings Account by
contributors
Explanation of any six processes of remitting contributions 6
SOLUTION 4
a. Benefits of e-payments and e-collection
e-Payment e-Collection
i. Provides complete and timely i. It controls and monitors receipts and
information on government cash payments of FGN funds;
resources; ii. It prevents and detects potential and
ii. Improve operational control on actual fraud;
budget execution; iii. Its improves planning through MTEF;
iii. Enables efficient cash iv. Avoids double payments and likely
management; build- up of payment arrears;
iv. Reduces bank fees and transaction v. Creates an accurate cash flow
costs; statements that help government to
v. Facilitates efficient payment obtain an appropriate line of credit;
mechanisms; vi. Implements cash collection
vi. Improves bank reconciliation and acceleration techniques;
quality of fiscal data; vii. Integrates policy priorities into annual
vii. Improves liquidity of government; budgets and thereby ensures that
viii. Allows issuance of warrants and available resources are channelled to
AIEs based on cash plan; priority sectors;
110
ix. No more commercial bank accounts viii. Minimises deficits and borrowings
maintain by MDAs; within limits set by government; and
x. Brings about drastic fall on the ix. Improves transparency and
ways and means (overdraft) accountability of all FGN receipts.
requirement from CBN; and
xi. Supports government budget
execution.
111
Examiner’s report
The question is in three parts. Part (a) of the question requires candidates to
enumerate the benefits of e-payment and e-collection of the components of Treasury
Single Account (TSA). Part (b) of the question requires the candidates to explain the
conditions that need to be met for supplementary funds to be approved and part (c) of
the question requires the candidates to create a checklist on how to examine payment
vouchers.
Majority of the candidates attempted the question and performance was below
average.
The common pitfalls were the inability of the candidates to explain the conditions that
need to be met for supplementary funds to be approved, while in part (c), the
candidates were unable to create a checklist on how to examine payment vouchers.
Candidates are advised to read widely and ensure they have adequate knowledge of
relevant regulations relating to public sector accounting for better performance in the
Institute‟s future examinations.
Marking guide
Marks Marks
a Benefits of TSA components
Any five benefits of e-payment 5
Any five benefits of e-collection 5 10
112
SECTION C
SOLUTION 5
114
for foreign exchange earnings. A sudden poor performance of such
product in the international market would reduce income considerably
and adversely affect budget implementation. Any country that finds
herself in such a situation may have no option than to borrow to bridge
the financial resource gap.
viii War-time borrowing: Financial resources needed to prosecute wars are
usually beyond the capacity of government. Hence, the need to borrow
arises to avoid devastating consequences of defeat.
ix Debt servicing: New debt with favourable terms and conditions may be
undertaken to service old debts thereby reducing the burden of debt on
the economy.
Examiner’s report
The question is in three parts. Part (a) of the question requires the candidates to
explain the concept of public debt “distinguishing between bilateral and multilateral
debt”. Part (b) of the question require the candidates to explain the conditions under
which debt finance would be preferable, while part (c) requires the candidates to
identify and explain reasons to justify the need for public debts.
Majority of the candidates attempted the question and their performance was very
good.
The common pitfalls were the inability of the candidates to distinguish between
bilateral and multilateral debt, while in parts (b) and (c) few of the candidates could
not satisfactorily explain the conditions under which debt finance would be preferable
and explain reasons to justify the need for public debts respectively.
Candidates are advised to make use of Pathfinders and the Study Text of the Institute for
better performance in the Institute‟s future examinations.
Marking guide
Marks Marks
a. Concept of public debt
Explanation of the concept of public debts 2
Distinguishing between bilateral and unilateral debts 2
One example each. 2 6
115
SOLUTION 6
vi Natural resources: One of the potent reasons for public undertakings is the
case of some natural resources like forests, mines, and so on. The commercial
interest of private investors may be in conflict with those of the state. A private
investor, for example, authorised to mine a particular resource may likely want
to make more money by extracting more than expected. This may result in a
large scale and quick denuding of the land thereby causing soil erosion and
upsetting the ecological balance. A public enterprise or undertaking given the
same task would operate based on a defined systematic policy of extraction
thereby avoiding damage to the soil structure and environment.
Examiner’s report
The question requires candidates to discuss factors to justify the need for public
enterprises.
Majority of the candidates attempted the question and their performance was above
average.
The common pitfalls were the inability of few candidates to identify and explain
factors to justify the need for public enterprises.
Candidates are advised to make use of Pathfinders and the Study Text of the Institute
for better performance in the future examinations.
117
Marking guide
Marks Marks
Factors to justify the need for public enterprises:
Identification of any five factors 5
Explanation of the five factors identified at 2 marks each 10 15
Total 15
SOLUTION 7
iii. The FG must seek approval of overall limits, for the amounts of
consolidated debt of the federal, state and local governments, to be set
118
by the President on the advice of the Honourable Minister of Finance
(HMF); and
119
profile of the assets and liabilities of the state in the last five years in
addition to a 5- year projection
vii. Preparation of an offer document (Prospectus): A profile of the state
showing its population, major industries, their locations and other major
projects embarked upon. The information has to be submitted with an
application to the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) as well as
the Nigerian Exchange Limited (NGX)
x. Legislative approval
The borrowing must be approved by the state‟s legislature, ensuring that
it aligns with the state's budgetary and developmental priorities.
Legislative approval provides legal backing for the issuance of bonds or
other securities.
120
xiv. Engagement with professional advisors
States must engage professionals such as financial advisors, issuing
houses and legal counsel to structure and manage the borrowing process
effectively. These professionals ensure compliance with legal, financial
and market standards.
Examiner’s report
The question is in three parts. Part (a) of the question requires candidates to explain
the measures open to Federal Government in intervening in the activities of an
economy. Part (b) of the question requires the candidates to enumerate the steps that
the Federal Government or its agencies must take before seeking the approval of the
National Assembly on their request for external borrowing, while part (c) of the
question asks the candidates to identify the requirements for raising funds from the
domestic capital market by state governments.
Few of the candidates attempted the question and their performance was poor.
The commonest pitfall was the inability of few candidates to enumerate the steps that
the Federal Government or its agencies must take before seeking the approval of the
National Assembly on their request for external borrowing. Also, few candidates were
unable to identify the requirements for raising funds from the domestic capital market
by State Government.
Candidates are advised to make use of Pathfinders and the Study Text of the Institute for
better performance in the Institute‟s future examination.
121
Marking guide
Marks Marks
a. Measure used for intervening in the economy by FG
Identification of any two measures 1
Explanation of any of the two measures identified at 1½ marks 3
each
Any example of each of the two measures at ½ mark each 1 5
122
ICAN/242/Q/B6 Examination No.........................
