CLASS – XII

SUB: PHYSICS

Ch 1

Q1. (a) Find expressions for the force and torque on an electric dipole kept in a uniform electric field.

OR

An electric dipole is held in a uniform electric field. (i) Using suitable diagram show that it does not
undergo any translatory motion, and (ii) derive an expression for torque acting on it and specify its
direction. (b) Derive an expression for the work done in rotating a dipole from the angle θ0 to θ1 in a
uniform electric field E.

Q2. Derive an expression for the electric field intensity at a point on the equatorial line of an electric
dipole of dipole moment p and length 2a. What is the direction of this field?

Q3. A charge is distributed uniformly over a ring of radius ‘a’. Obtain an expression for the electric
intensity E at a point on the axis of the ring. Hence show that for points at large distances from the
ring, it behaves like a point charge.

Q4. State and Prove Gauss theorem in electrostatics.

Q5. A thin conducting spherical shell of radius R has charge Q spread uniformly over its surface.
Using Gauss’s theorem, derive an expression for the electric field at a point outside the shell. Draw a
graph of electric field E(r) with distance r from the centre of the shell for 0 ≤ r ≤∞.

Q6. State Gauss theorem in electrostatics. Apply this theorem to obtain the expression for the
electric field at a point due to an infinitely long, thin, uniformly charged straight wire of linear charge
density λ C m–1.

Q7. (a) Define electric flux. Write its SI unit. (b) Using Gauss’s law, prove that the electric field at a
point due to a uniformly charged infinite plane sheet is independent of the distance from it. (c) How
is the field directed if (i) the sheet is positively charged, (ii) negatively charged?
𝜎
Q8. Show that the electric field at the surface of a charged conductor is 𝐸⃗ = 𝜀 𝑛̂ where σ is surface
0
charge density and nt is a unit vector normal to the surface in the outward direction.

Q9. A uniform electric field 𝐸⃗ = 𝐸𝑥 ⅈ N/C for x > 0 and 𝐸⃗ = −𝐸𝑥 ⅈ N/C for x < 0 are given. A right
circular cylinder of length l cm and radius r cm has its centre at the origin and its axis along the X-axis.
Find out the net outward flux. Using Gauss’s law, write the expression for the net charge within the
cylinder.

Q10. Two small identical electrical dipoles AB and CD, each of dipole moment ‘p’ are kept at an angle
of 120° as shown in the figure. What is the resultant dipole moment
of this combination? If this system is subjected to electric field 𝐸⃗
directed along + X direction, what will be the magnitude and
direction of the torque acting on this?

Q11. State Gauss’s law in electrostatics. A cube with each side ‘a’ is
kept in an electric field given by 𝐸⃗ = C X 𝑟̂ (as is shown in the figure)
where C is a positive dimensional constant. Find out (i) the electric
flux through the cube, and (ii) the net charge inside the cube.
 Ch- 2

Q1. Derive an expression for the electric potential at a point due to an electric dipole. Mention the
contrasting features of electric potential of a dipole at a point as compared to that due to a single
charge.

Q2. Briefly explain the principle of a capacitor. Derive an expression for the capacitance of a parallel
plate capacitor, whose plates are separated by a dielectric medium.

Q3. Derive an expression for the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor when a dielectric slab of
dielectric constant K and thickness t= d /2 = but of same area as that of the plates is inserted
between the capacitor plates. (d = separation between the plates).

Q4. (a) Explain why, for any charge configuration, the equipotential surface through a point is normal
to the electric field at that point. Draw a sketch of equipotential surfaces due to a single charge (– q),
depicting the electric field lines due to the charge. (b) Obtain an expression for the work done to
dissociate the system of three charges placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side ‘a’ as
shown below.

Q5. If N drops of same size each having the same charge, coalesce to form a bigger drop. How will
the following vary with respect to single small drop? [CBSE Sample Paper 2017] (i) Total charge on
bigger drop (ii) Potential on the bigger drop (iii) Capacitance

Q6. (a) Derive an expression for the electric potential at any point along the axial line of an electric
dipole. (b) Find the electrostatic potential at a point on equatorial line of an electric dipole.

Q7. A charge Q is distributed over the surfaces of two concentric hollow spheres of radii r and R (R >>
r), such that their surface charge densities are equal. Derive the expression for the potential at the
common centre.

Q8. Two identical parallel plate capacitors A and B are connected

to a battery of V volts with the switch S closed. The switch is now
opened and the free space between the plates of the capacitors
is filled with a dielectric of dielectric constant K. Find the ratio of
the total electrostatic energy stored in both capacitors before
and after the introduction of the dielectric.

Q9. A slab of material of dielectric constant K

has the same area as that of the plates of a
parallel plate capacitor but has the thickness
d/2, where d is the separation between the
plates. Find out the expression for its
capacitance when the slab is inserted
between the plates of the capacitor.

Q10. In a network, four capacitors C1, C2, C3 and C4 are connected as shown in the figure.
(a) Calculate the net capacitance in the circuit. (b) If the charge on the capacitor C1 is 6 μC, (i)
calculate the charge on the capacitors C3 and C4, and (ii) net energy stored in the capacitors C3 and
C4 connected in series.

CH- 3

Q1. Derive an expression for drift velocity of free electrons in a conductor in terms of relaxation time
of electrons.

Q2. Prove that the current density of a metallic conductor is directly proportional to the drift speed
of electrons.

Q3. Define relaxation time of the free electrons drifting in a conductor. How is it related to the drift
velocity of free electrons? Use this relation to deduce the expression for the electrical resistivity of
the material.

Q4. Draw a circuit diagram showing balancing of Wheatstone bridge. Use Kirchhoff’s rules to obtain
the balance condition in terms of the resistances of four arms of Wheatstone Bridge.

Q5. (a) Using Kirchhoff’s rules, calculate the current in the arm
AC of the given circuit. (b) On what principle does the meter
bridge work? Why are the metal strips used in the bridge?

Q6. Use Kirchhoff’s rules to determine the potential difference

between the points A and D when no current flows in the arm
BE of the electric network shown in the figure.

Q7. Two metallic wires, P1 and P2 of the same

material and same length but different cross-
sectional areas, A1 and A2 are joined together and
connected to a source of emf. Find the ratio of the
drift velocities of free electrons in the two wires
when they are connected (i) in series, and (ii) in
parallel.

Q8. A metal rod of square cross-sectional area A

having length l has current I flowing through it when a potential difference of V volt is applied across
its ends (figure (i)). Now the rod is cut parallel to its length into two identical pieces and joined as
shown in figure (ii). What potential difference must be maintained across the length 2l so that the
current in the rod is still I?

Q9. Using the concept of free electrons in a conductor, derive the expression for the conductivity of a
wire in terms of number density and relaxation time. Hence obtain the relation between current
density and the applied electric field E.

Q10. (a) State Kirchhoff’s rules and explain on what basis they are justified. (b) Two cells of emfs E1
and E2 and internal resistances r1 and r2 are connected in parallel. Derive the expression for the (i)
emf and (ii) internal resistance of a single equivalent cell which can replace this combination.

