HARI OM!

CHINMAYA VIDYALAYA NAGAPATTINAM

MCQ STUDY MATERIAL (2023 – 2024)
X STD
MATHEMATICS

1. HCF of 8, 9, 25 is
(a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 25 (d) 1
2. The least number that is divisible by all the numbers from
1 to 5 (both inclusive) is
(a) 5 (b) 60 (c) 20 (d) 100
3. Which of the following is not irrational?
(a) (2 – √3)2 (b) (√2 + √3)2 (c) (√2 -√3)(√2 +
√3) (d)27√7
4. The sum of two irrational numbers is always
(a) irrational (b) rational (c) rational or irrational
(d) one
5. The product of a non-zero rational and an irrational
number is
(a) always rational (b) rational or irrational (c) always
irrational (d) zero
6. Three farmers have 490 kg, 588 kg and 882 kg of wheat
respectively. Find the maximum capacity of a bag so that the
wheat can be packed in exact number of bags.
(a) 98 kg (b) 290 kg (c) 200 kg (d) 350 kg
7. The set A = {0,1, 2, 3, 4, …} represents the set of
(a) whole numbers (b) integers (c) natural numbers
(d) even numbers
8. LCM of the given number ‘x’ and ‘y’ where y is a multiple
of ‘x’ is given by
(a) x (b) y (c) xy (d) xy
9. The largest number that will divide 398,436 and 542
leaving remainders 7,11 and 15 respectively is
(a) 17 (b) 11 (c) 34 (d) 45
10. The product of two consecutive natural numbers is
always:
(a) prime number (b) even number (c) odd number (d)
even or odd
11. The product of three consecutive positive integers is
divisible by
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) no common factor (d) only
12. When a number is divided by 7, its remainder is always:
(a) greater than 7 (b) at least 7 (c) less than 7
(d) at most 7
13. There are 312, 260 and 156 students in class X, XI and
XII respectively. Buses are to be hired to take these students
to a picnic. Find the maximum number of students who can
sit in a bus if each bus takes equal number of students
(a) 52 (b) 56 (c) 48 (d) 63
14. Express 98 as a product of its primes
(a) 2² × 7 (b) 2 × 7² (c) 22 × 7² (d) 23 × 7
15. (6 + 5 √3) – (4 – 3 √3) is
(a) a rational number (b) an irrational number (c) a
natural number (d) an integer
16. If HCF (16, y) = 8 and LCM (16, y) = 48, then the value
of y is
(a) 24 (b) 16 (c) 8 (d) 48
17. The number ‘π’ is
(a) natural number (b) rational number (c) irrational
number (d) rational or irrational
18. If LCM (77, 99) = 693, then HCF (77, 99) is
(a) 11 (b) 7 (c) 9 (d) 22
19. The values of x and y in the given figure are:

(a) x = 10; y = 14 (b) x = 21; y = 84 (c) x = 21; y

= 25 (d) x = 10; y = 40
20. The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 33 and 264
respectively. When the first number is completely divided
by 2 the quotient is 33. The other number is:
(a) 66 (b) 130 (c) 132 (d) 196

21. What will be the least possible number of the planks,

if three pieces of timber 42 m, 49 m and 63 m long have
to be divided into planks of the same length?
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) none of these
22. 4 Bells toll together at 9.00 am. They toll after 7, 8,
11 and 12 seconds respectively. How many times will they
toll together again in the next 3 hours?
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
23. Which number is divisible by 11?
(a) 1516 (b) 1452 (c) 1011 (d) 1121
24. The exponent of 2 in the prime factorization of 144, is
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 3
25. The LCM of the two numbers is 1200. Which of the
following cannot be their HCF?
(a) 600 (b) 500 (c) 400 (d) 200
26. The zeroes of x2–2x –8 are:

(a) (2,-4) (b) (4,-2) (c) (-2,-2) (d) (-4,-4)

27. What is the quadratic polynomial whose sum and the

product of zeroes is √2, ⅓ respectively?

(a) 3x2-3√2x+1 (b) 3x2+3√2x+1 (c) 3x2+3√2x-1 (d)

None of the above

28. The degree of the polynomial, x4 – x2 +2 is

(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 1 (d) 0

29. If one of the zeroes of cubic polynomial is x3+ax2+bx+c

is -1, then product of other two zeroes is:

(a) b-a-1 (b) b-a+1 (c) a-b+1 (d) a-b-1

30. If p(x) is a polynomial of degree one and p(a) = 0, then

a is said to be:

(a) Zero of p(x) (b) Value of p(x) (c) Constant of p(x)

(d) None of the above

31. The zeroes of the quadratic polynomial x2 + 99x +

127are
(a) both positive (b) both negative

(c) one positive and one negative (d) both equal

32. The number of polynomials having zeroes as –2 and 5 is

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) more than 3 (d) 3

33. The degree of the polynomial (x + 1)(x 2 – x – x4 +1) is:

(a)2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d)

5

34. If the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial x2 + (a + 1)x

+ b are

2 and –3, then

(a) a = –7, b = –1 (b) a = 5, b = –1

(c) a = 2, b = – 6 (d) a = 0, b = –
6

35. If one zero of the quadratic polynomial x² + 3x + k is 2,

then the

value of k is
(a) 10 (b) -10 (c) 5 (d) -5

36. Zeroes of a polynomial can be expressed graphically.

Number of zeroes of polynomial is equal to number of points
where the graph of polynomial is:

(a) Intersects x-axis (b) Intersects y-axis

(c) Intersects y-axis or x-axis (d) None of the above

37. A polynomial of degree n has:

(a) Only one zero (b) At least n zeroes (c) More than n
zeroes (d) At most n zeroes

38. Zeroes of p(x) = x2-27 are:

(a) ±9√3 (b) ±3√3 (c) ±7√3 (d) None of the above

39. If one zero of the quadratic polynomial x2 + 3x + k is 2,

then the value of k is

(a) 10 (b) –10 (c) 5 (d) –5

40. A quadratic polynomial, whose zeroes are –3 and 4, is

(a) x² – x + 12 (b) x² + x + 12 (c) (x²/2) – (x/2) – 6

(d) 2x² + 2x – 24

41. The zeroes of the quadratic polynomial x2 + 7x + 10 are

(a) -4, -3 (b) 2, 5 (c) -2, -5 (d) -2, 5

42. The product of the zeroes of the cubic polynomial ax 3 +

bx2 + cx + d is

(a) -b/a (b) c/a (c) -d/a (d) -c/a

43. If the graph of a polynomial intersects the x-axis at

three points, then it contains ____ zeroes.