EXAMINATION INSTRUCTIONS
PLEASE READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS BEFORE THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE PAPER
1. Check your pockets, purse, mathematical set, etc. to ensure that you do not have
prohibited items such as telephone handset, electronic storage device,
programmable devices, wristwatches or any form of written material on you in the
examination hall. You will be stopped from continuing with the examination and
liable to further disciplinary actions including cancellation of examination result if
caught.
2. Write your EXAMINATION NUMBER in the space provided above.
3. Do NOT write anything on your question paper EXCEPT your examination number.
4. Do NOT write anything on your docket.
5. Read all instructions in each section of the question paper carefully before
answering the questions.
6. Do NOT answer more than the number of questions required in each section,
otherwise, you will be penalised.
7. All solutions should be written in BLUE or BLACK INK. Any solution written in
PENCIL or any other COLOUR OF INK will not be marked.
8. You are required to attempt Question ONE (compulsory), any TWO Questions in
Section B and any Two questions in Section C.
9. Check that you have collected the correct question paper for the examination you are
writing.
123
THE INSTITUTE OF CHARTERED ACCOUNTANTS OF NIGERIA
SKILLS LEVEL EXAMINATION – NOVEMBER 2024
CORPORATE STRATEGIC MANAGEMENT & ETHICS
Time Allowed: 31/4 hours (including 15 minutes reading time)
INSTRUCTION: YOU ARE REQUIRED TO ATTEMPT FIVE OUT OF THE SEVEN
QUESTIONS IN THIS PAPER
QUESTION 1
Gold Bank Plc is a leading commercial bank in Nigeria. Since inception in 2005, it has
been at the forefront of the development, deployment and marketing of diverse
internet driven banking products. These services complement traditional banking
products, which Gold Bank Plc offers to its over ten million customers across Nigeria,
with branches in Africa, Europe, and North America.
However, the last couple of years have been particularly challenging for Gold Bank
Plc. Net profit grew at an average of 15% between 2010 and 2017, but declined to 5%
between 2017 and 2021. Banking surveillance report revealed that this decline is
attributable to increased customer preference for Financial Technology (FinTech)
services which are not part of Gold Bank Plc‟s portfolio of banking products. FinTech
is a group of emerging Information Technology (IT) and internet-driven financial
services. Such services include digital wallets, digital lending, digital payments,
blockchain, and digital wealth management. Consequently, the Board of Directors of
Gold bank Plc decided that a key component of the bank growth strategy in the
coming years is to diversify into the Fintech market.
Since its inception in 2005, Gold Bank Plc has been developing its internal capacity to
innovate and deploy IT driven financial services. This has given the organisation a
reputation as one of the most innovative institutions in Nigeria‟s banking industry.
This reputation was achieved through consistent investment in IT infrastructure,
attraction, development and deployment of highly qualified IT professionals. The bank
is also known for its robust management support system, which is evidenced by the
creation of a separate, but highly organised department saddled with the
responsibility of developing, deploying, maintaining and overseeing the bank‟s IT and
cybersecurity infrastructure. However, diversification into Fintech requires additional
resources, such as bigger internet bandwidths, specialised computer hardware and
software, and human resources with skills and experience in Fintech. Unfortunately,
Gold Bank plc does not currently possess these.
124
Nigeria‟s Fintech market is currently made up of tech start-ups, most of which are
currently small in terms of size, number of employees, but big in terms of asset value
and volume of transactions processed annually. As a bourgeoning market, it is
estimated that Nigeria‟s Fintech industry will double in market size and value in the
next two years. Thus making it one of the fastest growing sectors in Nigeria. This is
partly because more traditional banking customers are switching to Fintech services.
Currently, the biggest Fintech company in Nigeria is Oceanwave Limited with a current
market value estimated to be in excess of N5 billion. Entry into the industry is highly
regulated with several legal requirements. One of these is high paid-up capital
requirement. Also, the resources and IT infrastructure requirements for setting up a
Fintech company pose a strong barrier for new entrants into the industry.
Consequently, there are only five Fintech companies that are registered to do business
in Nigeria.
The Board of Directors of Gold Bank Plc is to decide between two options as entry
strategy into Nigeria‟s Fintech space: organic growth or acquisition strategies. To this
end, the bank is already in acquisition talks with Barterwave, the third largest Fintech
company in Nigeria.
Required:
You have been engaged as a consultant to provide advice to Gold Bank Plc on its
strategic initiatives.
a. Advise the Board of Directors of Gold Bank Plc on the potential benefits and
drawbacks of pursuing organic growth. (10 Marks)
b. From the scenario above, use the Johnson and Scholes framework to advice on
how Gold Bank Plc can use Critical Success Factors (CSF) to achieve competitive
advantage through diversification into the Fintech market. (7 Marks)
c.
d. Using SWOT analysis, advise on the chances of success of Gold Bank Plc with the
proposed organic growth strategy of diversification into the Fintech market.
(10 Marks)
e. Advise the management of Gold Bank Plc on the likely drawbacks of pursuing
acquisition as a growth strategy as the company is considering acquiring
Barterwave Limited. (3 Marks)
(Total 30 Marks)
125
SECTION B: YOU ARE REQUIRED TO ATTEMPT TWO OUT OF THE THREE
QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION (40 MARKS)
QUESTION 2
Every business venture involves risk. Often the higher the risks, the higher the
expected return. However, it is important that owners of businesses have clear
understanding of the types and dynamics of risks involved in business engagements.
As an expert in business risk management, you are expected to explain the following
to a set of young entrepreneurs who are just starting their businesses:
a. Measuring risks (3 Marks)
b. Prioritising risks (3 Marks)
c. Related and Correlated risk factors (3 Marks)
d. Objective and subjective risk perception, using an appropriate illustrative table
(7 Marks)
e. Role of the risk manager (4 Marks)
(Total 20 Marks)
QUESTION 3
Gafar is uneducated and has worked as a messenger for most of his adult life. He
recently won N500 million in a raffle draw. He has procured 50 hectares of land at
Alabata village where he hopes to establish a large poultry farm in the sum of about
N250 million. He has been advised to reach out to stakeholders in the poultry industry
in the region to ensure their optimal cooperation towards the successful and highly
profitable running of the farm. However, Gafar is not clear about who the stakeholders
are and he consequently approaches you as an expert in Corporate Governance for
some assistance.
