This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Software Life

Cycle Models”.

1. Build & Fix Model is suitable for programming exercises of ___________ LOC (Line of Code).

a) 100-200

b) 200-400

c) 400-1000

d) above 1000

View Answer

2. RAD stands for

a) Relative Application Development

b) Rapid Application Development

c) Rapid Application Document

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

3. Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any change?

a) Build & Fix Model

b) Prototyping Model

c) RAD Model

d) Waterfall Model

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Real projects rarely follow the sequential flow that the Waterfall Model proposes.

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4. Which is not one of the types of prototype of Prototyping Model?

a) Horizontal Prototype

b) Vertical Prototype

c) Diagonal Prototype
d) Domain Prototype

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Their is no such thing as Diagonal Prototype whereas other options have their respective
definitions.

5. Which one of the following is not a phase of Prototyping Model?

a) Quick Design

b) Coding

c) Prototype Refinement

d) Engineer Product

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: A prototyping model generates only a working model of a system.

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6. Which of the following statements regarding Build & Fix Model is wrong?

a) No room for structured design

b) Code soon becomes unfixable & unchangeable

c) Maintenance is practically not possible

d) It scales up well to large projects

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Build & Fix Model is suitable for 100-200 LOC

7. RAD Model has

a) 2 phases

b) 3 phase

c) 5 phases

d) 6 phases

View Answer
Answer: c

Explanation: RAD Model consists of five phases namely:Business modeling,Data modeling,Process

modeling,Application generation and Testing & Turnover.

8. What is the major drawback of using RAD Model?

a) Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required

b) Increases reusability of components

c) Encourages customer/client feedback

d) Increases reusability of components, Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The client may create an unrealistic product vision leading a team to over or under-develop
functionality.Also, the specialized & skilled developers are not easily available.

9. SDLC stands for

a) Software Development Life Cycle

b) System Development Life cycle

c) Software Design Life Cycle

d) System Design Life Cycle

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: None.

10. Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC?

a) Waterfall Model

b) Prototyping Model

c) RAD Model

d) both Prototyping Model & RAD Model

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: None.
1. Which one of the following is not an Evolutionary Process Model?

a) WINWIN Spiral Model

b) Incremental Model

c) Concurrent Development Model

d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: None.

2. The Incremental Model is a result of combination of elements of which two models?

a) Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model

b) Linear Model & RAD Model

c) Linear Model & Prototyping Model

d) Waterfall Model & RAD Model

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Each linear sequence produces a deliverable “increment” of the software and particularly
when we have to quickly deliver a limited functionality system.

3. What is the major advantage of using Incremental Model?

a) Customer can respond to each increment

b) Easier to test and debug

c) It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early

d) Easier to test and debug & It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Incremental Model is generally easier to test and debug than other methods of software
development because relatively smaller changes are made during each iteration and is popular
particularly when we have to quickly deliver a limited functionality system.However, option “a” can be
seen in other models as well like RAD model,hence option “d” answers the question.

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4. The spiral model was originally proposed by

a) IBM

b) Barry Boehm

c) Pressman

d) Royce

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: None.

5. The spiral model has two dimensions namely _____________ and ____________

a) diagonal, angular

b) radial, perpendicular

c) radial, angular

d) diagonal, perpendicular

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The radial dimension of the model represents the cumulative costs and the angular
dimension represents the progress made in completing each cycle. Each loop of the spiral from X-axis
clockwise through 360o represents one phase.

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6. How is WINWIN Spiral Model different from Spiral Model?

a) It defines tasks required to define resources, timelines, and other project related information
b) It defines a set of negotiation activities at the beginning of each pass around the spiral

c) It defines tasks required to assess both technical and management risks

d) It defines tasks required to construct, test, install, and provide user support

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Except option “b” all other tasks/activities are present in Spiral Model as well.

7. Identify the disadvantage of Spiral Model.

a) Doesn’t work well for smaller projects

b) High amount of risk analysis

c) Strong approval and documentation control

d) Additional Functionality can be added at a later date

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: All other options are the advantages of Spiral Model.

8. Spiral Model has user involvement in all its phases.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: None.

9. How is Incremental Model different from Spiral Model?

a) Progress can be measured for Incremental Model

b) Changing requirements can be accommodated in Incremental Model

c) Users can see the system early in Incremental Model

d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: None.

10. If you were to create client/server applications, which model would you go for?

a) WINWIN Spiral Model

b) Spiral Model

c) Concurrent Model

d) Incremental Model

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: When applied to client/server applications, the concurrent process model defines activities
in two dimensions: a system dimension and a component dimension.Thus Concurrency is achieved by
system and component activities occurring simultaneously and can be modeled using the state-oriented
approach.

1. What are the types of requirements ?

a) Availability

b) Reliability

c) Usability

d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: All the mentioned traits are beneficial for an effective product to be developed.