(a) Three (b) Two (c) Four (d) More than three

44. A quadratic polynomial, whose zeores are -4 and -5, is

(a) x²-9x + 20 (b) x² + 9x + 20 (c) x²-9x- 20 (d) x²
+ 9x- 20

45. The zeroes of the quadratic polynomial x² – 15x + 50

are
(a) both negative (b) one positive and one negative
(c) both positive (d) both equal

46. If one of the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial (p – l)x²

+ px + 1 is -3, then the value of p is

47. If one of the zeroes of a quadratic polynomial of the

form x² + ax + b is the negative of the other, then it
(a) has no linear term and the constant term is negative.
(b) has no linear term and the constant term is positive.
(c) can have a linear term but the constant term is negative.
(d) can have a linear term but the constant term is positive

48. The zeroes of the polynomial f(x) = 4x 2 – 12x + 9

are:

(a) (b) (c) 3, 4 (d) –3, –4

49. Graph of a quadratic polynomial is a
(a) straight line (b) circle (c) parabola
(d) ellipse
50. A quadratic polynomial whose one zero is 6 and sum
of the zeroes is 0, is
(a) x2 – 6x + 2 (b) x2 – 36 (c) x2 – 6
(d) x2 – 3
51. The pairs of equations x+2y-5 = 0 and -4x-8y+20=0
have:
(a) Unique solution (b) Exactly two solutions

(c) Infinitely many solutions (d) No solution

52. If one equation of a pair of dependent linear equations is

-3x+5y-2=0. The second equation will be:

(a) -6x+10y-4=0 (b) 6x-10y-4=0

(c) 6x+10y-4=0 (d) -6x+10y+4=0

53. The solution of the equations x-y=2 and x+y=4 is:

(a) 3 and 1 (b) 4 and 3 (c) 5 and 1 (d) -1 and -3

54. A fraction becomes 1/3 when 1 is subtracted from the

numerator and it becomes 1/4 when 8 is added to its
denominator. The fraction obtained is:

(a) 3/12 (b) 4/12 (c) 5/12 (d) 7/12

55. The father’s age is six times his son’s age. Four years
hence, the age of the father will be four times his son’s age.
The present ages of the son and the father are, respectively
(a) 4 and 24 (b) 5 and 30 (c) 6 and 36 (d) 3 and
24

56. The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 9. If 27 is

added to it, the digits of the number get reversed. The
number is
(a) 27 (b) 72 (c) 45 (d) 36

57. If a pair of linear equations is consistent, then the lines

are:

(a) Parallel (b) Always coincident

(c) Always intersecting (d) Intersecting or coincident

58. The pairs of equations 9x + 3y + 12 = 0 and 18x + 6y
+ 26 = 0 have

(a) Unique solution (b) Exactly two solutions

(c) Infinitely many solutions (d) No solution

59. If the lines 3x+2ky – 2 = 0 and 2x+5y+1 = 0 are

parallel, then what is the value of k?

(a) 4/15 (b) 15/4 (c) ⅘ (d) 5/4

60. The solution of 4/x+3y=14 and 3/x-4y=23 is:

(a) ⅕ and -2 (b) ⅓ and ½ (c) 3 and ½ (d) 2 and ⅓

61. The pair of equations x = a and y = b graphically

represents lines which are

(a) parallel (b) intersecting at (b, a) (c) coincident (d)

intersecting at (a, b)

62. The pair of equations 5x – 15y = 8 and 3x – 9y = 24/5

has

(a) one solution (b) two solutions (c) infinitely many

solutions (d) no solution

63. The pair of equations x + 2y + 5 = 0 and –3x – 6y + 1

= 0 have

(a) a unique solution (b) exactly two

solutions

(c) infinitely many solutions (d) no solution

64. The value of c for which the pair of equations cx – y = 2

and 6x – 2y = 3 will have infinitely many solutions is

(a) 3 (b) -3 (c) -12 (d) no value

65. A pair of linear equations which has a unique solution x

= 2, y = -3 is

(a) x + y = -1; 2x – 3y = -5 (b) 2x + 5y = -11; 4x +

10y = -22

(c) 2x – y = 1; 3x + 2y = 0 (d) x – 4y – 14 = 0; 5x –
y – 13 = 0

66. If the pair of linear equations has a unique solution,

then the lines representing these equations will
(a) coincide (b) intersect at one point

(c) parallel to each other (d) parallel to x-axis

67. The graphical representation of a pair of equations 4x +

3y – 1 = 5 and 12x + 9y = 15 will be

(a) parallel lines (b) coincident lines (c) intersecting

lines (d) perpendicular lines

68. Graphically, the pair of equations 7x – y = 5; 28x – 4y

= 11 represents two lines which are
(a) intersecting at one point (b) parallel
(c) intersecting at two points (d) coincident

69. The graph of x = -2 is a line parallel to the

(a) x-axis (b) y-axis (c) both x- and y-axis (d)
none of these

70. If in the equation x + 3y = 10, the value of y is 4, then

the value of x will be
(a) -2 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 5

71. The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 9. If 27 is

added to it, the digits of the number get reversed. The
number is
(a) 27 (b) 72 (c) 45 (d) 36

73. Asha has only ₹1 and ₹2 coins with her. If the total
number of coins that she has is 50 and the amount of money
with her is ₹75, then the number of ₹1 and ₹2 coins are,
respectively
(a) 35 and 15 (b) 15 and 35 (c) 35 and 20 (d) 25 and
25

74. If 29x + 37y = 103, 37x + 29y = 95 then :

(a) x = 1, y = 2 (b) x = 2, y = 1 (c) x = 2, y = 3 (d)
x = 3, y = 2

75. The difference between a two digit number and the

number obtained by interchanging the digits is 27. What is
the difference betw een the two digits of the number?
(a) 9 (b) 6 (c) 12 (d) 3

76. Equation of (x+1)2-x2=0 has number of real roots equal

to:

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

77. The roots of 100x2 – 20x + 1 = 0 is:

(a) 1/20 and 1/20 (b) 1/10 and 1/20

(c) 1/10 and 1/10 (d) None of the above

78. The sum of two numbers is 27 and product is 182. The

numbers are:

(a) 12 and 13 (b) 13 and 14 (c) 12 and 15 (d) 13 and

24

79. If ½ is a root of the quadratic equation x2-mx-5/4=0,

then value of m is:

(a) 2 (b) -2 (c) -3 (d) 3

80. The altitude of a right triangle is 7 cm less than its

base. If the hypotenuse is 13 cm, the other two sides of the
triangle are equal to:

(a) Base=10cm and Altitude=5cm (b) Base=12cm and

Altitude=5cm

(c) Base=14cm and Altitude=10cm (d) Base=12cm and

Altitude=10cm

81. The roots of quadratic equation 2x2 + x + 4 = 0 are:

(a) Positive and negative (b) Both Positive

(c) Both Negative (d) No real roots

82. The sum of the reciprocals of Rehman’s ages 3 years

ago and 5 years from now is 1/3. The present age of Rehman
is:

(a) 7 (b) 10 (c) 5 (d) 6

83. A train travels 360 km at a uniform speed. If the speed

had been 5 km/h more, it would have taken 1 hour less for
the same journey. Find the speed of the train.

(a) 30 km/hr (b) 40 km/hr (c) 50 km/hr (d)

60 km/hr

84. Equation of (x+1)2-x2=0 has number of real roots equal

to:

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

85. The roots of 100x2 – 20x + 1 = 0 is:

(a) 1/20 and 1/20 (b) 1/10 and 1/20 (c) 1/10 and
1/10 (d) None of the above

86. The roots of quadratic equation 2x2 + x + 4 = 0 are:

(a) Positive and negative (b) Both Positive

(c) Both Negative (d) No real roots

87. If one root of equation 4x2-2x+k-4=0 is reciprocal of the

other. The value of k is:

(a) -8 (b) 8 (c) -4 (d) 4

88. Which one of the following is not a quadratic equation?

(a) (x + 2)2 = 2(x + 3) (b) x2 + 3x =

(–1) (1 – 3x)2

(c) (x + 2) (x – 1) = x2 – 2x – 3 (d) x3 – x2 +
2x + 1 = (x + 1)3

89. Which of the following equations has 2 as a root?

(a) x2 – 4x + 5 = 0 (b) x2 + 3x – 12 = 0 (c) 2x2 – 7x +

6 = 0 (d) 3x2 – 6x – 2 = 0

90. A quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 has no real roots,

if

(a) b2 – 4ac > 0 (b) b2 – 4ac = 0 (c) b2 – 4ac < 0 (d)

b2 – ac < 0

91. The product of two consecutive positive integers is 360.

To find the integers, this can be represented in the form of
quadratic equation as

(a) x2 + x + 360 = 0 (b) x2 + x – 360 = 0 (c) 2x2 + x –

360 (d) x2 – 2x – 360 = 0

92. The equation which has the sum of its roots as 3 is

(a) 2x2 – 3x + 6 = 0 (b) –x2 + 3x – 3 = 0 (c) √2x2 –

3/√2x + 1 = 0(d) 3x2 – 3x + 3 = 0

93. The quadratic equation x2 + 7x – 60 has

(a) two equal roots (b) two real and unequal roots

(b) no real roots (c) two equal complex roots

94. The maximum number of roots for a quadratic equation
is equal to

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

95. The roots of quadratic equation 5x2 – 4x + 5 = 0 are

(a) Real & Equal (b) Real & Unequal (c) Not real (d)
Non-real and equal

96. A natural number, when increased by 12, equals 160

times its reciprocal. Find the number.

(a) 3 (b) 8 (c) 4 (d) 7

97. The product of two successive integral multiples of 5 is

300. Then the numbers are:

(a) 25, 30 (b) 10, 15 (c) 30, 35 (d) 15, 20

98. Rohini had scored 10 more marks in her mathematics

test out of 30 marks, 9 times these marks would have been
the square of her actual marks. How many marks did she get
in the test?

(a)14 (b) 16 (c) 15 (d) 18

99. A train travels at a certain average speed for a distance

of 63 km and then travels a distance of 72 km at an average
speed of 6 km/h more than its original speed. If it takes 3
hours to complete the total journey, what is its original
average speed?

(a) 42 km/hr (b) 44 km/hr (c) 46 km/hr (d) 48

km/hr

100. The sum of the squares of two consecutive natural

numbers is 313. The numbers are
(a) 12, 13 (b) 13,14 (c) 11,12 (d) 14,15

101. In an Arithmetic Progression, if a = 28, d = -4, n = 7,

then an is:

(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 3 (d) 7

102. 30th term of the A.P: 10, 7, 4, …, is

(a) 97 (b) 77 (c) -77 (d) -87

103. 11th term of the A.P. -3, -1/2, 2 …. Is

(a) 28 (b) 22 (c) -38 (d) -48

104. The missing terms in AP: __, 13, __, 3 are:

(a) 11 and 9 (b) 17 and 9 (c) 18 and 8 (d) 18 and 9

105. The nth term of an A.P. is given by an = 3 + 4n. The

common difference is
(a) 7 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 1

106. The (n – 1)th term of an A.P. is given by 7,12,17, 22,…

is
(a) 5n + 2 (b) 5n + 3 (c) 5n – 5 (d) 5n – 3

107. The 10th term from the end of the A.P. -5, -10, -15,…, -
1000 is
(a) -955 (b) -945 (c) -950 (d) -965

108. The sum of all two digit odd numbers is

(a) 2575 (b) 2475 (c) 2524 (d) 2425

109. Which term of the A.P. 3, 8, 13, 18, … is 78?

(a) 12th (b) 13th (c) 15th (d) 16th

110. Which term of the AP: 21, 42, 63, 84,… is 210?

(a) 9th (b) 10th (c) 11th (d) 12th

111. The 21st term of AP whose first two terms are -3 and 4
is:

(a) 17 (b) 137 (c) 143 (d) -143

112. If 17th term of an A.P. exceeds its 10th term by 7. The

common difference is:

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

113. The number of multiples of 4 between 10 and 250 is:

(a) 50 (b) 40 (c) 60 (d) 30

114. 20th term from the last term of the A.P. 3, 8, 13, …,
253 is:

(a) 147 (b) 151 (c) 154 (d) 158

115. The sum of the first five multiples of 3 is:

(a) 45 (b) 55 (c) 65 (d) 75

116. The 10th term of the AP: 5, 8, 11, 14, … is

(a) 32 (b) 35 (c) 38 (d) 185

117. In an AP, if d = -4, n = 7, an = 4, then a is

(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 20 (d) 28

118. If the 2nd term of an AP is 13 and the 5th term is 25,

then its 7th term is

(a) 30 (b) 33 (c) 37 (d) 38

119. What is the common difference of an AP in which a 18 –

a14 = 32?