You are required to clarify the following in ways that Gafar will fully understand them:
a. What are the general responsibilities of an organisation towards its
stakeholders, and what is the important objective of corporate governance with
respect to stakeholders? (5 Marks)
b. State ONE example and ONE problem of indirect claim. (5 Marks)
c. Explain FIVE categories of stakeholders. (10 Marks)
(Total 20 Marks)
126
QUESTION 4
Professional accountants are expected to be ethical in decision making. Adeolu works
in an audit firm whose services have been enlisted to audit the accounts of a large
manufacturing company in Nigeria. Adeolu was sent as the head of the team to the
company.
During the audit process, a lot of financial infractions that resulted in material
misstatements in the financial statements were discovered.
When it was clear to the company‟s management that these misstatements have been
discovered, Adeolu, on the instruction of the Managing Director was invited to the
office of the Financial Controller (FC), who is also a professional accountant, and was
offered 50 million naira to ignore the impact of the misstatements in issuing the audit
report. The FC was pressurised by the MD that he should convince Adeolu whom he
knows was his classmate in the university to accept the N50 million and issue an
unqualified audit report. He also threatened that failure to do this might cost him his
job. Interestingly, the MD is an uncle of the FC‟s wife. He got the job by virtue of this
relationship.
Adeolu‟s mother needs an urgent surgery which is to cost the sum of 18 million naira.
His wife also will soon put to bed, and he has no idea how to raise the money required
to prepare for the arrival of the baby. No doubt the offer of N50 million is very
tempting, but Adeolu remembers what he has learnt about the critical steps to be
taken in arriving at ethical decisions.
127
SECTION C: YOU ARE REQUIRED TO ATTEMPT TWO OUT OF THE
THREE QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION (30 MARKS)
QUESTION 5
After a long economic recession, Nkechi and Saburi have come together to establish a
plastic company and the board of directors have drawn the corporate code of ethics for
the company.
a. Explain the concept of corporate code of ethics. (2 Marks)
b. Discuss THREE basic reasons for developing a company‟s code of ethics.
(6 Marks)
c. Highlight SIX general statements that a corporate code of ethics specify.
(3 Marks)
d. Highlight FOUR statements of corporate code of ethics in respect of the
company‟s employees and FOUR in respect of the customers. (4 Marks)
(Total 15 Marks)
QUESTION 6
The ethics of an organisation is shaped by its corporate culture.
a. Using the Johnson and Scholes cultural web, describe the contents of corporate
culture. (12 Marks)
b. Use the Edgar Schein model to describe the level of corporate culture in an
organisation. (3 Marks)
(Total 15 Marks)
QUESTION 7
You are being interviewed for a job as a risk manager and you are required to:
a. Specify the role of a risk manager. (3 Marks)
b. Discuss the TARA framework for risk management. (4 Marks)
c. Explain the roles of management and board in risk management.
(8 Marks)
(Total 15 Marks)
128
SECTION A
SOLUTION 1
129
b. Critical Success Factors (CSF) are components of an organisations strategy that
can offer competitive advantage.
Johnson and Scholes proposed a six-step approach to using CSF to gain
competitive advantage:
Step 1: Identify the CSF that significantly determine the profitability of the
business. In doing this, it is useful for the firm to consider the 4Ps of marketing:
Price, Product, Place and Promotion. From the given scenario, Gold Bank Plc can
improve on the quality and type of products currently on offer in the Fintech
market and improve same; while charging lower rates than the competitors.
Step 2: Identify the critical competencies that will deliver high profit and
competitive advantage. It means identifying which competencies that the firm
should build to achieve business success. For example, the firm may need to
deploy resources to strengthen the quality of its product. There is no critical
competency mentioned in the scenario. However, Gold Bank Plc can deploy
resources that will either ensure high quality Fintech services or achieving low-
cost operations.
Step 3: Develop critical competencies (identified in step 2) that will deliver
profitability and competitive advantage. Requisite inputs that will deliver
competitive advantage in the FinTech market should be developed and deployed
by Gold Bank Plc.
Step 4: Identify Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) for each critical competency
identified in step 2.
Step 5: Emphasise the development of critical competencies of each aspect of the
firm‟s performance in such a manner that it will be difficult to replicate or be
matched by competitors.
Step 6: Monitor the achievement of the firm‟s KPI to ensure that set targets are
met and competitive advantage is achieved
c. SWOT ANALYSIS
Strength: The resources and competencies that an entity possesses.
From the given scenario, these include, experience spanning over a decade in the
financial services sector, strong IT infrastructure, highly skilled and qualified IT
personnel, strong innovation capabilities, strong management support system,
organisational structure that supports rendering of IT driven financial services,
and large customer base.
Weaknesses: Resources and competencies that the organisation currently lack,
but are critical to the success of its strategies and achievement of its goals.
From the given scenario, these include: inadequate internet bandwidth,
inadequate computer hardware and software, lack of adequate skilled manpower
in Fintech.
130
Opportunities: Factors in the external environment that can be exploited to
deliver competitive advantage and realisation of corporate goals.
From the given scenario, these include: a rapidly growing Fintech market
increasing number of customers are switching to Fintech services.
Threats: Factors in the external environment that may hamper the success of the
entity‟s strategies and hinder the achievement of corporate goals.
From the given scenario, these are: size and activities of Oceanwave Limited and
other competitors. These sum up to make the FinTech market highly competitive.
Also, there are strong entry barriers into the Fintech business such as high capital
base, IT infrastructure, and regulatory requirements.
Conclusion:
The success of Gold Bank Plc in the Fintech business depends on if its strengths
and opportunities are stronger than weaknesses and threats. When strengths and
opportunities are stronger, then it is very likely that Gold Bank Plc will succeed in
the proposed Fintech business. However, if weaknesses and threats are stronger,
then the chances of failure of Gold Bank Plc in the Fintech business is higher.
Examiner’s report
This scenario based compulsory Strategic Management question tests the following
aspects of growth strategy:
a. Benefits and drawbacks of organic growth;
b. Johnson and Scholes framework to use Critical Success Factor (CSF) for
competitive advantage;
c. SWOT Analysis of organic growth strategy; and
d. Drawbacks of acquisition as a growth strategy.
Virtually all the candidates attempted this question.
Performance was below average, as less than 40 percent of the candidates scored up
to 50 percent of the marks allocated to this question.
Many candidates did not demonstrate adequate knowledge of Johnson and Scholes
framework for use of Critical Success Factor (CSF) for competitive advantage.
131
Candidates are advised to pay serious attention to the use of Critical Success Factor for
competitive advantage.
