Ch- 6

Question 1:

The connecting space between two nerve cells is called:

(1) Axon

(2) Dendrite

(3) Cell body

(4) Synapse

Question 2:

Controls the involuntary actions of the body:

(1) Cerebrum

(2) Cerebellum

(3) Medulla oblongata

(4) Pons

Question 3:

The part of the nerve cell that receives information is:

(1) Dendrite

(2) Cell body

(3) Synapse

(4) Axon

Question 4:

Responsible for the body's posture and balance:

(1) Cerebrum

(2) Cerebellum

(3) Medulla

(4) Pituitary gland

Question 5:

Iodine is necessary for the thyroid gland to make thyroxine hormone.

(1) Iron
(2) Iodine

(3) Calcium

(4) All of the above

Question 6:

The movement in the leaves of the sensitive plant is:

(1) Phototropism

(2) Thigmotropism

(3) Seismonasty

(4) All of the above

Question 7:

Control and coordination in the body is done by:

(1) Nervous system

(2) Endocrine system

(3) Both

(4) None

Question 8:

The peripheral nervous system is made up of:

(1) Cranial nerves

(2) Spinal nerves

(3) Both

(4) None

Question 9:

Reflex action is controlled by:

(1) Cerebrum

(2) Spinal cord

(3) Pituitary gland

(4) Neuron

Question 10:
The structure that identifies the stimulus:

(1) Sensory nerve

(2) Motor nerve

(3) Receptor

(4) Stimulus

Question 11:

The largest part of the human brain is:

(1) Cerebrum

(2) Midbrain

(3) Cerebellum

(4) Hypothalamus

Question 12:

The growth of the pollen tube towards the ovule is an example of which type of movement?

(1) Geotropism

(2) Chemotropism

(3) Hydrotropism

(4) Phototropism

Question 13:

Emergency hormone is called:

(1) Growth

(2) Adrenaline

(3) Insulin

(4) Melatonin

Question 14:

Plant hormones are:

(1) Auxin

(2) Gibberellin

(3) Cytokinin
(4) All of the above

Question 15:

The plant hormone that inhibits plant growth is:

(1) Auxin

(2) Gibberellin

(3) Cytokinin

(4) Abscisic acid

Fill in the blanks:

* The wilting of leaves in plants is due to the effect of the ___________ hormone.

* In plants, the cytokinin hormone stimulates ___________.

* ___________ hormone is synthesized in the apical part of the shoot, which increases the
length of the plant.

* ___________ is found in the gray matter.

* The male sex hormone, ___________, is secreted by the testes.

* ___________ is called the master gland for the secretion of hormones of all endocrine
glands.

* Hormone secretion by endocrine glands is controlled by ___________ mechanism.

* Information transmission in nerve cells takes place in the form of ___________.

* Nerve tissue is made up of a network of ___________.

Short Answer Questions:

* Draw a labeled diagram of the human brain.

* Draw a labeled diagram of a nerve cell and write its functions.

* Why does a doctor advise a diabetic patient to eat less sugar?

* Write the name and function of the hormone secreted by the thyroid gland.

* What is a reflex action? Give two examples.

* Explain the reflex arc with a diagram.

* Explain the movement of plants in response to light with a diagram.

* Write the functions of auxin and gibberellin plant hormones.

* In which of the following plant parts is the concentration of which hormone higher?
 * Shoot tip

* Fruits and seeds

* Lateral branches of the stem

* What are the responses in our body due to the secretion of adrenaline hormone?

* Match the following hormones with their functions:

Hormone Function

Growth Controls growth and development of the body

Adrenaline Enables the body to cope with emergency

Thyroxine Controls metabolic activities

Insulin Controls blood sugar levels

Melatonin Controls diurnal rhythm

Question 1:

Fill in the blanks:

(1) Vegetative reproduction occurs in Bryophyllum through __________.

(2) Pollen grains are formed in the __________ of the flower.

(3) In flowering plants, the ovary matures to form __________.

