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 Contents
1. SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2023 2023-1-32

2. SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2023 2023-33-44

3. SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2022 2022-1-28

4. SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2022 2022-29-40

5. SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2021 2021-1-28

6. SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2021 2021-29-40

7. SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2020 2020-1-26

8. SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2020 2020-27-40

9. SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2019 2019-1-31

10. SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2019 2019-32-42

11. SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2018 2018-1-23

12. SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2018 2018-24-36

13. SBI Clerk Mains Solved Paper-2016 2016-1-18

14. SBI Clerk Prelim Solved Paper-2016  2016-19-28

15. SBI Clerk Solved Paper-2015 2015-1-16

16. SBI Clerk Solved Paper-2014 2014-1-16

17. SBI Clerk Solved Paper-2012 2012-1-18

18. SBI Clerk Solved Paper-2011 2011-1-20

19. SBI Clerk Solved Paper-2009 2009-1-20

SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2023 2023- 1

SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2023

(Based on Memory)
Time : 160 minutes Max. Marks : 200

Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude DIRECTIONS (Qs. 5-9): Read the information carefully and
1. Six friends Deepak, Sachin, Dinesh, Dharm, Anup, Firoj answer the questions given below:
are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre. There are few Buses travelling to some points. There are two
Sachin is sitting at an alternate place with respect to junctions, 1 and 2 where 1 is west of 2. Point K is north, J is
Deepak. Dinesh is to the immediate right of Sachin. Dharm west and I is south of Junction 1. Point C is north, A is east and
can’t sit adjacent to Deepak and Anup. Anup is to the B is south of Junction 2.
immediate right of Deepak. Firoj is at the alternate place Note: To reach one point to another, one must pass through at
to the left of Anup. Who is sitting opposite of Deepak? least one junction. In an expression movement is from left to
(a) Dinesh (b) Sachin right. Also distance between each point is unknown.
(c) Dharm (d) Firoj T$S: Bus T is at a certain point and moves left from the junction
(e) Anup to reach point S.
2. In the following question assuming the given statements T@S: Bus S is at a certain point and moves right from the
to be true, find which of the conclusion among given junction to reach point T.
conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your T%S: Bus T is at point S and moves left from the junction to
answers accordingly. reach a certain point.
Statements: N ³ K < T; M > L £ H; I ³ J £ T; M = G £ I; T#S: Bus S is at point T and moves right from the junction to
Z=F£H reach a certain point.
Conclusions: T&S: Bus T is at point S and moves straight through all the
I. G > L II. F > L III. F = L
junctions to reach a certain point.
(a) Only I is True
T+S: Bus S is at a certain point and moves straight through all
(b) Only I and Either II or III are True
the junctions to reach point T.
(c) Only II and Either I or III are True
T!S: Bus T is at a point H and moves through the 1st junction
(d) Only III and Either II or I are True
(e) None is true then takes left turn at the 2nd junction to reach a certain point.
3. In the following question assuming the given statements T*S: Bus S is at a certain point and moves through the 1st
to be true, find which of the conclusion among given junction then takes left turn at the 2nd junction to reach point T.
conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your 5. In the given below expression, what is the final position
answers accordingly. of W with respect to its initial position?
Statements: J > I £ G; T ³ L ³ K; A = M ³ G; J = N > T; A+W$B, W&B
K>U£H (a) North-East (b) North-West
Conclusions: (c) South-East (d) West
I. M > I II. L < H III. I = M (e) South
(a) Either II or III is True 6. In the given below expression what is the initial position
(b) Either I or III is True of bus Q with respect to initial position of bus G?
(c) Either I or II is True Q%B+G
(d) All are True (a) West (b) South
(e) None is True (c) North (d) East
4. In the following question assuming the given statements (e) None
to be true, find which of the conclusion among given 7. In the given below expression, what is the final position
conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your of N with respect to initial position of P?
answers accordingly. N!A#P&C
Statements: K £ N < R; U = F £ T; H = I £ U; R = T; (a) North-West (b) North
X=B>H (c) South-West (d) South-East
Conclusions: (e) North-East
I. T > H II. R ³ U III. H = T 8. In the given below expression what is the initial position
(a) Only I is True of bus U with respect to final position of bus Y
(b) Both I and III are True U%I#Y%A
(c) Only II and Either I or III are True (a) West (b) South
(d) Only III and Either I or II is True (c) North (d) South-West
(e) Only II is True (e) Can’t be determined
2023- 2 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2023

9. 1 is added to the first digit, subtracted from the second Statement III: Z is the mother-in-law of L.
digit, added to the third digit, and so on in the number (a) All of the above
‘778446748284’. The final number is formed by (b) Both statements II and III
interchanging the digits of the resulting number, that is (c) Only statement I
the first and the second digits are interchanged, the third (d) None of the above
and the fourth digits are interchanged and so on. What is (e) Both statements I and III
the difference between the largest two digit number in the
number system and the sum of all the digits of the final DIRECTIONS (Qs. 15-18): Study the following information
number thus obtained? carefully to answer the given questions:
(a) 30 (b) 33 (c) 35 (d) 41 If ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is the father of Q’
(e) 36 If ‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is the mother of Q’
If ‘P % Q’ means ‘P is the brother of Q’
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 10-14): Read the following information If ‘P & Q’ means ‘P is the sister of Q’
carefully and answer the questions. If ‘P # Q’ means ‘P is the daughter of Q’
A family of nine members – Z, X, V, T, R, P, N, L and J, which 15. In the following expression: ‘A # O + N & M ? B’. What
consists of three generations, went out for a winter picnic to a should come in the place of the question mark (?), to
garden. All of them sat on a straight bench present in the garden, establish that ‘M is the daughter of B’?
with an equal amount of distance between them, but not (a) + (b) $ (c) % (d) #
necessarily in the same order. Some of them sat facing the south (e) None of these
whereas some of them sat facing the north. The number of people 16. Which of the following options is true if the expression
facing north is exactly half the number of people facing south. ‘B & A + W # H & N % G’ is definitely true?
Also, the number of males in the family exceeds the number of (a) W is the nephew of G.
females in the family by the smallest positive integer. (b) A is the brother in law of G.
T, who is the brother-in-law of J, sat at one of the ends of the (c) B is the uncle of N.
bench. Z, who is sat third from the right end of the row facing (d) N is the aunt of W.
north, is the mother of V. L, who is married to J, sits second to (e) None of the above
the right of C, who is seated at the left end of the row and is an 17. Which of the given expressions indicates that U is the uncle
unmarried male. J, who is the son of Z, sits at the exact middle of V?
of the bench and faces the south. R, who is the son of L, sits (a) U & A + B # O & V
second from the right end of the row and faces the same direction (b) U % A $ B # O + V
as his mother that is south. V, who is the wife of T, sits seventh (c) U # A + B % O $ V
to the right of her husband and faces south. The persons who (d) U % A $ B & O + V
are sat the extreme ends of the row, face the opposite directions. (e) None of these
X is the elder brother of J and V. Z is married to P, who sits to 18. How is J related to A in the expression ‘C + B $ A & K #
the immediate right of J. N sits second to the right of her J % T’?
grandfather P and third to the right of his father T. (a) Brother (b) Father
10. How is Z related to N? (c) Mother (d) Grandfather
(a) Mother (b) Aunt (e) None of these
(c) Cousin (d) Cannot be determined
(e) Grandmother DIRECTIONS (Qs. 19): A passage is given and then three
11. Who among the following sits third to the right of J? conclusions – I, II & III are given. You have to consider the
(a) T (b) Z (c) R (d) P information given in passage as true though it seems to be
(e) V different from the actual facts. Then give your answer regarding
12. In which position the grandchildren of P are seated with the given passage that which of the conclusion/s is/are followed
respect to him? by it properly.
(a) Second to the left and fourth to the right The newly opened bookstore “White Whale” has quickly gained
(b) Immediate neighbours popularity among the city’s book lovers. Its extensive collection
(c) Third to the left and third to the right of books from various genres and periods has attracted readers
(d) Second and fourth to the right of all ages. The bookstore’s cozy reading books and tea shop
(e) Fourth to the left and second to the right have added to its charm. The store owner, Aakash, who has
13. The two persons sitting at the extreme ends of the row are studied literature at a prestigious university, ensures that every
related as_____ book on the shelves is a gem.
(a) Cousins (b) Sisters 19. Conclusions:
(c) Brothers-in-law (d) Cannot be determined I. “White Whale” only sells new books.
(e) Brothers II. The bookstore’s success is due to its book collection
14. Which of the following statements is/are not Correct? and cozy atmosphere.
Statement I: No married couple is seated side by side. III. Akash’s expertise is in management rather than
Statement II: R and N are cousins. literature.
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2023 2023- 3

(a) Only I (b) Only II 23. The positive difference between the sum of individual
(c) Both I and II (d) Both I and III digits present in the code for the first word and for the
(e) Only III second word in the phrase ‘DOCTOR ENGINEER’ is?
20. In each question below is given a statement followed by (a) 9 (b) 11 (c) 13 (d) 1
two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is (e) 3
something supposed or taken for granted. You have to 24. If all the vowels in the word ‘DEPOSIT’ are shifted by
consider the statement and the following assumptions and two forward places according to the English alphabet series
decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the and all the consonants are shifted by four backward places
statement. according to the English alphabet series, the alphabets thus
Statement: Deepak the increasing reliance on AI-driven obtained are then placed in alphabetical order, starting from
decision-making tools in the financial sector, a recent study the left to the right. What is the difference between the
warns that automated financial advisors may inadvertently position in the alphabetical series of the second letter from
perpetuate biased financial practices, potentially the right end and the fourth letter from the left end of the
exacerbating existing disparities. These AI systems, trained newly formed arrangement?
on vast datasets, have shown tendencies to offer biased (a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 11 (d) 2
advice, leading to concerns about the reinforcement of (e) 9
discriminatory financial practices. DIRECTIONS (Qs. 25-29): Study the given information
Assumption: carefully and answer the following questions.
I. The integration of AI-driven financial advisors may
Nine people Z, Y, X, W, V, U, T, S and Q are living on the
contribute to reinforcing biased financial practices.
different floors of a hotel not necessarily in the same order such
II. Financial institutions are actively working to eliminate
that four floors remains vacant. Ground floor is numbered one,
biases in AI systems used for decision-making in the
first floor is numbered two and so on.
financial sector. Top and bottom floor of the hotel are Vacant. There are four
(a) Only I implicit floors between Z and T. Z lives above T. Two persons live
(b) Only II implicit between the floors on which S and W live. Z lives immediate
(c) Both I and II implicit below S. T is not living in odd number floor. T lives immediately
(d) Either I or II implicit above Vacant floor. Number of floors between the floors on
(e) Neither I nor II implicit which X and Q live is same as the number of floors between the
21. Read the following information carefully and answer the ones on which T and Y live. X lives in one of the floor above Q
questions. and T. W lives immediately below vacant floor. No two vacant
In a certain code language, words and phrases are coded floor are immediate next to each other. At most three floor are
in accordance with the following set of rules- there in between two vacant floor. Difference between Floor in
1. All the consonants except N, M, and I are coded as which U and V lives is prime number with U lives above V.
the numbers of the even number series starting from 25. Who lives immediately two floor below one of the vacant
2. For example, Y is coded as 2, X is coded as 4, W is floor?
coded as 6 and so on. (a) U (b) V (c) T (d) Y
2. N, M, and R are coded as $, @ and % respectively. (e) W
3. The vowels are coded as the position of letter we get 26. How many persons live between Z and T?
by reversing the English alphabetical series The codes (a) Three (b) One (c) Four (d) Six
for vowels are- (e) Five
4. If the third or the fourth letter of a word is a vowel, 27. How many floor are there in between Y and W?
then that vowel is coded as ‘#’. (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 1
5. If the number of letters in a particular word is even, (e) 5
then the code for that particular word starts with an 28. Which floors are vacant?
‘C’ and if the number of letters is odd, then the code (a) 6, 2 (b) 2, 4 (c) 5, 1 (d) 6, 3
for that word starts with a ‘A’. (e) 2, 5
The word ‘BUSINESS’ is coded as? 29. Four among the five are the same and thus forms a group.
1. C2624#&242422 Who among the following does not belong to that group?
2. Z2426#&222424 (a) S (b) X (c) T (d) V
3. Z2624#&222424 (e) Z
4. C2624#&222424 DIRECTIONS (Qs. 30-32): Study the following information
5. C2426#&222424 and answer the following questions.
22. The first part of the code for the word ‘INTERMEDIATE’
is C18&26#%@. What is the remaining part of the code P # Q means All P is Q.
for the given word? P @ Q means Some P is not Q.
(a) 22618262622 (b) 22186262622 P * Q means Only a few P is Q.
P $ Q means Some P is Q.
(c) 22618222626 (d) 22626182622
P ^ Q means No P is Q.
(e) 22186222626
% means possibility e.g. P $% Q means Some P can be Q.
2023- 4 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2023

30. Statements: Book @ Table # Mobile $ Pen * Copy Statement I: Recent law changes in India have made it
Conclusions: possible for mother’s name to be used as a legitimate
I. Table #% Pen identification identifier on a variety of papers, including
II. Book @ Mobile passports and PAN cards.
III. Copy * Pen Statement II: There are international human rights treaties
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows and conventions that India is a signatory to, which uphold
(c) Only III follows (d) Only I and II follows gender equality.
(e) Only I and III follows (a) Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect.
31. Statements: H4 # G3 * S6^ Y4# Q7 (b) Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect.
Conclusions: (c) Both statement I and II are independent causes.
I. G3 @ Y4 II. H4#% S6 (d) Both statements I and II are effects of independent
III. S6 #% Q7 causes.
(a) Only I follows (e) Both statements I and II are effects of some common
(b) Only II and III follows
cause.
(c) All follows
35. The university has decided to implement a new policy in
(d) Only I and II follows
the upcoming academic session that mandates all students
(e) Only III follows
32. Statements: Man * Woman ^ House @ Car # Bike to renew their biometric identity cards every six months
Conclusions: which requires physical presence of the students. This was
I. Car @ Woman II. Man #% Bike done due to limited use of resources by alumni. What effect
III. Bike @ Woman will this policy have?
(a) Only I follows Possible Effects:
(b) Only II and III follows I. The policy will have a positive effect on both
(c) None follows academic performance and engagement, as it will
(d) Only I and III follows motivate the students to attend classes regularly,
(e) Only II follows interact with their peers and instructors and take the
33. In the question, the statement is given followed by some benefit of the available resources.
inferences. You must consider the statement to be true even II. The policy will have a negative effect on both
if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts academic performance and engagement, as it will
and then decide which inference can be drawn from the create an unnecessary burden and hassle for the
given statement. students, especially those who live far away or have
The Net has become an indispensable tool for finding other commitments.
information, communicate with people around the world (a) Only I (b) Only II
and manage your finance. However, it also poses many (c) Either I or II (d) Neither I nor II
risks and challenges for young generation, such as (e) Both I and II
radicalisation, race hate materials, excessive violence, and 36. In the question given below, there is a statement followed
suicide. Some experts argue that parents should monitor by four courses of action. On the basis of the situation
and limit their children’s internet use, while others claim given you have to decide which of the suggested course(s)
that this would violate their privacy and autonomy. Christie of action logically follow(s) for pursuing. There is an
Brinkley, a famous actress and mother of three, has increase in the number of waterborne diseases in Area W
revealed that she uses an app to track her kids’ online of Country H because the people of that area are using tap
activity and restrict their screen time. water without any filtration.
Inferences:
Course of action:
I. Christie Brinkley is a responsible parent who cares
I. The supply of water in area W should be reduced.
about her children’s well-being and safety.
II. To save from waterborne diseases public awareness
II. Parents have the right to interfere with their children’s
internet use as they see fit. programme should be arranged so that people can be
III. The internet is a dangerous place for children and aware of using clean water.
they need constant supervision and guidance. (a) If only I follows
(a) Only I (b) Only II (b) If only II follows
(c) Only III (d) Only I and III (c) If either I or II follows
(e) Only II and III (d) If neither I nor II follows
34. In the question given below, there are two statements (I) (e) If both I & II follow
and (II). These statements may be either independent 37. Statement: To manage the heavy workload, the workers
causes or may be effects of independent causes or a of company X are demanding to increase the number of
common cause. One of these statements may be the effect workers. The workers have also threatened the company
of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide to go on strike if the demand is not fulfilled by the company.
which of the following answer choice correctly depicts Which of the following will strengthen or weaken the above
the relationship between these two statements. statement?
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2023 2023- 5

I. For the last few years, due to the heavy workload, II. Incidents like these contribute to a negative
the workers have been working extra hours and did perception of safety in public spaces for women, and
not take any leave. such occurrences tarnish the reputation of the city.
II. In the last six months, the workers of company X (a) Only I implicit
have repeatedly taken rest in between the work, thus (b) Only II implicit
the work is not completed. (c) Either I or II implicit
(a) I is weak and II is strong (d) Both I and II implicit
(b) Both are strong (e) Neither I nor II implicit
(c) Both are weak 40. Read the statement below followed by two conclusions
(d) I is strong and II is weak and decide which of the assumptions is implicit from the
(e) Either I or II is weak statement.
38. Read the given information and answer the following Statement: The college authorities have decided to give
questions: seven grace marks in the Mathematics paper to all the
Our global civilization is said to be enhanced by variety. second-year students as the performance of these students
Sadly, despite recent biological evidence that has in Mathematics was below their expectations.
categorically refuted such views, theories of racial Assumptions:
prejudice continue to be spread and put into reality. I. Majority of the students in second-year may still fail
Numerous people suffered unimaginable pain as a result in Mathematics even after giving them grace marks.
of slavery, the slave trade, imperialism, and colonialism. II. Majority of the students in second-year may now pass
Which of the given statements will weaken the argument? in Mathematics after giving grace marks.
(a) Millions of people from the weaker segments of (a) Only assumption I is implicit
society now have voice and empowerment thanks to (b) Only assumption II is implicit
the institutions of our democratic polity and the (c) Either assumption I or II is implicit
growth of literacy. (d) Neither assumption I or II is implicit
(b) In comparison to the many advantages one person (e) Both assumptions I and II are implicit
enjoys, people from various racial and ethnic origins 41. Six people from three generations of a family live in a
may enjoy privileges. house. How many males are in the family?
(c) A National Committee should be established, and they Statement I – K is the daughter of G, who is married to H.
should be encouraged by the general support of the J is the father of a son and a daughter. F, the sister of H, is
legal protections against discrimination in the unmarried. H is the son-in-law of I.
constitution and other laws. Statement II – J is the father of H, who is married to G. I
(d) The internet and social media have made the globe a is the mother of G, who has a daughter. F is the aunt of K.
more interconnected place. However, some people J has two children, a son, and a daughter.
are using this technical advancement to foment racial (a) Only Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
animosity. question
(e) The government has established an institutional and (b) Only Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
administrative framework to address various types question
of discrimination within our democratic system (c) Both statements together are sufficient to answer the
39. In each question below is given a statement followed by question
two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is (d) Either statements are sufficient to answer the question
something supposed or taken for granted. You have to (e) Neither statements are sufficient to answer the
consider the statement and the following assumptions and question
decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the 42. The question below consists of two statements numbered
statement. I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the
Statement: A popular food blogger, known for her data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer
Instagram account ‘Tasty Bites Explorer,’ was recently the question. Read all the three statements and give answer:
harassed by a man in a busy marketplace in Mumbai. The Six boxes namely – N, M, L, K, J and I are kept one above
entire incident was captured on her Instagram Live and other, each box contains different Vegetables viz. Tomato,
quickly gained attention. In the video, the man tries to Potato, Carrot, Onion, Corn and Garlic. Box M is kept
strike up a conversation with the blogger, asking if she third from top at a gap of one box from one that contains
would like to join him for coffee. However, his seemingly Onion. Box K contains Corn, which is neither kept adjacent
harmless approach turns uncomfortable as he makes to box M nor adjacent to the one that contain Onion, is
inappropriate remarks about the blogger’s appearance.
kept just above one that contains Potato. How many boxes
Despite her attempts to ignore him, the man persists in
are kept below one contains Garlic?
following her and making lewd comments.
I. Box which contains Carrot and Onion are kept
Assumption:
together. Box I, which neither contains Carrot nor
I. The behaviour of the man not only violated the
contains Onion, is kept at a gap of two from box N.
blogger’s right to privacy and dignity but also
Box which contains Carrot is kept at a gap of three
highlighted the broader societal issue of gender-based
from box J.
harassment that needs to be urgently addressed.
2023- 6 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2023

II. I which contains Tomato is kept at a gap of two from 47. Which of the following combinations represents the first
box N, which neither contains Carrot nor kept two and last two elements in step IV of the given input?
adjacent to box K. Only two boxes are kept between (a) SAFE ,PLAY and EOT, DGO
box J and one which contains box Garlic. (b) PLAY, AEFS and EOT, DGO
(a) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer (c) PLAY, AEFS and TOE, DOG
the question, while the data in statement II alone is (d) CLOO, SAFE and CRY, ELT
not sufficient to answer the question. (e) ALPY, AEFS and EOT, DGO
(b) If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer 48. Seven persons namely – Ravi, Sonu, Kavita, Sameen, Tanu,
the question, while the data in statement I alone is Manu and Shyam have different salaries, Salary of how
not sufficient to answer the question. many people are less than Sonu?
(c) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement I. Salary of Ravi is more than Kavita and Sonu but not
II alone is sufficient to answer the question. as much as Shyam. The salary of Kavita is more than
(d) If the data in both statement I and II together are not Tanu and Sameen but not as much as Ravi and Shyam.
sufficient to answer the question. Salary of Tanu is only more than two Person and
(e) If the data in both statement I and II together are salary of Manu is lowest.
necessary to answer the question. II. Salary of Sonu is more than that Shyam and Tanu but
not as much as Shyam and Kavita . The salary of
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 43-45): Study the following information Manu is more than Sameen and Manu but not as much
carefully and answer the questions given below. as Ravi and Kavita . Salary of Shyam is the highest,
A arrangement machine, when given a particular input, and Salary of Sameen is not lowest.
rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is an (a) If the data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer
illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement. the question, while the data in Statement II alone is
Input: LOVE, HOPE, FREE, GIFT, BEST, CAT, MAT, not sufficient to answer the question. b) Ic) d) . e)
MAN, TOP (b) If the data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer
Step I: HOPE, FREE, GIFT, BEST, ELOV, ACT, MAT, MAN, the question, while the data in Statement I alone is
TOP not sufficient to answer the question.
Step II: FREE, GIFT. BEST, EHOP, ELOV, ACT, MAT, MAN, (c) If the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement
TOP II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Step III: GIFT, BEST, EEFR, EHOP, ELOV, ACT, AMT, AMN, (d) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are
TOP not sufficient to answer the question
Step IV: BEST, FGIT, EEFR, EHOP, ELOV, ACT, AMT, AMN, (e) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are
OPT necessary to answer the question
Step V: BEST, FGIT, EEFR, EHOP, ELOV, ACT, AMT, AMN, 49. Study the following information carefully and answer the
OPT given questions.
Step V is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules Seven persons Z, Y, X, W, V, U, and T are living in an
followed in the above steps, find out the answer to each of the eight-storey building where the bottommost floor is
following questions for the Input given below. numbered as 1 and the floor just above it as 2 and so on.
Input: CALM, TRUE, COOL, SAFE, PLAY, CRY, LET, One floor is vacant. Only one person lives on one floor. In
TOE, DOG which floor does U live?
43. Which of the following is the third element from the left I. One of the odd numbered floors is vacant. X lives in
end in step V? an odd floor below W who lives in an even numbered
(a) ERTU (b) AEFS floor but not on the top floor. W is not immediate
(c) ACLM (d) CLOO above X. 3 people lives between W and T.
(e) ALPY II. Number of floors above V is one more than the
44. What is the position of “PLAY” from “ERTU” in step III? number of floors below V. The number of persons
(a) 3rd to the left (b) 2nd to the left live between Z and V is same as the number of persons
(c) Immediate left (d) 3rd to the right live between V and T. Z lives on the top floor. Y lives
(e) None of these immediate above T.
45. Which word comes exectly between “AEFS” and “ERTU” (a) I is alone sufficient
in step V of the given input? (b) II is alone sufficient
(a) DGO (b) CLOO (c) Both statements are not sufficient
(c) ELT (d) ACLM (d) Either I or II alone sufficient
(e) ALPY (e) Both statements are needed to answer the question.
46. In which step are the elements ‘PLAY CLOO ERTU’ 50. In the following question, five different words are given
found in the same order? in the options. Along with each word, positions of four
(a) Second (b) Fourth letters in that word are given and the positions of the letters
(c) Third (d) Fifth are counted from the left end of the word. Four lettered
(e) None of the above meaningful word can be formed from the letters
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2023 2023- 7

corresponding to the positions given in each option without 54. If the marked price of each Tricycle in shop R is Rs.
jumbling the letters. Which of the following options will ______ and the average number of Tricycle sold in shops
give a meaningful English word? R and U is 23 and the total number of Tricycles sold in
(a) Claustrophobia – 2, 7, 12, 14 shop U is ______ then which of the following conditions
(b) Photosynthesis – 2, 7, 8, 12 satisfy the same order.
(c) Incomprehensive – 3, 4, 10, 12 (i) 250 and 21 (ii) 250 and 30
(d) Notwithstanding – 4, 5, 11, 12 (iii) 250 and 24
(e) Parallelogram – 6, 7, 12, 13 (a) I only (b) III only
(c) II only (d) I and II only
Quantitative Aptitude (e) None of these
55. If the total number of Tricycles sold in shop P and R
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 51-55): The given table shows the number together is 55. Find which of the following contexts is
of Tricycle sold in different shops P, Q, R and S and Cost price true.
of each article, Markup percentage of each article and discount I) The difference between the total revenue received
amount of each article in the same shops. by the shop P and R is Rs. 665.
II) The marked price of each Tricycle in shop R is Rs.
Shops Sold Cost price of Markup % of Total 250.
Tricycles each Tricycle each Tricycle Discount III) The selling price of each Tricycle in shop P is Rs.
135.
Amount
(a) I only (b) II only
P (x + 5) 4x 40 210 (c) I and II only (d) II and III only
Q y (y + 5) 20 3y (e) I and III only
56. Given that the combined ages of two individuals, J and K
R x 4x 150 117x
is a2 years, and the difference of their ages is '72 – 12a'
S (y + 10) y 80 27y years (with K being younger), and also the ratio of J's age
Note: two years ago to J's age ten years from now is 4 :7. can
(i) Selling price of Tricycle in shop P is equal to selling you determine the average between J's age three years
price of Tricycle in shop R. from now and K's age seven years ago?
(ii) Selling price of Tricycle in shop Q is equal to selling (a) a + 12 (b) a + 10
price of Tricycle in shop S. (c) a + 15 (d) a + 8
(iii) The average cost price of Tricycle in each shops P, (e) None of these
Q and R is 135. 57. In a container of capacity 500 ml a mixture of juice and
51. If the cost price of Tricycles in shops S to T are in the water is kept. Juice is 250 ml and water is 'a' ml, Now
ratio 4 : 5 and the number of Tricycles sold in shop T is 70 ml of mixture is taken out without replacement and
(y – 120), Markup percentage of Tricycles in shop T is the process is repeated one more time, the container is
(x + 5)%. If the total discount amount of Tricycles in shop now completely filled by adding water. If the ratio of milk
T is Rs. 4800. Find which of the following conditions are and water in the final mixture is 3 : 7. What is the quantity
true? of water added?
I. Selling price of the Tricycles in shop T is ` 265. (a) 250 ml (b) 300 ml
II. Total revenue generated by the shop T by selling all (c) 290 ml (d) 260 ml
the Tricycles in shop T is `12500 (e) 80 ml
III. Number of Tricycles sold in shop T is 70. 58. In the given question, two quantities are given, one as
(a) I only (b) II only Quantity I and another as Quantity II. You have to
(c) III only (d) I and II only determine relationship between two quantities and choose
(e) I and III only the appropriate option.
52. Find the difference between the Sum of the marked price Umesh bought two articles A at Rs. x and article B at
and sum of the selling price of each Tricycles sold in the ` x + 50. He sold article A at 20% profit and article B at
shop P, Q, R and S. 10% loss, and earned Rs. 45 as profit on the whole deal.
(a) ` 156. 3 (b) ` 152. 7 Quantity I : Profit earned by Umesh on selling Article
(c) ` 141.3 (d) ` 147. 3 A(in Rs.)
(e) ` 149. 3 Quantity II : Loss incurred (in `) when an article which
53. If the number of Tricycles sold in the shop Q 20% are costs Rs. 560 is sold at 25% loss.
defective and sold at Rs. 2 more than the usual discount. (a) If Quantity I ³ Quantity II
Find the total discount amount given by Shop Q by selling (b) If Quantity I > Quantity II
all the Tricycles (c) If Quantity I < Quantity II
(a) 580 (b) 550 (d) Quantity I = Quantity II or the relationship cannot
(c) 600 (d) 680 be established from the information that is given
(e) 590 (e) Quantity I £ Quantity II
2023- 8 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2023

59. In this question, two equations are given. Answer the BPOs Ratio between
questions based on given equations: Inbound Messages to
I. 2x2 – Mx + 10 = 0 Outbond Messages
a and b are two roots of the given equation and their sum
is a + b = 4.5 (a > b) P 11:05
II. 4y2 – Ny + 19 = 0 Q 4:x
c and d are two roots of the given equation such as one R 19:05
root is 40% of the largest root of first equation. (c > d)
S -
Which of the following statements is are correct?
I. Values of a + c = b + d T 5:06
II. c + d = 5. 75 U 3:05
III. a > b > c > d 62. If the number of males to females bounded the inbound
(a) Only I (b) Only III messages in K are in the ratio 10 : 9. And the total number
(c) Only II (d) All of these of males bounded the all the messages in R is 70. Find
(e) None of these the difference between the number of females bounded
60. Rohan invested some money in the bank at the rate of the inbounded messages and outbound messages in the
20% compounded annually and after 2 years received centre R.
interest as Rs. 8800. If the man invested double of the (a) 50 (b) 40
principal in another scheme at the rate of 10% (c) 30 (d) 35
compounded annually for 2 years then find the compound (e) 45
interest earned by him in the second scheme 63. Inbound and Outbound messages of S are in the ratio
(a) Rs. 8300 23 : 7. Then Inbound messages of S are (a + 3)% more
(b) Rs. 8600 than total messages made by Q. If the ratio of domestic
(c) Rs. 8200 inbound messages and International inbound messages
of R is (a + 4) : 3. Find International Inbound messages
(d) Rs. 8400
of R.
(e) Rs. 8700
(a) 15 (b) 24
61. A box contains 10 yellow, 8 green and some white balls.
(c) 18 (d) 20
Find the probability of getting three different coloured (e) None of these
balls when 3 balls are drawn from box at random if total 64. The total internationals messages by P is 41 and the ratio
number of balls in the box is 32 of Inbound domestic messages and outbound domestic
(a) 1 / 15 (b) 3 / 31 messages are in the ratio 4 : 5 : 2. Find the ratio of inbound
(c) 7 / 31 (d) 3 / 17 domestic messages by P and outbound messages by T.
(e) None of these (a) 23 : 95 (b) 17 : 86
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 62-66): The bare graph shows the total (c) 9 : 40 (d) 32 : 99
number of messages (Inbound and Outbound) from six different (e) 24 : 89
65. Total International messages (Inbound and Outbound) by
BPOs
Q and total International messages (Inbound and
Outbound) by S are in the ratio 26 : 45 and total Domestic
250 messages (Inbound and Outbound) by Q are 20% Less
than total Domestic messages (Inbound and Outbound)
200
by S. Find the Difference between international messages
150 (Inbound and Outbound) by Q and Total Inbound
messages (International and Domestic) by U.
100 (a) 7 (b) 8
(c) 9 (d) 10
50 (e) None of these
66. If total outbound messages by Q are 33.33% more than
0 Q (b + 3). Where b is the value of Inbound messages by U.
P R S T U
The find the value of a, if a is the smaller root of equation;
Note : m2 – xm + 108 = 0
(a) Inbound Messages = International (IB) + Domestic (a) 11 (b) 8
(IB) (c) 9 (d) 4
(b) Outbound Messages = In ternational (OB) + (e) None of the se
Domestic (OB) 67. The monthly income of 'A' and 'B' are in the ratio of 1 : 3
The given table shows the ratio between inbound messages respectively. 'A' spends 'x' of his monthly income and
and outbound messages saves the remaining `12480. The sum of the monthly
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2023 2023- 9

expenditure of 'A' and 'B' is `5920. If the monthly saving 73. The profit obtained on article L is ` 36 and the discount
and expenditure of ‘B’ is the ration of 5:7 respectively offered on article L is 20%. Find the difference between
then find the average monthly income of ‘A’ and ‘B’ the selling price of article J and the cost price of article L.
together? (a) ` 110 (b) ` 118
(a) ` 52000 (b) ` 54000 (c) ` 135 (d) ` 120
(e) None of these
(c) ` 56000 (d) ` 58000
(e) None of these 74. Selling price of article J to the selling price of article N
68. Yuvi and Ekansh started a business with the investment are in the ratio 3 : 5. The Marked price of article N is `50
of ` 30000 and ` 36000 respectively, after 6 months Yuvi more than its selling price. If the cost price of the article
withdrawn 20% of his initial investment and Kartik started N is Rs. 10 less than the cost price of the article M. If J is
the business with the investment of ` X. At the end of the sold at 20% profit. Find sum of the cost price of article
year, the total profit of the business is ` 132000 and profit N. Marked price of article N and Cost price of article J.
share of Ekansh is ` 48000 and find the vale of X? (a) Rs. 750 (b) Rs. 850
(a) 72000 (b) 76000 (c) Rs. 900 (d) Rs. 650
(c) 80000 (d) 64000 (e) None of these
(e) None of these 75. If the profit obtained on article M is Rs. 25 less than the
69. In this question, two equations are given, answer the profit obtained on article K, then the discount offered on
questions based on given equations: article M is
I. x2 – 12x + 32 = 0 (a) 24.67% (b) 26.89%
II. x2 – 26x + 169 = 0 (c) 22.82% (d) 21.25%
If one of the roots of given equation is taken from both (e) None of these
equation, a new equation is formed which is: 76. The ratio of the cost price of two chairs is 5 : 9 one chair,
(a) x2 + 10x + 36 = 0 (b) x2 – 17x + 52 = 0 in which cost price is less, is sold at profit of 24% and the
2
(c) x – 17x – 52 = 0 (d) x2 + 21x – 104 = 0 other one is sold for Rs. 2196 more than that of the first
2
(e) x – 16x + 63 = 0 one, if the overall profit earned after selling both the chairs
at 6%. What is the difference of cost price of the two
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 70-71): What approximate value should chairs ?
come in place of the question mark(?) in the following (a) 3150 (b) 3600
question? (c) 1800 (d) 2700
70. ? × 8.23 + 44. 89% of 80 .31 = 32.92 × 4.14 (e) None of these
(a) 8 (b) 12 77. The ratio between the radius of the circle and the length
(c) 16 (d) 20 of the rectangle is 7 : 22 and the breadth of the rectangle
(e) 14 is equal to the base of the triangle. The area and height of
71. 25.12 × 4.29 ¸ 5.19 + 16. 16 + ( 7 . 91)2 = ?2 the triangle is 2100 cm2 and 60 cm. The perimeter of the
(a) 10 (b) 8 rectangle is 360 cm, then, find the perimeter of the circle?
(c) 9 (d) 5 (a) 220 cm (b) 340 cm
(e) 12 (c) 450 cm (d) 550 cm
(e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 72-75): Read the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below. DIRECTIONS (Qs. 78-79): What approximately value should
come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following
The marked price of an article K and M is 50% above its cost equation?
price and the selling price of article J is half of the marked
price of article K. The ratio of the marked price of article M 78. 18.17 × 4.23 + (24.97 ¸ 5.31) – 33. 24 = ?
and the selling price of article J is 7 : 3. The sum of the marked (a) 50 (b) 51
price of the article L and M is Rs. 810. The profit of article K is (c) 44 (d) 40
Rs. 194 less than the cost price of M. The discount offered on (e) 47
article K is 15%. 79. 70 . 39 – 20. 19 × 1.91 + 36. 41 × 1. 17 = ?
72. If the Cost price of the article M is increase by 25% and (a) 60 (b) 66
the discount percentage of the article M is 20% then find (c) 76 (d) 73
which of the following is true in the given following (e) 81
statements? 80. A boat travels is 1.85 km downstream is 18 hours, while
I. New cost price of the article M is Rs. 325 a person can run S km in 24 hours. The speed of the boat
II. Loss of Rs. 13 occurred in still water exceeds the running speed of the person by
III. Selling price is Rs. 332 4 km /h, and the speed of the current is 3 km/h. What is
(a) I and II only (b) I only the speed of the boat in still water?
(c) II only (d) III only (a) 5 (b) 12
(e) I and III only (c) 9 (d) 6
(e) 10
2023-10 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2023

81. A train takes t seconds to pass a pole and t + 12 seconds DIRECTIONS (Qs. 88-91): In the question, two quantities
to pass a platform. The combined length of the train and (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both quantities to
the platform is 540 meters and the train's length is L establish the correct relation between Quantity (I) and Quantity
meters. If the train's length is reduced by 30 meters, it (II) and choose the correct option.
then takes 18 seconds to cross a pole. Determine the value
of t. 88. Quantity I: 50x + 32 × x 64 such that 2 £ x £ 4
(a) 23.5 (b) 19.7
(c) 16.8 (d) 20.5
(e) None of these Quantity II: 3 216y3 –2y4 + 50y such that 8 £ y £ 10
(a) Quantity (I) > Quantity (II)
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 82-83): The Series contains one wrong (b) Quantity (I) < Quantity (II)
and one missing number. (c) Quantity (I) ³ Quantity (II)
0.5, 6, 84, 840, 6720, 40320, a (d) Quantity (I) £ Quantity (II)
82. What is the value of a - 112809 (e) Quantity (I) = Quantity (II) or No relation can be
(a) 41000 (b) 43245 established
(c) 48471 (d) 52231 89. Quantity I: Pipe P can fill a tank in 3 hours. Pipe Q can
(e) 45325 fill the same in 4 hours while Pipe R can fill the same
83. Find the wrong number of the given series. tank in 5 hours. What is the time taken when all of them
(a) 84 (b) 6 works together?
(c) 6720 (d) 840 Quantity II: Two pipes P and Q can fill a tank in 8 hours.
(e) 40320 While Pipe Q and Pipe R can fill the same in 10 hours.
Pipe R and Pipe S fill the tank in 15 hours. Pipe P and
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 84-86): In this question, two equations Pipe S can fill the same tank in 30 hours. Find the time
are given. Answer the questions based on given equations:
taken by them to fill the tank together.
I. a, b, c, 707, 563, 627, 611 (a) Quantity I > Quantity II
II. x, x + 18, 433, 451, 469, y (b) Quantity I < Quantity II
84. Which of the following are true? (c) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation can be
established
æ 1ö
(i) y = a + b (ii) y = 446 + çè ÷ø C (d) Quantity I £ Quantity II
11
(e) Quantity I ³ Quantity II
1 90. Quantity I : Perimeter of triangle cut, of a square of side
(iii) x + b = ( y) 22 cm, four isosceles triangles are cut from its four corners.
2
(a) Only (ii) (b) Only (iii) Area of remaining part is 196 sq. cm. Take 2 =1.4
(c) Only (i) and (iii) (d) Only (ii) and (iii)
(e) All of these Quantity II : Percentage increase in area of rectangle.
85. If the sum of z + y = 576, then find the average of 'c' and 'z'. Increase in length and breadth are 20% and 15%
(a) 300 (b) 270 respectively.
(c) 220 (d) 200 (a) Quantity I ³ Quantity II
(e) 250 (b) Quantity I £ Quantity II
86. Had 'a' been divided by the second largest single digit (c) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation can be
prime number, then resultant would be.... established
(a) 45 (b) 38 (d) Quantity I > Quantity II
(c) 55 (d) 50 (e) Quantity I < Quantity II
(e) 40 91. Average of P and Q is 12, while the sum of Q and R is 12.
87. 3x2 – 26x + n = 0 14 ³ (P, Q) ³ 8 and 10 ³ Q and R ³ 2; Given P, Q, R are
Roots of the given equation are l and m, where, l > m and integers.
m = 8/3. Quantity I : Value of PQ – 54
Which of the following/s is/are true? Quantity II : (P + R) × Q
I. HCF of n and l is equal to 50% more than m (a) Quantity I ³ Quantity II
II. Value of n is a perfect cube (b) Quantity I £ Quantity II
III. n is multiple of l. (c) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation can be
(a) Only I and II (b) Only II established
(c) Only II (d) Only I and III (d) Quantity I > Quantity II
(e) All of these (e) Quantity I < Quantity II
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2023 2023-11

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 92-93): The following pie chart shows 97. Average weight of four friends 'J', 'K', 'L' and 'M' is a kg.
the percentage distribution of the number of mobiles sold in a When 'M' is replaced by 'N' then the average increases by
shop in five different days Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, 14.25 kg. When 'L' is replaced by 'N', average increases
Thursday and Friday. Total number of mobiles sold = 400 by 6.75 kg. If the average weight of 'L', 'M' and 'N' is 74
kg then the weight of 'N' is how much percent more than
Monday that of 'L'?
Friday (a) 30% (b) 36%
a%
(c) 42% (d) 45%
6% Tuesday (e) None for these
23%
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 98): The following questions are
20%
accompanied by two or three statements . You have to determine
1.25a% which statements(s) is/are sufficient/necessary to answer the
Thursday Wednesday questions.

Note: Difference between number of mobiles sold on Monday 98. What is the present age of Father?
and Wednesday is 12. I. The difference between the ages of Father and Son
92. Number of mobiles sold on Tuesday and Monday is what is 45 years.
percentage of the number of mobiles sold on all the II. The present age of Son is 1/4th of the present age of
remaining days. the Father.
(a) 56.87% (b) 50.78% III. The sum of the ages of Father and Son is 75 years.
(c) 42.89% (d) 53.84% (a) Any two of them (b) Only I and III
(e) None of these (c) Only I and II (d) All I, II and III
93. If the cost of each mobiles on Friday is `P and cost of (e) None of these
each mobiles on Thursday is ` (P – 10) if the total cost 99. If a wire is cut into three pieces of unequal lengths, what
earned by the shop by selling mobiles on the both the day is the length of the shortest of these pieces of wire?
is ` 9200. If the cost of each mobiles on Monday's Statement I. The combined length of the longer two
` (P – 20). Find the total amount earned by the shop on pieces of wire is 35 meters.
selling mobiles on Monday. Statement II. The combined length of the shorter two
(a) ` 1280 (b) ` 1360 pieces of wire is 30 meters.
(c) ` 1440 (d) ` 1560 (a) The data is statement I alone is sufficient to answer
(e) None of these the question, while the data in statement II alone is
94. Number of mobiles sold on Wednesday is 66.667% of not sufficient to answer the question.
the number of mobiles present in the shop on Wednesday (b) The data is statement II alone is sufficient to answer
initially and the number of mobiles sold on Thursday is the question, while the data in statement I alone is
33.33% of the number of mobiles present in the shop not sufficient to answer the question.
initially. Find the ratio between the number of unsold (c) The data in statement I alone or in statement II alone
mobiles on Wednesday and the number of unsold mobiles is sufficient to answer the question.
in the shop on Thursday (d) The data in both statements I and II are not sufficient
(a) 2 : 11 (b) 2 : 13 to answer the question.
(c) 3 : 16 (d) 3 : 17 (e) The data in both statements I and II together are
(e) None of these necessary to answer the question.
95. Average number of mobiles sold on Monday and Sunday 100. Two friends P and Q together can complete a piece of
is 8 less than the number of mobiles sold on Monday and
work in 20 days. In how many days can P alone complete
number of mobiles sold to unsold on Sunday are in the
the piece of work?
ratio 8 : 5. Find the total number of mobiles unsold on
Statement I. Q alone completes half of the work in 25 days.
Sunday.
(a) 28 (b) 25 Statement II. The efficiency of P is 50% more than that of Q.
(c) 35 (d) 20 (a) The data is statement I alone is sufficient to answer
(e) 44 the question, while the data in statement II alone is
96. Difference between the mobiles sold on Tuesday and not sufficient to answer the question.
Monday is twice the difference between the number of (b) The data is statement II alone is sufficient to answer
mobiles sold on Wednesday and Saturday. If the ratio of the question, while the data in statement I alone is
number of mobiles sold to unsold on Saturday is 19 : 15. not sufficient to answer the question.
Then find the number of mobiles unsold Saturday. (Note: (c) The data in statement I alone or in statement II alone
Number of mobiles sold on Wednesday is more than the is sufficient to answer the question.
number of mobiles sold on Saturday). (d) The data in both statements I and II and not sufficient
(a) 52 (b) 38 to answer the question.
(c) 30 (d) 44 (e) The data in both statements I and II together are
(e) None of these necessary to answer the question.
2023-12 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2023

English Language (c) on economic and social activities if required,

(d) according to the Centre’s guidelines announced on
Wednesday
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 101-105): Read the passage carefully and (e) No error
answer the questions given below it. There are some blanks 105. Which of the following should fill the blank given in (D)
given in the passage based on which some questions are framed, to make it contextually correct and meaningful?
and some words are highlighted as well to help you answer the (a) Stingy (b) Niggardly
other questions. (c) Penurious (d) Normalcy
The revised protocol for the extended period of lockdown that (e) None of these
is now scheduled to end on May 3 indicates it’s 106. From the passage, find the antonym for the word,
………………(A) rollback starting from April 20. (B) A ‘voluntary’.
partial containing(1) of the economy is being proposed, but a (a) Mandatory (b) Tight
lot will depend(2) on the extent of success (c) Tailor (d) Partial
in reopening(3) the spread(4) of the COVID-19 pandemic in (e) None of these
particular areas. (C) State and local administrations could 107. Four sentences each with one bold word type are given
continue with a tighter level of control on economic and social marked as (E). These are numbered (a), (b), (c) and (d).
activities if required, according to the Centre’s guidelines One of these words might either be wrongly spelt or
announced on Wednesday. It is now clear that the battle against inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the
the pandemic will be drawn out, and ………………(D) in life word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any.
will have to wait until a vaccine or a treatment line is found. It (a) Only a (b) Only a & b
is impossible to keep the economy shut and people at home (c) Only a & d (d) Only c
indefinitely. The proposed relaxations are, hence, a step forward. (e) All correct
Industries outside city limits, certain types of construction both
in rural and urban areas, segments of the service sector, and DIRECTIONS (Qs. 108-115): Read the passage carefully and
manufacturing partially will reopen after April 20. (E) Small answer the questions given below.
service providers(a), such as electricians, plumbers(b), IT Motivational literature aimed at youth has become a staple in
repair, motor mechanics and carpenters, will be allowed bookstores worldwide. With their aesthetically pleasing covers
to oparate(c), which will help them and those who need and powerful testimonials, these books claim to invigorate
to hire(d) them. It will be a good idea to add tailors to that list, young readers and pavetheir way towards success. Despite these
an essential service now that masks are mandatory in public promising attributes, the effectiveness of such books raises quite
and workplaces. adebate. The sheer number of these motivational compilations
101. Which of the following words given in the options should is, in itself, an overwhelming sight. They purport aversion of
come at the place marked as (A) in the above passage to reality wherein success and growth are distilled into actionable
make it grammatically correct and meaningful? Also, the tips and methodologies easily consumed by an impressionable
word should fill in the two sentences given below to make audience. However, there is a belief that such convenience
them contextually correct and meaningful? brings complexities of its own. Motivation, inherently a personal
(I) She ………………on trembling legs. and subjective experience, is often simplified in these books.
(II) She ………………at the sensation, taking in the They offer a sequence of simplified steps, a ‘one-size-fits-all’
crumbled world around her. path towards success. Though such guidance might temporarily
(a) staggered (b) conjure inspire, it rarely contributes to long-lasting motivation,
(c) evoke (d) quell rendering them ineffective in the long run. Acentral issue lies
(e) None of these in the external nature of motivation these books attempt to foster.
102. The sentence in (B) has four words given in bold. Amongst It’s widely accepted that motivation should be an intrinsic
the given bold words, which of the following must replace quality, a self-ignited passion driving one forward, even in the
each other to make the sentence contextually correct and face of adversity.This motivation, which develops from
meaningful? introspection, life experiences, and personal values, cannot be
(a) Both 2-1 and 3-4 (b) Both 1-3 and 2-4 derivedfrom predetermined methods or uniform strategies.
(c) Both 2-3 and 1-4 (d) 1-3 Additionally, there is an inherent difficulty to retain the fleeting
(e) 2-4 inspiration these books might induce. The motivational surge
103. Find the synonym for the word, ‘engage’. often experienced during or shortly after reading is seldom
(a) Depend (b) Spread sustainable. Over time, as therealities of daily life resume, the
(c) Hire (d) Provide inspiration diminishes, leaving readers at their starting point,
(e) None of these sometimes even more demotivated than before. Are these
104. In the above passage, sentence (C) may or may not have observations an indictment of youth motivation books? Not
an error in one part of the sentence.Select the part having entirely. These books undoubtedly play their part. They provide
an error. practical tips, inspiration from shared stories, and caneven
(a) State and local administrations could continue with stimulate one’s journey of self-growth and discovery. They
(b) a tighter level of control expose readers to new ways of thinking andprovide alternate
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2023 2023-13

life perspectives. However, a cautious approach towards (d) The Mediocre Influence of Motivational Books
accepting these books as the definitive path to success is (e) Youth Motivation: The Role and Limitations of
recommended. They are not magic solutions or silver bullets, Motivational Books
as they often portray themselvesto be. They should be seen as 115. How does an individual ultimately feel motivated to do
only one element of a broader journey towards self-growth and something?
development. The youth, while inspired by these motivational (a) Understanding that ‘one-size-fits-all’ path towards
reads, should understand that lasting motivation can only be success.
derived from within themselves. It is fuelled by their (b) Through introspection, life experiences and personal
impassioned desires, intrinsic values, and dreams. So, while values.
motivational literature has its place, the youth are encouraged (c) Reading motivational books, but these are only a
to primarily cultivate their own intrinsicmotivation that can temporary source.
withstand the test of time. (d) When an individual does not receive the much needed
108. What is the synonym for ‘sheer’ as used in the passage? guidance.
(a) Obscurity (b) Infinity (e) When motivational books drive the self-ignited
(c) Throw (d) Utter passion among individuals.
(e) Blur 116. According to the passage, why should young readers take
109. According to the passage, what is the complexity a cautious approach to motivational literature?
associated with the convenience of motivational books (a) The books cannot replace practical life experience.
aimed at youths? (b) The books lack credibility and authenticity.
(a) They offer too many success stories. (c) The books might discourage readers from pursuing
(b) They disrupt the reading habits of the youth. their own goals.
(c) They oversimplify the subjective nature of motivation. (d) The books cannot be the definitive path to success.
(d) They are too expensive for young people. (e) The books often lack quality and depth.
(e) They are often outdated.
110. Which of the following is a synonym for the phrase ‘retain’ DIRECTIONS (Qs. 117-123): Fill in the blanks with the
as given in the passage? most appropriate words to complete the passage.
(a) Maintain (b) Disperse In today’s fast-paced world, time management is (117) _____
(c) Relinquish (d) Neglect for success. Whether you are a student or a professional,
(e) Dismiss (118) _____ the most out of your day can be a challenge.
111. Which of the following is mentioned in the passage as a The first step is to (119) _____ a daily schedule. Start by
challenge in the effectiveness of youth motivational listing your (120) _____ tasks and prioritize them. Allocate
books? specific time slots for each task and stick to your schedule.
(a) The lack of personal testimonies Avoid (121) _____ distractions and stay (122) _____ on your
(b) The broad scope of the contents goals. Remember that (123) _____ planning and discipline
(c) Difficulty in sustaining the inspired motivation can help you make the most of your time.
(d) The language used is too complex for the youth 117. (a) crucial (b) irrelevant
(e) The books are not accessible enough
(c) ineffective (d) optional
112. What is an antonym for ‘essential’ as mentioned in the
(e) necessary
passage?
118. (a) maximizing (b) minimizing
(a) Invigorate (b) Sheer
(c) optimizing (d) ignoring
(c) Seldom (d) Intrinsic
(e) sulking
(e) Indictment
119. (a) ignore (b) create
113. Based on the passage, which of the following statements
is correct? (c) eliminate (d) cherish
(i) Motivational books potentially serve as a start (e) build
towards self-growth and development. 120. (a) favourite (b) essential
(ii) Motivational literature for youth counsels a one-size- (c) random (d) unnecessary
fits-all method to success. (e) boring
(iii) The motivational surge from these books is often 121. (a) enticing (b) eliminating
short-lived. (c) embracing (d) ignoring
(a) Only i (b) i and ii (e) unnecessary
(c) ii and iii (d) i and iii 122. (a) focused (b) distracted
(e) i, ii and iii (c) relaxed (d) anxious
114. Which of the following would be an appropriate title for (e) aimed
the passage? 123. (a) haphazard (b) strategic
(a) The Unseen Dangers of Motivational Literature (c) random (d) spontaneous
(b) Dissecting Motivational Literature for Youth (e) good
(c) The Ineffectiveness of Self-help Books
2023-14 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2023

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 124-127): In the following questions, 131. Activists in the country have been _________ since
there are some errors in every sentence. Find the part of the ages about its _________ society that prohibits women
sentence which has an error. That particular part is your from travelling, marrying or attending college without
answer. If there is no error, your answer is (d), i.e., No error. __________ from a male member of their family, also
known as the guardian according to the law.
124. She is a qualified doctor (a)/ but none of her daughters (a) denying, rigid, permit
(b)/ pursue the medical field. (c)/ No error (d) (b) fighting, strong, restrictions
(a) She is a qualified doctor (c) proposing, lenient, allowance
(b) but none of her daughters (d) curious, patriarchal, permitting
(c) pursue the medical field (e) protesting, patriarchal, permission
(d) No error 132. The new world driven by ___________ changes is
125. After knowing the truth, (a)/ he moved ahead (b)/ and seeing a __________ of startups who are questioning
made the right choice. (c) the status quo and ___________ industries.
(a) After knowing the truth (a) automatically, upsurge, disorganized
(b) he moved ahead (b) robotic, decline, Indian
(c) and made the right choice (c) technological, proliferation, disrupting
(d) No error (d) mechanical, enlargement, organized
126. Reading and writing (a)/ provides (b)/ nutrition to the (e) patriotism, storehouse, astounding
brain. (c) 133. The ______ of time does not remain the same. The new
(a) Reading and writing (b) provides lamp had _______ for reading. Therefore, he opened
(c) nutrition to the brain (d) No error his books for a ________ understanding of concepts.
127. His brother (a)/ was wet in the rain (b)/ while returning (a) lapse, more, better (b) span, less, clear
from his office. (c) (c) cycle, much, detailed (d) cycle, enough, thorough
(a) His brother (e) span, enough, better
(b) was wet in the rain 134. There cannot be _________ among Indian children
(c) while returning from his office because there are two _______ of children. They get
(d) No error two __________ kinds of education in the country.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 128-130): In the below given questions, (a) peace, kinds, varied
a part of the sentence is bold. There are five alternatives (b) equality, classes, different
provided as (A), (B), (C) and (D) which may improve the (c) happiness, types, indirect
sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no (d) peace, dimensions, major
replacement is required, choose (E) as your answer. (e) rights, kinds, limited
135. The government h as failed to provide n ecessary
128. The organization may be hiring for vacancies, but _________ for the __________ of children. Most of
cannot scold freely. them go to a ________ without blackboards.
(a) cannot scold at will (a) facilities, education, school
(b) cannot give umbrage (b) amenities, upliftment, school
(c) cannotjust scold anyway (c) schools, education, place
(d) cannot scold wilfully (d) requirements, well-being, school
(e) No improvement (e) reports, betterment, educational institute
129. Many of the conservationists proclaim to save the
environment against degradation. DIRECTIONS (Qs. 136-138): In the question given below, a
(a) to save the environment well set of sentences is given, which when properly sequenced, form
(b) that they save the environment a coherent paragraph. Arrange the sentences in the correct
(c) to prevent the environment sequence, and answer the questions.
(d) to save the environment P. Among the biggest implications of the coming drop in
(e) No improvement population is the end of plentiful labour.
130. Except for you and I, everyone went for the dinner to Q. China’s population is shrinking faster than expected.
their house. R. According to the Chinese Academy of Social Sciences,
(a) With the exception of you and I the long-anticipated population decline will start in 2027.
(b) Except for I and you S. Over the past 40 years, companies benefited from the
(c) Except for you and me seemingly endless scale of the Chinese workforce.
(d) Everyone except for me and you T. Now, that era is drawing to a close, and companies need
(e) No improvement to prepare for a shrinking talent pool.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 131-135): In each of the following 136. Which of the following would be the SECOND statement
sentences, there are three blank spaces. There are five after rearrangement?
options and each option consists of three words which will (a) P (b) R
be filled in the blanks to make the sentence grammatically (c) Q (d) S
correct. (e) T
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2023 2023-15