Marking guide
Number of Marks per Total
points point
a) Definition of internal
development strategy 1 2 2
Potential benefits 6 11/4 5
Drawbacks 8 11/4 5
10
b) Definition of CSF 1 1 1
Steps 6 1 6
7
c) Strengths:
Definition 1 ½ ½
Bullet points 5 ½ 2½
Weaknesses 1 ½ ½
Definition
Bullet Points 3 ½ 1½
Opportunities 1 ½ ½
Definition
Bullet Points 1 1 1
Threats 1 ½ ½
Definition
Bullet Points 1 1 1
Conclusion 2 1 2
10
d) Drawbacks of 3 1 3
acquisition as a
growth strategy
3
Total 30
132
SECTION B
SOLUTION 2
a. Measuring risks: Measuring risk means assigning quantitative values to risk. Risk
measurements can be financial measurements (for example, a measurement of
the expected loss) or non-financial (for example, a measurement of expected
injuries to employees at work). However, not all risks can be measured.
Where risks are assessed in qualitative terms, risk management decisions become
a matter of management judgement. When risks are quantified, the risk can be
managed through setting targets for maximum risk tolerance and measuring
actual performance against the target.
b. Prioritising risks: Risk prioritisation is the process of ranking risks based on their
likelihood of occurrence and the potential impact they may have on the
organisation, project, and activity. Within a system of risk management,
companies need to establish a process for deciding which risks are tolerable,
which are not and which might need more control measures to reduce the risk.
(Sometimes, it might be decided that control measures are excessive, and that
money can be saved by reducing the controls, without increasing risk above
acceptable levels).
Deciding on priorities for risk management might be a matter of management
judgement. Some companies and non-business entities use formal techniques to
help them with the prioritisation of risk. One of such techniques is risk
dashboard.
c. Related and correlated risk factors: Related risk factors are risks that are
interconnected, and therefore may influence one another. These connections can
arise because they share common causes, affects similar stakeholders, or trigger
secondary risk. Understanding and managing related risks is crucial in
preventing cascading failures and ensure a comprehensive risk management
strategy. Examples may include economic recessions which may lead to reduced
consumer spending (marketing risk) which may lead to a reduced consumer
spending (operational risk).
133
Objective and subjective risk perception
Objective risk perception
Risk is objectively perceived/ assessed when all variables (likelihood and impact)
can be measured accurately (where hard information is available). Assessment of
a risk based on objective measurement of likelihood and impact is usually more
robust than if based on subjective judgement. This will affect the risk
management strategy. In many cases, it is difficult to assign a value to likelihood
or impact with any degree of accuracy. In such cases, risks are subjectively
perceived/ assessed. Assessment of a risk based on objective measurement of
likelihood or impact is usually more robust than if based on subjective judgment.
134
Examiner’s report
This Risk Management question tests the following:
a. Measuring risks;
b. Priotising risks;
c. Related and correlated risk factors;
d. Objective and subjective risk perception; and
e. Role of Risk Manager.
More than 80% of the candidates attempted this question.
Performance was average as about half the number of candidates who attempted this
question scored more than 50 percent of the marks allotted to it.
The candidates who performed poorly could not effectively distinguish between
related and correlated risk factors, and objective and subjective risk perception.
Candidates at this level of the examination must be able to demonstrate knowledge of
basic concepts such as these.
Marking guide
Description Number of points Marks per point Total
a) Measuring risks 3 1 3
b) Prioritising risks 3 1 3
c) Related risk factors 3 ½ 1½
Correlated risk factors 3 ½ 1½
d) Objective risk perception 2 1 2
Subjective risk perception 1 1 1
Diagram 4 segments 1 per segment 4
e) Role of the risk manager 4 1 4
Total 20
SOLUTION 3
The problem with indirect stakeholder claims is that it is not always possible to
be sure that the stakeholders are being properly represented and their claims
correctly expressed.
Categories of stakeholders
i. Narrow and wide stakeholders
Narrow stakeholders are those that are the most affected by the actions and
decisions of the organisation. Narrow stakeholder groups for a company
usually include shareholders, directors, other management, employees,
suppliers, and those customers who depend on the goods produced by the
company. Wide stakeholders are those groups that are less dependent on the
organisation. Wide stakeholders for a company may include customers who
are not particularly dependent on the company‟s goods or services, the
government, and the wider community (as distinct from local communities in
which the company operates, which may be narrow stakeholders). Companies
have more responsibility and accountability to narrow stakeholders than to
wide stakeholders.
137
Examiner’s report
This is a Governance question covering the following areas:
a. General responsibilities of an organisation to its stakeholders and objectives of
corporate governance to stakeholders;
b. Problems of indirect claim; and
c. Categories of stakeholder.
Less than 60 percent of the candidates attempted this question.
Performance was poor, as less than 40 percent of the candidates who attempted this
question, scored up to 50 percent of the marks allocated to the question.
Many candidates did not understand the categories of stakeholder, as they mistook
them for stakeholder groups.
Candidates are admonished to master these concepts as they are important in
governance.
Marking guide
Number of Marks per
Description points point Total
a) Responsibilities of organisations
to stakeholders 5 1 5
b) Example and problem of indirect
claim 2 2½ 5
c) Categories of stakeholders 5 2 10
Total 20
SOLUTION 4
138
Scenario
Adeolu must be able to recognise that the professional and morally correct action
is to reject the offer of N50 million and present an accurate and objective audit
report.
139
Classification of ethical threats
4c. How a moral or ethical person would take moral decisions given the four-step
model of moral behaviour.
Step 2: Consideration of the threats that compliance with the fundamental ethical
principles could create
Scenario: In this case, there are threats to the principles of integrity, objectivity,
professional behaviour, professional competence and due care.
Step 3: Consideration of the significance of the threats to the compliance with the
fundamental principles
140
Scenario: The significance of the threat will depend on how committed Adeolu is
to the ethics of his profession as an auditor and, the extent in which the threats
could compromised objectivity.
Examiner’s report
This is a scenario-based Ethics question on ethical threats and safeguards.
More than 80 percent of candidates who attempted this question, however,
performance was below average as not more than 30 percent of the candidates who
attempted it scored 50 percent of the marks allotted.
The common pitfall was candidates‟ inability to relate their responses to the scenario
provided. This is a major distinction between Foundation and Skills levels of the
examination. Candidates must master this skill as they will require it at higher levels
of the examination.
Marking guide
141
SECTION C
SOLUTION 5
a. A corporate code of ethics is a written set of guidelines that outlines the
principles, values, and behaviour expected of employees within an organisation.
It serves as a moral compass, guiding decision-making and actions to ensure that
the organisation operates with integrity, accountability, and transparency.