(a) 8 (b) -8 (c) -4 (d) 4

120. The famous mathematician associated with finding the

sum of the first 100 natural numbers is

(a) Pythagoras (b) Newton (c) Gauss (d) Euclid

121. The sum of first 16 terms of the AP: 10, 6, 2,… is

(a) –320 (b) 320 (c) –352 (d) –400

122. If p, q, r and s are in A.P. then r - q is

(a) s – p (b) s – q (c) s – r (d) none of these

123. Two APs have the same common difference. . The first
term of one of these is -1 and that of the other is -8. Then
the difference between their 4th terms is

(a) -1 (b) -8 (c) 7 (d) -9

124. Which term of the AP 21, 18, 15, ... , is zero?

125. How many terms are there in the AP 9, 16, 23,

30……………282?
(a) 50 (b) 45 (c) 40 (d) 42

126. Which of the following triangles have the same side

lengths?

(a) Scalene (b) Isosceles (c) Equilateral (d) None of

these

127. D and E are the midpoints of side AB and AC of a

triangle ABC, respectively and BC = 6 cm. If DE || BC, then
the length (in cm) of DE is:
(a) 2.5 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 6

128. If ABC and DEF are two triangles and AB/DE=BC/FD,

then the two triangles are similar if

(a) ∠A=∠F (b) ∠B=∠D (c) ∠A=∠D (d) ∠B=∠E

129. In triangles ABC and DEF, ∠B = ∠E, ∠F = ∠C and AB =

3 DE. Then, the two triangles are

(a) congruent but not similar (b) similar but not

congruent

(c) neither congruent nor similar (d) congruent as well

as similar

130. If in two As ABC and DEF, ABDF=BCFE=CAED, then

(a) ∆ABC ~ ∆DEF (b) ∆ABC ~ ∆EDF

(c) ∆ABC ~ ∆EFD (d) ∆ABC ~ ∆DFE

131. Area of an equilateral triangle with side length a is

equal to:

(a) (√3/2)a (b) (√3/2)a2 (c) (√3/4) a2 (d)

(√3/4) a

132. ABCD is a parallelogram with diagonal AC If a line XY

is drawn such that XY ∥ AB. BX/XC=?

(a) (AY/AC) (b) DZ/AZ (c) AZ/ZD (d) AC/AY

134. △ ABC is an acute angled triangle. DE is drawn parallel

to BC as shown. Which of the following are always true?
i) △ ABC ∼ △ ADE
ii) AD/BD= AE/EC
iii) DE= BC/2
(a) Only (i) (b) (i) and (ii) only (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d)
(ii) and (iii) only

135. In △ ABC and △ DEF, ∠A = ∠E = 40∘ and

AB/ED=AC/EF. Find ∠B if ∠F is 65°
(a) 85° (b) 75° (c) 35° (d) 65°

136. The triangles ABC and ADE are similar

Which of the following is true?

(a) EC/AC=AD/DE (b) BC/BD=CE/DE
(c) AB/AD=BC/DE (d) All of the Above

137. If ABCD is parallelogram, P is a point on side BC and

DP when produced meets AB produced at L, then select the
correct option

(a) DP/BL = DC/PL (b) DP/PL = DC/BL

(c) DP/PL = BL/DC (d) DP/PL = AB/DC

138. In the figure given below DE || BC. If AD = x, DB = x –

2, AE = x + 2 and EC = x – 1, the value of x is:

(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d)

32
139. The distance between the point P(1, 4) and Q(4, 0) is
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 3√3

140. The line segment joining the points (3, -1) and (-6, 5)
is trisected. The coordinates of point of trisection are
(a) (3, 3) (b) (- 3, 3) (c) (3, – 3) (d) (-3,-3)

141. The line 3x + y – 9 = 0 divides the line joining the

points (1, 3) and (2, 7) internally in the ratio
(a) 3 : 4 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 2 : 3 (d) 4 : 3

142. The points (1,1), (-2, 7) and (3, -3) are

(a) vertices of an equilateral triangle (b) collinear

(c) vertices of an isosceles triangle (d) none of these

143. Two vertices of a triangle are (3, – 5) and (- 7,4). If its

centroid is (2, -1), then the third vertex is
(a) (10, 2) (b) (-10,2) (c) (10,-2) (d) (-
10,-2)

144. If A(1,3) B(-1,2) C(2,5) and D(x,4) are the vertices of

a ||gm ABCD then the value of x is
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 0 (d) 3/2

145. If the distance between the points A(2, -2) and B(-1,
x) is equal to 5, then the value of x is:

(a) 2 (b) -2 (c) 1 (d) -1

146. The points (-1, –2), (1, 0), (-1, 2), (-3, 0) form a
quadrilateral of type:

(a) Square (b) Rectangle (c) Parallelogram (d)

Rhombus

147. The midpoint of a line segment joining two points A(2,

4) and B(-2, -4) is

(a) (-2, 4) (b) (2, -4) (c) (0, 0) (d) (-2, -4)

148. The distance of point A(2, 4) from the x-axis is

(a) 2 units (b) 4 units (c) -2 units (d) -4 units

149. The distance between the points P(0, 2) and Q(6, 0) is

(a) 4√10 (b) 2√10 (c) √10 (d) 20

150. If O(p/3, 4) is the midpoint of the line segment joining

the points P(-6, 5) and Q(-2, 3), the the value of p is:

(a) 7/2 (b) -12 (c) 4 (d) -4

151. The point which divides the line segment of points P(-
1, 7) and (4, -3) in the ratio of 2:3 is:

(a) (-1, 3) (b) (-1, -3) (c) (1, -3) (d) (1, 3)

152. The ratio in which the line segment joining the points
P(-3, 10) and Q(6, –8) is divided by O(-1, 6) is:

(a) 1:3 (b) 3:4 (c) 2:7 (d) 2:5

153. The coordinates of a point P, where PQ is the diameter

of a circle whose centre is (2, – 3) and Q is (1, 4) is:

(a) (3, -10) (b) (2, -10) (c) (-3, 10) (d) (-2, 10)