137. Which of the following would be the FIFTH statement (a) Ladakh (b) Himachal pradesh
after rearrangement? (c) Punjab (d) Jammu and kashmir
(a) P (b) R (c) Q (d) S (e) None of the above
(e) T 147. In which state/UT, Pench Tiger Reserve (PTR) is located?
138. Which of the following would be the THIRD statement (a) Gujrat (b) Rajasthan
after rearrangement? (c) Uttar pradesh (d) Madhya pradesh
(a) P (b) R (c) Q (d) S (e) None of the above
(e) T 148. Under the PM-JANMAN, India has a Scheduled Tribe
(ST) population with ______ communities across _____
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 139-140): In the given questions, a states.
word in the sentence is printed in bold. Below the sentence, (a) 75 & 15 (b) 75 & 18
alternatives are provided for the bold part which may help (c) 53 & 68 (d) 63 & 98
improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative out of (e) 43 & 48
the five given options. 149. In August 2020, COVID-19 stress committee headed by
139. North Korean leader Kim Jong-un met with Chinese (a) Shri Diwakar Gupta (b) Shri T N Manoharan
President Xi Jinpingand reaffirmed his commitment to (c) Shri Ashvin Parekh (d) K.V. Kamath
the peninsula’s denuclearization. (e) None of the above
(a) Emphasized (b) Redundant 150. Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) located in which of the
(c) Forced (d) Imposed following Union Territory (UTs)
(e) Slapped (a) Punjab, Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh.
140. This special magnetic appeal or charm is reinforce to his (b) Delhi, Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh.
power and presence in front of an audience. (c) Puducherry, Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh.
(a) Ornate (b) Opine (d) Madhya pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh.
(c) Paramount (d) Peculiar (e) Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh.
(e) None of these 151. How much % of Indian population come under 15 – 64 working
age, as per the United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA)
General/Finance Awareness (a) 65% (b) 68% (c) 70% (d) 80%
(e) 90%
141. DLabs at the Indian School of Business (ISB) launched 152. The manipulation of facial appearance through deep
“Build for Billions”, a startup accelerator program, in generative methods called
collaboration with the Reserve Bank Innovation Hub (a) Line art (b) Deepfake
(RBIH) and which bank? (c) Fake (d) Duplicate
(a) State Bank of India (e) None of the above
(b) Punjab National Bank 153. What is the inspiration for G20 2023 logo?
(c) Axis Bank (a) India’s national flag (b) Russia’s national flag
(d) Union Bank of India (c) France’s national flag (d) China’s national flag
(e) Bank of Baroda (e) None of the above
142. What is the architectural style of the Ayodhya Ram 154. Who is the first unicorn in 2024?
Mandir? (a) Krutrim (b) BYJU’s
(a) Gothic (b) Neoclassical (c) Swiggy (d) OYO Rooms
(c) Nagara (d) Modernist (e) Dream11
(e) None of the above 155. Eway Bill should be generated when the value exceeds
143. Name the DRDO Multi-Barrel Rocket Launcher (MBRL) systems (a) ` 50,00 (b) ` 50,000
(a) bazooka (b) Pinaka (c) ` 50,0000 (d) ` 70,000
(c) Panzerfaust 3 (d) M-160 Rocket Launcher (e) ` 60,000
(e) None of the above 156. The RBI has given permit to resident individuals to make
144. Which states are in startup ranking 2022? remittances to IFSCs that was established in India under
(a) Gujarat. Karnataka. Kerala. Tamil Nadu. which scheme?
(b) Maharashtra. Odisha. Punjab. Rajasthan. Telangana (a) Liberalized remittance scheme (LRS)
(c) Andhra Pradesh. Assam. Madhya Pradesh. Uttar (b) Money Transfer Service Scheme(MTSS)
Pradesh. Uttarakhand (c) Rupee Drawing agreement(RDA)
(d) Bihar. Haryana (d) Restructuring scheme by RBI
(e) All of the above (e) One Time Settlement Scheme (OTSS)
145. Name the Argentina’s state-owned enterprise that has 157. Which company signed MoU with NPCI to expand UPI
signed an agreement with Khanij Bidesh India Limited globally?
(KABIL) to explore and develop 5 lithium brine blocks (a) Amazon (b) Flipkart
(a) CEMYIN (b) CAMYEN (c) Google Pay India (d) Bharat pay
(c) CEMYAN (d) CIMYEN (e) None of the above
(e) None of the above 158. Windfall tax levied in the form of
146. Hanle as India’s first dark sky reserve, is located in which (a) Special Additional Extra Duty
state/UT? (b) Special Additional Excise Duty
2023-16 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2023

(c) Super Additional Excise Duty 168. Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect
(d) Special Advantage Excise Duty to TReDS?
(e) None of the above (a) It stands for Trade Related Discounting System.
159. Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) is India’s most valuable (b) It is an initiative of the Reserve Bank of India.
brand with a brand value of (c) Its aim is to help cash-starved micro, small and
(a) $50 billion (b) $43 billion medium enterprises (MSMEs) promptly encash
(c) $60 billion (d) $70 billion receivables.
(e) $80 billion (d) It is an online bill discounting platform that enables
160. What is the meaning of ISO IEC 27001? discounting of invoices/bills of exchanges of MSME
(a) International Organization for Steel sellers against large corporate, including Government
(b) International Organization for Standardization departments and PSEs through an auction mechanism
(c) Internal Organization for Standardization at competitive market rates.
(d) International Outlook for Standardization (e) None of the above
(e) None of the above 169. The National Quantum Mission (NQM) was launched for
161. An account becomes inoperative after how many years? how many years?
(a) 3 years (b) 4 years (a) 4 years (b) 8 years
(c) 2 years (d) 5 years (c) 5 years (d) 6 years
(e) 1 years (e) 9 years
162. Which company ranked first among arrangers for Indian 170. State Bank of India (SBI) had raised Rs. ________
offshore loans in 2023? through its second Basel III compliant Additional Tier 1
(a) HDFC (b) HSBC Holdings plc bond issuance for the current financial year.
(c) SBI (d) AXIS (a) `4,000 crore (b) ` 5,000 crore
(e) None of the above (c) `6,000 crore (d) `7,000 crore
163. Which of the following is NOT a classical language of (e) `8,000 crore
India? 171. The transaction limit for UPI payments for Retail Direct
(a) Odia (b) Pali Scheme and IPO subscriptions is upto Rs
(a) 1 lakh (b) 2 lakh
(c) Kannada (d) Telugu
(c) 5 lakh (d) 4 lakh
(e) None of the above
(e) 6 lakh
164. REC Limited issues inaugural Yen Denominated Green
172. The Central Board of Directors of the RBI (Reserve Bank
Bonds aggregating to JPY 61.1 Billion for how many
of India) is appointed/nominated for a period of ______
years? years.
(a) 4-year (b) 2-year (a) five (b) six (c) three (d) four
(c) 1-year (d) 5-year (e) None of the above
(e) 3-year 173. How much fine issued for coaching centre after the 1 breach
165. Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) are the of Guidelines for Regulation of Coaching Center 2024?
Financial Intermediaries engaged primarily in the (a) Rs 35,000 (b) Rs 45,000
business of (c) Rs 25,000 (d) Rs 55,000
i. Accepting Deposits (e) Rs 65,000
ii. Lending loans and advances 174. The UDGAM portal to simplify the process for the public
iii. Leasing to locate their _______in various banks through a single
iv. Hire purchasing platform.
(a) i and ii (b) iii and iv (a) Fixed Deposits (b) Unclaimed Deposits
(c) i ad iii (d) i, ii, iii and iv (c) Current Deposits (d) Claim Deposits
(e) None of the above (e) None of the above
166. Based on the recommendations of which Committee was 175. Ayhika Mukherjee is associated with which sports?
the creation of a separate category for NBFCS operating (a) Football (b) Table Tennis
in the microfinance sector (NBFC-MFI) done? (c) Cricket (d) Hockey
(a) Narasimhan Committee (e) None of the above
(b) Malegam Committee 176. Which of the following are the Domestic Systemically
(c) Deepak Parekh Committee Important Insurers (D-SIIs)?
(d) PK Mohanty Committee (a) Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC), General
(e) None of the above Insurance Corporation of India Limited (GIC Re)
167. Who is the regulatory authority for Merchant Banking (b) Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC), General
in India? Insurance Corporation of India Limited (GIC Re),
(a) Securities and Exchange Board of India and New India Assurance
(b) Reserve Bank of India (c) Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC)
(c) Union Ministry of Corporate Affairs (d) Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC), General
(d) Union Ministry of Finance Insurance Corporation of India Limited (GIC Re),
(e) None of the above and HDFC
(e) None of the above
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2023 2023-17

177. Under the Member of Parliament Local Area (a) ICICI (b) Punjab National Bank
Development (MPLAD) scheme, Rs _________ will be (c) SBI (d) HDFC
available to each Member of Parliament (MP) at the start (e) None of the above
of the financial year. 185. When was the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development
(a) 1 crore (b) 2 crore Authority of India (PFRDA) established?
(c) 5 crore (d) 4 crore (a) 2000 (b) 2005 (c) 2003 (d) 2001
(e) 6 crore (e) None of the above
178. Which Bank has applied to the Monetary Authority of 186. How many times has NASAApollo reached the moon till now?
Singapore for a banking licence? (a) Two missions (b) Six missions
(a) SBI Bank (b) Axis Bank (c) Five missions (d) Four missions
(c) ICICI Bank (d) HDFC Bank (e) Ten missions
(e) Union Bank 187. The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order (Amendment)
179. How many banks were nationalized in India on 15th April 1980? Bill, 2023 was passed to include two synonyms for a
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 8 community in which state?
(e) 9 (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Sikkim
180. Which team Netherlands defeated in World Cup 2023? (c) Chhattisgarh (d) West Bengal
(a) India (b) Pakistan (e) Bihar
(c) Bangladesh (d) South Africa 188. Which Union Ministry has set up a working group to
(e) None of the above decriminalise laws to further promote ease of doing
181. Which of the following is not a regulatory body? business?
(a) CCI (b) RBI (c) SIDBI (d) SEBI (a) Ministry of Finance
(e) None of the above (b) Ministry of MSME
182. What is the compensation amount per day of delay in (c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
releasing documents as per RBI’s recent directions? (d) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
(a) ` 2,000 (b) ` 5,000 (c) `3,000 (d) ` 4,000 (e) None of the above
(e) `6,000 189. India and which bloc reached an agreement to review their
183. Presence of Indian banks increased in overseas through free trade pact for goods by 2025?
________ (a) SAARC (b) BIMSTEC
(a) subsidy (b) Subsidiaries route (c) ASEAN (d) G-20
(c) annexation (d) appropriation (e) None of the above
(e) None of the above 190. India signed a MoU with which country to boost
184. Which bank has signed an MoU with the Indian cooperation in civil aviation?
Renewable Energy Development Agency(IREDA) to co- (a) New Zealand (b) France
lending and loan syndication of Renewable Energy(RE) (c) Germany (d) Spain
projects across the India? (e) France
ANSWER KEY
1 (a) 21 (d) 41 (b) 61 (c) 81 (b) 101 (a) 121 (a) 141 (d) 161 (c) 181 (c)
2 (b) 22 (a) 42 (b) 62 (b) 82 (c) 102 (d) 122 (a) 142 (c) 162 (b) 182 (b)
3 (b) 23 (b) 43 (d) 63 (a) 83 (b) 103 (c) 123 (b) 143 (b) 163 (b) 183 (b)
4 (c) 24 (d) 44 (b) 64 (c) 84 (a) 104 (e) 124 (c) 144 (e) 164 (d) 184 (b)
5 (a) 25 (d) 45 (b) 65 (b) 85 (b) 105 (d) 125 (b) 145 (b) 165 (d) 185 (c)
6 (b) 26 (a) 46 (c) 66 (c) 86 (c) 106 (a) 126 (b) 146 (a) 166 (b) 186 (b)
7 (c) 27 (c) 47 (b) 67 (a) 87 (b) 107 (d) 127 (b) 147 (d) 167 (b) 187 (c)
8 (c) 28 (c) 48 (e) 68 (a) 88 (a) 108 (d) 128 (a) 148 (b) 168 (a) 188 (c)
9 (a) 29 (e) 49 (e) 69 (b) 89 (b) 109 (c) 129 (b) 149 (d) 169 (b) 189 (c)
10 (e) 30 (a) 50 (d) 70 (b) 90 (d) 110 (a) 130 (c) 150 (c) 170 (b) 190 (a)
11 (e) 31 (c) 51 (a) 71 (a) 91 (e) 111 (c) 131 (c) 151 (b) 171 (c)
12 (d) 32 (e) 52 (b) 72 (a) 92 (d) 112 (d) 132 (c) 152 (b) 172 (d)
13 (c) 33 (a) 53 (d) 73 (d) 93 (c) 113 (e) 133 (d) 153 (a) 173 (c)
14 (d) 34 (b) 54 (a) 74 (a) 94 (c) 114 (e) 134 (b) 154 (a) 174 (b)
15 (d) 35 (e) 55 (c) 75 (c) 95 (d) 115 (b) 135 (a) 155 (b) 175 (b)
16 (b) 36 (b) 56 (b) 76 (b) 96 (c) 116 (d) 136 (b) 156 (a) 176 (b)
17 (b) 37 (d) 57 (c) 77 (a) 97 (b) 117 (a) 137 (e) 157 (c) 177 (c)
18 (b) 38 (b) 58 (c) 78 (c) 98 (a) 118 (c) 138 (a) 158 (b) 178 (d)
19 (b) 39 (d) 59 (c) 79 (b) 99 (d) 119 (b) 139 (a) 159 (b) 179 (c)
20 (c) 40 (a) 60 (d) 80 (c) 100 (c) 120 (a) 140 (c) 160 (b) 180 (c)
2023-18 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2023

ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS

6. (b)
Firoj K C (G)
1. (a) Deepak
Dharm
(Q¢)
J 1 2 A
(G¢)

I B (Q¢)
Anup Dinesh So, it is clear that the initial position of Q is in the south
Sachin to the initial position of G.
7. (c)
Clearly, Dinesh is sitting opposite of Deepak C (P ¢)
K
2. (b) After Combining
N ³ K £T £ J £ I £ G = M > L£ H £ F = Z
Conclusions: (P)
I. G > L ® True (G = M > L) J 1 2 A
II. F > L ® False (L £ H £ F ® L £ F) (N)
III. F = L ® False (L £ H £ F ® L £ F)
So, con clusion II and con clusion III form
complementary pairs. (N ¢) I (P ¢¢) B
Hence, only I and Either II or III are True.
3. (b) H ³ U < K £ L £ T < N = J > I £ G £ M = A So, we know that the final position of Bus 'N' from
Conclusions: initial position of Bus 'P' is in South-West.
I. M > I ® false (I £ G £ M ® I £ M) 8. (c)
II. L < H ® false (H ³ U < K £ L) C
K
III. I = M ® false (I £ G £ M ® I £ M)
So, con clusion I and con clusion III forms
complementary pair. (U¢) (Y¢)
Hence, Either I or III is true. J 1 2 A
4. (c) K £ N < R = T ³ F = U ³ I = H < B = X
Conclusions:
(I) T > H ® False (T ³ F = U ³ I = H ® T ³ H)
(II) R £ U ® True (R = T ³ F =n U) (U)I(Y) B(Y¢¢)
(III) H = T ® False (T ³ F = U ³ I = H ® T ³ H)
The distance between each point is unknown so we
So, coclusion I and III forms complementary pair.
can not exactly tell the initial position of Bus U from
Hence, only II and either I or III are true.
final Position of Bus Y. It can not be determined.
Sol. (5- 8):
9. (a)
(W¢¢¢) Digits 7 7 8 4 4 6 7 4 8 2 8 4
K C Subtract-1 +1 –1 +1 –1 +1 –1 +1 –1 +1 –1 +1 –1
Add 1
Resultant 8 6 9 3 5 5 8 3 9 1 9 3
(W) (W¢) Digit
J 1 2 A
Final 6 8 3 9 5 5 3 8 1 9 3 9
Number
The sum of all the digits of the final number is _____
I B (W¢) = 6 + 8 + 3 + 9 + 5 + 5 + 3 + 8 + 1 + 9 + 3 + 9 = 69
The largest two digit number is = 99
5. (a) So, the answer is North-East. Therefore, the difference between 99 and 69 is = 30
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2023 2023-19

Sol. (10-14) 17. (b)

U A O
X V L P J N Z R T

(+) (–) B V
(–) (+) PZ U is the uncle of V
L J (+) Hence, the answer is U%A$B#O+V
X
18. (b) C
(+) (+) (–)
R T V
(–)
N
10. (e) N is the grand daughter of Z B J T
Hence, Z is the grandmother of N.
11. (e) V is seated third to the right of J
Hence, V sits third to the right of J. A K
12. (d) The grandchildren of P are R and N. N is seated
second to the right and R is seated fourth to the right Hence, J is the father of A.
of P. Hence, the grandchildren sit second and fourth 19. (b) I. "White Whale" only sells new books ® The
to the right of P. passage does not provide any information about
whether the bookstore only sells new books or not.
13. (c) The two persons sitting at the two ends of the row
Therefore, we cannot conclude that statement I is
are X and T. They are brothers-in-law.
correct.
Hence, X and T are brothers-in-law.
II. The bookstore’s success is due to its book collection
14. (d) Statement 1: No married couple is seated side by
and cozy atmosphere ® The passage mentions that
side. This is true. There are three married couples in the bookstore has gained popularity due to its
the family and none are seated side by side. "extensive collection of books" and "cozy reading
Statement II: R and N are cousins. This is true. books and tea shop". Therefore, statement II is
Statement III: Z is mother-in-law of L. This is true. correct.
L is J's wife who is the son of Z. III. Aakash’s expertise is in management rather than
Hence, none of the statements are false. literature ® The passage states that Aakash, the store
Sol. (15-18): owner, “has studied literature at a prestigious
university”. The passage does not provide any
Symbol in diagrams Meaning information about Aakash’s management skills or
education. Therefore, we cannot conclude that the
Female Male statement III is correct.
Hence, the correct answer is Only II.
Married Single 20. (c) Statement 1: It suggests that the integration of AI-
driven financial advisors may contribute to rein-
15. (d) forcing biased financial practices, aligning the
O B warning in the study.
Statement II: It assumes that financial institutions are
actively working to eliminate biases in AI system used
for decision-making in the financial sector, which is
A N M not explicitly mentioned in the given information.
However, it is a common expectation that institutions
M is being the daughter of B when the symbol of '#' would work towards reducing biases. Therefore, the
between M and B can be palced here. correct answer is C, as both assumptions are implicit
Hence, the option (d) is Correct. and align with the concerns raised in the study about
AI - driven financial advisors.
16. (b) A H N G
B The correct answer is option (c). Both I and II
implicit.
21. (d) The codes for the 21 consonants and 5 vowels of the
English alphabetical series. They are as follows-
W 1. The consonants are coded as the numbers of the even
number series except N. M and I, which are coded
Therefore, only statement (b) is true. with special characters. Therefore, the codes for the
Hence, A is the brother-in-law of g. consonants are-
2023-20 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2023

LETTERS D E P O S I T
CONSONANT CODE CONSONANT CODE
CONSONA NTS C V C V C V C
B 2 N &
(C)/VOW ELS(V)
C 4 P 20
+2 if(V) –4if (C) –4 +2 –4 +2 –4 +2 –4
D 6 Q 22
RESULTA NT Z G L Q O K P
F 8 R % LETTER
G 10 S 24 REA RRA NGEM G K L O P Q Z
ENT
H 12 T 26
J 14 V 28 The second letter from right end is 'Q'. The fourth
letter from the left end is 'O'. Difference between
K 16 W 30 them is 17 – 15 = 2
L 18 X 32 Sol. (25-29):
Floor Person
M @ Y 34 13 VACANT
Z 36 12 S
11 Z
10 X
2. The vowels are coded as the position of letter we get 9 VACANT
by reversing the English alphabetical series. The 8 W
codes for vowels are- 7 Q
6 T
VOWEL MIRROR LETTER CODE 5 VACANT
4 U
A Z 26 3 Y
E V 22 2 V
1 VACANT
I R 18 25. (d) 'Y' lines two floor below vacant floor.
O L 12 26. (a) Number of person between Z and T is three.
27. (c) There are four floor in between W and Y.
U F 6 28. (c) So, floors S and 1 are vacant, Hence, option(c) is
the correct answer.
The given word is 'BUSINESS'. It is a eight letter 29. (e) All except 'z' lines in even number floor.
30. (a)
word. So the code for it should begin with 'c'. Also
Book
the fourth letter is a vowel. So it should be replaced
by '#' in the code.
Therefore, in accordance with the given set of rules, Mobile

the code for the given word is C2624#&222424 Table Pen Copy
Hence, the code for the word 'BUSINESS', is
'C2624#&222424'. Hence, Only I follows.
22. (a) In accordance with the given set of rules, the code 31. (c)
for the word 'INTERMEDIATE' is C18&26#%
H4 Y4
'22618262622'.
Hence, the second part of the code for the word G3
Q7
INTERMEDIATE is 226182622. S6
23. (b) 'DOCTOR' is coded as 'C61242612%. Hence, the correct answer is all follows.
The sum of the individual digits in the code is _____. 32. (e)
6 + 1 + 2 + 4 + 2 + 6 + 1 + 2 = 24 Man
'ENGINEER' is coded as 'C22&10#&2222%'. Woman
The sum of the individual digits in the code is _____
2 + 2 + 1 + 0 + 2 + 2 + 2 + 2 = 13
The positive difference between these two quantities House
is 24 – 13 = 11
24. (d) The vowels are shifted by two forward places and Car
the consonants are shifted by four backward places Bike
according to the English alphabetical series 8______.
Hence, the correct answer is Only II follows.
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2023 2023-21

33. (a) Inference 1:- II. People of different racial and ethnic origins may have
Christie Brinkley is decision to use an app to track privileges in comparison to the numerous advantages
her kids' Online activity and restrict their screen time one individual receives. Thus, this statement weakens
suggests that she is a responsible parent who cares the argument.
about her children's well-being and safety. Therefore, III. The establishment of a National Committee and the
the inference I is valid. widespread endorsement of the constitutional and
34. (b) According to statement I, India has made a other legal provisions that prohibit discrimination
progressive and landmark change in law that should be supported. This statement does not weaken
recognizes gender equality in India by making it the argument.
possible to use mother’s name in offical documents, IV. The world is now more linked thanks to the internet
which is the effect of the fact that India is bound by and social media. However, some people are stoking
international law to respect and protect such rights racial tension with this technological breakthrough
as per statement II. which does not weakens the argument.
Thus statement I is the effect and II is the V. Our democratic system’s institutional and
cause.Hence, the correct answer is Statement II is administrative structures have been set up by the
the cause and statement I is the effect. government to counter different forms of prejudice.
35. (e) Let’s analyze the possible effects of the new policy this will strengthen the argument.Thus, option II is
mandating students to renew their biometric identity the answer.
cards every six months with physical presence: 39. (d)
Effect I: The policy will have a positive effect on I. The incident showcases a clear violation of the food
both academic performance and engagement, as it blogger’s privacy and dignity, highlighting an
will motivate the students to attend classes regularly, instance of gender-based harassment. Such behavior
interact with their peers and instructors, and take not only infringes on individual rights but also points
advantage of the available resources. ’! to a larger societal issue that demands attention.
Effect II: The policy will have a negative effect on II. The statement implies that incidents like these
both academic performance and engagement, as it contribute to a negative perception of safety for
will create an unnecessary burden and hassle for the women in public spaces, and such occurrences
students, especially for those who live far away or tarnish the reputation of the city. This indicates a
have other commitments. ’! Hence, the correct broader impact on the safety perception and
answer is Both I and II. reputation of the city due to incidents like the one
36. (b) To determine which of the suggested courses of described. Therefore, assumption II is implicit.
action logically follow for addressing the situation Hence, both assumptions I and II are implicit in the
of an increase in waterborne diseases in Area W of given context.
Country H, let’s analyze each course of action: 40. (a) The given statement is-
Course of Action II: To save from waterborne The college authorities have decided to give seven
diseases, a public awareness program should be grace marks in the Mathematics paper to all the
arranged so that people can be aware of using clean second-year students as the performance of these
water. ’! This course of action logically follows for students in Mathematics was below their
addressing the situation. Waterborne diseases are expectations. This mainly implies that a majority of
likely occurring because people in Area W are using the students in second year have not passed their
tap water without filtration. Conducting a public Mathematics paper and giving them grace marks
awareness program would help educate the residents might help them clear their paper.
about the risks associated with using untreated water Considering this, we can infer that:
and promote the importance of using clean water to Assumption I: Majority of the students in second-
prevent waterborne diseases. Hence, the correct year may still fail in Mathematics even after giving
answer is If only II follows. them grace marks. This statement is implicit as those
37. (d) seven grace marks may still not be enough for many
38. (b) The passage talks about effects of racial students of second year to pass their examination as
discrimination faced by the weaker section of people they might have performed very poorly. They might
so that still the weaker section faces racial need more than seven marks to pass the examination.
discrimination, which was believed to be a thing of Hence, only assumption I is implicit.
the past. Thus, the racism faced should be put to an 41. (b)
end. I
J
I. Because of the institutions of our democratic politics
and the increase of literacy, millions of individuals
from the weaker parts of society now have a voice F H G
and empowerment which is positive note and it does
not weaker the statement.
K
Hence, statement alone is sufficient to answer the question.
2023-22 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2023

42. (b) 45. (b) In step V 'CLOO' comes exactly between "AEFS"
and "ERTU".
No. Box Vegetables 46. (c) In Step III "PLAY CLOO ERTU" are in same order.
6 N Onion 47. (b) From the above steps it is clear that PLAY, AEFS
5 and EOT, DGO represents the first two and last two
4 M Garlic elements in Step IV.
3 I Tomato
48. (e) From Statements I and II :
2 K Corn
1 J Potato Salary
(Decreasing Shyam Ravi Kavita Sonu Tanu Sameen Monu
This statement is sufficient to answer. How many Order
boxes are kept below one contains Garlic.
Thus, the salary of only three persons are less than
Hence, the data in statement II alone is sufficient to 'Sonu' Hence. Statement I and II together are
answer the question, while the data in statement I sufficient.
alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Sol. (43-47): 49. (e)
For the four letter words:- The first word from the four letter
words shifted to the end (arranged from right to left) and the Floor Person
letters are arranged in alphabetical order. 8 Z
For the three letter words:- The letters in words are arranged 7 U
in alphabetical order from the beginning. 6 W
g 5
Input : CALM TRUE COOL SAFE PLA Y CRY LET TOE 4 V
DOG 3 X
Step I: TRUE COOL SAFE PLAY ACLM CRY LET TOE DOG 2 Y
Step II: COOL SAFE PLAY ERTU ACLM CRY ELT TOE DOG 1 T
Step III: SAFE PLAY CLOO ERTU ACLM CRY ELT EOT
DOG Hence, both statements are needed to answer the question.
Step IV: PLAY AEFS CLOO ERTU ACLM CRY ELT EOT 50. (d)
DGO Given words Selected Letters New Word
Step V: ALPY AEFS CLOO ERTU ACLM CRY ELT EOT Claustrophobia 1, r, b, a –
DGO Photosynthesis h, y, n, s –
43. (d) From above we know that the third element is step Incomprehensive c, o, e, s –
V is 'CLOO'. Not with Standing w, I, n, d Wind
44. (b) As we can see that 'PLAY' is 2nd to the left of 'ERTU' Parallelogram I, e, a, m –
in setp III.

Sol. (51-55):
Shops Sold Cost Markup Selling Total Discount
Tricycles price per Price Per Price per Discount per
Tricycle Tricycle Tricycle Tricycle
P 30 `100 `140 `133 `210 `7
Q y = 200 `205 `246 `243 `600 `3
R x = 25 `100 `250 `133 `2925 `117
S 210 `200 `360 `334.29 `5400 `25.71
Total 465 `605 `996 `843.29 `9135 `152.71

200 130
51. (a) Cost price each Tricycle in shop T = ´ 5 =`250 = 250 ´ =`325
4 100
Number of tricycles is shop T = 200 – 120 = 80
So, condition III is not true. 4800
Discount of each Tricycles in shop T = =`60
Markup % of Tricycles is shop T = 25 + 5 = 30% 80
\ Markup price of each Tricycles in shop T \ Selling price of eachTricycle in shop T
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2023 2023-23

= 325 – 60 = ` 265 100

So, condition I is true. \ Juice removed in one process = = 50 ml
2
Total revenue in shop T = 80 × 265 =` 21200
250
So, condition II is not true So, 70 ´ ( = 50
Hence, only condition I is true 250 + a )
52. (b) Required difference = = `996 -`843.29 =`152.71 Þ 250 + a = 350
53. (d) Total tricycles sold in shop Q = 200 Þ a = 100 ml (Initial quantity of water)
\ Replaced water in each process = 70 – 50 = 20 ml
20 So, quantity of water after two process
Defective tricycles = 200 ´ = 40
100 = 100 – 20 – 20 = 60 ml
Non - defective tricycles = 200 – 40 = 160 Hence quantity of water added = 350 – 60 = 290 ml
Discount per tricycles for non - defective tricycles 58. (c) Quantity I :
=`3 20 10
\ Discount per tricycle for defective tricycles x´ - ( x + 50 ) ´ = 45
100 100
= 3 + 2 =`5
2x x
Hence, total discount given by shop Q Þ - - 5 = 45
= 160 × 3 + 40 × 5 = 480 + 200 =` 680 10 10
54. (a) Marked price of each tricycle in shop R =` 250 x
Þ = 50
Number of tricycles, sold by shop U = 46 – 25 = 21 10
Hence, condition I is satisfy. Þ x = `500 (Cost price of Article A)
55. (c) (I) Difference between total revenue received by the
shop P and R = 30 × 133 – 25 × 133 = 5 × 133 20
\ Profit on article A = 500 ´ =`100
100
=` 665 (True)
(II) Marked price of each tr icycle in shop R Quantity II :
= ` 250 (True) 25
Loss = 560 × =`140
(III) Selling price of each tricycle in shop P 100
=`133 (Not true) Hence, Quantity I < Quantity II
Hence, only I and II are true. ( -b ) b
56. (b) Let J's present age is x years. 59. (c) Sum of roots = = =
a a
According to question,
(coefficient of x)
x-2 4 (coefficient of x2)
=
x + 10 7 b 9
Þ 7x – 14 = 4x + 40 Þ = 4.5 =
a 2
Þ 3x = 54
So, coefficient of x (M) = 9
Þ x = 18 years
\ Equation is – 2x2 – 9x + 10 = 0
Let K's present age is y years.
Þ 2x2 – 4x – 5x + 10 = 0
18 – y = 72 – 12a
Þ (x – 2) (2x – 5) = 0
Þ y = 12a – 54 –– (i)
And 18 + y = a2 5
Þ x = 2, = 2.5
Þ y = a2 – 18 –– (ii) 2
From equation (i) and (ii) – \ a = 2.5 and b = 2
12a – 54 = a2 – 18 4y2 – Ny + 19 = 0
Þ a2 – 12a + 36 = 0
Þ a=6 40
One root of this equation = 2.5 ´ =1
\ K's present age = 12 × 6 – 54 = 18 years. 100
(18 + 3) + (18 - 7 )
21 + 11 19
So average age = = = 16 Product of roots = c × d = = 4.75
2 2 4
Hence, we can write 16 = 6 + 10 = (a + 10) as c > d
\ d=1
3 And, c = 4.75
57. (c) Juice in final mixture = 500 ´ = 150ml
10 I. a + c = b + d
7 Þ 2.5 + 4. 75 = 2 + 1
Water in final mixture = 500 ´ = 350ml Þ 7.25 ¹ 3 (Not correct)
10
II. c + d = 4. 75 + 1 = 5 . 75 (Correct)
\ Total juice taken out in two process = 250 – 150
III. As, a = 2.5, b = 2, c = 4.75, d = 1
= 100 ml
So, a > b > c > d is not correct
2023-24 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2023

60. (d) I st scheme – (115 - 100)

2 \ ´ 100 = ( a + 3)
æ 20 ö 100
8800 = P ç 1 + -P
è 100 ÷ø Þ 15 = a + 3
Þ a = 12
é 36 ù So, a + 4 = 12 + 4 = 16
Þ 8800 = P ê - 1ú
ë 25 û Hence, International Inbound messages of R
25 3
Þ P = 8800 ´ =`20000 (Principal amount) = 95 ´
11 (16 + 3) = 5 × 3 = 15
In IInd scheme – 64. (c) Total domestic messages by P = 80 – 41 = 39
Principal = 2 × 20000 = ` 40000 4.5
\ Inbound domestic messages by P = 39 ´ = 27
éæ 2 ù 6.5
10 ö
Compound Interest = 40000 ê çè1 + ÷ø - 1ú Outbound messages by T = 120
ë 100 û Hence, required ratio = 27 : 120 = 9 : 40
65. (b) Let International messages by Q and S are 26a and
æ 121 ö 21
= 40000 ç - 1 = 40000 ´
è 100 ÷ø =`8400 45a respectively.
100 And Domestic messages by Q and S are 4b and 5b
61. (c) Yellow balls = 10 respectively.
Green balls = 8 According to question,
White balls = 32 – (10 + 8) = 14 26a + 4b = 100 – (i)
10 45a + 5b = 150 – (ii)
C1 ´8 C1 ´14 C1
Hence, required probability = By solving equation (i) and (ii)
32
C3 a = 2 and b = 12
\ International message by Q = 26 × 2 = 52
10 ´ 8 ´ 14 10 ´ 8 ´ 14 Total Inbound message by U = 60
= =
32 ´ 31 ´ 30 16 ´ 31 ´ 10 = 7 Hence, difference = 60 – 52 = 8
3 ´ 2 ´1 31 66. (c) Inbound messages by U = 60
Sol. (62 – 66): So, b + 3 = 60 + 3 = 63
1
BPOs Inbound Outbound Total And 33.33% =
3
Messages Messages
4
P 55 25 80 So, Outbound messages by Q = 63 × = 84
3
Q 100
Inbound message by Q = 100 – 84 = 16
R 95 25 120 \ 4 : x = 16 : 84 = 4 : 21
S 115 35 150 So, x = 21
\ m2 – 21m + 108 = 0
T 100 120 220
Þ m2 – 12m – 9m + 108 = 0
U 60 100 160 Þ (m – 12) (m – 9) = 0
Þ m = 9, 12
62. (b) Males bounded the inbound message in R Hence, smaller root (a) = 9
95 67. (a) Let monthly income of A and B are 100a and 300a
= ´ 10 = 50 respectively.
19
Females bounded the inbound message in R x
= 98 – 50 = 45 A's expenditure = 100a ´ = ax
100
Males bounded the outbound messages in R
= 70 – 50 = 20 7
B's expenditure = 300a ´ = 175a
\ Females bounded the outbound messages in R 12
= 25 – 20 = 5 According to question,
Hence, required difference = 45 – 5 = 40. 12480 + ax = 100a
Þ (100 – x)a = 12480 – (i)
23
63. (a) Inbound messages by S = 150 ´ = 115 And, ax + 175a = 59020
30 Þ (175 + x)a = 59020 – (ii)
7 By dividing equation (ii) by (i) –
Outbound messages by S = 150 ´ = 35
30 175 + x 59020 227
Total messages made by Q = 100 = =
100 - x 12480 48
Þ 48x + 8400 = 22700 – 227x
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2023 2023-25

Þ 275x = 14300 125

Þ x = 52 72. (a) New Cost price of article M = 260 ´ =`325
By equation (i) – 100
(100 – 52) a = 12480 20
Discount on article M = 390 ´ =`78
12480 100
Þ a= = 260 \ Selling price of article M = 390 – 78 =`312
48
Hence, average monthly income of A and B \ Loss occurred = 325 – 312 = =`13
Hence, statement I and II only are true.
100a + 300a
= = 200a = 200 × 260 =`52000 80
2 73. (d) Selling price of article L = 420 ´
68. (a) Ratio of investment of Yuvi, Ekansh and kartik 100
= (30000 × 6 + 24000 × 6): 36000 × 12: 6x Þ Cost price of article L + 36 = 336
= 54000 : 72000 : x Þ Cost price of article L = 336 – 36 = =`300
According to question, Selling price of article J = =`180
72000 Hence, required difference = 300 – 180 =`120
132000 ´ = 48000
(126000 + x ) 180
74. (a) Selling price of N = ´ 5 =`300
66 ´ 3000 3
Þ =1 \ Marked price of N = 300 + 50 =`350
(126000 + x )
Þ 126000 + x = 198000 Cost price of N = 260 – 10 =` 250
Þ x = 198000 – 126000 = 72000 100
Hence, value of x = `72000 \ Cost price of J = 180 ´ =`150
120
69. (b) I. x2 – 4x – 8x + 32 = 0 Hence, required sum = 250 + 350 + 150 =` 750
Þ (x – 4) (x – 8) = 0
Þ x = 4, 8 75. (c) Profit on M = 66 – 25 =` 41
II. x2 – 26x + 169 = 0 \ Selling price of M = 260 + 41 =`301
Þ x2 – 13x – 13x + 169 = 0 Hence, discount % on M
Þ (x – 13) (x – 13) = 0 ( 390 - 301)
Þ x = 13, 13 = ´ 100 = 22.82%
390
So, two equations can make – 76. (b) Let cost price of two chairs are 50x and 90x.
(i) x2 – (13 + 4)x + 13 × 4 = 0 Selling price of chair in which CP is less
Þ x2 – 17x + 52 = 0
124
(ii) x2 – (13 + 8)x + 13 × 8 = 0 = 50x ´ = 62x
Þ x2 – 21x + 104 = 0 100
Hence, equation in option (b) is formed. According to question,
45 106
70. (b) ?´ 8 + ´ 80 = 33 ´ 4 62x + 62x + 2196 = 140x ×
100 100
Þ 124x + 2196 – 148.4x
Þ ? × 8 = 132 – 36
Þ 24.4x = 2196
96 Þ x = 90
Þ ?= = 12 Hence , required difference = 90x – 50x = 40x
8
40 × 90 = `3600
25 ´ 4 2
71. (a) + 16 + ( 8) = ?2 1
5 77. (a) × base × 60 = 2100
Þ ?2 × 20 + 16 + 64 2
2100
Þ ? = 100 = 10 Þ Base = = 70
Sol. (72 – 75): 30
\ Breadth of rectangle = 70cm
Articles Cost - Selling - Marked Discount Profit \ 2(70 + l) = 360
price Price Price Þ 70 + l = 180 Þ l = 110
J – `180 – – – 110
\ Radius of circle = ´ 7 = 35cm
K `240 `306 `360 `54 `66 22
Hence, perimeter of the circle = 2pr
L – – `420 – –
22
M `260 – `390 – – = 2´ ´ 35 = 220 cm
7
2023-26 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2023

25 II. Pattern of the series-

78. (c) 18 × 4 + - 33 = ? 397, 415, 433, 451, 469, 487
5
Þ ? = 72 + 5 – 33 Þ ? = 77 – 33 = 44 +18 +18 +18 +18 +18
79. (b) 70 – 20 × 2 + 36 × 1 = ?
So, x = 397 and y = 487.
Þ ? = 70 – 40 + 36
84. (a) (i) y = a + b
Þ ? = 70 – 4 = 66
Þ 487 = 275 + 851
80. (c) Let speed of person is a km/h.
Þ 487 ¹ 1126 (Not true)
Speed of boat = (a + 4) km/h
\ Downstream speed = a + 4 + 3 = (a + 7)km /h 1
(ii) y = 446 + ×C
1.85 11
So, =a+7
18 1
Þ 487 = 446 + × 451
Þ S = (a + 7) × 10 Þ S = 10a + 70 – (i) 11
For person, Þ 487 = 446 + 41 Þ 487 = 487 (True)
S 1 1
= 24 (iii) x + b =y Þ 397 + 851 = × 487
a 2 2
Þ S = 24a – (ii) Þ 1248 ¹ 243.5 (Not true)
From equation (i) and (ii) – Hence, only (ii) is true.
24a = 10a + 70 85. (b) z + 487 = 576
Þ z = 576 – 487 = 89
Þ 14a = 70 Þ a = 5km / hr
Hence, speed of boat in still water = 5 + 4 = 9km/hr 451 + 89 540
Hence, average of c and z = = = 270.
81. (b) Let speed of train is x m/s. 2 2
Length of train = L 86. (c) a = 275
Þ L= x× t Second largest single digit prime number = 5
Þ L = tx ...(i) 275
Hence, resultant = = 55
540 5
\ = t + 12
x 87. (b) 3x2 – 26x + n = 0
Þ 540 = tx + 12x ...(ii) 26
From (i) and (ii) sum of roots =
3
L + 12x = 540 ....(iii)
and, L – 30 = 18x 26 8 26
Þ l+m= Þ l+ =
Þ L – 18x = 30 ......(iv) 3 3 3
By solving equ. (i) and (ii)
26 8 18
30 x = 510 Þ l= - = Þl=6
Þ x = 17 m/s. (Train's speed) 3 3 3
Putting this value in equ. (iv) n 8 n
L = 18 × 17 + 30 = 336 m Products of root = Þ 6 ´ = Þ n = 48
3 3 3
336 I) HCF of 48 and 6 = 6
Hence, value of t = = 19.7 sec.
17 8 150
Sol. ( 82-83): 50% more than m = ´ =4
3 100
Pattern of the series- As 6 ¹ 4 (not true)
0.5 × 14 = 7 ¹ 6 II) n = 48 which is not protect cube (Not true)
7 × 12 = 84 III) n = 48 which is multiple of l = 6 (True)
84 × 10 = 840 Hence, only III is true.
840 × 8 = 6720 88. (a) Quantity I:
6720 × 6 = 40320
50 x + 9 × x 64
40320 × 4 = 161280 = a
82. (c) a – 112809 = 161280 – 112809 = 48471 for x = 2
83. (b) 6 is wrong number in the series. 50 × 2 + 9 × 8 = 172
Sol. (84-86): for x = 3
I. Pattern of the series- 50 × 3 + 9 × 4 = 196
for x = 4
275, 851, 451, 707, 563, 627, 611 50 × 4 + 9 × 2.8 = 225.2
+576 +256 –144 +64 –16 All value of x is positive.
–400
2 2 2 2 2 2
Quantity II:
(24) (20) (16) (12) (8) (4) 6y – 2y4 + 50y Þ 56y – 2y4
So, a = 275, b = 851, c = 451 For y = 8
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2023 2023-27

56 × 8 – 2 × 84 Sol. (92-96):
Þ 448 – 8192 = – 7744
So, also for y = 9, 10 value will be negative. Day Mobiles Sold
Hence, Quantity I > Quantity II. Monday 48
89. (b) Quantity I : Tuesday 92
P ¾®3 20 Wednesday 60
15 Thursday 80
Q ¾®4 60 (Total capacity) Friday 120
R ¾® 5 12 40
So, time taken by pipes P, Q and R together to fill (1.25 a – a) = 12
100
60 Þ a = 12%
tank = = 1.28 hrs. \ 1.25 a = 15%
47
Quantity II: So, b = 100 – (12 + 23 + 15 + 20) = 30%.
92. (d) Mobiles sold on Monday and Tuesday
P+Q® 8 15 = 48 + 92 = 140
Q + R ® 10 12 Mobiles sold on all the remaining days
8 120 (Total capacity) = 400 – 140 = 260
R + S ® 15 140
Hence, required percentage = × 100 = 53.84%.
4 260
P + S ® 30
So, 2 (P + Q + R + S) = 15 + 12 + 8 + 4 = 39 93. (c) According to question.
120 P + 80 (P – 10) = 9200
39 Þ 120 P + 80P – 800 = 9200
Þ (P + Q + R + S)'s efficiency =
2 Þ 200 P = 10,000
So, time taken by P, Q, R and S together to fill tank Þ P = 50
Hence, total amount earned on Monday
120 240
= = = 6.15 hrs = (50 – 20) × 48 = ` 1440.
39 39 94. (c) Mobiles present in the shop initially on Wednesday
2
100 3
Hence, Quantity I < Quantity II. = 60 ´ = 60 ´ = 90
90. (d) Quantity I: 66.67 2
Area of square = 22 × 22 = 484 cm2 Mobiles present in the shop initially on Thursday
Area of 4 isosceles triangles = 484 – 196 = 288 cm2| 100
= 80 × = 80 × 3 = 240
288 33.33
\ Area of 1 triangle = = 72 cm2 Hence, required ratio of unsold mobiles on
4
Wednesday and Thursday = (90 – 60) : (240 – 80)
1 = 30 : 160 = 3 : 16.
\ × side × side = 72
2 95. (d) Let mobiles sold on Sunday is x.
Þ (side)2 = 144
48 + x
Þ side = 12 cm \ = 48 – 8
2
\ Perimeter of triangles = 12 + 12 + 12 2 Þ 48 + x = 40 × 2 Þ x = 80 – 48 = 32
= 24 + 12 × 1.4 = 40.8 cm. Hence, total number of unsold mobiles on Sunday
Quantity II:
Percentage increase in area of rectangle 5
= 32 × = 20.
8
20 ´ 15
= 20 + 15 + = 35 + 3 = 38% 96. (c) Let the mobiles sold on Saturday is x.
100 \ (92 – 48) = 2 × (60 – x)
Hence, Quantity I > Quantity II.
91. (e) P + Q = 24 44
Þ 60 – x = = 22 Þ x = 60 – 22 = 38
Q + R = 12 2
As, 10 ³ Q and 14 ³ (P, Q) ³ 8 and R ³ 2 Hence, number of unsold mobiles on Saturday.
\ Q = 10 15
R= 2 = 38 × = 30
P = 14 19
Quantity I : PQ – 54 97. (b) (J + K + L + M)'s weight = 4a ...(i)
Þ 14 × 10 – 54 Þ 140 – 54 = 86 (J + K + L + N)'s weight = 4 × (a + 14.25)
Quantity II : (P + R) × Q = (14 + 2) × 10 = 4a +57 ...(ii)
= 16 × 10 = 160. From equ (i) and (ii)
Hence, Quantity I < Quantity II. 4a – M + N = 4a + 57
2023-28 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2023

ÞN – M = 57 ...(iii) So, P + Q ® 20 5
And, J + K + N + M = 4 (a + 6.75) = 4a + 27...(iv) 100
From equ (i) and (iv) Q ® 50
2
4a – L + N = 4a + 27 \ P alone complete the work in
Þ N – L = 27 . ..(v)
And, L + M +N = 74×3 = 222 100 100
= =
Þ N – 27 + N –57 + N =222 ( 5 - 2) 3 days.
Þ 3N = 222 + 84 = 306
Þ N = 102 So, statement I alone is sufficient.
\ L = 102–27 = 75 From II:
Let efficiency of Q is 1.
(102 - 75) 150
Hence, required percentage = ´ 100 \ P's efficiency = 1´ = 1.5
75 100
27 \ Total work = 20 × (1+ 1.5) = 50
= ´ 4 = 36%
3 50 100
98. (a) From II: \ P alone complete the work in = =
days
1.5 3
Let present age of father is 4x years. So, statement II alone is sufficient.
1 Hence, either statement I or statement II alone is
\ Present age of son = 4 x ´ = x years. sufficient to answer.
4 101. (a) In the given sentence, only ‘staggered’ will make it
From I and II: grammatically as well as contextually correct.
4x – x = 45 Therefore, Option A is the correct alternative among
Þ 3x = 45 the following as staggered perfectly fits in the blank
Þ x = 15 both grammatically and contextually. The sentences
\ Father's age = 4×15 = 60 years will be formed as:
From I and II: She staggered on trembling legs.
4x + x = 75 She staggered at the sensation, taking in the crumbled
Þ 5x = 75 world around her.
Þ x = 15 102. (d) After making the replacements, the thus formed
\ Father's age = 4 × 15 = 60 years. sentence is “A partial reopening of the economy is
Let father's age is x and Son's age is y years. being proposed, but a lot will depend on the extent
x –y = 45 ...(i) of success in containing the spread of the COVID-
x + y = 75 ...(ii) 19 pandemic in particular areas.”
By solving (i) and (ii) 103. (c) Hire is the correct synonym for engage. Hire means
x = 60 and y = 15 to give somebody a job. While, engage also means
So, Father's age is = 60 years. to give someone a task.
Hence, any two of statements I, II and III will give 104. (e) All parts are correct.
the answer. 105. (d) In the given sentence, only ‘normalcy’ makes it
99. (d) Let three pieces of wire are a,b and c and a > b < c. grammatically as well as contextually correct. The
From I: remaining options do not fit in the context of the
a + b = 35 ...(i) sentence.
So, statement I alone is not sufficient, 106. (a) The most appropriate antonym for ‘voluntary’ is
From II: ‘mandatory’. Voluntary means an action carried out
b + c = 30 ...(ii) as per one’s will. Whereas, mandatory means
So, statement II alone is not sufficient. something that is made necessary to be done.
From I and II: 107. (d) ‘Oparate’ is incorrect here. It should be ‘operate’.
By solving equ (i) and (ii) Therefore, option D is the correct answer choice for
a–c=5 this question.
No other information is given. 108. (d) Utter is the most appropriate synonym for the word,
Hence, statements I and II both are not sufficient to sheer. The meaning of sheer is to emphasize the
answer. degree or amount of something. While, utter refers
100. (c) P + Q ® 20 to something complete or total.
From I : 109. (c) They oversimplify the subjective nature of
25 motivation. It is evident from these lines from the
Q's full work in = = 50 days passage: “Motivation, inherently a personal and
1 subjective experience, is often simplified in these
2 books. Theyoffer a sequence of simplified steps, a
‘one-size-fits-all’ path towards success.”
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2023 2023-29

110. (a) Maintain. The word, ‘retain’ means to hold on to or to new ways of thinking andprovide alternate life
keep something. The most appropriate synonym to perspectives. However, a cautious approach towards
retain is maintain which means to keep something in accepting these books as the definitivepath to success
good condition by checking or repairing is recommended. They are not magic solutions or
continuously. silver bullets, as they often portray themselvesto be.
111. (c) Difficulty in sustaining the inspired motivation. It is They should be seen as only one element of a broader
explained through the following lines: “…Though journey towards self-growth and development.
such guidance mighttemporarily inspire, it rarely Theyouth, while inspired by these motivational reads,
contributes to long-lasting motivation, rendering should understand that lasting motivation can only
them ineffective in the long run. Acentral issue lies be derivedfrom within themselves. It is fuelled by
in the external nature of motivation these books their impassioned desires, intrinsic values, and
attempt to foster. It’s widely accepted thatmotivation dreams.”
should be an intrinsic quality, a self-ignited passion 117. (a) 118. (c) 119. (b) 120. (a) 121. (a) 122. (a)
driving one forward, even in the face of adversity. 123. (b)
This motivation, which develops from introspection, 124. (c) The error is in the third part of the sentence. Since
life experiences, and personal values, cannot be the sentence finishes in past tense, the word
derivedfrom predetermined methods or uniform ‘pursue’ will become ‘pursued’.
strategies.” 125. (b) The error is in the second part of the sentence.
112. (d) Intrinsic. The word, ‘essential’ refers to completely The grammatically correct way of writing the
necessary. Whereas, ‘intrinsic’ is an antonym for sentence will be- “After knowing the truth, he went
essential, meaning belonging to the essential nature ahead and made the right choice.”
of a thing. Therefore, intrinsic is an antonym for 126. (b) The error lies in the second part of the sentence.
essential. Since two nouns are used, the verb will be singular.
113. (e) All three statements are correct as per the passage. The improved sentence will be- “Reading and
It is evident from the following lines of the passage: writing provide nutrition to the brain.”
“Motivation, inherently a personal and subjective 127. (b) The error lies in the second part of the sentence.
experience, is often simplified in these books. The grammatically correct way of writing the
Theyoffer a sequence of simplified steps, a ‘one-size- sentence is- “His brother got wet in the rain while
fits-all’ path towards success. Though such guidance returning from office.”
mighttemporarily inspire, it rarely contributes to 128. (a) cannot scold at will. Option (A) will replace
long-lasting motivation, rendering them ineffective correctly as ‘cannot scold at will’ means the higher
in the long run. Acentral issue lies in the external authorities in the organization cannot scold as and
nature of motivation these books attempt to foster.” when they want to as they are not permitted to.
114. (e) Youth Motivation: The Role and Limitations of Options (C) and (D) nearly mean the same as
Motivational Books. The passage talks about option (A) and are pointing towards a direct means
motivational books, how it enhances development of punishing their employees.
as well as limits it. It is clearly evident from these 129. (b) that they save the environment. ‘That’ should be
lines: “Motivation, inherently a personal and used after proclaim in order to make the sentence
subjective experience, is often simplified in these grammatically correct and meaningful. The
books. Theyoffer a sequence of simplified steps, a sentence will now be read as- “Many of the
‘one-size-fits-all’ path towards success. Though such conservationists proclaim that they save the
guidance mighttemporarily inspire, it rarely environment against degradation.”
contributes to long-lasting motivation, rendering 130. (c) Except for you and me. When the word, ‘except’
them ineffective in the long run.” is used, ‘me’ is used with it instead of I, so the
115. (b) Through introspection, life experiences and personal most appropriate form of this phrase will be
values. It is given in the passage through these lines: ‘except for you and me’.
“It’s widely accepted thatmotivation should be an 131. (c) proposing, lenient, allowance. These three words
intrinsic quality, a self-ignited passion driving one will fit appropriately to make the sentence
forward, even in the face of adversity.This grammatically correct.
motivation, which develops from introspection, life 132. (c) technological, proliferation, disrupting. These
experiences, and personal values, cannot be words will be paced appropriately in the blanks
derivedfrom predetermined methods or uniform to attain a grammatically correct sentence.
strategies.” 133. (d) cycle, enough, thorough. These words will fit the
116. (d) The books cannot be the definitive path to success. blanks and complete the sentence to make it appear
This is evident from the following lines in the grammatically correct.
passage: “…These books undoubtedly play their 134. (b) equality, classes, different. The three words will complete
part. They provide practical tips, inspiration from the sentence and make it grammatically correct.
shared stories, and caneven stimulate one’s journey 135. (a) facilities, education, school. These three words
of self-growth and discovery. They expose readers will complete the sentence to make it sound
grammatically correct.
2023-30 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2023