A corporate code of ethics is a code of ethical behaviour, issued by the board of
directors of a company. It is a formal written statement, and should be
distributed or easily available to all employees. The decisions and actions of all
employees in the company must be guided by the code.
b. Reason 1: Managing for compliance - The company wants to ensure that all its
employees comply with relevant laws and regulations, and conduct themselves in
a way that the public expects. For example, companies providing a service to the
general public need to ensure that their employees are polite and well-behaved
in their dealings with customers.
iii. It might also contain statements about the values of the company, such as:
Acting at all times with integrity;
Protecting the environment;
The „pursuit of excellence‟; and
Respect for the individual.
142
d. A code of ethics in respect of employees might include statements about:
i. Human rights, including the right of all employees to join legally authorised
organisations such as a trade union or political party;
ii. Equal opportunities for all employees, regardless of gender, race, ethnic
origin, religion, age, disability or sexual orientation;
iii. Refusal to tolerate harassment of employees by colleagues or managers;
iv. Concern for the health and safety of employees
v. Respect for the privacy of confidential information about each employee; and
vi. Company policy on giving or receiving entertainment or bribes.
Examiner’s report
This Corporate Governance question tests candidates‟ knowledge of corporate code of
ethics.
This question was attempted by more than 80 percent of the candidates, with average
performance, as about 50 percent of the candidates who attempted it scored 50
percent of the marks allotted.
Those candidates who performed poorly were unable to discuss the basic reasons for
developing a company‟s code of ethics.
Candidates are advised to develop a full understanding of these concepts.
Marking guide
Description No of points Marks per Total
point
a) Definition of corporate code of ethics 1 2 2
143
SOLUTION 6
a. According to Johnson and Scholes, the cultural web consists of six inter-related
elements within an organisation:
Routines and rituals: These are „the ways things are done around here‟.
Individuals get used to established ways of doing things. For example, a team
meeting held first thing on Monday mornings.
Stories and myths: These describe the history of an organisation, and to suggest
the importance of certain individuals or events. History is passed by word of
mouth. Stories and myths help to create an impression of how the organisation
got to where it is, and it can be difficult to challenge established myths and
consider a need for a change of direction in the future. For example, a past
achievement.
Symbols: These are representations of the nature of the organisation. Examples of
symbols might be a company official vehicles, an office or building, a logo or a
style of language.
Power structure: Organisations are influenced by the individuals who are in
position of power. In many business organisations, power is obtained from
management position. However, power can also come from personal influence or
experience and expertise.
Organisation structure: The culture of an organisation is affected by its
organisation and management structure. Hierarchical and bureaucratic
organisations might find it particularly difficult to adapt to change and are often
conservative in their outlook.
Control systems: Performance measurement and reward systems within an
organisation establish the views about what is important and what is not so
important. Individuals will focus on performance that earns rewards. For
example, it has been suggested that cash bonus systems help to create the profit-
driven culture in investment banks.
Examiner’s report
This Ethics question tests corporate culture with respect to Johnson and Scholes
cultural web and Edgar Schein‟s model on level of corporate culture.
About 70% of the candidates attempted this question.
Performance was average, as about half of these candidates scored not less than 50%
of the marks allotted.
Those candidates who performed poorly mixed up the two models tested in this
question.
Candidates are enjoined to take due care in handling questions.
Marking guide
145
SOLUTION 7
146
Examiner’s report
This Risk Management question tests candidates‟ knowledge of:
a. Role of a risk manager;
b. TARA framework for risk management; and
c. Roles of management and board in risk management.
About 80 percent of the candidates attempted this question, and performance was
good as more than 60% of the candidates scored more than 50 percent of the marks
allotted.
Candidates who performed poorly could not distinguish between the roles of
management and board in risk management.
Candidates are advised to note the distinction between the roles of management and
board.
Marking guide
Description No. of Marks per Total
points point
a) Role of risk manager 3 1 3
b) TARA: Identification 4 ½ 2
Explanation 4 ½ 2
c) Role of management and
board in risk management 4 2 8
Total 15
147
ICAN/242/Q/B3 Examination No....................
THE INSTITUTE OF CHARTERED ACCOUNTANTS OF NIGERIA
TAXATION
EXAMINATION INSTRUCTIONS
PLEASE READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS BEFORE THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE PAPER
1. Check your pockets, purse, mathematical set, etc. to ensure that you do not have
prohibited items such as telephone handset, electronic storage device,
programmable devices, wristwatches or any form of written material on you in
the examination hall. You will be stopped from continuing with the examination
and liable to further disciplinary actions including cancellation of examination
result if caught.
2. Write your EXAMINATION NUMBER in the space provided above.
3. Do NOT write anything on your question paper EXCEPT your examination number.
4. Do NOT write anything on your docket.
5. Read all instructions in each section of the question paper carefully before
answering the questions.
6. Do NOT answer more than the number of questions required in each section,
otherwise, you will be penalised.
7. All solutions should be written in BLUE or BLACK INK. Any solution written in
PENCIL or any other COLOUR OF INK will not be marked.
8. You are required to attempt Question ONE (compulsory), any TWO Questions in
Section B and any TWO questions in Section C.
9. Tax and Capital Allowances rates are provided with this examination paper.
10.
10. Check that you have collected the correct question paper for the examination you
are writing.
TAXATION
Time Allowed: 31/4 hours (including 15 minutes reading time)
QUESTION 1
ABC Limited was incorporated on December 7, 2019, with an authorised share capital
of N2,500,000. It is engaged in general merchandising.
Required:
Compute the company‟s income tax liabilities for the relevant assessment years.
(30 Marks)
150
SECTION B: YOU ARE REQUIRED TO ATTEMPT TWO OUT OF THE THREE QUESTIONS
IN THIS SECTION (40 MARKS)
QUESTION 2
Mr. Apa Eniapampa was appointed the General Manager, Finance of Apaapa-eni
Nigeria Limited in Sambisa, Lagos State, on April 1, 2020 on a basic salary of N50
million annually. His contract of employment entitles him to professional allowance,
furnished accommodation, car, payment of utility bills and annual bonus.
During the year 2021, his employers made available to him total cash emoluments of
N80,350,000, including bonus of N12 million. He contributed 5% of his salary to the
social security scheme.
He also contributed 5% of his basic salary to the employer for the accommodation and
furnishing provided.
He had two dependent children both of whom were pursuing degree courses. One was
at the university in the country while the other was at the University of Hull in the
United Kingdom. He financed a life assurance policy with the following details:
Yearly premium - N10 million
Sum assured - N120 million
Required:
Compute the chargeable income of Mr. Apa Eniapampa for the relevant year of
assessment. (Total 20 Marks)
QUESTION 3
Opion Nigeria Limited has been in business for so many years. The company is
engaged in the sale of plastics.