2. Select the developer-specific requirement ?

a) Portability

b) Maintainability
c) Availability

d) Both Portability and Maintainability

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Availability is user specific requirement.

3. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?

a) elicitation

b) design

c) analysis

d) documentation

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Requirement Elicitation, Requirement Analysis, Requirement Documentation and

Requirement Review are the four crucial process steps of requirement engineering.Design is in itself a
different phase of Software Engineering.

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4. FAST stands for

a) Functional Application Specification Technique

b) Fast Application Specification Technique

c) Facilitated Application Specification Technique

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: None.
5. QFD stands for

a) quality function design

b) quality function development

c) quality function deployment

d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: None.

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6. A Use-case actor is always a person having a role that different people may play.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Use-case Actor is anything that needs to interact with the system, be it a person or another
(external) system.

7. The user system requirements are the parts of which document ?

a) SDD

b) SRS

c) DDD

d) SRD

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Software requirements specification (SRS), is a complete description of the behaviour of a

system to be developed and may include a set of use cases that describe interactions the users will have
with the software.
8. A stakeholder is anyone who will purchase the completed software system under development.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Stakeholders are anyone who has an interest in the project. Project stakeholders are
individuals and organizations that are actively involved in the project, or whose interests may be affected
as a result of project execution or project completion.

9. Conflicting requirements are common in Requirement Engineering, with each client proposing his or
her version is the right one.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: This situation is seen in every field of work as each professional has his/her way of looking
onto things & would argue to get his/her point approved.

10. Which is one of the most important stakeholder from the following ?

a) Entry level personnel

b) Middle level stakeholder

c) Managers

d) Users of the software

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Users are always the most important stakeholders.After all, without users or customers,
what’s the point of being in business?.

1. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

a) Maintainability

b) Portability

c) Robustness

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: All are non-functional requirements representing quality of the system. Functional
requirements describe what the software has to do.

2. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s module ?

a) Availability

b) Testability

c) Usability

d) Flexibility

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: A developer needs to test his product before launching it into the market.

3. “Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts the security company.” What
kind of a requirement the system is providing ?

a) Functional

b) Non-Functional

c) Known Requirement

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Functional requirements describe what the software has to do.

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4. Which of the following statements explains portability in non-functional requirements?

a) It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to run on another
platform

b) It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that are universally available and
standardized

c) The ability of the system to behave consistently in a user-acceptable manner when operating within
the environment for which the system was intended

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Option c is termed as reliability and option e refers to efficiency.

5. Functional requirements capture the intended behavior of the system.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The behavior of functional requirements may be expressed as services, tasks or functions
the system is required to perform.

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6. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional Requirement(NFR).

a) Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality

b) Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process

c) Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes

d) Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

View Answer
Answer: c

Explanation: Quantitative Approaches in NFRs are used to find measurable scales for the quality
attributes like efficiency, flexibility, integrity, usability etc.

7. How many classification schemes have been developed for NFRs ?

a) Two

b) Three

c) Four

d) Five

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Software Quality Tree [Boehm 1976], Roman [IEEE Computer 1985], Process-Product-
External considerations [Sommerville 1992], Mc Call’s NFR list and Dimensions of Quality–Components
of FURPS+ are the five classification schemes for NFRs.

8. According to components of FURPS+, which of the following does not belong to S ?

a) Testability

b) Speed Efficiency

c) Serviceability

d) Installability

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Speed Efficiency belong to Performance (P) in FURPS+ .

9. Does software wear & tear by decomposition ?

a) Yes

b) No
View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Unlike hardware, software is reliable.

10. What are the four dimensions of Dependability ?

a) Usability, Reliability, Security, Flexibility

b) Availability, Reliability, Maintainability, Security

c) Availability, Reliability, Security, Safety

d) Security, Safety, Testability, Usability

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: All the traits of option c sync with dependability.

11. Choose the correct statement on how NFRs integrates with Rational Unified Process ?

a) System responds within 4 seconds on average to local user requests and changes in the environment

b) System responds within 4 seconds on average to remote user requests and changes in the
environment

c) All of the mentioned

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: System response to a local user is 2 seconds on average.

1. What is the first step of requirement elicitation ?

a) Identifying Stakeholder

b) Listing out Requirements

c) Requirements Gathering

d) All of the mentioned

View Answer
Answer: a

Explanation: Stakeholders are the one who will invest in and use the product, so its essential to chalk out
stakeholders first.

2. Starting from least to most important, choose the order of stakeholder.

i. Managers

ii. Entry level Personnel

iii. Users

iv. Middle level stakeholder

a) i, ii, iv, iii

b) i, ii, iii, iv

c) ii, iv, i, iii

d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Users are your customers, they will be using your product, thus making them most
important of all.