136. (b) The correct rearrangement of sentences will be Q, India and will be one of the world›s highest-located
R, P, S, T. Therefore, sentence R will be the second sites for optical, infra-red, and gamma-ray telescopes.
statement after rearrangement. 147. (d) Pench Tiger Reserve or Pench National Park is one
137. (e) The correct rearrangement of sentences will be Q, of the premier tiger reserves of India and the first
R, P, S, T. Therefore, sentence T will be the fifth one to straddle across two states - Madhya Pradesh
statement after rearrangement. and Maharashtra. The reference to Pench is mostly
138. (a) The correct rearrangement of sentences will be Q, to the tiger reserve in Madhya Pradesh.
R, P, S, T. Therefore, sentence P will be the third 148. (b) Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan
statement after rearrangement. (PM-JANMAN) According to the 2011 census, India
139. (a) emphasized. The word, ‘emphasized’ will be an has a Scheduled Tribe (ST) population of 10.45 crore,
appropriate alternative to replace ‘reaffirmed’ that with 75 communities across 18 states and the Union
will improve the sentence. The newly formed Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands identified
sentence will be- “North Korean leader Kim Jong- as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).
un met with Chin ese President Xi Jinping 149. (d) The Reserve Bank of India has set up the K.V.
and emphasized his commitment to the peninsula’s Kamath Committee for restructuring of loans
“denuclearization.” impacted by the Covid-19 pandemic. As per the
140. (c) paramount. The word, ‘paramount’ will be an Supreme Court’s order, the Kamath panel report was
appropriate alternative to replace ‘reinforce’ that released on September 7, 2020, by the central bank
will improve the sentence. The newly formed as a special window under the Prudential Framework
sentence will be- “This special magnetic appeal or on Resolution of Stressed Assets. The committee was
charm is paramount to his power and presence in headed by K.V. Kamath and its main objective was
front of an audience.” to recommend parameters for one-time restructuring
141. (d) DLabs at the Indian School of Business (ISB) has of corporate loans.
announced the initiation of ‘Build for Billions’, a 150. (c) RRBs are sponsored by Public Sector Banks (PSBs).
startup accelerator program centered around financial There are currently 43 RRBs supported by 12 public
inclusion for the informal economy. This innovative sector banks with 21,856 branches across 26 states
program has been launched in partnership with the and 3 Union Territories — Puducherry, Jammu &
Reserve Bank Innovation Hub (RBIH) and Union Kashmir and Ladakh.
Bank of India. 151. (b) India’s population offers a significant advantage in
142. (c) The Ram Mandir, which is being supervised by the terms of a large workforce, which can help drive
Shri Ram Janmabhoomi Teerth Kshetra Trust, is economic growth. India’s 68 % population are in the
designed in the Nagara style of architecture by 15 to 64 years age group, providing a significant
Chandrakant Sompura and his son Ashish Sompura. contribution to the working or able-to-work
The temple will have a length of 360 feet, a width of population.
235 feet, and a height of 161 feet. 152. (b) Deepfakes are synthetic media that have been
143. (b) Pinaka multi-barrel rocket launcher (MBRL) was digitally manipulated to replace one person’s likeness
developed by Armament Research and Development convincingly with that of another. It can also refer to
Establishment (ARDE), an important arm of Defence computer-generated images of human subjects that
Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). do not exist in real life.
144. (e) States’ Startup Ranking 2022 153. (a) The G20 Logo draws inspiration from the vibrant
• Best performer. Gujarat. Karnataka. Kerala. Tamil colours of India’s national flag – saffron, white and
Nadu. green, and blue. It juxtaposes planet Earth with the
• Top Performer. Maharashtra. Odisha. Punjab. lotus, India’s national flower that reflects growth
Rajasthan. Telangana. amid challenges. The Earth reflects India’s pro-planet
• Leader. Andhra Pradesh. Assam. Madhya Pradesh. approach to life, one in perfect harmony with nature.
Uttar Pradesh. Uttarakhand. Below the G20 logo is “Bharat”, written in the
• Aspiring leader. Bihar. Haryana. Devanagari script.
• Emerging Ecosystems. Chhattisgarh. Delhi. Jammu 154. (a) Krutrim announced that it has raised $50 million in
and Kashmir. a funding round led by investment firm Matrix
145. (b) Ministry of Mines, Government of India has achieved Partners India and other backers. The funding
a significant milestone with the signing of an equates to a valuation of $1 billion, making Krutrim
agreement between Khanij Bidesh India Limited the first company this year to attain unicorn status,
(KABIL) and the state-owned enterprise of according to Indian media.
Catamarca province of Argentina CATAMARCA 155. (b) As per the e-way bill rules, e-way bill is required to
MINERA Y ENERGÉTICA SOCIEDAD DEL be carried along with the goods at the time of
ESTADO (CAMYEN SE) at Catamarca, Argentina transportation, if the value is more than Rs. 50,000/
146. (a) The Dark Sky Reserve will be located at Hanle -. Under this circumstance, the consumer can get the
village in Eastern Ladakh as a part of Changthang e-way bill generated from the taxpayer or supplier
Wildlife Sanctuary. It will boost Astro-tourism in 156. (a) The RBI has decided to permit resident individuals
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2023 2023-31

to make remittances to IFSCs established in India 166. (b) The creation of a separate category for NBFCs
under the liberalized remittance scheme (LRS). This operating in the microfinance sector (NBFC-MFI)
scheme allows resident individuals to send a certain was done based on the recommendations of the
amount of money during a financial year to another Malegam Committee. The Malegam Committee was
country for investment and expenditure. An IFSC appointed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in
caters to customers outside the jurisdiction of the 2010 to review the microfinance sector in India and
domestic economy. provide recommendations for its growth and
157. (c) Google Pay In dia sign s MoU with NPCI development. The committee recommended the
International to expand UPI to countries beyond creation of a separate category of NBFCs for
India. Google Pay is a popular mobile payments app microfinance to regulate and supervise them
in India. The free app allows you to send and receive effectively, and to ensure that they comply with the
money and also pay utility bills on the go. prescribed norms and standards. The NBFC-MFIs
158. (b) The government has hiked windfall tax on are required to obtain a certificate of registration from
domestically produced crude oil to Rs 4,600 per the RBI and comply with the regulations on interest
tonne from Rs 3,300 per tonne with effect from rates, lending practices, borrower protection, and
reporting requirements.
Friday. The tax is levied in the form of Special
Additional Excise Duty (SAED). 167. (b)
159. (b) Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) has retained the 168. (a) Trade Receivables e-Discounting System (TReDS)
top spot as India’s most valuable brand, with a value is the institutional mechanism for facilitating the
of $43 billion, according to Kantar’s BrandZ India financing of trade receivables of MSMEs from
corporate and other buyers, including Government
ranking. “TCS remains a strong brand as it continues
Departments and Public Sector Undertakings
to have a very strong corporate reputation.
(PSUs), through multiple financiers.
160. (b) ISO/IEC 27001 is the international standard for
169. (b) National Quantum Mission
information security. It sets out the specification for
an effective ISMS (information security management • It’ll be implemented by the Department of Science
& Technology (DST) under the Ministry of Science
system). ISO 27001’s best-practice approach helps
& Technology.
organisations manage their information security by
• The mission planned for 2023-2031 aims to seed,
addressing people, processes and technology.
nurture, and scale up scientific and industrial R&D
161. (c) A savings as well as current account should be treated and create a vibrant & innovative ecosystem in
as inoperative / dormant if there are no transactions Quantum Technology (QT).
in the account for over a period of two years. The • With the launch of this mission, India will be the
accounts which have not been operated upon over a seventh country to have a dedicated quantum
period of two years should be segregated and mission after the US, Austria, Finland, France,
maintained in separate ledgers. Canada and China.
162. (b) HSBC Holdings Plc ranked first among arrangers Salient features of NQM:
for Indian offshore loans last year, toppling Japanese • It will target developing intermediate scale
lenders from the top spot they›d held since 2020. quantum computers with 50-100 physical qubits
Data compiled Bloomberg show the British bank was in 5 years and 50-1000 physical qubits in 8 years.
the bookrunner on roughly $4 billion of US-currency 170. (b) State Bank of India (SBI) said it had has raised
transactions in 2023. `5,000 crore through its second Basel III compliant
163. (b) Pali is not a classical language of India. It is an Additional Tier 1 bond issuance for the current
ancient language. Currently, there are 6 languages financial year at a coupon rate of 8.34%
that have been accorded this status: Sanskrit, Telugu, 171. (c) In December 2021, the transaction limit for UPI
Tamil, Odia, Malayalam, and Kannada. As per the payments for Retail Direct Scheme and for IPO
requirements set by the Government of India in 2004, subscriptions was increased to ` 5 lakh.
a language is accorded the status of “Classical 172. (d) The Central Board of Directors of the RBI (Reserve
Language of India” if it fulfils the following criteria: Bank of India) is appointed/nominated for a period of
It should have a recorded history of existing for over 4 years. The Reserve Bank of India was established on
a period of 1500-2000 years. Should be original and April 1, 1935, in accordance with the provisions of the
not borrowed from any other language Should have Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. The Central Office
ancient text/literature which is considered heritage. (Headquarters) of the Reserve Bank was initially
164. (d) REC Limited, a Maharatna Central Public Sector established in Kolkata but was permanently moved to
Enterprise under the Ministry of Power, has Mumbai in 1937. Though originally privately owned,
successfully issued its inaugural Japanese Yen (JPY) since its nationalization in 1949, the Reserve Bank is
61.1 billion 5-year, 5.25-year and 10-year Green fully owned by the Government of India.
bonds, issued under its US$ 10 billion Global 173. (c) The first violation will cost the coaching center a
Medium Term Notes Programme. penalty for `25,000, while the second offense can
165. (d) cost a penalty up to Rs. 1 lakh. The subsequent
breaches may involve registration revocation.
2023-32 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2023

174. (b) Balances in savings / current accounts which are not foreign branches and subsidiaries, respectively,
operated for 10 years, or term deposits not claimed during 2022-23.
within 10 years from date of maturity are classified 184. (b) Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Ltd.
as “Unclaimed Deposits”. These amounts are (IREDA) and Punjab National Bank (PNB) have
transferred by banks to “Depositor Education and signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU)
Awareness” (DEA) Fund maintained by the Reserve aimed at advancing renewable energy initiatives
Bank of India. across the nation.
175. (b) Ayhika Mukherjee (born 10 June 1997) is an Indian 185. (c) Pension Fund Regulatory and Development
table tennis player from Naihati, West Bengal. She Authority (PFRDA) is a pension regulator of India.
was part of the Indian team for the 2018 Asian Games It headquartered in New Delhi. It was established
and 2022 Asian Games. She, along with Sutirtha by the Government of India on 23rd August 2003
Mukherjee, won the bronze medal for India in Ami is to promote old age income security by
women›s doubles table tennis in the Asian Games. establishing, developing and regulating pension
176. (b) India’s Insurance Regulatory and Development funds. It administers and regulates National Pension
Authority (Irdai) has declared three state-run System (NPS) and also administers Atal Pension
insurers, Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC), Yojana (APY).
General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC), and 186. (b) Between 1968 and 1972, crewed missions to the
New India Assurance, as Domestic Systemically Moon were conducted by the United States as part
Important Insurers (D-SIIs). of the Apollo program. Apollo 8 was the first crewed
177. (c) Under the scheme, each MP has the choice to suggest mission to enter orbit in December 1968, and it was
to the District Collector for works to the tune of Rs. followed by Apollo 10 in May 1969. Six missions
5 Crores per annum to be taken up in his/her landed humans on the Moon, beginning with Apollo
constituency. The Rajya Sabha Members of 11 in July 1969, during which Neil Armstrong
Parliament can recommend works in one or more became the first person to walk on the Moon. Apollo
districts in the State from where he/she has been 13 was intended to land; however, it was restricted
elected. to a flyby due to a malfunction aboard the spacecraft.
178. (d) India’s HDFC Bank seeks expansion into Singapore, All nine crewed missions returned safely to the Earth.
applying for a banking license with the Monetary 187. (c) In the Lok Sabha, the Constitution (Scheduled
Authority of Singapore (MAS). In a strategic move, Castes) Order (Amendment) Bill, 2023 was
HDFC Bank Ltd, India›s largest private sector lender, introduced to make changes to the Constitution
is actively pursuing its first branch in Singapore. (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950.
179. (c) Six Indian banks were nationalized on 15th April The purpose of this amendment is to include two
1980. Nationalization is the transfer of ownership synonyms for the Mahar community in the State of
and management of an undertaking from private Chhattisgarh in its Scheduled Castes list.
hands to the states. Banks were nationalized in India 188. (c) The Ministry of Commerce and Industry has set up
through an ordinance passed in the year 1969. Indira a working group to decriminalise laws to further
Gandhi was the prime minister who nationalized promote ease of doing business.
banks in India. The group comprised representatives from industry
180. (c) The win against Bangladesh was the second victory associations, business chambers, legal professionals,
for the Netherlands in the 2023 World Cup after and officials of seven ministries. It would also have
inflicting a shock defeat to South Africa earlier in representatives of the National Housing Bank,
the group stages. NABARD and CPCB.
181. (c) RBI :- RBI is India’s central bank and regulatory 189. (c) India and the ASEAN countries reached an
body under the jurisdiction of ministry of finance. agreement to review their free trade pact for goods
EBI :- SEBI was first established in 1988 as non- and set a 2025 timeline for concluding the review to
statutory body for regulating the securities market. address the asymmetry in bilateral trade.
CCI :- CCI is the sole quasi-judicial and regulatory The decision came at a meeting of economic
body established under the competition Act, 2002. ministers from the two sides in Indonesia. The
Therefore RBI , CCI , SEBI are regulatory body but ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement (AITIGA)
SIDBI is not a regulatory body. was signed in 2009.
182. (b) In case of delay in releasing documents, the bank/ 190. (a) The Government of India and the Government of New
NBFC has to pay a fee to the borrower – ¹ 5,000 for Zealand have signed a Memorandum of Understanding
each day of delay. 6. If there is a loss/damage to (MoU) to boost cooperation in civil aviation.
documents, the lender must assist you in getting the This will cover the scheduling of new routes, code
duplicate/certified copies by covering the extra share services, traffic rights and capacity entitlement.
charges. An Air Services Agreement was signed between New
183. (b) Indian banks increased their overseas presence Zealand and India in 2016. The New Zealand and
through the subsidiaries route and their employee India have reviewed the existing arrangements
strength rose by 0.5 per cent and 6.2 per cent for relating to air service between the two countries.
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2023 2023-33

SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2023

(Based on Memory)

Time : 60 minutes Max. Marks : 100

Reasoning Ability 8. Which of the following statement is Correct?

(a) K is the daughter in law of G.
DIRECTIONS : Study the following information carefully to (b) J is uncle of N (c) N is uncle of L
answer the given questions. (d) G is father of L (e) Both (a) and (c)
5 # P K 8 @ IHW 9% TOMD 8 &*73 × J B 2 S Q G 5 € FNC © DIRECTION (Qs.9-13): Study the following information
carefully and answer the given questions.
1. If the elements at even-numbered positions are removed
from the arrangement, which element will be at the 8th In a certain code of language.
position from the right side? ‘city bus on school’ is written as 'ql pr oz hr'
(a) X (b) 7 (c) & (d) R ‘school college on road’ is written as 'yk oz nr ql'
‘road circle through bus’ is written as 'hr we fg yk'
(e) D
‘college navigation gone through’ is written as 'qh nr we
2. How many numbers in the arrangement are immediately sn'
followed by a symbol? 9. What is the code for 'road' in the given code of language?
(a) One (b) Zero (c) Five (d) Six (a) oz (b) hr (c) ql (d) we
(e) Two (e) yk
3. How many elements are there which are followed by 10. What is the possible code of 'city college earth' in the
consonants are preceded by number? given code language?
(a) Two (b) One (c) Three (d) Five (a) pr ql nr (b) pr nr cr (c) nr oz ql (d) pr nr we
(e) Four (e) pr nr hr
4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based 11. The code 'qh' stands for which of the following word?
on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a (a) Either' navigation' or 'road'
group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (b) Either 'gone' or 'city'
(a) 8@I (b) *7× (c) GS€ (d) k8@ (c) Either 'gone' or 'navigation'
(e) #PK (d) Either 'school' or 'road'
5. If a four-letter meaningful word can be formed by using (e) None of these
the third, fourth, eighth and ninth letters from the word 12. What is the code for 'school' in the given code language?
“ORGANISATION”, then what is the last letter from the (a) ql (b) nr
right end of the newly formed word? Mark X as your (c) oz (d) Either ql or oz
answer, if more than one word is formed. Mark Z, if no (e) None of these
meaningful word can be formed. 13. What is the code for 'circle' in the given code of language?
(a) T (b) L (c) X (d) Z (a) hr (b) we (c) fg (d) yk
(e) E (e) none of these
14. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-8) : Read the following information "8347276133", each of which has as many digits between
carefully and answer the questions given below. them in the number (both forward and backward direction)
as they have between them in the numerical series?
Eight members of a family have two married couples and consist
(a) Four (b) Three (c) Two (d) Five
of three generations. G is the brother-in-law of H. I is the only
sister of H. J is the son-in-law of I. K is the sister-in-law of L. (e) More than five
M is the son of J and M has only one sister. J is the brother of L. DIRECTION (Qs. 15-17): Answer the questions based on the
The remaining person is N. information on given below:
6. If L is married to a girl named P, then how is L related to N? A, B, C, D, E and F have different number of colors. A has more
(a) Father (b) Uncle colors than E and C. B has more colours than F, who doesn't
(c) Brother (d) Cannot be determined have fewer colors than A. B doesn't have the highest number of
(e) Niece colors.
7. What is the relationship between J and M? 15. Who has the highest of colors?
(a) Brother, sister (b) Father, son (a) A (b) D
(c) Mother, daughter (d) Mother, son (c) C (d) F
(e) Grandparent, grand child (e) E
2023-34 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2023

16. If C doesn't have the least number of colors, then who has (a) None of the statements are correct
the least number of colors? (b) Only Statements II and III are correct
(a) A (b) D (c) C (d) F (c) Only Statement II is correct
(e) E (d) Only Statements I and II are correct
17. How many persons have more colors than E? (e) All the Statements are correct
(a) Four (b) Five 25. How many boxes are kept between the box kept sixth
(c) Two (d) Cannot be determined from the top and the box kept 2 boxes above Box X?
(e) Three (a) 2 boxes (b) 5 boxes (c) 1 box (d) 4 boxes
(e) No boxes
DIRECTION (Qs. 18-22): Read the following information 26. Four of the five options given below follow a certain
carefully and answer the questions given below. logic and form a group. Identify the odd one out.
There are 7 persons – G, H, I, J, K, L and M – attended a seminar (a) Box M (b) Box N (c) Box O (d) Box X
on different days among Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, (e) Box Z
Thursday, Friday, Saturday and Sunday, Starting the week from 27. If all the boxes are rearranged in alphabetical order from
Monday but not necessarily in the same order. (Assume that the buttom to the top, which box will be placed third from
they attended in the same month of the year.) the top?
Three persons attended between M and I. Neither M nor I is (a) Box O (b) Box N
either the first or the last person to attend the seminar. Number (c) Box P (d) Box X
of persons who attended before G is the same as the number of (e) Box Z
persons who attended after J. G attended after I but immediately DIRECTION (Qs. 28-32): Study the following information
before K. H did not attend the seminar after L. carefully to answer the given questions.
18. Which of the statements is true?
(a) L attended on Monday. Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows of five each such that
(b) Only two persons attended before G. each person of one row is facing the other person of the other
(c) I attended before H. row. G, H, I, J and K sit in Row 2 facing North, while M, N, O, P
(d) J attended after Friday. and Q sit in the Row 1 facing South. Q sits in the middle of the
(e) All the above row and is immediate left of the person who sits opposite J. I
19. Who attended the seminar on Thursday? sits at an end of the row and is sitting opposite to N. O sits to
(a) I (b) J (c) K (d) M the immediate left of Q. J sits exactly is between G and H. P. sits
(e) L at an end of the row. H sits to the right of J.
20. On which day does H attended? 28. Who sits in the middle of Row 2?
(a) Sunday (b) Monday (a) I (b) G (c) J (d) H
(c) Tuesday (d) Wednesday (e) K
(e) Cannot be determined 29. How many people sit between the one who sits beside G
21. In a certain way I is related to K, and G is related to J. and the one who sits at the right end of Row 2?
Following the same – A is related to M? (a) 1 person(b) 2 people (c) 3 people (d) 4 people
(a) I (b) K (c) J (d) G (e) 5 people
(e) No one 30. Who sits opposite to the one who sits second to the left
22. How many persons attended between G and L? of the one sits beside P?
(a) Three (b) None (c) Two (d) One (a) H (b) G (c) I (d) K
(e) More than three (e) N
DIRECTION (Qs. 23-27): Study the following information 31. Who sits at the end of the row?
carefully to answer the given questions. (a) P and M(b) M and N (c) G and K (d) G and N
(e) I and M
Eight boxes – M, N, O, P, W, X, Y and Z are kept in a room in
32. Who sits diagonally opposite to I?
such a way that each box is stacked on bottom to top of one
(a) M (b) N
another. Box Z is kept below Box O but not immediately. 3 boxes
are kept between Box N and Box Y, which is kept below Box N. (c) O (d) P
Box D is kept 3 places above Box X, which is kept immediately (e) Q
above Box P. Box Z is kept above Box N. Box P is not kept below DIRECTION (Qs. 33-35): In the question below are given
Box M. Box W is kept second from the top of the stack. two statements followed by two conclusons numbered I and II.
23. Which box is kept 5 boxes below the box kept third from You have to take the given statements to be true even if they
the top? seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all
(a) Box N (b) Box O (c) Box W (d) Box Y the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
(e) Box Z logically follows from the given statements disregarding
24. Which of the following statements is /a re correct? commonly known facts.
I. Four boxes are kept between Box N and Box O
II. Box P is kept immediately below Box X 33. Statements :
III. Box Z is kept three boxes above Box M Only a few P is Q.
No Q is R.
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2023 2023-35

Conclusions: 42. Kamal started a business with an investment of `40,000

I. Some P are not Q. and after 6 months Surya joined her investing ` 1,00,000. If
II. Some P are R. the Profit at the end of a year is ` 27,000 then what is the
(a) Only conclusion I follows profit share of Surya?
(b) Only conclusion II follows (a) ` 12,000 (b) ` 10,000
(c) Both conclusion I and II follow (c) ` 15,000 (d) ` 11,00
(d) Either conclusion I or II follows (e) None of these
(e) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
43. A man can row at the speed of 5 km/hr in still water, and the
34. Statements :
speed of stream is 3 km/hr. If the time difference between
Only a few Bat are Ball.
All Books are Bat. the upstream and downstream journey of the man is 30
Conclusions: minutes, find the distance?
I. Some Bat are not Ball. 15 16 4 13
II. Some Book are Ball. (a) km (b) km (c) km (d) km
7 3 3 3
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows (e) None of these
(c) Both conclusion I and II follow 44. In an office, there are 15 staff members. Their average
(d) Either conclusion I or II follows weight is 40 kg. When one of the staff members leaves the
(e) Neither conclusion I nor II follows office, the average weight becomes 39 kg. If one new staff
35. Statements: member join the average weight becomes 42 kg. Find the
Some Mobile is T. V. difference between the weight of the staff member who left
Only a few T. V. is Laptop. the office and who join the office.
Conclusions: (a) 25 kg (b) 35 kg (c) 30 kg (d) 18 kg
I. All T.V can be Laptop (e) 27 kg
II. Some Laptop is Mobile
(a) Only I follow (b) Only II follow DIRECTION (Qs. 45-49): Study the following information
(c) Both I and II follows (d) Either I or II follows carefully and answer the questions..
(e) Neither I nor II follows The below table shows the investment of Deepak and Dinesh in
Numerical Ability three different stock markets.

36. Find the wrong term in the following series. Amount invested by Amount invested by
150, 141, 131, 120, 110, 95 Scheme Dinesh (in ` ) Deepak (in ` )
(a) 141 (b) 131 (c) 110 (d) 120 ITC 25,000 40,000
(e) 95 HDFC BANK 20,000 30,000
37. Find the wrong term in the following series.
ICICI BANK 15,000 10,000
50, 72, 98, 128, 164, 200
(a) 50 (b) 72 (c) 164 (d) 200 45. Find the ratio of the total investment of Deepak in ICICI
(e) 98 BANK and ITC together with the total investment of Dinesh
38. Find the wrong term in the following series. in HDFC BANK and ICICI BANK together.
81 118 151 180 197 206 (a) 10 : 7 (b) 11 : 8 (c) 11 : 9 (d) 13 : 19
(e) 11 : 19
(a) 81 (b) 118 (c) 151 (d) 180
(e) 197 46. If the investment of Gagon in HDFC BANK is 2500 more
than the investment of Dinesh in ICICI BANK and the
39. Find the wrong term in the following series.
investment of Gagan in ICICI BANK is 3500 less than the
10 10 20 25 240 1200 investment of Deepak in ITC, then find the average
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 25 (d) 240 investment of Gagan in HDFC BANK and ICICI BANK.
(e) 1200 (a) `29000 (b) `28000
40. Find the wrong term in the given series. (c) `26000 (d) `27000
5 8 17 25 37 48 (e) `24000
(a) 17 (b) 5 (c) 37 (d) 8 47. The investment of Dinesh in ICICI BANK and HDFC BANK
(e) 25 together is what percentage more or less than the
41. The ratio of the perimeter to the length of a rectangle is investment of Deepak in HDFC BANK and ITC together?
18:5. If the perimeter of the rectangle is 72 cm, then find the (a) 50% (b) 100% (c) 150% (d) 200%
ratio of breadth of the rectangle to the perimeter of the (e) 250%
rectangle. 48. If the investment of Pawan in ICICI BANK is 50% of the
(a) 1 : 6 (b) 2 : 9 (c) 3 : 5 (d) 4 : 7 investment of Dinesh in HDFC BANK and ITC, then find
(e) 2 : 5 the total investment of Pawan in ICICI BANK.
2023-36 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2023

(a) `18,500 (b) `14,500 59. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the
(c) `13,500 (d) `15,500 following question?
(e) 22,500
49. Find the average of the total investment of Dinesh in HDFC 45 × 18 + 135 × –49 + 89 × 43 = ? + 169
BANK, Deepak in HDFC BANK and Dinesh in ICICI BANK (a) 10159 (b) 11519 (c) 12259 (d) 11219
together. (e) 11239
(a) ` 21666 (b) ` 19566 60. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the
(c) ` 17566 (d) ` 23566 following question?
(e) `13566
50. What value will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ 324 ´ 4 - 40 + 72 = 53 + 65 – ?
in the following question? (a) –125 (b) 109 (c) –117 (d) –115
500 × 18 ¸ 6 + 3 + 2 of 5 of 3 (e) 119
(a) 1516 (b) 1512 (c) 1514 (d) 1510 61. What will come in place of question mark ‘?’ in the following
(e) 1533 question?
51. What value will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ (952 + 348) ¸ 260 + 142 = ?
in the following question? (a) 284 (b) 272 (c) 292 (d) 282
28 × 7 + 5 × 4 – 56 × 2 + 169 ¸ 13 = ? ¸ 24 (e) 201
(a) 2970 (b) 2897 (c) 2766 (d) 2808 62. What should come in the place of ‘?’ in the following
(e) 2976 question?
52. What value will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’
289 ´ 5 + 25 ´ 20% of 750 – 486 ¸ 3 = ?
in the following question?
(a) 2088 (b) 3415 (c) 3375 (d) 2812
20% of 2000 – 25% of 1000 = 2% of 500 + (?)
(e) 3673
(a) 130 (b) 140 (c) 150 (d) 149
63. What should come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in
(e) 160
the following question?
53. What value will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’
in the following question? 4 2 2 3
17 ¸ 3 + 6 ´ - 10.5% of 110 = ?
760 ¸ 19 + 8 × 5 + 7 – 2 + ? = 156 3 3 3 2
(a) 56 (b) 60 (c) 34 (d) 71 (a) 3.15 (b) 3.45 (c) 3.65 (d) 4.25
(e) 65 (e) 4.75
54. What value will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ 64. What value will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following
in the following question? question?
25 × 400 – 20 × 200 + 100 ¸ 2 = ? × 30 ¸ 3 24% of 840 + 64% of 940 = 32% of ?
(a) 505 (b) 400 (c) 605 (d) 500 (a) 3210 (b) 3010 (c) 2310 (d) 2510
(e) 305 (e) 2810
55. What value will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ 65. Ratio of milk and water in a mixture of 54 litres is 5 : 4. 18
in the following question? litres of the mixture is taken out from the mixture and then
5 litres of water is added to it. Find the final difference
90 × 2 + 6 + ? + 18 ¸ 3 × 9 = 300
between milk and water.
(a) 96 (b) 100 (c) 120 (d) 110 (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 1
(e) 60
(e) None of these
56. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the
66. A sum is lent at simple interest of 8% p.a. If at the end of
following question?
1105 – 15 × [4 × (140 – 95)] ¸ 5 + 100 = ? three years, the amount received is ` 3,720, then find the
sum lent.
(a) 618 (b) 625 (c) 623 (d) 612
(e) 665 (a) ` 4000 (b) ` 3000
57. What value will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ (c) ` 5000 (d) ` 5600
in the following question? (e) ` 4400
50% of 180 – 30% of 150 = ? + (500 – 55 × 4) ¸ 8 67. A dealer purchased a washing machine. He allows a
(a) 10 (b) 13 (c) 15 (d) –12 discount of 20% on its marked price and gains ` 3000. If
(e) –13 he allows a discount of 30% on its marked price and gains
58. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the ` 2000. Find the marked price of the machine.
following question? (a) ` 7,000 (b) ` 9,000
(842 + 598 – 111) ¸ 3 = 693 – 73 + ? (c) ` 12000 (d) ` 10,000
(a) –165 (b) –196 (c) –177 (d) –162 (e) ` 15,000
(e) None of these
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2023 2023-37

68. A and B can complete a work in 18 days. If A can complete such as jewelry made of bronze, which is an alloy of copper and
the work in 24 days, then in how many days B alone can tin. The eruption of Mount Vesuvius and its tragic consequences
complete the work? have provided everyone with a wealth of data about the effects
(a) 24 (b) 40 (c) 48 (d) 72 that volcanoes can have on the surrounding area. Today,
(e) None of these volcanologists can locate and predict eruptions, saving lives
69. The ratio of present age of A and B is 3 : 1 and the ratio of and preventing the destruction of other cities and cultures.
present age of A and C is 2 : 5. The difference between the 71. Poisonous ___________ gases were spread in the
present age of A and C is 4 years. 10 years hence, find the atmosphere.
sum of there ages. (a) Hydrogen (b) Nitrogen
(a) 70 (b) 64 (c) 60 (d) 56 (c) Sulfuric (d) Acidic
(e) 68 (e) Non-toxic
70. A train moving at a speed of 45 km/hr crosses a standing 72. Find the synonym of the word, ‘solidify’ from the above
man in 20 seconds. Find the time taken by it to cross a passage.
platform of 200 m. (a) Molten (b) Saturate
(a) 10 s (b) 36 s (c) 12 s (d) 16 s (c) Coagulate (d) Ignite
(e) 20 s (e) Excavate
73. __________ with acrylic paints, scientists examine the

English Language
skeletons, thus concluding the type of diet consumed by
the residents of a particular area.
(a) By strengthening the brittle bones
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 71-78): Read the following passage and
(b) When brittle bones are strengthened
answer the questions given below.
(c) By the combination of brittle bones
Mount Vesuvius, a volcano located between the ancient Italian (d) When one strengthens brittle bones
cities of Pompeii and Herculaneum, has received much attention (e) The strength of brittle bones
because of its frequent and destructive eruptions. The most 74. What is used by archaeologists to clean the skeletons
famous of these eruptions occurred in A.D. 79. covered with volcanic ash when they have to be studied?
The volcano had been inactive for centuries. There was little (a) Fresh water (b) Sodium bicarbonate
warning of the coming eruption, although one account (c) Distilled water (d) Nitrogen gas
unearthed by archaeologists says that a hard rain and a strong (e) Sulfur
wind had disturbed the celestial calm during the preceding night. 75. Bronze is an alloy of ________ and ___________.
Early the next morning, the volcano poured a huge river of (a) Tin and potash (b) Aluminium and copper
molten rock down upon Herculaneum, completely burying the (c) Copper and tin (d) Potash and copper
city and filling the harbor with coagulated lava. (e) Aluminium and sodium
Meanwhile, on the other side of the mountain, cinders, stone 76. Who studies the effect of tidal waves on the world’s
and ash rained down on Pompeii. Sparks from the burning ash climate?
(a) Geologists (b) Archaeologists
ignited the combustible rooftops quickly. Large portions of the
(c) Meteorologists (d) Volcanologists
city were destroyed in the conflagration. Fire, however, was
(e) Scientists
not the only cause of destruction. Poisonous sulfuric gases
77. ___________ can locate and predict volcanic eruptions
saturated the air. These heavy gases were not buoyant in the that can prevent cities from destruction.
atmosphere and therefore sank toward the earth and suffocated (a) Historians (b) Volcanologists
people. (c) Scientists (d) Volcano engineers
Over the years, excavations of Pompeii and Herculaneum have (e) Meteorologists
revealed a great deal about the behavior of the volcano. By 78. Find the antonym for the word, ‘weak’ from the passage.
analyzing data, much as a zoologist dissects an animal (a) Disruptive (b) Yielded
specimen, scientists have concluded that the eruption changed (c) Examined (d) Strengthen
large portions of the area’s geography. For instance, it turned (e) Destruction
the Sarno River from its course and raised the level of the beach
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 79-85): In the following questions, two
along the Bay of Naples. Meteorologists studying these events
words are to be interchanged to be placed in the other sentence
have also concluded that Vesuvius caused a huge tidal wave to make it grammatically correct. Choose the appropriate
that affected the world’s climate. word to swap to improve the sentence.
In addition to making these investigations, archaeologists have
been able to study the skeletons of victims by using distilled 79. Parents improve (A) their children by overindulgence (B)
water to wash away the volcanic ash. By strengthening the and granting their wishes. Let us try and spoil (C) the
brittle bones with acrylic paint, scientists have been able to situation by discussing (D) positive measures.
examine the skeletons and draw conclusions about the diet and (a) A-C (b) B-D
habits of the residents. Finally, the excavations at both Pompeii (c) A-D (d) C-B
and Herculaneum have yielded many examples of classical art, (e) B-A
2023-38 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2023

80. The contents (A) of the letter surprised (B) them. But he 90. They took blankets ______ keep themselves warm.
was alarmed (C) upon seeing (D) his son. (a) To (b) For
(a) A-D (b) B-D (c) In (d) Were
(c) B-C (d) D-C (e) Have
(e) C-A 91. The tourist who visited Kashmir was __________ by its
81. Trust is the basic quality (A) for all relationships (B). beauty.
His tenet (C) of being punctual in office is quite (a) Mesmerized (b) Enchanted
commendable (D). (c) Awe-struck (d) Shocked
(a) A-C (b) B-C (e) Elated
(c) D-C (d) B-D
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 92-97): The sentences given below have
(e) D-A an error in one of its five parts. Find out which part of the
82. Growing urbanization (A) and literacy damaged (B) the sentence has an error. The alphabet of that part is your answer.
plight of women in India. The car got changed (C) due to
the accident on the street (D). 92. (A) The scissors / (B) is / (C) kept / (D) on top of / (E) the
(a) D-A (b) B-C shelf.
(c) A-C (d) B-A (a) A (b) B
(e) B-D (c) C (d) D
83. Not all young (A) children are serious (B). They were (e) E
quite naughty (C) at the Board meeting (D). 93. (A) She enrolled / (B) herself in a /(C) three-years degree
(a) A-D (b) B-D / (D) course in / (E) Fashion Designing.
(c) B-C (d) C-A (a) A (b) B
(e) D-C (c) C (d) D
84. My friends (A) told me that there was no action (B) out. (e) E
They took no way (C) against the caught (D) culprit. 94. (A) Three requirements / (B) necessary for / (C) plant
(a) B-C (b) D-A growth is / (D) soil, temperature / (E) and moisture content.
(c) B-D (d) C-A (a) A (b) B
(e) A-B (c) C (d) D
85. The Bhagvad Gita is a poem (A) of 700 paragraphs (B). (e) E
The verses (C) of that story were well connected (D). 95. (A) He purchased / (B) some new / (C) and innovative /
(a) A-B (b) B-C (D) equipments / (E) for his company.
(c) A-C (d) C-D (a) A (b) B
(e) C-B (c) C (d) D
(e) E
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 86-91): In the following questions, there 96. (A) The man / (B) laid down / (C) besides me / (D) on the
is a blank in each sentence which has to be filled with an bench / (E) in the park.
appropriate word. Five options have been given. Choose the (a) A (b) B
correct one to fill the blank and complete the sentence.
(c) C (d) D
86. The snake _______ the man on his toes. (e) E
(a) Had bitten (b) Bit 97. (A) My brother / (B) was / (C) first / (D) to get / (E) a
(c) Bite (d) Was bitten degree.
(e) Was bit (a) A (b) B
87. During the recent hailstorm, one-third of our city _____ (c) C (d) D
devastated. (e) E
(a) Were (b) Are
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 98-100): In the following questions, options
(c) Was (d) Is
A and G are the first and the last sentences of a paragraph.
(e) Will be Rearrange the five sentences in a logical sequence and answer
88. Proper grammar, punctuation and spellings ______ the questions that follow.
essential in a sentence.
(a) Were (b) Have A Branded disposable diapers are available at many
(c) Is (d) Are supermarkets and drug stores.
(e) Can be i. If one supermarket sets a higher price for a diaper,
89. The roads ________ the state of Punjab are largely raised customers may buy that brand elsewhere.
and smooth. ii. By contrast, the demand for private-label products
(a) Of (b) Throughout may be less price-sensitive since it is available only
(c) In (d) From at a corresponding supermarket chain.
(e) Are
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2023 2023-39

iii. So the demand for branded diapers at any particular (iv) For instance, only SavOn Drugs stores sell SavOn
store may be quite price sensitive. Drugs diapers.
iv. For instance, only SavOn Drugs stores sell SavOn Then stores should set a higher incremental margin
Drugs diapers. percentage for private label diapers.
v. These diapers are known to be water absorbent to a 98. What will be the third sentence after rearrangement?
high extent. (a) iii (b) i
G. Then stores should set a higher incremental margin (c) ii (d) iv
percentage for private label diapers. (e) v
The correct rearrangement is as follows: 99. What will be the second sentence after rearrangement?
Branded disposable diapers are available at many (a) iii (b) v
supermarkets and drug stores. (c) i (d) ii
(v) These diapers are known to be water absorbent to a (e) iv
high extent. 100. What will be the fifth sentence after rearrangement?
(iii) So the demand for branded diapers at any particular (a) i (b) iii
store may be quite price sensitive. (c) ii (d) iv
(i) If one supermarket sets a higher price for a diaper, (e) v
customers may buy that brand elsewhere.
(ii) By contrast, the demand for private-label products
may be less price-sensitive since it is available only
at a corresponding supermarket chain.

ANSWER KEY
1 (b) 11 (c) 21 (b) 31 (d) 41 (b) 51 (d) 61 (e) 71 (c) 81 (a) 91 (a)
2 (c) 12 (d) 22 (a) 32 (d) 42 (c) 52 (b) 62 (e) 72 (c) 82 (b) 92 (b)
3 (d) 13 (c) 23 (d) 33 (a) 43 (c) 53 (d) 63 (b) 73 (a) 83 (c) 93 (c)
4 (b) 14 (e) 24 (c) 34 (a) 44 (c) 54 (c) 64 (d) 74 (c) 84 (a) 94 (c)
5 (d) 15 (b) 25 (a) 35 (e) 45 (a) 55 (e) 65 (d) 75 (c) 85 (b) 95 (d)
6 (b) 16 (e) 26 (b) 36 (c) 46 (d) 56 (e) 66 (b) 76 (c) 86 (b) 96 (c)
7 (b) 17 (d) 27 (d) 37 (c) 47 (b) 57 (a) 67 (d) 77 (b) 87 (c) 97 (c)
8 (c) 18 (b) 28 (d) 38 (d) 48 (d) 58 (c) 68 (d) 78 (d) 88 (d) 98 (a)
9 (e) 19 (c) 29 (b) 39 (c) 49 (a) 59 (e) 69 (b) 79 (a) 89 (b) 99 (b)
10 (b) 20 (b) 30 (d) 40 (e) 50 (e) 60 (b) 70 (b) 80 (c) 90 (a) 100 (c)
2023-40 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2023

ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS

1. (b) When the elements at even-numbered positioned are 11. (c) The code 'qh' stands either for 'gone' or 'navigation.
removed. 12. (d) The code for 'school' in the given code language is
5P 8 IW %O D&7 × BS G€ N© either 'ql' or 'oz'.
The element at the 8th position from the right side is 13. (c) Thus, the code for 'circle' in the given code of
‘7’?
language is 'fg'.
2. (c) There are five numbers in the arrangement that are
immediately followed by a symbol.
8 3 4 7 2 7 6 1 3 3
5 #, 8 @, 9%, 8&, 8 € 14. (e)
3. (d) There are five elements which are followed by
Pairs in a backward direction: (3, 6),(3, 7), (1, 8), (6, 7), (2, 4)
consonants and preceded by number.
5 # P, 9 % T, 73 ×, 25Q, 5 € F Pairs in a forward direction : (1, 3), (4, 7), (3, 7), (3, 4)
4. (b) ‘*7×’ does not belong to that group. 15. (b) D > B > F > A > E / C > E / C
5. (d) No, meaningful word can be formed Hence ; D has the highest number of colours.
So ‘Z’ is the answer. 16. (e) D > B > F > A > E/C > E/C
Hence, E has the least number of colors.
6. (b) (+) (–) 17. (d) D > B > F > A > E/C > E /C
G I H Hence, either 4 or 5 persons have more number of
colors.
(–)(+) (+) (–) Sol. (18 - 22) :
K J L O
Days Persons
(+) (–) Monday H
M N
Tuesday I
Wednesday G
Hence, L is married to a girl names O, then L is the
Thursday K
uncle of N.
Friday J
7. (b) Hence, the relationship between J and M is father
Saturday M
and son.
8. (c) Hence, N is niece of L is the correct statement. Sunday L
Sol. (9 - 13): 18. (b) Hence only two persons before 'G' is true.
On decoding the words 19. (c) Hence, K attended the seminar on Thursday.
20. (b) Hence, H attended on Monday.
Words Code
21. (b) I attended one day before K. Similarly, G attended
city pr
one day before J.
bus hr
Here, K attended one day before M
on ql/oz
22. (a) Hence, three persons attended between G and L
school oz/ql Sol. (23 - 27)
college nr
S . No Boxes
road yk 8 O
circle fg 7 W
through we 6 Z
navigation sn/qh 5 N
gone qh/sn 4 X
9. (e) The code for 'road' in the given code of language is 3 P
'yk'. 2 M
10. (b) The possible code of 'city college earth' in the given 1 Y
code language is 'pr nr cr'.
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2023 2023-41

23. (d) Box 'Z' is kept third from the top.

T.V Laptop
Hence, Box Y is kept 5 boxes below Box Z Mobile
24. (c) 35. (e)
I. Four boxes are kept between Box N and Box O -
Hence, Neither I nor II follows.
(wrong)
108
II. Box P is kept immediately below Box X. (true)
150 141 131 120 110 95
III. Box Z is kept three boxes above Box M. (wrong) 36. (c)
Only Statement II is correct. –9 –10 –11 –12 –13
25. (a) Only box N and box X is between box Z and box P. Hence, the wrong term in the series is 110.
Hence, 2 boxes are kept between box Z and box P. 37. (c) 25 + 25 = 50
26. (b) The logic followed here is that all the given boxes 36 + 36 = 72
are kept at even positions, except box N. 49 + 49 = 98
Hence, box N is the odd one out. 64 + 64 = 128
81 + 81 = 162
27. (d) S . No Boxes 100 + 100 = 200
8 Z The wrong term is 164.
7 Y 38. (d)
6 X 178
5 W 81 118 151 180 197 206

4 P
+37 +33 +27 +19 +9
3 O
2 N –4 –6 –8 –10
1 M 39. (c)
60
Hence, Box X is kept third from the top after the
10 10 20 25 240 1200
rearrangement.
Sol. (28 - 32) : ×1 ×2 ×3 ×4 ×5
P M Q O N 40. (e) (2)2 + 1 = 5
(3)2 – 1 = 8
(4)2 + 1 = 17
(5)2 – 1 = 24
G J H K I
28. (d) 'H' sits in the middle of Row 2. (6)2 + 1 = 37
(7)2 – 1 = 48
29. (b) 'J' sits beside 'G'
41. (b) The perimeter of the rectangle is = 72 cm
'I' sits at the right end of Row 2.
Hence, 2 people sit between J and I 72
The length of the rectangle is = ´ 5 = 20 cm
30. (d) 'M' sits beside 'P'. 'O' sits second to the left of 'M'. 18
Hence, 'K' sits opposite to 'O'. 72 - 20 ´ 2
The breadth of the rectangle is =
31. (d) 'G' and 'N' sits at the end of the row. 2
32. (d) 'P' sits diagonally opposite to 'I'. 32
= = 16 cm
Q 2
P R The ratio of breadth to the perimeter of the rectangle
33. (a) = 16 : 72 = 2 : 9
42. (c) The ratio of the amount invested by kamal and Surya
Hence, only conclusion I follows. (40,000 × 12) : (1,00,000 × 6)
Bat Ball 4,80,000 : 6,00,000
4 : 5
34. (a) The amount of profit share of Surya
Book
27000
Hence, only conclusion I follows. = ´ 5 = 15,000
9
2023-42 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2023

43. (c) According to question 50. (e) 500 × 18 ¸ 6 + 3 + 2 of 5 of 3

D D 30
= 1500 + 3 + 30 = 1533
- = 51. (d) 28 × 7 + 5 × 4 – 56 × 2 + 169 ¸ 13 = ? ¸ 24
5 - 3 5 + 3 60
196 + 20 – 112 + 13 = x ¸ 24
D D 1 x = 117 × 24
- = x = 2808
2 8 2
52. (b) 20% of 2000 – 25% of 1000 = 2% of 500 + (?)
4D - D 1 400 – 250 = 10 + ?
=
8 2 ? = 150 – 10
4 ? = 140
D= km 53. (d) 760 ¸ 19 + 8 ×5 + 7 – 2 + ? = 156
3
44. (c) The total weight of all staff members = 15 × 40 40 + 40 + 5 + ? = 156
= 600 kg ? = 156 – 85
When one staff member leaves, the total weight of ? = 71
the remaining 14 staff members is = 14 × 39 = 546 kg 54. (c) 25 × 400 – 20 × 200 + 100 ¸ 2 = ? × 30 ¸ 3
Weight of leaving member = 600 – 546 = 54 kg 10000 – 4000 + 50 = ? × 10
When one staff member joins, the total weight of the 6050
15 staff members is = 15 × 42 = 630 kg ?=
10
weight of new joining staff member = 630 – 546 ? = 605
= 84 kg 55. (e) 90 × 2 + 6 + ? + 18 ¸ 3 × 9 = 300
Difference between the weight of the staff member 180 + 6 + ? + 54 = 300
who left the office and who join the office = 84 – 54 ? = 300 – 240
= 30 kg ? = 60
45. (a) The total investment of Deepak in ICICI BANK and 56. (e) 1105 – 15 × [4 × (140 – 95)] ¸ 5 + 100 = ?
ITC together = 40,000 + 10,000 = 50,000 1105 – 15 × 180 ¸ 5 + 100 = ?
The total investment of Dinesh in HDFC BANK and 1105 – 15 × 36 + 100 = ?
ICICI Bank together = 20,000 + 15,000 = 35,000 1105 – 540 + 100 = ?
Required Ratio = 50,000 : 35,000 = 10 : 7 ? = 665
46. (d) The investment of Gagan in HDFC BANK = (15000 + 57. (a) 50% of 180 – 30% of 150 = ? + (500 – 55 × 4) ¸ 8
2,500) = 17,500 90 – 45 = ? + (500 – 220) ¸ 8
The investment of Gagan in ICICI BANK = (40000 – ? = 45 – 35
3500) = 36,500 ? = 10
(17,500 + 36,500) 54, 000 58. (c) (842 + 598 – 111) ¸ 3 = 693 – 73 + ?
Required average = = 443 = 620 + ?
2 2
= 27,000 ? = –177
47. (b) The investment of Dinesh in ICICI BANK and HDFC 59. (e) 45 × 18 + 135 × 49 + 89 × 43 = ? + 169
BANK together = 20,000 + 15,000 = 35,000
810 + 6615 + 3827 = ? + 13
The investment of Deepak in HDFC BANK and ITC
? = 11252 – 13
together = 40,000 + 30,000 = 70,000
? = 11239
70, 000 - 35, 000
Required percentage= ´ 100 = 60. (b) 324 ´ 4 - 40 + 72 = 53 + 65 – ?
35, 000
100% 72 – 40 + 49 = 125 + 65 – ?
48. (d) The investment of Pawan in ICICI BANk ? = 190 – 81
? = 109
50 1 61. (e) (952 + 348) ¸ 260 + 142 = ?
= ´ (25, 000 + 20, 000) = ´ 45,000 = 22,500
100 2 1300 ¸ 260 + 196 = ?
(20, 000 + 30, 000 + 15, 000) ? = 201
49. (a) Required Average =
3 62. (e) 289 ´ 5 + 25 ´ 20% of 750 – 486 ¸ 3 = ?
65000 85 + 25 × 150 – 162 = ?
= Þ 21,666 ? = 3750 + 85 – 162
3
? = 3637
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2023 2023-43

4 2 2 3 5 25
63. (b) 17 ¸ 3 + 6 ´ - 10.5% of 110 = ? 70. (b) The speed of train = 45 ´ = m/sec
3 3 3 2 18 2
55 3 20 3 25
= ´ + ´ - 11.55 = ? The length of train = ´ 20 = 250 m
3 11 3 2 2
? = 5 + 10 – 11.55 The time taken by train to cross a platform of 200 m
? = 3.45 (250 + 200)2 450
64. (d) 24% of 840 + 64% of 940 = 32% of ? Þ Þ ´ 2 Þ 36 sec
25 25
201.6 + 601.6 = 0.32 × ?
71. (c) Sulfuric gases. This has been mentioned in third
303.2 paragraph, “Poisonous sulfuric gases saturated the
?=
0.32 air.”
? = 2510 72. (c) Coagulate. The word is in the last line of the second
paragraph, “completely burying the city and filling
54 the harbor with coagulated lava.”
65. (d) Quantity of milk in a mixture = ´ 5 = 30 litres
9 73. (a) By strengthening the brittle bones. It is the second
54 sentence of the last paragraph of the passage.
Quantity of water in a mixture = ´ 4 = 24 litres 74. (c) Distilled water. It is mentioned in the first sentence
9
of the last paragraph, “In addition to making these
After 18 litres of the mixture is taken out: investigations, archaeologists have been able to
18 study the skeletons of victims by using distilled
Quantity of milk = 30 - ´ 5 = 20 litres water to wash away the volcanic ash.”
9
75. (c) Copper and tin. It is mentioned in the lines of last
18 paragraph, “…the excavations at both Pompeii and
Quantity of water = 24 - ´ 4 = 16 litres
9 Herculaneum have yielded many examples of
After 5 litres of the water is added classical art, such as jewelry made of bronze, which
Quantity of water = 16 + 5 = 21 litres is an alloy of copper and tin.”
The final difference between milk and water 76. (c) Meteorologists. It is mentioned in the fourth
= 21 – 20 = 1 litre paragraph, last sentence, “Meteorologists studying
these events have also concluded that Vesuvius
3720 ´ 100 3720 caused a huge tidal wave that affected the world’s
66. (b) The sum lent = = ´ 100 = 3000
100 + 8 ´ 3 124 climate.”
67. (d) According to question 77. (b) Volcanologists. It is mentioned in the last line of the
Let the marked price = `x passage, “Volcanologists can locate and predict
eruptions, saving lives and preventing the
80 70 destruction of other cities and cultures.”
x´ - 3000 = x ´ - 2000
100 100 78. (d) Strengthen. The antonym for the word, ‘weak’ from
the passage is ‘strengthen’. It is given in second
10x
= 1000 sentence of the second paragraph, “By strengthening
100 the brittle bones with acrylic paint, scientists have
x = ` 10,000 been able to examine the skeletons and draw
The marked price of the machine is = `10,000 conclusions about the diet and habits of the
68. (d) A and B can complete a work in = 18 days 4 residents.”
A can complete a work in = 24 days 72 79. (a) This is an example of word swapping in which words
3
in options A and C will be interchanged. The newly
72 formed sentence will be- “Parents spoil their children
B alone can complete the work in = 4 - 3 = 72 days. by overindulgence and granting their wishes. Let us
try and improve the situation by discussing positive
69. (b) The ratio of present age of A, B and C = 6 : 2 : 5
measures.”
The difference between the present age of A and C is
80. (c) These are examples of word swap wherein a word in
4 years.
one sentence fits the second sentence in a more
The age of A = 6 × 4 = 24 years appropriate way. In this question, option (B) i.e.,
The age of C = 5 × 4 = 20 years ‘surprised’ will be replaced by option (C), i.e.,
The sum of their ages = 24 + 20 + 10 + 10 = 64 years ‘alarmed’ and vice-versa. The newly formed
sentences will be- “The contents of the letter alarmed
them. He was surprised upon seeing his son.”
2023-44 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2023

81. (a) In this question, two words will be swapped to form The grammatically correct sentence will be: ‘The
grammatically correct sentences. Here, option (A) roads throughout the state of Punjab are largely
will be replaced by option (C). The new sentences raised and smooth.’
thus formed will be- “Trust is the basic tenet for all 90. (a) To. The correct preposition to be used is ‘to’.
relationships. His quality of being punctual in office 91. (a) Mesmerized. The word means, to hold somebody’s
is quite commendable.” attention completely.
82. (b) In this question, the options, (B) and (C), i.e., 92. (b) This is an example of spotting errors in a sentence.
‘damaged’ and ‘changed’ will be swapped to form Since some nouns are always used in plural form, so
correct sentences. The newly formed sentences will they always follow a plural verb. Therefore, ‘is’ will
be- “Growing urbanization and literacy changed the be replaced by ‘are’ since scissors is always used in
plight of women in India. The car got damaged due a plural form. So, option (b) has an error.
to the accident on the street.” 93. (c) This is an example of error spotting in sentences.
83. (c) In this question, the words, ‘serious’ (option B) and When nouns indicate measure or length, they remain
‘naughty’ (option C) will be swapped with each other unchanged in form so long as they are followed by
as they will be appropriate in the other sentence. another noun or pronoun. In this sentence, since
The new sentences formed will be- “Not all young the noun ‘degree’ follows the measure or time period,
children are naughty. They were quite serious at the i.e., ‘three years’, hence it will be written as ‘three-
Board meeting.” year degree course’. So, option (c) is the incorrect
84. (a) This is an example of word swapping wherein option part.
(B) will be interchanged with option (C). The two 94. (c) plant growth is. This is the error spotted in the
words that will be interchanged to form appropriately sentence where when there are more than one items,
correct sentences will be ‘action’ and ‘way’. The new ‘are’ will be used. Therefore, option (c) of the given
sentences will be formed as- “My friends told me sentence has an error.
that there was no way out. They took no action against 95. (d) equipments. Since it is an uncountable noun, its plural
the caught culprit.” will remain ‘equipment’. Therefore, the error in option
85. (b) This is an example of word swap in which options (d) is the correct answer.
(B) and (C) will be interchanged. In this question, 96. (c) besides me. In option (c), beside should be used
‘paragraphs’ and ‘verses’ will be swapped with each instead of ‘besides’ since besides means in addition
other to make meaningfully correct sentences. The to and beside means next to or at the side of. The
new sentences will be- “The Bhagvad Gita is a poem grammatically correct sentence would be read as –
of 700 verses. The paragraphs of that story were well “The man laid down beside me on the bench at the
connected.” park.”
86. (b) Bit. Since the sentence is in present continuous 97. (c) first. ‘The’ should be added before ‘first’ because
tense, ‘bit’ (form of bite) will be used to complete the the sentence is expressing a quality and at times,
sentence. common nouns are used as abstract nouns to express
87. (c) Was. Since the sentence is in past tense, therefore qualities. Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.
‘was’ will fit in the blank and complete the sentence. 98. (a) iii. It follows from a logical and coherent sequencing
88. (d) Are. Since ‘are’ is the plural form of ‘is’, the of the sentences to form a paragraph.
grammatically correct sentence will be formed as: 99. (b) v. Through a logical sequencing of the sentences,
‘Proper grammar, punctuation and spellings are option (b) will be the correct answer.
essential in a sentence.’ 100. (c) ii. From the above sequence of sentences, the fifth
89. (b) Throughout. Though ‘in’ may be used here, but sentence will be option (c).
‘throughout’ will fit the context more appropriately.
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2022 2022- 1

SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2022

(Based on Memory)
Time : 160 minutes Max. Marks : 200

Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude and remaining friends sit at the middle of two adjacent sides of
the table. All the friends face away from the center of the table.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): Study the following information S sits third to the right of P, who sits at the middle of one of the
carefully and answer the questions given below: sides of the table. R sits second to the right of S. V sits immediate
right of T. At least one immediate neighbour of T sits on the side
There are three horizontally parallel rows i.e. row 1, row 2 and
row 3. Row 1 is north of row 2, which is in north of row 3. Four of the table. W sits immediate right of U. Friend, who sits second
persons sit on row 1 facing south, four persons sit in row 3 to the right of Q, does not sit at any corner. Both the neighbours
facing north and eight persons sit in row 2 such that first three of W sit at the middle of sides of the table.
persons (from the left end of the row, considering all are facing 6. Who sits immediate right of Q.
north) face north while rest of the five persons face south. (a) S (b) R (c) P (d) W
Persons, who sit in row 1 and row 3 face the persons, who sit on (e) None of these
row 2. The distance between each of the adjacent persons in all 7. Four from the following are similar in a certain way and
the rows is same. The persons at the rightmost seat of row 2 is forms a group. Find out the one who does not belong to
opposite to the rightmost seat of row 3 (considering all are facing that group.
the north direction). And, the leftmost seat of row 2 is opposite (a) R (b) Q (c) U (d) W
to leftmost seat of row 1 (considering all are facing the north (e) S
direction). X faces the person, who sits 3rd to the right of U. Q 8. How many friends sit between Q and T, when counted
sits 2nd to the left of U and adjacent to W. W faces the person, from the right of Q?
who sits 2nd to the right of K. Neither X nor W sits at any of the (a) One (b) Two
extreme ends. K faces the person, who sits 2nd to the right of V. (c) Three (d) Four
Only one person sits between V and Z who faces R. L sits (e) None of these
immediate right of M, who doesn’t face K. O and T sit adjacent 9. Which of the following pair sit at the middle of one of the
to each other. S faces Y, who doesn’t sits 2nd to the right of N. sides of the table?
O doesn’t sit immediate right of U. N doesn’t sit in row 3. P (a) T and P (b) P and R
doesn’t face Q. (c) U and P (d) P and S
1. Who among the following faces the person, who sits
(e) None of these
immediate left of M?
10. Who sits opposite to V?
(a) V (b) N (c) U (d) W
(e) None of these (a) R (b) Q (c) S (d) No one
2. Who among the following doesn’t sit in row 2? (e) None of these
I. Q II. V III. P IV. N DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11- 15): Answer the questions based on
(a) I and II (b) II and III the information given below.
(c) I and IV (d) III & IV
(e) II, III and IV Six employees joined the Disha organizaiton in 2019. All are
3. How many persons sit between Y and the person, who sits joined on different dates of either the same or the different month.
immediate right of Q? Each of them already has some working experience. One of them
(a) One (b) Three (c) Four (d) Two joins on 18th July. Less than two employees joined before T,
(e) More than four who has an experience in an even number. The number of
4. Who among the following pairs of persons doesn’t form a employees joined before T is the same as after the one whose
group? experience is 13 years. Q, who does not have an experience in
(a) S, X (b) P, M (c) Y, V (d) Z, L prime number, joined before the one whose experience is 16
(e) T, Q years but after the one whose experience is 5 and 9 years. The
5. Who sits opposite to S. one whose experience is 5 years joins before the one whose
(a) Z (b) V (c) Y (d) O experience is 9 years, who joins on 24th May. S has an experience
(e) None of these
twice that of T’ s experience. The number of employees joining
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10): Answer the questions based on the between the one whose experience is 5 years and Q is the same
information given below. as between the one whose experience is 9 years and S, who
Eight friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W sit around a regular joins in the organization on 27th September. A joins after R but
hexagonal table, such that six of them sit at different corners, before U. The one who joins on 26th July joined before S but
after Q. The one whose experience is 10 years joined after the
2022- 2 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2022

one who joined on 12th January, which is not the joining date of 19. Which of the following combination is true?
T. Q does not join on 15th January. (a) A-Gaya (b) C-Noida
Based on their working experience a foreign company BUD (c) B-Churu (d) F-Dehradun
gives the project with certain conditions: (e) D-Churu
20. Who among the following students is from Gaya?
1. The project is given to those employees who have a
(a) F (b) C (c) B (d) G
minimum experience of 3 years after joining the Disha
(e) None of these
Organization (Calculate their experience on the following
21. How many pairs of letters are there in the word
date: 31st August 2022).
“HEADPHONE’’ which have as many letters between them
2. The project is given to the employees who joins the
organization at first according to the month. (both forward and backward direction) in the word as in
3. If two employees join in the same month then give priority alphabetical series?
to the one who joins the organization first according to date. (a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three
11. Which among the following is the correct order of the (e) Four
employees who get the project? DIRECTIONS (Qs. 22-24): In each of the questions below are
(a) RTPQU (b) QUPRS given some statements followed by some Conclusions. You have
(c) URTQP (d) UTRQS to take the given statements to be true even, if they seem to be at
(e) None of these variance from Commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions
12. If the project is given according to only the date of joining and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows
of the employees, then how many employees remain from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
unchanged in their positions?
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) None (a) If only conclusion I follows.
(e) 4 (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
13. Who among the following employee has a maximum work
experience before joining this organization? (d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) T
22. Statements:
(e) None of these
Only a few Yellow is Orange.
14. How many employees joined after U?
No orange is Green.
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
All Green are Blue.
(e) 5
Conclusion:
15. If the company appoints a CEO, who has a minimum
I: Some Blue are not Orange
experience of 10 years, then who will be the CEO? II: Some Yellow are Green.
(a) Q (b) S 23. Statements:
(c) T (d) Either (a) or (b) Only a few Car is Truck.
(e) Either (b) or (c) All Truck is Scooters.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16- 20) : Study the following information Some Scooters are Bike.
carefully and answer the questions given below. Conclusion:
I: Some Bike is Car
Seven students A, B, C, D, E, F and G like different colours II: No Bike is Car.
Pink, Gray, Red, Blue, White, Bronze and Black (not necessarily 24. Statements:
in same order) also they are from different cities. One of the Only Spy is Bag.
students from Dehradun. Neither B nor F likes Red and Bronze Some Bud are Spy.
colour. E likes white colour and is from Kolkata city. B is from No Tag is spy.
either Noida or Gangtok. D doesn’t like Pink and red colour. Conclusion:
The one who is from Gangtok city does’t like pink colour. A I: All Tag are Bud.
like Grey colour. The one who likes black colour is not from II: Some Bud is bag is a possibility.
Churu city. D is from Churu city. G is from Patna city. The student
who is from Gaya city likes bronze colour. F is not from Noida DIRECTIONS: (Qs. 25-26): In the following questions, the
city. A is not from Noida and Gangtok city. symbols * @ #, & and $ are used with the following meaning as
16. Who among the following likes Pink Colour? illustrated below-
(a) D (b) C (c) F (d) B
(e) G ‘P#Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’
17. Who among the following students is from Dehradun city? ‘P*Q’ means ‘P is neither equal to nor smaller than Q’
(a) B (b) C (c) A (d) D ‘P@Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q’
(e) E ‘P&Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’
18. Which of the following combination is true about F? ‘P$Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’
(a) Black Gangtok (b) Blue Dehradun Now in each of the following questions assuming the given
(c) Red-Kolkata (d) Pink-Churu statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II
(e) Grey Noida and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your
answer accordingly
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2022 2022- 3

25. Statement: F & D, D * X, X $ Z, B * X 33. The question given below consists of two statements
Conclusions: numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide
I. F * B II. X # F III. B*F whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient
(a) None is true (b) Only II is true to answer the question. Read all the statements and give
(c) Only I and II are true (d) Only II and III are true answer.
(e) All are true How many persons are sitting in the row (assuming all are
26. Statement: D * H $ X @ F & M facing north)?
Conclusions: Statement I: S sits 5th from the right end of the row. R
I. M # X II. F # D III. H@M sits 11th from the left end of the row.
(a) None follows (b) Only I is true Statement II: T sits 6th from the left end. R sits 3rd to the
(c) Only III is true (d) Either I or II is true left of the one who is 7th from the right end.
(e) All are true (a) Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
question.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 27- 29): Study the following information (b) Data in either statement I or statement II alone is
carefully to answer the given questions. sufficient to answer the question
A @ B means A is mother-in-law of B. (c) Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
A % B means A is child of B. question.
A * B means A is parent of B. (d) Data in both statement I and statement II together is
A # B means A is sibling of B. sufficient to answer the question.
A ! B means A is daughter in law of B. (e) Data in statement I and II together is not sufficient to
A & B means A is married to B. answer the question.
27. P#Q!R*S&T, then how Q’s husband is related to T? 34. The question given below consists of three statements
(a) Sister (b) Brother numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide
(c) Brother in law (d) Sister in law whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient
(e) None of these to answer the question. Read all the statements and give
answer.
28. A % B * C & D ! E, then how C is related to E?
Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V live on different
(a) Daughter in law (b) Son in law
floors of a seven storey building, where the bottommost
(c) Daughter (d) Son
floor is I and the floor above it is 2 and so on. Who live on
(e) None of these the 2nd floor?
29. J @ K & L ! M * N, then how L is related to N? Statement I: Three persons live between S and R, who
(a) Brother in law (b) Sister in law lives just below U. Two persons live between U and Q.
(c) Sister (d) Brother Statement II: P lives above U. T doesn’t live below S. R
(e) None of these lives above Q.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 30-32): Read the following information Statement III: T doesn’t live just below R. At least 2 persons
carefully and answer the given questions. live between Q and P.
(a) Data in all statement I, statement II and statement III
A # B-B is in the south direction of A at distance of 8m. together are sufficient to answer the question.
A * B-B is in the north direction of A at distance of 6m. (b) Data in either statement I alone or both statement I
A & B-B is in the east direction of A at distance of 12m. and statement II together is sufficient to answer the
A @ B-B is in the west direction of A at distance of 10m. question.
A * @ B-B is in the northwest direction of A. (c) Data in either statement II or statement III alone is
A # & B-B is in the southwest direction of A. sufficient to answer the question.
P # @ R, R * Q, Q & S * T, P @ Q (d) Data in either statement II or statement I alone is
30. P is in which direction with respect to S and what is distance sufficient to answer the question.
between point P and point S? (e) Data in both statement I and II together is sufficient to
(a) West and 2m (b) East and 9m answer the question.
(c) North and 11m (d) South and 13m
(e) None of these DIRECTIONS (Qs. 35-39) : Answer the questions based on
31. What is the distance between T and Q? the information given below.
(a) 195m (b) 85m In a certain language,
‘India and Nepal are friends’ is coded as ‘#1E,%6T, @ 1B,
(c) 180 m (d) 176 m
@12M, #1F’ ‘People with country should grow’ is coded as
(e) None of these ‘$8I, !4E, !5F, %3Z, $7X’ ‘Hard work becomes core for success’
32. T is in which direction with respect to P and what is distance ‘%2T, #6S, & 8L, %19T, $3F’
between point P and point T? 35. How is the word ‘Monkey’ coded in the given language?
(a) South-west, 40m (b) North-west 40m (a) @13M (b) !13Z
(c) South-east 40m (d) North-east, (c) $12M (d) %11Z
40m
(e) %11M
(e) None of these
2022- 4 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2022

36. How is the word ‘Cabbage’ coded in the given language? 43. Which of the following element is fourth to the right of
(a) %3D (b) &5F (c) *5D (d) %3F the third element from the left end in second last step of
(e) &4G the given input?
37. How is the word ‘Packer’ coded in the given language? (a) 22 (b) 09 (c) 24 (d) 26
(a) @18Q (b) %15R (c) !16S (d) %17P (e) None of these
(e) !18S 44. How many even numbers are there in the last step?
38. How is the word ‘Radarmen’ coded in the given language? (a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 3
(a) &14O (b) &18S (c) !14M (d) !18Q (e) None of these
(e) @14S 45. How many elements are to the right of the ‘88’ in step 3?
39. How is the sentence ‘This can direct’ coded in the given (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 4
language? (e) None of these
(a) #12T &4V !19X (b) #11A &5T %18Y
(c) #13Z @3U $20Z (d) #3D $20U !4E DIRECTION (Q. 46) : In the question below is given a
(e) #3O !4U $19T statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An
assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You
DIRECTION (Q. 40) : In this question, two rows are given have to consider the statement and the following assumption
and to find out the resultant of a particular row you need to and decide which of the assumption is implicit in the statement.
follow the following steps:
Give answer:
Step 1: If an even number is followed by an odd (prime) number
(a) If only assumption I is implicit
then the resultant will be the addition of both the numbers.
Step 2: If an odd number is followed by a perfect square then (b) If only assumption II is implicit
the results will be the subtraction of the square number from the (c) If either I or II is implicit
odd number. (d) If neither I nor II is implicit
Step 3: If an odd number is followed by another odd number (e) If both I and II are implicit
then the resultant will be the addition of both the numbers. 46. Statement: Government should deploy army to rehabilitate
Step 4: If an even number is followed by an odd (non-prime) the people displaced due to earthquake.
number then the resultant will be the subtraction of the odd Assumptions:
number from the even number. I. Army can be used for purposes other than war also.
Step 5: If an odd number is followed by an even number then
II. Only army can rehabilitate the displaced victims of
the resultant comes by multiplying the numbers.
earthquake.
40. Find the sum of two rows.
4 5 2 DIRECTION (Q. 47) : In the questions below is given a statement
13 9 3 followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. On the
(a) 18 (b) 25 (c) 11 (d) 14 basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume
(e) None of the above everything in the statement to be true, and then decide which of
the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 41- 45): A number and word arrangement
machine when given an input line of number and words Give answer:
rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The (a) If only I follows.
following is an illustration of an input rearrangement. (b) If only II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows.
Input: name narrow nest nostalgic nature nagative night nephew
(d) If neither I nor II follows.
Step I: am aorr es agilost artu aegitvghi eehp
(e) If both I and II follow.
Step II: 14 19 24 21 22 23 16 21
47. Statement: A number of school children in the local
Step III: 56 95 96 105 88 115 64 105
schools have fallen Ill after, the consumption of their
Step IV: K25 N81 D81 F1 P64 G1 J36 F1
subsidized tiffin provided by the school authority.
Step V: 18 23 24 7 26 8 19 7
Courses of action:
Step VI: 81 25 36 49 64 64 100 49
I. The tiffin facility of all schools should be discontinued
Step VI is the final output of the above arrangement
Input: Hard Height Handsome Hour Husband Hypertext Honest Hindi with immediate effect.
II. The government should implement a system to certify
41. How many steps are required to obtain the final output of the quality of tiffin provided by the school.
the given input.
48. Statement: A slump in home sales has pushed builders’
(a) Four (b) Five
inventory to “unsustainable levels” in the National Capital
(c) Six (d) Seven
Region of Delhi, creating conditions for a real price
(e) None of these
correction that developers have so far avoided.
42. Which among the following is the final step of the given input? Which of the following statements is inferred on the basis
(a) 25 64 1 81 16 36 25 9 of the given statement?
(b) 25 81 81 1 64 16 36 16 (a) Demand for houses is quite low in most of the big cities.
(c) 64 4 81 16 25 64 25 49 (b) The high inventory level will hamper the ability of
(d) 36 25 49 09 64 25 49 9 launching new projects by the builders.
(e) None of these
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2022 2022- 5

(c) Builders in the market who have shown a good track travels for next 3 hrs 2 min and he covered 60 km more
record of delivering on time and on their promises, than his earlier covered distance. Find the approx. value
have been able to garner sales even in this slow market. of A?
(d) Unless this unsold stock gets absorbed, it will be difficult (a) 36 (b) 40 (c) 30 (d) 45
for consumer confidence to come back in this market. (e) None of these
(e) High prices have pushed most of the on-sale 52. A tank contains 80 litre mixture of Milk and water in which
apartments beyond the reach of average home buyers. ratio was 4 : 1 respectively. 20 litre mixture was taken out
49. World’s forests are ‘in emergency room’. Study shows that and 24 litre milk was replaced by it. Now 28 litre new
the world lost 12 million hectares of tropical tree cover mixture was removed to get final mixture. Find the final
last year - the equivalent of 30 football pitches a minute - quantity of water in final mixture?
researchers said on Thursday, warning the planet’s health (a) 10 (b) 6 (c) 12 (d) 8
was at stake as we depend on forests for our survival from (e) 5
the air we breathe to the wood we use and so on. 53. P started a business with Rs x, after 8 months Q joined
Which of the following may be the reason of the warning him with Rs (x + 3000). After another one month R also
given in the statement? joined them with some investment. Now profit share of Q
(I) Forests and trees make vital contributions to both and R become equal after a year. Profit share of P is twice
people and the planet, bolstering livelihoods, of profit share of Q. Find the investment made by R?
providing clean air and water, conserving biodiversity (a) Rs. 8000 (b) Rs. 10000
and responding to climate change. (c) Rs. 12000 (d) Rs. 15000
(II) How to increase agricultural production and improve (e) None of these
food security without reducing forest area is one of 54. 10 boys can finish a work in 30 days and same work can
the great challenges of our times. be finished by 15 girls in same days. Now 20 boys start
(III)There is quantitative evidence to show that forests are work and leave the work after 3 days. 30 girls finish
being managed more sustainably. remaining work. If total time to finish the work was 21
(a) Only I is implicit days. Find the no. of days in which no work was done?
(b) Only III is implicit (a) 4 days (b) 5 days
(c) Only III and II are implicit (c) 6 days (d) 8 days
(d) None is implicit (e) None of these
(e) Only I, II and III are implicit 55. Breadth (b) of a rectangle is 65% less than length (l) of
same rectangle. Radius of circle is r mm and area of circle
DIRECTION (Q. 50) : In making decisions about important is 616 sq m. relation between r and b is as follow:
question, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between ‘strong’ r2 = 16 1/3 (b + 5). Find the area of rectangle.
arguments and ‘weak’ arguments. ‘Strong’ arguments are those (a) 140 sq m (b) 560 sq m
which are important and directly related to the question. ‘Weak’ (c) 420 sq m (d) 280 sq m
arguments are those which are of minor importance and also (e) None of these
may not be directly related to the question or may be related to 56. Yuvi invest in Scheme X certain sum Rs. (a + 960) for
a trivial aspect of the question. Each question below is followed 6 years at 15% rate of interest, he received Rs. (3a – 420)
by two arguments numbered as I and II. You have to decide amount after 6 years. If he invest Rs. b in scheme X for same
which of the arguments a strong argument is and which a weak time than he received Rs. (2a – 280). Find the value of b?
argumetn is. (a) Rs 3000 (b) Rs 2000
Give answer: (c) Rs 2600 (d) Rs 1600
(a) If only Argument I is strong (e) None of these
(b) If only Argument II is strong 57. Dinesh invest total sum of Rs 20000 in two schemes P and
(c) If either Argument I or II is strong Q. He invest in Scheme P and Scheme Q for 3 years and 2
(d) If neither Argument I nor II is strong years respectively. Rate of interest in both schemes on SI
(e) If both Argument I and II are strong is 20% and 35% respectively. Interest received from
50. Statement: Should only reputed NGO’s be authorized to scheme Q is Rs 1600 less than same received from scheme
distribute the commodities to the public under the P. Find the 50% of total amount received from scheme P
programme of Public Distribution System (PDS)? and Q?
Arguments: (a) Rs 14400 (b) Rs 17600
I. Yes, the move will be helpful to implement the (c) Rs 15600 (d) Rs 16400
programme more effectively and will keep a tab on (e) None of these
various problems like black marketing of the 58. Women in city A is 150% of Men in same city. Men in city
commodities supplied under PDS. B is thrice of Men in city A. Women in city B is 500 more
II. Yes, NGO’s have helped government on many occasions. than women in city A. Total population of city B is 180%
more than that of city A. Find the number of Men in city A?
Quantitative Aptitude (a) 300 (b) 400
(c) 200 (d) 500
51. Ekansh cover a certain distance in 3 hrs 55 min with A (e) None of these
kmph after that he increased his speed by 30 kmph and he
2022- 6 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2022

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 59-60) : Following questions contain two 64. Which of following equation will give you same roots?
statements as statement I and statement II. You have to determine (a) 20x2 – 13x + 2 = 0 (b) 10x2 – 9x + 1 = 0
which statement/s is/are necessary to answer the question and (c) 15x2 – 23x + 6 (d) 15x2 – 22x + 8 = 0
give answer as, (e) 15x2 – 13x + 2 = 0
(a) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the DIRECTIONS (Qs. 65-66) : Study the given quadratic
question, while the data in statement II alone is not equations and give answer of the questions.
sufficient to answer the question. P = 2x2 – 11x + 12 = 0
(b) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the Q = 5x2 – 12x + 4 = 0
question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient R = 4x2 – 25x + 6 = 0
to answer the question. 65. Sum of smallest root of equation P and smallest root of
(c) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone equation R?
is sufficient to answer the question.
(d) The data given in both statements I and II together are not 3 1 1 2
(a) 1 (b) 1 (c) 1 (d) 1
sufficient to answer the question. 4 4 2 3
(e) The data given in both statements I and I together are (e) None of these
necessary to answer the question. 66. Which of the following statements are TRUE?
59. Rs. 15000 was distributed between A, B, C and D. Find Statement 1: Product of roots of equation P is equal to
the share of B? largest root of equation R.
Statement 1: A and B together received 25% more than Statement 2: Difference between smallest root of equation
share of C. B received Rs. 1000 less than share of A. Q and smallest root of equation R is 3/10
Statement 2: Ratio of share of D and C is 3 : 2. Statement 3: Ratio of the product of roots of equation P
60. Find the sum of the perimeter of the rectangle and the and equation R is 3 : 1.
perimeter of the square. (a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 1
Statement I: The difference between the length of the (c) Only 3 (d) Only 1 and 3
rectangle and the side of the square is 20 m. (e) Only 2
Statement II: The ratio of the length of the rectangle to
the breadth of the rectangle is 4:3 and the radius of the DIRECTIONS (Qs. 67-72) : Study the following pie chart
circle is 20% less than the sum of the length and the breadth carefully and answer the questions.
of the rectangle. Pie chart given below shows the percentage distribution of
number of visitors (Male + Female) visited a circus on five
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 61-62) : Following questions have two different days in a week.
quantities as Quantity I and Quantity II. You have to determine Note: y is 1/4th of the total pie.
the relationship between them and give an answer as, Total number of person visited the circus on five different days
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II is 500.
(b) Quantity I > Quantity II
(c) Quantity II > Quantity I
(d) Quantity II > Quantity I y%
(x + 20)%
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II (or) Relation cannot be established
61. x, y and z are three positive integers.
x > y and z = 2x (x + 5)%
sum of reciprocal of x and y is three times of difference 2x%

between reciprocals of x and y. x%

Quantity 1: value of 0.5y × z

4y
Quantity 2: value of ´ x2 Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday
2z 67. Ratio of children teenagers and adults to attend circus on
62. A two digit number A whose unit place digit is twice of Thursday is 3 : 3 : X. If adults audience is 6 more than
Ten’s place digit. Sum of the two digit number itself A and teenagers. Find the sum of children and adults came to
product of the digits of A is 54. watch circus on Thursday.
Quantity 1: value of 3A (a) 52 (b) 48 (c) 50 (d) 40
Quantity 2: value of 2A + 48 (e) 45
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 63-64) : Given the roots of a quadratic 68. Difference between male and female came for circus on
equations: 1/5 and 2/3 Friday is 75. If ticket price of Male is Rs 20 and for female
is Rs 10. Than find which cannot be collection amount on
63. If quadratic equations derived from these roots divided Friday?
by 2 and 2.5x2 + .5x added to it. Find the product of roots 1. Rs. 2500 2. Rs. 2250 3. Rs. 1500
of newly formed quadratic equations. (a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 and 3
(a) 1/10 (b) 2/5 (c) 3/10 (d) 7/10 (c) Only 1 (d) Only 3
(e) None of these (e) Only 2
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2022 2022- 7

69. On Saturday visitors came circus are 60% more than that 76. If the total number of students in college O is 3 times the
of Friday. Find the ratio of people came to circus on number of students in course P in college J and the number
Thursday to the same on Saturday? of students in course Q in college O is 3/4th of the total
(a) 5 : 4 (b) 4 : 5 (c) 8 : 3 (d) 3 : 8 students in that college. Then find the average of total
(e) None of these number of students in course P in college O and the number
70. Which of the following are incorrect from given statements? of students in course Q in college J.
1. y = 2.5 x 2. y – x = 20 3. y + 2x = 55 (a) 378 (b) 412 (c) 356 (d) 424
(a) Only 2 (b) Only 1 (e) None of these
(c) Only 2 and 3 (d) Only 1 and 2 77. If the number of students in course Q in college L is 78
(e) Only 1 and 3 more than four times the difference between total students
71. On Friday, if 2/5th of total person visited the circus were in college J and M, then find the sum of total number of
females and out of the total females visited on Friday students in college K and total number of students in
1/5th visited for the first time. The total first time visitors college L.
on Friday was 10% of the total people visited on all five (a) 1460 (b) 1514 (c) 1626 (d) 1392
days. Then find the number of males who visited the circus (e) None of these
not for the first time on Friday.
(a) 30 (b) 40 (c) 35 (d) 45 DIRECTIONS (Qs. 78-82) : Study the line graph carefully
(e) 50 and answer the questions.
72. On Saturday if the number of males visited the circus was Line graph shows data of 5 different gym members in 2015 and
double the difference of the number of persons visited the circus 2020.
on Monday and Wednesday and on Saturday females visited
140
the circus was 3/4th of the total person visited on Saturday.
Then find the total person visited the circus on Saturday. 120
120

(a) 640 (b) 780 (c) 550 (d) 800

(e) None of these 100
100

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 73-77) : Study the following given data

80
and answer the given questions. 80
61
There are 4 colleges in a city for example J, K, L, and M. Here 60
48
two type of certificate courses is being opted-courses are (P, Q).
40
In the table given total numbers of students and either percentage 40 36
32
or actual value in numbers of the students who has taken that
20
particular certificate course. 0 20
12

Some data is missing you will have to find it.

P Q R S T

Colleges Total P Q 2015 2020

J 968 50% – 78. In 2015 male members of gym Q is less than by male
K – 44% 504 members of gym R. Female member of gym R is 4 times
of female members of gym Q. Sum of female members in
L – 40 8 –
both gyms are more than 10. Find the possible number of
M 840 65% – male members in gym R.
73. In college N total students are equal to the sum of 3 times 1. 12 2. 24 3. 16 4. 20
of students of course P in college J and 1/3 of course Q in 5. 28
college M. Find the ratio of total students of college N (a) Only 1 and 3 (b) Only 2, 3 and 4
and total students of college K? (c) Only 2, 4 and 5 (d) Only 1, 3 and 4
(a) 41 : 36 (b) 31 : 18 (e) All are possible value.
(c) 15 : 23 (d) 31 : 27 79. Average members of gym S, T and U is 57 in 2020. If male
(e) None of these are twice of female members in gym U in given year. Ratio
74. Ratio of the students in course P to course Q in college L of male to female members in gym S in the same year is 5 :
is 2 : 3. Total students in college L are approx what percent 3. Find the male members of gym U and S together is what
more than that of College K? percent more than female members in the same gym.
(a) 22% (b) 13% (c) 17% (d) 24% (a) 94% (b) 82%
(e) None of these (c) 89% (d) 78%
75. In college L, If the percentage range of students in course (e) None of these
P lies within 15 < P < 30 and P is a even multiple of 6 then 80. In gym U total member in 2020 is equal to difference
find the number of students in course Q in college L. between total members in both years of gym Q. If difference
(a) 1100 (b) 1076 between male and female of members in gym U is 4. Then
(c) 1292 (d) 1154 find the number of male in gym U
(e) None of these (a) 16 (b) 12 (c) 18 (d) 20
(e) Cannot be determined
2022- 8 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2022

81. Ticket price for male and female is ` 30 and ` 20 90. 124, ?, 100, 256, 904, 4078
respectively in both year for gym R. Ratio of male and (a) 74 (b) 78 (c) 64 (d) 56
female is 3 : 5 of total male and female of 2015 and 2020 (e) 84
for gym R then find revenue which was generated by selling 91. The average cost price of all products in an mobile shop is
tickets of female in gym R in 2015 and 2020. Rs__. If the cost of a mobile and a smart watch is increased
(a) ` 720 (b) ` 650 (c) ` 580 (d) ` 600 by Rs.550 and Rs.290 respectively and the average
(e) None of these becomes Rs.70 more, then the total number of products in
82. Total number of female in 2020 gym P is equal to total an mobile shop is___.
number of persons in 2015 in gym Q. If total number of A. Rs. 750,12 B. Rs. 1200,8
female in gym P in both years is 100 then find the male of C. Rs. 510,7
gym P in both years? (a) Only A (b) Only A and B
(a) 30, 20 (b) 40, 50 (c) 40, 60 (d) 20, 80 (c) Only C (d) Only A and C
(e) 60, 30 (e) All A, B and C
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 83-87) : Study the data carefully and 92. The quantity of juice in vessel P is 20% more than that of
answer the question given below: vessel Q and the ratio of the quantity of juice to water in
vessels P and Q is 9:2 and 5:2 respectively. The quantity
There are three companies which hired employees in three
different years. Total number of employees hired in company A of juice in vessel R is equal to the average of the quantity
in 2016 is 116. Total number of employees hired by company B of juice in vessels P and Q. If the difference between the
in three years are 212 and in 2018 are 50. Total number of total quantity of vessel P and Q is 4 liters, then find the
employees hired by company C are 255. Ratio of employees ratio of the average quantity of juice in vessel P and vessel
hired in 2016 and 2017 by company C is 11:20. Number of Q together to the quantity of water in vessel Q.
employees hired by company A in 2018 is 3/4 of hired by itself (a) 9:7 (b) 8:5 (c) 7:6 (d) 11:4
in 2017. Employees hired in 2017 by company C is 125% of (e) None of these
employees hired by company A. Ratio of employees hired by 93. Kiyansh sold two times A and B. Sum of marked price of
company B in 2018 and company C in 2018 is 1:2 respectively. A and B is Rs 10000. Sum of cost price of A and B is
The average of employees hired by company C in 2018, 2017 Rs 7200. Sum of selling price of A and B is Rs 8260.
and employees hired by company B in 2017 is 100. Kiyansh gave discount of 20% and earns a profit of Rs.
83. Total number of employees hired by company A is how many 640 on item A. If markup percentage on item B is 30%.
more than total number employees hired by company B? Then find the selling price of item B?
(a) 60 (b) 44 (c) 56 (d) 72 (a) Rs 4360 (b) Rs 4420
(e) None of these (c) Rs 4580 (d) Rs 4640
84. Find the ratio between the employees hired by company (e) None of these
C in 2016 and company B in 2017. 94. Difference between curved surface area of cone and
(a) 21:80 (b) 27:53 (c) 11:20 (d) 13:50 cylinder is 64p and height of cylinder and cone are equal.
(e) 7:15 Slant height of cone is __% more than its radius. If radius
85. Total number of employees hired by company A in 2018 of cylinder is __% more than radius of cone, Then the
is how many percentage more than in the same year volume of cylinder will be 6912p.
employees hired by company B? (a) 30% and 20% (b) 15% and 40%
(a) 25% (b) 30% (c) 20% (d) 10% (c) 20% and 60% (d) 25% and 50%
1 (e) None of these
(e) 12 %
2 95. Three flexible pipes that can serve as inlet as well as outlet
86. Find the average of employees in all three years in companyA? pipes have been attached to a cistern. The rates of filling
(a) 85 (b) 76 (c) 82 (d) 79 or emptying the cistern by these three pipes are in the ratio
(e) None of these 1:2:4. The largest pipe can alone fill the empty cistern in 7
87. Find the ratio between the employees hired by company hours. Initially the cistern is full and the three pipes were
B and C in 2016 and employees hired by company A and used as outlet pipes for A hours. After the cistern is emplied,
B in 2017? later the smallest pipe alone filled the entire cistern in 28
(a) 11:17 (b) 12:19 (c) 13:21 (d) 13:20 hours. Find the value of A.
(e) 21:13 (a) 3 Hours (b) 4 Hours
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 88-90) : Find out the missing number in (c) 4.5 Hours (d) 5 Hours
the following number series. (e) None of these
88. 256, 304, ?, 436, 520, 616 DIRECTIONS (Qs. 96-100) : What approximate value should
(a) 340 (b) 388 (c) 364 (d) 336 come in place of question mark(?).
(e) 316
96. 83.33% of 119.98 + 28.15% of 225.12 = ? + 16.12% of
89. 512, 567, 502, ?, 492, 607
99.89
(a) 587 (b) 576 (c) 565 (d) 548
(a) 147 (b) 153 (c) 159 (d) 141
(e) 592
(e) None of these
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2022 2022- 9

97. (2856.06 ¸ 101.891) × 14.91 = ? + 219.891 (c) The government has made the decision to eliminate
(a) 160 (b) 188 (c) 172 (d) 195 any friction between the various economic sectors.
(e) None of these (d) The government has ensured that all economic
98. 89.904% of 319.879 + (682.07 ¸ Ö960) × 15.891 = ? × sectors receive the necessary attention for expansion
7.891 and development.
(a) 76 (b) 90 (c) 80 (d) 84 (e) None of the above
(e) None of these 102. Which of the following is true about the government’s
99. 69.56% of 479.912 + 85.714% of 489.921 + 42.857% of attitude toward the country’s startup economy?
273.12 = ? (a) The economy of the country has been given a lifeline
(a) 873 (b) 843 (c) 753 (d) 927 but there are a lot of questions to ponder over that.
(e) None of these (b) Despite the fact that the government has done nothing
100. (1273.12 ¸ Ö360) × 14.899 + (6360.087 ¸ Ö2810) ¸ Ö65 to assist startups, the nation’s economy is primarily
= ? × 11.991 concerned about them.
(a) 71 (b) 85 (c) 88 (d) 94 (c) The nation continues to rely on large industrial
(e) None of these corporations to maximize their tax payments..
English Language
(d) The government has understood the importance of
the startups in the economy and is positive about the
development of this economy.
DIRECTIONS Qs. (101- 105): Read the following passage (e) None of the above
carefully and answer the questions that follow. 103. Which among the following is /are correct regarding the
Start-ups are heaving a sigh of relief as the Finance Minister TV channel that has been announced by the government
announced measures to do away with the long pending in the Budget?
contentious issue of Angel Tax, which many of them had to I. This new channel will be run by the government with
cough up for raising Angel funding under Section 56 of the the experts from the government organizations.
Income Tax Act. II. This new channel will be financed by the public
Also, special administrative arrangements will be made by the sector banks with a fresh round of capital from the
Central Board of Direct Taxes for pending assessments of start- government only.
ups and redressal of their grievances. Start-ups have been III. This new channel will attempt at saving the taxes of
assured that no inquiry or verification in such cases can be the startup founders by the experts.
carried out by the Assessing Officer without obtaining approval (a) Both II and III (b) Both I and III
of his supervisory officer. This provision will do away with (c) Both I and II (d) Only III
much of the angst among start-ups who were subjected to (e) None of I, II and III
aggressive questioning by the Income Tax department. 104. What is the opinion of the author regarding the TV channel
A TV channel exclusively for start-ups under the Doordarshan that has been proposed to be set up by the government?
boutique will be designed and executed by start-ups themselves (a) The author is excited about the new TV channel since
and will also serve as a platform for promoting them, discussing it will bring a lot of interest in the sector.
issues affecting their growth, match making with VCs and for (b) The author has nothing to say regarding the new TV
funding and tax planning, came as a pleasant surprise to many. channel that has been proposed in the Union Budget.
Although it remains to be seen how it will be executed on the (c) The author is cautious in his reaction because he
ground. wants to see if the government is able to make it
Th e Budget sounded the bugle for fosterin g rural work actually.
entrepreneurship for those depending on agriculture and (d) The author is disappointed with this decision for the
traditional industries by announcing the setting up of 80 fact that the government should have done something
Livelihood Business Incubators and 20 Technology Business more worthwhile for the startups in India.
Incubators this fiscal with the aim to develop 75,000 skilled (e) None of the above
entrepreneurs in agro-rural industry sectors. “The Government 105. Which among the following is/are correct regarding the Angel
has tried to broad base and foster entrepreneurship beyond Tax levied by the government on the startups in India?
metros to Tier 2 and 3 cities which is a good sign. And doing I. Angel Tax is levied on companies that raise capital
away with Angel Tax is welcome” said Bhaskar Majumdar, from the angel investors only and not from others
Managing Partner, Unicorn India Ventures. sources.
101. Which of the following statements can be said regarding II. Angel Tax is not defined in the Income Tax
the government’s sectoral thrust on start-ups in the nation? legislation and the government had to implement it
(a) The government has made sure that the primary separately.
sector of the country gets the fair share of attention III. Angel Tax is not going to be levied on the companies
from the start-up industry. that go out of business from this year onwards.
(b) According to the government, the start-up industry (a) Both I and II (b) Only I
should first prove to be profitable in the country (c) Both II and III (d) Both I and III
before expanding to other areas. (e) All I, II and III
2022-10 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2022

DIRECTIONS Qs. (106- 112): Read the following passage on us that television executives love to fill comedy shows with
carefully and answer the questions that follow. canned laughter.
Experiments by lots of behavioural scientists have found that
We did an interesting experiment in Mumbai some time back. the use of canned laughter causes an audience to laugh longer
We got 98 households across a few housing societies in Bandra and more often when humorous material is presented. People
and Khar to provide us with their electricity bills before the rate the material as funnier. In addition, evidence indicates that
bills reached each member’s house. We then calculated the canned laughter is most effective for poor jokes.
average bill amount in that particular society. In another experiment conducted by behavioural scientists Noah
Let’s say the average was Rs 1,022. For all above-average users, Goldstein, Robert Cialdini and Vladas Griskevicius (‘A Room
we put a stamp stating that the average in that society is Rs with a Viewpoint: Using Social Norms to Motivate
1,022. Next to their above average amount, we put Environmental Conservation in Hotels’, goo.gl/OJT1pb),
a frownie indicating that they could do better. different kinds of signs were placed in hotel rooms. One of the
The average number set the social norm and got the above signs asked guests to help save the environment by reusing their
average users to act like their neighbours and reduce their towels.
electricity consumption by 1.33 per cent. 1.33 per cent sounds The second one informed them that the majority of guests at
small, but it can power 17,465 villages for one whole year. We the hotel recycled their towels to help save the environment.
called the experiment People Power because it gives people The second sign had a success rate of 26 per cent more than the
the power to make a difference at no cost. first sign.
Human behaviour is contagious. Our actions are often guided A third sign informed guests that majority of people who had
by how people around us are behaving. The information previously stayed in their particular room recycled their towels
provided by the stamp let the above-average users know how to help save the environment. The third sign had a success rate
much their neighbours were consuming. of 33 per cent more than the first sign.
That set the social norm and got them to reduce their power Now only if hotels could apply the same principle to reducing
consumption. We do as others do. If people see other people theft of towels, shampoos, bed sheets, stationary and, yes,
littering, they litter too. If people see other people throwing appliances too.
waste in dustbins, they use dustbins too. If people see other (Source:‘ Economic Times’ dated December 29th, 2016 and
people cheating, they cheat too. If people see other people being Jagran Josh)
honest, they behave honestly too. 106. Why do you think that human behaviour is contagious,
Behavioural science studies show that people dress in the same according to the author?
styles as their friends, pick dishes preferred by other diners, (a) We are wired to interact with others and form bonds.
choose restaurants that are more crowded, are more likely to (b) We imitate the behaviours and habits of others.
get fat if people around them become fat, are more likely to (c) Our behaviour is influenced by how those around us
quit smoking if their friends quit, pay taxes if others are paying, behave.
vote if their spouse votes, and so on. A five-star review on (d) Other than those given in the options.
Amazon leads to approximately 20 more books sold than one- (e) All of the above
star reviews. 107. How this behavioral science principle helped a popular
This behavioural science principle of ‘social proof ‘ made a American infomercial?
popular American infomercial for a home shopping channel (a) Their mental image was improved.
change the all-too familiar call-to-action line at the end of the (b) Their sales were skyrocketing.
infomercial, “Operators are waiting, please call now” to “If (c) The perception of their customers changed.
operators are busy, please call again”. This simple change led (d) It was hard to resist their offer.
to its sales skyrocketing. (e) Other than those given in the options.
On the face of it, the change seems foolhardy. After all, the 108. Why, according to the author, the television executives
message indicates that one may have to waste their time fill comedy shows with canned laughter?
redialling till they reach a sales representative. Yet it worked (a) They don’t have anything else to show.
so brilliantly. (b) People like to laugh at others.
(c) People laugh more on poor jokes.
Consider the kind of mental image that’s likely to get generated
(d) Both (b) and (c).
when you hear, ‘Operators are waiting, please call now’ —
(e) Other than those given in the options.
scores of bored phone representatives while they wait by their
109. Why, according to the passage, the experiment was called
silent telephones — an image indicative of low demand and poor
as “People Power”?
sales.
(a) Because it gives people the power to socialize and
Consider how your perception of the popularity of the product mingle with others.
would change when you hear, ‘If operators are busy, please (b) Because it gives people the power to make a
call again’ — operators going from phone call to phone call difference at no cost.
without a break, right? That made people thinks: ‘If the phone (c) Because it gives people the power to copy others,
lines are busy, then other people like me who are also watching without feeling ashamed.
this infomercial must be calling too. (d) Because it gives people the power to listen to their
Most people think they are different. But in reality most of us souls.
behave the way others do. So powerful is the effect of others (e) Other than those given in the options.
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2022 2022-11

110. Which among the following is similar in meaning to the (a) DACB (b) DBCA
word ‘skyrocketing’ used in the passage? (c) CBDA (d) BCAD
(a) Descending (b) Tumble (e) No rearrangement required
(c) Escalating (d) Smashing
(e) Other than those given in the options DIRECTIONS Qs. (118-121): In this question, a sentence has
111. Which among the following is similar in meaning to the been divided into four parts marked as I, II, III and IV. You
word ‘contagious’ as used in the passage? need to find which part/parts does not/do not have an error in
(a) Transmissible (b) Immoral terms of its grammatical or contextual usage. If the sentence is
(c) Non violent (d) Precious absolutely correct, mark (E) as your answer.
(e) Other than those given in above options 118. I. The supreme court of India disapproved
112. Which among the following is opposite in meaning to the II. The practice of constituting commissions of inquiry
word ‘foolhardy’ as used in the passage? III. At the cost of taxpayers and let them continue for
(a) Bold (b) Wise years together
(c) audacious (d) Foolish IV. Without serving any useful purpose.
(e) Other than those given in the options (a) Only I and III (b) Only II and IV
(c) Only IV (d) Only III
DIRECTIONS Qs. (113-117): In the questions given below, a (e) No error
sentence has been broken down into four fragments labeled 119. I. Between 2010 and 2017, several countries
(A), (B), (C) and (D) and arranged, not necessarily in the II. Make rapid progress
correct order. You have to find the correct order of arrangement III. In reducing HIV incidence and
from the options given below. In case, the sentence is correct IV. Getting antiretroviral therapy of patients.
in its original form, please select (E) as your answer. (a) Only I and IV (b) Only I and III
113. 2016, but little money has come in as retailers want (A) / (c) I, III and IV (d) Only I
(e) No error
like soaps and shampoos for customers (B) / permission
120. I. A group of banks, including public sector, private
to stock a few non-food items (C) / 100% FDI was allowed
sector and foreign banks,
in the food retail business in (D)
II. have recently signed an inter-creditor agreement
(a) CBAD (b) BACD III. to push for the speedy resolution of
(c) BADC (d) DACB IV. Non-performing loans on their balance sheets.
(e) No rearrangement required (a) Only II and III (b) Only II and IV
114. of plastic articles also show little (A) / remain on paper (c) I, III and IV (d) I, II and III
while the producers (B) / the Solid Waste Management (e) No error
Rules mostly (C) / concern about their negative 121. I. We continue to be hidebound with tradition
environmental impact (D) II. And waste precious time and money
(a) CABD (b) CBAD III. In rituals which may have been relevant in earlier
(c) DBCA (d) DABC times
IV. But which have no relevance to modern living.
(e) No rearrangement required (a) Only II (b) Only II and IV
115. A federation of 130 farmer bodies has decided (A) / dairy (c) I, III and IV (d) Only III and IV
produce to major cities and hold a (B) / to stop supplies (e) No error
of vegetables and (C) / dharna on 30 national highways
to protest against rising prices (D) DIRECTIONS Qs. (122-125): In each of the questions below,
(a) ACBD (b) BCDA four words are in bold. These four words may or may not be in the
(c) CABD (d) CBDA correct position. The sentence is followed by options containing
the correct combination of words. These options must replace each
(e) No rearrangement required
other to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.
116. the dignity of the government lies in its moral (A)/ capacity Find suitable combinations of words that replace each other. If
to perceive and confront the lived truth, (B)/ such as the the sentence is correct, please select option (e)
widespread despair, frustration, and (C)/ irreparable loss
of dignity leading to farmers’ suicides (D)/ 122. Delhi has benefited (1) from stringent testing measures,
priority offered (2) of cases and their contacts and the
(a) BCAD (b) CDBA
medical (3) support that has been containment (4) to
(c) ADCB (d) DCAB patients at home isolation.
(e) No rearrangement required (a) 2-3 (b) 1-4 (c) 2-4 (d) 1-3
117. the Emergency, the real story of the buying and selling of (e) None of these
the media began with (A)/ of media organisations began
123. India’s clinical testing (1) has focused on early detection
to be chipped away at until it disappeared (B)/ the advent (2) through widespread protocol (3)surveillance, prompt
of liberalisation, when the wall dividing the business from triaging (4) and clinical management of cases.
the editorial side (C)/ leaving aside the compromises the
(a) 2-3 (b) 1-4 (c) 2-4 (d) 1-3
majority of media houses made in the 1970s during (D)/
(e) None of these
2022-12 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2022

124. The agency’s application (1) seeking his custody was on A. Providing benefits for women and children is a societal
the grounds (2) that it had to confront (3) him with data responsibility which can be funded in a large country
recovered from seized (4) electronic articles. through a combination of general taxation and
(a) 1-2 (b) 3-4 (c) 2-3 (d) 1-4 contributory payments.
(e) None of these B. This should further lead to closer scrutiny of the
125. I got disillusioned (1) by CPI ideology but the recent difficulties faced by unorganised workers who fall beyond
motivated (2) being undertaken in Swabhiman Anchal the scope of any worthwhile labour welfare measures.
development (3) me to join the mainstream (4) C. The enhancement of paid maternity leave for women in
(a) 1-2 (b) 3-4 (c) 2-3 (d) 1-4 the organised sector to 26 weeks from 12 is a progressive step.
(e) None of these D. The reported move to restrict even this meagre benefit to
the first child for budgetary reasons is retrograde and must
DIRECTIONS Qs. (126-130): In each of the following be given up.
questions, a sentence is given with a phrase highlighted. These E. Positive though it is, the amended law is expected to cover
phrases may or may not be correct. Following the sentences only 1.8 million women, a small subset of women in the
are four phrases, from which one phrase will replace the workforce.
incorrect phrase. The number of that correct phrase will be F. For many poor millions in the unorganised sector, the only
your answer. If the phrase is correct then option (e) i.e. “No support available is a small conditional cash benefit of
improvement” will be your answer. Rs. 6,000 during pregnancy and lactation offered under
126. People scramble to stocked essentials ahead of the 10- the Maternity Benefit Programme.
day lockdown commencing at the midnight of July 13. G. It is wholly welcome that such a benefit is being introduced
(a) Scrambled to stock essentials with an amendment to the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961.
(b) Scrambles to stock essential 131. Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence
(c) Scrambled to stocked essentials after rearrangement?
(d) Scrambled to stocks essentials (a) F (b) A (c) E (d) B
(e) No improvement (e) G
127. Economic policies formulated by the IAS officers are 132. Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence
generally above the power of comprehension off most of after rearrangement?
the ministers. (a) D (b) A (c) E (d) G
(a) the powers of comprehension off (e) B
(b) the powerful of comprehension of 133. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence after
(c) the power in comprehension of rearrangement?
(d) the power of comprehension of (a) C (b) G (c) D (d) B
(e) No correction required (e) A
128. The minister didn’t respond to an email requesting an 134. Which of the following would be the LAST BUT
interview, and a call to her office wasn’t answered. ONE sentence after rearrangement?
(a) respond to an email request (a) B (b) F (c) E (d) C
(b) respond to a email requesting (e) D
(c) respond with an email requesting 135. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence
(d) responded to an email requesting
after rearrangement?
(e) No correction required
(a) E (b) G (c) F (d) A
129. Non-performing assets have led to a seizure of new
(e) D
lending and the caving off of credit culture.
(a) the caving of credit culture DIRECTIONS Qs. (136-140): In the following questions, a
(b) the caving in of credit culture sentence is given with two blanks. You have to find the pair of
(c) the caving off in credit culture words from the given options that fit both the blanks in the
(d) the caves of credit culture given order and make the sentence grammatically and
(e) No correction required contextually correct.
130. Much of the religious tension in the country is due to fake
news that gets away via social media. 136. Congress leaders stress that this manifesto _______ the
(a) fake news that got away needs and ______ of the marginalised sections of society.
(b) fake news that gets about (a) indicates, qualities (b) addresses, aspirations
(c) fake news that gets up (c) includes, requirements (d) covers, inspirations
(d) fake news that gets down (e) None of the above
(e) No correction required 137. It is now important for the central bank to _______ that
the discipline in the system does not ________.
DIRECTIONS Qs. (131-135): Rearrange the following seven
sentences A, B, C, D, E, F and G in the proper sequence to (a) command, wrecked (b) notice, week
form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the question (c) maintain, exist (d) ensure, slacken
given beside. (e) None of the above
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2022 2022-13

138. The terrorists wanted to ________ communal tensions (a) Two (b) Three
and _______ Sri Lanka’s fragile ethno-religious matrix. (c) Four (d) Five
(a) stoke, exploit (b) fuel, enhance (e) Six
(c) regret, helps (d) stop, provide 150. Holcim Limited is a multinational compan y that
(e) improves, outsource manufactures building materials belongs to which country?
139. In her, the _______ Gujarat riots have forged an iron spirit (a) England (b) Switzerland
that will ________ other embattled women to fight for (c) Germany (d) France
justice. (e) Italy
(a) emotional, change (b) ancient, intend 151. PCA Framework does not includes
(c) horrific, inspire (d) terrified, motive (a) Customer Service (b) Leverage
(e) violent, assure (c) Capital (d) Asset Quality
140. China _______ its arrival in the private sector space race (e) CRAR
last week, as OneSpace became the first Chinese company 152. Banking Ombudsman is a quasi judicial authority created
to launch a small rocket—its first step towards sending in 2006, and the authority was created pursuant to a
_______ small satellites in space. decision made by the Government of India to enable
(a) Portrayed, smooth (b) Colored, some resolution of complaints of
(c) Marked, numerous (d) Dealt, more (a) customers (b) Banking Staff
(e) None of the above (c) Farmer (d) Labour
(e) Politician
General/Finance Awareness 153. Who is the Richest self made women according to Hurun
Global Rich List 2022?
141. The Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2022 was awarded to (a) Falguni Nayar (b) Kiran Mazumdar
(a) Carolyn R. Bertozzi (b) Morten Meldal (c) Roshni Nadar (d) Wu Yajun
(c) K. Barry Sharpless (d) All of The Above (e) All of the above
(e) None of the above 154. Kumbhalgarh Fort is related to which State?
142. As announced in the Monetary Policy Statement 2022-23 (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Uttarakhand
dated December 07, 2022, the Bank Rate is revised (c) Maharashtra (d) Rajasthan
upwards by (e) Andhra Pradesh
(a) 6.2% (b) 6.3% (c) 6.4% (d) 6.5% 155. The cheetah was declared extinct from India in
(e) 6.6% (a) 1950 (b) 1952 (c) 1953 (d) 1954
143. The existing Foreign Trade Policy 2015-20 which is valid (e) 1955
up to September 30, 2022 is extended up to 156. SDR is issued by which organisation?
(a) February 28, 2023 (b) March 31, 2023 (a) World Bank
(c) April 31, 2023 (d) September 31, 2023 (b) World Trade Organisation
(e) October 31, 2023 (c) International Monetary Fund
144. What is the Ranking of India in Global Innovation Index ? (d) United Nation
(a) 40th (b) 41th (c) 42th (d) 43rd (e) UNICEF
(e) 44th 157. Indian plans to expand its regional satellite navigation
145. Bomb Cyclone is related to system, to increase its use in the civilian sector and ships,
(a) USA (b) Canada aircraft travelling far from the country’s borders. What does
(c) Russia (d) India C stands for
(a) Constant (b) Competition
(e) Pakistan
(c) Constellation (d) Collection
146. Which is the largest producer of Cement?
(e) Column
(a) Russia (b) China 158. Which city is the most liveable city in Global Liveability
(c) Mexico (d) Ukraine Index 2022?
(e) Turkmenistan (a) Vienna (Austria) (b) Zurich(Switzerland)
147. Sberbank is a state-owned banking and financial services (c) Copenhagen (Denmark) d) Calgary, Canada
company of which country? (e) Ottawa,Canada
(a) USA (b) South Korea 159. What does k stands for KLEMS Model?
(c) China (d) Russia (a) Kingship (b) Kenlaw
(e) Afghanistan (c) Cooperation (d) Capital
148. First time in history, India has crossed ....... billion in (e) Commerce
merchandise exports. 160. How many Public Sector Bank listed in India?
(a) USD 400 Billion (b) USD 500 Billion (a) 12 (b) 14 (c) 15 (d) 17
(c) USD 600 Billion (d) USD 700 Billion (e) 19
149. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in a discussion paper 161. Who sponsored Indian Super League?
has said the non-banking financial services will be (a) Hero (b) Byju
regulated in a...... layered structure. (c) Coca Cola (d) Spice
(e) Unacademy
2022-14 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2022

162. ..........is a cyber crime that uses the phone to steal personal (a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 19
confidential information from victims. (e) 21
(a) Phishing (b) Vishing 174. RBI appointed R S Gandhi as Non Executive Chairman of
(c) Online Fraud (d) Skimming the Yes Bank for a period of
(e) Sim Swap (a) 2 Years (b) 3 Years
163. Who is the trustee of PM Cares Fund? (c) 4 Years (d) 5 Years
(a) Sudha Murthy (b) Arundhoti Roy (e) 6 Years
(c) Geeta Gopinath (d) Gautam Adani 175. RBI has recently issued guidelines for Digital Lending.
(e) Mukesh Ambani Asset Performance Report includes
164. Which of the following External debt is contracted? (a) Cost of funds, (b) Credit cost
(a) Currency & Deposits (c) Operating cost (d) Processing fee
(b) Trade Deficit & advances (e) All of the above
(c) Trade Credit & advances 176. Which organisation threshold B2B e Invoice (annual) ?
(d) Long Term Borrowing (a) Central Board of Direct Taxes
(e) Debt Securities (b) Central Board of Indirect Taxes
165. Eliud Kipchoge, kenyan marathon runner won Olympic (c) Reserve Bank of India
2020. Previously, he won the Gold Medal in which (d) Niti Ayog
olympics? (e) Ministry of Agriculture
(a) 2018 (b) 2016 (c) 2014 (d) 2012 177. Which Indian topped the IIFL List?
(e) 2013 (a) Mukesh Ambani (b) Indira Nooyi
166. Who is called “glasnost Russian”? (c) Gautam Adani (d) Radhakishan Damani
(a) Vladmir Putin (e) Kiran Mazumdar
(b) Boris Nikolayevich Yeltsin 178. What is the maximum limit of Credit Guarantee Scheme
(c) Mikhail Gorbachev for Startups for Non Banking Financial Companies ?
(d) All of The Above (a) Rs 10 Crore (b) Rs 8 Crore
(e) None of the Above (c) Rs 6 Crore (d) Rs 4 Crore
167. Windfall tax applied to which sector 179. Liability Index is related to
(a) Road (b) Land (a) Marginal Rate (b) Discount Rate
(c) Energy (d) Health (c) Profit Rate (d) Fixed Rate
(e) Water (e) Floating Rate
168. Financial assets to BSNL and MTNL by govt in form of 180. India has signed MOU with which organization to raise
the government has listed for sale real estate assets of state- Fund for Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana?
run telecom firms MTNL and BSNL at a reserve price of (a) IMF
(a) Rs. 970 Crore (b) 1000 Crore (b) World Bank
(c) 1270 Crore (d) 1470 Crore (c) Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
(e) 1480 Crore (d) National Development Bank
169. In which Year, Indian Population expected to cross China? (e) Asian Development Bank
(a) 2040 (b) 2050 181. Education 4.0 India report is the result of a collaboration
(c) 2060 (d) 2080 between YuWaah (Generation Unlimited India) and
(e) 2090 (a) UNESCO (b) UNICEF
170. Which ministry of India has awarded Meghalaya as best (c) World Bank (d) a & b
start up ecosystem? (e) None of the above
(a) Ministry of Commerce 182. How many Banks are listed in National Stock Exchange
(b) Ministry of Power Limited?
(c) Ministry of Home Affairs (a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 15 (d) 20
(d) Ministry of Micro, small, medium Enterprises (e) 21
(e) Ministry of Earth Science 183. Under which Government Scheme ,an assured monthly
171. As per the States, which state has topped the chart in the pension of Rs. 3000/- given to beneficiary after the age
category of best-performing states in the Swach Survekshan of 60 years?
Awards 2022? (a) Atal Pension Scheme
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Uttar Pradesh (b) Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Scheme
(c) Meghalaya (d) Uttarakhand (c) Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana
(e) Karnataka (d) Varistha Pension Scheme
172. Who is the Sponsor of NARCL? (e) Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension
(a) Bank of Baroda (b) Canara Bank 184. Banking Ombudsman applies to which FIs
(c) Bank of India (d) Union Bank of India (a) NBFC (b) SEBI
(e) Allahabad Bank (c) MSME (d) Credit Agency
173. How many cities surveyed under Inflation Expectations (e) Credit Information Companies
Survey of Households?
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2022 2022-15

185. On September 2022, RBI lifts curbs on which Financial (a) 1 Only (b) 2 only
Institution for loan recovery through outsourcing? (c) 1 & 2 (d) None of The Above
(a) India Post Payment Bank (e) 1 & 3
(b) Mahindra & Mahindra Financial Services 188. Which of the following statement about National Assets
(c) Shriram Transport Finance Company Limited Construction Limited is/are correct?
(d) Bajaj Finance Limited. 1) The National Asset Reconstruction Company Ltd.
(e) Muthoot Finance Ltd (NARCL), set up to take over large bad loans of more
186. Under Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana (PMGKY), than ¹ 500 crore from banks.
the limit for collateral-free loans for women’s SHGs was 2) The SARFAESI Act, 2002 provides the legal basis for
doubled from Rs.10 lakh to the setting up of ARCs in India.
(a) 20 Lakh (b) 30 Lakh 3) Setting up of NARCL, the proposed bad bank for
(c) 40 Lakh (d) 50 Lakh taking over stressed assets of lenders, was announced
(e) 60 Lakh in the Budget for 2022-23.
187 Which of the following statement about Global Innovation (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only
index is/are correct? (c) 1 & 2 (d) 1 & 3
1) The Global Innovation Index is an annual ranking of (e) None of the above
countries by their capacity for, and success in, 189. How many companies are in upper layer list of NBFC?
innovation, published by the World Intellectual (a) 12 (b) 14 (c) 16 (d) 18
Property Organization. (e) 20
2) It was started in 2007 by INSEAD and World Business, 190. The EXIM Letter of Credit policy can reduce a bank’s
a British magazine. risks on confirmations and negotiations of irrevocable
3) It reveals the most innovative economies in the world, letters of credit issued by overseas financial institutions
ranking the innovation performance of around 130 for the financing of exports of which Country?
economies. (a) UK (b) USA
(c) Switzerland (d) Poland
(e) Australia

ANSWER KEY
1 (c) 21 (c) 41 (c) 61 (e) 81 (d) 101 (a) 121 (e) 141 (d) 161 (a) 181 (d)
2 (d) 22 (a) 42 (b) 62 (c) 82 (c) 102 (d) 122 (c) 142 (d) 162 (b) 182 (c)
3 (c) 23 (c) 43 (c) 63 (a) 83 (b) 103 (d) 123 (d) 143 (b) 163 (a) 183 (c)
4 (d) 24 (d) 44 (b) 64 (e) 84 (c) 104 (c) 124 (e) 144 (a) 164 (d) 184 (a)
5 (c) 25 (b) 45 (c) 65 (a) 85 (c) 105 (b) 125 (c) 145 (a) 165 (b) 185 (b)
6 (b) 26 (a) 46 (a) 66 (b) 86 (a) 106 (e) 126 (a) 146 (b) 166 (c) 186 a)
7 (c) 27 (c) 47 (b) 67 (a) 87 (d) 107 (b) 127 (d) 147 (d) 167 (c) 187 (c)
8 (d) 28 (d) 48 (e) 68 (c) 88 (c) 108 (d) 128 (e) 148 (b) 168 (a) 188 (c)
9 (c) 29 (b) 49 (a) 69 (d) 89 (a) 109 (b) 129 (b) 149 (c) 169 (b) 189 (c)
10 (a) 30 (a) 50 (a) 70 (c) 90 (c) 110 (c) 130 (b) 150 (b) 170 (a) 190 (b)
11 (a) 31 (c) 51 (c) 71 (c) 91 (a) 111 (a) 131 (d) 151 (a) 171 (a)
12 (e) 32 (d) 52 (d) 72 (d) 92 (d) 112 (b) 132 (c) 152 (a) 172 (b)
13 (e) 33 (d) 53 (c) 73 (b) 93 (b) 113 (d) 133 (a) 153 (d) 173 (d)
14 (a) 34 (a) 54 (c) 74 (b) 94 (e) 114 (b) 134 (e) 154 (d) 174 (b)
15 (d) 35 (b) 55 (a) 75 (c) 95 (b) 115 (a) 135 (b) 155 (b) 175 (e)
16 (d) 36 (d) 56 (b) 76 (d) 96 (a) 116 (e) 136 (c) 156 (c) 176 (b)
17 (c) 37 (c) 57 (d) 77 (b) 97 (e) 117 (a) 137 (d) 157 (c) 177 (c)
18 (a) 38 (a) 58 (c) 78 (b) 98 (c) 118 (b) 138 (a) 158 (a) 178 (a)
19 (e) 39 (e) 59 (e) 79 (c) 99 (a) 119 (b) 139 (c) 159 (d) 179 (b)
20 (b) 40 (b) 60 (d) 80 (e) 100 (b) 120 (c) 140 (c) 160 (a) 180 (b)
2022-16 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2022

ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS

2
Sol. (1-5) :
R S X N 21. (c) H E A D P H O N E
Row-1:
22. (a) Blue
O T U W Q Orange
Yellow Green
Row-2:
Z Y V
Hence, only conclusion I follows.
Row-3:
K P M L
23. (c)
Truck Bike
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (c) Car
s
Sol. (6-10) : oter
Sco
Q
Hence, either conclusion I or II follows.
S R
24. (d) Spy
U
Bud

V W Bag
P
T
6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (a)
Sol. (11-15) :
Tag
Employees Date of J oining W ork ing Experience
R 12th Jan 5 Years
T 15th Jan 8 Years Hence, neither conclusion I nor II follows.
P 24th Jan 9 Years Sol. (25-26) :
Q 18th Ju ly 10 Years
# * @ & $
U 26th Ju ly 13 Years
< > = ³ £
S 27th Sept 16 Years
25. (b) F ³ D > X £ Z, B > X
11. (a) 12. (e) 13. (e) 14. (a) 15. (d)
I. F > B (false)
Sol. (16-20) :
II. X < F (true)
Person Colour City III. B > F (false)
A Grey Dehradun 26. (a) D > H £ X = F ³ M
E W hite Kolkata I. M < X (false) II. F < D (false) III. H = M (false)
D Blue Churu 27. (c) R
F Black Gangtok
G Red Patna
P Q(–) (+) S T
B Pink Noida
Hence, Q’s husband is brother-in-law of T.
C Bronze Gaya
16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (e) 20. (b)
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2022 2022-17

28. (d) B E Floors 7 6 5 4 3 2 1

Persons P U R V Q T S

A C(+) D(–) Hence, T lives on 2nd floor.