154. The distance of the point P(–6, 8) from the origin is

(a) 8 units (b) 2√7 units (c) 10 units (d) 6 units

155. The distance between the points (0, 5) and (–5, 0) is

(a) 5 units (b) 5√2 units (c) 2√5 units (d) 10 units

156. The perimeter of a triangle with vertices (0, 4), (0, 0)

and (3, 0) is

(a) 5 (b) 12 (c) 11 (d) 7 + √5

157. The point which lies on the perpendicular bisector of

the line segment joining the points A(–2, –5) and B(2, 5) is

(a) (0, 0) (b) (0, 2) (c) (2, 0) (d) (–2, 0)

158. If the points A(6, 1), B(8, 2), C(9, 4) and D(p, 3) are
the vertices of a parallelogram, taken in order, then the
value of p is

(a) 4 (b) -6 (c) 7 (d) -2

159. A line intersects the y-axis and x-axis at the points P

and Q, respectively. If (2, -5) is the midpoint of PQ, then the
coordinates of P and Q are, respectively

(a) (0, -5) and (2, 0) (b) (0, 10) and (-4, 0)
(c) (0, 4) and (-10, 0) (d) (0, -10) and (4, 0)

160. The perpendicular bisector of the line segment joining

the points A(1, 5) and B(4, 6) cuts the y-axis at

(a) (0, 13) (b) (0, –13) (c) (0, 12) (d) (13, 0)

161. In ∆ ABC, right-angled at B, AB = 24 cm, BC = 7 cm.

The value of tan C is:

(a) 12/7 (b) 24/7 (c) 20/7 (d) 7/24

162. The value of tan 60°/cot 30° is equal to:

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

163. If cos X = a/b, then sin X is equal to:

(a) (b2-a2)/b (b) (b-a)/b (c) √(b2-a2)/b (d)

√(b-a)/b

164. 2 tan 30°/(1 + tan230°) =

(a) sin 60° (b) cos 60° (c) tan 60° (d) sin 30°

165. If sin A = 1/2 , then the value of cot A is

(a) √3 (b) 1/√3 (c) √3/2 (d) 1

166. If sin A + sin2A = 1, then the value of the expression

(cos2A + cos4A) is

(a) 1 (b) 1/2 (c) 2 (d) 3

167. (Sin 30°+cos 60°)-(sin 60° + cos 30°) is equal to:

(a) 0 (b) 1+2√3 (c) 1-√3 (d) 1+√3

168. 1 – cos2A is equal to:

(a) sin2A (b) tan2A (c) 1 – sin2A (d) sec2A

169. If cos X = ⅔ then tan X is equal to:

(a) 5/2 (b) √(5/2) (c) √5/2 (d) 2/√5

170. sin 2A = 2 sin A is true when A =

(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 0° (d) 60°

171. The value of (sin 45° + cos 45°) is

(a) 1/√2 (b) √2 (c) √3/2 (d) 1

172. If ∆ABC is right angled at C, then the value of

cos(A+B) is

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) ½ (d) √3/2

173. Value of tan30°/cot60° is:

(a) 1/√2 (b) 1/√3 (c) √3 (d) 1

174. If cos A = 4/5, then tan A = ?

(a) 3/5 (b) ¾ (c) 4/3 (d) 4/5

175. If sin A + sin2 A = 1, then cos2 A + cos4 A = ?

(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) 4

176. If sin A = 1/2 and cos B = 1/2, then A + B = ?

(a) 00 (b) 300 (c) 600 (d) 900

177. If a pole 6m high casts a shadow 2√3 m long on the

ground, then the sun’s elevation is

(a) 60° (b) 45° (c) 30° (d)90°

178. If x tan 45° sin 30° = cos 30° tan 30°, then x is equal
to
(a) √3 (b) 1212 (c) 12√12 (d) 1

179. sin 2B = 2 sin B is true when B is equal to

(a) 90° (b) 60° (c) 30° (d) 0°

180. If sin θ + sin² θ = 1, then cos² θ + cos4 θ = ..

(a) -1 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 2

181. 5 tan² A – 5 sec² A + 1 is equal to

(a) 6 (6) -5 (c) 1 (d) -4

182. What is the minimum value of sin A, 0 ≤ A ≤ 90°

(a) -1 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 12

183. (sin A−2 sin3A)/ (2 cos3A−cos A)=

(a) tan A (b) cot A (c) sec A (d) 1
184. In a right triangle ABC, the right angle is at B. Which
of the following is true about the other two angles A and C?

(a) There is no restriction on the measure of the angles

(b) Both the angles should be obtuse
(c) Both the angles should be acute
(d) One of the angles is acute and the other is obtuse

185. If sin A = 8/17, find the value of secA cosA + cosecA

cosA.
(a) 23/8 (b) 15/8 (c) 8/15 (d) 6/23

186. If the length of the shadow of a tree is decreasing then

the angle of elevation is:

(a) Increasing (b) Decreasing (c) Remains the same

(d) None of the above

187. The angle of elevation of the top of a building from a

point on the ground, which is 30 m away from the foot of the
building, is 30°. The height of the building is:

(a) 10 m (b) 30/√3 m (c) √3/10 m (d) 30 m

188. If a tower 6m high casts a shadow of 2√3 m long on

the ground, then the sun’s elevation is:

(a) 60° (b) 45° (c) 30° (d) 90°

189. The angle of elevation of the top of a building 30 m

high from the foot of another building in the same plane is
60°, and also the angle of elevation of the top of the second
tower from the foot of the first tower is 30°, then the
distance between the two buildings is:

(a) 10√3 m (b) 15√3 m (c) 12√3 m (d) 36

m
190. The angle formed by the line of sight with the
horizontal when the point being viewed is above the
horizontal level is called:

(a) Angle of elevation (b) Angle of

depression

(c) No such angle is formed (d) None of the

above

191. From a point on the ground, which is 15 m away from

the foot of the tower, the angle of elevation of the top of the
tower is found to be 60°. The height of the tower (in m)
standing straight is:

(a) 15√3 (b) 10√3 (c) 12√3 (d) 20√3

192. The line drawn from the eye of an observer to the point
in the object viewed by the observer is said to be

(a) Angle of elevation (b) Angle of depression

(c) Line of sight (d) None of the above

193. The height or length of an object or the distance

between two distant objects can be determined with the help
of:

(a) Trigonometry angles (b) Trigonometry ratios

(c) Trigonometry identities (d) None of the above

194. A ladder makes an angle of 60° with the ground, when

placed along a wall. If the foot of ladder is 8 m away from
the wall, the length of ladder is