3. Arrange the tasks involved in requirements elicitation in an appropriate manner.

i. Consolidation

ii. Prioritization

iii. Requirements Gathering

iv. Evaluation

a) iii, i, ii, iv

b) iii, iv, ii, i

c) iii, ii, iv, i

d) ii, iii, iv, i

View Answer
Answer: b

Explanation: Requirements gathering captures viewpoint from different users followed by evaluation of
those view points.Now comes the task of checking the relative importance of the requirements and
finally to consolidate or bind together the information collected.

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4. What are the types of requirement in Quality Function Deployment(QFD) ?

a) Known, Unknown, Undreamed

b) User, Developer

c) Functional, Non-Functional

d) Normal, Expected, Exciting

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: According to QFD, Normal, Expected and Exciting requirements maximizes customer
satisfaction from the Software Engineering Process.

5. What kind of approach was introduced for elicitation and modelling to give a functional view of the
system ?

a) Object Oriented Design (by Booch)

b) Use Cases (by Jacobson)

c) Fusion (by Coleman)

d) Object Modeling Technique (by Rumbaugh)

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Use Case captures who does what with the system, for what purpose, without dealing with
system internals.

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6. What are the kinds of actors used in OOSE ?

a) Primary

b) Secondary

c) Ternary

d) Both Primary and Secondary

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: A primary actor is one having a goal requiring the assistance of the system whereas, a
secondary actor is one from which system needs assistance.There is no such thing as ternary actor in
Software Engineering.

7. Why is Requirements Elicitation a difficult task ?

a) Problem of scope

b) Problem of understanding

c) Problem of volatility

d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Users specify unnecessary technical detail that may confuse, rather than clarify overall
system objectives.Also, the customers/users are not completely sure of what is needed, have a poor
understanding of the capabilities and limitations of their computing environment and they do not
understand that the requirements change over time.

8. What requirement gathering method developed at IBM in 1970s is used for managing requirement
elicitation ?

a) JAD

b) Traceability

c) FAST

d) Both JAD and Traceability

View Answer
Answer: d

Explanation: Joint application design (JAD) is a process used to collect business requirements while
developing new information systems for a company. Requirements traceability is concerned with
documenting the life of a requirement and providing bi-directional traceability between various
associated requirements.

9. Requirements elicitation is a cyclic process

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Requirements traceability provides bi-directional traceability between various associated

requirements.

10. How many Scenarios are there in elicitation activities ?

a) One

b) Two

c) Three

d) Four

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: As-is Scenario, Visionary Scenario, Evaluation Scenario and Training Scenario are the four
scenarios in requirement elicitation activities.

1. The Unified Modeling Language (UML) has become an effective standard for software modelling.How
many different notations does it have ?

a) Three

b) Four

c) Six

d) Nine

View Answer
Answer: d

Explanation: The different notations of UML includes the nine UML diagrams namely class, object,
sequence, collaboration, activity, state-chart, component, deployment and use case diagrams.

2. Which model in system modelling depicts the dynamic behaviour of the system ?

a) Context Model

b) Behavioral Model

c) Data Model

d) Object Model

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Behavioral models are used to describe the dynamic behavior of an executing system. This
can be modeled from the perspective of the data processed by the system or by the events that
stimulate responses from a system.

3. Which model in system modelling depicts the static nature of the system ?

a) Behavioral Model

b) Context Model

c) Data Model

d) Structural Model

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Structural models show the organization and architecture of a system. These are used to
define the static structure of classes in a system and their associations.

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4. Which perspective in system modelling shows the system or data architecture.

a) Structural perspective
b) Behavioral perspective

c) External perspective

d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Structural perspective is used to define the static structure of classes in a system and their
associations.

5. Which system model is being depicted by the ATM operations shown below:

The system model being depicted by the ATM operations shown is Context model

a) Structural model

b) Context model

c) Behavioral model

d) Interaction model

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Context models are used to illustrate the operational context of a system.They show what
lies outside the system boundaries.

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6. Activity diagrams are used to model the processing of data.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The statement mentioned is true and each activity represents one process step.

7. Model-driven engineering is just a theoretical concept. It cannot be converted into a

working/executable code.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Model-driven engineering is an approach to software development in which a system is

represented as a set of models that can be automatically transformed to executable code.

8. The UML supports event-based modeling using ____________ diagrams.

a) Deployment

b) Collaboration

c) State chart

d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: State diagrams show system states and events that cause transitions from one state to
another.

1. Which of these are not among the eight principles followed by Software Engineering Code of Ethics
and Professional Practice ?

a) PUBLIC

b) PROFESSION

c) PRODUCT

d) ENVIRONMENT

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Rest all are clauses for software ethics, environment does not focus on specific clause nor
its of importace related to question.

2. What is a Software ?
a) Software is set of programs

b) Software is documentation and configuration of data

c) Software is set of programs, documentation & configuration of data

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Software is not just set of program but it is also associated documentation and
configuration of data to make program run.