Ch-4

Q1. State and explain Biot-Savart law. Use it to derive an expression for the magnetic field produced
at a point near a long current carrying wire.

Q2. (i) Derive an expression for the magnetic field at a point on the axis of a current carrying circular
loop. (ii) Two co-axial circular loops L1 and L2 of radii 3 cm and 4 cm are placed as shown. What
should be the magnitude and direction of the current in the loop L2 so that the net magnetic field at
the point O be zero?

Q3. (a) A straight thick long wire of uniform circular cross-section of radius ‘a’ is carrying a steady
current I. The current is uniformly distributed across the cross-section. Use Ampere’s circuital law to
obtain a relation showing the variation of the magnetic field (Br) inside and outside the wire with
distance r, (r ≤ a) and (r > a) of the field point from the centre of its cross-section. What is the
magnetic field at the surface of this wire? Plot a graph showing the nature of this variation.

(b) Calculate the ratio of magnetic field at a point a/ 2 above the surface of the wire to that at a point
a /2 below its surface. What is the maximum value of the field of this wire?

Q4. Using Ampere’s circuital law find an expression for the magnetic field at a point on the axis

of a long solenoid with closely wound turns.

Q5. Derive an expression for the force experienced by a current carrying straight conductor placed in
a magnetic field. Under what condition is this force maximum?

Q6. Derive an expression for the force per unit length between two long straight parallel current
carrying conductors. Hence define SI unit of current (ampere).

Q7. Derive an expression for torque acting on a rectangular current carrying loop kept in a uniform
magnetic field B. Indicate the direction of torque acting on the loop.

Q8. (i) What is the relationship between the current and the magnetic moment of a current carrying
circular loop? (ii) Deduce an expression for magnetic dipole moment of an electron revolving around
a nucleus in a circular orbit. Indicate the direction of magnetic dipole moment. Use the expression to
derive the relation between the magnetic moment of an electron moving in a circle and its related
angular momentum. (iii) A muon is a particle that has the same charge as an electron but is 200
times heavier than it. If we had an atom in which the muon revolves around a proton instead of an
electron, what would be the magnetic moment of the muon in the ground state of such an atom?
Q9. Explain, using a labelled diagram, the principle and working of a moving coil galvanometer. What
is the function of (i) uniform radial magnetic field, (ii) soft iron core? Define the terms (i) current
sensitivity and (ii) voltage sensitivity of a galvanometer. Why does increasing the current sensitivity
not necessarily increase voltage sensitivity?

Q10. A galvanometer of resistance G is converted into a voltmeter to measure upto V volts by

connecting a resistance R1 in series with the coil. If a resistance R2 is connected in series with it, then
it can measure upto V/2 volts. Find the resistance, in terms of R1 and R2, required to be connected to
convert it into a voltmeter that can read upto 2 V. Also find the resistance G of the galvanometer in
terms of R1 and R2.

Q11. A rectangular loop of wire of size 2.5 cm × 4 cm carries a steady current of 1 A. A

straight wire carrying 2 A current is kept near the loop as shown. If the loop and the wire
are coplanar, find the (i) torque acting on the loop and (ii) the magnitude and direction
of the force on the loop due to the current carrying wire.

Q12. Write the expression for the magnetic moment 𝑀 ⃗⃗ due to a planar square loop of
side ‘l’ carrying a steady current I in a vector form. In the given figure this loop is placed
in a horizontal plane near a long straight conductor carrying a steady current I1 at a
distance l as shown. Give reasons to explain that the loop will experience a net force but
no torque. Write the expression for this force acting on the loop.

Q13. The magnitude F of the force between two straight parallel current carrying conductors kept at
𝜇0
a distance d apart in air is given by F = 2𝜋𝑑 I1I2where I1 and I2 are the currents flowing through the two
wires. Use this expression, and the sign convention that the: “Force of attraction is assigned a
negative sign and force of repulsion is assigned a positive sign”. Draw graphs showing dependence of
F on (i) I1 I2 when d is kept constant (ii) d when the product I1 I2 is maintained at a constant positive
value. (iii) d when the product I1 I2 is maintained at a constant negative value.

Q12. The figure shows three infinitely long straight parallel

current carrying conductors. Find the (i) magnitude and
direction of the net magnetic field at point A lying on
conductor 1, (ii) magnetic force on conductor 2.

Q13. a) (i) A circular loop of area A, " carrying a current I is

placed in a uniform magnetic field B. " Write the expression
for the torque x " acting on it in a vector form. (ii) If the
loop is free to turn, what would be its orientation of stable equilibrium? Show that in this
orientation, the flux of net field (external field + the field produced by the loop) is maximum. (b) Find
out the expression for the magnetic field due to a long solenoid carrying a current I and having n
number of turns per unit length.
Q14. A uniform magnetic field B " is set up along the positive x-axis. A particle of charge ‘q’ and mass
‘m’ moving with a velocity v " enters the field at the origin in X-Y plane such that it has velocity
components both along and perpendicular to the magnetic field B. " Trace, giving reason, the
trajectory followed by the particle. Find out the expression for the distance moved by the particle
along the magnetic field in one rotation.

Q15. (a) An electron moving horizontally with a velocity of 4 × 104 m/s enters a region of uniform
magnetic field of 10–5 T acting vertically upward as shown in the figure. Draw its trajectory and find
out the time it takes to come out of the region of magnetic field. (b) A straight wire of mass 200 g
and length 1.5 m carries a current of 2A. It is suspended in mid air by a uniform magnetic field B.
What is the magnitude of the magnetic field?

Q16. Two identical circular loops, P and Q, each of radius r and carrying currents I and 2I respectively
are lying in parallel planes such that they have a common axis. The direction of current in both the
loops is clockwise as seen from O which is equidistant from the both loops. Find the magnitude of
the net magnetic field at point O.

Q17. Two identical coils P and Q each of radius R are lying in perpendicular planes such that they
have a common centre. Find the magnitude and direction of magnetic field at the common centre of
the two coils, if they carry currents equal to I and √3 I respectively.

Q18. Two small identical circular loops, marked (1) and (2), carrying equal
currents, are placed with the geometrical axes perpendicular to each other as
shown in the figure. Find the magnitude and direction of the net magnetic
field produced at the point O.

Q19. A circular coil of ‘N’ turns and diameter ‘d’ carries a current ‘I’. It is
unwound and rewound to make another coil of diameter ‘2d’, current ‘I’
remaining the same. Calculate the ratio of the magnetic moments of the new
coil and the original coil.

Q20. Derive an expression for the axial magnetic field of a finite solenoid of
length 2l and radius r carrying current I. Under what condition does the field become equivalent to
that produced by a bar magnet?

Q21. (a) Briefly explain how a galvanometer is converted into a voltmeter. (b) A voltmeter of a certain
range is constructed by connecting a resistance of 980 in series with a galvanometer. When the
resistance of 470 is connected in series, the range gets halved. Find the resistance of the
galvanometer.

Q22. A multirange voltmeter can be constructed by using a

galvanometer circuit as shown in the figure. We want to construct a
voltmeter that can measure 2 V, 20 V and 200 V using a galvanometer
of resistance 10 and that produces maximum deflection for current of
1 mA. Find the value of R1, R2 and R3 that have to be used.