Sol. (35 -39)
Hence, C is son of E.
By observing the given four statements, we can decode the logic
29. (b) J(–) M as the first element in the given code represents the symbol
according to the number of letters in the word
As per the below given symbols
(–)L K(+) N a. 3 – #
Hence, L is the sister-in-law of N. b. 4 – $
Sol. (30-32) : c. 5 – @
d. 6 – !
e. 7 – %
T
f. 8–&
The second element in the given code is the number which is
least of the alphabetical numbers of first and last words of the
6m
given word. The third element in the given code is the next
10m alphabet of the last letter in the given word.
Q P S 35. (b) Monkey ® !13Z
36. (d) Cabbage ® %3F
12m 37. (c) Packer ® ! 16S
6m 38. (a) Radarmen ® & 14O
39. (e) ‘This can direct’ $19T #3O !4U
R 40. (b) 4 + 5 2 ® 9 2
13 – 9 3 ® 4 3
Now, in DQST by using pythagoras theorem, 9×2 ® 18
(QT)2 = (QS)2 + (ST)2 4+3 ®7
= (12)2 + (6)2 Hence sum of two rows = 18 +7 = 25
2
Þ (QT) = 144 + 36 = 180 Sol. (41-45) :
In the illustration, first the words are arranged and then the numbers.
Þ QT = 180 m Step I: Alphabets are arranged in an ascending order within
Now, in DPQR by using pythagoras theorem, the word, except first and last alphabets.
(PR)2 = (PQ)2 + (QR)2 Step II: The alphabetic positions of the first and last alphabets
is added.
= (10)2 + (6)2
2 Step III: Even number is multiplied by 4 and odd numbers are
Þ (PR) = 100 + 36 = 136 multiplied by 5.
Þ PR = 136 m Step IV: Alphabet with the place value equal to the sum of the
alphabetic positions of all numbers whereas the
Now, in DPST by using pythagoras theorem,
number denotes the perfect square of 1st digit from
(PT)2 = (PS)2 + (ST)2 the left end.
= (2)2 + (6)2 Step V: Addition of the alphabetic position of alphabet and
Þ (PT)2 = 4 + 36 = 40 the number is written.
Step VI: Numbers are added and the square of that is written.
Þ PT = 40 m
The final arrangement is as follows:
30. (a) 31. (c) 32. (d) Input: Hard Height Handsome Hour Husband Hypertext Honest
33. (d) From statement I : No proper information is given. Hindi.
From statement II : No proper information is given. Step I: ar eghit admnos ou abnsu eeprtxy enos din
From I and II together, it is clear that there are 20 Step II: 19 25 20 36 22 30 24 18
persons sitting in the row. Step III: 95 125 80 144 88 120 96 72
Step IV: N81 H1 H64 I1 P64 C1 O81 I49
Step V: 23 9 18 10 26 4 24 22
T R S Step VI: 25 81 81 1 64 16 36 16
34. (a) On combining statement I, II and statement III, we Step VI is the final output.
get, 41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (c)
2022-18 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2022

46. (a) In the statement, it is given that army should be

x 2
deployed to rehabilitate the people displaced due to
earthquake. It means that army can be used for x + 3000 = 3
purposes other than war also. So, assumption I is Þ 3x = 2x + 6000
implicit. Assumption II is not implicit. Þ x = 6000
47. (b) Due to the words ‘all’ and ‘immediate’ course of action
I does not follows. A system should be implemented 6000
Hence, investment made by R = ´ 4 = `12000
to certify the quality of tiffin provided by the school, 2
so course of action II follows. 54. (c) 10 B × 30 = 15 G × 30
48. (e) Only option (e) follows from the mention of “slump Þ 2B = 3G
in home sales” and scope for “price correction”.
B 3
49. (a) As forest being the essential source of life so the Þ = ...(i)
warning is issued for its conservation. So, only (I) G 2
may be the reason. The concern regarding the given According to question,
statement but (II) is not the reason of the warning. 20B × 3 + 30G × days = 10B × 30
Also, (III) contradicts the statement by stating that Þ 20 × 3 × 3 + 30 × 2 × days = 10 × 3 × 30
the forests are being managed more sustainably. Þ 60 × days = 900 – 180 = 720
50. (a) It will reduce the problem of black marketing of
commodities supplied under PDS. So, argument I is 720
Þ Days = = 12
strong. Argument II is not directly related with the 60
statement. \ Total days to finish work = 3 + 12 = 15 days
51. (c) T1 = 3 hrs 55 min » 4 hrs Hence, days in which no work was done = 21 – 15 = 6 days.
T2 = 3 hrs 2 min » 3 hrs 55. (a) Area of circle = 616 m2
\ D1 = 4 × A = 4A km Þ pr2 = 616
D2 = 3(A + 30) = 3A + 90 km
616
According to question, Þ r2 = ´ 7 = 196
22
3A + 90 – 4A = 60
Þ A = 30 km/hr Þ r = 196 = 14m
52. (d) Remaining mixture = 80 – 20 = 60 Ltr According to question,
60 1
Milk in remaining mixture = ´ 4 = 48 Ltr r2 = 16 ´ (b + 5)
5 3
Water in remaining mixture = 60 – 48 = 12 Ltr
49
New mixture = 60 + 24 = 84 Ltr Þ (14)2 = (b + 5)
3
Milk in new mixture = 48 + 24 = 72 Ltr
Þ b + 5 = 4 × 3 = 12
Ratio of milk and water in new mixture = 72:12 = 6:1
Þ b = 12 – 5 = 7 m
28
Water in 28 Ltr mixture = ´ 1 = 4 Ltr 100
7 \l= 7´ = 20 m
35
Hence, final quantity of water in final mixture
Hence, area of rectangle = 7 × 20 = 140 m 2
= 12 – 4 = 8 Ltr
56. (b) According to question,
53. (c) Time for P, Q and R = 12 months, 4 months and
3 months respectively. (a + 960) ´ 15 ´ 6
= (3a – 420) – (a + 960)
Profit Ratio 100
Investment Ratio =
Time Ratio (a + 960) ´ 90
Þ = 2a – 1380
100
2 1 1
So, P, Q and R’s investment ratio = : : Þ 9a + 8640 = 20a – 13800
12 4 3
Þ 11a = 13800 + 8640 = 22440
1 1 1 Þ a = ` 2040
= : : =2:3:4
6 4 3 Again,
According to question, b ´ 15 ´ 6
= (2a – 280) – b
100
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2022 2022-19

b´9 A+B 5
Þ = 2 × 2040 – 280 – b (by putting a’s value) Þ =
10 C 4

9b D 3 2 6
Þ + b = 3800 And, = ´ =
10 C 2 2 4
\ (A + B) : C : D = 5 : 4 : 6
19b
Þ = 3800
10 15000
(A + B)’s share = ´ 5 = 5000
15
3800 ´ 10
Þb= = ` 2000 A – B = 1000
19
Hence, both statements together are necessary to
57. (d) Let invested in scheme P is ` x.
answer the question.
According to question,
60. (d) From I:
x ´ 20 ´ 3 (20000 - x) ´ 35 ´ 2 l – a = 20 m
- = 1600
100 100 So, statement I alone is not sufficient to answer.
From II:
3x 20000 ´ 7 7x
Þ - + = 1600 l = 4x, b = 3x (let)
5 10 10
80 28x
13x r = 7x ´ =
Þ = 14000 + 1600 = 15600 100 5
10
So, statement II also alone is not sufficient to answer.
Þ x = 1200 × 10 = `12000
61. (e) z = 2x
\ Amount received from scheme P
12000 ´ 60 1 1 æ1 1ö
And, + = 3ç - ÷
= 12000 + = `19200 x y èy xø
100
And, amount recieved from scheme Q 3(x - y)
x+y
Þ =
8000 ´ 70 xy xy
= 8000 + = ` 13600
100 Þ x + y = 3x – 3y
Hence, 50% of amount recieved from scheme P and Þ 2x = 4y
50 Þ x = 2y
Q = (19200 + 13600) ´ = ` 16,400 Þ x : z = 1 : 2 and x : y = 2 : 1
100
58. (c) Let men in city A is 2x. So, x : y : z = 2 : 1 : 4
QI: 0.5 × 1 × 4 = 2
150
Women in city A = 2x ´ = 3x 4 ´1
100 QII: ´ (2)2 = 2
Men in city B = 3 × 2x = 6x 2´4
Women in city B = 3x + 500 Hence, QI = QII
According to question, 62. (c) Number (A) = 10x + y
280 y = 2x
(6x + 3x + 500) = (2x + 3x) According to question,
100
(10x + 2x) + x × 2x = 54
28
Þ 9x + 500 = ´ 5x Þ 12x + 2x2 = 54
10
Þ x2 + 6x – 27 = 0
9x + 500 = 14 x
(x + 9) (x – 3) = 0
Þ 5x = 500 Þ x = 100
Þ x = 3, –9 (Neglected)
Hence, number of men in city A = 2 × 100 = 200
\ A = 10 × 3 + 2 × 3 = 36
59. (e) From I & II:
QI = 3 × 36 = 108
125 QII = 2 × 36 + 48 = 120
A+B= C´
100 Hence, QI < QII
2022-20 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2022

\ This statement is also not true.

2 æ1 2ö 1 2
63. (a) x - çè + ÷ø x + ´ = 0 Hence, only statement I is true.
5 3 5 3
Sol. (67–72):
2 13 2 y% = 25%
Þ x - x+ =0 x + 20 + 2x + x + x + 5 = (100 – 25)%
15 15
Þ 15x2 – 13x + 2 = 0 Þ 5x = 75% – 25%
According to question, Þ 5x = 50%
Þ x = 10%
(15x 2 - 13x + 2)
+ 2.5x 2 + 0.5x = 0 Day Visitors % Number of visitors
2
Monday (x + 20)% = 30% 150
Þ 7.5x2 – 6.5x + 1 + 2.5x2 + 0.5x = 0
Tuesday 2x% = 20% 100
10x2 – 7x + 1 = 0 Wednesday x% = 10% 50
c 1 Thursday (x + 5)% = 15% 75
Hence, product of roots = = Friday y% = 25% 125
a 10
64. (e) Equation formed by given roots Þ 15x2 – 13x + 2 = 0 67. (a) Let ratio of children, teenagers and adults
Sol. (65–66): = a : a : (a + 6)
For P, According to question,
2x2 – 11x + 12 = 0 a + a + a + 6 = 75
Þ (x – 4) (2x – 3) = 0 Þ 3a = 69
3 Þ a = 23
Þx= ,4 Hence, sum of children and adults came to watch circus
2
on Thursday = a + (a + 6) = 23 + 23 + 6 = 52
For Q,
68. (c) On Friday,
5x2 – 12x + 4 = 0
or,
Þ (x – 2) (5x – 2) = 0
M + F = 125 F – M = 75
2 M – F = 75 Þ F = 100, M = 25
Þx= ,2
5 Þ M = 100 and F = 25
For R, \ Total collection on Friday = 100 × 20 + 25 × 10
4x2 – 25x + 6 = 0 = 2000 + 250
Þ (4x – 1) (x – 6) = 0 = ` 2250
or
1
Þx= ,6 100 × 10 + 25 × 20
4
= 1000 + 500
3 1 7 3 = `1500
65. (a) Required sum = + = =1
2 4 4 4 160
66. (b) Statement I: 69. (d) Visitors came on Saturday = 125 ´ = 200
100
3 Hence, required ratio = 75 : 200 = 3 : 8
Product of roots of equation P = 4 ´ =6
2 70. (c) 1. y = 2.5x
Largest root of equation R = 6 Þ 25% = 2.5 × 10%
\ This statement is true. Þ 25% = 25% (Ö)
Statement II: 2. y – x = 20
Þ 25 – 10 = 20
2 1 8-5 3 3
Required difference = - = = ¹ Þ 15 ¹ 20 (×)
5 4 20 20 10
3. y + 2x = 55
\ This statement is not true. Þ 25 + 2 × 10 = 55
Statement III: Þ 45 ¹ 55 (×)
Ratio of product of roots of equation P & equation R
2 1
æ3 ö æ1 ö 3 71. (c) First time female visitors on Friday = 125 ´ ´
= çè ´ 4÷ø : çè ´ 6÷ø = 6 : = 4 : 1 5 5
2 4 2 = 10
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2022 2022-21

10 363 + 484 847

Total first time visitors on Friday = 500 ´ = 50 Hence, required average = =
100 2 2
\ First time male visitors on Friday = 50 – 10 = 40 = 423.5 » 424
77. (b) Students in course Q in college L
3
Total male visitors on Friday = 125 ´ = 75 = 4 × (968 – 840) + 78
5
= 206
Hence, number of males who not visited circus on first
\ Total students in college L = 408 + 206 = 614
time = 75 – 40 = 35
72. (d) Let total person visited on Saturday is x. 504
Hence, required sum = ´ 100 + 614
Males visited on Saturday = 2(150 – 50) = 200 56
Ratio of males and females on Saturday = 1 : 3 = 900 + 614
200 = 1514
\ Females visited on Saturday = ´ 3 = 600
1
Hence, total persons visited the circus on Saturday 78. (b) Gym Q Gym R
= 200 + 600 = 800
73. (b) Total students in college 20 36

50 1 35
N = 3 ´ 968 ´ + ´ 840 ´ M F M F
100 3 100 x 4x (Let)
= 1452 + 98 I. 17 3 24 12 (Ö)
= 1550 II. 16 4 20 16 (Ö)
504 III. 15 5 16 20 (Ö)
Total students in college K = ´ 100 = 900 IV. 14 6 12 24 (×)
56
Hence, required ratio = 1550 : 900 = 31 : 18
Hence, only (2), (3) and (4) are possible numbers.
408 79. (c) Total members in gym S, T and U in 2020 = 57 × 3 = 171
74. (b) Total students in college L = ´ 5 = 1020
2 \ Members in gym U in 2020 = 171 – 32 + 61 = 78
504 78
Total students in college K = ´ 100 = 900 Males in gym U = ´ 2 = 52
56 3
Hence, required percentage Females in gym U = 78 – 52 = 26
(1020 - 900) 120 32
= ´ 100 = Males in gym S = ´ 5 = 20
900 9 8
= 13% (approx) Females in gym S = 32 – 20 = 12
75. (c) P ® 6%, 12%, 18%, 24%, 30% Total male members of gym S and U = 52 + 20 = 72
P = 24% Total female members of gym S and U = 26 + 12 = 38
Hence, the number of students in course Q in college Hence, required percentage
408 (72 - 38) 34
L= ´ 76 = 1292 = ´ 100 = ´ 100
24 38 38
= 89.47% » 89%
50
76. (d) Total students in college O = 3 ´ 968 ´ = 1452 80. (e) Total members in gym U in 2020 = (48 – 20) = 28
100
So, M + F = 28
1 and, (M – F) = 4
\ Students in course P in college O = 1452 ´ = 363
4 \ M = 16, 12 and F = 12, 16
So, we cannot detemined the exact male members in
50
And, students in course Q in college J = 968 ´ gym U.
100
81. (d) Total members in gym R in 2015 and 2020
= 484 = 36 + 12 = 48
2022-22 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2022

48 This is satisfied
\ Females in gym R in 2015 and 2020 = ´ 5 = 30 From B,
8
Hence, required revenue = 30 ´ 20 = ` 600 1200 ´ x + 550 + 290
82. (c) Females in gym P in 2020 = Total members in gym Q = 1200 + 70
x
in 2015
Þ 70x = 840 Þ x = 12
= 20 This is not satisfied.
\ Males in gym P in 2020 = 80 – 20 = 60 From C,
Females in gym P in 2015 = 100 – 20 = 80
510 x + 840
\ Males in gym P in 2015 = 120 – 80 = 40 = 510 + 70
x
Sol. (83-87) :
Þ 70x = 840 Þ x = 12
Year Company A Company B Company C This is also not satisfied.
2016 116 62 55 Hence, only option (a) is correct.
2017 80 100 100 92. (d) Let total quantity of vessel P = 11x
2018 60 50 100 Quantity of juice in vessel P = 9x
Total 256 212 255 Quantity of water in vessel P = 2x

83. (b) Required difference = 256 – 212 = 44 100

Quantity of juice in vessel Q = 9x ´ = 7.5x
84. (c) Required ratio = 55:100 = 11:20 120
(60 - 50) 2
85. (c) Required Percentage = ´ 100 = 20% \ Quantity of water in vessel Q = 7.5x ´ = 3x
50 5
116 + 80 + 60 256 \ Total quantity of vessel Q = 7.5x + 3x = 10.5x
86. (a) Required average = = According to question,
3 3
= 85.33 » 85 11x – 10.5x = 4
87. (d) Required ratio = (62 + 55) : (80 + 100) Þ 0.5x = 4 Þ x = 8
= 117 : 180 Average quantity of juice in vessel P and Q
= 13 : 20 9 x + 7.5 x
88. (c) Pattern of the series – =
2
256 + 40 ´ 1.2 = 304
16.5 ´ 8
304 + 40 ´ 1.5 = 364 = = 66 ltr
2
364 + 40 ´ 1.8 = 436 Quantity of water in vessel Q = 3 ´ 8 = 24 ltr
436 + 40 ´ 2.1 = 520 Hence, required ratio = 66:24 = 33:12 = 11:4
520 + 40 ´ 2.4 = 616
89. (a) Pattern of the series – 93. (b) Item C.P. S.P. M.P.
512 + 11 ´ 5 = 567 A 720 0–10x 7840–10x 10,000 –13x
567 – 13 ´ 5 = 502
B 10x 10x+420 13x
502 + 17 ´ 5 = 587 Total `7200 `8260 `10,000
587 – 19 ´ 5 = 492
492 + 23 ´ 5 = 607 80
(10,000 – 13x) ´ = 7840 – 10x
90. (c) Pattern of the series – 100
124 ´ 0.5 + 2 = 64 Þ 80,000 – 104x = 78400 – 100x
Þ 4x = 1600
64 ´ 1.5 + 4 = 100 Þ x = 400
100 ´ 2.5 + 6 = 256 Hence, selling price of item B = 10x + 420
256 ´ 3.5 + 8 = 904 = 10 ´ 400 + 420 = `4420
904 ´ 4.5 + 10 = 4078 94. (e) Solve using option (d)
91. (a) Let number of products in mobile shop = x Let radius of cone (r) is 4r.
From A,
150
750 ´ x + 550 + 290 \ Radius of cylider (r2 ) = 4r ´ = 6r
\ = 750 + 70 100
x
Þ 750x + 840 = 820x 125
\ Slant height of cone (l) = 4r ´ = 5r
Þ 70x = 840 Þ x = 12 100
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2022 2022-23

101. (a) Refer to, “The Budget sounded the bugle for fostering
Weight (h) = l2 - r 2 rural entrepreneurship for those depending on
= (5r) 2 - (4r) 2 = agriculture and traditional industries by announcing
9r 2
the setting up of 80 Livelihood Business Incubators
Þ h = 3r and 20 Technology Business Incubators this fiscal
According to question, with the aim to develop 75,000 skilled entrepreneurs
Þ pr1l - 2pr2 h = 64 p in agro-rural industry sector.”
It is evident that the government wants start-up
Þ p ´ 20r 2 - p ´ 36r 2 = 64 p founders to expand beyond metropolitan areas in
order to ensure that the agriculture sector receives
Þ 5pr 2 - 9pr 2 = 16 p the attention it deserves. It will emphasize that the
Þ 4r2 = 16 country’s rural economy will also grow. Option (a) is
Þ r =2 our choice here because it explains this fact, and the
\ r2 = 6 ´ 2 = 12 other options can be discarded because they don’t
h=3´2=6 follow the information in the passage.
So, volume of cylinder = pr2h This makes Option (a) the correct choice among the
= p ´ 12 ´ 12 ´ 6 given options.
= 864p 102. (d) It has been described in the passage that the
Hence, none of the option is correct. government has announced a number of steps in order
95. (b) Ratio = 1 : 2 : 4 to boost the startup economy of the country. The
Capacity = 7 ´ 4x = 28x government has announced tax exemptions and also
Empty rate of all three pipes = x+ 2x + 4x = 7x more networking in order to help the startups develop
more and more. Among the given options, we can
28 x
\ A= = 4 hours easily pick up Option (d) whereas Option (a) is correct
7x in the first part but for the second part, we can say
84 28 16 that no question has been put forward by the
96. (a) ´ 120 + ´ 225 = ? + ´ 100 government for the startup sector of the country. Other
100 100 100
options can be eliminated since they do not at all
Þ 100 + 63 = ? + 16 follow from the passage.
Þ ? = 147 This makes Option (d) the correct choice among the
2856 given options.
97. (e) ´ 15 = ? +220 103. (d) Statement I is not correct for the fact that the new
102
channel has been proposed to se set up and run
Þ 28 ´ 15 = ? + 220
by the startup companies themselves so that they
Þ ? = 420 - 220 = 200
can utilize the platform properly. Refer to, “A TV
90 æ 682 ö channel exclusively ......surprise to many.”( third
98. (c) ´ 320 + ç ÷ ´ 16 = ?´ 8 paragraph)
100 è 961 ø
Statement II is also not correct because there is no
Þ 288 + 352 = ? ´ 8
such reference in the passage.
640 Statement III is correct because from the above quoted
Þ ?= = 80 lines it can be understood that the new channel will
8
try to match the startup founders with the VCs so that
70 6 3 they can raise capital and also plans the taxes so that
99. (a) ´ 480 + ´ 490 + ´ 273 = ?
100 7 7 there is tax saving by these small companies.
Þ 336 + 420 + 117 = ? Hence Option (d) is the correct choice among the
Þ ? = 873 given options.
104. (c) Among the available choices, Option (c) explains
1273 æ 6360 ö the author’s reaction, while the others can be
100. (b) ´ 15 + ç ÷ ¸ 64 = ? ´ 12
361 è 2809 ø skipped because they don’t follow the passage.
hence Option (c) is the correct choice among the given
1273 æ 6360 ö options.
Þ ´ 15 + ç ÷ ¸ 8 = ? ´ 12
19 è 53 ø 105. (b) According to Statement I, start-ups that receive
Þ 1005 + 15 = ? ´ 12 funding from angel investors are subject to a tax
known as “Angel Tax.” Therefore, it is correct that
1020
Þ ?= = 85 this tax will only apply to businesses that raise capital
12 from this source.
2022-24 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2022

Statement II is incorrect because it cannot be said 111. (a) Among the given options, ‘transmissible is the right
that the country’s Income Tax Act does not contain choice since the given word implies that the human
such a provision. behavior is contagious in nature. Their consumption
Statement III is incorrect because, it applies to all and their habits are influenced by their natural
businesses, not just those that have chosen to close surroundings.
their doors. 112. (b) Among the given options, ‘wise’ is the right choice.
Because of this, Option (b) is the best option out of Bold and audacious
all the ones offered. Are the synonyms of foolhardy. We need antonym.
106. (e) The passage claims that because most of our actions Since the behavioral change adopted by a home
are influenced by the behaviour of those around us, shopping channel led to skyrocketing sales but it was
human behaviour is contagious in nature. Our brains rather an uncalculated move.
are designed to foster relationships with others. As a 113. (d) The fragment most suitable as the first one is D.
result, we often copy the actions, preferences, and Pairs:
other behaviours of others. As a result, of the D and A A and C C and B
available possibilities, option (e) is the best one.
The correct sequence is D-A-C-B. Hence, option (d)
107. (b) According to the passage, the behavioural science
is correct.
principle of social influence made a popular
114. (b) The ideal first fragment is C clearly.
American infomercial for a home shopping channel
Pairs
change by making customers believe that the
operators are waiting for them at the other end of C and B B and A A and D
the line. This simple change led to its sales The correct sequence is C-B-A-D. Hence, option (b)
skyrocketing. So, this makes (b) the right choice is correct.
among the given options. 115. (a) The most suitable first fragment is A here.
108. (d) According to the passage, the use of canned laughter Pairs:
causes an audience to laugh longer and more often A and C C and B B and D
when a humorous material is presented. Also, the
The correct sequence is A-C-B-D. Hence, option (a)
canned laughter is most effective for poor jokes as
is correct.
well. This makes option (d) an apt choice.
116. (e) The original sequence is correct and there is no need
109. (b) According to the passage, the experiment was called
to rearrange it.
as “People Power” because it gives people the power
117. (a) The first fragment is clearly D as no other fragment
to make a difference at no cost. So, this makes (b) an
provides a sensible starting point.
apt choice among the given options.
Pairs:
110. (c) Among the given options, ‘Escalating’ is the right
choice since the given word implies that the D and A A and C C and B
behavioral change adopted by a home shopping The correct sequence is D-A-C-B.
channel led to its rising sales.

118. (b) Here, the preposition ‘of’ must follow the verb
Fragment I The supreme court of India disapproved
‘disapprove’ to make it correct.

Fragment II and IV No error

Error of parallelism. Here ‘let’ must be
at the cost of taxpayers and let them
Fragment III replaced by ‘letting’ to make it grammatically
continue for years together
correct

119. (b) Fragment I and III No error

the sentence talks about a past event, the verb
Fragme nt II Error
‘make’ has to be in its past form; ‘made’.
Here the phrase ‘therapy of patients’ must be
Fragme nt IV Error
changed to ‘therapy to patients’
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2022 2022-25

120. (c) Fragment I, III and IV No error

The main subject of the sentence ‘A group of ….’

is in singular number and the verb following it has
Fragme nt II Error to be in agreement. ‘Has’ must be used here in
place of ‘have’ to make it a grammatically correct
sentence.

121. (e) All fragments are correct, no errors. Option (e) is cannot be placed elsewhere, and placing the B
hence the correct answer. sentence elsewhere makes the sentence context
122. (c) Offered, Containment: Should replace each other in absurd. Also, the demonstrative pronoun “This” at
order to make the sentence grammatically and the beginning of sentence B goes well with the noun
contextually correct. Hence, option (c) is the right “step” at the end of sentence C. So proposition B
answer choice. follows.
123. (d) Testing, Protocol: Should replace each other in order Keywords that connect B to C:
to make the sentence grammatically and contextually ‘this’ (B) – ‘step’ (C)
correct. Hence, option (d) is the right answer choice G follows the sequence as it welcomes and describes
124. (e) The sentence is correct. Hence, option (e) is the right the idea discussed in the first sentence.
answer choice. Keywords/phrases that connect G to C:
125. (c) Motivated, Development: Should replace each other ‘such a benefit’ (G) – ‘enhancement of paid maternity
in order to make the sentence grammatically and leave for women’ (C)
contextually correct. Hence, option (c) is the right E clearly seems to follow the sequence as it brings a
answer choice contrast to the point being discussed.
126. (a) Keywords/phrases that connect E to G:
127. (d) The original sentence is erroneous. ‘the amended law’ (E) – ‘an amendment’ (G)
Reason: The word ‘comprehension’ must be F immediately follows as it supports the argument
followed the preposition ‘of’ instead of ‘off’ in this made in sentence E.
context. Keywords/phrases that connect F to E:
The sentence after replacement becomes: ‘For many poor millions in the unorganised sector’
Economic policies formulated by the IAS officers are (F) – ‘a small subset of women in the workforce’ (E)
generally above the power of comprehension of most D must follow the sequence made so far as it criticizes
of the ministers. the current benefit scheme for women in the
128. (e) The original sentence is absolutely correct and hence unorganised sector whle quoting government’s apathy
the bold part needs no replacement. towards the women in unorganised sector.
129. (b) The original sentence is erroneous. Keywords/phrases that connect D to F:
Reason: The phrase ‘cave off’ is incorrect. ‘this meagre benefit’ – ‘a small conditional cash
The correct phrasal verb is ‘cave in’ which means benefit of Rs. 6,000’
‘capitulate or submit under pressure’. Now, the only sentence that is left is sentence A and it
The sentence after replacement becomes: will obviously take the last position in the sequence.
Non-performing assets have led to a seizure of new Hence, the correct sequence of sentences will be C-
lending and the caving in of credit culture. B-G-E-F-D-A.
130. (b) 131. (d) The second sentence is clearly B.
Sol (131-135) : 132. (c) The fourth sentence is clearly F.
In this article, the authors appear to applaud the Option (c) is hence the correct answer.
government’s move to provide benefits to women 133. (a) The first sentence is clearly C
working in the organized sector, while at the same 134. (e) The last but one (second from the last) sentence is
time criticizing the government’s neglect of other clearly D.
women in the unorganized sector. Sentence C clearly 135. (b) The third sentence is clearly G.
sets the tone of the passage and should be the first 136. (c) In option (c), ‘aspirations’ absolutely fits the context
statement. as well grammar. Aspiration is different from ‘need’
Finding the second movement of a sequence is a rather in a way that “need” refers to the necessities of an
difficult task. At first glance, the G sentence appears individual whereas ‘aspiration” is more about
to come next, but if you choose it, the B sentence luxurious desires of an individual.
2022-26 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2022

137. (d) Both the words of option (d) suit the context as well 147. (d) Sberbank is a state-owned banking and financial
as fulfill the grammar rules. services company of Russia headquartered in Moscow.
138. (a) It is very obvious that terrorist would do something As of 2014 it was the largest bank in Russia
negative. Thus both the words should be negative in and Eastern Europe, and the third largest in Europe,
nature. ranked 60th in the world and first in central and Eastern
Option (a) – Both the words absolutely fit the blanks. Europe in The Banker’s Top 1000 World Banks
139. (c) A strong spirit always motivates others, thus the ranking. In the world ranking of public companies
second blank must have words like motivate, inspire, Forbes ”Global 2000" Sberbank takes 51st place.
etc. 148. (b) First time in history, India has crossed USD 400
Hence option (c) is correct Billion billion in merchandise exports. India has, for
140. (c) Dealt and coloured do not make sense in the first blank the first time, met the government’s annual export
and are incorrect. Thus, options B and D can be target since 2014. The country crossed the crucial
eliminated. threshold of $400-billion annual merchandise export
Out of options (a) and (c), (a) is the only option where target.
both words fit both the blanks respectively 149. (c) India’s central bank, The Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
Hence, option (c) is correct. in a discussion paper has said the non-banking financial
141. (d) The Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2022 was awarded to services will be regulated in a four layered structure.
Carolyn R. Bertozzi, Morten Meldal, K. Barry There will be four tiers of NBFCs – Base Layer
Sharpless. The Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2022 was (NBFC-BL), Middle Layer (NBFC-ML),Top layer.
awarded to Carolyn R. Bertozzi, Morten Meldal, and 150 (b) The Holcim Group, legally known as Holcim Limited,
K. Barry Sharpless “for the development of click is a Swiss multinational company that manufactures
chemistry and bio orthogonal chemistry,” which building materials. It has a presence in around 70
involve simple, quick chemical reactions that can occur countries, and employs around 72,000 employees.
within living organisms without disrupting normal 151 (a) Capital, Asset Quality and Capital-To-Risk Weighted
biological functions. Assets Ratio(CRAR), NPA ratio, Tier I Leverage Ratio,
142. (d) As announced in the Monetary Policy Statement 2022- will be the key areas for monitoring in the revised
23 dated December 07, 2022, the Bank Rate is revised framework.
upwards by 35 basis points from 6.15 per cent to 6.50 152. (a) Banking Ombudsman is a quasi judicial authority
per cent with immediate effect. created in 2006, and the authority was created pursuant
143. (b) “The existing FTP 2015-20 which is valid up to to a decision made by the Government of India to
September 30, 2022 is extended up to March 31, enable resolution of complaints of customers.
2023,” . FTP provides guidelines for enhancing exports 153. (d) Richest self made women according to Hurun Global
to push economic growth and create jobs. It was first Rich List 2022 is Wu Yajun. Wu Yajun is a Chinese
extended on March 31, 2020 for one year due to the billionaire businesswoman who was at one time the
coronavirus outbreak and the lockdown. world’s richest self-made woman. She is the co-
144 (a) India was ranked 40th position out of 132 in the Global founder, chairwoman, and former CEO of Longfor
Innovation Index (GII) 2022 rankings released Properties.
by World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO). 154. (d) Kumbhalgarh is also known as the Great Wall of
Switzerland is the most innovative economy in the India is a Mewar fortress on the westerly range of
world in 2022 - for the 12th year in a row - followed by Aravalli Hills, just about 48 km from Rajsamand
the United States, Sweden, the United Kingdom and city in the Rajsamand district of the Rajasthan state in
the Netherlands. western India. It is located about 84 km from Udaipur.
145. (a) Bomb Cyclone is related to USA. Bomb cyclone is It is a World Heritage Site included in Hill Forts of
actually used by meteorologists to indicate a mid- Rajasthan. It was built during the 15th century by Rana
latitude cyclone that intensifies rapidly. It is a massive Kumbha.
winter storm hammering the coast, bringing strong 155 (b) The cheetah was declared extinct from India in 1952.
winds, flooding, ice and snow. It is a combination of The Cheetahs that would be released are from Namibia
rapidly declining pressure and extreme cold. and have been brought under an MoU signed earlier
146. (b) China is the largest Producer of Cement. China this year. The introduction of Cheetah in India is being
produces the most cement globally by a large margin, done under Project Cheetah, the world’s first inter-
at an estimated 2.5 billion metric tons in 2021. China’s continental large wild carnivore translocation project.
cement production share equates to over half of the 156. (c) The SDR( Special Drawing Right) is an international
world’s cement. India was the world’s second-largest reserve asset, created by the IMF in 1969 to
cement producer, with production amounting to a supplement its member countries’ official reserves.
distant 330 million metric tons in 2021.
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2022 2022-27

157. (c) Indian plans to expand its regional satellite navigation commitment of the Gorbachev administration to
system NavIC (Navigation in Indian Constellation), allowing Soviet citizens to discuss publicly the
to increase its use in the civilian sector and ships, problems of their system and potential solutions.
aircraft travelling far from the country’s borders. The 167. (c) India imposed the windfall profit tax, from July, joining
constellations’ first satellite (IRNSS-1A) was launched a nations that tax super normal profits of energy
on 1st July 2013 and the eighth satellite IRNSS-1I was companies. The government has maintained that the
launched in April 2018. With the seventh launch of levy was introduced in view of the windfall gains made
the constellation’s satellite (IRNSS-1G), IRNSS by the domestic crude producers and refiners due to
was renamed NavIC by India’s Prime Minister in high global crude and product prices.
2016. 168. (a) The government has listed for sale real estate assets
158. (a) The Global Liveability Index has risen sharply in 2022. of state-run telecom firms MTNL and BSNL at a
Scores of Education, healthcare, and environment have reserve price of Rs 970 Crore.
improved, following the ease of restrictions post 169. (b) The 2019World Population Data Sheet indicates that
Covid-19. Austrian Capital, Vienna, topped the Global the world population reached 7.7 billion in 2019. By
Liveability Report, 2022, with a 99.1 rating. It replaced 2050, India will surpass China as the most populous
Auckland, which topped in 2021. country in the world, with an estimated 1.67 billion
159. (d) EU KLEMS is an industry level, growth and people.
productivity research project. EU KLEMS stands for 170. (a) Meghalaya won the best performer award in the 3rd
EU level analysis of capital (K), labour (L), energy edition of ranking of states on support to the start-up
(E), materials (M) and service (S) inputs. ecosystem which was released by Piyush Goyal,
160. (a) The 12 nationalised banks include Punjab National Minister of Commerce and Industry in a felicitation
Bank (PNB), Bank of Baroda (BoB), Bank of India ceremony in New Delhi .
(BoI), Central Bank of India, Canara Bank, Union 171. (a) As per the States, Madhya Pradesh has topped the
Bank of India, Indian Overseas Bank (IOB), Punjab, chart in the category of best-performing states in the
and Sind Bank, Indian Bank, UCO Bank, Bank of Swach Survekshan Awards 2022.
Maharashtra, and State Bank of India (SBI). 172 (b) NARCL( National Asset Reconstruction Limited.) is
161. (a) The Indian Super League, officially known as the Hero a government entity, has been incorporated on 7th July
Indian Super League for sponsorship reasons, is an 2021 with majority stake held by Public Sector Banks
Indian professional league for men’s association and balance by Private Banks with Canara Bank being
football clubs. the Sponsor Bank.
162. (b) Vishing is a cyber crime that uses the phone to steal 173. (d) The survey aims at capturing subjective assessments
personal confidential information from victims. Often on price movements and inflation, based on their
referred to as voice phishing, cyber criminals use individual consumption baskets, across 19 cities, viz.,
savvy social engineering tactics to convince victims Ahmedabad, Bengaluru, Bhopal, Bhubaneswar,
to act, giving up private information and access to bank Chandigarh, Chennai, Delhi, Guwahati, Hyderabad,
accounts. Jaipur, Jammu, Kolkata, Lucknow, Mumbai, Nagpur,
163 (a) The Board of Trustees of the PM CARES Fund has Patna, Raipur, Ranchi.
also nominated following to the Advisory Board of 174. (b) The Reserve Bank has approved the appointment of
the Trust are Shri Rajiv Mehrishi, Smt. Sudha Murthy its former deputy governor R Gandhi as non-executive
and Shri Anand Shah. part time chairman of Yes Bank for three years.
164. (d) India’s external debt, at US$ 620.7 billion as at end- 175. (e) RBI, APR include cost of funds, credit cost and
March 2022, grew by 8.2 per cent over US$ 573.7 operating cost, processing fee, verification charges,
billon as at end-March 2021. External debt of the maintenance charges, and exclude penalty charges, late
country continues to be dominated by the long-term payment charges.
borrowings, but long term borrowings reduces in 2022- 176. (b) The Indian Central Board of Indirect Taxes and
23 as stated by Government of India. Customs (CBIC) has refuted reports of a cut to the
165. (b) Eliud Kipchoge, kenyan marathon runner won annual sales threshold for clearing e-invoices to ¹ 5
Olympic 2020. Previously, he won the Gold Medal in per annum for 1 January 2023. It had last been
2016 olympics Eliud Kipchoge EGH is a Kenyan long- decreased to ¹ 10 annual sales.
distance runner who competes in the marathon and 177. (c) Hurun India finds 1,103 individuals with INR 1,000
formerly specialized at the 5000 metre distance. crore wealth, up by 96, an increase of 62% over the
166. (c) Glasnost was taken to mean increased openness and last five years With INR 10,94,400 crore, Gautam
transparency in government institutions and activities Adani (60) overtakes Mukesh Ambani (65), to bag the
in the Soviet Union (USSR). Glasnost reflected a richest Indian title
2022-28 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2022

178. (a) The maximum amount of debt (fund based or non- 184. (a) In order to improve complaint redressal in finance
fund based facilities) eligible for guarantee cover under companies, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) will
the scheme is Rs. 10 crore per borrower, irrespective introduce the Internal Ombudsman Scheme (IOS)
of the amount of debt facilities extended to the for NBFCs having a higher customer interface.
borrower by MI(s). 185. (b) RBI lifts curbs on M&M Finance for loan recovery
179. (b) The index represents the single discount rate that through outsourcing. On September 22, 2022, the
would produce the same present value as calculated Reserve Bank of India had directed Mahindra &
by discounting a standardized set of liabilities using Mahindra Financial Services to immediately cease
the PDC. carrying out any recovery or repossession activity
180. (b) India has signed MOU with world Bank to raise Fund through outsourcing arrangements.
for Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana. Pradhan 186. a) Under Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana
Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana is a scheme to bring (PMGKY), the limit for collateral-free loans for
about Blue Revolution through sustainable and women’s SHGs was doubled from Rs.10 lakh to Rs.
responsible development of fisheries sector in 20 lakh.
India” with highest ever investment of Rs. 20050 187. (c) The Global Innovation Index is an annual ranking of
crores in fisheries sector comprising of Central share countries by their capacity for, and success in,
of Rs. 9407 crore, State share of Rs 4880 crore and innovation, published by the World Intellectual
Beneficiaries contribution of Rs. 5763 crore. PMMSY Property Organization. It was started in 2007 by
will be implemented over a period of 5 years from FY INSEAD and World Business, a British magazine. It
2020-21 to FY 2024-25 in all States/Union Territories. reveals the most innovative economies in the world,
181. (d) The Education 4.0 India report is the result of a ranking the innovation performance of around 132
collaboration between the World Economic economies.
Forum, the United Nations Children’s Education Fund 188. (c) The National Asset Reconstruction Company Ltd.
(UNICEF) and YuWaah (Generation Unlimited (NARCL), set up to take over large bad loans of more
India). It tracks the progress and findings of the than¹ 500 crore from banks. The SARFAESI Act,
Education 4.0 India initiative, which focuses on how 2002 provides the legal basis for the setting up of ARCs
Fourth Industrial Revolution technologies can enhance in India. Setting up of NARCL, the proposed bad bank
learning and reduce inequalities in access to education for taking over stressed assets of lenders, was
among children in India. announced in the Budget for 2021-22.
182. (c) NSE Clearing has empanelled 15 clearing 189. (c) 16 companies are in the NBFC-UL list are: LIC
banks namely Axis Bank Ltd., Bank of India Ltd., Housing Finance, Bajaj Finance, Mahindra &
Canara Bank Ltd., Citibank N.A., The Hongkong & Mahindra Financial Services, Shriram Transport, Tata
Shanghai Banking Corporation Ltd., ICICI Bank Ltd., Sons, L&T Finance, Indiabulls Housing Finance,
HDFC Bank Ltd., IDBI Bank Ltd., IndusInd Bank Ltd., Piramal Capital & Housing Finance, Cholamandalam
JPMorgan Chase Bank, Kotak Mahindra Bank Ltd., Investment and Finance Co., Shanghvi Finance Pvt.
Standard Chartered Bank, Union Bank of India, State Ltd, Muthoot Finance, PNB Housing Finance, Tata
Bank of India and Yes Bank. Capital Financial Services, Aditya Birla Finance, HDB
183. (c) PM Kisan Maandhan Yojana that provides an assured Financial Services and Bajaj Housing Finance.
monthly pension of Rs. 3000/- to all the small and 190. (b) The EXIM Letter of Credit policy can reduce a bank’s
marginal farmers (who own cultivable land up to 2 risks on confirmations and negotiations of irrevocable
hectares) after the age of 60 years. This scheme was letters of credit issued by overseas financial institutions
introduced with an aim to secure the lives of small for the financing of U.S. exports.
and marginal farmers in India.
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2022 2022-29

SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2022

(Based on Memory)

Time : 60 minutes Max. Marks : 100

Reasoning Ability (c) Either conclusion I or II or follows.