The company filed its tax returns up to December 31, 2020, on due dates. Due to harsh
economic environment and change in management, it experienced a downward trend
in its gross turnover, effective January 1, 2021. Based on the foregoing, it could not
file its monthly Value Added Tax (VAT) returns as and when due.
151
You were appointed as the tax consultant in February 2022. The financial records of
the company for the year ended December 31, 2021, revealed the following:
Jan Feb Mar April May June July Aug Sept Oct Nov Dec Total
N‟000 N‟000 N‟000 N‟000 N‟000 N‟000 N‟000 N‟000 N‟000 N‟000 N‟000 N‟000 N‟000
Gross
turnover 2,500 2,250 2,100 2,000 1,850 1,720 1,600 1,500 1,480 1,450 1,510 1,485 21,445
Opening
inventory (180) (200) (190) (175) (162) (159) (148) (136) (135) (130) (128) (125) (1,868)
Purchases (1,900) (1,640) (1,505) (1417) (1,297) (1,179) (1,060) (984) (975) (978) (1,062) (1,061) (15,058)
420 410 405 408 391 382 392 380 370 342 320 299 4,519
Closing
inventory 200 190 175 162 159 148 136 135 130 128 125 121 1,809
Gross
620 600 580 570 550 530 528 515 500 470 445 420 6,328
profit
The Federal and State governments have primary responsibilities for tax matters
including initiating proposals for amendments to tax laws. There are, however, other
stakeholders which the government must collaborate with to ensure the success of the
National tax policy (NTP), 2017.
Required:
Explain the responsibilities of the following stakeholders according to the NTP:
a. The government including revenue agencies (5 Marks)
b. The taxpayer (5 Marks)
c. Professional bodies, tax practitioners, consultants and agents. (5 Marks)
d. Media and advocacy groups (5 Marks)
(Total 20 Marks)
152
SECTION C: YOU ARE REQUIRED TO ATTEMPT TWO OUT OF THE THREE
QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION (30 MARKS)
QUESTION 5
Section 105 of CITA, having been amended by the Finance Act 2019 states that,
“regulated securities lending transaction” means any securities lending transaction
conducted in accordance with rules made by Securities and Exchange Commission
(SEC).
The provisions of the Investment and Securities Act, Securities and Exchange Rules
2013 (as amended) and other extant laws and regulations control the operations of
SEC lending in the Nigerian Capital Market.
The taxation of SEC lending transactions is influenced by the Companies Income Tax
Act Cap. C21 LFN 2004 (CITA) (as amended) and other relevant tax laws.
A would-be investor approached you for your advice on the tax implications of the
operation of the regulated securities lending transactions („Sec Lending‟) in Nigeria.
Required:
Discuss the following in respect of „SEC Lending‟ in Nigeria:
a. Taxation of dividend and interest received, fees and other benefits, taking into
consideration the relevant provisions of CITA (as amended) (7 Marks)
b. Tax treatment of dividend and interest received by an individual (2 Marks)
c. Documents and transactions that are tax- exempt from stamp duties (6 Marks)
(Total 15 Marks)
QUESTION 6
The basis of assessment used by the relevant tax authority for the determination of
personal income tax liability of an individual shall be on actual year basis. It is,
however, pertinent to note that in determining the gross income of an individual,
income from employment is based on actual year basis, while unearned incomes are
based on the preceding year basis.
The Sixth Schedule of the Personal Income Tax (Amendment) Act, 2011 (as amended)
states the deductions that are tax exempt and relief allowance claimable in the
computation of chargeable income of an individual.
Required:
Discuss the following, taking into consideration the provisions of Personal Income Tax
(Amendment) Act, 2011:
Withholding tax is a tax deducted from payments made to a taxable person for
the supply of goods and services.
It is not another form of tax but simply an advance payment of tax. In certain
cases, the withholding tax deducted at source is the final tax in the hands of the
recipients.
Since the introduction of the withholding tax scheme, there have been
challenges affecting the scheme.
Required:
a. Explain the term „Contract of supplies‟. (5 Marks)
b. Explain FIVE challenges bedeviling the withholding tax scheme in Nigeria.
(5 Marks)
c. The Tax Appeal Tribunal, in one of its judgements, exempted contracts,
which are outright sales and purchases of goods and property in the
ordinary courses of business.
Required:
Explain the criteria laid out in the judgement for the ascertainment of what
constitutes „sales in the ordinary course of business‟. (5 Marks)
(Total 15 Marks)
154
NIGERIAN TAX RATES
1. CAPITAL ALLOWANCES
Initial % Annual %
Building Expenditure 15 10
Industrial Building Expenditure 15 10
Mining Expenditure 95 Nil
Plant Expenditure (excluding Furniture & Fittings) 50 25
Manufacturing Industrial Plant Expenditure 50 25
Construction Plant expenditure (excluding Furniture and Fittings) 50 Nil
Public Transportation Motor Vehicle 95 Nil
Ranching and Plantation Expenditure 30 50
Plantation Equipment Expenditure 95 Nil
Research and Development Expenditure 95 Nil
Housing Estate Expenditure 50 25
Motor Vehicle Expenditure 50 25
Agricultural Plant Expenditure 95 Nil
Furniture and Fittings Expenditure 25 20
2. INVESTMENT ALLOWANCE Up to August 31, 2023 (10%); and Finance Act 2023 (NIL)
3. RATES OF PERSONAL INCOME TAX
Graduated tax rates and consolidated relief allowance of N200,000 or 1% of Gross
Income, whichever is higher + 20% of Gross Income.
Taxable Income (N) Rate of Tax (%)
First 300,000 7
Next 300,000 11
Next 500,000 15
Next 500,000 19
Next 1,600,000 21
Over 3,200,000 24
After the relief allowance and exemption had been granted, the balance of income
shall be taxed as specified in the tax table above.
4. COMPANIES INCOME TAX RATE: Finance Act 2019 specifies:
30% (Large Company)
20% (Medium-Sized Company)
0% (Small Company)
5. TERTIARY EDUCATION TAX: 2% of assessable profit (up to December 31, 2021)
2.5% of assessable profit (with effect from January 1,
2022) and 3% of assessable profit, with effect from
September 1, 2023 (Finance Act 2023)
6. CAPITAL GAINS TAX 10%
7. VALUE ADDED TAX 7.5%
8. HYDROCARBON TAX 15% (Petroleum prospecting
Licence and Marginal Fields Companies)
30% (Petroleum Mining Lease Companies)
155
SOLUTION 1
ABC Limited
Computation of income tax liabilities
For assessment years 2021 and 2022
156
Assessment year 2022 N
Adjusted profit 25,621,240
Capital allowances (2,028,425)
Total profit 23,592,815
NOTE
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Examiner’s report
The question tests the candidates‟ knowledge of the computation of taxes payable by a
company.