3. Which of these does not account for software failure ?

a) Increasing Demand

b) Low expectation

c) Increasing Supply

d) Less reliable and expensive

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Increasing supply will lead to more production and not failure.

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4. What are attributes of good software ?

a) Software maintainability

b) Software functionality

c) Software development

d) Software maintainability & functionality

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Good software should deliver the required functinality, maintainability. Software
development is not an attribute but a fundamental.
5. Which of these software engineering activities are not a part of software processes ?

a) Software dependence

b) Software development

c) Software validation

d) Software specification

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Software dependence is an attribute and not an engineering activity for process.

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6. Which of these is incorrect ?

a) Software engineering belongs to Computer science

b) Software engineering is a part of more general form of System Engineering

c) Computer science belongs to Software engineering

d) Software engineering is concerned with the practicalities of developing and delivering useful software

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Software engineering is a vast sub domain which comes under computer science which is
main domain.

7. Which of these is true ?

a) Generic products and customized products are types of software products

b) Generic products are produced by organization and sold to open market

c) Customized products are commissioned by particular customer

d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: All of them are true.

8. Which of these does not affect different types of software as a whole?

a) Heterogeneity

b) Flexibility

c) Business and social change

d) Security

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Option b & c are a part of Software Engineering as a subject,hence option a covers them
both.

9. The fundamental notions of software engineering does not account for ?

a) Software processes

b) Software Security

c) Software reuse

d) Software Validation

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Software validation is an activity for software process and not the fundamental for
engineering.

10. Which of these is not true ?

a) Web has led to availability of software services and possibility of developing highly distributed service
based systems

b) Web based systems have led to degradation of programming languages

c) Web brings concept of software as service

d) Web based system should be developed and delivered incrementally

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Web based systems has led to important advances in programming languages.

1. Which is the first step in the software development life cycle ?

a) Analysis

b) Design

c) Problem/Opportunity Identification

d) Development and Documentation

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: None.

2. Which tool is use for structured designing ?

a) Program flowchart

b) Structure chart

c) Data-flow diagram

d) Module

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: A Structure Chart (SC) in software engineering and organizational theory, is a chart which
shows the breakdown of a system to its lowest manageable levels.

3. A step by step instruction used to solve a problem is known as

a) Sequential structure

b) A List

c) A plan

d) An Algorithm

View Answer
Answer: d

Explanation: None.

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4. In the Analysis phase, the development of the ____________ occurs, which is a clear statement of the
goals and objectives of the project.

a) documentation

b) flowchart

c) program specification

d) design

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Program specification is the definition of what a computer program is expected to do.

5. Actual programming of software code is done during the ____________ step in the SDLC.

a) Maintenance and Evaluation

b) Design

c) Analysis

d) Development and Documentation

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The developer has to find in the technical documentation enough information to start
coding.

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6. Who designs and implement database structures.

a) Programmers
b) Project managers

c) Technical writers

d) Database administrators

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The role of database administrators includes the development and design of database
strategies, system monitoring and improving database performance and capacity, and planning for future
expansion requirements.

7. ____________ is the process of translating a task into a series of commands that a computer will use
to perform that task.

a) Project design

b) Installation

c) Systems analysis

d) Programming

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: None.

8. Debugging is:

a) creating program code

b) finding and correcting errors in the program code

c) identifying the task to be computerized

d) creating the algorithm

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Debugging is a methodical process of finding and reducing the number of bugs, or defects,
in a computer program or a piece of electronic hardware, thus making it behave as expected.
9. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?

a) Architecture

b) Data

c) Interface

d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Part of the design phase is to create structural and behavioral models of the system which is
covered by architecture, data and the interface of the product.

10. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word which is:

a) Efficiency

b) Accuracy

c) Quality

d) Complexity

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Software functional quality reflects how well it complies with or conforms to a given design,
based on functional requirements or specifications.

11. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

a) can be written more compactly

b) focuses on just one thing

c) is able to complete its function in a timely manner

d) is connected to other modules and the outside world

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Cohesion of a single module/component is the degree to which its responsibilities form a
meaningful unit.

12. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

a) can be written more compactly

b) focuses on just one thing

c) is able to complete its function in a timely manner

d) is connected to other modules and the outside world

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Coupling between modules/components is their degree of mutual interdependence.

What does SDLC stand for?

Software Development Logic Cycle

Systematic Development Life Cycle

Software Development Life Cycle

System Design and Logic Compilation

SDLC stands for Software Development Life Cycle, which is a process followed for the development of
software applications.

Question 2

Which phase of SDLC involves gathering and understanding the requirements for the software project?

Design

Testing

Right

Requirement Analysis

Implementation

Discuss it
Explanation

Requirement Analysis is the phase where the software requirements are gathered and understood.

What is the purpose of the Design phase in SDLC?