(a) 4 m (b) 8 m (c) 8√3 m (d) 16 m

195. If the height and length of a shadow of a tower are the

same, then the angle of elevation of Sun is

(a) 30° (b) 60° (c) 45° (d) 15°

196. The angle of depression of an object on the ground,

from the top of a 25 m high tower is 30°. The distance of the
object from the base of tower is

(a) 25√3 m (b) 50√3 m (c) 75√3 m (d) 50 m

197. From a point on a bridge across a river the angle of
depression of the banks on opposite sides of the river are
30° and 45° respectively. If the bridge is at the height of 30
m from the banks, the width of the river is

(a) 30(1 + √3) m (b) 30(√3 – 1) m (c) 30√3 m

(d) 60√3 m

198. The ratio of the height of a tower and the length of its
shadow on the ground is √3 : 1. The angle of elevation of
the Sun is

(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 75°

199. A tree breaks due to a storm and the broken part

bends so that the top of the tree touches the ground making
an angle of 30° with the ground. The distance between the
foot of the tree to the point where the top touches the
ground is 8 m. The height of the tree is

(a) 4√3 m (b) 8√3 m (c) 6√3 m (d) 16√3 m

200. In given figure, the value of CE is

(a) 12 cm (b) 6 cm (c) 9 cm (d) 6√3 cm

201. A circle has a number of tangents equal to

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) Infinite

202. If the angle between two radii of a circle is 110º, then

the angle between the tangents at the ends of the radii is:

(a) 90º (b) 50º (c) 70º (d) 40º

203. The length of the tangent from an external point A on a

circle with centre O is

(a) always greater than OA (b) equal to OA

(c) always less than OA (d) cannot be

estimated
204. AB is a chord of the circle and AOC is its diameter such
that angle ACB = 50°. If AT is the tangent to the circle at the
point A, then BAT is equal to

(a) 65° (b) 60° (c) 50° (d) 40°

205. If a parallelogram circumscribes a circle, then it is a:

(a) Square (b) Rectangle (c) Rhombus (d) None

of the above

206. If two tangents inclined at an angle 60° are drawn to a

circle of radius 3 cm, then length of each tangent is equal to

(a) (3/2)√3 cm (b) 6 cm (c) 3 cm (d) 3√3 cm

207. In the figure, PQL and PRM are tangents to the circle
with centre O at the points Q and R, respectively and S is a
point on the circle such that ∠SQL = 50° and ∠SRM = 60°.
Then ∠QSR is equal to

(a) 40° (b) 60° (c) 70° (d) 80°

208. A tangent intersects the circle at:

(a) One point (b) Two distinct point

(c) At the circle (d) None of the above

209. A circle can have _____parallel tangents at a single

time.

(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four

210. Two concentric circles are of radii 5 cm and 3 cm. The

length of the chord of the larger circle which touches the
smaller circle is:

(a) 8 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 12 cm (d) 18 cm

211. If angle between two radii of a circle is 130°, the angle

between the tangents at the ends of the radii is

(a) 90° (b) 50° (c) 70° (d) 40°

212. The length of a tangent from a point A at a distance 5
cm from the centre of the circle is 4 cm. The radius of the
circle is:

(a) 3 cm (b) 5 cm (c) 7 cm (d) 10 cm

213. A line intersecting a circle in two points is called a

_______.

(a) Secant (b) Chord (c) Diameter (d) Tangent

214. The tangent to a circle is ___________ to the radius

through the point of contact.

(a) parallel (b) perpendicular (c) perpendicular

bisector (d) bisector

215. In the figure below, PQ is a chord of a circle and PT is

the tangent at P such that ∠QPT = 60°. Then ∠PRQ is equal
to

(a) 135° (b) 150° (c) 120° (d) 110°

216. The distance between two parallel tangents of a circle

is 18 cm, then the radius of the circle is

(a) 8 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 9 cm (d) 7.5 cm

217. A tangent is drawn from a point at a distance of 17 cm

of circle C(0, r) of radius 8 cm. The length of its tangent is
(a) 5 cm (b) 9 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 23 cm

218. The length of tangents drawn from an external point to

the circle
(a) are equal (b) are not equal (c) sometimes are equal
(d) are not defined

219. In given figure, CP and CQ are tangents to a circle

with centre O. ARB is another tangent touching the circle at
R. If CP = 11 cm and BC = 6 cm then the length of BR is
(a) 6 cm (b) 5 cm (c) 4 cm (d) 3 cm

220. Two parallel lines touch the circle at

points A and B respectively. If area of the circle is 25 n cm2,
then AB is equal to
(a) 5 cm (b) 8 cm (c) 10 cm (d) 25 cm

221. A cow is tied with a rope of length 14 m at the corner

of a rectangular field of dimensions 20m × 16m, then the
area of the field in which the cow can graze is:

(a) 154 m2 (b) 156 m2 (c) 158 m2 (d) 160

m2

222. Area of a sector of central angle 120° of a circle is 3π

cm2. Then the length of the corresponding arc of this sector
is:

(a) 5.8cm (b) 6.1cm (c) 6.3cm (d) 6.8cm

223. A round table cover has six equal designs as shown in

the figure. If the radius of the cover is 28 cm, then the cost
of making the design at the rate of Rs. 0.35 per cm2 is:

(a) Rs.146.50 (b) Rs.148.75 (c) Rs.152.25 (d)

Rs.154.75

224. The area of a sector of a circle with radius 6 cm if the

angle of the sector is 60°.
(a) 142/7 (b) 152/7 (c) 132/7 (d) 122/7

225. In a circle of radius 21 cm, an arc subtends an angle of

60° at the centre. The length of the arc is;

(a) 20cm (b) 21cm (c) 22cm (d) 25cm

226. The perimeter of a circle having radius 5cm is equal to:

(a) 30 cm (b) 3.14 cm (c) 31.4 cm (d) 40 cm

227. Area of the circle with radius 5cm is equal to:

(a) 60 sq.cm (b) 75.5 sq.cm (c) 78.5 sq.cm (d) 10.5
sq.cm

228. The largest triangle inscribed in a semi-circle of radius

r, then the area of that triangle is;

(a) r2 (b) 1/2r2 (c) 2r2 (d) √2r2

229. If the perimeter of the circle and square are equal,

then the ratio of their areas will be equal to:

(a) 14:11 (b) 22:7 (c) 7:22 (c) 11:14

230. If the area of a circle is 154 cm2, then its perimeter is

(a) 11 cm (b) 22 cm (c) 44 cm (d) 55 cm

231. It is proposed to build a single circular park equal in

area to the sum of areas of two circular parks of diameters
16 m and 12 m in a locality. The radius of the new park
would be

(a) 10 m (b) 15 m (c) 20 m (d) 24 m

232. The area of the circle that can be inscribed in a square

of side 6 cm is

(a) 36 π cm2 (b) 18 π cm2 (c) 12 π cm2 (d) 9 π

cm2

233. The wheel of a motor cycle is of radius 35 cm. How

many revolutions per minute must the wheel make so as to
keep a speed of 66 km/h?