(4) All plants produced through vegetative reproduction are genetically __________ to the
parent plant.

(5) The embryo receives nutrition from the mother's blood through __________.

(6) __________ is an essential process for the stability of a population of any species.

Question 2:

Asexual reproduction occurs through budding in:

(1) Amoeba

(2) Yeast

(3) Plasmodium

(4) Rhizopus

Question 3:

Reproduction occurs through sporangia in:

(1) Leishmania

(2) Rhizopus

(3) Hydra

(4) Yeast

Question 4:

A bisexual flower is:

(1) Hibiscus

(2) Mustard

(3) Both 1 and 2

Question 5:

The stigma of a flower contains:

(1) Stigma

(2) Style

(3) Ovary

(4) All of the above

Question 6:

Reproduction occurs through multiple fission in:

(1) Plasmodium

(2) Leishmania

(3) Amoeba

(4) Hydra

Question 7:

Testes are located outside the abdominal cavity in the __________ because the
temperature required for sperm production is __________ than the body temperature.

(1) Lower

(2) Equal

(3) Higher

(4) None

Question 8:

In humans, the process of fertilization occurs in which part of the female reproductive
system?

(1) Ovary

(2) Fallopian tube

(3) Uterus

(4) Vagina

Question 9:

Which change in the female body indicates the onset of puberty and maturity?
(1) Body growth

(2) Breast development

(3) Change in voice

(4) Menstruation

Question 10:

In flowering plants, the development of the embryo occurs in:

(1) Ovule

(2) Ovary

(3) Stigma

(4) Pollen tube

Question 11:

What is pollination? Through which mediums does pollination occur?

Question 12:

What is the difference between self-pollination and cross-pollination?

Question 13:

Explain the germination of pollen grains on the stigma during sexual reproduction in
flowering plants. Draw a diagram.

Question 14:

Draw a diagram of the human male reproductive system.

Question 15:

Draw a diagram of the human female reproductive system.

Question 16:

Where does the formation and maturation (nourishment) of sperm occur in the male
reproductive system?

Question 17:

What is budding? How does reproduction occur through budding in Hydra?

Question 18:

What is callus? In which plants is the tissue culture method commonly used for cultivation?

Question 19:
Write four methods of preventing pregnancy.

Question 20:

Write the names of diseases that are transmitted from one person to another during unsafe
sexual practices.

Question 21:

What is menstruation? Where does the development of the embryo occur?

Question 22:

Explain the process of sexual reproduction in flowering plants with a diagram.

Question 23:

Explain reproduction through binary fission in Amoeba.

Question 24:

What is the placenta? What are its functions?

Question 25:

Explain regeneration in Planaria with a diagram.

Question 26:

What is vegetative propagation? List four benefits.

Question 27:

In which organism does reproduction occur through sporangia? Draw a diagram.

Question 28:

Which method of reproduction occurs in plants that have lost the ability to bear seeds?
Ch-8

Question 1:

Which plant did Mendel choose for his experiments on heredity?

(1) Garden pea

(2) Cabbage

(3) Eggplant

(4) Chili pepper

Question 2:

When both genes of a contrasting trait of an organism are present together, it is called?

(1) Unisexual

(2) Bisexual

(3) Homozygous

(4) Heterozygous

Question 3:

The ratio of offspring obtained from the cross Tt x tt will be?

(1) 1:1

(2) 1:2

(3) 2:1

(4) 1:2:1

Question 4:

How many pairs of contrasting traits did Mendel study in his experiments on heredity?

(1) 7

(2) 5

(3) 8

(4) 10

Question 5:
Mendel performed a monohybrid cross for the color of the flower of the pea plant. In the F1
generation, 3 pink flowers and 1 white flower were obtained. The dominant trait for the
color of the pea plant's flower will be:

(1) White

(2) Pink

(3) Green

(4) Yellow

Question 6:

In one of Mendel's experiments, tall pea plants with purple flowers were crossed with dwarf
plants with white flowers. All the plants in their offspring had purple flowers, but about half
of them were dwarf. This can be said that the genetic makeup of the tall parent plants was:

(1) TTWW

(2) TTww

(3) TtWW

(4) TtWw

Question 7:

What is the functional unit of heredity?