Coding the software

Wrong

Planning the project

Right

Defining the software architecture

Verifyin software functionality

Discuss it

Explanation

The Design phase involves creating a blueprint for the software, defining its architecture, and planning
the development process.

Question 4

In SDLC, which phase is responsible for coding the actual software?

Testing

Wrong

Design

Right

Implementation

Requirement Analysis

Discuss it

Explanation

The Implementation phase involves coding the actual software based on the design specifications.

What is the primary goal of the Testing phase in SDLC?

Writing code

Right
 Identifying and fixing defects

Gathering requirements

Wrong

Creating design specifications

Discuss it

Explanation

The Testing phase is focused on identifying and fixing defects or bugs in the software.

Quetion 6

Which SDLC model involves the sequential execution of phases and is often represented as a waterfall?

Wrong

Agile

Spiral

Right

Waterfall

Iterative

Discuss it

Explanation

The Waterfall model follows a sequential approach where each phase must be completed before moving
on to the next.

Question 7

What is the main advantage of the Agile SDLC model?

Rigidity

Right

Flexibility to changes

Detailed planning

Minimal customer involvement

Discuss it

Explanation
Agile is known for its flexibility and adaptability to changes in requirements during the development
process.

Question 8

What is the purpose of the Maintenance phase in SDLC?

Developing new features

Right

Fixing defects and making enhancements

Wrong

Requirement gathering

Software deployment

Discuss it

Explanation

The Maintenance phase involves fixing defects, making improvements, and providing support for the
software.

Question 9

Which testing type is performed to ensure that different components of the software system work
together?

Unit testing

Right

Integration testing

Wrong

System testing

Regression testing

Discuss it

Explanation

Integration testing verifies that different components of the system work together as intended.

Question 10

What is the purpose of the Feasibility Study in SDLC?

 To design the system architecture

Right

To determine whether the project is viable

To write code for the software

To identify and fix defects

Discuss it

Explanation

The Feasibility Study is conducted to assess whether the proposed project is technically and financially
feasible.

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1) What is the first step in the software development lifecycle?

System Design

Coding

System Testing

Preliminary Investigation and Analysis

Answer: d) Preliminary Investigation and Analysis

2) What does the study of an existing system refer to?

Details of DFD

Feasibility Study

System Analysis

System Planning

Answer: c) System Analysis

Explanation: The study of an existing system refers to system analysis.

3) Which of the following is involved in the system planning and designing phase of the Software
Development Life Cycle (SDLC)?

Sizing

Parallel run
 Specification freeze

All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

Explanation: None.

4) What does RAD stand for?

Rapid Application Document

Rapid Application Development

Relative Application Development

None of the above

Answer: b) Rapid Application Development

Explanation: RAD stands for Rapid Application Development is categorized as an agile development
method, which is meant to accomplish a quick turnaround and high-end outcomes.

5) Which of the following prototypes does not associated with Prototyping Model?

Domain Prototype

Vertical Prototype

Horizontal Prototype

Diagonal Prototype

Answer: d) Diagonal Prototype

Explanation: There is nothing as such called Diagonal Prototype; however, the rest other options do
make sense.

6) The major drawback of RAD model is __________.

It requires highly skilled developers/designers.

It necessitates customer feedbacks.

It increases the component reusability.

Both (a) & (c)

Answer: d) Both (a) & (c)

Explanation: The client may create an unrealistic product vision, which may result in a team over or
under-develop functionality. Besides, it is not easy to hire highly specialized & skilled
developers/designers.

7) Which of the following does not relate to Evolutionary Process Model?

Incremental Model

Concurrent Development Model

WINWIN Spiral Model

All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

Explanation: The evolutionary process model is designed for rapid software development, which starts
from scratch with raw specifications and modifies as per the user requirement.

8) What is the major drawback of the Spiral Model?

 Higher amount of risk analysis

Doesn't work well for smaller projects

Additional functionalities are added later on

Strong approval and documentation control

Answer: b) Doesn't work well for smaller projects

Explanation: A spiral model is an incremental approach, which is formed as a combination of the

waterfall model and prototyping model. The major drawbacks of the Spiral model are as follows:

Expensive

Doesn't work well for smaller projects

Risk analysis requires highly skilled experts.

9) Model selection is based on __________.

Requirements

Development team & users

Project type & associated risk

All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

Explanation: Model selection is based on requirements, a team of developers, users as well as the risk
involved in developing a project.

10) Which of the following option is correct?

 The prototyping model facilitates the reusability of components.

RAD Model facilitates reusability of components

Both RAD & Prototyping Model facilitates reusability of components

None

Answer: c) Both RAD & Prototyping Model facilitates reusability of components

Explanation: None.

11) Which of the following models doesn't necessitate defining requirements at the earliest in the
lifecycle?

RAD & Waterfall

Prototyping & Waterfall

Spiral & Prototyping

Spiral & RAD

Answer: c) Spiral & Prototyping

Explanation: In the Prototyping model, the first phase is the requirement analysis phase, which involves
Brainstorming, QFD, and FAST, whereas the Spiral model encompasses customer communication
activities such as defining objectives.