(d) Only conclusion II follows.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): 7 persons Y, X, W, V, U, T and S are (e) Only conclusion I follows.
sitting on a row facing north not necessarily in the same order. 8. Statement:
Only a few Cap is Hat.
T sits three places away from W. Only one persons sits between
Only a few Hat is Crown.
Y and T. Y sit neither adjacent to W nor at the end. Number of
persons to the left of S is same as number of persons to the All Crown are Throne.
Conclusion:
right of X. X sits to the right of T and to the immediate left of V.
I. Some Hat is Throne is a possibility.
1. What is the position of U with respect of S? II. No Throne is Hat.
(a) Immediate left (b) Third to the right (a) Either I or II follows. (b) Neither I nor II follows.
(c) Second to the left (d) Second to the right (c) Only II follows. (d) Both I and II follows.
(e) Immediate right (e) Only I follows.
2. Four of the following five are same in some way, find the 9. Statements:
odd one. Some Lily are roses.
(a) UY (b) VW (c) SX (d) WT All roses are flowers.
(e) YV Some flowers are Bouquet.
3. Which of the following is true? Conclusions:
(a) X sits to the right of W. I. Some Bouquet are roses.
(b) Three persons sit between U and V. II. No Bouquet is rose.
(c) T sits in the middle of the row. (a) Only conclusion I follow.
(d) S sits second to the left of W. (b) Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
(e) All are true (c) Only conclusion II follows.
4. Who sits four places away from the person who sit (d) Conclusion I and II both follow.
adjacent to W? (e) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
(a) U (b) Y (c) S (d) T
(e) No one DIRECTIONS (Qs. 10-12): These questions are based on the
5. How many persons sit to the right of S and to the left of V? following information.
(a) Two (b) One (c) No one (d) Three There are eight people in a family L, J, Z, B, C, D, F and G
(e) Four consists of 3 generations. Four of them are females. C and Z are
6. What is the difference between the sum of the digits of the daughter and son of J respectively and both are married. D
first four digits of the given number and sun of the last is the sister of G whose father is B. L and F are of 3 rd generation
four digits in the number “76234580”. and L is the son-in-law of D. J is the brother-in-law of G.
(a) 5 (b) 1 (c) 7 (d) 0 10. How is J related to Z?
(e) 2 (a) Mother (b) Daughter-in-law
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 7-9): In the question below are given three (c) Son-in-law (d) Father
statements followed by two conclusions. You have to take the (e) Son
given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance 11. Who among the following is the son-in-law of B?
with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and (a) F (b) Z (c) J (d) G
then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows (e) Cannot be determined
from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. 12. Who among the following belongs to the first generation?
7. Statement: (a) D (b) Z (c) J (d) G
I. Only brick is rock. (e) B
II. Only a few brick is marble.
III. All marble is graphite. DIRECTIONS (Qs. 13-17): Study the following information
Conclusion: carefully to answer the given questions.
I. Some rock being graphite is a possibility. 7 friends living one above another P, Q, R, S, T, U and V not
II. Some brick is rock. necessarily in the same order. U is living at third floor from
(a) Both conclusion I and II follows. either of the ends. P is living just above to U. Three persons are
(b) Neither conclusion I nor II follows. living between P and S. Number of persons living above S is
2022-30 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2022

two more than the number of persons below V. Q is living above Juhi went 30 kilometers to the coast from my house, then
R, which is not living below S. turned left and walked 10 kilometers. She then turned west
13. How many persons are living between R and P? and walked 25 kilometers and finally turning left covered
(a) None (b) Two 10 kilometers. How far was he from his house?
(c) More than three (d) One (a) 20 kilometers east (b) 40 kilometers
(e) Three (c) 30 kilometers (d) 5 kilometers east
14. Who is living three places below U? (e) 10 kilometers east
(a) V (b) Q (c) S (d) T
(e) R DIRECTIONS (Qs. 23-27): Study the following information
15. Number of persons living below Q is same as the number carefully to answer the given questions.
of persons living above _______. Eight boxes A, B, C, D, W, X, Y and Z are placed in a four-story
(a) P (b) R (c) S (d) T almirah such that ground rack is numbered as 1, the rack
(e) None of these immediately above rack 1 is numbered as 2 and so on. Each of
16. Which of the following is false? the rack has two portions in it as portion P and portion Q.
A. T is not living at the bottom. Portion Q is to the east of portion P. Portion P of rack 2 is
B. V is living immediately above R. immediately above the portion P of rack 1 and immediately below
C. More than four persons are living between Q and S. the portion P of rack 3 and so on. In the same way, portion Q of
(a) Only B and C (b) Only A and C rack 2 is immediately above the portion Q of rack 1 and
(c) Only C (d) Only A immediately below the portion Q of rack 3 and so on.
(e) Only A and B D is placed immediately above the portion in which A is placed
17. If all the persons are arranged to place in the alphabetical in same portion but not in portion Q. There are two racks between
order from top to bottom, then how many persons remain the rack in which A and Z placed. There is only one rack between
unchanged? the rack on which Z and B placed. Y who is placed on an even
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) None numbered rack places above the rack in which C placed. C is
(e) More than three placed below the rack in which X is placed. C and X is placed in
18. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word the same portion but not with Z.
“FREQUENT” which has as many letters between them in 23. In which portion and on which rack does W placed?
the word (in both forward and backward directions, as (a) Portion Q, rack 3 (b) Portion P, rack 4
they have between them in the English alphabetical series? (c) Portion P, rack 3 (d) Portion Q, rack 1
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) None (e) Portion P, rack 2
(e) More than three 24. Who is placed in the same rack with Z?
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 19-21): In the following question assuming (a) Y (b) X (c) B (d) C
(e) A
the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion
25. Four of the following five are same in some way, find the
among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give
odd one.
your answer accordingly.
(a) A (b) D
19. Statements: (c) C (d) X
V = A : A £ E; E < Q (e) W
Conclusions: 26. If W and B interchange their position, then who among
I. V = E II. V < E the following is placed immediately below B?
(a) Only I is true. (b) Only II is true. (a) Y (b) A (c) D (d) X
(c) Either I or II is true. (d) Neither I or II is true. (e) C
(e) Both I and II are true. 27. Which of the following is true?
20. Statements: (a) Z is placed in portion Q.
E < Z > A = D; C < B = F > D (b) B and X is placed in different portion.
Conclusions: (c) Y is placed on rack 2.
I. Z > D II. D > C (d) D is placed below the rack in which W is placed.
(a) Only II is true. (b) Either I or II is true. (e) All are true.
(c) Neither I or II is true. (d) Both I or II is true.
(e) Only I is true. DIRECTIONS (Qs. 28-32): Study the following arrangement
21. Statements: carefully and answer the questions given below:
I> C > Z³R; B >W£ E £R OU*JB^$ K#C* CVBSRE&MP@QU!G
Conclusions: 28. How many such symbols are there in the above series
I. C ³ W II. B > Z which is immediately followed by a consonant and
(a) Only II is True. (b) Neither I nor II is True. immediately preceeded by vowel?
(c) Both I and II are True. (d) Either I or II is True. (a) One (b) Four
(e) Only I is True.
(c) None of these (d) Three
22. Study the following information carefully to answer the
given questions: (e) Two
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2022 2022-31

29. If we remove all the symbols from the above series then 39. I. 12x2 – 46x + 40 = 0 II. 6y2 – 30y + 24 = 0
which among the following alphabet is the 9th from the (a) x>y (b) x < y
right end? (c) x³y (d) x £ y
(a) S (b) E
(e) x = y or relation between x and y can be established.
(c) B (d) None of these
40. I. a2 + 30a + 81 = 0 II. b2 + 26b + 48 = 0
(e) R
30. Which among the following elements is 5th to the left of (a) a<b
7th from the right end of the series? (b) No relation in a and b or a = b
(a) None of these (b) U (c) a>b
(c) B (d) & (d) a£b
(e) @ (e) a³b
31. How many such vowels are in the series given each of 41. I. x2 + 7x – 60 = 0 II. y2 – 11y + 30 = 0
which is immediately followed by symbol and immediately (a) x£y (b) x > y
preceded by a letter? (c) y³x (d) x < y
(a) Two (b) One (c) Three (d) Four (e) No relation in x and y or x = y
(e) Five 42. I. 2x2 + 26x + 84 = 0 II. y2 + 21y + 104 = 0
32. If all the symbols are replaced with a digit 5 then how (a) x<y (b) x > y
many such 5’s are there in the new series each of which is (c) y£x (d) x ³ y
followed by a consonant? (e) x = y or the relation between x and y can’t be
(a) Five (b) Seven (c) Four (d) Eight established.
(e) Two
43. What approximate value should come in the place of
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 33-35): Read the following information question mark (?) in the following question?
carefully and answer the questions that follow: [(14.98 + 8.95) ÷ 0.99] × 3.98 = ?4 + 10.98
There are six friends in a class Z, Y, X, W, V and U who score (a) 11 (b) 8 (c) 2 (d) 3
different marks in an exam. All are sitting in a row according to (e) 5
their marks. Y scores the second highest mark. Marks of U is 44. What approximate value should come in place of the
less than W. Z scores fewer marks than X and V. U is the third question mark (?) in the following question?
highest score in the group and has scored 46 marks. W is the (221.22 + 72.90) ÷ 5.99 = 3.99% of 199.99 + 19.99 + ?
highest scorer in the group. (a) 31 (b) 41 (c) 23 (d) 11
33. Who score second highest in the group? (e) 51
(a) X (b) Y (c) V (d) U 45. What approximate value should come in place of the
(e) Z question mark (?) in the following question?
34. Who score second lowest marks in the group? 219.89 + 2.993 + 199.96 = 2.99 × ? + 209.98
(a) V (b) Y (c) X (d) W (a) 90 (b) 100 (c) 120 (d) 79
(e) Can’t be determined. (e) 110
35. If sum of U and Y mark is 106, then what is possible marks of W. 46. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the
(a) 50 (b) 62 (c) 48 (d) 47 following question?
(e) 46
Numerical Ability 26% of 300 + 30 × 17 – 961 × 4 = ?
(a) 472 (b) 473 (c) 471 (d) 464
36. If the numerator of a certain fraction is increased by 40%, (e) None of these
while the denominator is increased by 100%, then the 47. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the
ratio of the numerator and denominator becomes 42 : 75, following question?
what will be the actual fraction? 40% of 70 = 25 × 4 – ? + 6 × 4
(a) 5/7 (b) 4/5 (c) 7/10 (d) 8/11 (a) 47 (b) 37 (c) 96 (d) 10
(e) 5/8 (e) None of these
37. A certain work was completed by A in 7 days, B in 14
48. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the
days, C in 21 day. If A and C did work for 3 days and then
left then B will finishes rest work in how many days? following question?
(a) 4.5 (b) 4 (c) 5.5 (d) 3 131 × 3 + 63 = 70 ÷ 7 + ?% of 21 + 5
(e) 3.5 (a) 1400 (b) 2000 (c) 2100 (d) 2150
(e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 38-42): In the given questions, two 49. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the
equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both following question?
the equations and mark the appropriate answer.
17 × 16 + 60% of 250 = 25% of 40 + ? × 13
38. I. 5a2 + 26a + 33 = 0 II. b2 + 18b + 65 = 0
(a) 17 (b) 11 (c) 19 (d) 16
(a) a > b (b) a < b (c) a ³ b (d) a £ b
(e) None of these
(e) a = b or relation between a and b can not established.
2022-32 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2022
50. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the 58. Find the total number of the Bat and Gloves sold by T &
following question? T company in 2020?
22 × 23 – 40% of 800 = 36 × ? (a) 700 (b) 695 (c) 705 (d) 585
(a) 33 (b) 34 (c) 38 (d) 31 (e) 735
(e) None of these 59. If each company has targeted to increase their sale of gloves
51. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the by at least 25% in 2020, but it was found that I, J and K have
following question? scale up their target only by 20%, while M has scale up by
? % of 400 × (3/4) + 300 = 66.66% of 900 30%. The sale of Gloves by M in 2020 is approximately
(a) 50 (b) 101 (c) 260 (d) 180 what percent to the sale of I, J and K in 2020?
(e) 70 (a) 83% (b) 85% (c) 87% (d) 77%
52. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the (e) 80%
following question? 60. If the sale for Bat increased by 50% in 2020, and sale for
25% of 84 ÷ 20% of 140 = 2 + 11% of 500 + ? Ball is increased by 40% in 2020 for company M, then
(a) – 8 (b) – 6 (c) – 4 (d) 8 what will be the new ratio of sale of Bat and Ball in 2020?
(e) 4 (a) 5 : 17 (b) 15 : 7 (c) 17 : 11 (d) 7 : 15
53. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the (e) 8 : 13
following question? 61. If in 2020, the total sales of bat for all the shops are
increased by 120%, what will be the number of bats sold
121 + 81 ÷ 9 = 144 ÷ 36 + (?)2 by company M in 2019 and 2020, if it was considered that
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 3
sales of other company are same as 2019 except M and L.
(e) None of these
M and L sell an equal number of bat in 2020?
54. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the
(a) 1045 (b) 1095 (c) 1535 (d) 1120
following question?
(e) 995
33 × 25 – 30% of 200 = 25% of 1600 – ? × 59 62. What will be the total ratio of the Bat and the Gloves sold
(a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 5 by all of the company in 2019?
(e) None of these (a) 65 : 31 (b) 64 : 31 (c) 67 : 31 (d) 68 : 31
55. What approximate value will come in the place of the (e) 69 : 31
question mark ‘?’ in the following question? 63. A boat having a speed of 12 kmph covering a distance of
?% of 550 × (2/5) + 625 = 28.97% of 630 + 10 36 km, in upstream, and a distance of 30 km in downstream,
(a) 100 (b) 260 (c) 77 (d) 180 if the time taken by the boat to cover the distance in up
(e) 59 and down is in ratio of 2 : 1. Find the speed of the stream.
56. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the (a) 8 kmph (b) 6 kmph (c) 5 kmph (d) 4 kmph
following question? (e) 3 kmph
132 + 171 ¸ 19 × 2 = ? + 15 64. If the height of the triangle is 12 cm, and the area of the
(a) 270 (b) 137 (c) 190 (d) 172 triangle is 168 sq. cm. The perimeter of the rectangle is 42
(e) None of these cm. If it were given that the base of a triangle is equal to
57. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the the breadth of a rectangle. Find length of rectangle.
following question? (a) 15 cm (b) 16 cm (c) 7 cm (d) 10 cm
25% of 28 – 20% of 30 + 22 = 5 × ? (e) 15 cm
(a) 4 (b) 0 (c) 3 (d) 2 65. If the ratio of income of 2 friends is 14 : 10, while it was
(e) 1 found that the ratio of expenditure is 10 : 6. If both the
friends save ` 2,000 in each month. Find sum of monthly
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 58-62): In the below given table, the total income of both the friends.
number of Bat, Ball and Gloves sold by different Companies in (a) ` 5000 (b) ` 5500 (c) ` 12000 (d) ` 9500
2019 is given. On the basis of the given data determine the (e) ` 7000
answered of the questions asked. 66. The average weight of 40 students in a class is 15 kg. The
number of girls in a class are 40% less than the number of
Companies Bat Ball Gloves boys in a class. The average weight of girls in a class is 12
kg. Find the difference between the average weight of
I 250 75 75 boys and weight of girls in a class.
J 325 50 100 (a) 6.4 kg (b) 4.8 kg (c) 6.2 kg (d) 5.95 kg
(e) 3.75 kg
K 375 50 150 67. There are 3 friends named Sunil, Tanisq and Depank. It
L 400 100 200 was found that the average age of Sunil and Tanisq is 22
years. While the ratio of Sunil and Depank’s ages is 5 : 7
M 250 125 250 and the sum of all the friends together is 72 years. What
In 2020, a new company T & T joins, and it was found that will be the present age of Tanisq?
the sale of Bat for the company is 20% more than the sale (a) 24 years (b) 18 years (c) 12 years (d) 20 years
of Bat by L in 2019, while the sale of Gloves by the company (e) 14 years
is 30% less than the sale of Gloves by K in 2019.
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2022 2022-33

68. A sum of money gives an interest of 2/5 of itself in T DIRECTIONS (Qs. 76-80): In each question below, four words
years, when it is given in the rate of 20%. Find amount printed in bold type are given. These are numbered (a), (b),
after (T + 4) years. (c) and (d). One these words printed in bold might either be
(a) 2.2 P (b) 2.25 P (c) 2.35 P (d) 2.5 P wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence.
(e) 2.6 P Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if
69. Monthly income of Ram was ` 18,000, if the spent 25% on any. The number of the word is your answer. If the words printed
entertainment, 12% on his travelling and save x% in bank in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of
account. After the calculation, he found that he was left the sentence then mark (e), i.e. ‘All Correct’, as your answer.
with ` 2160. Find the sum of amount which he saves in his
bank. 76. Ramesh had an aversion (a) / to alcohol and would (b) / avoid
(a) ` 8840 (b) ` 9180 (c) ` 10520 (d) ` 12140 going to partyes (c) / with his friends. (d) / All correct (e)
(e) ` 14720 (a) aversion (b) would
70. A train having a certain length of x m covers the two (c) partyes (d) friends
different platforms having lengths of 280 m and 360 m in (e) All correct
36 sec and 40 sec, respectively. Find speed of train (in 77. Ramesh spiled (a) / juice all over Raj’s new (b) / clothes and
kmph). did not even care (c) / to apologise. (d) / All correct (e)
(a) 80 kmph (b) 78 kmph (c) 75 kmph (d) 72 kmph (a) spiled (b) new (c) care
(e) 70 kmph (d) apologise (e) All correct
78. Daisy loved (a) / children and so she would distrebute (b)
English Language / sweets in an orphanage (c) / on her birthday. (d) / All
correct (e)
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 71-75): Rearrange the following six sentences (a) loved (b) distrebute
(A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in a proper sequence to form a (c) orphanage (d) birthday
meaningful paragraph. Then answer the questions given below. (e) All correct
79. All the competitors (a) / completed (b) / the race, (c) /
(A) Detritus that the worm deems unworthy may become a
with just one exeption. (d) / All correct (e)
meal for other tiny beach denizens, such as crabs, shrimp
(a) competitors (b) completed
and clams.
(c) race (d) exeption
(B) This is where the worm’s “fat innkeeper” nickname comes
(e) All Correct
from.
80. Lucy was working (a) / overtime because (b) / she had to
(C) From the front end of its burrow, the worm coughs up a
prepare (c) / for an important meating. (d) / All correct (e)
net of mucus to catch tiny seaside plankton, bacteria and
(a) working (b) because (c) meating (d) prepare
other detritus that happen to pass by.
(e) All correct
(D) It does this by spraying a jet of water out of its butt.
(E) When the worm sucks this net back into its mouth, it DIRECTIONS (Qs. 81-88): Read the following passage
holds onto choice morsels and tosses the rest away carefully and answer the questions given below. Some words
through the back end of its burrow. are printed in bold in order to help you locate them while
(F) In fact, it’s common for the worm’s burrow to host various answering some of the questions.
opportunistic animals looking for a free bed and meal.
The catastrophic monsoon floods in Kerala and parts of
71. Which of the following should be the SIXTH statement
Karnataka have revived the debate on whether political
after rearrangement?
expediency trumped science. Seven years ago, the Western
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) F
Ghats Ecology Expert Panel issued recommendations for the
(e) E
preservation of the fragile western peninsular region. Madhav
72. Which of the following should be the FIFTH statement
Gadgil, who chaired the Union Environment Ministry’s WGEEP,
after rearrangement?
has said the recent havoc in Kerala is a consequence of short-
(a) D (b) B (c) C (d) F
sighted policymaking, and warned that Goa may also be in the
(e) E
line of nature’s fury. The State governments that are mainly
73. Which of the following should be the FOURTH statement
responsible for the Western Ghats — Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil
after rearrangement?
Nadu, Goa and Maharashtra — must go back to the drawing
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) F
table with the reports of both the Gadgil Committee and the
(e) D
Kasturirangan Committee, which was set up to examine the
74. Which of the following should be the THIRD statement
WGEEP report. The task before them is to initiate correctives to
after rearrangement?
environmental policy decisions. This is not going to be easy,
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
given the need to balance human development pressures with
(e) F
stronger protection of the Western Ghats ecology. The issue of
75. Which of the following should be the SECOND statement
allowing extractive industries such as quarrying and mining to
after rearrangement?
operate is arguably the most contentious. A way out could be
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) F
to create the regulatory framework that was proposed by the
(e) E
Gadgil panel, in the form of an apex Western Ghats Ecology
Authority and the State-level units, under the Environment
2022-34 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2022

(Protection) Act, and to adopt the zoning system that it (a) The reports of the expert panel show no proper
proposed. This can keep incompatible activities out of the framework for controlling the Ecologically Sensitive
Ecologically Sensitive Zones (ESZs). Zone in the Western Ghat Area.
At issue in the Western Ghats — spread over 1,29,037 sq km (b) The Western Ghat region doesn’t have any
according to the WGEEP estimate and 1,64,280 sq km as per the problems, but the main issue is that governments
Kasturirangan panel — is the calculation of what constitutes don’t have enough money.
the sensitive core and what activities can be carried out there. (c) Because they will use up all of the groundwater in
The entire system is globally acknowledged as a biodiversity the area, the reservoirs in the area’s immediate vicinity
hotspot. But population estimates for the sensitive zones vary will spell disaster.
greatly, based on interpretations of the ESZs. In Kerala, for (d) Since policymakers don’t care about the environment
instance, one expert assessment says 39 lakh households are until it affects their voter base, the area will flood..
in the ESZs outlined by the WGEEP, but the figure drops sharply (e) The balance between development and preservation
to four lakh households for a smaller area of zones identified by should be there in order to develop the area properly.
the Kasturirangan panel. The goal has to be sustainable 84. Which among the following should be the objective of all
development for the Ghats as a whole. The role of big concerned regarding the development of the Western
hydroelectric dams, built during an era of rising power demand Ghats Area?
and deficits, must now be considered afresh and proposals for (a) The development plan should be well supported by
new ones dropped. Other low-impact forms of green energy led money and also manpower by all the states.
by solar power are available. A moratorium on quarrying and (b) The Western Ghats Area should be preserved properly
mining in the identified sensitive zones, in Kerala and also other so that there is sustainable development of the area.
States, is necessary to assess their environmental impact. (c) Since the development plan will help gain an
Kerala’s Finance Minister, Thomas Isaac, has acknowledged advantage throughout the process, it must be
the need to review decisions affecting the environment, in the correctly drafted from the beginning.
wake of the floods. Public consultation on the expert reports (d) The states should take the development of the
that includes people’s representatives will find greater Western Ghats region seriously so that the area is
resonance now, and help chart a sustainable path ahead. actually preserved.
81. Which among the following has been attributed by the experts (e) Because the states are not in charge of developing
as a reason of the recent floods in Kerala and Karnataka? the Western Ghats Area, this area should not be taken
(a) The political decision making strategy has always for granted.
taken the upper hand as compared to the real interests 85. Which among the following should be the course of
of the environment. action of the government in order to ensure that the
(b) Rainwater always spills in these two states since Western Ghats Area is preserved properly?
there is an improper drainage infrastructure in place. I. There should be utilization of various clean sources
(c) The states are unable to handle any issue, no matter of energy such as the solar power in the area
how minor it may be, because they have no idea how II. There should not be any restriction in mining
to handle any type of natural calamity. activities as well as quarrying activities in the area
(d) The states should be entrusted with the responsibility III. There should not be new construction of
of protection of environment in the areas within their hydroelectric dams in the area from now onwards
jurisdiction. (a) Both I and III (b) Only II
(e) None of the above (c) Both I and II (d) Only I
82. Which of the following should the flood-affected states (e) All I, II and III
do to stop this from happening again, according to the 86. Which among the following is true regarding the
passage? regulatory framework recommended by the expert panel
(a) The states need to invest more money in avoiding regarding the conservation of the Western Ghats Area?
natural disasters there. (a) There should be one central authority along with
(b) In order for the federal government to anticipate the state-wise authorities so that the coordination is
possibility of any natural disaster, the states should proper for sustainable development of the area.
establish appropriate warning mechanisms. (b) There must be a central regulator that does not authorize
(c) The states should plan properly so that they can states to avoid any kind of dispute between them.
implement the recommendations of the expert panels (c) There should be a decentralized regulatory authority
regarding the preservation of the Western Ghats at the state level, accompanied by the heads of
Area. ministries.
(d) The states should not take any action at this time; (d) There should be only one regional authority to avoid
instead, they should concentrate solely on the idea confusion about the responsibilities of different
of putting everything into disaster management authorities.
operations. (e) None of the above
(e) None of the above 87. Which among the following is the view of the Finance
83. Which among the following is the main issue pointed out Minister of Kerala regarding the efforts towards
in the passage in the implementation of the expert panel development of the Western Ghats Area?
reports in various states?
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2022 2022-35

(a) It should not be carried out since any development 95. Our company is yet starting (a) / offering this facility to
activity in region would definitely put a lot of people (b) / our customers as we are (c) / awaiting approval from
in problem. the Board. (d) / No error (e)
(b) It should not be stopped because the central
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 96-100): In the following passage, some of
government has already sanctioned it and the funds
the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a
have also been released. letter. Find the suitable word from the options given against
(c) Kerala should get special assistance from the central each letter and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to
government in the present Finance Commission in make the paragraph meaningful.
view of the ongoing flood situation.
(d) The state government should be the sole deciding This year, the world’s largest democracy, India, and the biggest
authority regarding the amount of compensation to country by ___ (96) ___, Russia, are celebrating the 70th
anniversary of establishment of diplomatic relations between
be given.
them. Russia continues to be among India’s major politico-
(e) The state should engage public in the process of diplomatic and defence partner nations. While India has ___ (97)
consultation r egarding the blueprint of the ___ separate strategic partnership pacts with more than two dozen
development of Western Ghats Area countries, the Indian and Russian governments in December 2010
88. Which of the following sentences has a similar meaning ___(98)___ their bilateral ‘Strategic Partnership’ to what they
to the word “resonance” used in this sentence? termed a “Special and Privileged Strategic Partnership.”
(a) Delightful (b) Blissful The New Delhi-based ___(99)___ ‘Foundation for National
(c) Consonance (d) Credence Security Research’, which did a comparative assessment of India’s
(e) None of the above strategic partnerships — meaning, ‘political-diplomatic, defence
and economic cooperation’ (during the 10-year period prior to
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 89-95): Read the sentence to find out November 2011), had said, “Russia emerges as the most important
whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The strategic partner of India (followed by the U.S., France, the U.K.,
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part Germany and Japan in that order).” The November 2011 report
with the error as your answer. If there is no error, mark (e). had found that Russia had provided strong political and
(Ignore errors of punctuation, if any) diplomatic support to India and helped enormously in building
89. If I will have an even faster (a)/ computer than I have India’s defence capability. However, it warned that the “economic
today, (b)/ I could come up with really (c)/ interesting content of the (India-Russia) partnership is extremely weak,” and
recommended that “urgent and ___(100)___ steps need to be
questions to ask it.(d)/ No error (e)
taken to improve economic relations if this (India-Russia)
90. One of my colleagues (a)/ who wanted to help me with(b)/ partnership is to be sustained and made durable.”
my projects have been transferred (c)/to some other 96. (a) Population (b) Density
department (d)/ No error(e) (c) Area (d) Democracy
91. The type of qualities you acquire (a)/ depend upon your (e) Economy
company(b)/ and so you associate yourselves with (c)/ 97. (a) Inked (b) Considered
simple and good natured people.(d)/ No error(e) (c) Contemplated (d) Refuted
92. Everybody among the traders (a)/ were enjoying dance (e) Revoked
and music (b)/ when the manager of the (c)/event was 98. (a) Called (b) Elevated
shot dead.(d)/ No error(e) (c) Refreshed (d) Nullified
93. There are many insurance (a) / disputes nowadays (e) Revived
because of (b) / most people do not fully (c) / understand 99. (a) NGO (b) Startup
the terms and conditions of their policies (d) / No error (e) (c) Personnel (d) Think tank
94. The stubborn child (a)/ started crying and laid on (b)/ the (e) Avenue.
ground after his (c) / mother refused to get him a chocolate. 100. (a) Various (b) Precarious
(c) Vigorous (d) Minuscule
(d) / No error(e)
(e) Exhilarating

ANSWER KEY
1 (c) 11 (c) 21 (b) 31 (c) 41 (c) 51 (b) 61 (c) 71 (b) 81 (d) 91 (b)
2 (d) 12 (e) 22 (d) 32 (b) 42 (b) 52 (a) 62 (b) 72 (d) 82 (c) 92 (b)
3 (c) 13 (b) 23 (c) 33 (b) 43 (d) 53 (c) 63 (e) 73 (a) 83 (e) 93 (b)
4 (a) 14 (c) 24 (a) 34 (e) 44 (c) 54 (d) 64 (c) 74 (d) 84 (b) 94 (b)
5 (a) 15 (d) 25 (b) 35 (b) 45 (d) 55 (c) 65 (c) 75 (e) 85 (a) 95 (a)
6 (b) 16 (b) 26 (c) 36 (b) 46 (d) 56 (d) 66 (b) 76 (c) 86 (a) 96 (c)
7 (d) 17 (d) 27 (d) 37 (d) 47 (c) 57 (e) 67 (a) 77 (a) 87 (e) 97 (a)
8 (b) 18 (b) 28 (d) 38 (a) 48 (c) 58 (d) 68 (a) 78 (b) 88 (c) 98 (b)
9 (b) 19 (c) 29 (c) 39 (e) 49 (d) 59 (a) 69 (b) 79 (d) 89 (a) 99 (d)
10 (d) 20 (e) 30 (c) 40 (b) 50 (d) 60 (b) 70 (d) 80 (c) 90 (c) 100 (c)
2022-36 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2022

ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS

Sol. (1-5): Sol. (13-17) :
7 ¾¾
®Q
U Y S T X V W 6 ¾¾
®P
1. (c) Second to the left.
2. (d) Every second persons sits on the right side of first 5 ¾¾
®U
person except WT. 4 ¾¾
®V
3. (c) Only (c) option is correct.
4. (a) U sits four palces away from the person who sit 3 ¾¾
®R
adjacent to W.
2 ¾¾
®S
5. (a) Two persons i.e. T and X sits between S and V.
6. (b) Sum of the first four digits = 7 + 6 + 2 + 3 = 18 1 ¾¾ ®T
Sum of the last four digits = 4 + 5 + 8 + 0 = 17 13. (b) Two persons are living between R and P i.e. U and V.
Required difference = 18 – 17 = 1 14. (c) S is living three places below U.
15. (d) T as Q lives at the top and T lives at the bottom of building.
Graphite 16. (b) Only A and C is false as T is living at the bottom and 4-
7. (d) Brick persons are living between Q and S.
rock Marble
17. (d) Arrangement of persons from top to bottom in
alphabetical order.
Only II conclusion follows.
7 ¾¾
®P
Throne 6 ¾¾
®Q
8. (b) Cap Hat Gown
5 ¾¾
®R

Neither I nor II follows. 4 ¾¾

®S
3 ¾¾
®T

9. (b) Lilly roses Bouquet 2 ¾¾

®U
1 ¾¾®V
None
Either I or II follows. 18. (b) (6) (18) (5) (17) (21) (5) (14) (20)
Sol. (10-12) :

+
B
Two i.e. R-U, Q N.
19. (c) Statement:
+ – V
J D G ||
A£E<Q
w Brother in law
in la Conclusion:
Son I. V = E (False) II.V < E (False)
+ – + – Either I or II is true.
L C Z F
20. (e) Statement:
“ =” ® husband wife relation
“—” ® Brother sister relation
“ | ” ® Children relation F>D
O+ ® Boy / male
O– ® Girl/female C<B
10. (d) J is father of Z. Conclusion:
11. (c) J is son in law of B. I. Z > D (True) II. D > C (False)
12. (e) B belongs to first generation. Only I is true.
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2022 2022-37

21. (b) Statement:

37. (d) A 7 6
I> C> Z³R³E³W<B B 14 42 3
Conclusions:
I. C ³ W (False) C 21 2
II. B > Z (False) A + B + C 1 day work 11
Neither I nor II. A + B + C 3 day work 33 (Q11´ 3 = 33)
22. (d) 25 km Remaining work = 42 – 33 = 9
9
10 km 10 km Remaining work done by B in = = 3 days
3
x 38. (a) (I) 5a2 + 26a + 33 = 0
30 km Þ 5a2 + 15a + 11a + 33 = 0
5 kilometer east. Þ 5a (a + 3) + 11 (a + 3) = 0
Sol. (23-27) : -11
Þ (5a + 11) (a + 3) = 0 Þ a = -3,
P Q 5
(II) b2 + 18b + 65 = 0 Þ b2 + 13b + 5b + 65 = 0
4 Z Y Þ b (b + 13) + 5 (b + 13) = 0 Þ (b + 13) (b + 5) = 0
Þ b = – 13, – 5 Þ a > b
3 W X 39. (e) (I) 12x2 – 46x + 40 = 0
Dividing both the sides by 2,
2 D B 6x2 – 23x + 20 = 0
Þ 6x2 – 15x – 8x + 20 = 0 Þ 3x (2x – 5) – 4 (2x – 5) = 0
1 A C Racks 4 5
Þ (3x – 4) (2x – 5) = 0 Þ x = ,
3 2
23. (c) Portion P and rack 3. (II) 6y2 – 30y + 24 = 0
24. (a) Y is placed in same rack. Dividing both the sides by 6,
25. (b) D is odd as (A, C), (W, X) are placed in same rack of y2 – 5y + 4 = 0
different portion. Þ y2 – 4y – y + 4 = 0 Þ y (y – 4) – 1 (y – 4) = 0
26. (c) D Þ (y – 1) (y – 4) = 0 Þ y = 1, 4
27. (d) D is placed below the rack in which W is placed. No relation between x and y can be established.
Sol. (28-32) : 40. (b) (I) a2 + 30a + 81 = 0
OU* J B^ $ K #C * CV BS RE &M P@ QU !G Þ a2 + 27a + 3a + 81 = 0 Þ a (a + 27) + 3 (a + 27) = 0
28. (d) “U * J”, “E & M”, “U ! G” Þ a = – 27, – 3
29. (c) 30. (c) 31. (c) (II) b2 + 26b + 48 = 0
32. (b) O U 5 J B 5 5 K 5 C 5 C V B S R E 5 M P 5 Q U 5 G Þ b2 + 24b + 2b + 48 = 0 Þ b (b + 24) + 2 (b + 24) = 0
Seven Þ (b + 2) (b + 24) = 0 Þ b = – 24, – 2
Sol. (33-35) : No relation can be made.
Highest — W 41. (c) (I) x2 + 7x – 60 = 0
— Y Þ x2 + 12x – 5x – 60 = 0 Þ x (x + 12) – 5 (x + 12) = 0
46 — U Þ (x – 5) (x + 12) = 0 Þ x = 5, – 12
— either X or V (II) y2 – 11y + 30 = 0
— either X or V Þ y2 – 6y – 5y + 30 = 0Þ (y – 6) (y – 5) = 0
Lowest — Z Þ y = 6, 5 Þ y ³ x
33. (b) Y score 2nd highest. 42. (b) (I) 2x2 + 26x + 84 = 0
34. (e) Can’t be determined. Dividing by “2” by b.t.s.
35. (b) u + y = 106 Þ y = 106 – 46 = 60 x2 + 13x + 42 = 0
w = 62 according to option. Þ x2 + 7x + 6x + 42 = 0Þ x (x + 7) + 6 (x + 7) = 0
36. (b) Let the numerator be 100x. Þ (x + 6) (x + 7) = 0 Þ x = – 6, – 7
Then the denominator be 100y. (II) y2 + 21y + 104 = 4
According to question, Þ y2 + 13y + 8y + 104 = 0 Þ y (y + 13) + 8 (y + 13) = 0
æ 40 ö Þ (y + 8) (y + 13) = 0 Þ y = – 8, – 13 Þ x > y.
çè100 x + 100 x + ÷ 43. (d) [(14.98 + 8.95) ¸ 0.99] × 3.9 = ?4 + 10.93
100 ø 49 140 x 14
= Þ =
æ 100 ö 50 200 y 25 Þ [23 × 4] = ?4 + 11 Þ 81 = ?4 Þ ? = 4 81 = 3
çè 100 y + 100 y + ÷ 44. (c) (221.22 + 72.90) ¸ 5.99 = 3.99% of 199.99 + 19.99 + ?
100 ø
3
x 4 Þ 49 = ´ 200 + 20 + ? Þ ? = 23
Þ = 100
y 5
2022-38 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2022
45. (d) 219.89 + 2.99 + 199.96 = 2.99 × ? + 209.98 130
237 Number of gloves made by M = 250 ´ = 325
Þ 220 + 27 + 200 = 3 ? + 210 Þ = ? Þ 79 = ? 100
3 325
26 Required percentage = ´ 100 = 83.33% ~ 83%
46. (d) ´ 300 + 510 - (31 ´ 4) = 588 – 124 = 464 390
100 150
40 60. (b) Sale of Bat by M in 2020 = 250 ´ = 375
47. (c) ´ 70 = 25 ´ 4 - ?+ 6 ´ 4 100
100 140
Þ 28 = 100 – ? + 24 Þ ? = 96 Sale of Ball by M in 2020 = 125 ´ = 175
100
? Required ratio = 375 : 175 = 15 : 7
48. (c) 131 × 3 + 63 = 70 ÷ 7 + ´ 21 + 5
100 61. (c) Total sale of bat in 2019
441´100 = 250 + 325 + 375 + 400 + 250 = 1600
Þ = ? Þ ? = 2100
21 220
Total sale of bat in 2020 = ´ 1600 = 3520
60 25 100
49. (d) 17 ´ 4 + ´ 250 = ´ 40 + 13?
100 100 As the sales of other are same except M and L.
208 So, number of bats sold in 2020 from I, J, K = 950
Þ 68 + 150 = 10 + 13 ? Þ = ? Þ ? = 16 Number of bat sold by M and I in 2020
13
= 3520 – 950 = 2570
40 Number of bat sold by M and I in 2020
50. (d) 22 ´ 23 - ´ 800 = 36 ´ ?
100
2570
186 = = 1285.
Þ 506 – 320 = 6 × ? Þ ? = = 31 Þ ? = 31 2
6 Total number of bats sold by M in 2019 and 2020
? 3 = 250 + 1285 = 1535
51. (b) ´ 400 ´ + 300 = 67 ´ 9
100 4 62. (b) Required ratio = 1600 : 775 = 64 : 31
Þ 3 × ? = 603 – 300 Þ ? = 101 63. (e) Let the speed of stream = x km/hr
25 20 11 Speed of boat in upstream = 12 – x
52. (a) ´ 84 + ´ 140 = 2 + ´ 500 + ? Þ ? = – 8 Speed of boat in downstream = 12 + x
100 100 100 According to the question,
53. (c) 121 + 81 ¸ 9 = 144 ¸ 36 + (?) 2 36
Þ 11 + 9 = 4 + ?2 Þ 16 = ? Þ ? = 4 12 - x = 2 3(12 + x) 1
54. (d) 33 × 5 – 60 = 25 × 16 – ? × 59 30 1 Þ 5(12 - x) = 1
295 12 + x
Þ 105 = 400 – 59 ? Þ ? = =5 Þ 36 + 3x = 60 – 5x Þ 24 = 8x Þ 3 km/hr = x
59
? 2 29 1
55. (c) ´ 550 ´ + 625 = ´ 630 - 10 64. (c) Area of triangle = × Base × Height = 84
100 5 100 2
Þ 2 ? + 25 = 2.9 × 63 – 10 Þ 2 ? + 25 = 189 – 10 1
Þ × 12 × Base = 84 Þ Base = 14
Þ ? = 179 - 25 Þ ? = 77
2
According to the question,
2
56. (d) 132 + 171 ¸ 19 × 2 = ? + 15 Perimeter of rectangle = 2 (L + B) = 42
Þ 169 + 18 = ? + 15 Þ 169 + 3 = ? Þ ? = 172 L + B = 21
25 20 Þ L + 14 = 21
57. (e) ´ 28 - ´ 30 + 4 = 5 ´ ? Þ ? = 1 {Q Base of triangle = Breadth of rectangle}
100 100 Þ L=7
120 65. (c) Let the ratio of income = x
58. (d) Sale of bat for T&T company = 400 ´ = 480
100 and the ratio of expenditure = y
70 According to the question,
Sale of gloves by T&T companry = 150 ´ = 105 14x – 10y = 2000 } × 5
100 10x – 6y = 2000 } × 7
Total number of gloves and bats sold by T&T in 2020
= 480 + 105 = 585. 70x – 50y = 10000
59. (a) Number of gloves made by I in 2020 = 90 70x – 42y = 14000
Number of gloves made by J in 2020 = 120 – + –
Number of gloves made by K in 2020 _______________
8y = 4000
120 Þ y = 500
= 150 ´ = 180
100 Income of Ist friend,
Total number of gloves made by I, J, K together = 390 14x – 5000 = 2000 Þ 14x = 7000
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2022 2022-39

Income of 2nd friend, 70. (d) Time taken by train to cross Ist platform:
10x – 3000 = 2000 Þ 10x = 5000 x be the long of train,
Sum of monthly income of both = 7000 + 5000 = 12000 280 + x
66. (b) Total weight of class = 15 × 40 = 600 kg 36 = {Q ST is the speed of train}
According to the question, ST
Boys + Girls = 400 280 + x
Þ ST = ...(1)
é 40B ù 36
B + êB - = 40
ë 100 úû Time taken by same train to cross IInd platform:
Þ 8B = 40 × 3 Þ B = 25, G = 15 360 + x
Total weight of Girls = 15 × 12 = 180 kg 40 =
ST
Total weight of Boys = 600 – 180 = 420 kg
360 + x
420 Þ ST = ...(2)
Avg. weight of Boys = = 16.8kg 40
25
From (1) and (2),
Required difference = 16.8 – 12 = 4.8 kg
67. (a) Total age of Sunil and Tanisq = 44 280 + x 360 + x
=
Age of all three friends = 72 36 40
Age of Depank = 72 – 44 = 28 Þ 2800 + 10x = 3240 + 9x
According to the question, Þ x = 440 m
Sahil 's age 5 æ 280 + 440 18 ö
Sahil : Depank = 5 : 7 Þ = Þ ST = ç ´ ÷ km/hr
Depank 's age 7 è 36 5 ø
5 ´ 28 = 72 km/hr.
Þ Sahil’s age = = 20 Sol. (71-75):
4
The sentences flow naturally from one another. The sentences
Present age of Tanisq = 44 – 20 = 24 years.
detail a specific worm's behaviour. A closer look reveals that
68. (a) According to the question,
the first sentence of the paragraph is phrase C. Sentence C
P´R´T therefore acts as the introduction. The remaining sentences
I=
100 come after sentence C.
Let the principal be ` P. Hence, option B is the correct answer.
Pairing
2P P ´ 20 ´ T
=
5 100 the worm sucks this net
C and E: the worm coughs up a net
ÞT=2 back
Now, interest after (T + 4) years, It does this by spraying a
tosses the rest away through
P ´ 20 ´ T 6P E and D: jet of water out of its
I= = the back end of its burrow.
butt.
100 5
6P a meal for other tiny
Amount after 6 years = P + = 2.2P It does this by spraying a jet
beach denizens, such as
5 D and A:
of water out of its butt
69. (b) Amount spent by Ram on entertainment crabs, shrimp and clams.
25 a meal for other tiny beach various opportunistic
= 18000 ´ = ` 4500
100 A and F: denizens, such as crabs, animals looking for a
Amount spent by Ram on travelling shrimp and clams. free bed and meal.
12 In fact, it's common for the
= 18000 ´ = ` 2160
100 worm’s burrow to host This is where the worm's
Amount he saves in bank account F and B: various opportunistic "fat innkeeper"
animals looking for a free nickname comes from.
x
= ´ 18000 = 180 x bed and meal.
100
According to the question, 71. (b)
4500 + 2160 + 2160 + 180 x = 18000 72. (d) The correct sequence of the sentences: CEDAFB
Þ x = 51% 73. (a) The correct sequence of the sentences: CEDAFB
74. (d) The correct sequence of the sentences: CEDAFB
51 75. (e) The correct sequence of the sentences: CEDAFB
Amount he saves in his bank account = ´ 18000
100 76. (c) The correct spelling is ‘parties’.
= ` 9180 77. (a) The correct spelling is ‘spilled’.
2022-40 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2022

78. (b) The correct spelling is ‘distribute’. 88. (c) Hence, Option (c) is the right choice among the given
79. (d) The correct spelling is ‘exception’. options.
80. (c) 89. (a) The error is in part A of the sentence.
81. (d) From the text given, it is clear that experts believe Reason:
that policy decisions that ignore the environmental When an “if” clause and a principal clause (which is
aspects of the region are the main cause of the in future tense) are present in a single sentence, the
country’s floods. ‘if’ clause should always be in the present or past
tense.
It makes Option (d) the right choice among the given
Correct Sentence:
options. If I had an even faster computer than I have today, I
82. (c) It implies from the given lines that the states should could come up with really interesting questions to
ponder over the steps to be taken in order to preserve ask it.
the ecology of the Western Ghats Area and they Therefore, option A is the correct answer choice to
should think about implementation of the expert panel this question.
report on this issue. 90. (c) Reason: one of/none of/ either of/ neither of/ + plural
This makes Option (c) the right choice among the noun/pronoun+ singular verb
91. (b) The type of (singular so) depend upon DEPENDS
given options.
upon
83. (e) Statement A is incorrect since the expert panel has 92. (b) Everybody is subject. It takes singular subject
recommended formation of committee and authority 93. (b) “disputes now a days because of “by “disputes now
to oversee the development in the Western Ghats a days because”. It is superfluous to use preposition
Area. Statements B, C and D are not in sync with the of as subordinate clause follows.
given context though they may sound logical 94. (b) Lie Lay Lain ( to relax in or on something)
otherwise. Only Option (e) implies the same as has Lay Laid (to spread Something Somewhere)
been depicted in the passage. Incorrect verb (v2) is used.
This makes Option (e) the right choice among the 95. (a) Replace our company is yet starting by we are yet to start.
Yet is occasionally used in affirmative sentences,
given options.
giving the sentences a similar meaning as the use of
84. (b) still. Note that this is more formal and not
85. (a) To protect the Western Ghats region, it is clear that common."Yet to " is followed by 1st form of verb.
solar energy in the region should be encouraged, I am yet to complete this project.
along with a moratorium on mining and quarrying I am still working on this project.
activities in the region. Apart from that, the 96. (c) To answer this question correctly one needs to be
construction of new hydroelectric dams in this area good at general awareness as per which Russia is
should be restricted. Therefore statements I and III world’s biggest country by ‘area’.
are true. Option (c) is hence the correct answer.
97. (a) As the words “considered” and “contemplated” are
Hence, Option (a) is the right choice among the given
synonyms, neither of them could be picked for the
options. blank. Options (b) and (c) hence get eliminated.
86. (a) It is assumed that there must be a central authority Moreover, the words “refuted” and “revoked” are
to regulate local development with the assistance of negative in meaning and thus would not go well with
state level authorities so that the whole process is the context. Options (d) and (e) get eliminated as
well coordinated. Statement A implies this, but the well.
rest of the options clearly do not imply this kind of Clearly, the word “inked”, the present form of which
regulation in this area. refers to ‘sign or enter a pact or contract’ is the word
that’d be fitting the gap appropriately.
This makes Option (a) the right choice among the
Option (a) is hence the correct answer.
given options. 98. (b) The word “elevated” clearly fits the gap both
87. (e) From the given lines, it is clear that the Kerala Finance grammatically and contextually.
Minister believes that the public should be involved Option (b) is hence the correct answer.
in the process of building a blueprint for the Western 99. (d) Of the options given, only the noun phrase “think
Ghats region of the country. It will then be possible tank,” referring to “a group of experts who provide
to outline a development roadmap for the region. advice and ideas on a particular political or economic
Statements E only implies the same with the other issue,” is the most appropriate option for choosing
options being irrelevant in the given context. Gap. Option (d) is hence the correct answer.
100. (c) Clearly, the word “vigorous” which means ‘strong
This makes Option (e) the right choice among the
and forceful’ would be the most appropriate word for
given options. the blank in the given context of the passage.
Option (c) is hence the correct answer.
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2021 2021-1

SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2021

(Based on Memory)
Time : 160 minutes Max. Marks : 200

Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude 6. How many numbers are there between the one which is 3 rd
from the right end and 38 in step 3?
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): Study the following information (a) Four (b) One
carefully to answer the given questions: (c) Three (d) None
(e) More than four
Ten friends - Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting around a 7. Which of the following number is 7th from the left end in
circular table, but not necessarily in the same order. All friends step 5?
are facing inside. Adjacent name as in alphabetical series are (a) 46 (b) 79 (c) 56 (d) 49
not sitting nearby to each other in the circle. (e) None of these
There are two persons sitting between the Q and Z when count 8. What is the position of 88 from the right end in 2nd last
from to the left of Z. More than three persons are sitting between step?
the R and Z when count both left and right of Z. Q sits just to the (a) Fourth (b) Fifth
left of U who sits third to the left of X. More than four persons (c) Sixth (d) Third
sit between T and Y when counted to the left of Y. Y sits near to (e) None of these
R. W does not sit near to Y. S sits just right of V. 9. How many numbers are there between 72 and the one
1. How many persons are sitting between X and R when which 4th to left of 76 in step 5?
counted to the right of X ?
(a) None (b) Three
(a) Two (b) Three
(c) Two (d) More than three
(c) Four (d) Five
(e) None of these
(e) Six
2. Who is sitting fourth to the left of V ? 10. Which of the following number is 5th to left of 49 in step 4?
(a) U (b) T (c) S (d) R (a) 60 (b) 38 (c) 72 (d) 40
(e) Q (e) None of these
3. Who is sitting just to the near of U and T ? DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11- 14): In the questions below are given
(a) W (b) R (c) Z (d) X four statements followed by two or three conclusions numbered
(e) Q I, II or III. You have to take the given statements to be true even
4. How many persons are sitting between W and T when if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts.
counted to the right of W ? Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
(a) Four (b) Five
conclusions logically follows from the given statements
(c) Six (d) Seven
disregarding commonly known facts.
(e) Eight
5. Who sits third to the right of S ? 11. Statements :
(a) Q (b) U (c) W (d) T Some Small are Shirt.
(e) R All Shirt are Cloth.
No Cloth is Rectangle.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10): Study the following information
All Jeans are Rectangle.
carefully and answer the questions given below. A number
Conclusions :
arrangement machine, when given a particular input,
I. Some Small are Cloth.
rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is the
illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement. II. Some Small are not Rectangle.
(a) None follows (b) Either I or II follows
Input : 62 97 38 74 55 12 86 45 68 22 (c) Only I (d) Only II
Step I : 13 62 97 38 74 55 86 45 68 23 (e) All follow
Step II : 39 13 62 97 74 55 86 68 23 46 12. Statements:
Step III : 56 39 13 97 74 86 68 23 46 63 Some Redmi are Lava.
Step IV : 69 56 39 13 97 86 23 46 63 75 Some Lava are Iron.
Step V : 87 69 56 39 13 23 46 63 75 98 Some Iron are Samsung.
And Step -V is the last step of the rearrangement as the desired Some Samsung are Nokia.
arrangement is obtained. As per rules followed in the above Conclusions:
steps, find out in each of the questions the appropriate step for I. Some Lava are Redmi.
the given input. II. Some Samsung are Lava.
Input : 88 59 28 94 37 75 15 64 71 48
2021-2 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2021

(a) None follows (b) Only I 17. Statement:

(c) Either I or II (d) Both I and II N × W $ Q; U # P & G; G × Q @ K; W @ C; D $ U
(e) None of these Conclusion
13. Statements: I. D × N II. P @ N
Some flowers are roses. III. C $ K
Some roses are foods. (a) Only III conclusion is true
All honey are Sweet. (b) Both conclusion II and III are true
All foods are honey. (c) Either conclusion II or conclusion III is true
Conclusions: (d) Only II conclusion is true
I. Some Sweet are roses. II. No honey is flower. (e) None of the above conclusions is true
(a) Only conclusion II is true 18. Statement
(b) Only conclusion I is true N × W $ Q; U # P & G; G × Q @ K; W @ C; D $ U
(c) Both conclusions I and II are true Conclusion
(d) Either conclusion I or II is true I. P × W II. D & G
(e) Neither conclusion I nor II is true III. K # U
14. Statements: (a) Only I conclusion is true
All biscuit are breads. (b) Both conclusion II and III are true
All breads are cakes. (c) Either conclusion I or conclusion III is true
Some cakes are pastries. (d) Only II conclusion is true
No pastry is jam. (e) None of the above conclusions is true
Conclusions :
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 19-23): Study the following information
I. Some pastries are biscuit.
II. Some breads are biscuit. carefully and answer the questions based on it:
III. Some cakes are breads. If @ means east, # means west, & means north, % means south.
(a) None follows. (b) Only I follows. @ and & means distance between points is either 4m or 15m.
(c) Only II and III follow. (d) Only II follows. # and % means distance between points is either 7m or 18m.
(e) None of these. Combination of two symbols means consider only the direction
and not the distance.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 15- 18) : In the following questions, the
Note: AB < BC means the distance between A and B is lesser
symbols @, &, ×, $ and # are used with the following meaning
than distance between B and C.
as illustrated below :
Y & S; S # P; O & P; O & @ Y; N @ O; W % N; NW > OP; SP <
‘1 # 2’ means ‘1 is neither greater than nor equal to 2’. NW; ON < SP; K @ Y; K & # P; U % K; U% # W.
‘1 & 2’ means ‘1 is neither smaller than nor greater than 2’. 19. The distance between S and P is an odd number. What is
‘1 $ 2’ means ‘1 is not greater than 2’. the direction of N with respect to K?
‘1 @ 2’ means ‘1 is greater than 2’. (a) North (b) North - west
‘1 × 2’ means ‘1 is either greater than or equal to 2’. (c) South - east (d) North - east
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given (e) None of these
statements to be True, find which of the conclusion/s given 20. What is the possible distance between Point K and Point U?
below them is/are definitely True? (a) 7 m (b) 4 m (c) 18 m (d) 15 m
15. Statement: (e) None of these
N × W $ Q; U # P & G; G × Q @ K; W @ C; D $ U 21. What is the sum of shortest distance between line (Y, S)
Conclusion and line (P, W)?
I. U @ W II. Q & D (a) 9 m (b) 10 m (c) 14 m (d) 20 m
III. N @ C (e) None of these
(a) Only III conclusion is true 22. Point S is in which direction with respect to Point O?
(b) Both conclusion II and III are true (a) North - east (b) North - west
(c) Either conclusion II or conclusion III is true (c) South - east (d) South - west
(d) Only I conclusion is true (e) None of these
(e) All the above conclusions are true 23. What is the difference of shortest distance between line
16. Statement: (S, P) and line (O, P)?
N × W $ Q; U # P & G; G × Q @ K; W @ C; D $ U (a) 6 m (b) 8 m (c) 10 m (d) 14 m
Conclusion (e) None of these
I. Q @ D II. K # P
III. C × Q DIRECTIONS: Study the following information carefully and
(a) Only III conclusion is true answer the questions given below.
(b) Both conclusion II and III are true 24. Following are the conditions for selecting Admin Executive
(c) Either conclusion II or conclusion III is true in an organization. The Candidate must-
(d) Only II conclusion is true (i) Be a Graduate in any discipline with at least 65% marks.
(e) All the above conclusions are true (ii) Have secured at least 50% marks in the selection interview.
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2021 2021-3

(iii) Have post qualification work experience of at least (a) Only I follows. (b) Only II follows.
three years in the admin division of an organization. (c) Both I and II follow. (d) Neither I nor II follows.
(iv) Have secured at least 55% marks in the selection (e) Either I or II follows.
examination.
(v) Have a post Graduate degree/diploma in Admin- DIRECTIONS (Qs. 27-28): In each question below is given a
Management with at least 60% marks. statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II.
Study the following information carefully and find which Youhave to assume everything in the statement to be true, then
of the following condition shows candidate is selected? consider the two conclusions together and decide which of
(a) Candidate is daughter of a renowned freedom fighter them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the
from another state. information given in the statement. Give answers accordingly.
(b) Candidate has a post Graduate degree in Finance with 27. Statement: Population increase coupled with depleting
60% marks. resources is going to be the scenario of many developing
(c) Candidate has completed his graduation with 80% countries in the days to come.
marks. Conclusions:
(d) Candidate does not own a house in Noida. I. The population of developing countries will not
(e) Candidate has secured 56% marks in Cap Gemini’s continue to increase in future.
interview. II. It will be very difficult for the governments of
DIRECTIONS : In the following question, a statement has been developing countries to provide its people decent
given which is followed by three courses of action numbered I, quality of life.
II, III. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to (a) Only conclusion I follows.
be taken for improvement, follow up, or further action in regard (b) Only conclusion II follows.
to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of the information (c) Either I or II follows.
provided. You have to assume everything in the statement to be (d) Neither I nor II follows.
true, then decide which of the given /suggested courses of action (e) Both I and II follow.
logically follows for pursuing. 28. Statement: It is unhealthy to keep plants in bedrooms,
especially at nights. Due to the excess carbon dioxide
25. Statement: Every year thousands of able students, both produced during those hours, it can lead to suffocation.
in rural as well as in urban areas cannot get admission in Conclusion
colleges despite passing the last certificate examination of I. We should not grow plants at home.
their schools. II. Plants need to be placed in outer spaces like windows
Courses of Action: or balconies.
I. More colleges should be established in rural as well (a) Only I follows. (b) Only II follows.
as in urban areas. (c) Both I and II follow. (d) Neither I nor II follows.
II. The number of schools in rural as well as in urban (e) Either I or II follows.
areas should be decreased.
III. A good number of schools should conduct vocational DIRECTIONS (Qs. 29- 30): One statement is given followed
courses. So that the students could start preparing to get by two arguments, I and II. You have to consider the statement
employed after completing the school education. to be true, even if it seems to be at variance from commonly
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II and III follow known facts. You are to decide which of the given arguments
(c) All follow (d) Only I and III follow be definitely drawn from the given statement.
(e) None of the above
29. Statement: The usage of mobile phones by students
26. Direction: In the question below are given a statement
should be permitted in all schools.
followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A
Arguments:
course of action is a step or administrative decision to be
I. No, it might become an unproductive gadget under
taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard
those age group students.
to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information
given in the statement to be true, then decide which of the II. Yes, students can travel safely and communicate to
suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for parents whenever necessary.
pursuing. (a) Argument I alone is true.
Statement: Air pollution has emerged as a major (b) Argument II alone is true.
environmental challenge in Indian cities and across the (c) Both arguments I and II are true.
states. Emissions from multiple sources are responsible (d) Either argument I or II is true.
for the condition which can bring down the life expectancy (e) Neither argument I nor II is true.
by 5 years on average. 30. Statement: Should government ban Cigarette industries?
Course of action: Arguments:
I. Government should impose a limit on the manufacturing I. Yes, as it is very injurious for any person consuming
of vehicles across the country. them and causes cancer.
II. Awareness programs should be conducted and people II. No, forbidding them would mean that those people
should be encouraged to pool vehicles. who work in cigarette industries would lose their jobs.
2021-4 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2021

(a) Only argument I is strong DIRECTIONS (Qs. 37-40) : Read the instruction carefully and
(b) Only argument II is strong answer the questions given below.
(c) Neither I nor II is strong
(d) Both I and II are strong R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y, and Z are the nine members of a family.
(e) Either I or II is strong Either both the parents of a person are alive or neither of them is
alive. T is the daughter of Y who is the daughter-in-law of W. S
DIRECTIONS: A series is given with five word in which few is elder than Y. X is the daughter of V who is the brother of Z. R
operations are performed. is elder than W who is the mother of Z. T is the elder sister of X.
FLAW DARK FLOW PACT JOKE R is the paternal grandfather of U who is the only son of S. Z is
elder than S but younger than V. W has no daughters. Z got
31. How many letters are there in alphabetical series, between
married after X was born. T is younger than Y
3rd letter from the right end of 2nd word from left end and 1st
37. How many are older than T’s father?
letter from the left end of the word which is 2nd from the
(a) No one (b) One
right end?
(c) Two (d) Three
(a) 15 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 18 (e) More than three
(e) 14 38. How is V related to U?
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 32-36): Study the following information (a) Father (b) Grandfather
carefully and answer the given below questions. (c) Paternal Uncle (d) Sister-in-law
(e) Brother-in-law
Eight people S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z go for a trip either in 2009 39. How is S related to W?
or 2010 in the month of January, April, July, October. Only two (a) Mother (b) Mother-in-law
persons go on the trip in a month but they go in different years. (c) Daughter-in-law (d) Son-in-law
They go for trips to eight different countries namely Russia, (e) Grandson
Canada, Maldives, Malaysia, Australia, USA, Switzerland and 40. Who among the following is 4th oldest?
UAE but not necessarily in the same order. T goes UAE in 2010 (a) R (b) W (c) Z (d) V
in the month having even no of days. Z and W go in the same (e) Y
month. Z neither go in October nor go to Switzerland and USA.
Not more than two people go on the trip before S, who goes on DIRECTIONS: In the questions below consists of a question
Russia trip. S does not go in the month having an even number and three statements numbered I, II and III. You have to decide
of days. One person go between W and X. X does not go for the whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to
trip in the first month of any year and He goes to the Maldives. answer the question. Read all the three statements and give
One person go between Y and U. Y does not go just before the answer accordingly.
one who goes to Canada. Three person goes for the trip between Six members of the family X, Y, Z, P, Q and R are standing in a row
the one who goes for Malaysia and the one who goes for and all are facing the north direction. Who is standing between
Switzerland. Neither Y nor W goes to Switzerland. The one who Z and Q?
goes to Canada goes after the USA. 41. Statement I : X is standing second from the left end. Z is
32. Who among the following goes to Australia for trip? standing third to the left of Y who is near to Q.
(a) Z (b) Y (c) X (d) W Statement II : Y is not the immediate neighbour of R who
(e) V does not sits any extreme end of the row.
33. Y goes for trip in which of the following Month? Statement III : Q is not the neighbour of X.
(a) January 2010 (b) January 2009 (a) If the data in statement I alone or in statement II alone
(c) April 2009 (d) April 2010 or in statement III alone is sufficient to answer the
(e) October 2009 question.
34. Number of persons go for trip before U is same as the (b) If the data in statement I and II are sufficient to answer
number of person go for trip after ______? the question, while the data in statement III are not
(a) The one who go to Maldives sufficient to answer the question.
(b) Y (c) If the data in statement I and III are sufficient to answer
(c) The one who go to Canada. the question, while the data in statement II is not
(d) X sufficient to answer the question.
(e) None of the given option is true (d) If the data in statement II and III are sufficient to answer
35. Who among the following go for trip in July? the question, while the data in statement I is not
(a) S (b) W sufficient to answer the question.
(c) X (d) Both S and W (e) If the data in all the statement I, II, and III are necessary
(e) Both S and X to answer the question.
36. Which of the following combination is correct?
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 42- 43): In the following questions, a given
(a) Z - Malaysia (b) X - Switzerland
question is followed by information in two statements.You have
(c) S - January (d) W - October
to find out the data in which statement (s) is are sufficient to
(e) Y - USA
answer the question and mark your answer accordingly.
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2021 2021-5