Question 8:

In a monohybrid cross, what will be the phenotypic and genotypic ratio obtained in the F1
generation?

Question 9:

Explain Mendel's law of dominance. Draw a diagram.

Question 10:

(1) Why did Mendel choose pea plants for his experiments?

(2) Which contrasting traits of the pea plant did Mendel include in his study?

Question 11:

Write Mendel's law of segregation. Draw a Punnett square for the offspring obtained in the
F1 generation by crossing pure tall and pure dwarf plants.

Question 12:
Write the law of independent assortment. What will be the genotype and phenotype in the
F2 generation?

Question 13:

Acquired traits are not inherited. How?

Question 14:

Write the factors responsible for the generation of variations in organisms. What is the
importance of variation?

Question 15:

Differentiate between inherited and acquired traits.

Question 16:

Explain the process of sex determination in humans. Draw a Punnett square for the
determination of the sex of the offspring.

Question 17:

How will you explain from Mendel's monohybrid cross experiment that which trait is
dominant and which is recessive?
Ch-9

Question 1:

The speed of light is highest in:

(1) Air

(2) Water

(3) Vacuum

(4) None of these

Question 2:

Which physical quantity does not change during the refraction of light?

(1) Speed

(2) Direction

(3) Frequency

(4) Optical density

Question 3:

In solar cookers, __________ is used to focus sunlight.

(1) Convex mirror

(2) Concave mirror

(3) Plane mirror

(4) All of the above

Question 4:

Light enters a glass plate with a refractive index of 1.50 from air. What is the speed of light
in the glass? The speed of light in a vacuum is 3 x 10^8 m/s.

(1) 2 x 10^8 m/s

(2) 1.5 x 10^8 m/s

(3) 2.5 x 10^8 m/s

Question 5:

The relation between the power of a lens and its focal length is:

(1) P = 1/f

(2) P = f/2

(3) P = 2f

(4) None of these

Question 6:

The radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is __________ times its focal length.

(1) Half

(2) Quarter

(3) Double

(4) Triple

Question 7:

The refractive index of any medium depends on:

(1) The nature of the medium

(2) The optical density of the medium

(3) The wavelength of light

(4) All of the above

Question 8:

The relation between the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection is:

(1) i = 4r

(2) i = r/2

(3) i = r

(4) None of these

Question 9:

If a ray of light is incident on a mirror at an angle of 30°, what will be the value of the angle
of reflection?
(1) 30°

(2) 60°

(3) 90°

(4) 120°

Question 10:

The medium with the highest optical density among the following is:

(1) Air

(2) Kerosene

(3) Diamond

(4) Ice

Question 11:

While reading the small letters of a dictionary, which type of lens would you prefer to use?

(1) Convex lens with a focal length of 50 cm

(2) Concave lens with a focal length of 50 cm

(3) Convex lens with a focal length of 5 cm

(4) Concave lens with a focal length of 5 cm

Question 12:

The ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to the speed of light in a medium is called
__________.

Question 13:

The unit of power of a lens is __________.

Question 14:

A ray of light passing through the __________ of a lens emerges without any deviation.

Question 15:

When light enters from a rarer medium to a denser medium, its speed __________ and it
bends __________ towards the normal.

Answer 12: Refractive index

Answer 13: Diopter

Answer 14: Optical center

Question 16:

Write the mirror formula.

Question 17:

Write the lens formula.

Question 18:

What is Snell's law?

Question 19:

What do you understand by refraction? Draw a diagram showing refraction through a glass
plate.

Question 20:

The focal length of a convex lens is 20 cm. What will be the power of the lens?

Question 21:

If the power of a lens is 2D, find the focal length of the lens and identify the type of lens.

Question 22:

The focal length of a spherical mirror and a thin lens is 15 cm. Which one is a mirror and
which one is a lens?