Ch – 5
Q1. A bar magnet of magnetic moment 1.5 JT–1 lies aligned with the direction of a uniform magnetic
field of 0.22 T. (a) What is the amount of work required by an external torque to turn the magnet so
as to align its magnetic moment (i) normal to the field direction? and (ii) opposite to the field
direction? (b) What is the torque on the magnet in cases (i) and (ii)?

Q2. A closely wound solenoid of 2000 turns and area of cross-section 1.6 × 10–4 m2 , carrying a
current of 4.0 A is suspended through its centre allowing it to turn in a horizontal plane. (a) What is
the magnetic moment associated with the solenoid? (b) What are the force and torque on the
solenoid if a uniform magnetic field of 7.5 × 10–2 T is set up at an angle of 30° with the axis of the
solenoid?

Q3. A short bar magnet has a magnetic moment of 0.48 JT–1. Give the magnitude and direction of
the magnetic field produced by the magnet at a distance of 10 cm from the centre of magnet on (a)
the axis, (b) equatorial lines (normal bisector) of the magnet.

Q4. How does the (i) pole strength and (ii) magnetic moment of each part of a bar magnet change if
it is cut into two equal pieces transverse to length?

Q5. A hypothetical bar magnet (AB) is cut into two equal parts. One part is now kept over the other,
so that the pole C2 is above C1. If M is the magnetic moment of the original magnet, what would be
the magnetic moment of the combination, so formed?

Q6. Write two properties of a material suitable for making (a) a permanent magnet, and (b) an
electromagnet.

Q7. Explain the following: (i) Why do magnetic field lines form continuous closed loops? (ii) Why are
the field lines repelled (expelled) when a diamagnetic material is placed in an external uniform
magnetic field?

Q8. Show diagrammatically the behaviour of magnetic field lines in the presence of (i) paramagnetic
and (ii) diamagnetic substances. How does one explain this distinguishing feature?

Q9. (a) An iron ring of relative permeability μr has windings of insulated copper wire of n turns per
metre. When the current in the windings is I, find the expression for the magnetic field in the ring. (b)
The susceptibility of a magnetic material is 0.9853. Identify the type of magnetic material. Draw the
modification of the field pattern on keeping a piece of this material in a uniform magnetic field.

Q10. (a) Show that the time period (T) of oscillations of a freely suspended magnetic dipole of
𝐼
magnetic moment (m) in a uniform magnetic field (B) is given by T=2π √𝑀𝐵, where I is a moment of
inertia of the magnetic dipole. (b) Identify the following magnetic materials: (i) A material having
susceptibility χm = .0 00015– (ii) A material having susceptibility χm = 10- 5.

Ch 6

Q1. (a) What is induced emf? Write Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction. Express it
mathematically. (b) A conducting rod of length ‘l’, with one end pivoted, is rotated with a uniform
angular speed ‘ω’ in a vertical plane, normal to a uniform magnetic field ‘B’. Deduce an expression
for the emf induced in this rod. If resistance of rod is R, what is the current induced in it?
Q2. (a) Describe a simple experiment (or activity) to show that the polarity of emf induced in a coil is
always such that it tends to produce an induced current which opposes the change of magnetic flux
that produces it. (b) The current flowing through an inductor of self inductance L is continuously
increasing. Plot a graph showing the variation of (i) Magnetic flux versus the current (ii) Induced emf
versus dI/dt (iii) Magnetic potential energy stored versus the current.

Q3. Derive expression for self inductance of a long air-cored solenoid of length l, cross-sectional area
A and having number of turns N.

Q4. Obtain the expression for the mutual inductance of two long co-axial solenoids S1 and S2 wound
one over the other, each of length L and radii r1 and r2 and n1 and n2 be number of turns per unit
length, when a current I is set up in the outer solenoid S2.

Q5. State Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction.

Figure shows a rectangular conductor PQRS in which
the conductor PQ is free to move in a uniform
magnetic field B perpendicular to the plane of the
paper. The field extends from x = 0 to x = b and is zero
for x > b. Assume that only the arm PQ possesses
resistance r. When the arm PQ is pulled outward from
x = 0 to x = 2b and is then moved backward to x =0
with constant speed v, obtain the expressions for the
flux and the induced emf. Sketch the variations of
these quantities with distance 0 ≤ x ≤ 2b.

Q6. Figure shows a rectangular loop conducting PQRS in

which the arm PQ is free to move. A uniform magnetic field
acts in the direction perpendicular to the plane of the loop.
Arm PQ is moved with a velocity v towards the arm RS.
Assuming that the arms QR, RS and SP have negligible
resistances and the moving arm PQ has the resistance r,
obtain the expression for (i) the current in the loop (ii) the
force and (iii) the power required to move the arm PQ.

Q7. The currents flowing in the two coils of self-inductance

L1=16 mH and L2=12 mH are increasing at the same rate. If the power supplied to the two coils are
equal, find the ratio of (i) induced voltages, (ii) the currents and (iii) the energies stored in the two
coils at a given instant.

Q8. Figure shows a metal rod PQ of length l, resting on the

smooth horizontal rails AB positioned between the poles of a
permanent magnet. The rails, rod and the magnetic field B are in
three mutually perpendicular directions. A galvanometer G
connects the rails through a key ‘K’. Assume the magnetic field to
be uniform. Given the resistance of the closed loop containing
the rod is R.

(i) Suppose K is open and the rod is moved with a speed

v in the direction shown. Find the polarity and the
magnitude of induced emf. (ii) With K open and the rod moving uniformly, there is no net
force on the electrons in the rod PQ even though they do experience magnetic force due
 to the motion of the rod. Explain. (iii) What is the induced emf in the moving rod if the
magnetic field is parallel to the rails instead of being perpendicular?

Q9. Define the term self-inductance of a solenoid. Obtain the expression for the magnetic energy
stored in an inductor of self-inductance L to build up a current I through it.

Q10. (a) How does the mutual inductance of a pair of coils change when (i) distance between the
coils is increased and (ii) number of turns in the coils is increased? (b) A plot of magnetic flux (φ)
versus current (I), is shown in the figure for two inductors A and B. Which of the two has large value
of self-inductance? (c) How is the mutual inductance of a pair of coils affected when (i) separation
between the coils is increased? (ii) the number of turns in each coil is increased? (iii) a thin iron sheet
is placed between the two coils, other factors remaining the same? Justify your answer in each case.

Q11. In an experimental arrangement of two coils C1 and C2 placed coaxially parallel to each other,
find out the expression for the emf induced in the coil C1 (of N1 turns) corresponding to the change of
current I2 in the coil C2 (of N2 turns).

Q12. A 0.5 m long solenoid of 10 turns/cm has area of cross-section 1 cm2 . Calculate the voltage
induced across its ends if the current in the solenoid is changed from 1A to 2A in 0.1s.

Q13. A square loop MNOP of side 20 cm is placed horizontally in a uniform magnetic field acting
vertically downwards as shown in the figure. The loop is pulled
with a constant velocity of 20 cms–1 till it goes out of the field.