12) When the user participation isn't involved, which of the following models will not result in the
desired output?

Prototyping & Waterfall

Prototyping & RAD

 Prototyping & Spiral

RAD & Spiral

Answer: b) Prototyping & RAD

Explanation: The Prototyping model necessitates user participation as when a prototype is created or
designed, whereas, in the case of RAD, user participation is required in all four phases.

13) Which of the following model will be preferred by a company that is planning to deploy an advanced
version of the existing software in the market?

Spiral

Iterative Enhancement

RAD

Both (b) and (c)

Answer: d) Both (b) and (c)

Explanation: None.

14) Arrange the following activities for making a software product by utilizing 4GT.

I. Design strategy

II. Transformation into product

III. Implementation
IV. Requirement gathering

4, 1, 3, 2

4, 3, 2, 1

1, 2, 3, 4

1, 4, 2, 3

Answer: a) 4, 1, 3, 2

Explanation: The sequence of activities mentioned in option c represents the Fourth Generation
Techniques(4GT) Model.

15) Which of the following is an example of Black Box and Functional Processing?

First Generation Language

Second Generation Language

Third Generation Language

Fourth Generation Language

Answer: d) Fourth Generation Language

Explanation: Functional processing or testing is commonly known as black-box testing, where the existing
contents are almost unknown, so anything could be demonstrated as a black box. Hence the
functionality of a black box can be defined in terms of inputs and outputs.

16) __________ is identified as fourth generation language.

Unix shell
 C++

COBOL

FORTRAN

Answer: a) Unix shell

Explanation: Fourth-generation language is an advancement of third-generation programming language.

17) The productivity of a software engineer can be reduced by using a 4GT.

True

False

Answer: b) False

Explanation: The fourth-generation programming languages are more programmer-friendly and helpful
in augmenting the program's efficiency as it uses English words and phrases. It increases the
programmer's productivity by enabling them to engage in the software development life cycle.

18) Which of the following is the main advantage of deploying a 4GT model for producing small-scale
products, programs, and applications?

The productivity of software engineers is improved.

The time required for developing software is reduced.

CASE tools and code generators help the 4GT model by providing a credible solution to their problems.

None of the above.

Answer: b) Time required for developing software is reduced.

Explanation: Since automated coding is done using CASE tools & code generators, proponents claim a
dramatic reduction in software development time.

19) Which of the following model has a major downfall to a software development life cycle in terms of
the coding phase?

4GT Model

Waterfall Model

RAD Model

Spiral Model

Answer: a) 4GT Model

Explanation: Much more expertise is needed in the 4GT model for analyzing, designing, and testing
activities as it eliminates the coding phase.

20) Which of the following falls under the category of software products?

Firmware, CAD

Embedded, CAM

Customized, Generic

CAD, Embedded

Answer: c) Customized, Generic

Explanation: Customized and Generic are two kinds of software products.

21) Software maintenance costs are expensive in contrast to software development.

True

False

Answer: a) True

Explanation: For systems with long life, software maintenance cost is higher than that of the software
development cost.

22) Which of the following activities of the generic process framework delivers a feedback report?

Deployment

Planning

Modeling

Construction

Answer: a) Deployment

Explanation: The deployment phase is the last phase of the software development life cycle in which the
software product is delivered to its end-user, who further assesses its performance and revert back with
the feedback if anything is required or missing as per the formulated evaluation.

23) Which of the following refers to internal software equality?

Scalability

Reusability

Reliability
 Usability

Answer: b) Reusability

Explanation: None.

24) RUP is abbreviated as __________, invented by a division of __________.

Rational Unified Process, IBM

Rational Unified Program, IBM

Rational Unified Process, Infosys

Rational Unified Program, Infosys

Answer: a) Rational Unified Process, IBM

Explanation: None.

25) The RUP can be defined based on three main perspectives, i.e., static, dynamic & practice. What is
the purpose of static perspective?

It recommends some good practices that be included while carrying out the process.

It displays all the enacted process activities.

It portrays the phases that the model has entered over a specific time.

All of the above.

Answer: b) It displays all the enacted process activities.

Explanation: None.
26) Which one of the following activities is not recommended for software processes in software
engineering?

Software Evolution

Software Verification

Software Testing & Validation

Software designing

Answer: b) Software Verification

Explanation: Software verification is mainly considered for implementing and testing activities.

27) Arrange the following activities to form a general software engineering process model.

I. Manufacture

II. Maintain

III. Test

IV. Install

V. Design

VI. Specification

6, 5, 1, 3, 4, 2
 1, 2, 4, 3, 6, 5

6, 1, 4, 2, 3, 5

1, 6, 5, 2, 3, 4

Answer: a) 6, 5, 1, 3, 4, 2

Explanation: None.