Question 23:

Define the power of a lens.

Question 24:

What type of mirror is used in a shaving mirror? What kind of image is formed in it?

Question 25:

Why are convex mirrors used as rear-view mirrors in vehicles?

Question 26:

Why do lemons appear bigger when placed in a glass container and viewed from the top?

Question 27:

Explain the formation of a virtual image by a plane mirror.

Question 28:
A concave mirror forms a three times magnified real image of an object placed at a distance
of 10 cm from it. At what distance from the mirror will the image be formed?

Question 29:

An object 2.0 cm tall is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal
length 10 cm. The distance of the object from the lens is 15 cm. Find the nature, position,
and size of the image. Also, find its magnification.

Question 30:

Draw ray diagrams for the following positions of the object for a concave mirror, showing
the position, nature, and size of the image:

(1) When the object is at the center of curvature.

(2) When the object is at the focus.

(3) When the object is between the focus and the pole.

Question 31:

Draw ray diagrams for the following positions of the object for a convex lens, showing the
position, nature, and size of the image:

(1) Beyond 2f

(2) At 2f

(3) Between f and 2f

(4) Between the focus and the optical center

Question 32:

Explain the principal axis, pole, and center of curvature of a mirror.

Question 33:

The focal length of a concave mirror is 30 cm. If an object is placed at a distance of 20 cm,
find the position of the image.

Question 34:

What is the difference between a real and a virtual image?

Question 35:

State the type of mirror used in the following situations:

(1) Solar cooker

(2) Headlights of a car

(4) Mirror used by a dentist to see a patient's teeth

Question 36:

Why does the submerged part of a pencil appear bent when placed in water? Explain the
reason.
Chapter 10: The Human Eye and the Colorful World

Question 1:

The image of an object is formed on which part of the human eye?

(1) Cornea

(2) Retina

(3) Iris

(4) Lens

Question 2:

The focal length of the eye lens is adjusted by:

(1) Optic nerve

(2) Iris

(3) Cornea

(4) Ciliary muscles

Question 3:

A student sitting in the last row has difficulty reading the blackboard. This student is
suffering from which vision defect?

(1) Hypermetropia

(2) Myopia

(3) Cataract

(4) Presbyopia

Question 4:

The near point of the human eye is:

(1) 25 cm

(2) 20 cm

(3) 10 cm

(4) 30 cm
Question 5:

Presbyopia is corrected by which lens?

(1) Convex lens

(2) Concave lens

(3) Bifocal lens

(4) Cylindrical lens

Question 6:

The size of the pupil in the human eye is controlled by:

(1) Iris

(2) Retina

(3) Lens

(4) Cornea (Sclera)

Question 7:

The nature of the image formed on the retina of the human eye is:

(1) Virtual, erect, small

(2) Virtual, inverted, large

(3) Real, erect, large

(4) Real, inverted, small

Question 8:

What are the far point and near point for normal human vision?

Question 9:

What type of lens is used to correct nearsightedness and farsightedness?

Question 10:

The transparent thin membrane of the human eye through which light enters is called?

Question 11:

Which part of the human eye is used for eye donation?

Question 12:

Within how much time after death can the cornea be donated?
Question 13:

Who controls the amount of light entering the eye?

Question 14:

Why do stars twinkle?

Question 15:

What is the reason for advanced sunrise and delayed sunset?

Question 16:

Why is the clear sky blue?

Question 17:

When an object absorbs all colors of light, what color will it appear to us and why?

Question 18:

Why does an astronaut see the sky as black?

Question 19:

What is meant by the accommodation power of the eye?

Question 20:

Explain the process of formation of a rainbow.

Question 21:

A person can read a book placed at a distance of 25 cm. If the book is placed 30 cm away,
the person has to wear glasses. Which eye defect does the person have and which lens will
be used to correct it?

Question 22:

What is the cause of cataract disease?

Question 23:

How can you show that sunlight is made up of seven colors?