(i) Depict the direction of the induced current in the

loop as it goes out of the field. For how long would
the current in the loop persist? (ii) Plot a graph
showing the variation of magnetic flux and induced
emf as a function of time.

Q13. The magnetic field through a circular loop of wire 12 cm in

radius and 8.5 resistance, changes with time as shown in the
figure. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of the
loop. Calculate the induced current in the loop and plot it as a
function of time.

Q14. Predict the directions of induced currents in metal rings 1

and 2 lying in the same plane where current I in the wire is
increasing steadily.

Q15. A rectangular loop of wire is pulled to the right, away from the long straight
wire through which a steady current I flows
upwards. What is the direction of induced current in
the loop?

Ch – 7
Q1. Explain the term inductive reactance. Show graphically the variation of inductive reactance with
frequency of the applied alternating voltage. An ac voltage V = V0 sin ωt is applied across a pure
inductor of inductance L. Find an expression for the current i, flowing in the circuit and show
mathematically that the current flowing through it lags behind the applied voltage by a phase angle
of 2 r . Also draw (i) phasor diagram (ii) graphs of V and i versus ωt for the circuit.

Q2. Derive an expression for impedance of an ac circuit consisting of an inductor and a resistor.

Q3. (a) An ac source of voltage V = V0 sin ωt is connected to a series combination of L, C and R. Use
the phasor diagram to obtain expressions for impedance of the circuit and phase angle between
voltage and current. Find the condition when current will be in phase with the voltage. What is the
circuit in this condition called? (b) In a series LR circuit XL = R and power factor of the circuit is P1.
When capacitor with capacitance C such that XL = XC is put in series, the power factor becomes P2.
Calculate P1/ P2 .

Q4. A device ‘X’ is connected to an ac source V = V0 sin ωt. The variation of voltage, current and
power in one cycle is show in the following graph:

(a) Identify the device ‘X’. (b) Which of the curves, A, B and C represent the voltage, current and
the power consumed in the circuit? Justify your answer. (c) How does its impedance vary
with frequency of the ac source? Show graphically. (d) Obtain an expression for the current
in the circuit and its phase relation with ac voltage.

Q5. (a) State the condition for resonance to occur in series LCR ac circuit and derive an expression for
resonant frequency. (b) Draw a plot showing the variation of the peak current (im) with frequency of
the ac source used. Define the quality factor Q of the circuit.

Q6. (a) An alternating voltage V = Vm sin ω applied to a series LCR circuit drives a current given by i =
im sin (ωt +φ) . Deduce an expression for the average power dissipated over a cycle. (b) For circuits
used for transporting electric power, a low power factor implies large power loss in transmission.
Explain.

Q7. Describe briefly, with the help of a labelled diagram, the basic elements of an ac generator. State
its underlying principle. Show diagrammatically how an alternating emf is generated by a loop of
wire rotating in a magnetic field. Write the expression for the instantaneous value of the emf induced
in the rotating loop.

Q8. (a) Describe briefly, with the help of a labelled diagram, the working of a step up transformer. (b)
Write any two sources of energy loss in a transformer. (c) A step up transformer converts a low
voltage into high voltage. Does it not violate the principle of conservation of energy? Explain.
Q9. (a) Draw the diagram of a device which is used to decrease high ac voltage into a low ac voltage
and state its working principle. Write four sources of energy loss in this device. (b) A small town with
a demand of 1200 kW of electric power at 220 V is situated 20 km away from an electric plant
generating power at 440 V. The resistance of the two wire line carrying power is 0.5 Ω per km. The
town gets the power from the line through a 4000-220 V step-down transformer at a sub-station in
the town. Estimate the line power loss in the form of heat.

Q10. A 2 µF capacitor, 100 W resistor and 8 H inductor are connected in series with an ac source. (i)
What should be the frequency of the source such that current drawn in the circuit is maximum?
What is this frequency called? (ii) If the peak value of emf of the source is 200 V, find the maximum
current. (iii) Draw a graph showing variation of amplitude of circuit current with changing frequency
of applied voltage in a series LRC circuit for two different values of resistance R1 and R2 (R1 > R2). (iv)
Define the term ‘Sharpness of Resonance’. Under what condition, does a circuit become more
selective?

Q11. (a) What do you understand by ‘sharpness of resonance’ for a series

LCR resonant circuit? How is it related with the quality factor ‘Q’ of the
circuit? Using the graphs given in the diagram, explain the factors which
affect it. For which graph is the resistance (R) minimum?

(b) A 2 µF capacitor , 100 Ω resistor and 8 H inductor are connected in

series with an ac source. Find the frequency of the ac source for
which the current drawn in the circuit is maximum. If the peak
value of emf of the source is 200 V, calculate the (i) maximum
current, and (ii) inductive and capacitive reactance of the circuit at
resonance.

Q12. The figure shows a series LCR circuit connected to a variable

frequency 230 V source.

(a) Determine the source frequency which

drives the circuit in resonance. (b) Calculate
the impedance of the circuit and amplitude
of current at resonance. (c) Show that
potential drop across LC combination is zero
at resonating frequency.

Q13. The primary coil of an ideal step up transformer has 100 turns and transformation ratio is also
100. The input voltage and power are 220 V and 1100 W respectively. Calculate (a) the number of
turns in the secondary coil. (b) the current in the primary coil. (c) the voltage across the secondary
coil. (d) the current in the secondary coil. (e) the power in the secondary coil.

Q14. A circuit is set up by connecting inductance L = 100 mH, resistor R = 100 Ω and a capacitor of
reactance 200 Ω in series. An alternating emf of 150 √2 V, 500/π Hz is applied across this series
combination. Calculate the power dissipated in the resistor.

Q15. (a) For a given ac, i = im sin ωt, show that the average power dissipated in a resistor R over a
1
complete cycle is 2 I2 m R (b) A light bulb is rated at 100 W for a 220 V ac supply. Calculate the
resistance of the bulb.
Q16. (i) Find the value of the phase difference between the current and the voltage in the series LCR
circuit shown below. Which one leads in phase: current or voltage? (ii) Without making any other
change, find the value of the additional capacitor, C1, to be connected in parallel with the capacitor
C, in order to make the power factor of the circuit unity

Ch -8

Q1. Figure shows a capacitor made of two circular plates each of radius 12 cm and separated by 5.0
mm. The capacitor is being charged by an external source (not shown in the figure). The charging
current is constant and equal to 0.15 A. (a) Calculate the capacitance and the rate of change of
potential difference between the plates. (b) Obtain the displacement current across the plates. (c) Is
Kirchhoff’s first rule function rule valid at each plate of the capacitor? Explain.

Q2. A parallel plate capacitor (fig.) made of circular plates each of radius
R = 6.0 cm has a capacitance C = 100 pF. The capacitor is connected to a
230 V ac supply with an angular frequency of 300 rad/s.

(a) What is the rms value of the conduction current? (b) Is

conduction current equal to the displacement current? (c)
Determine the amplitude of magnetic field induction B at a
point 3.0 cm from the axis between the plates.