(a) 300 (b) 400 (c) 450 (d) 500

234. The area of a quadrant of a circle whose circumference
is 22 cm, is
(a) 118cm2 (b) 772cm2 (c) 774cm2 (d) 778cm2
235. If the circumference of a circle and the perimeter of a
square are equal then :

(a) Area of the circle = Area of the square

(b) Area of the circle > Area of the square
(c) Area of the circle < Area of the square
(d) Nothing definite can be said about the relation between
the areas of the circle and square.
236. If the sum of the areas of two circles with radii R1 and
R2 is equal to the area of a circle of radius R, then

(a) R1 + R2 = R (b) R12 + R22 = R2 (c) R1 + R2 <

R (d) R12 + R22 < R2

237. If θ is the angle (in degrees) of a sector of a circle of

radius r, then the length of arc is

(a) (πr2θ)/360 (b) (πr2θ)/180 (c) (2πrθ)/360

(d) (2πrθ)/180

238. The radius of a circle whose circumference is equal to

the sum of the circumferences of the two circles of
diameters 36 cm and 20 cm is

(a) 56 cm (b) 42 cm (c) 28 cm (d) 16 cm

239. A tank is made of the shape of a cylinder with a

hemispherical depression at one end. The height of the
cylinder is 1.45 m and radius is 30 cm. The total surface area
of the tank is:

(a) 30 m2 (b) 3.3 m2 (c) 30.3 m2 (d)

3300 m2

240. A right circular cylinder of radius r cm and height h cm

(h>2r) just encloses a sphere of diameter

(a) r cm (b) 2r cm (c) h cm (d) 2h cm

241. Two identical solid cubes of side a are joined end to

end. Then the total surface area of the resulting cuboid is

(a) 12a2 (b) 10a2 (c) 8a2 (d) 11a2

242. Two identical solid cubes of side a are joined end to
end. Then the total surface area of the resulting cuboid is

(a) 12a2 (b) 10a2 (c) 8a2 (d) 11a2

243. If the surface areas of two spheres are in ratio 16 : 9,

then their volumes will be in the ratio:
(a) 27 : 64 (b) 64 : 27 (c) 4 : 3 (d) 3 : 4

244. A medicine-capsule is in the shape of a cylinder of

diameter 0.5 cm with two hemispheres stuck to each of its
ends. The length of entire capsule is 2 cm. The capacity of
the capsule is

(a) 0.36 cm3 (b) 0.35 cm3 (c) 0.34 cm3 (d) 0.33 cm3

245. If we change the shape of an object from a sphere to a

cylinder, then the volume of cylinder will

(a) Increase (b) Decrease (c) Remains unchanged (d)

Doubles

246. If a cylinder is covered by two hemispheres shaped lid

of equal shape, then the total curved surface area of the new
object will be

(a) 4πrh + 2πr2 (b) 4πrh – 2πr2 (c) 2πrh + 4πr2 (d)
2πrh + 4πr

247. If we join two hemispheres of same radius along their

bases, then we get a;

(a) Cone (b) Cylinder (c) Sphere (d) Cuboid

248. A hollow cube of internal edge 22 cm is filled with

spherical marbles of diameter 0.5 cm and it is assumed that
1/8 space of the cube remains unfilled. Then the number of
marbles that the cube can accommodate is

(a) 142296 (b) 142396 (c) 142496 (d) 142596

249. A solid cylinder of radius r and height h is placed over
another cylinder of same height and radius. The total surface
area of the shape so formed is

(a) 4πrh + 4πr2 (b) 2πrh + 4πr2 (c) 2πrh + 2πr2

(d) 4πrh + 2πr2

250. Volumes of two spheres are in the ratio 64:27. The

ratio of their surface areas is:

(a) 3 : 4 (b) 4 : 3 (c) 9 : 16 (d) 16 : 9

251. A mason constructs a wall of dimensions 270cm×

300cm × 350cm with the bricks each of size 22.5cm ×
11.25cm × 8.75cm and it is assumed that 1/8 space is
covered by the mortar. Then the number of bricks used to
construct the wall is:

(a) 11100 (b) 11200 (c) 11000 (d) 11300

252. The total surface area of a hemispherical solid having

radius 7 cm is
(a) 462 cm² (b) 294 cm² (c) 588 cm² (d) 154 cm²

253. A solid formed on revolving a right angled triangle

about its height is
(a) cylinder (b) sphere (c) right circular cone (d) two
cones

254. The surface area of a sphere is 616 cm2. Its radius is

(a) 7 cm (b) 14 cm (c) 21 cm (d) 28 cm

255. A cylinder and a cone are of same base radius and of

same height. The ratio of the volume of the cylinder to that
of the cone is
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 3 : 1 (c) 2 : 3 (d) 3 : 2

256. The volume of a sphere is 4851 cm3. Its diameter is

(a) 3.5 cm (b) 7 cm (c) 14 cm (d) 21 cm

257. The base radii of two circular cones of the same height
are in the ratio 3 : 5. The ratio of their volumes are
(a) 9 : 25 (b) 5 : 3 (c) 9 : 5 (d) 3 : 25

258. The radius (in cm) of the largest right circular cone
that can be cut out from a cube of edge 4.2 cm is

(a) 4.2 (b) 2.1 (c) 8.1 (d) 1.05

259. The radius (in cm) of the largest right circular cone
that can be cut out from a cube of edge 4.2 cm is [AI2011]
(a) 4.2 (b) 2.1 (c) 8.1 (d) 1.05

260. The radius (in cm) of the largest right circular cone
that can be cut out from a cube of edge 4.2 cm is [AI2011]
(a) 4.2 (b) 2.1 (c) 8.1 (d) 1.05