This being a compulsory question, about 100% of the candidates attempted the
question and their performance was above average.
i) Capture the costs of plant and furniture omitted in PPE as disallowable expenses;
ii) Reflect these costs as additions to the relevant assets in the computation of
capital allowances for assessment year (A.Y.) 2021; and
iii) Prorate the annual allowance in A.Y. 2021.
Candidates are advised to read widely and be conversant with the provisions of the
Companies Income Tax Act Cap. C 21 LFN 2004 (as amended) before sitting for the
subsequent examination to enhance better performance.
Marking guide
Marks
Heading - Name of company ¼
- Computation of income tax liabilities ¼
- Assessment years ¼
Basis period (½ mark for each of the 2 correct basis periods) 1
Computation of adjusted profit
Net profit accounts (½ mark for each of the 2 points) 1
Disallowable expenses (1 mark for each of the 16 points) 16
Dividend received (gross) (1 mark for each of the 2 points) 2
Assessment year 2021
Adjusted profit ½
Capital allowances ½
Total profit ½
Companies income tax payable ¼
Tertiary education tax payable ¼
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Computation of capital allowances
Heading 1
/4
Assessment year 2021
Cost (1/4 mark each for any correct cost) 3
/4
Assets disallowed (capital in nature) /4
2
SOLUTION 2
NOTE
The dividend received from an approved unit trust scheme is tax exempt, hence the
exclusion in the computation.
159
Examiner’s report
The question tests the candidates‟ knowledge of the computation of personal income
tax (PIT) of an employee.
About 80% of the candidates attempted the question but the performance was fair.
The commonest pitfall of the candidates was their inability to compute the correct
consolidated relief allowance (CRA).
Candidates are advised to read relevant texts on taxation, ICAN Pathfinders and Study
Text.
Marking guide
Marks
Heading - Name of company 1
- Computation of income tax liabilities 1
- Assessment year 1
Basic salary 2½
Bonus 2½
Income from trade 2½
Interest 2½
Life assurance premium 2½
Computation of consolidated relief allowance:
- 1% of N77,550,000 1
- N200,000 1
- whichever is higher ½
- 20% of N77,550,000 2
Total 20
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SOLUTION 3
a) Opion Nigeria Limited
Computation of monthly VAT payable
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b) Opion Nigeria Limited
Computation of monthly VAT penalties
Month Jan Feb March April May June July Aug Sept Oct Nov Dec Monthly
total
N N N N N N N N N N N N N
Jan. 2021 - - - - - - - - - - - - -
Feb. 2021 50,000 - - - - - - - - - - - 50,000
March 2021 25,000 50,000 - - - - - - - - - 75,000
April 2021 25,000 25,000 50,000 - - - - - - - - 100,000
May 2021 25,000 25,000 25,000 50,000 - - - - - - - - 125,000
June 2021 25,000 25,000 25,000 25,000 50,000 - - - - - - - 150,000
July 2021 25,000 25,000 25,000 25,000 25,000 50,000 - - - - - - 175,000
Aug. 2021 25,000 25,000 25,000 25,000 25,000 25,000 50,000 - - - - - 200,000
Sept. 2021 25,000 25,000 25,000 25,000 25,000 25,000 25,000 50,000 - - - - 225,000
Oct. 2021 25,000 25,000 25,000 25,000 25,000 25,000 25,000 25,000 50,000 - - - 250,000
Nov. 2021 25,000 25,000 25,000 25,000 25,000 25,000 25,000 25,000 25,000 50,000 - - 275,000
Dec. 2021 25,000 25,000 25,000 25,000 25,000 25,000 25,000 25,000 25,000 25,000 50,000 - 300,000
Total 300,000 275,000 250,000 225,000 200,000 175,000 150,000 125,000 100,000 75,000 50,000 - 1,925,000
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Examiner’s report
The question tests candidates‟ knowledge of filing of monthly value added tax (VAT)
returns and the penalties payable for non-filing of same.
About 50% of the candidates attempted the question but the performance was poor.
Most of the candidates did not adjust for sales returns in the ascertainment of net
gross turnover for the months of January to March 2021 before computing the output
VAT. Additionally, they found it difficult to ascertain the penalties payable for late
filing of monthly VAT returns.
Candidates are advised to make use of the Institute‟s Pathfinders and Study Text in
their preparations for subsequent examination.
Marking guide
Marks Marks
a) Computation of monthly VAT payable
Heading - Name of company ½
- Computation of monthly VAT payable ½
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SOLUTION 4
Stakeholders and their responsibilities as per the National tax policy (NTP),
2017
(a) The government
All levels and arms of government, ministries, extra-ministerial departments
and agencies where applicable shall:
(i) Implement and regularly review tax policies and laws;
(ii) Provide information on all revenue collected on a quarterly basis;
(iii) Ensure adequate funding, administrative and operational autonomy of
tax authorities; and
(iv) Ensure a reasonable transition period of between three and six
months before implementation of a new tax.
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their professional code of conduct and ethics; and
(v) Ensure that aspiring political office holders clearly understand the tax
policy and the Nigeria tax system and are able to articulate their plans
for the tax system to which they will be held accountable.
Examiner’s report
The question tests the candidates‟ knowledge of the other stakeholders the
government must collaborate with and their responsibilities to ensure the success of
the National tax policy (NTP).
About 80% of the candidates attempted the question but performance was fair.
Many of the candidates displayed poor knowledge of National tax policy (NTP), 2017,
as they could not explain the responsibilities of the various stakeholders.
Candidates should be conversant with the provisions of the relevant tax laws and
circulars.
Marking guide
Marks Marks
a) The government
1¼ marks each for any correct answer 5
b) The taxpayer
1¼ marks each for any correct answer subject to a
maximum of 4 points 5
SOLUTION 5
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i) Section 9 of CITA (as amended)
Under section 9(1) (c) of the Act, gross dividend and interest received
by a lender and borrower, being income, are taxable.
ii) Section 23 of CITA (as amended)
Despite the provision of section 9 (1) (c) of CITA which regards gross
dividend and interest received by a lender and borrower as taxable,
section 23(1)(t) and (u) of the Act, provides that dividend received by a
lender from a borrower or by an agent from a borrower under SEC
Lending is a franked investment income, hence it is not subject to
further tax in the hand of the lender.