Q3. (a) What is the rms value of the conduction current? (b) Is conduction current equal to the
displacement current? (c) Determine the amplitude of magnetic field induction B at a point 3.0 cm
from the axis between the plates.

Q4. Suppose that the electric field amplitude of an electromagnetic wave is E0 = 120 N/C and that its
frequency ν = 50.0 MHz. (a) Determine B0, w, k and λ (b) Find expressions for 𝐸⃗ and 𝐵
⃗

Q5. Suppose that the electric field of an electromagnetic wave in vacuum is E= {(3.1 / N C) ( cos 1.8 .
rad/m)y+ ( 5 .4×106 rad s/ )t i (a) What is the direction of propagation? (b) What is the wavelength
λ? (c) What is the frequency ν? (d) What is the amplitude of the magnetic field part of the wave? (e)
Write an expression for the magnetic field part of the wave.

Q6. About 5% of the power of a 100 W light bulb is converted to visible radiation. What is the
average intensity of visible radiation (a) at a distance of 1 m from the bulb? (b) at a distance of 10 m?
Assume that the radiation is emitted isotopically and neglect reflection.
Q7. Arrange the following electromagnetic waves in the order of their increasing wavelength: (a) g-
rays (b) Microwave (c) X-rays (d) Radiowaves How are infra-red waves produced? What role does
infra-red radiation play in (i) maintaining the earth’s warmth and (ii) physical therapy?

Q8. Why does a galvanometer when connected in series with a capacitor show a momentary
deflection, when it is being charged or discharged? How does this observation lead to modifying the
Ampere’s circuital law? Hence write the generalised expression of Ampere’s law.

Q9. A capacitor, made of two parallel plates each of plate area A and separation d, is being charged
by an external ac source. Show that the displacement current inside the capacitor is the same as the
current charging the capacitor.

Q10. Write the expression for the generalised form of Ampere’s circuital law. Discuss its significance
and describe briefly how the concept of displacement current is explained through charging/
discharging of a capacitor in an electric circuit.

Q11. Considering the case of a parallel plate capacitor being charged, show how one is required to
generalise Ampere’s circuital law to include the term due to displacement current.

Q12. (a) Which one of the following electromagnetic radiations

has least frequency: UV radiations, X-rays, Microwaves? (b) How
do you show that electromagnetic waves carry energy and
momentum? (c) Write the expression for the energy density of
an electromagnetic wave propagating in free space.

Q13. (a) How are electromagnetic waves produced by oscillating

charges? (b) State clearly how a microwave oven works to heat
up a food item containing water molecules. (c) Why are
microwaves found useful for the radar systems in aircraft navigation?

Q14. Name the parts of the electromagnetic spectrum which is (i) suitable for radar systems used in
aircraft navigation. (ii) used to treat muscular strain. (iii) used as a diagnostic tool in medicine. Write
in brief, how these waves can be produced.

Q15. (i) Identify the part of the electromagnetic spectrum which is: (a) Suitable for radar system used
in aircraft navigation. (b) Produced by bombarding a metal target by high speed electrons. (ii) Why
does a galvanometer show a momentary deflection at the time of charging or discharging a
capacitor? Write the necessary expression to explain this observation.

Q16. Answer the following questions: (a) Name the EM waves which are produced during radioactive
decay of a nucleus. Write their frequency range. (b) Welders wear special glass goggles while
working. Why? Explain. (c) Why are infrared waves often called as heat waves? Give their one
application.

Q17. Answer the following: (a) Name the EM waves which are used for the treatment of certain
forms of cancer. Write their frequency range. (b) Thin ozone layer on top of stratosphere is crucial for
human survival. Why? (c) Why is the amount of the momentum transferred by the em waves
incident on the surface so small?

Q18. Electromagnetic waves with wavelength (i) λ1 is used in satellite communication (ii) λ2 is used
to kill germs in water purifie (iii) λ3 is used to detect leakage of oil in underground pipeline (iv) λ 4 is
used to improve visibility in runways during fog and mist condition (a) Identify and name the part of
electromagnetic spectrum to which these radiations belong. (b) Arrange these wavelengths in
ascending order of their magnitude. (c) Write one more application of each.

Ch- 9

Q1. (i) Derive the mirror formula. What is the corresponding formula for a thin lens? (ii) Draw a ray
diagram to show the image formation by a concave mirror when the object is kept between its focus
and the pole. Using this diagram, derive the magnification formula for the image formed.

Q2. With the help of a ray diagram, show the formation of image of a point object due to refraction
of light at a spherical surface separating two media of refractive indices n1 and n2 (n2 > n1)
𝑛 −𝑛 −𝑛 𝑛
respectively. Using this diagram, derive the relation 1 𝑅 2 = 𝑢 1 + 𝑣2 Write the sign conventions
used. What happens to the focal length of convex lens when it is immersed in water?

Q3. A spherical surface of radius of curvature R, separates a rarer and

a denser medium as shown in the figure. Complete the path of the
incident ray of light, showing the formation of a real image. Hence
derive the relation connecting object distance ‘u’, image distance ‘v’,
radius of curvature R and the refractive indices n1 and n2 of two
media. Briefly explain, how the focal length of a convex lens changes,
with increase in wavelength of incident light.

Q4. Draw a ray diagram for formation of image of a point object by a

thin double convex lens having radii of curvature R1 and R2. Hence, derive lens maker’s formula for a
double convex lens. State the assumptions made and sign convention used.

Q5. Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of real image of the same size as that of the object
placed in front of a converging lens. Using this ray diagram establish the relation between u, v and f
for this lens.

Q6. Derive the lens formula 1/f = 1/v – 1/U for a thin concave lens, using the necessary ray diagram.

Q7. (a) Draw the labelled ray diagram for the formation of image by a compound microscope. Derive
an expression for its total magnification (or magnifying power), when the final image is formed at the
near point. Why both objective and eyepiece of a compound microscope must have short focal
lengths? (b) Draw a ray diagram showing the image formation by a compound microscope. Hence
obtain expression for total magnification when the image is formed at infinity.

Q8. Draw a ray diagram showing the image formation of a distant object by a refracting telescope.
Define its magnifying power and write the two important factors considered to increase the
magnifying power. Describe briefly the two main limitations and explain how far these can be
minimised in a reflecting telescope.

Q9. (i) Draw a labelled ray diagram to obtain the real image formed by an astronomical telescope in
normal adjustment position. Define its magnifying power. (ii) You are given three lenses of power 0.5
D, 4 D and 10 D to design a telescope. (a) Which lenses should be used as objective and eyepiece?
Justify your answer. (b) Why is the aperture of the objective preferred to be large?

Q10. (a) With the help of a labelled ray diagram, explain the construction and working of a
Cassegrain reflecting telescope. (b) An amateur astronomer wishes to estimate roughly the size of
the sun using his crude telescope consisting of an objective lens of focal length 200 cm and an
eyepiece of focal length 10 cm. By adjusting the distance of the eyepiece from the objective, he
obtains an image of the sun on a screen 40 cm behind the eyepiece. The diameter of the sun’s image
is measured to be 6.0 cm. Estimate the Sun’s size, given that the average earth-sun distance is 1.5 ×
1011 m.