28) The agile software development model is built based on __________.

Linear Development

Incremental Development

Iterative Development

Both Incremental and Iterative Development

Answer: d) Both Incremental and Iterative Development

Explanation: In agile software development, the software is usually developed in increments with the
customer specifying necessary requirements in each increment. Here the main aim of a developer is to
meet customer satisfaction at the earliest by providing a valuable software product. It is known as
iterative because it chooses to work on one particular increment and make the improvement in other
iteration.

29) On what basis is plan-driven development different from that of the software development process?

Based on the iterations that occurred within the activities.

Based on the output, which is derived after negotiating in the software development process.

Based on the interleaved specification, design, testing, and implementation activities.

All of the above

Answer: a) Based on the iterations that occurred within the activities.

Explanation: In software engineering, a plan-driven approach is based on several development stages

that result in the output at each of these stages, which are already planned in advance.

30) Which of the following activities is not applicable to agile software development?

Producing only the essential work products.

Utilizing the strategy of incremental product delivery.

Abolishing the project planning and testing.

All of the above

Answer: c) Abolishing the project planning and testing.

Explanation: Testing can never be avoided as it plays a significant role in the software development life
cycle.

31) Which of the following framework activities are carried out in Adaptive Software Development
(ASD)?

Assumption, Association, Learning

The investigation, Strategy, Coding

Requirements gathering, Adaptive cycle planning, Iterative development

All of the above

Answer: a) Assumption, Association, Learning

Explanation: An Adaptive Software Development approach is an empirical process control model, which
is based on observations. It continuously adjusts the design of the solution and the process involved to
create the solution based on observation throughout the project.

32) The __________ model helps in representing the system's dynamic behavior.

Object Model

Context Model

Behavioral Model

Data Model

Answer: c) Behavioral Model

Explanation: To represent the system's dynamic behavior, Behavioral models are used. The behavioral
model is modeled from the perspective of the system's processed data or the events that stimulate
responses from a system.

33) Model-driven engineering is nothing but a theoretical concept. It can never be transmuted into a
working/executable code.

True

False

Answer: b) False

Explanation: Model-driven engineering is a software development approach that represents the system
as a set model, which can be easily altered into an executable code.

34) The __________ and __________ are the two major dimensions encompassed in the Spiral model.
 Diagonal, Perpendicular

Perpendicular, Radial

Angular, diagonal

Radial, Angular

Answer: d) Radial, Angular

Explanation: The cumulative cost is represented by the radial dimension, whereas the angular dimension
represents the progress made in the completion of each consecutive cycle. Each loop in the spiral model
depicts the phase.

35) Which of the following technique is involved in certifying the sustained development of legacy
systems?

Reengineering

Forward engineering

Reverse engineering

Reverse engineering and Reengineering

Answer: d) Reverse engineering and Reengineering

Explanation: The process involved in certifying the sustained development of legacy systems relies on
Reverse engineering and Reengineering.

36) An erroneous system state that results in an unexpected system behavior is acknowledged as?

System failure

Human error or mistake

System error
 System fault

Answer: c) System error

Explanation: None.

37) What is the name of the approach that follows step-by-step instructions for solving a problem?

An Algorithm

A Plan

A List

Sequential Structure

Answer: a) An Algorithm

Explanation: An algorithm is a precise step-by-step technique that takes an input instance (of the given
problem) as input(s) and produces output for the problem instance.

38) Which of the following word correctly summarized the importance of software design?

Quality

Complexity

Efficiency

Accuracy

Answer: a) Quality

Explanation: The quality of a functional software functional depicts how well it can conform with or
adapts to a given design based on functional requirements or specifications.

39) Which of the following methodology results in SA/SD features?

Gane and Sarson methodology

DeMarco and Yourdon methodology

Constantine and Yourdon methodology

All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

Explanation: None.

40) __________ is not considered as an activity of Structured Analysis (SA).

Transformation of a textual problem description into a graphic model

Functional decomposition

All the functions represented in the DFD are mapped to a module structure

d) All of the mentioned

Answer: c) All the functions represented in the DFD are mapped to a module structure

Explanation: The module structure depicts the architecture of the software.

41) What does a directed arc or line signify?

Data Flow
 Data Process

Data Stores

None of the above

Answer: a) Data Flow

Explanation: In the business information system, the data flow diagram is used to epitomize the flow of
the data.

42) What does a data store symbol in the Data Flow Diagram signify?

Logical File

Physical File

Data Structure

All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

Explanation: A logical file can be a data structure or physical file on the disk or vice versa.

43) __________ is not a direct measure of SE process.

Effort

Cost

Efficiency

All of the above

Answer: c) Efficiency
Explanation: Efficiency can never be measured as it is an indirect measure of the SE process.

44) What is the main task of project indicators?