42. On which day of the second week of the month Rahul’s 47. Who lives just below the one who likes Blue color ?
exam is scheduled? (a) E (b) B (c) D (d) C
I. The exam is scheduled on the sixth day of the week, (e) A
the first day of the week is Sunday. 48. What will be the correct combination from the given
II. The exam is scheduled after Thursday but before last option?
day of the week i.e. Saturday. (a) F- Flat 2 - Floor 1
(a) II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient. (b) Yellow - Flat 2 - Floor 2
(b) I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient. (c) B - Flat 1 - Floor 3
(c) Either I or II alone is sufficient to answer the question. (d) Green - Flat 1 - Floor 1
(d) I and II together are sufficient to answer the question. (e) White - Flat 1 - Floor 3
(e) Neither I nor II is sufficient to answer the question. 49. Who lives just to the east of D ?
43. There are 4 people sitting around a circular table W, X, Y (a) F (b) A (c) E (d) C
and Z at equal distant points around the circle, facing the (e) B
centre of the circular table. 50. Who likes red color ?
Who sits to the second position at the right of W? (a) D (b) A (c) F (d) C
I. X sits to the second position to the left of W. (e) E
II. Y sits to the second position to the right of Z.
(a) II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient. Quantitative Aptitude
(b) I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient.
(c) Either I or II alone is sufficient to answer the question. DIRECTIONS (Qs. 51-55) : Read the following information
(d) I and II together are sufficient to answer the question.
carefully and answer the questions that follow:
(e) Neither I nor II is sufficient to answer the question.
Five members of a family viz. Mukesh his wife Taniya, their two
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 44- 45) : There are Six dices numbered 1, 2, children Nitu and Vikash and their daughter-in-law Arsha spent
3, 4, 5, 6 are placed one above another (not in the same different amount from their respective salaries in a month. Total
pattern).Two dices are placed between 1 and 3 is placed expenditure of the family per month is ` 3,30,000 which is 75% of
immediately below (5) One dice is placed between 6 and 4, 2 is the total income of the family per month. Taniya saving is l/3rd
placed one of the above place of 4 and one of the below place of the savings of her daughter-in-law who earns ` 60,000 a month
of 5 but not immediate above or below. 6 is not placed at the
and spent 60% of her salary. Salary earned by Nitu 'is the highest
bottom. Odd numbered dice is placed at the top and the Even
in the family i.e. ` 1,20,000 per month and her expenditure is
numbered dice is placed at the bottom.
twice the expenditure of Arsha. Taniya saves 10% of her income
44. How many dices were placed between 3 and 2? and her husband saves 20% of his income. Mukesh earns
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 ` 90,000 per month.
(e) None 51. Income of which of the following two members of the family
45. Which of the following dice is placed just above 4? is same?
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 1 (d) 3 (a) Taniya and Vikash (b) Mukesh and Taniya
(e) 2 (c) Nitu and Arsha (d) Mukesh and Vikash
(e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 46 -50) : Study the following information 52. What is the average salary of the family per month?
carefully and answer the question given below: (a) ` 72,000 (b) ` 64,000
In a building of three floors and each floor having two flats as (c) ` 88,000 (d) ` 90,000
Flat - 1 and Flat - 2 There are six people live in these flats named (e) None of these
as A, B, C, D, E and F. They also like different color Red, Blue, 53. What is the ratio of the salary earned to salary spent by
Green, Yellow, Black and White but not necessary in the same Arsha in a month?
order. The bottom floor is numbered 1 and the top floor is (a) 5 : 2 (b) 5 : 3
numbered 3 Flat -1 is in the west direction of Flat - 2. (c) 2 : 5 (d) 3 : 5
E likes green color lives on the odd number floor and flat which (e) None of these
is also odd in number. There is one floor between A and E but A 54. What is the difference between the expenditure of Taniya
not lives in the same flat of E. There is one floor between the one and Nitu in a month?
who like red color and the one who like black color. No person (a) ` 4000 (b) ` 6000
lives between the one who like white color and C who lives on (c) ` 8000 (d) ` 10,000
even number floor. D neither like red nor black color. B is not like (e) None of these
red color and lives one of the floor below the one who likes red 55. Salary earned by Arsha is what % of salary earned by
color but not just below. A is not like the red color. Person who Taniya?
likes white color and yellow color did not live in same flat. (a) 65% (b) 45% (c) 50% (d) 75%
46. Person who likes Yellow color lives on which flat and floor? (e) None of diese
(a) Flat -1 Floor - 1 (b) Flat - 2 Floor 1 56. The distance between the two trains is 300 km and moving
(c) Flat 1 Floor 2 (d) Flat 2 Floor 2 in the ooposite direction on the same track. The speed of
(e) Flat 1 Floor 3
2021-6 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2021

one train is 72 krn/hr and the speed of another train is 48 DIRECTIONS (Qs. 64-65): Find out the wrong number .
km/hr. A bird starts flying at a speed off 68 km/hr at the
location of the faster train. When it reaches the slower 64. 12, 12,16, 34, 80, 182, 362
train, it turns around and flies in the opposite direction at (a) 182 (b) 34 (c) 16 (d) 80
the same speed. When it reaches the faster train again it (e) 12
turns around and so on. When the train collide, how far 65. 74, 125, 76, 122, 79,117
has the bird flown (in km)? (a) 76 (b) 79 (c) 117 (d) 122
(a) 180 km (b) 150 km (e) 74
(c) 170 km (d) 160 km DIRECTIONS (Qs. 66-70): The following question are
(e) None of these
accompanied by two or three statements (I) and (II) or (III).
57. Income of P is ` x and income of Q is ` y. Expenditure on
You have to determine which statement(s) is/are sufficient/
food by both is 10% of their income. Expenditure on
necessary to answer the following question.
entertainment by P is twice the expenditure on food. Saving
of P is ` 35,000. Expenditure on entertainment by Q is 66. What is the amount received by Vinita?
` 12,000. Saving of Q is 75 % of his income. Find their I. Ekansh and Vinita started a business with an
income? investment in the ratio of 5 : 4. After 4 months Ayush
(a) ` 72,000 and ` 54,000 (b) ` 80,000 and ` 60,000 joined their business with an amount 20% more than
(c) ` 48,000 and ` 50,000 (d) ` 80,000 and ` 50,000 that of Ekansh, after 2 more months Vinita took out
(e) None of these 25% of her investment. The total profit obtained after
58. Chemical mixtures A consist of chemicals P and Q in ratio the end of year is ` 25000.
of 1 : 3, Chemical B consist of chemicals P which chemical II. Ekansh invested ` 7000 more than that of Vinita.
B is present. Both the chemicals A and B are mixed in a Ayush invested 9000 more than Ekansh and the
large container. What is % of concentration is present in difference between the profit earned by them is `
final mixture as P? 2000.
(a) 35% (b) 50% (c) 40% (d) 25% (a) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer
(e) None of the above the question, while the data in statement II alone are
59. Yuvi sells two types of milk. In the first type of milk, there not sufficient to answer the question.
is 40% milk is present and the rest is from water, whereas, (b) If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer
in the second types only 40% water is present. He takes the question, while the data in statement I alone are
30 litres and 20 litres of milk from both types respectively. not sufficient to answer the question.
What is the percentage of milk present in the new mixture? (c) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement
(a) 64% (b) 36% (c) 50% (d) 48% II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(e) None of these (d) If the data even in both the statements I and II together
60. J, K and L invest together in business wherein they receive are not sufficient to answer the question.
profit ` 63,000. J reinvests his share of profit in a scheme (e) If the data in both statements I and II together are
giving 10% rate of interest after two years and K reinvests needed to answer the question.
his share of profit which gives him 20% rate of interest at 67. Rahul and Yogesh are traveling towards each other with
end of two years. If interest received by J and K after 2 certain speeds from point A and point B respectively. At
years is ` 3969 and ` 8316 then find interest earned by L if what time will both meet each other at point R if both start
he reinvests his share in same scheme as J did for 2 years. traveling at 3:00 pm.
(a) ` 5475 (b) ` 7690 I. Rahul takes 4 hours to reach point Q from point R
(c) ` 6658 (d) ` 4768 while Yogesh takes 9 hours to reach point P from
(e) ` 5292 point R.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 61-63) : What approximate value should II. Distance between point P and point Q is 1200 km,
come in the place of question mark (?) in the following and the ratio of the speed of Rahul and Yogesh is 2 : 3.
question? III. The difference between the speed of Rahul and
Yogesh is 40 km/hr.
61. 12.973 × 3.99 ÷ 52.08 + 107.99 + 3 1727.98 × 6.93 = ? (a) Only I is sufficient to answer
(a) 240 (b) 228 (c) 232 (d) 244 (b) Only II and III are sufficient to answer
(e) None of these (c) Either I or II and III together are sufficient to answer
62. (345.97 + 129.88 – 45.03) + (34.87 – 6.96 × 2.99) = ? – (d) All are necessary to answer
(e) None of them is sufficient to answer
1521
68. There are four member A, B, C and D partners in the
(a) 485 (b) 501 (c) 595 (d) 364
business. What is the profit share of B?
(e) None of these
I. A and B started the business with an investment of
63. (24.99% of 250 × 3.95) + (21.05% of 300 – 49.99) = ? –
` Q and ` 3Q respectively and after 6 months C and D
19.99% of 40
joined them with an investment of ` (a + 5000) and
(a) 260 (b) 271 (c) 336 (d) 192
(e) None of these Rs. 4a respectively.
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2021 2021-7

II. At the end of the year profit share of C is ` 16000. Q is 240% of the quantity of water in vessel P. Total profit earned
III. At the end of one year, the profit ratio of C and D is by milkman when he sold the mixture from vessel S at the cost of
1 : 3. pure milk is (300/7)% and total loss occurred to milkman when
(a) Only statement II and III are sufficient. he sold the mixture from vessel T at ` 25.2 per liter is 25%.
(b) Any two of them are sufficient Total quantity of pure milk in vessel R is one third of the total
(c) Only statement I and II are sufficient. quantity of pure milk in vessel B and vessel T together.
(d) All of them are sufficient. 71. Diary owner sold 3 liters mixture from vessel R and added
(e) None of the statement is sufficient. the same amount of water, next time he sold 5 liters from
69. Ram and Shyam invested ` 3000 together. Ram invested the same vessel and added the same amount of water to it.
his amount at compound interest for ‘x/10’ years at x% Finally, he removes 2 liters of mixture and adds 2 liters of
rate interest and Shyam invested half of his amount at water. What is the ratio of milk to water in vessel R after
compound interest and remaining half at simple interest at these operations?
the same rate of interest for the same time period. [It is (a) 8 : 7 (b) 5 : 7 (c) 7 : 8 (d) 7 : 5
given that ‘x/10’ is a natural number] (e) None of these
What is the value of ‘x’? 72. If the diary owner uses the same cane to measure milk,
Statement I : Ratio of investment of Ram and Shyam is 1 : once from vessel P and once from vessel S, then what is
2 respectively and total sum received by them together the amount of pure milk purchased by the customer out of
after a particular time at x% rate of interest is ` 4280. 3 liters mixture?
Statement II : Simple interest received by Shyam is ` 40 (a) 1.4 L (b) 2.3 L (c) 2.1 L (d) 1.8 L
less than compound interest received by him. (e) None of these
Statement III : Sum of simple interest and compound 73. If dairy owner mixes the mixture of vessel Q with mixture of
interest received by Shyam after a certain time at x% rate vessel T and sells this mixture at cost price of pure milk,
of interest is ` 2500. then what is the profit percent of dairy owner?
(a) Only statement I alone is sufficient.
3 2 1
(b) Only Statement II alone is sufficient. (a) 25% (b) 42 % (c) 18 % (d) 33 %
(c) Only Statement III alone is sufficient. 4 3 3
(d) Either statement I and II together or statement II and (e) None of tliese
III together are sufficient. DIRECTIONS (Qs. 74 -78): Read the following data carefully
(e) Statement I, II and III together are sufficient and answer the questions given below.
70. Find the ratio of alcohol and water in the new mixture if the
content of the two containers is mixed. The following pie chart shows the member of TCS in degree in
I. Two containers contain alcohol and water in the ratio 2021. Table shows the ratio of male and female in every
of 2 : 3 and 4 : 5 respectively. Both the mixtures are department.
mixed and formed a new mixture. Total member of TCS in 2021 = 720
II. Containers contain 10 L and 12 L alcohol respectively.
(a) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer TCS
the question, while the data in statement II alone is 5°
H.R.
not sufficient to answer the question. 50°
(b) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer Software
the question, while the data in statement I alone is 20°
not sufficient to answer the question. 200° Tech.
(c) Either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient
Marketing
to answer the question. 60°
(d) The data in both the statements I and II are not Product
sufficient to answer the questions. 25°
(e) The data in both the statement I and II together are QA
necessary to answer.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 71-73) : Read the data given in paragraph
Department of TCS Male : Female
carefully and answer the question. The paragraph given below
shows the information about a Dairy owner who has five vessels H. R. 2:03
P, Q, R, S and T out of which volume of P, Q and R is 30 liters Software 4:01
each and volume of vessels of S and T is 50 liters each. Tech. 3:07
Cost of pure milk is ` 40 per liter and the cost of water is 0. In Marketing 3:02
each vessel, dairy owner has a mixture of milk and water.
When the dairy owner sold the mixture from vessel P at ` 50 per Product 1:01
liter he earned a total profit of 50%. Quantity of water in vessel QA 3:07
2021-8 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2021

74. How many members should be added in H.R. department (c) x > y (d) x < y
to become the same number of product department? (e) x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be
(a) 20 (b) 25 (c) 30 (d) 15 established.
(e) None of these 84. A mobile shop owner marks up the cost price of an mobile
75. What is the percentage of the number of male in software phone by 50% and offers a discount of 20%. He asks the
department to the number of female in tech, department? customer to pay GST of 18% on the selling price. The
(a) 964.29% (b) 914.29% customer refuses to pay the tax due to which the shop
(c) 928.32% (d) 934.29% owner himself pays the GST. Find his profit or loss
(e) None of these percentage.
76. The number of QA members will be increased by 80% and
3 3
the number of marketing members will be decreased by (a) 2 % Profit (b) 1 % Loss
50% in 2022 but the ratio of male and female remains same 5 5
as 2021. Find the ratio of the number of males in QA 3
department and the number of females in marketing (c) 2 % Loss (d) No profit no loss
5
department in 2022.
(a) 3 : 5 (b) 9 : 4 3
(e) 1 % Profit
(c) 5 : 3 (d) 4 : 9 5
(e) None of these 85. Jay wants to cross a river and reach a point opposite to
77. Find the number of total males in all departments in TCS. where he is now on other side of river. He needs to travel
(a) 665 (b) 566 (c) 457 (d) 461 north but flow of river is in west direction. Jay’s boat speed
(e) None of these is 5 km/hr and stream speed is 4 km/hr. River is 15 km wide.
78. If every male earns ` 5000 pr day in tech, department, then Find the time to reach the point where he intends to reach
find the total income of males in tech, department for one if he walks at the speed of 2 km/hr after reaching shore on
month.(in lakh) the other side(in hour)
(a) 12.5 (b) 30 (c) 22.5 (d) 27.5 (a) 9 (b) 6
(e) None of these (c) 3 (d) 12
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 79-83): In the given question, two equations (e) None of these
numbered I and II are given. Solve both the equations and 86. The sum of the ages of 6 members of a family 4 years ago
mark the appropriate answer. was 112 years. Today, when the daughter has been married
off and replaced by a daughter-in-law, the sum of their
79. I. 3x2 – (2 + 15 11 )x + 10 11 = 0 ages is 98. Assuming that there has been no other change
II. 9y2 – (5 + 18 11 )y + 10 11 = 0 in the family structure and all the people are alive, what is
the difference in the age of the daughter and the daughter-
(a) x > y (b) x < y in-law?
(c) x > y (d) x < y (a) 30 years (b) 34 years
(e) x = y or relation between x and y cannot be (c) 27 years (d) 38 years
established.
(e) None of these
80. I. 9x2 – 45x + 50 = 0
87. Dev invested ` 50000 in gold forthe whole year. After
II. 12y2 – 35y + 25 = 0
5 months of Dev his sister joined him and at invested
(a) x > y (b) x < y
` 60000. Next year Dev invested `10000 more and his sister
(c) x > y (d) x < y
withdrew ` 5000 and at the end of two years profit earned
(e) x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be
by Dev is ` 42000. Find the total profit earned if they
established.
81. I. x2 + 43x + 406 = 0 distributed half of the total profit equally and rest in the
II. y2 + 46y + 513 = 0 capital ratio.
(a) x > y (b) x < y (a) ` 90,000 (b) ` 64,000
(c) y > x (d) y < x (c) ` 80,000 (d) ` 75,000
(e) x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be (e) None of these
established. 88. In a company, bottles are manufactured, out of which some
82. I. 4x2 – 20x + 16 = 0 are defected. Bottles are packed in a box. Three bottles are
II. 4y2 – 80y + 336 = 0 picked from box by inspector, if two of the bottles out of
(a) x > y (b) x < y three are perfect, box passes otherwise it fails. Find the
(c) x > y (d) x < y probability of box getting passed.
(e) x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be 1 1 1 2
determined. (a) (b) (c) (d)
4 2 3 3
83. I. 7x2 – 92x + 96 = 0
II. 9y2 – 128y + 143 = 0 (e) None of these
(a) x > y (b) x < y 89. Mohan is having two varieties of sugar. First variety of
sugar costing `25 per kg while second variety of sugar is
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2021 2021-9

` 32 per kg. Find how much quantity of 1st variety should DIRECTIONS (Qs. 96-100): Study the chart carefully and the
he added to 30 kg of 2nd variety such that the cost of the questions that follow.
mixture of both varieties be worth ` 27 per kg?
(a) 75 kg (b) 72 kg The pie charts show the distribution of the total number of
(c) 76 kg (d) 70 kg books sold by book store P,Q,R and S the distribution of Maths
(e) None of these book sold by book store P, Q, R and S respectively. Also, Total
90. A piece of work is completed by 3 boys and 4 girls in 7 books = Maths books + Physics books.
days. The same piece of work is completed by 5 boys and Number of Physics books sold by P = 110
3 girls in 6 days. Find the time taken by 1 boy and 2 girls to Number of Physics books sold by Q = 30
complete the 4 times of the same work? Total Books
(a) 58 days (b) 69 days
(c) 60 days (d) 66 days
(e) None of these (a+5)%
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 91- 95): Read the following table carefully 2a%
and answer the given questions :
a%
The following table shows No. of hours per day, No. of Days in
Total, No. of Days on leave, Income of three persons J, K and L. (a+20)%

No. of hours No. of working No. of Days

Income
per day Days on leave
P Q R S
J z 48 b –
Maths Books
K y x 7 –
L 8 a 14 –
b%
(a) Work has been done in May(31) and June(30), total 40%
days = 61 days
(b) Wages rate for per hour on a working day is ` 500 20%
(c) Wage rate for Non-working Day is `1500
(d) Assuming either the work is completed in a given (b+10)%
period of time or no work has been done i.e. on Idle
day.
91. Find the income earned by L. P Q R S
(a) 209000 (b) 220000
96. The total number of physics books sold by all book store
(c) 188000 (d) 216000
(e) None of these together is approximate how much percentage more or less
92. If the number of working hours per days for J is 6, find the than the total number of maths books sold by all the book
store together?
income of J (in `).
(a) 144000 (b) 163500 (a) 60% (b) 41.41%
(c) 154300 (d) 300000 (c) 50% (d) 11.33%
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
93. Find the number of working hours per day for J, If Income 97. Physics book sold by S is approximate what percent of
of J is ` 259500 . maths books sold by Q and S together?
(a) 16.67% (b) 8.67%
(a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 9
(e) None of these (c) 7.25% (d) 11.33%
94. If a new person is M, and his working days are equal to (e) None of these
98. What is the ratio of Maths books sold by book store R to
leave days of L and working hours are 4 more than working
hours of L, then find the Income of M(in `). the total books sold by S?
(a) 254500 (b) 203000 (a) 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 2
(c) 3 : 2 (d) 2 : 1
(c) 153000 (d) 154500
(e) None of these (e) None of these
95. For K, If the sum of values of x and y is equal to 60, then 99. If P sold (x + 15) Maths books and Q sold (y – 25) maths
books, then what the ratio of x : y?
Find the Income of K (in `).
(a) 259500 (b) 172500 (a) 29 : 15 (b) 16 : 31
(c) 154500 (d) 216500 (c) 31 : 16 (d) 15 : 29
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
2021-10 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2021

100. Total books sold by P and Q together is how much If a list of eminent institutions in the country is at all needed, the
percentage more than the physics books sold by R? absence of the Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU) from the first
(a) 48% (b) 72% (c) 50% (d) 60% list of IoEs is striking. Its faculty has brought many of the world's
(e) None of these leading ideas to Indian students and in at least area came close
to building a new school of thought, however controversial. It
English Language is not as if similar efforts in the social sciences have not occurred
elsewhere in India but JNU has perhaps sustained its reputation
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 101-107): Read the passage and answer as a university for longer. It already had schools of Computer
the questions that follow: Science and the Life Sciences over four decades ago when these
were fledging disciplines giving it a certain breadth early on.
The government has announced a list of 'Institutes of Eminence'
Even as we may wonder at the exclusion of JNU from the list of
(IoE) among India's institutions of higher education. This was
IoEs released by the government one might wonder at how the
awaited for the simple reason that finding a place on it would
private institutions that are on it made the cut. While BITS Pilani
save an educational institution from the clutches of a dreaded
may have made a significant contribution to the country at a
regulator. Regulators are meant to ensure that we have a socially
time when it desperately needed engineers, but is yet not what
desirable outcome, but in the case of higher education in India
may be considered a university, the presence of the two others
the opposite seems to have been the case. The University Grants
on the list leave one nonplussed. One of them, we are told, has
Commission (UGC) has over half a century micro-managed this
been conferred the status on grounds of its promise, a dubious
space to an unimaginable level of silliness. The result has been
position to take as this institute has little to show except for the
publicly-funded universities that are cavernous wastes,
financial heft that will surely undergird it. The other is known
shattering the aspirations of our youth and producing low-level
largely for its association with the practice of charging capitation
'knowledge'. Evidence of the role of India's higher-education
fees for education.
regulator may be seen in the feature that the few instances when
101. As per your understanding of the passage studied above,
this is not the case the institutions have enjoyed privilege that
what can be some reasons for lack of quality in higher
leaves them protected from its depredations.
education?
The latest offering is in the form of a proposed Higher Education I. State universities recruited a lot of faculty members
Commission of India (HECI). The intention is to leave the HECI on contract basis who have little incentive to perform.
to focus on quality while leaving funding of public institutions II. Public universities are insulated from political pressure.
to the Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD). Even III. The amount spent on research is very less as compared
as we observe the progress of the HECI and wonder if it is going to foreign Institutions.
to be any more than old wine in a new bottle, we have already (a) Only I (b) Only II
have an inkling of what could go wrong. This springs from the (c) Only I and III (d) Only II and III
government's announcement of a list of IoEs. The government (e) All of the above
has chosen three public and three private institutions for this 102. Which of the following is/are true as per the passage?
status. The public institutions are the Indian Institute of Science, I. Among countries with a comparable research output,
Bengaluru, and the Indian Institutes of Technology at Delhi and India with 0.8% R&D spending trails Russia, Brazil,
Mumbai. The private ones are the Birla Institute of Technology South Korea and even Singapore, according to Unesco
and Science Pilani, the JIO Institute and the Manipal Academy data.
of Higher Education. This list suffers from a serious lack of II. HECI would focus on funding while quality would be
credibility. Where in it are the universities of India? We regulated by the Ministry of Human Resource
understand that the government's aim is to rectify the low Development.
presence of Indian institutions in the global rankings of III. The Institution of Eminence (IoE) status has been
universities. given to six institutes, three each from the public and
While the early European universities may have started as private sectors.
academies of the arts they were soon to have medicine and (a) Only I (b) Only III
astronomy as areas that they pursued with vigour. Somewhere (c) Only I and II (d) Only II and III
along the line we seem to have lost this breadth and come to (e) None of the above
revel in a landscape dominated by engineering schools. These 103. Which of the following best describes the tone of the
engineering schools, notably the IITs, have done us proud but author in paragraph 1?
cannot be equated with the great universities of the world for (a) Euphoric (b) Castigating
the simple reason that they are focussed on a narrow domain. (c) Deploring (d) Lamenting
Also, if the idea behind IoEs is that they will be left alone and (e) None of the above
given enhanced financial support, it must be acknowledged that 104. What could be a/some result/s of the function of funding
until very recently the IITs have not been meddled with neither of public institutions being left to the Ministry of Human
have they been starved of resources. The IISc is of course Resource Development instead of HECI?
broader than the IITs but does not embrace the social sciences I. The government may use its discretion to reward
and the humanities, the presence of which would be considered institutions according to its ideological predilections.
necessary for an university.
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2021 2021-11

II. The Institutions may be forced to comply with even over 2012, and confirming an upward trend over the past years.
some dubious rules setup by the government. In 2008, our global plastic consumption worldwide has been
III. The government can be made accountable for attaining estimated at 260 million tons, and, according to a 2012 report by
excellence in education. Global Industry Analysts, plastic consumption is to reach 297.5
(a) Only II (b) Only I and II million tons by the end of 2015.
(c) Only II and III (d) Only I and III Plastic is versatile, lightweight, flexible, moisture resistant, strong,
(e) All of the above and relatively inexpensive. Those are the attractive qualities
105. Which of the following may be inferred from paragraph 3? that lead us, around the world, to such a voracious appetite and
I. Universities should embody knowledge across a wide over-consumption of plastic goods. However, durable and very
range of disciplines. slow to degrade, plastic materials that are used in the production
II. There is an emphasis on a depth of knowledge across of so many products all, ultimately, become waste with staying
a broad horizon in Indian Universities today. power. Our tremendous attraction to plastic, coupled with an
III. In India, a lot of focus is given to Institutions which undeniable behavioural propensity of increasingly over-
are focused on only few areas. consuming, discarding, littering and thus polluting, has become
(a) Only I (b) Only III a combination of lethal nature.
(c) Only II and III (d) Only I and III A simple walk on any beach, anywhere, and the plastic waste
(e) All of the above spectacle is present. All over the world, the statistics are ever
106. Which of the following may strengthen the argument for growing, staggeringly. Tons of plastic debris (which by definition
putting the Jawaharlal Nehru University in the list of IoEs? are waste that can vary in size from large containers, fishing
I. If there is an Indian institution that engages as an nets to microscopic plastic pellets or even particles) is discarded
equal in the global commons it is JNU. every year, everywhere, polluting lands, rivers, coasts, beaches,
II. Research from JNU has adapted and contested ideas and oceans.
floating in the global pool of knowledge ranging from Published in the journal Science in February 2015, a study
history to economics. conducted by a scientific working group at UC Santa Barbara's
III. If the criterion of engagement with the global field of National Center for Ecological Analysis and Synthesis (NCEAS),
quantified the input of plastic waste from land into the ocean.
ideas is accepted JNU would count as one among
The results: every year, 8 million metric tons of plastic end up in
India's eminent educational institutions.
our oceans. It's equivalent to five grocery bags filled with plastic
(a) Only I (b) Only III
for every foot of coastline in the world. In 2025, the annual input
(c) Only I and II (d) Only II and III
is estimated to be about twice greater, or 10 bags full of plastic
(e) All of the above
per foot of coastline. So the cumulative input for 2025 would be
107. What best describes the central idea of the passage?
nearly 20 times the 8 million metric tons estimate - 100 bags of
(a) The government's approach to higher education
plastic per foot of coastline in the world!
reflects a short-sightedness due to the social sciences 108. As per the passage, which of the following statements are
and the humanities being ignored. true?
(b) The IoE list is a good start and can be modified going 1. Most of the plastic present in the ocean today has
forward by adding more institutions that focus on originated from the land.
some disciplines. 2. In recent years, the production of plastics has
(c) Eminence is not usually understood in terms of money declined.
but certain exceptions can be made. 3. Plastic pollution is present on almost every beach.
(d) Two previous governments have in the past decade (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
tried to revamp the regulatory environment for higher (c) Only 1 and 3 (d) All 1, 2 and 3
education. (e) None of 1, 2 and 3
(e) None of the above 109. Which of the following is not the quality of plastic?
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 108-115): Read the passage carefully and (a) Cheap (b) Moisture Resistant
answer the questions given beside. (c) Brittle (d) Lightweight
(e) Flexible.
The world population is living, working, vacationing, 110. Which of the following statements are false according to
increasingly conglomerating along the coasts, and standing on the passage?
the front row of the greatest, most unprecedented, plastic waste 1. There is a 4 percent increase in the production of
tide ever faced. plastics in 2013, over 2012.
Washed out on our coasts in obvious and clearly visible form, 2. The production of plastics in 2012 is approximately
the plastic pollution spectacle blatantly unveiling on our beaches 299 million tons.
is only the prelude of the greater story that unfolded further 3. According to the Global Industry Experts, plastic
away in the world's oceans, yet mostly originating from where consumption is to reach 297.5 million tons by the end
we stand: the land. of 2015.
For more than 50 years, global production and consumption of (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
plastics have continued to rise. An estimated 299 million tons of (c) Only 2 and 3 (d) Only 1 and 2
plastics were produced in 2013, representing a 4 percent increase (e) Only 3
2021-12 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2021

111. Which organisation has quantified the input of plastic 118. Public expenditure that produces public assets has a higher
waste from land into the ocean? As mentioned in the and more continuous growth multiplier set to the public
passage. consumption expenditure multiplier because it maintains
(a) UC Santa Barbara's National Center for Ecological demand and also reduces costs.
Analysis and Synthesis (a) building, laidback, comparison
(b) Global Industry Analysts (b) creates, persistent, compared
(c) Kano State Environmental Planning and Protection (c) furnishing, broken, correlation
Agency (d) Consume, eternal, distinguished
(d) Foundation for Environmental Education (e) No replacement required
(e) None of the above given options 119. While it is acknowledged that Electric Vehicles contribute
112. According to the author, What can be the reason behind to improving urban air quality, the government policy
the plastic pollution. should take into account the life-cycle impact of the
1. Plastic is cheaply available and that lead to the product and be agnostic to the underlying technology.
overconsumption. (a) Ascertained, indifferent, overtures
2. Plastic does not degrade easily thus it ended up being (b) Debated, enchanted, built
a pollutant. (c) Developed, believer, patented
3. There is no policy to curb plastic pollution. (d) Supported, atheist, seeming
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (e) No replacement required
(c) Only 3 (d) Only 1 and 2 120. The blasts in emerging markets is hardly surprising as the
(e) All 1, 2 and 3 tightening of monetary policy in the U.S. Federal Reserve has
113. Which of the following word is the synonym of the given conventional caused the turning of the global credit cycle.
word? (a) complacency, for, typically
Propensity (b) chaos, of, newly
(a) Tendency (b) Dislike (c) turbulence, by, traditionally
(c) Inadequate (d) Antipathy (d) roil, with, always
(e) None of the above. (e) No improvement required
114. Which of the following word is the synonym of the given
word DIRECTIONS (Qs. 121-125): Answer the following questions
Staggeringly after rearranging thefollowing sentences into a coherent
(a) Predictable (b) Startling paragraph andidentify the sentence that doesn't fit into the
(c) Ordinary (d) Unremarkable context ofthe paragraph.
(e) Unexceptional (A) What is apparent from this paper is that the NHA sees the
115. Which of the following word is the antonym of the given nascent state of digitization of our healthcare system as
word? an opportunity to learn from the experiences of other
Prelude countries that are much further down this road.
(a) Preface (b) Prologue (B) The National Digital Health Mission recently released a
(c) Conclusion (d) Preamble Strategy Overview document that laid out, in broad strokes,
(e) None of the above the National Health Authority's plan to build India into a
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 116-120): A sentence is given below with Digital Health Nation.
three words highlighted in bold. Select the option that gives (C) At the outset, it is good to see that the NHA has decided
the correct set of words. In case the sentence is correct, select to adapt and extend India's novel data portability
'No replacement required'. architecture to facilitate transfers across the digital health
ecosystem.
116. While stressing the role of investment in restored the (D) While this allows us to avoid the mistakes that other
economy the Economic Survey also states that the twin countries have made, the sheer scale of what the document
balance sheet issue has to be undertake on an urgent basis. attempts to deliver seems too vast for what is possible for
(a) Highlighting, slowing, tackled us to achieve.
(b) emphasizing, stimulating, addressed (E) Care delivery systems looking to make meaningful impact
(c) shouting, excited, focused through data face a number of challenges, the most critical
(d) Assuaging, invigorating, overlooked one is collecting data from various sources
(e) No replacement required (F) However, the technological scaffolding on which this
117. The concept of financial inclusion, special in developing portability will be implemented is contained in the Data
markets, has always met with challenges relating to Empowerment and Protection Architecture, a framework
accessibility and affordability. that is already being used for the sharing of financial
(a) Inspired, commonly, connect
information through the central bank's account aggregator
(b) Thought, peculiar, belonging
framework.
(c) Idea, particularly, pertaining
(G) The regulatory basis for India's unique brand of data portability
(d) Notion, heed, relevant
is set out in the draft Personal Data Protection Bill.
(e) No replacement required
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2021 2021-13

121. Considering statement (B) as the first sentence of the 126. Mr. Tharoor's urban manners charm friends and enemies alike.
rearranged paragraph, which of the following statement (a) urban manners charming friends
should be last sentence after the rearrangement? (b) urbane manners charming friends
(excluding the incoherent sentence) (c) urban mannerisms charm friends
(a) A (b) E (c) B (d) F (d) urbane manners charm friends
(e) D (e) No correction required
122. Considering statement (B) as the first sentence of the 127. Religious bigots look away on anyone who does not
rearranged paragraph, which of the following statement conform to their beliefs.
should be FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement? (a) bigots look away on
(excluding the incoherent sentence) (b) bigots look down on
(a) A (b) D (c) B (d) G (c) bigots look behind on
(e) C (d) bigots look in front of
123. Considering statement (B) as the first sentence of the (e) No correction required
rearranged paragraph, then which one among the following 128. Having leisure till outdoor activities such as taking a stroll
will be the PENULTIMATE sentence? down the park has become a rarity in this fast-paced life.
(A) What is apparent from this paper is that the NHA sees the (a) Having leisures till outdoor
nascent state of digitization of our healthcare system as (b) Having laziness for outdoor
an opportunity to learn from the experiences of other (c) Having leisure in outdoor
countries that are much further down this road. (d) Having leisure for outdoor
(B) However, the technological scaffolding on which this (e) No correction required
portability will be implemented is contained in the Data 129. The Punjab National Bank fraud demonstrates the extent
Empowerment and Protection Architecture, a framework of operational and risk management failures in PSBs.
that is already being used for the sharing of financial (a) demonstrateing the extent of
information through the central bank's account aggregator (b) demonstrates the extent in
framework. (c) demonstrates the extent with
(C) The regulatory basis for India's unique brand of data (d) demonstrates the extention of
portability is set out in the draft Personal Data Protection (e) No correction required
Bill.
(D) Either (a) or (c) DIRECTIONS (Qs. 130-133): Replace the words if needed
(E) None of the above andchoose option 5 if no replacement is required.
124. Considering statement (B) as the first sentence of the 130. Under the affluence of the anticipated cyclone, light to
rearranged paragraph, then which among the following moderate rain is likely to commend over Kerala at a few
fails to become the part of the coherent paragraph? places on Sunday.
(a) A (b) B (c) D (d) F I. Affluence - influence
(e) E II. Anticipated - antecedent
125. Choose the most logical order of sentences among the given III. Commend - Commence
choices to construct a coherent paragraph. (a) Only (II) (b) Both (I) and (II)
(A) The Reserve Bank of India did not extend the moratorium (c) Both (I) and (III) (d) Only (III)
in its monetary policy review on Thursday. (e) None of these
(B) It allowed banks to restructure the loans of borrowers who 131. While Karthik is interested in pondering engineering, he is
are in financial difficulty and are unable to repay them. also infused about the pure sciences which shows that he
(C) This means that the lenders won't report the borrower as a has varied interests.
defaulter to credit bureaus if the borrower follows the new I. Pondering - pursuing
payment structure. II. Infused - enthused
(D) In his speech, RBI governor said, "The disruptions caused III. Varied - dissimilar
by COVID-19 have led to heightened financial stress for (a) Both (I) and (II) (b) Both (I) and (III)
borrowers across the board. (c) (I), (II) and (III) (d) Only (I)
(E) Once restructured, such loans would be considered as (e) None of these
standard. 132. With nearly 10 million people construed to die annually
(a) ABCDE (b) ACBDE from resistant infections by 2050, health-care costs and
(c) ABECD (d) ACDBE the cost of food production will spike, while income
(e) ABDCE inequality will lengthen.
I. Construed - Analysed
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 126-129): In each question, a part of the II. Spike - snap
sentence is made bold. Below are given alternatives to the III. Lengthen - widen
bold part at (A), (B), (C) and (D) which may improve the (a) Only (III) (b) Only (I)
sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no (c) Both (I) and (III) (d) Both (I) and (II)
replacement is needed, mark (E) as your answer. (e) None of these
2021-14 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2021

133. The positive April GST numbers have come as a surprise 138. An experienced set of economic policymakers is leading
to many experts, given the lacklustre economic activity the country back into the pre-1991 era; they may have a
witnessed across many sectors in recent months, which long reign in which to ruin the economy, The economy
should normally have impacted tax collections adversely. has collapsed under their stewardsship; they have no idea
I. Surprise - Panache how to revive it But Ahluwalia is not one to give up; he
II. Lacklustre - sheen has written an epilogue of advice on how to rescue it.
III. Adversely - evasively (a) Experienced (b) Reign
(a) Both (II) and (III) (b) Both (I) and (III) (c) Stewardsship (d) Epilogue
(c) Both (I) and (II) (d) (I) , (II) and (III) (e) All are correct
(e) None of these 139. Over the months, Indian Davy personnel train the eight
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 134-137) : In the question below, a sentence submariners and other Bangla volunteers to become
is given with two blanks, that indicate that someparts are underwater saboteours. By mid-August, these trainees
missing. Identify the correct pair of words that fit in the sentence infilterate East Pakistan from Meghalaya,Assam, Tripura
to make it grammaticallyand contextually correct. and West Bengal to launch attacks against Pakistani
shipping and dock facilities.
134. Being near running water and good shade, the explorers (a) Personnel (b) Volunteers
_________ it was a good _________ for setting up camp. (c) Saboteours (d) Infilterate
1. Aimed, place (e) Both (c) and (d)
2. Decided, locale 140. From August till end-November, when hostilities ramp up
3. Concluded, location into proper war, the naval comandos of the Mukti Bahini
(a) Only 3 (b) Only 1 and 2 inflict serious damage to Pakistani shipping, impeding
(c) Only 1 and 3 (d) Only 2 and 3 everything from international shipping and water-based
(e) All 1, 2 and 3 supply routes to troop movement across the vast riverine
135. The Indian government has ______ a broader strategy terrain.
that is specifically _______ on increasing foreign (a) Hostilities (b) Comandos
investment. (c) Riverine (d) Both A and B
1. launched, focused (e) Both B and C
General/Financial Awareness
2. formulated, centred
3. established, targeted
(a) Only 3 (b) Only 1 and 2
141. What is the name of the proposed budget airline funded
(c) Only 1 and 3 (d) Only 2 and 3
by Rakesh Jhunjhunwala?
(e) All 1, 2 and 3
(a) Ektara Airline (b) Akanksha Airline
136. Technological changes have ______ new job positions
and also led to an increase in the _____ for new skills. (c) Akasa Airline (d) Velvet Airlines
1. produced, requirement (e) None of the above
2. catered, descent 142. Pan India 'SUPACE' project is monitored and funded by
3. created, demand which ministry that was launched by the chief justice of
(a) Only 3 (b) Only 1 and 2 India, S A Bobde?
(c) Only 1 and 3 (d) Only 2 and 3 (a) Ministry of Law and Justice
(e) All 1, 2 and 3 (b) Ministry of Science and Technology
137. India's _______ as an education hub is the result of both (c) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
economic changes and ______ efforts. (d) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
1. Advent, significant (e) None of the above
2. Rise, remarkable 143. According to the All India Survey on Higher Education
3. Emergence, adequate (AISHE) 2019-20 report, what is Gross Enrolment Ratio
(a) Only 3 (b) Only 1 and 2 (GER) in higher education in India?
(c) Only 1 and 3 (d) Only 2 and 3 (a) 22.1 per cent (b) 25.7 per cent
(e) All 1, 2 and 3 (c) 26.5 per cent (d) 27.1 per cent
(e) 28.3 per cent
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 138-140): In each question below, four 144. Who stepped down as Managing Director (MD) of HCL
words printed in bold type are given. These are numbered (A), Technologies Ltd?
(B), (C) and (D). One of these words printed in bold might be (a) Roshni Nadar (b) C Vijayakumar
either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the (c) Shiv Nadar (d) Vineet Nayar
sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly (e) Anant Gupta
spelt, if any. The number of the word is your answer. If the 145. What does 'P' stand for in the TOP scheme?
words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in (a) Palm Oil (b) Preservative
the context of the sentence then mark (E), i.e. 'All Correct', as (c) Post (d) Potato
your answer. (e) Promotion
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2021 2021-15

146. CREDAI is an apex body of which industry/ sector? (a) 2014 (b) 2015 (c) 2013 (d) 2012
(a) Tourism (b) Real estate (e) 2016
(c) Information Technology(d) Hospitality 158. Who is the current Chief Economic Advisor to the
(e) None of the above Government of India?
147. Which bank has signed an agreement with Ola Electric for (a) Arvind Subramanian (b) Surjeet Bhalla
the largest long-term debt financing in the Indian EV (c) K Subramanian (d) Amitabh Ghosh
industry? (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
(a) Bank of India (b) Bank of Baroda 159. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has decided to levy
(c) Punjab National Bank (d) Bank of Maharashtra monetary charges of what amount on ATMs that run out
(e) Canara Bank of cash, starting 1 October, 2021?
148. N Rangaswamy from All India NR Congress took oath as (a) Rs 2000 (b) Rs 5000
chief minister of Puducherry for the _______. (c) Rs 10000 (d) Rs 15000
(a) first time (b) second time (e) Rs 20000
(c) third time (d) fourth time 160. Which state will continue to sponsor Indian men's and
(e) None of the above women's national hockey teams for another 10 years, after
149. The government's stake in ITC Limited which is worth the current sponsorship ends in 2023?
about Rs 20,250cr currently _____ (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Haryana
(a) 6.43% (b) 7.93% (c) Punjab (d) Odisha
(c) 8.33% (d) 10 .43% (e) Karnataka
(e) 15.53% 161. World Red Cross And Red Crescent Day observed annually
150. Which state has received a maximum Rural Infrastructure on____.
(a) 8th May (b) 9th May
Development Fund (RIDF) in the last three years?
(c) 7th May (d) 6 th May
(a) Haryana (b) Tamil Nadu
(e) 5th May
(c) Odisha (d) Assam
162. What is the revised overdraft limit under Pradhan Mantri
(e) Rajasthan
Jan Dhan Yojana?
151. World's highest motorable road was inaugurated in Umling
(a) Rs 5,000 (b) Rs 20,000
La in Eastern Ladakh at a height of ______, which (c) Rs 10,000 (d) Rs 2,000
connects Leh to the Pangong Lake. (e) Rs 1,000
(a) 19,300 feet (b) 20,200 feet 163. Who has been selected for the Nobel Peace Prize, 2020?
(c) 18,600 feet (d) 17,700 feet (a) European Union (b) World Food Programme
(e) 16.700 feet (c) Robert B Wilson (d) Paul R. Milgrom
152. What is the full form of DEAF? (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
(a) Depositor Education Awareness Fund 164. Which Bank has launched a digital and contactless banking
(b) Defence Education Awareness Fund platform, especially for retail merchants named as 'Merchant
(c) Development Education Awareness Fund Stack'?
(d) Developers Education Awareness Fund (a) HDFC Bank (b) Yes Bank
(e) None of the above (c) ICICI Bank (d) IndusInd Bank
153. Which one is not a Fast-Moving Consumer Goods (e) Axis Bank
(FMCGs) company? 165. What is the rank of India in global hunger index 2020?
(a) Hindustan Unilever Ltd (b) Zomato (a) 107th (b) 110th (c) 95th (d) 94th
(c) ITC Ltd (d) Nestle India Ltd (e) None of the above/more than one of the above
(e) Dabur India Ltd 166. With which organisation, Intel has collaborated to launch
154. What does 'P' stand for in TOP Scheme launched by the 'AI For All' initiative?
Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports? (a) AICTE (b) NITI Aayog
(a) Podium (b) Para (c) CBSE (d) UGC
(c) Performance (d) Pension (e) None of these
(e) None of the above 167. Which two Indian organisations have won the UNDP
155. Indian Ace Badminton player PV Sindhu won two Olympic Equator Prize 2021?
medals in individual events, who also achieved the same (a) Paramount Limited and Doshion Limited
feat? (b) Aadhimalai Pazhangudiyinar Producer Company
(a) Abhinav Bindra (b) Sushil Kumar Limited and Snehakunja Trust
(c) MC Mary Kom (d) Deepika Kumari (c) ASM Company and Enviro Engineer Pvt Ltd.
(e) Geeta Phogat (d) Excel Enviro Services and GreenTek Indika
156. The Hemis National Park is located in which state/UTs of India? (e) None of these
(a) Ladakh (b) Haryana 168. Which country will host the inaugural International Hockey
(c) Jammu and Kashmir (d) Madhya Pradesh Federation (FIH) Hockey5s World Cup?
(e) None of these (a) Indonesia (b) South Korea
157. In which year Kailash Satyarthi was awarded the Nobel (c) Oman (d) UAE
Peace Prize? (e) Japan
2021-16 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2021

169. Which fertilizer manufacturing company has introduced 180. Which institution released the "Tracking Universal
the world's first Nano Urea Liquid for farmers? Coverage - 2021 Global Monitoring Report"?
(a) Brahmaputra Valley Fertilizer Corporation Ltd (a) WTO (b) WHO (c) FAO (d) WEF
(b) Chambal Fertilisers and Chemicals Ltd. (e) None of the above
(c) Hindalco Industries Ltd. 181 "bob World Wave", launched by Bank of Baroda (BoB) is
(d) Greenstar Fertilizers Ltd a …………..
(e) Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Ltd (a) Global Debit Card (b) Wearable Device
170. What is the motto of the 2020 Tokyo Olympics? (c) AI Chatbot (d) Investment Platform
(a) Come Share (e) None of the above
(b) "Faster, Higher, Stronger - Together". 182. Which country is set to host the first tribal nations' summit
(c) Inspire a Generation since 2016?
(d) Connected by Emotion (a) India (b) USA (c) Japan (d) Russia
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above (e) None of the above
171. Along with Jio Platform which company have figured in Time 183. Which state has approved 'Kaiser-i-Hind' as the State
Magazine's first-ever list of 100 Most Influential Companies? butterfly?
(a) Byju's (b) Swiggy (a) Assam (b) Sikkim
(c) Big Basket (d) ReNew Power (c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Odisha
(e) One97 (e) None of the above
172. What is India's rank in the 'Climate Change Performance 184. India signed a MoU with which country to exchange
Index (CCPI) 2021'? information in the field of public sector audit?
(a) 6th (b) 7th (c) 8th (d) 9th (a) Sri Lanka (b) Switzerland
(e) 10th (c) Maldives (d) Cayman Islands
173. India was elected to the Economic and Social Council (e) None of the above
(ECOSOC), one of the 6 main organs of the United Nations, 185. Which global bloc has entered into an agreement cross-
for the- ______term. border data use and digital trade?
(a) 2021-22 (b) 2022-25 (a) G-20 (b) G-7 (c) ASEAN (d) BRICS
(c) 2025-28 (d) 2022-24 (e) ASEM
(e) 2022-26 186. Which organization releases the All-India Consumer Price
174. SBI has launched NETC- SBI FASTag. What does N stands Index?
for in NETC? (a) NITI Aayog
(a) Network (b) National (b) National Statistical Office
(c) Numbered (d) Nominal (c) Centre for Agriculture costs and prices
(e) None of the above (d) Ministry of Finance
175. Pandit Jasraj was associated with which field? (e) None of the above
(a) Literature (b) Vocal Music 187. A working group of IRDAI has proposed to reintroduce
(c) Kathak (d) Painting ILIP. What is its expansion?
(e) None of the above (a) Interest- linked Insurance Policy
176. Which country has agreed to cooperate with the European (b) Inflation- linked Insurance Policy
Union on Energy Security? (c) Index- linked Insurance Policy
(a) USA (b) Australia (d) Investment- linked Insurance Policy
(c) India (d) Japan (e) None of the above
(e) China 188. Which Union Ministry announces the Index of Industrial
177. Where is Indravati Tiger Reserve located? Production (IIP)?
(a) Karnataka (b) Chhattisgarh (a) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
(c) Bihar (d) West Bengal (b) Ministry of Finance
(e) Madhya Pradesh (c) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
178. What is the name of the Indian Navy's indigenous stealth (d) Ministry of Heavy Industries
destroyer, whose maiden sea trials was conducted (e) None of the above
recently? 189. What per cent of India's exports is contributed by MSMEs,
(a) Mormugao (b) Kalinga approximately?
(c) Ashoka (d) Kalvari (a) 30 (b) 40 (c) 50 (d) 60
(e) Vikrant (e) 70
179. Which organisation released the 'State of the world's land 190. Shavkat Mirziyoyev has been re-elected as the President
and water resources for food and agriculture (SOLAW of which country?
2021) report? (a) Afghanistan (b) Uzbekistan
(a) IMF (b) FAO (c) World Bank (d) WEF (c) Syria (d) Maldives
(e) None of the above (e) Mauritius
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2021 2021-17

ANSWER KEY
1 (b) 21 (a) 41 (b) 61 (c) 81 (e) 101 (c) 121 (d) 141 (c) 161 (a) 181 (b)
2 (a) 22 (d) 42 (c) 62 (a) 82 (b) 102 (b) 122 (e) 142 (a) 162 (c) 182 (b)
3 (e) 23 (b) 43 (c) 63 (b) 83 (e) 103 (c) 123 (c) 143 (d) 163 (b) 183 (c)
4 (c) 24 (c) 44 (e) 64 (d) 84 (b) 104 (b) 124 (e) 144 (c) 164 (c) 184 (c)
5 (d) 25 (d) 45 (c) 65 (b) 85 (a) 105 (d) 125 (c) 145 (d) 165 (d) 185 (b)
6 (e) 26 (b) 46 (c) 66 (a) 86 (d) 106 (e) 126 (d) 146 (b) 166 (c) 186 (b)
7 (d) 27 (b) 47 (b) 67 (c) 87 (c) 107 (a) 127 (b) 147 (b) 167 (b) 187 (c)
8 (c) 28 (b) 48 (d) 68 (d) 88 (b) 108 (c) 128 (d) 148 (d) 168 (c) 188 (a)
9 (c) 29 (a) 49 (d) 69 (a) 89 (a) 109 (c) 129 (e) 149 (b) 169 (e) 189 (b)
10 (b) 30 (d) 50 (c) 70 (a) 90 (d) 110 (c) 130 (d) 150 (c) 170 (b) 190 (b)
11 (e) 31 (e) 51 (d) 71 (c) 91 (a) 111 (a) 131 (a) 151 (a) 171 (a)
12 (b) 32 (a) 52 (c) 72 (b) 92 (b) 112 (d) 132 (a) 152 (a) 172 (e)
13 (b) 33 (c) 53 (b) 73 (d) 93 (c) 113 (a) 133 (e) 153 (b) 173 (d)
14 (c) 34 (c) 54 (e) 74 (c) 94 (d) 114 (b) 134 (d) 154 (a) 174 (b)
15 (a) 35 (e) 55 (d) 75 (b) 95 (d) 115 (c) 135 (b) 155 (b) 175 (b)
16 (d) 36 (e) 56 (c) 76 (b) 96 (e) 116 (b) 136 (c) 156 (a) 176 (a)
17 (e) 37 (c) 57 (d) 77 (d) 97 (a) 117 (c) 137 (d) 157 (a) 177 (b)
18 (a) 38 (c) 58 (b) 78 (c) 98 (b) 118 (b) 138 (c) 158 (c) 178 (a)
19 (d) 39 (c) 59 (d) 79 (e) 99 (d) 119 (e) 139 (e) 159 (c) 179 (b)
20 (c) 40 (c) 60 (e) 80 (c) 100 (e) 120 (c) 140 (b) 160 (d) 180 (b)

ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS

Sol. (1-5) : In step II, the 3rd lowest number among all is first increased by
R 1 and is placed at the extreme left end of step II and so is the case
T Y with the 4th lowest number.
And the same process continues till we get the numnbers
Q S arranged in similar way.
Input: 88 59 28 94 37 75 15 64 71 48
U V Step I: 16 88 59 94 37 75 64 71 48 29
Step II: 38 16 88 59 94 75 64 71 29 49
W X Step III: 60 38 16 88 94 75 71 29 49 65
Z
Step IV: 72 60 38 16 88 94 29 49 65 76
1. (b) Three persons sit between X and R, when couted from
Step V: 89 72 60 38 16 29 49 65 76 95
right of X.
6. (e) More than four.
2. (a) U sits fourth left of V.
3. (e) Q sits near of U and T. 7. (d) 49 is 7th from left end in step 5.
4. (c) Six persons sit between W and T, when counted to 8. (c) The position of ‘88’ from right end is sixth in 2nd last step.
the right of W. 9. (c) Two numbers are there between 72 and 16 in step 5.
5. (d) T sits third right of S. 10. (b) ‘38’ is 5th to left of ‘49’ in step 4.
Sol. (6 - 10) 11. (e) All follow.
Logic:- In every step, two numbers are changing their positions.
In input, lowest number is 15, and is added by 1 and getting Jeans
Small Shirt
paced at extreme left end. Similarly, the second lowest number, Rectangle
which is 28 is also getting increased by 1 and is getting placed at Cloth
extreme right end of the input to give us step I.
2021-18 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2021

12. (b) Only I follows. 19. (d) Point N is in northarst of K.