Q11. Draw a graph to show the angle of deviation with the variation of angle of incidence i for a
monochromatic ray of light passing through a prism of refracting angle A. Deduce the relation 𝑛 =
𝑠𝑖𝑛(𝛿𝑚 +𝐴)
2
𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝐴∕2

Q12. Trace the path of a ray of light passing through a glass prism (ABC) as shown in the
figure. If the refractive index of glass is 3 , find out of the value of the angle of emergence
from the prism.

Q13. A ray of light incident on one of the faces of a glass prism of angle ‘A’ has angle of
incidence 2A. The refracted ray in the prism strikes the opposite face which is silvered, the
reflected ray from it retraces its path. Trace the ray diagram and find the relation between the
refractive index of the material of the prism and the angle of the prism.

Q14. Three rays (1, 2, 3) of different colours fall normally on one of the sides of an isosceles
right angled prism as shown. The refractive index of prism for these rays is 1.39, 1.47 and 1.52
respectively. Find which of these rays get internally reflected and which get only refracted from AC.
Trace the paths of rays. Justify your answer with the help of necessary calculations.

Q15. A biconvex lens with its two faces of equal radius of curvature R is made of a transparent
medium of refractive index n1. It is kept in contact with a medium of refractive index n2 as shown
in the figure. (a) Find the equivalent focal length of the combination. (b) Obtain the condition
when this combination acts as a diverging lens. (c) Draw the ray diagram for the case n1 > (n2 +
1) /2, when the object is kept far away from the lens. Point out the nature of the image formed
by the system.

Q16. A small telescope has an objective lens of focal length 150 cm and eyepiece of focal length
5 cm. What is the magnifying power of the telescope for viewing distant objects in normal
adjustment? If this telescope is used to view a 100 m tall tower 3 km away, what is the height of the
image of the tower formed by the objective lens?
Q17. You are given three lenses L1, L2 and L3 each of focal length 20 cm. An object is kept at 40 cm in
front of L1, as shown. The final real image is formed at the focus ‘I’ of L3. Find the separations
between L1, L2 and L3.

Q18. Find the position of the image formed of an object ‘O’ by the lens combination given in the
figure.

Q19. In the following diagram, an object ‘O’ is placed 15 cm in front of a convex lens L1 of focal length
20 cm and the final image is formed at ‘I’ at a distance of 80 cm from the second lens L2. Find the
focal length of the L2.

Q20. A convex lens of focal length 20 cm is placed coaxially with a convex mirror of radius of
curvature 20 cm. The two are kept 15 cm apart. A point object is placed 40 cm in front of the convex
lens. Find the position of the image formed by this combination. Draw the ray diagram showing the
image formation.

Q21. A convex lens of focal length 20 cm and a concave lens of focal length 15 cm are kept 30 cm
apart with their principal axes coincident. When an object is placed 30 cm in front of the convex lens,
calculate the position of the final image formed by the combination. Would this result change if the
object were placed 30 cm in front of the concave lens? Give reason.
Q22. A symmetric biconvex lens of radius of curvature R and made of glass of
refractive index 1.5, is placed on a layer of liquid placed on top of a plane
mirror as shown in the figure. An optical needle with its tip on the principal
axis of the lens is moved along the axis until its real, inverted image coincides
with the needle itself. The distance of the needle from the lens is measured
to be x. On removing the liquid layer and repeating the experiment, the
distance is found to be y. Obtain the expression for the refractive index of the
liquid in terms of x and y.

Q23. A biconvex lens of glass of refractive index 1.5 having focal length 20 cm is placed in a medium
of refractive index 1.65. Find its focal length. What should be the value of the refractive index of the
medium in which the lens should be placed so that it acts as a plane sheet of glass?

Q24. (a) A ray of light is incident normally on the face AB of a right-angled glass prism of refractive
index ang = 1.5. The prism is partly immersed in a liquid of unknown refractive index. Find the value
of refractive index of the liquid so that the ray grazes along the face BC after refraction through the
prism. (b) Trace the path of the rays if it were incident normally on the face AC.

Q25. A ray of light incident normally on one face of a right isosceles prism is
totally reflected as shown in figure. What must be minimum value of
refractive index glass? Give relevant calculations.

Q26. Calculate the distance d, so that a real

image of an object at O, 15 cm in front of a
convex lens of focal length 10 cm be formed at
the same point O. The radius of curvature of the
mirror is 20 cm. Will the image be inverted or
erect?

Q27. (a) A giant refracting telescope at an observatory has an

objective lens of focal length 15 m. If an eye-piece of focal length 1.0 cm is used, what is the angular
magnification of the telescope? (b) If this telescope is used to view the moon, what is the diameter
of the image of the moon formed by the objective lens? The diameter of the moon is 3.48× 106 m
and radius of lunar orbit is 3.8× 108 m.

Q28. An angular magnification of 30X is desired using an objective of focal length 1.25 cm and an
eye-piece of focal length 5 cm. How would you set up the compound microscope?

Q29. A Cassegrain telescope uses two mirrors as shown in fig. Such a telescope is built with the
mirrors 20 mm apart. If the radius of curvature of the large mirror is 220 mm and of the small mirror
is 140 mm, where will the final image of an object at infinity be?

Q30. A small telescope has an objective lens of focal length 140 cm and an eye-piece of focal length
5.0 cm. What is the (a) magnifying power of telescope for viewing distant objects when the telescope
is in normal adjustment (i.e., when the final image is at infinity)? (b) the final image is formed at the
least distance of distinct vision (D = 25 cm)? (c) What is the separation between the objective and
eye lens when final image is formed at infinity? (d) If this telescope is used to view a 100 m tall tower
3 km away, what is the height of the image of the tower formed by the objective lens? (e) What is
the height of the final image of the tower if it is formed at the least distance of distinct vision D = 25
cm?
 Ch -10

Q1. Using Huygens’ principle, draw a diagram to show propagation of a wavefront originating from a
monochromatic point source. Explain briefly.

Q2. Define the term wavefront. Using Huygen's wave theory, verify the law of reflection.

Q3. (a) How is a wavefront defined? Using Huygen’s constructions draw a figure showing the
propagation of a plane wave refracting at a plane surface separating two media. Hence verify Snell’s
law of refraction. When a light wave travels from rarer to denser medium, the speed decreases. Does
it imply reduction its energy? Explain.

(b) When monochromatic light travels from a rarer to a denser medium, explain the following,
giving reasons: (i) Is the frequency of reflected and refracted light same as the frequency of
incident light? (ii) Does the decrease in speed imply a reduction in the energy carried by light
wave?

Q3. Use Huygens’ principle to show how a plane wavefront propagates from a denser to rarer
medium. Hence, verify Snell’s law of refraction.

Q4. (a) In Young’s double slit experiment, deduce the conditions for (i) constructive, and (ii)
destructive interference at a point on the screen. Draw a graph showing variation of the resultant
intensity in the interference pattern against position ‘X’ on the screen. `(b) Compare and contrast
the pattern which is seen with two coherently illuminated narrow slits in Young’s experiment
with that seen for a coherently illuminated single slit producing diffraction.