Question 24:

Draw a labeled diagram of the human eye.

Question 25:

(1) What is dispersion? Write the colors in order.

(2) Explain the phenomenon of dispersion through a diagram.

The far point of a person suffering from nearsightedness is at a distance of 80 cm. What will
be the nature and power of the lens required to correct this defect?

Question 27:

What is nearsightedness? Draw a diagram. Which lens is used to correct this defect?

Question 28:

What is farsightedness? Draw a diagram. Which lens is used to correct this defect?
Ch-11
Question 1:

The device used to measure current in an electrical circuit is:

(1) Ammeter

(2) Voltmeter

(3) Rheostat

(4) Resistance

Question 2:

If 1 Joule of work is done to move 1 Coulomb of charge, then the potential difference
between the two points will be:

(1) 1 Volt

(2) 2 Volts

(3) 3 Volts

(4) 4 Volts

Question 3:

The rating of an electric bulb is 220 V; 100 W. When it is operated at 110 V, the power
consumed by it will be:

(1) 100 W

(2) 75 W

(3) 50 W

(4) 25 W

Question 4:

Which of the following terms does not represent electrical power?

(1) I²R

(2) IR

(3) VI

(4) V/R

Question 5:
If two resistances R₁ and R₂ are connected in parallel, then the equivalent resistance will be:

(1) Greater than R₁

(2) Greater than R₂

(3) Less than each

(4) Greater than both

Question 6:

What is the relation between the length and cross-sectional area of a conductor wire and
the wire's resistance?

(1) R ∝ L/A

(2) R ∝ A/L

(3) R ∝ L x A

(4) None

Question 7:

The resistance of a conductor wire will increase or decrease when the length of the wire
increases.

Question 8:

The total resistance of the connected resistances will increase or decrease when the
number of resistances connected in parallel decreases.

Question 9:

A piece of wire of resistance R is cut into 5 equal parts. When all these are connected in
parallel, the equivalent resistance is R'. What is the ratio of R and R'?

(1) 1/25

(2) 1/5

(3) 5

(4) 25

Question 10:

If a wire of the same length and the same cross-sectional area of a metal is connected in the
circuit with the same potential difference, first in series and then in parallel, what will be the
ratio of the heat produced in the series and parallel combinations?

(1) 1:2
(2) 2:1

(3) 1:4

(4) 4:1

Question 11:

The resistivity of a conductor wire depends on:

(1) The length of the wire

(2) The cross-sectional area of the wire

(3) The nature of the material of the wire

(4) All of the above

Question 12:

If the cross-sectional area of a conductor wire is halved, the resistance will be:

(1) Four times

(2) Doubled

(3) Half

(4) One-fourth

Question 13:

The heat generated by flowing current through a fixed resistance is proportional to the
square of:

(1) The time for which the current flows

(2) The magnitude of the resistance

(3) The temperature of the resistance

(4) The magnitude of the electric current

Question 14:

In which series is the fuse wire connected in a household electrical circuit?

(1) Series

(2) Parallel

(3) Any series

(4) Outside the house

What is the unit of electric current?

Question 16:

What is the unit of specific resistance (resistivity)?

Question 17:

What is the unit of electric charge?

Question 18:

What is the commercial unit of electrical energy?

Question 19:

What is the SI unit of resistance?

Question 20:

What is the frequency of the alternating current in India?

Question 21:

What will be the equivalent resistance between points A and B in the given circuit?

Q.22 How many electrons are present in one Coulomb of charge?

Q.23 In an electric circuit, how are the ammeter and voltmeter connected?

Q.24 An electric current of 0.5A flows through the filament of an electric bulb for 10
minutes. Find the amount of electric charge that flows through the circuit.

Q.25 How is the electrical connection done in a household circuit?

Q.26 How many watts are there in 1 horsepower? How many joules are there in 1 KWh?

Q.27 The resistance of a wire of a given material with length 'l' and thickness 'A' is 4Ω. What
will be the resistance of another wire of the same material whose length is 1/2 and
thickness is 2A?