261. If the mean of frequency distribution is 7.5 and ∑fi xi =

120 + 3k, ∑fi = 30, then k is equal to:

(a) 40 (b) 35 (c) 50 (d) 45

262. The mode and mean is given by 7 and 8, respectively.

Then the median is:

(a) 1/13 (b) 13/3 (c) 23/3 (d) 33

263. The class interval of a given observation is 10 to 15,

then the class mark for this interval will be:

(a) 11.5 (b) 12.5 (c) 12 (d) 14

264. Consider the following frequency distribution of the

heights of 60 students of a class:

Height (in 150 – 155 – 160 – 165 – 170– 175 –

cm) 155 160 165 170 175 180

Number of 15 13 10 8 9 5
students

The sum of the lower limit of the modal class and upper limit
of the median class is

(a) 310 (b) 315 (c) 320 (c) 330

265. The times, in seconds, taken by 150 athletes to run a

110 m hurdle race are tabulated below:
Class 13.8-14 14-14.2 14.2-14.4 14.4-14.6 14.6-14.8 14.8-15

Frequency 2 4 5 71 48 20

The number of athletes who completed the race in less then

14.6 seconds is

(a) 11 (b) 71 (c) 82 (d) 130

266. The mean of the data: 4, 10, 5, 9, 12 is;

(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 9 (d) 15

267. The median of the data 13, 15, 16, 17, 19, 20 is:

(a) 30/2 (b) 31/2 (c) 33/2 (d) 35/2

268. Construction of a cumulative frequency table is useful

in determining the

(a) mean (b) median (c) mode (d) all the above
three measures

269. The empirical relationship between the three measures

of central tendency is

(a) 3 Median = Mode + 2 Mean (b) 2 Median = Mode + 2

Mean

(c) 3 Median = Mode + Mean (d) 3 Median = Mode –

2 Mean

270. The ________ of a class is the frequency obtained by

adding the frequencies of all the classes preceding the given
class.

(a) Class mark (b) Class height (c) Average frequency

(d) Cumulative frequency

271. The method used to find the mean of a given data

is(are):

(a) direct method (b) assumed mean method

(c) step deviation method (d) all the above

272. Mode is the

(a) middle most frequent value (b) least frequent value
(c) maximum frequent value (d) none of these
273. Find the class marks of classes 10-25 and 35-55.

274. If mode = 400 and median = 500, find mean.

275. What is the modal class of the following distribution?

276. The mean of 6 numbers is 16 with the removal of a

number the mean of remaining numbers is 17. Find the
removed number.

277. The mean of 11 numbers is 35. If mean of first 6

numbers is 32 and that of last 6 numbers is 37, find 6th
number.

278. The probability of event equal to zero is called;

(a) Unsure event (b) Sure Event

(c) Impossible event (d) Independent event

279. The probability that cannot exist among the following:

(a) 2 / 3 (b) -1.5 (c) 15% (d) 0.7

280. If P(E) = 0.07, then what is the probability of ‘not E’?

(a) 0.93 (b) 0.95 (c) 0.89 (d) 0.90

281. A bag has 3 red balls and 5 green balls. If we take a

ball from the bag, then what is the probability of getting red
balls only?

(a) 3 (b) 8 (c) ⅜ (d) 8/3

282. The sum of the probabilities of all the elementary

events of an experiment is

(a) 0.5 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 1.

283. A bag has 5 white marbles, 8 red marbles and 4 purple

marbles. If we take a marble randomly, then what is the
probability of not getting purple marble?

(a) 0.5 (b) 0.66 (c) 0.08 (d) 0.77

284. A dice is thrown in the air. The probability of getting
odd numbers is

(a) ½ (b) 3/2 (c) 3 (d) 4

285. If we throw two coins in the air, then the probability of

getting both tails will be:

(a) ½ (b) ¼ (c) 2 (d) 4

286. If two dice are thrown in the air, the probability of

getting sum as 3 will be

(a) 2/18 (b) 3/18 (c) 1/18 (d) 1/36

287. A card is drawn from the set of 52 cards. Find the

probability of getting a queen card.

(a) 1/26 (b) 1/13 (c) 4/53 (d) 4/13

288. A fish tank has 5 male fish and 8 female fish. The
probability of fish taken out is a male fish:

(a) 5/8 (b) 5/13 (c) 13/5 (d) 5

289. A card is selected at random from a well shuffled deck

of 52 playing cards. The probability of its being a face card is

(a) 3/13 (b) 4/13 (c) 6/13 (d) 9/13

290. If an event cannot occur, then its probability is

(a) 1 (b) 3/4 (c) ½ (d) 0

291. If P(A) denotes the probability of an event A, then

(a) P(A) < 0 (b) P(A) > 1

(c) 0 ≤ P(A) ≤ 1 (d) –1 ≤ P(A) ≤ 1

292. The probability that a non leap year selected at random

will contain 53 Sundays is

(a) 1/7 (b) 2/7 (c) 3/7 (d) 5/7

293. If the probability of an event is p, the probability of its

complementary event will be

(a) p – 1 (b) p (c) 1 – p (d) 1 – 1/p

294. A card is drawn from a deck of 52 cards. The event E is
that card is not an ace of hearts. The number of outcomes
favorable to E is

(a) 4 (b) 13 (c) 48 (d) 51

295. The probability of getting a bad egg in a lot of 400 is

0.035. The number of bad eggs in the lot is

(a) 7 (b) 14 (c) 21 (d) 28

296. 100 cards are numbered from 1 to 100. Find the

probability of getting a prime number.

(a) 3/4 (b) 27/50 (c) 1/4 (d) 29/100

297. A box of 600 bulbs contains 12 defective bulbs. One

bulb is taken out at random from this box. Then the
probability that it is non-defective bulb is:

(a) 143/150 (b) 147/150 (c) 1/25 (d) 1/50

298. Cards marked with numbers 2 to 101 are placed in a

box and mixed thoroughly. One card is drawn from this box
randomly, then the probability that the number on card is a
perfect square.

(a) 9/100 (b) 1/10 (c) 3/10 (d) 19/100

299. A card is drawn from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards.

Find the probability of getting a king of red suit.

(a) 1/26 (b) 3/26 (c) 7/52 (d) 1/13

300. A game of chance consists of spinning an arrow which is

equally likely to come to rest pointing to one of the number
1,2,3……12 ,then the probability that it will point to an odd
number is:

(a) 1/6 (b) 1/12 (c) 7/12 (d) 5/12