To evaluate the ongoing project's status and track possible risks.

To evaluate the ongoing project's status.

To track potential risks.

None of the above

Answer: a) To evaluate the ongoing project's status and track possible risks.

Explanation: None.

45) What is the main intent of project metrics?

For strategic purposes

To minimize the development schedule.

To evaluate the ongoing project's quality on a daily basis

To minimize the development schedule and evaluate the ongoing project's quality on a daily basis

Answer: d) To minimize the development schedule and evaluate the ongoing project's quality on a daily
basis

Explanation: A project metric refers to a quantifiable measure of the degree to which a system,
component, or process owns a certain trait.

46) Name the graphical practice that depicts the meaningful changes that occurred in metrics data.
 Function point analysis

Control Chart

DRE (Defect Removal Efficiency)

None of the above

Answer: c) Control Chart

Explanation: A control chart is a method used to keep track of the variability of traits of interest.

47) Which parameters are essentially used while computing the software development cost?

Hardware and Software Costs

Effort Costs

Travel and Training Costs

All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

Explanation: Estimation cost works out on assessing the amount of effort required to complete each
activity, followed by calculating the total cost of activities.

48) Which of the following is an incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software
system?

Change management

System management

Internship management
 Version management

Answer: c) Internship management

Explanation: Configuration management policies and processes define how to record, and process
proposed system changes, how to decide what system components to change, how to manage different
versions of the system and its components, and how to distribute changes to customers.

49) The project planner examines the statement of scope and extracts all-important software functions,
which is known as

Planning process

Decomposition

Association

All of the mentioned

Answer: b) Decomposition

Explanation: None.

50) Which of the following Is not considered as an option for achieving reliable cost and effort
estimation?

The ability to translate the size estimate into human effort, calendar time, and dollars

Use relatively simple decomposition techniques to generate project cost and effort estimates.

Base estimates on similar projects that have already been completed

Use one or more empirical models for software cost and effort estimation

Answer: a) The ability to translate the size estimate into human effort, calendar time, and dollars
Explanation: None.

51) Which of the following does not complement the decomposition techniques but offers a potential
estimation approach for their impersonal growth?

Empirical estimation models

Decomposition techniques

Automated estimation tools

Both empirical estimation models and automated estimation tools

Answer: a) Empirical estimation models

Explanation: In computer software, the estimation model uses empirically derived formulas for guessing
the effort as a function of LOC or FP.

52) Which of the following is not included in the total effort cost?

Costs of lunch time food

Costs of support staff

Costs of networking and communications

Costs of air conditioning and lighting in the office space

Answer: a) Costs of lunch time food

Explanation: Employees incur it in the office.

53) What is developed by utilizing the historical cost function?

 Parkinson's Law

Expert judgment

Algorithmic cost modeling

Estimation by analogy

Answer: c) Algorithmic cost modeling

Explanation: The algorithmic cost modeling utilizes the basic regression formula with such parameters
that have been derived from the data of a historical project and current as well as characteristics of a
future project.

54) Which of the following model has a misconception that systems are built by utilizing reusable
components, scripts, and database programs?

The reuse model

An early designed model

An application-composition model

A post architecture model

Answer: c) An application-composition model

Explanation: An application-composition model evaluates the development of a prototype.

55) Which of the following is used to predict the effort as a function of LOC or FP?

COCOMO

FP-based estimation
 Both COCOMO and FP-based estimation

Process-based estimation

Answer: c) Both COCOMO and FP-based estimation

Explanation: Both COCOMO and FP-based estimation is used to calculate the effort by utilizing the
empirically derived formulas.

56) Once the requirements are stabilized, the basic architecture of the software can be established.
Which of the following version of the COCOMO model conforms to the given statement?

Application composition model

Post-architecture-stage model

Early design stage model

All of the above

Answer: a) Application composition model

Explanation: None.

57) Which of the following threatens the quality and timeliness of the produced software?

Business risks

Potential risks

Technical risks

Known risks

Answer: c) Technical risks

Explanation: Technical risks detect the possible design, enactment, interface, authentication, and
preservation problems.

58) Which of the following refers to the systematic attempt, which is implemented to ascertain the
threats to any project plan?

Performance risk

Risk identification

Risk projection

Support risk

Answer: c) Risk projection

Explanation: Once the risks are identified, the project manager takes his first step to avoid them when
required and control them.

59) Which of the following standards is used by the aviation industry?

CTRADO-172B

RTCADO-178B

RTRADO-178B

CTCADO-178B

Answer: b) RTCADO-178B

Explanation: RTCADO-178B is the most popular aviation standard, which has been altered to a defacto
standard.
60) Third-Party Certification for software standards is based on __________.

Ul 1996, Second Edition

Ul 1998, Second Edition

Ul 1992, Second Edition

UT 1998, Second Edition

Answer: b) Ul 1998, Second Edition

Explanation: None.