Q.28 What is the filament of an electric bulb made of?

Q.29 An electric iron of 20Ω resistance takes a current of 5A. Calculate the amount of heat
generated in 30 seconds.
Q.30 In the given circuit, what will be the equivalent resistance between points A and B?

Q.31 Name two semiconductors.

Q.32 Write the formula for the equivalent resistance in series combination.

Q.33 Write the formula for the equivalent resistance in parallel combination.

Q.34 During a short circuit, the flow of electric current (value) increases significantly. Why?

Q.35 Two bulbs of 100W and 60W are connected in series. If a current of 1 Ampere flows
through the 100W bulb, how much current will flow through the 60W bulb?

Q.36 (1) Which factors does the resistance of a conductor wire depend on?

(2) Find the total resistance and the current flowing in the given circuit.

Q.37 (1) Define Joule's heating.

(2) An electric heater of 80Ω resistance takes a current of 15A from the mains for 2 hours.
Calculate the rate of heat generated in the heater.

Q.38 (1) What is resistance?

(2) Show how you would connect three resistors of 6Ω resistance each to get a combination
of resistance:

(i) 9Ω

(ii) 4Ω

Q.39 What is Ohm's law? Draw a labeled diagram of the circuit for the experimental
verification of Ohm's law and describe it.
In the given circuit, what is the total resistance between points A and B?

Q.40 In which of the following cases will the current flow more easily, in a thick wire or a
thin wire of the same metal, when they are connected to the same battery? Why?

Q.41 What are the advantages of connecting electrical appliances in parallel in households?

Q.42 How should three resistors of 20Ω, 30Ω, and 6Ω be connected to get a total resistance
of:

(1) 4Ω

(2) 10Ω

Q.43 Which will consume more electrical energy?

(1) A 250W TV running for 1 hour

(2) A 1200W toaster used for 10 minutes

Q.44 What is a fuse wire? What is its importance?

Question 1:

The device used to generate electric current is called:

(1) Generator

(2) Galvanometer

(3) Ammeter

(4) Motor

Question 2:

The direction of the force acting on a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field
is given by:

(1) Fleming's Right-Hand Thumb Rule

(2) Fleming's Left-Hand Rule

(3) Lenz's Law

(4) Faraday's Law

Question 3:

Who discovered the relationship between electric current and magnetism?

(1) Newton

(2) Faraday

(3) Oersted

(4) Maxwell

Question 4:

The direction of the magnetic field produced around a straight current-carrying conductor is
determined by:

(1) Fleming's Left-Hand Rule

(2) Fleming's Right-Hand Thumb Rule

(3) Faraday's Law

(4) Oersted's Electromagnetism Law

Question 5:
During a short circuit, the value of electric current in the circuit:

(1) Becomes very low

(2) Does not change

(3) Increases significantly

(4) Changes continuously

Question 6:

Which of the following correctly describes the magnetic field near a long, current-carrying
wire?

(1) Magnetic field lines are perpendicular to the wire.

(2) Magnetic field lines are parallel to the wire.

(3) Magnetic field lines are radial.

(4) Magnetic field lines are concentric circles with the wire at the center.

Question 7:

What is a solenoid? How is an electromagnet obtained from a solenoid? Draw the magnetic
field lines around the solenoid.

Question 8:

Write any four characteristics of the magnetic field lines aligned by a bar magnet.

Question 9:

Explain Fleming's Right-Hand Thumb Rule with a diagram.

Question 10:

Two magnetic field lines do not intersect each other. Why?

Question 11:

What is the function of a fuse wire?

Question 12:

List two ways to produce a magnetic field.

Question 13:

Draw the magnetic field lines produced around a bar magnet.

Question 14:

What is an earthing wire? Why is it necessary to earth metal-clad electrical appliances?

Draw the diagram required to show the magnetic field produced by a current-carrying
circular coil.

Question 16:

What kind of change occurs in the magnetic field produced at a point due to a current-
carrying circular coil:

(1) If we increase the current flowing through the coil.