Given the provisions of section 23(1) of the Act, interest received by an
agent from a lender under SEC lending is tax exempt in the hand of the
agent.
iii) Section 24 of CITA (as amended)
Interest paid by a lender to an agent or a borrower under a SEC Lending
is an allowable deduction under section 24(1)(l) of the Act.
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(b) Dividend and interest received by an individual under a SEC Lending
Given the fact that the above stated exemptions and concessions provided in
CITA relate to persons taxable under CITA, dividend and interest received
under SEC Lending by individuals are not tax exempt.
(c) Documents and transactions that are exempt from stamp duties are:
(i) All documents issued by the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) in
relation to a SEC Lending;
(ii) Shares, stocks or securities returned to a lender or its recognised agent by
a borrower in accordance with the rules of Securities and Exchange
Commission (SEC) Lending;
(iii) Receipts given by any person under a Securities and Exchange
Commission (SEC) Lending; and
(iv) Shares, stocks or securities transferred by a lender to its agent or
borrower in furtherance of a Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC)
Lending.
Examiner’s report
The question tests the candidates‟ knowledge of taxation of regulated securities
lending transactions in respect of dividend and interest received, fees, and other
benefits for individuals and companies.
About 35% of the candidates attempted the question and performance was poor.
The commonest pitfall of the candidates was their inability to explain the taxation of
dividend, interest received, and other fees in respect of regulated securities lending
transactions.
Candidates are advised to cover the syllabus adequately before sitting for ICAN
examination.
Marking guide
Marks
a) Taxation of dividend and interest received - CITA
(1 mark for any correct point) 7
b) Tax treatment of dividend and interest received by an individual- PITA
(2 marks for correct discussion of tax/statement of dividend and interest
received by an individual)
2
c) Documents and transactions exempt from stamp duties
(1½ marks for any correct point) 6
Total 15
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SOLUTION 6
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(iii) Life assurance premium
A deduction of the annual amount of any premium paid by the individual
during the year preceding the year of assessment to an insurance
company in respect of insurance on his life or the life of his spouse.
(iv) National pension scheme
The Pension Reform Act 2014 (PRA), established a uniform contributory
pension scheme for payment of retirement benefits of employees. The
scheme applies to all employees in both the public and private sectors
who are in employment in an organisation in which there are 15 or more
employees.
The rate of contribution to the scheme shall be a minimum of 8% of
employee‟s monthly emolument (i.e. basic salary, housing allowance
and transport allowance) as contribution for employees in the public
and private sectors and 10% of the monthly emoluments as employer‟s
contribution.
However, contributions made by an employee to the scheme shall be
tax deductible.
Notwithstanding the foregoing mode of contribution to the scheme, an
employer may agree or elect to bear the full burden of the scheme,
provided that in such a case, the employer‟s contribution shall not be
less than 20% of the monthly emoluments of the employee.
It is pertinent to state that the tax relief is only limited to pension
contributions to schemes, provident or retirement benefits fund that
are recognised under the Pension Reform Act, 2014.
(v) Gratuities
Gratuity is money paid to an employee who is retiring or leaving his
employer after several years of service. Gratuity is tax deductible.
“Gross income” means income from all sources less non-taxable income,
income on which no further tax is payable, tax-exempt items listed in
paragraph (2) of the sixth schedule, all allowable business expenses and
capital allowance – section 33 (2) and (3) of PITA 2004 (as amended).
169
Examiner’s report
The question tests the candidates‟ knowledge of four tax exempt deductions and
computations of consolidated relief allowance (CRA), taking into consideration the
provisions of Personal Income Tax ( Amendment) Act, 2011(as amended).
About 85% of the candidates attempted the question but performance was poor.
The commonest pitfall was the candidates‟ inability to explain the tax exempt
deductions in the computation of personal income tax.
Marking guide
Marks Marks
a) Tax-exempt deductions
(3 marks for any correct answer subject to a maximum of 4
points) 12
b) Computation of consolidated relief allowance:
Definition of gross emolument ½
Definition of gross income ½
N200,000 ½
1% of gross income ½
20% of gross income 1 3
Total 15
SOLUTION 7
a. The term “Contract of Supplies” covers all forms of supplies, deliveries, or the
like through competitive bidding tenders, LPOs or other arrangements,
whether oral or written. The term does not cover the across counter cash sales
or supplies in the ordinary course of sales.
Contract, which is outright sale and purchase of goods and property in the
ordinary course of business are exempted from withholding tax.
Section 73 of CITN and Section 81 of PITA empowered the Finance Minister to
add to the above list from time to time through official gazette.
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(iii) Penalty for failure to deduct - Taxpayers who are essentially obliged
under the income tax law to register for income tax, does so as an
unpaid agent of the relevant tax authority. Therefore, penalising the
tax agent for failure to deduct withholding tax may be considered as
counter-productive considering that the tax agent is not paid for
assisting the relevant tax authority in this regard;
c. On November 30, 2020, the Tax Appeal Tribunal (TAT), Lagos Zone, in the case
of Tetra Pak West Africa Limited Vs Federal Inland Revenue Service, ruled that
sales in the ordinary course of business shall not be liable to withholding tax
(WHT).
The TAT laid the following criteria in ascertaining what constitutes “sales in
the ordinary course of business”:
(i) The inclusion of the transaction/activity in the objects of the
memorandum of association;
(ii) The nature and practice of the taxpayer‟s business and industry;
(iii) The history of the taxpayer in relation to the activity; and
(iv) The frequency of the type of transaction.
Examiner’s report
The question tests the candidates‟ knowledge of “contract of supplies”, challenges
bedeviling withholding tax scheme, and criteria laid out in the Tax Appeal Tribunal
judgement for the ascertainment of what constitutes „sales in the ordinary course of
business”.
About 65% of the candidates attempted the question but the performance was
average.
Many of the candidates could not explain the criteria laid out in the judgement of the
Tax Appeal Tribunal for the ascertainment of what constitutes sales in the ordinary
course of business.
Candidates are advised to adequately cover the syllabus and read the Institute‟s
Pathfinders and Study Text when preparing for future examination.
171
Marking guide
Marks Marks
a) Explanation of the term “Contract of suppliers”
- Definition 2
- Stating tax exemption of sale and purchase of goods
in the ordinary course of business 2
- Stating that the Finance Minister has the
prerogative 1 5
to elongate the list
b) Challenges bedeviling the withholding tax system
(1 mark each for any correct solution) 5
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