Q4. (a) What are coherent sources of light? State two conditions for two light sources to be
coherent. (b) Derive a mathematical expression for the width of interference fringes obtained in
Young’s double slit experiment with the help of a suitable diagram. (c) If s is the size of the
source and b its distance from the plane of the two slits, what should be the criterion for the
interference fringe to be seen?

Q5. What is interference of light? Write two essential conditions for sustained interference
pattern to be produced on the screen. Draw a graph showing the variation of intensity versus the
position on the screen in Young’s experiment when (a) both the slits are opened and (b) one of
the slits is closed. What is the effect on the interference pattern in Young’s double slit
experiment when: (i) screen is moved closer to the plane of slits? (ii) separation between two
slits is increased? Explain your answer in each case.

Q6. What is diffraction of light? Draw a graph showing the variation of intensity with angle in a
single slit diffraction experiment. Write one feature which distinguishes the observed pattern
from the double slit interference pattern. How would the diffraction pattern of a single slit be
affected when: (i) the width of the slit is decreased? (ii) the monochromatic source of light is
replaced by a source of white light?

Q7. Describe diffraction of light due to a single slit. Explain formation of a pattern of fringes
obtained on the screen and plot showing variation of intensity with angle θ in single slit
diffraction.

Q8. Two wavelengths of sodium light 590 nm and 596 nm are used, in turn, to study the
diffraction taking place at a single slit of aperture 2 × 10–4 m. The distance between the slit and
the screen is 1.5 m. Calculate the separation between the positions of the first maxima of the
diffraction pattern obtained in the two cases.
Q9. (a) Why are coherent sources necessary to produce a sustained interference pattern? (b) In
Young’s double slit experiment using monochromatic light of wavelength λ, the intensity of light
at a point on the screen where path difference is λ , is K units. Find out the intensity of light at a
point where path difference is λ/3 .

Q10. (a) Assume that the light of wavelength 6000 Å is coming from a star. Find the limit of
resolution of a telescope whose objective has a diameter of 250 cm. (b) Two slits are made 1 mm
apart and the screen is placed 1 m away. What should be the width of each slit to obtain 10
maxima of the double slit pattern within the central maximum of the single slit pattern?

Q11. A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths, 800 nm and 600 nm is used to obtain the
interference fringes in a Young’s double slit experiment on a screen placed 1.4 m away. If the two
slits are separated by 0.28 mm, calculate the least distance from the central bright maximum
where the bright fringes of the two wavelengths coincide.

Q12. In the diffraction due to a single slit experiment, the aperture of the slit is 3 mm. If
monochromatic light of wavelength 620 nm is incident normally on the slit, calculate the
separation between the first order minima and the 3rd order maxima on one side of the screen.
The distance between the slit and the screen is 1.5 m.

Q13. (a) The refractive index of glass is 1.5. What is the speed of light in glass? (Speed of light in
vacuum is 3.0 × 108 ms– 1). (b) Is the speed of light in glass independent of the colour of light? If
not, which of the two colours, red and violet, travels slower in the glass prism?

Ch 11

Q1. (a) Give a brief description of the basic elementary process involved in the photoelectric
emission in Einstein’s picture. (b) When a photosensitive material is irradiated with the light of
frequency n, the maximum speed of electrons is given by vmax. A plot of v2 max is found to vary
with frequency ν as shown in the figure. Use Einstein’s photoelectric equation to find the
expressions for (i) Planck’s constant and (ii) work function of the given photosensitive material, in
terms of the parameters l, n and mass m of the electron.

Q2. monochromatic light source of power 5 mW emits 8 × 1015 photons per second. This light
ejects photo electrons from a metal surface. The stopping potential for this set up is 2 eV.
Calculate the work function of the metal.

Q3. Two monochromatic beams A and B of equal intensity I, hit a screen. The number of photons
hitting the screen by beam A is twice that by beam B. Then what inference can you make about
their frequencies?

Q4. In the study of a photoelectric effect the graph between

the stopping potential V and frequency n of the incident
radiation on two different metals P and Q is shown below

(i) Which one of the two metals has higher threshold

frequency? (ii) Determine the work function of the metal
which has greater value. (iii) Find the maximum kinetic energy
of electron emitted by light of frequency 8 × 1014 Hz for this
metal.
Q5. Define the term ‘intensity of radiation’ in photon picture of light. Ultraviolet light of
wavelength 2270 Å from 100 W mercury source irradiates a photo cell made of a given metal. If
the stopping potential is –1.3 V, estimate the work function of the metal. How would the
photocell respond to a high intensity (~ 105 Wm–2) red light of wavelength 6300 Å produced by a
laser?

Q6. Determine the value of the de Broglie wavelength associated with the electron orbiting in
the ground state of hydrogen atom (Given En = – (13.6/n2 ) eV and Bohr radius r0 = 0.53 Å). How
will the de Broglie wavelength change when it is in the first excited state?

Q7. An α-particle and a proton are accelerated from rest by the same potential. Find the ratio of
their de- Broglie wavelengths.

Q8. A proton and an alpha particle are accelerated through the same potential. Which one of the
two has (i) greater value of de Broglie wavelength associated with it and (ii) less kinetic energy?
Give reasons to justify your answer.

Q9. Using photon picture of light, show how Einstein’s photoelectric equation can be established.
Write two features of photoelectric effect which cannot be explained by wave theory.

Q10. Write Einstein’s photoelectric equation. State clearly the three salient features observed in
photoelectric effect which can explain on the basis of this equation. The maximum kinetic energy
of the photoelectrons gets doubled when the wavelength of light incident on the surface
changes from 1 m to 2 m . Derive the expressions for the threshold wavelength 0 m and work
function for the metal surface.

Q11. Explain briefly the reasons why wave theory of light is not able to explain the observed
features of photo-electric effect.

Q12. If light of wavelength 412·5 nm is incident on each of the metals given below, which ones
will show photoelectric emission and why?

Ch -13

Q1. Draw a schematic arrangement of Geiger-Marsden experiment for studying a-particle

scattering by a thin foil of gold. Describe briefly, by drawing trajectories of the scattered a-
particles. How this study can be used to estimate the size of the nucleus?

Q2. Using Bohr’s postulates, obtain the expression for the total energy of the electron in the
stationary states of the hydrogen atom. Hence draw the energy level diagram showing how the
line spectra corresponding to Balmer series occur due to transition between energy levels
Q3. Derive the expression for the magnetic field at the site of a point nucleus in a hydrogen atom
due to the circular motion of the electron. Assume that the atom is in its ground state and give
the answer in terms of fundamental constants.

Q4. Obtain the first Bohr’s radius and the ground state energy of a muonic hydrogen atom, i.e.,
an atom where the electron is replaced by a negatively charged muon (µ– ) of mass about 207
me that orbits around a proton. (Given for hydrogen atom, radius of first orbit and ground state
energy are 0.53 × 10–10 m and – 13.6 eV respectively)

Q5. A 12.5 eV electron beam is used to excite a gaseous hydrogen atom at room temperature.
Determine the wavelengths and the corresponding series of the lines emitted.