(2) If we reverse the direction of the current flowing through the coil.
Chapter-13: Our Environment

Q.1 Primary consumers form which trophic level?

(1) First

(2) Second

(3) Third

(4) Fourth

Q.2 Green plants, blue-green algae, and some bacteria that have the ability to perform
photosynthesis are called:

(1) Producers

(2) Consumers

(3) Decomposers

(4) Detritivores

Q.3 What percentage of solar energy absorbed by all green plants is utilized during
photosynthesis?

(1) 1%

(2) 2%

(3) 3%

(4) 5%

Q.4 On average, what percentage of organic matter at each trophic level is passed to the
next trophic level?

(1) 10%

(2) 5%

(3) 15%

(4) 20%

Q.5 Which factor is responsible for the depletion (decay) of the ozone layer?

(1) Carbon monoxide

(3) Chlorofluorocarbons

(4) Carbon dioxide

Q.6 Organisms that synthesize chemical energy (carbohydrates) using solar energy are:

(1) Producers

(2) Consumers

(3) Decomposers

(4) Detritivores

Q.7 Which of the following form a food chain?

(1) Grass, wheat, mango

(2) Grass, goat, human

(3) Goat, cow, elephant

(4) Grass, fish, goat

Q.8 Which layer protects us from the harmful ultraviolet radiation (waves) coming from the
sun?

(1) Troposphere

(2) Stratosphere

(3) Ozone

(4) Ionosphere

Q.9 If the amount of energy at the fourth trophic level in a food chain is 5 KJ, how much
energy will be available at the first producer level?

(1) 5 KJ

(2) 50 KJ

(3) 500 KJ

(4) 5000 KJ

Q.10 Fill in the blanks:

(i) Ultraviolet rays from the sun cause ... in humans.

(iii) An ecosystem includes ... and ... components.

(iv) Primary consumers form the ... trophic level.

(v) Secondary consumers form the ... trophic level.

(vi) Food chains form a branched network called ... .

(Answers: 1. Skin cancer, 2. Unidirectional, 3. Biotic and abiotic, 4. Secondary, 5. Tertiary, 6.

Q.11 What is the full form of UNEP?

Q.12 What is a trophic level?

Q.13 What is an ecosystem? List its various components.

Q.14 Mention two activities where non-biodegradable substances affect the environment.

Q.15 What will happen if all the organisms in a trophic level are killed?

Q.16 What is the role of decomposers in an ecosystem?

Q.17 What is a food chain? Give an example of a food chain with four trophic levels.

Q.18 Explain with examples the items considered biodegradable substances?

Q.19 Explain with examples the items considered non-biodegradable substances?

Q.20 Fill in the blanks:

(1) Define an ecosystem and list its components.

(2) What will happen if all members of one trophic level are removed? How will it differently
affect other trophic levels?

Q.21 What difficulties arise when trying to produce biomass artificially?

Q.22 What is atmospheric ozone? What steps have been taken to conserve it?

Q.23 Explain how energy is transferred at different trophic levels in an ecosystem?

Q.24 Explain how we can regulate artificial non-biodegradable substances in the

* Excretory system

* Structure of Nephron

* Structure of Human Heart

* Double Circulation System

* Transverse section of a leaf

* Mechanism of opening and closing of stomata in a leaf

* Human Brain

* Reflex Arc

* Nerve cell

* Chemical equations

* Electrolysis of water

* Acids, bases and salts

* * Diagram of the test for hydrogen gas evolved from the reaction of dilute sulfuric
acid on granulated zinc.

* * Diagram of the chlor-alkali process

* Reproduction in organisms

* * Regeneration in Planaria

* * Vegetative propagation by Bryophyllum leaf

* * Spore formation in Rhizopus

* * Germination of pollen grains on the stigma

* * Male and female reproductive systems

* Refraction

* * Refraction of light through a glass slab

* * Human eye

* * Correction of nearsightedness and farsightedness