Q6. A hydrogen atom initially in its ground state absorbs a photon and is in the excited state with
energy 12.5 eV. Calculate the longest wavelength of the radiation emitted and identify the series
to which it belongs. [Take Rydberg constant R = 1.1 × 107 m–1]

Q7. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is – 13.6 eV. If an electron makes a transition
from an energy level – 1.51 eV to – 3.4 eV, calculate the wavelength of the spectral line emitted
and name the series of hydrogen spectrum to which it belongs.

Q8. A 12.3 eV electron beam is used to bombard gaseous hydrogen at room temperature. Upto
which energy level the hydrogen atoms would be excited? Calculate the wavelengths of the
second member of Lyman series and second member of Balmer series.

Q9. (a) State Bohr’s postulate to define stable orbits in hydrogen atom. How does de Broglie’s
hypothesis explain the stability of these orbits? (b) A hydrogen atom initially in the ground state
absorbs a photon which excites it to the n = 4 level. Estimate the frequency of the photon.

Q10. The energy level diagram of an element is given below. Identify, by doing necessary
calculations, which transition corresponds to the emission of a spectral line of wavelength 102.7
nm.

Q11. The energy levels of a hypothetical

atom are shown alongside. Which of the
shown transitions will result in the emission
of a photon of wavelength 275 nm? Which
of these transitions correspond to emission
of radiation of (i) maximum and (ii)
minimum wavelength?
 Q12. (a) Using Bohr’s second postulate of quantization of orbital angular momentum show that
the circumference of the electron in the nth orbital state in hydrogen atom is n times the de
Broglie wavelength associated with it. (b) The electron in hydrogen atom is initially in the third
excited state. What is the maximum number of spectral lines which can be emitted when it
finally moves to the ground state?

OR

(a) State Bohr’s quantization condition for defining stationary orbits. How does de Broglie
hypothesis explain the stationary orbits? (b) Find the relation between the three
wavelengths λ1, λ2 and λ3 from the energy level
diagram shown below.

Ch – 13

Q1. Draw the graph showing the variation of binding energy per nucleon with the mass number for a
large number of nuclei 2< A < 240. What are the main inferences from the graph? How do you
explain the constancy of binding energy in the range 30 < A < 170 using the property that the nuclear
force is short-ranged? Explain with the help of this plot the release of energy in the processes of
nuclear fission and fusion.

Q2. (a) Distinguish between isotopes and isobars, giving one example for each. (b) Why is the mass of
a nucleus always less than the sum of the masses of its constituents? Write one example to justify
your answer.

Q3. (a) Classify the following six nuclides into (i) isotones, (ii)
isotopes, and (iii) isobars.

(b) How does the size of a nucleus depend on its mass

number? Hence explain why the density of nuclear matter should be independent of the size
of the nucleus.

Q4. Draw a graph showing the variation of potential energy between a pair of nucleons as a function
of their separation. Indicate the regions in which the nuclear force is (i) attractive, (ii) repulsive. Write
two important conclusions which you can draw regarding the nature of the nuclear forces.
Q5. (a) The figure
shows the plot of
binding energy (BE) per
nucleon as a function
of mass number A. The
letters A, B, C, D and E
represent the positions
of typical nuclei on the
curve. Point out, giving
reasons, the two
processes (in terms of A, B, C, D and E), one of which can occur due to nuclear fission and the other
due to nuclear fusion. (b) Identify the nature of the radioactive radiations emitted in each step of the
decay process given below:

Q6. How long an electric lamp of 100 W can be kept glowing by fusion of 2.0 kg of deuterium? The
fusion reaction can be taken as:

Q7. A 1000 MW fission reactor consumes half of its fuel in 5 years. How much 92U 235 did it contain
initially? Assume that the reactor operates 80% of the time and that all energy generated arises from
the fission of 92U 235 and that this nuclide is consumed only by the fission process. Energy generated
per fission of 92U 235 is 200 MeV.

Q8. 0. A given coin has a mass of 3.0 g. Calculate the nuclear energy that would be required to
separate all the neutrons and protons from each other. For simplicity assume that the coin is entirely
made of 29Cu 63 atoms (of mass 62.92960 u). The masses of proton and neutrons are 1.00783 u and
1.00867 u respectively

Q9. Obtain the binding energy of the nuclei26 Fe 56 and 83Bi209 in units of MeV from the following
data. mH = 1.007825 u, mn=1.008665 u, m( Fe 26 56 ) = 55.934939 u, m( Bi 83 209 ) = 208.980388 u, 1
u =931.5 MeV. Which nucleus has greater binding energy per nucleon?

Q10. Obtain the binding energy of a nitrogen nucleus 7N14 from the following data in MeV. mH =
1.00783 u mn = 1.00867 u mN = 14.00307 u

Ch- 14

Q1. In a half wave rectifier, what is the frequency of ripple in the output if the frequency of input ac
is 50 Hz? What is the output ripple frequency of a full wave rectifier?

Q2. A p – n photodiode is fabricated from a semiconductor with band gap of 2.8 eV. Can it detect a
wavelength of 6000 nm?
Q3. The number of silicon atoms per m3 is 5 × 1028. This is doped simultaneously with 5 × 1022 atoms
per m3 of Arsenic and 5 × 1020 per m3 atoms of Indium. Calculate the number of electrons and holes.
Given that ni = 1.5 × 1016 per m3 . Is the material n-type or p-type?

Q3. Draw energy band diagrams of an n-type and p-type semiconductor at temperature T > 0 K. Mark
the donor and acceptor energy levels with their energies.

Q4. If each diode in figure has a forward bias resistance of 25 Ω and infinite
resistance in reverse bias, what will be the values of current I1, I2, I3 and I4?

Q5. Three photo diodes D1, D2 and D3 are made of semiconductors having
band gaps of 2.5 eV, 2 eV and 3 eV, respectively. Which ones will be able to
detect light of wavelength 6000 Å?

Q6. What are energy bands? Write any two distinguishing features between
conductors, semiconductors and insulators on the basis of energy band
diagrams.

Q7. Explain how the width of depletion layer in a p-n junction diode
changes when the junction is (i) forward biased (ii) reverse biased.

Q8. Draw V – I characteristics of a p–n junction diode. Answer the following questions, giving
reasons: (i) Why is the current under reverse bias almost independent of the applied potential upto a
critical voltage? (ii) Why does the reverse current show a sudden increase at the critical voltage?
Name any semiconductor device which operates under the reverse bias in the breakdown region.

Q9. (a) State briefly the processes involved in the formation of p-n junction explaining clearly how
the depletion region is formed. (b) Using the necessary circuit diagrams, show how the V–I
characteristics of a p-n junction are obtained in (i) Forward biasing (ii) Reverse biasing How are these
characteristics made use of in rectification?

Q10. State the principle of working of p-n diode as a rectifier. Explain with the help of a circuit
diagram, the use of p-n diode as a full wave rectifier. Draw a sketch of the input and output
waveforms.