20. (c) Distance between point K and U is 18m.
21. (a) Shortest distance between (Y, S) = 4m
Redmi Lava Iron Samsung Nokia
Shortest distance between (P, W) = 42 32
13. (b) Only conclusion I is true. = 16 9 25 = 5 m
The sum of shortest distance between line (Y, S)
Flower Roses and line (P, W) is (4 + 5) m = 9 m.
Food 22. (d) Point S is in southwest of point O.
Honey 23. (b) Difference of shortest distance between (S, P) and (O,
P) = (15 – 7) m = 8 m.
Sweet 24. (c) Only Option (c) satisfies the condition for selecting
Admin Executive in an organization.
14. (c) Only II and III follow. 25. (d) Only I and III follow
For students to get admission, there should be a
sufficient number of colleges.
Biscuit A decrease in number of schools will not solve the
Bread Parties Jam problem. Vocational courses need to be conducted by
the schools for the students who can prepare to get
Cakes employed after completing school education.
26. (b) Only II follows
15. (a) Only III conclusion is true. Imposing a limit on the manufacturing of vehicles
As, per the given statement, we have; across the country is not a immediate and valuable
N > W < Q; U < P = G; G > Q > K; W > C; D < U solution to the problem of air pollution.
(i) U @ W (False) (ii) Q # D (False) Inspite of imposition, Awareness programs should be
(iii) N × C (False) conducted and people should be encouraged to pool
16. (d) Only II conclusion is true. vehicles.
As, per the given Statements, we have; 27. (b) Only conclusion II follows.
N W Q; U < P = G; G Q > K; W > C; D U - It is not evident from the fact that the population of
developing countries will not continue to increase in
(i) Q @ D (False) (ii) K & P (True)
future it may or not increase.
(iii) C @ Q (True)
- With increasing population and deputing resources,
17. (e) None of the above conclusion is true. it will be definitely difficult for the government of
As, per the given statements, we have; developing countries to provide its people decent
N W Q; U < P = G; G Q > K; W > C; D U quality of life.
(i) D N (False) (ii) P @ N (False) 28. (b) Only II follows.
(iii) C $ K (False) - Keeping in mind, the unhealthy impact of plants at
18. (a) Only conclusion I isTrue. night, we should grow in outer spaces like windows
As, per the given statements, we have; or balconies, It can be grown at home, but outside the
N W Q; U < P = G; G Q > K; W > C; D U room.
(i) P W (True) (ii) D @ G (False) 29. (a) Argument I alone is True.
(iii) K # U (False) The usage of mobile phones by students in schools
will divert the minds of students and will become an
Sol. (19 - 23)
unproductive gadget under those age group students.
4m N The use of mobile phones is not directly related with
O
state travel and communication to parents. It can be
15 m done without mobile phones also.
Y 4m K 30. (d) Both I and II are strong.
18 m Clearly, cigaette should be banned. Because, it is
4m injurious to health, which causes cancer.
Also, Banning Cigarettes would surely render jobless
S 7m P the large number of workers involved in
manufacturing it.
18 m
W 31. (e) There are 14 letters between A and P.
3rd letter from right end of 2nd word from left = A
U Ist letter from left end of 2nd word from right = P
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2021 2021-19

Sol. (32 -36) 44. (e) None dice is placed between 3 and 2.
45. (c) 1 is placed just above 4.
Months 2009 2010 Sol. (46- 50) :

January (31) (Australia) Z (Canada) W Floor/Flat Flat 1 Flat 2

April (30) (USA) Y (UAE) T 3 F (Red) A (White)
2 D (Yellow) C (Blue)
July (31) (Russia) S (Maldives) X
1 E (Green) B (Black)
October (31) (Malaysia) U V (Switzerland)
46. (c) Person who likes Yellow colour lives on Flat 1 Floor 2.
32. (a) Z goes to Australia. 47. (b) B lives just below the one who likes Blue colour.
33. (c) Y goes for trip in April, 2009. 48. (d) Green - Flat 1 - Floor 1
34. (c) Number of persons go for trip before U is same as 49. (d) C lives just to the east of D.
number of persons go for trip after the one who go to 50. (c) F likes Red color.
Canada.
Sol. (51-55) :
35. (e) Both S and X go for trip in July.
Per month total expenditure = ` 3,30,000
36. (e) Y - USA
Sol. (37-40) 100
Total income of family per month = 330000
R(+) W(–) 75
= ` 4,40,000
So, saving per month = 4,40,000 – 3,30,000 =` 1,10,000
Y(–) V(+) Z(+) S(–) Arsha's income = ` 60,000/month
60
Arsha's expenditure = 60000 × = ` 36000/month
100
X(–) T(–) U(+)
Arsha's saving = 60000 – 36000 = ` 24,000/month
R>W>V>Z>S>Y>T >X>U
37. (c) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (c) 1
Taniya's saving = 24000 = ` 8000/month
41. (b) Date in statement I and II are sufficient to answer the 3
question, while the data in statemet III alone are not
sufficient to answer the question. 100
Taniya's income = 8000 × = ` 80,000 / month
10
Taniya's expenditure = 80000 – 8000 = ` 72000/month
P X Z R Q Y
Nitu's income = ` 1,20,000/month
42. (c) Either I or II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Nitu's expenditure = 2 × 36000 = ` 72,000/month
From either statement I or II, we get, Rahul’s exam is
scheduled on friday. Nitu's saving = 1,20,000 – 72,000 = ` 48,000
43. (c) Either I or II alone is sufficient to answer teh question. Mukesh's income = ` 90,000/month
(I) (II) 20
X Y Mukesh's saving = 90,000 × = ` 18,000/month
100
Mukesh's expenditure = 90000 – 18000 = ` 72,000/month
Z/Y Y/Z X/W W/X So,
Vikash's income = 4,40,000 – (60,000 + 80,000 + 1,20,000 +
90,000 )
W Z = ` 90,000/month
Vikash's expenditure = 3,30,000 – (36,000 + 72,000 + 72,000
Hence, X sits 2nd right of W.
Sol. (44-45) : + 72,000)
= ` 78,000/month
Dice Vikash's saving = 90000 – 78000 = ` 12000/month
5 51. (d) Mukesh and Vikash's income is ` 90,000 each.
3 4, 40, 000
52. (c) Average salary of the family = = ` 88,000
2 5
6 53. (b) Ratio of salary earned to salary spent by Arsha
= 60,000 : 36000 = 5 : 3
1
54. (e) Required difference = 72000 – 72000 = ` 0
4
2021-20 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2021

55. (d) Required percentage Total mixture after mixing both = 30 + 20 = 50 Litres
Arsha 's Salary 60000 And, milk in new mixture = 12 + 12 = 24 Litres
= 100 100 = 75%
Taniya 's Salary 80000 24
Hence, required percentage = 100 = 48%
56. (c) Time taken tocollide trains 50
60. (e) Let J and K's profit share is x and y respectively.
300 300 For J,
= = 2.5 hrs
72 48 120 2
Bird's speed = 68 km/hr 10 x121
CI = x 1 x x
Hence, total distance covered by bird 100 100
= 68 × 2.5 = 170 km
21x
10 x 10 3x 3969 =
57. (d) Total expenditure of P = x 2 100
100 100 10
P's saving = ` 35,000 3969
x= 100 = ` 18,900
21
3x 7x
x– = 35000 = 35000 For K,
10 10
2
20 36 y
35000 10 CI = y 1 y y
x= = ` 50,000 (P's income) 100 25
7
y 10 y 11 y
Total expenditure of Q = 12000 12000 8316 =
100 10 25

75 3y 8316 25
Q's saving = y y= = ` 18,900
100 4 11
L's share in profit = 63,000 – (18900 + 18900)
y 3y = ` 25,200
y– 12000
10 4 2
10
y 3y Hence, interest earned by L = 25200 1
100
y– 12000 0
10 4
121 21
20 y 2 y 15 y = 25200 1 = 25200 × = ` 5292
= 12000 100 100
20
3y = 20 × 12000 61. (c) 133 × 4 ÷ 52 + 108 ÷ 3 1728 × 7 = ?
20 12000 13 13 13 4 108
y= = ` 80,000 (Q's income) ?= 7
3 52 12
58. (b) Let capacity fo vessel in which chemical B is present ? = 169 + 9 × 7 = 169 + 63 = 232
is 50.
62. (a) (346 + 130 – 45) + (35 ÷ 7 × 3) = ? – 1521
P Q
A (1 : 3 = 4) × 5 431 + 15 = ? – 39
B (3 : 2 = 5) × 10 ? = 446 + 39 = 485
63. (b) (25% of 250 × 4) + (21% of 300 – 50) = ? – 20% of 40
25 21 20
2 250 4 300 – 50 = ? – 40
A 5 : 15 = 20 [ Capacity of vessel A is of 100 100 100
5
250 + 63 – 50 = ? – 8
capacity of vessel B] ? = 263 + 8 = 271
B 30 : 20 = 50 64. (d) Pattern of the series is,
In large container 35 : 35 = 70 12 + (13 – 12) = 12
35 12 + (23 – 22) = 16
Hence, Chemical P in final mixture = 100 = 50%
70 16 + (33 – 32) = 34
34 + (43 – 42) = 82 80
40 65. (b) Pattern of the series is,
59. (d) Milk in 30 litres mixture = 30 = 12 Litres
100 74 + 51 = 125
125 – 49 = 76
60
Milk in 20 litres mixture = 20 = 12 Litres 76 + 46 = 122
100 122 – 42 = 80 79
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2021 2021-21

66. (a) For statement I: Let the investment of Ekansh and According to question,
Vinita is 5x and 4x respectively.
1
Ratio of profit = Ekansh : Vinita : Ayush Profit ratio of C and D =
3
75 120
= 5x × 12 : 4x × 6 + 4x × × 6 : 5x 8 a 5000 1
100 100 =
= 60x : 24x + 18x : 48x 4a 3
= 60x : 42x : 48x 3a + 15000 = 4a
Ratio of profit = 10 : 7 : 8 a = 15000
7 Profit ratio = A : B : C : D
Vinita's profit share = 25000 × = Rs. 7000 = 30000 : 90000 : 20000 : 60000
25
=3:9:2:6
So, Statement I alone is sufficient.
For statement II: Let Vinita invested in business is x. 9
Ekansh's investment = x + 7000 So, B's profit share = 16000 × = ` 72,000
2
Ayushi's investment = x + 16000 Hence, all the statements are sufficient.
One data is missing, so we can't find ratio of
69. (a) Let Shyam's investment is P.
investment or profit.
67. (c) From Statement I: Let speed of Rahul and Yogesh is x
x km/hr and y km/hr respectively and time taken by Time = year
10
both to meet each other is t. So, Ram's investment is (3000 – P).
Distance between P and R = 9 × y = 9y km
Rate = x%
And, distance between Q and R = 4 × x = 4x km
For Ram,
9y
t= [time taken by Yogesh between Q and R] x /10
x x
CI = 3000 P 1 1
100
4x
And, t = [time taken by Yogesh between Q and R]
4 For Shyam,
9y 4x P x
x /10
t×t= × = 36 1 1
x 4 CI = 2 100
t = 36 = 6 hrs
Hence, they will meet at 3:00 + 6 = 9:00 Pm each other. P x
x
So, statement I is sufficient. SI = 2 10 x2 P
From statement II: Let speed of Rahul and Yogesh is 100 2000
2x and 3x km/hr respectively
From statement I:
1200
So, time taken to meet each other = 2
5x Shyam's investment = 3000 × = ` 2000
3
Statement II alone is not sufficient.
From statement III: Difference between speed of 1
Rahul and Yogesh = 40 km/hr Ram's investment = 3000 × = ` 1000
3
Can't find anything from statement III.
According to statement I,
Now, from statement II and III together,
4280 – 3000
3x – 2x = 40
x = 40 x x
So, speed of Rahul = 2 × 40 = 80 km/hr x 10 x 10
= 1000 1 1 1000 1 1 x2
Speed of Yogesh = 3 × 40 = 120 km/hr 100 100
1200
Time taken to meet each other = = 6 hrs
80 120 x
Hence, they will meet at 9:00 PM each other. x 10
1280 = 2000 1 1 x2
Therefore , either I or II and III together are sufficient. 100
68. (d) From statement I, II and III,
A: B : C : D From above equation, x's value can be determined as
Ratio of investment there is only single variable in the equation.
= a × 12 : 3a × 12 : (a + 5000) × 6 : 4a × 6 Hence, statement I is sufficient.
= 2a : 6a : (a + 5000) : 4a
2021-22 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2021

For statement II: customer is x.

x 5 7
P x 10 x2 P 6 10
1 1 40
2 100 2000 x

In the above equation, there are two variable in the 1 1

single equation. 7 5
So, x's value can't find. x x
10 6
From statement III:
7 5 21 25 46
x 2x =
2 10 6 30 30
x P P x 10
1 1 2500
2000 2 100 23
x=
30
In the above equation, there are two variable in the Hence, amount of pure milk in 3 litres mixture = 3 ×
signle equation, so x's value can't find.
Hence, only statement I is sufficient to find x's value. 23
70. (a) From statement I: 30
Alcohol : water Total quantity = 2.3 Litres
Ist (2 : 3 = 5) × 9 73. (d) Quantity of milk after mixing from vessel Q and T
IInd (4 : 5 = 9) × 5 = 18 + 42 = 60 L
Equal the total quantity of both containers to form a Quantity of water = 12 + 8 = 20 L
new mixture. Total quantity = 20 + 60 = 80 L
Alcohol : Water
20 1
Ist 18 : 27 Hence, profit percentage = 100 = 33 %
IInd 20 : 25 60 3
New mixture 38 : 52 = 19 : 26 5
Hence, only statement I is sufficient. 74. (c) Members in H.R. department = 720 = 10
360
Sol. (71 – 73).
20
Members in product department = 720 × = 40
Total Ratio 360
Vessel Milk Water Hence, members to be added in H.R. department
Quantity (Milk:Water)
= 40 – 10 = 30
P 30 L 25 L 5L 05:01
200 4
Q 30 L 18 L 12 L 03:02 75. (b) Male in software department = 720 × = 320
360 5
R 30 L 20 L 10 L 02:01
S 50 L 35L 15 L 07:03 25 7
Female in tech department = 720× = 35
T 50 L 42 L 8L 21:04 360 10
320
71. (c) Quantity of pure milk after replacement in the final Hence, required percentage = 100 = 914.29%
mixture 35
76. (b) The number of QA members in 2022
3 5 2
= 20 1 1 1 = 14 Litres 50 180
30 30 30 = 720 = 180
360 100
Quantity of water in the final mixture
= 30 – 14 = 16 Litres The number of marketing members in 2022
Hence, required ratio of Milk = 7 : 8 60 50
= 720 = 60
5 360 100
72. (b) Milk in vessel P =
6 3
Male in QA department = 180 = 54
7 10
Milk in vessel S =
10 2
Mixed mixture from vessel P and S in the ratio = 1 : And, Female in marketing department = 60 × = 24
5
1 Hence, required ratio = 54 : 24 = 9 : 4
Let part of pure milk in the mixture purchased by
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2021 2021-23

5 2 5 5
77. (d) Male in HR department = 720 × =4 y= ,
360 5 3 4

200 4 10 5 5 5
Male in software department = 720 × = 320 3 3 3 4
360 5
Hence, x > y
25 3 81. (e) I. x2 + 43x + 406 = 0
Male in tech department = 720 × = 15
360 10 x2 + 29x + 14x + 406 = 0
60 3
(x + 29) (x + 14) = 0
Male in marketing department = 720 × = 72 x = –14, –29
360 5
II. y2 + 46y + 513 = 0
20 1 y2 + 27y + 19y + 513 = 0
Male in product department = 720 × = 20 (y + 27) (y + 19) = 0
360 2
y = –19, –27 = 0
50 3 As, –14 > –19 > –27 > –29
Male in QA department = 720 × = 30
360 10 Hence, relationship between x and y can't be
Hence, the number of males in all department established.
= 4 + 320 + 15 + 72 + 20 + 30 = 461 82. (b) 1. 4x2 – 20x + 16 = 0
78. (c) Total income of males in tech department for one 4x2 – 16x – 4x + 16 = 0 4x(x – 4) –4(x – 4) = 0
month (4x – 4) (x – 4) = 0 x = 4, 1
= 15 × 5000 × 30 = 2250000 = 22.5 Lakh II. 4y2 – 80y + 336 = 0 4y2 – 24y – 56y +336 = 0
(4y – 56) (y – 6) = 0 y = 6, 14
79. (e) 1 . 3x2 – (2 + 15 11 )x + 10 11 = 0 As 14 > 6 > 4 > 1
3x2 – 2x – 15 11 x + 10 11 = 0 Hence, y > x.
83. (e) 1. 7x2 – 92x + 96 = 0
x(3x – 2) – 5 11 (3x – 2) = 0 7x2 – 84x – 8x + 96 = 0
(3x – 2) (x – 5 11 ) = 0 7x(x – 12) –8(x – 12) = 0

2 8
x= , (7x – 8) (x – 12) = 0 x= , 12
3 5 11 7
II. 9y2 – 128y + 143 = 0
II. 9y2 – (5 + 18 11 )y + 10 11 = 0 9y2 – 117y – 11y +143 = 0
9y2 – 5y – 18 11 )y + 10 11 = 0 9y(y – 13) –11(y – 13) = 0
(y – 13) (9y – 11) = 0
y(9y –5) – 2 11 (9y – 5) = 0
11
(9y –5) (y – 2 11 ) = 0 y= , 13
9
5 11 8
y= ,
9 2 11 As 13 > 12 >
9
>
7
2 5 Hence, relationship between x and y can't be
5 11 2 11 established.
3 9
84. (b) Let cost price of mobile phone is 100x.
Hence, relation between x and y cannot be
established. 150
M.P. = 100 x = 150x
80. (c) 1. 9x2 – 45x + 50 = 0 100
9x2 – 15x – 30x + 50 = 0 80
3x(3x – 5) – 10(3x – 5) = 0 S.P. = 150 x = 120x
100
(3x – 5) (3x – 10) = 0
18 108 x
5 10 18% GST on S.P. = 120 x
x= , 100 5
3 3
II. 12y2 – 35y + 25 = 0 108 x
So, total cost to shop owner of mobile = 100x +
12y2 – 15y – 20y + 25 = 0 5
3y(4y – 5) –5(4y – 5) = 0
608
(4y – 5)(4y – 5) = 0 = x
5
2021-24 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2021

608 8x 90. (d) (3B + 4G) × 7 = (5B + 3G) × 6

Loss = x – 120x =
5 5 B 10
21B + 28G = 30B + 18G 9B = 10G
8x G 9
8 3 According to question,
Hence, loss percentage = 5 100 1 %
100 x 5 5 (1B + 2G) × D = 4 × (3B + 4G) × 7
(10 + 2 × 9) × D = 4 × (3 × 10 + 4 × 9) × 7
15 28 × D = 28 × (30 + 36) D = 66 Days
85. (a) Time taken to cross river = = 3 hrs
5 91. (a) Total days = 61
Flow of river is in west direction, No. of days on leave = 14
So, distance covered in west = 3 × 4 = 12 km Total no. of working days = 61 – 14 = 47
To cover distance 12 km on foot, Hence, L's income = 47 × 8 × 500 + 14 × 500
= ` 2,09,000
12
Time taken = = 6 hrs 92. (b) Total days = 61
2 No. days on leave = 61 – 48 = 13
Hence, total required time = 3 + 6 = 9 hrs. No. of hours per day = 6
86. (d) Let the present ages of 6 family members are u,v,w, x, Hence, J's income = 48 × 6 × 500 + 13 × 1500
y and z years = ` 1,63,500
Let the present age of daughter in law is t years. 93. (c) No. of Days on leave = 61 – 48 = 13
According to question, Let working hour per day is H.
u + v + w + x + y + z – 4 × 6 = 112 J's income = 259500
u + v + w + x + y + z = 112 + 24 = 136 …(i) 48 × H × 500 + 13 × 1500 = 259500
And, 24000H = 259500 – 19500 = 2,40,000
(u + v + w + x + y + z) – u + t = 98
Putting value from equation (i), 240000
H= = 10 hours
136 – u + t = 98 24000
t – u = 136 – 98 = 38 years. 94. (d) M's working days = L's leave days = 14
87. (c) Capital ratio of Dev and his sister M's working hours = 8 + 4 = 12
= 50000 × 12 + 60000 × 12 : 60000 × 7 + 55000 × 12 M's leave days = 61 – 14 = 47
= 600 + 720 : 420 + 660 Hence, M's income = 14 × 12 × 500 + 47 × 1500
= 1320 : 1080 = 11 : 9 = ` 1,54,500
Let profit at the end of 2 years is x. 95. (d) Total no. of days = 61
x 50 x 11 Total no. of working days = x = 61 – 7 = 54
Dev's profit share = x + y = 60 (Given)
2 100 2 20
y = 60 – 54 = 6 (working hours)
x 11x 10 x 11x 21x Hence, K's income = 54 × 6 × 500 + 7 × 1500
42000 = = ` 1,72,500
4 40 40 40
Sol. (96-100) :
42000 40
x= = ` 80,000 For Ist pie chart,
21 a + 5 + a + a + 20 + 2a = 100 5a + 25 = 100
88. (b) Let A denotes perfect bottle and B denotes defect a = 15
bottle. For IInd pie chart,
3 bottles picked by inspector can be as b + 20 + b + 10 + 40 = 100 2b = 100 –70
= [AAA, AAB, ABA, BAA, BBA, BAB, ABB, BBB] = 8 b = 15
At least two bottles prefeet
= [AAA, AAB, ABA, BAA] = 4
4 1 Book Maths Physics Total
Hence, required probability =
8 2 Store Books Book Books
st nd
I II
25 P 90 110 200
32
Q 120 30 150
89. (a) 27
R 150 200 350
5 : 2 30 kg S 240 60 300
Hence, required quantity of Ist variety
96. (e) Physics books sold by all stores
30 = 11 + 30 + 200 + 60 = 400
= 5 = 75 kg
2 Maths books sold by all stores
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2021 2021-25

= 90 + 120 + 150 + 240 = 600 handedness of the government regulator in the

Hence, required percentage education sector. Here, option (c) is a better fit.
104. (b) Statements I and II are correct. If it is upto the
600 – 400 200
= 100 = 33.33% (less) government, it may use its discretion to make the
600 6 Institutions comply with their ideologies and rules.
97. (a) Physics books sold by S = 60 Statement III is incorrect. The ministry/government
Maths books sold by Q and S = 120 + 240 = 360 would simply be looking after funding and not
60 100 functioning of the sector. This cannot be concluded.
Hence, required percentage = 100 105. (d) Statement I is correct. The entire paragraph talks about
360 6
how an ideal Institution should focus on a wide variety
= 16.67%
of disciplines.
98. (b) Maths books sold by R = 150 Statement II is the opposite of what the paragraph
Total books sold by S = 300
states and is incorrect.
Hence, required ratio = 150 : 300 = 1 : 2
Statement III is correct as can be seen from the
99. (d) Maths books sold by P = 90 examples of IITs and IISc.
x + 15 = 90 x = 75
106. (e) All of the statements here talk about the JNU is a
Maths books sold by Q = 120
positive tone as well as highlight its diversity in terms
y – 25 = 120 y = 145 of subjects, thinking and research. Also, the tone of
Hence, required ratio = x : y = 75 : 145 = 15 : 29
the author also makes it clear that all these render JNU
100. (e) Total books sold by P and Q = 200 + 150 = 350
worthy of being in the list.
Physics books sold by R = 200 Hence, option (e) is correct.
350 – 200 150 107. (a) Statement B is incorrect as the author is clearly
Hence, required percentage = 100
200 2 unhappy with the list of IoEs and does not consider it
= 75% (more) to be a good start.
101. (c) Statement II is opposite of what is needed as this would Statement (c) is incorrect as the idea of eminence being
improve quality in the Institutions. This is incorrect. synonymous with money is not the central idea of the
Statements I and III are correct and give valid reasons passage.
for the lack of quality. Statement (d) is incorrect as this has not been
Hence, option (c) is correct. mentioned anywhere.
102. (b) I has not been mentioned anywhere and is incorrect. Statement (a) is correct as this neatly states the gist
'The intention is to leave the HECI to focus on quality of the passage- that even with a new regulator, the
while leaving funding of public institutions to the government's approach remains short sighted and this
Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD).' can be seen in its choices for IoEs.
II is incorrect. Thus, option A is the best fit.
'This springs from the government's announcement 108. (c) Passage Para-2 : makes it clear that most of the plastic
of a list of IoEs. The government has chosen three that ended up being in the ocean, originates from the
public and three private institutions for this status. land. This makes the statement 1 true.
The public institutions are the Indian Institute of Refer to: Para-3 For more than 50 years, over 2012, and
Science, Bengaluru, and the Indian Institutes of confirming an upward trend over the past years.
Technology at Delhi and Mumbai. The private ones This makes the statement 2 invalid.
are the Birla Institute of Technology and Science Refer to: Para-5: A simple walk on growing,
Pilani, the JIO Institute and the Manipal Academy of staggeringly.
Higher Education.' Option (c) is the correct answer.
III is correct. 109. (c) All the qualities other than Brittle have been
Hence, option (b) is correct. mentioned in the passage.
103. (c) Euphoric: full of energy, excitement, and cheerfulness. Thus the option C is the correct answer.
Castigating: reprimand/rebuke (someone) severely. 110. (c) Refer to: Para-3: For more than 50 years, over 2012,
Deploring: feel or express strong condemnation of and confirming an upward trend over the past years.
(something). Thus the statement 1 is true.
Lamenting: a passionate expression of grief or sorrow. The production of plastics was 299 million tons in
The author is criticizing the regulation of the education 2013 and not in 2012. This makes the statement 2 false.
sector and elaborates on this in the entire paragraph. The report is published by the "Global Industry
Option (d) can also be eliminated as the author is not Analyst" and not by the 'Global Industry Experts'.
sad or expressing grief but is angry. This makes the statement 3 invalid.
Out of options (b) and (c), (c) is a better choice as the Hence, The answer will be option C i.e. Both statement
author is not verbally scolding anyone (castigating) 2 and 3 are false.
but is expressing disapproval and criticizing the heavy 111. (a) Option (a) is correct.
2021-26 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2021

112. (d) Plastic is comparatively cheaper. This quality of plastic disruptions caused by COVID-19 have led to heightened
has lead to over-consumption of plastic goods. Thus financial stress for borrowers across the board.
the statement 1 is true. 126. (d) 127. (b)
Plastic does not degrade easily, Ultimately it ended up 128. (d) The original sentence is erroneous.
being a pollutant. This makes the statement 2 valid. Reason: The word 'leisure' must be followed the
There has been no mention in the passage about the preposition 'for' instead of 'till' in this context. The
the statement 3. This makes the statement 3 invalid. expression "leisure for" means 'free time for'.
Evidently, option D is the correct answer. Hence 'for' should be used in place of 'till' to make the
113. (a) Refer to: Propensity means an inclination or natural sentence grammatically and contextually correct.
tendency to behave in a particular way which is the Option (d) is hence the correct answer.
same as Tendency and that makes them synonyms. 129. (e) The original sentence is absolutely correct and hence
Antipathy means a strong feeling of dislike while the bold part needs no replacement.
Inadequate means not appropriate. Option (e) is hence the correct answer.
Clearly, option A is the correct answer. 130. (d)
114. (b) Staggeringly: to an astonishing or shocking degree. 131. (a) Both (I) and (II)
Startling: very surprising, astonishing, or remarkable. Pondering means to think about something deeply
Predictable: able to be predicted. and carefully. Looking at the context of the sentence,
Ordinary: with no special or distinctive features; it is best to use pursuing which means to follow some
normal. measures in order to accomplish a goal or task. Here,
Unremarkable: not particularly interesting or Karthik is interested in pursuing engineering.
surprising. Infused - to fill someone or something with quality or
Unexceptional: not out of the ordinary; usual. emotion
115. (c) Preface, Prologue and Preamble all have the same Enthused - excited about something
meaning while Conclusion means the end or the finish So, the word enthused is a more appropriate word and
of an event. Thus, Conclusion is the antonym of can be used to replace infused to make the sentence
Prelude. sound more logical. Also, varied suits the context well.
So, option C is the correct answer. It is used to indicate that Karthik has different (variety
116. (b) Option (b): All the words fit in well. of) interests. Use of dissimilar brings out an
117. (c) Option (c): All the words fit in well. unintended connotation.
Hence, option C is correct. 132. (a)
118. (b) Option (b): All the words fit in well. 133. (e) None of these
119. (e) The statement is correct in its original form and no We have to read the sentence carefully to understand
word needs to be replaced. the context being expressed. We find that the sentence
Hence, option E is correct. tells us that the tax collections must have been affected
120. (c) The original statement is incorrect as the none of the unfavourably because of the unimpressive economic
words make sense and render the statement activity. However, the April GST numbers are
meaningless. surprisingly positive. This makes perfect sense. Now,
Option (a): Complacency is opposite of what is needed looking at the highlighted words, there is no need to
here. For is also incorrect. replace any of them.
Option (b): Newly is incorrect here. 134. (d) Only 2 and 3
Option (d): With does not make sense here. The sentence talks about the decision taken by the
Option (c): All the words are a perfect fit in the explorers to set up camp at a place which was near
statement. running water and good shade. First blank - we need
Correct: The turbulence in emerging markets is hardly a verb to link the subject EXPLORERS with the object
surprising as the tightening of monetary policy by pronoun IT. DECIDED and CONCLUDED will fit here.
the U.S. Federal Reserve has traditionally caused the Second blank - we need a noun to be modified by the
turning of the global credit cycle. adjective GOOD. PLACE, LOCALE and LOCATION
Hence, option C is correct. will all fit here.
121. (d) 122. (e) 123. (c) 124. (e) 125. (c) 135. (b) Only 1 and 2
The Reserve Bank of India did not extend the moratorium The sentence seeks to convey that the Indian
in its monetary policy review on Thursday. It allowed banks government has enacted a strategy to attract foreign
to restructure the loans of borrowers who are in financial investment. For the first blank, we need a verb in the
difficulty and are unable to repay them.Once restructured, past participle as the present perfect tense construction
such loans would be considered as standard. This means HAS + VERB always takes the past participle form of
that the lenders won't report the borrower as a defaulter to the verb. LAUNCHED and FORMULATED fit
credit bureaus if the borrower follows the new payment contextually. For the second blank, we need a verb to
structure.In his speech, RBI governor said, "The be modified by the adverb SPECIFICALLY.
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2021 2021-27

FOCUSED and CENTRED fit contextually. (3) is of depositors' interest and for any other related
incorrect. ESTABLISHED does not fit contextually. purposes deemed necessary by the RBI
TARGETED does not fit grammatically. 153. (b) Fast-moving consumer goods, also known as
136. (c) 137. (d) consumer packaged goods, are products that are sold
138. (c) From the given words, spelling of 'stewardsship' is quickly and at a relatively low cost. Zomato is an Indian
incorrect instead it should be 'stewardship' which multinational restaurant aggregator and food delivery
means higher rank officer. Hence, the correct answer company founded by Deepinder Goyal and Pankaj
choice would be option (c) Chaddah in 2008.
139. (e) From the given words, spelling of 'saboteours sand 154. (a) 155. (b)
infilterate' is incorrect, instead it should be 'saboteurs' 156. (a) Hemis National Park located in Ladakh is the largest
which means a person who intentionally causes the National Park in India. Hemis National Park is India's
destruction of property, and infiltrate means to secretly protected area inside the Palearctic realm, outside the
penetrate. Hence, the correct answer choice would be Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary northeast of Hemis,
option (e) and the proposed Tso Lhamo Cold Deser t
140. (b) From the given words, spelling of 'comandos' is Conservation Area in North Sikkim.
incorrect instead it should be 'commandos' which 157. (a) Kailash Satyarthi is an Indian 'Children's rights' activist.
means specially trained fighting force. Hence, the • He is a Nobel Peace Prize recipient (2014).
correct answer choice would be option (b) • He is the founder of Bachpan Bachao Andolan, Global
141. (c) 142. (a) 143. (d) March Against Child Labour, Global Campaign for
144. (c) Shiv Nadar steps down as HCL Tech MD, Vijayakumar Education, Kailash Satyarthi Children's Foundation,
to take over. Shiv Nadar, the founder of HCL and Rugmark now known as Good Weave
Technologies Ltd, and its chief strategy officer, has International.
tendered his resignation as managing director, as well • He has been a member of a UNESCO body established
as a director. with the goal of providing "Education for All".
145. (d) Ministry of Food Processing Industries (MoFPI) has 158. (c)
recently extended the Operation Greens Scheme from 159. (c) Launching the 'Scheme of Penalty for non-
Tomato, Onion and Potato (TOP) to all fruits & replenishment of ATMs', the central bank said that a
vegetables (TOTAL) for a period of six months on penalty of Rs. 10,000 per ATM will be levied in the
pilot basis as part of Aatmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan. event of a cash-out situation for more than 10 hours
146. (b) The Confederation of Real Estate Developers' in a month.
Association of India, is the apex body for private real 160. (d) Odisha govt will continue to sponsor Indian men's
estate developers in India, representing over 20,000 and women's national hockey teams for another 10
developers through 21 states and 220 city chapters years, after the current sponsorship ends in 2023.
across the country. 161. (a) World Red Cross Red and Crescent Day is celebrated
147. (b) Ola Electric and Bank of Baroda have signed the on 8 May each year.
largest long-term debt financing agreement in Indian • The theme of World Red Cross Day 2021 is 'Together
EV industry. we are unstoppable'.
148. (d) • It is celebrated to commemorate the birth anniversary
149. (b) The government's 7.93 per cent stake in the Kolkata- of the founder of the Red Cross and International
based conglomerate is worth Rs 20,250 crore as it owns Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC) Henry Dunant.
the stake in ITC through the Special Undertaking of 162. (c) To make the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)
the Unit Trust of India (SUUTI). scheme more attractive, the finance ministry decided
150. (c) Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra to double the overdraft facility from Rs 5,000 to Rs
are among the top 10 States that have received a 10,000.
maximum Rural Infrastructure Development Fund 163. (b) The Norwegian Nobel Committee has decided to award
(RIDF) in the last three years. the Nobel Peace Prize for 2020 to the World Food
151. (a) The world's highest motorable road was inaugurated Programme (WFP) for its efforts to combat hunger.
in eastern Ladakh. • It has been awarded to WEP for its contribution to
• It is situated at the height of 19,300 feet at Umling La bettering conditions for peace in conflict-affected areas
Pass in eastern Ladakh. and for acting as a driving force in efforts to prevent
• The BRO constructed a 52-km long tarmac road the use of hunger as a weapon of war and conflict.
through this high mountain pass. 164. (c) ICICI Bank has launched a digital and contactless
• The road at Umlingla Pass now connects the important banking platform for merchants.
towns in the Chumar sector of Eastern Ladakh. • The service, christened 'merchant stack', is targeted at
152. (a) The Depositor Education and Awareness Fund the over 2 crore retail merchants in the country to
Scheme (DEAF Scheme) was established by the render banking services digitally.
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in 2014 for the promotion
2021-28 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2021

165. (d) 178. (a) The Indian Navy recently had maiden sea trials of its
166. (c) Chipmaker Intel has collaborated with the Central second indigenous stealth destroyer of the P15B class
Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) to launch the named Mormugao, which is built by the Mazagon Dock
'AI For All' initiative. About 'AI For All' initiative: Based Shipbuilders Ltd (MDSL). The ship has been named
on Intel's 'AI For Citizens' programme, 'AI For All' is a after the port town in Goa. It has been proposed to
4-hour, self-paced learning programme. commission the stealth destroyer in mid-2022 and
167. (b) Two Indian organisations bag the prestigious UNDP would add significantly to the Indian Navy's combat
Equator Prize 2021, for their exceptional achievement capabilities.
in showcasing local, innovative, nature based 179. (b) The state of the world's land and water resources for
solutions for tackling biodiversity loss and climate food and agriculture (SOLAW 2021) report was
change. The two organizations from India out of the released by the Food and Agriculture Organization of
ten winners globally are- Aadhimalai Pazhangudiyinar the United Nations (FAO). From 8 to 9 December 2021,
Producer Company Limited and Snehakunja Trust. the Land and Water Days are hosted by the Food and
168. (c) Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO).
169. (e) Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited (IFFCO) The central theme of SOLAW 2021 is "Systems at
has introduced the world's first Nano Urea Liquid for breaking point".
farmers during its 50th annual general body virtual 180. (b)
meeting.The production of Nano Urea Liquid will 181. (b) India's leading public sector bank "bob World Wave"
commence by June 2021. has launched a solution for digital banking payments,
170. (b) named bob World Wave.The bob World Wave is a
171. (a) Two Indian firms, Reliance Industries' technology arm wearable device, which will allow customers to monitor
Jio Platforms and e-learning startup Byju's have their Sp02, body temperature, heart rate and blood
figured in the Time Magazine's first-ever list of 100 pressure. BoB has partnered with NPCI to offer the
most influential companies. wearable payment solution.
172. (e) 182. (b) 183. (c) 184. (c) 185. (b) 186. (b)
• India is ranked at 10th place in the 'Climate Change 187. (c)
Performance Index (CCPI) 2021', released on 7th 188. (a) Union Ministry of Statistics and Programme
December 2020. Implementation (MoSPI) releases the Index of
• The overall score of India is 63.98. It is for the second Industrial Production (IIP). As per the recent edition
time in a row that India emerged among the top 10 of the data, the IIP measure grew 1 per cent for
countries with higher climate performance from among December 2020. The Consumer Price Index inflation
58 economies. (CPI) decreased to 4.06 per cent in January 2021, due
• India was at 9th spot last year in the index. to the decline in vegetable prices.
173. (d) 189. (b) India has more than 63 million MSMEs. They account
174. (b) National Electronic Toll Collection is a program which for nearly 40 per cent of India's exports, about 6.11 per
uses FASTag device that employs Radio Frequency cent of the country's manufacturing GDP. MSMEs
Identification (RFID) technology, for making toll contribute to 24.63 per cent of the GDP from services
payments directly from the prepaid account linked to sector.
it. 190. (b) Uzbekistan's President Shavkat Mirziyoyev has been
175. (b) 176. (a) re-elected for a second five-year term, according to
177. (b) Indravati Tiger Reserve is located in the state of the preliminary results of a poll. Mirziyoyev won the
Chhattisgarh with a total area of approximately 2799.08 elections with 80.1 percent of the vote as per
square km. Recently, tiger counting was carried out in Uzbekistan's Central Election Commission. The 64-
the reserve covering more than 400 square kilometers, year-old leader took office in 2016 following the death
which is the first time covering such a large area of the of long-time President Islam Karimov. Mirziyoyev is
reserve. As per the latest data, the reserve had 3 tigers. known for relaxing many policies of his predecessor.
 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelims Solved Paper-2021
(Based on Memory)

Time : 60 minutes Max. Marks : 100

Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude 6. What is position of I with respect to H?

(a) Third to the right (b) Second to the right
DIRECTIONS (Qs. l-5) : Study the following information (c) Third to the left (d) Second to the left
carefully and answer the questions given below. (e) Forth to the right
Twelve persons were seated in two parallel rows containing 7. How many persons sit between I and K?
six persons each, in such a way that there is an equal distance (a) Two (b) One (c) Three (d) Four
between adjacent persons. In row 1 - Z, Y, X, D, E and F were (e) No one
seated and all of them are facing south and in row 2 - P, J, I, S, 8. Who sits second to the right of J?
T and U were seated and all of them were facing north. (a) T (b) H (c) K (d) W
P was seated second from the end. One person was seated (e) U
between P and the one who faces Z, Y was seated to the 9. Who among the following sits at extreme end of the row?
immediate right of Z, X was seated third to the right of D. J faces (a) J (b) V (c) K (d) T
the one who sits second to the left of Y. One of the immediate (e) H
neighbors of D faces S. T was seated second to the right of S. 10. In the word ‘DIAGONAL’, how many pairs of the letters
One person was seated between E and the one who faces U. have the same number of letter between them in the word
l. Who was seated second to the left of U? as in alphabet?
(a) Four (b) Two (c) One (d) Three
(a) S (b) I (c) P (d) J
(e) More than four
(e) T
2. How many persons were seated between J and the one who DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-15) : Answer the following questions
faces X? referring to the symbol-letter-number sequence given below:
(a) Three (b) More than three S @ N 1 Q 3YW8 N O 5 C Z 2 $ P*AB 9 L6 M 4 # F X 7 I
(c) None (d) One 11. How many symbols are there in the above sequence which
(e) Two are immediately preceded by a number and immediately
3. The number of persons seated between Z and E was the followed by a consonant?
same as the number of persons seated between ______ (a) None (b) Two (c) One (d) Three
(a) P and T (b) J and I (e) None of these
(c) I and T (d) T and U 12. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the
(e) U and S following sequence?
13@ 8OY ? A9P
4. Who is sitting between E and Z in Row-1?
(a) Z2C (b) C2N (c) Z$C (d) Z$5
(a) X and Y (b) D and X
(e) None of these
(c) F and X (d) T and U
13. Which of the following is exactly middle between the
(e) I and T seventh element from the right and sixth element from the
5. Who among the following sits 3rd to the left of J in Row-2? left end?
(a) U (b) P (c) S (d) T (a) Z (b) 2 (c) $ (d) P
(e) I (e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-9) : Study the following information 14. Which of the following is the fifth element to the left of the
carefully and answer the questions given below. ninth element from the right end in the above sequence?
(a) 2 (b) P (c) $ (d) *
Eight friends K, J, I, H, T, U, V and W are seated in a straight line,
(e) None of these
facing north, but not necessarily in the same order. There are four
15. If first and second halves of the above sequence are written
persons in between I and W. J and U is immediate neighbour of I,
in reverse order, then which will be the sixth element to
who is second to the right of T. U is not an immediate neighbour the right of the fourteenth element from the right end?
of T. H is not an immediate negihbour of W. V sits second to the (a) L (b) # (c) 6 (d) 9
left of K. K does not sit on the immediate left of H.
(e) None of these
2021-30 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelims Solved Paper-2021

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16-17) : Study the information carefully 23. The number of boxes placed above X is same as the number
and answer the questions given below. of boxes placed below the box ______?
(a) Box Y (b) Box Z
Gopal starts walking from point Z towards north east directions (c) Box U (d) Box X
after walking some distance reached point Y and starts moving
(e) None of these
to east direction and walks 6 m. and reached point X from there
24. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and
he takes a left turn and walks 3 m to reach point W, from there
so form a group. Find the one who does not belong to that
take a right turn and walk 5 m to reach point V.
group?
16. What is the shortest distance between point V and X?
(a) Y (b) T (c) W (d) V
(a) 3 34 (b) 25 (c) 34 (d) 2 8 (e) X
(e) None of these 25. Which of the following box is placed exactly between Y
17. In which direction is Z with respect to X? and S?
(a) North east (b) South West (a) Z (b) T (c) W (d) X
(c) East (d) West (e) None of these
(e) South
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 26-29) : In each question below are given
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 18-20) : In these questions, relationship some statements followed by some conclusions. You have to
between different elements is show in the statements. The take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions
based on the given statements and select the appropriate and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
answer: follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly
(a) If only conclusion I follows. known facts.
(b) If only conclusion II follows. (a) If only conclusion I follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. (c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow. (d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
18. Statements : (e) If both conclusion I and II follow.
D > Q ≥ P < M ≤ A; M > R = X 26. Statements :
Conclusions : Only a few students are Educator
I. A > X II. Q > M All Educator are Adults.
19. Statements : No Adults are Children.
E≤B≤M=T≥F≥G=S Conclusions :
Conclusions : I. Some Students are Children
I. M > G II. M = S II. No Children are Students
20. Statements : 27. Statements :
L≤X≥F>K≥D>N Only a few Classes are Schools.
Conclusions : All Schools are Colleges.
I. L < F II. X > D All Colleges are Universities.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 21-25) : Study the following information Conclusions :
carefully and answer the questions given below. I. Some Schools are Universities
II. Some Schools can be Colleges
Eight boxes i.e. Z, Y, X, W, V, U, T and S are placed one above
the another but not necessarily in the same order. Three boxes 28. Statements :
are plaed between T and V. No box is placed between W and Some Registers are not Book
T. The number of boxes placed above the box W is same as Only a few Book are Copies.
the number of boxes placed below the box S. Box S is exactly Every Copies are Notebooks.
between the box T and V. Box U which is at top most position Conclusions :
is placed just above the box Y. Box Y is placed above the box I. Some Registers can be Notebooks
W. Box Z is placed above the box X, which is not placed at the II. Some Book are not Copies
bottom most position. 29. Statements :
21. How many boxes are placed below the box T? Only a few Phones are Laptops.
(a) Two (b) Four (c) Three (d) One Only Laptops are Computers.
(e) None of these Few Laptops are Smartphones.
22. How many boxes are placed between Y and T? Conclusions :
(a) None (b) Two (c) Three (d) Five I. Some Phones are not Computers
(e) One II. Some Laptops are not Smartphones
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelims Solved Paper-2021 2021-31

30. The position of how many digits in the number 38. 22, ___, 41, 56, 76, 102
“2451479638” will remain same when the first half and the (a) 23 (b) 30 (c) 31 (d) 26
second half of the digits are arranged in ascending order (e) 48
separately? 39. 1, 2, 6, 21, ___, 445
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four (a) 44 (b) 94 (c) 66 (d) 88
(e) None (e) 90
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 31-35) : Study the following information 40. 99, 105, 112, ___, 137, 159
carefully and answer the questions given below – (a) 94 (b) 97 (c) 114 (d) 113
Z, Y, X, W, V, U, T and S are eight friends sitting in a circle facing (e) 122
the centre. U is on the immediate right of W while Y is on the DIRECTIONS (Qs. 41-50) : Simplify the following Questions.
immediate left of V. Z is neither sitting opposite to X nor S. And
41. x % of 270 = 564.3 – 540
Z is not the neighbour of S. V and S are sitting adjacent to X.
(a) 7 (b) 11 (c) 9 (d) 8
31. Which of the following is wrong?
(e) 6
I. U is to the immediate left of T.
4 1 1 1 1
II. Z is to the immediate right of W. 42. = + + +
x 400 300 200 100
III. S and W are sitting opposite each other.
(a) Only I (b) Only II (a) 192 (b) 292 (c) 392 (d) 194
(c) Only III (d) Only II and III (e) 198
(e) All I, II and III 43. ?2 = 729 ÷ 72 ÷ 81 × 512
(a) 32 (b) 512 (c) 256 (d) 128
32. Which of the following are two pairs of adjacent members?
(a) Z U and Y X (b) U S and Y T (e) 64
(c) Z T and X V (d) Y T and Z T 5 7 13 8 17
44. + + =?+ +
(e) None of these 2 2 2 5 10
33. What is the position of T? (a) 11.5 (b) 10.2 (c) 9.2 (d) 4.6
(a) Fourth to the left of U. (e) 2.3
(b) Third to the left of Y. 45. 4x– 2 = 45 ÷ 163 × 642 ÷ 256
(c) Third to the right of Y. (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 0
(d) Second to the left of W. (d) –2
(e) None of these 46. ? × 130 ÷ 144 = 390 × 704 ÷ 384
34. Which of the following is / are correct? (a) 738 (b) 594 (c) 1188 (d) 792
I. W is third to the left of V. (e) 752
1 1
II. W is fifth to the right of V.
47. 400 × (8000) 3 =
? × (4096) 4
III. Z and U are adjacent to each other.
(a) Only I (b) Only II (a) 15 (b) 24 (c) 50 (d) 20
(c) Only III (d) Only I and II (d) 30
(e) All I, II and III 1
35. If Z and V interchange places and so do U and S, then 48. 70% of 90 + 92 = (32) 5 + ?
(a) T and X are adjacent to U.
(a) 151 (b) 149 (c) 143 (d) 144
(b) W and Y are adjacent to Z
(e) 142
(c) V is not sitting opposite Z.
418
(d) S is not sitting opposite U. 49. × 324 − 14 × 20 =
?
(e) S is fourth to the left of X. 352
(a) 116 (b) 58 (c) 29 (d) 87
Numerical Ability (e) 145
50. ? × 2 – 202 = 142 – 18 × 22
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 36-40) : What will come in place of (a) 150 (b) 100 (c) 180 (d) 120
question mark (?) in the following series?
(d) 195
36. 10, 30, 68, ___, 222, 350
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 51-55) : Bar-chart given below shows
(a) 25 (b) 125 (c) 130 (d) 520 students registered for three different exams in five different
(e) 512 years. Study the data carefully and answer the following
37. 10, 12, 22, 34, ___, 90 questions.
(a) 56 (b) 52 (c) 50 (d) 46
(e) 32
 2021-32 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelims Solved Paper-2021

60 57. The population of a city in 2016 increased by 10% form

55 2015 and in 2017 it decreased by 20% with respect to
50 previous year and in 2018 it again increased by 25% with
45 respect to previous year. If in 2019, the population of the
40 city is 2332000, then what was the population of city in
2016?
(In lakhs)

35
(a) 1540000 (b) 2530000
30
(c) 2120000 (d) 1980000
25
(e) 1760000
20
58. A can do a work in 20 days. B is 25% more efficient than
15 A. Both worked together for 4 days. C alone completed
10 the remaining work in 4 days. A, B and C together will
5 complete the same work in?
0 (a) 5 days (b) 4 days
2015 2016 2017 2018 2019
1 1
MTS CGL CHSL (c) 5 days (d) 4 days
2 2
51. Total number of students registered for CGL in all the five (e) 3 days
years is what percent more than total number of students 59. Naveen and Naman invested `6000 and `8000 for
registered for CHSL in all the five years together?
12 months and 6 months respectively. Find profit share
1 1 of Naman is how much percent more or less than profit
(a) 50% (b) 37 % (c) 25% (d) 33 %
2 3 share of Naveen?
2
(e) 66 % (a) 10% more (b) 11.11% less
3
52. Find the ratio of total students registered for all the three (c) 11.11% more (d) 33.33% more
exams in 2015 and 2016 together to total students registered (e) 33.33% less
for all the three exams in 2017 and 2018 together? 60. P, Q and R invested in a ratio of 7 : 8 : 5 in a business. They
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 10 : 17 got an annual profit of ` 244900. If P and R withdrew their
(c) 9 : 17 (d) 3 : 2 amount at the end of 3 months and 7 months respectively.
(e) 5 : 8 Then find the difference between P and R share of profit?
53. Average number of students registered for MTS exam in (a) 58900 (b) 57000
all the five years together in how much less/more than (c) 38000 (d) 76000
average number of students registered for CHSL exam in (e) 85500
all the five years together?
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 61-65): The data given below shows the
(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 4 (d) 3
information of total students in class P, Q and R which divided
(e) 2
in three group A, B and C.
54. Out of total students registered for all the exams in 2019,
80% appeared for exam. Students appeared in Clerk, Class P: Total no. of students are 180. 60 students are in group
CGL and CHSL are in the ratio 3 : 3 : 1. Find how much A. Ratio of number of students in group B and C is 1 : 2.
percent of students appeared for exam MTS out of students Class Q: Total no. of students are 160. The ratio of no. of
registered for MTS exam in that year? students in group A, B and C is 3 : 5 : 8.
(a) 60% (b) 70% (c) 80% (d) 90% Class R: The no. of students in group B are half of that in group
(e) 75% A. The no. of students in group A of class R are 20 more that
55. In 2016, out of total students registered for all the three in group A of class P no. of students in group C of class R are
exams, 80% appeared out of which only 25% qualified the 20% less than that in group A of same class.
exams. Find the number of students appeared in exam but 61. No. of students in group A of class Q are what percentage
disqualified. (in Lakh) of no. of students in groups B of class R.
(a) 63 (b) 54 (c) 45 (d) 36
(a) 90% (d) 100% (c) 85% (d) 75%
(e) 72
(e) 120%
56. Simple interest on a sum of `12000 at the end of 5 years
62. Find the respective ratio between average students in group
is `6000. What would be the compound interest on the
same sum at the same rate for 3 years when compounded A in class P and Q to total students in class R.
annually? (a) 7 : 32 (b) 7 : 12
(a) 2520 (b) 3972 (c) 3600 (d) 3970 (c) 7 : 23 (d) 35 : 184
(e) 4200 (e) 45 : 184
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelims Solved Paper-2021 2021-33

63. There is total 34 girls in class P. If 12 girls are in group 72. The program helps people (A)/recent released from prison
A, then find the no. of boys in group B and C together in (B)/figure out how they can play(C)/ a constructive role in
class A. society. (D)/ No Error (E)
(a) 108 (b) 50 (c) 60 (d) 98 (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
(e) 118 (e) No Error
64. What are the total no. of students in group B of all the 73. I will be leaving on vacation in (A)/two days and will not
classes? be (B)/able to do much else accept put down (C)/ideas in
(a) 85 (b) 80 (c) 70 (d) 130
my traveling notebook. (D)/ No Error (E)
(d) 100
(a) D (b) C (c) B (d) A
65. Total no. of students in group A is how much more or less
(e) No Error
than that in group C.
(a) 44 (b) 54 (c) 64 (d) 84 74. The issue of making the Internet (A)/safety for kids has
(e) 74 become(B)/ a bigger one as the Web (C)/ becomes ever
66. Area of square is how much percent it’s perimeter of side more ubiquitous. (D)/ No Error (E)
8 m. (a) A (b) D (c) C (d) B
(a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 150 (d) 50 (e) No Error
(e) 20 75. Chile happen to be one of the most (A)/highly vaccinated
67. A shopkeeper sold an article K at 25% gain and another countries in the (B)/world, with more than 90% of its (C)/
article P at 20% loss. Find her overall gain or loss percent population fully vaccinated as of January. (D)/ No Error
if S.P. of both articles were same? (E)
(a) 3.5% gain (b) 3.5% loss (a) D (b) C (c) B (d) A
(b) 4.5% gain (d) 2.44% loss (e) No Error
(e) 2.44% gain
68. Find the probability of selecting two black honor cards DIRECTIONS (Qs. 76-80): In each of the questions given
form a pack of 52 cards? below a sentence is given with three words in bold. Choose the
14 61 132 28 option which gives the correct sequence of these words to make
(a) (b) (c) (d) the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.
663 663 663 663
76. The changes relating (A) in the Central GST Act sections
(e) None of these proposed (B) to input tax credits aim to restrict such credits
69. Aman is 20% more efficient than Ankit while Mohan is unless suppliers have remitted (C) their share of taxes.
40% less efficient than Aman. If Ankit alone can complete
(a) ACB (b) BAC (c) CAB (d) BCA
the work in 24 days then in how many days Aman and
Mohan together can complete the work. (e) No rearrangement required
(a) 10 days (b) 12.5 days 77. With coal stocks running (A) ‘critically low’, the
(c) 15 days (d) 20 days aluminium industry has precarious (B) urgent government
(e) 24 days intervention to address the sought (C) situation.
70. A boat travels 32 km downstream and 20 km upstream in (a) ACB (b) BAC (c) CAB (d) BCA
9 hrs. The same boat travels 64 km, downstream and 24 (e) No rearrangement required
km upstream in 14 hrs. Find the ratio between speed of 78. Ms. Sitharaman said to proliferation (A) affordable
boat in still water and speed of current? broadband and mobile service remote (B) in rural and
(a) 3 : 5 (b) 5 : 3 enable (C) areas.
(c) 2 : 5 (d) 5 : 2 (a) ACB (b) BAC (c) CAB (d) CBA
(e) 3 : 1 (e) No rearrangement required

English Language
79. The government seems to have prioritised (A) meeting
its fiscal deficit targets rather than using this inclusive (B)
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 71-75): Read each sentence to find out to signal a path of employment-centred and opportunity
whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The (C) growth.
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number (a) ACB (b) BAC (c) CAB (d) BCA
of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (e). (e) No rearrangement required
(Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.) 80. With the country yet again unemployment (A) with
71. Despite of light rainfall in the (A)/national capital, the air another wave of the COVID-19 pandemic, there are
(B)/quality remained in the ‘very poor’ category with (C)/an concerns about grappling (B) growth and increasing
overall Air Quality Index (AQI) at 318. (D)/ No Error (E) faltering (C).
(a) C (b) B (c) A (d) D (a) ACB (b) BAC (c) CAB (d) BCA
(e) No Error (e) No rearrangement required
2021-34 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelims Solved Paper-2021

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 81-88): Given below is a paragraph that DIRECTIONS (Qs. 89-93): In the following question,
has blank spaces. Corresponding to each blank, five options sentences are given with a part in bold. The given phrase in the
are given, out of which only one is appropriate. Choose the bold may or may not contain an error. The options following
option that fits most suitably in the given blank making sentence can replace the incorrect phrase. The correct phrase that is to
grammatically and contextually correct. be replaced will be your answer. If the sentences are correct
The Budget proposals seek to ___________ (81) the economy then select ‘No improvement required’ as your answer.
by stepping up public investments, which will create demand 89. The petition contended that the establishments and factories
for industrial inputs like cement, steel and capital goods, and were operates in violation of environmental norms and
generate jobs, Economic Affairs Secretary Ajay Seth said. affected public health.
Finance Minister Nirmala Sithaharaman in her Budget 2022-23 (a) has been operating in violation of
___________ (82) public investment by as much as 35.4 per (b) were operating in violation of
cent to Rs 7.5 lakh crore or 2.9 per cent of the GDP. Observing (c) were operates in violation on
that direct support measures have only limited multiplier effect,
(d) was operating in violation of
Seth said steps which can have long to medium term impact
(e) No improvement required
are needed to ___________ (83) the economy in a sustained
manner. “When we are looking at economic management, it is 90. The Delhi Commission for Women (DCW) was issued
not a one-year affair. One has to look at short, medium or long a notice to the police regarding the same and sought a
term. In the short term, what was needed has been ___________ detailed action taken report.
(84). “When we come to the medium and long term, we find (a) had issued a notice to the police
that a direct income support that simulates consumption demand (b) have issue a notice to the police
has a very limited ___________ (85) effect, whereas capital (c) has been issuing a notice to the police
investment has a much larger, very strong multiplier effect, (d) has issue a notice to the police
which lasts more than one year. (e) No improvement required
“How it helps? It generates demand for the inputs which get 91. Ravi was sent to Taloja Jail, where some of his co-accused
into the ___________ (86) — cement, steel, capital goods, have now spend more than three years without bail or
construction machinery and so on,” Seth told PTI in an interview. trial.
In view of the ___________ (87) caused by the COVID-19 (a) have now spent more than three year
pandemic, the government provided direct support to people (b) have now spend more then three years
through various schemes like Jan Dhan, PM KISAN and Pradhan (c) have now spent more then three years
Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana, he said, adding “in year two the
(d) have now spent more than three years
need moderated and year three we expect that the need may not
be there.” By increasing public investment, the government has (e) No improvement required
provided the signal that it is ready to ___________ (88) funds 92. With technology becoming smarter, there has been a
into growth-oriented activities. corresponding increase in cyber fraud, harassments and
81. (a) Obliterate (b) Quash threats.
(c) Annihilate (d) Apprehend (a) On technology becoming smarter
(e) Stimulate (b) At technology becoming smarter
82. (a) Accepted (b) Hiked (c) On technology became smarter
(c) Egressed (d) Confronted (d) With technology has become smarter
(e) Exacerbated (e) No improvement required
83. (a) Dawdle (b) Pillage 93. A good coach had the skills of his entire team accounted
(c) Boost (d) Supervene for, and knows where to put them for the best results.
(e) Flout (a) have the skills (b) have a skill
84. (a) Provided (b) Deployed (c) has the skills (d) had skills
(c) Waned (d) Fainted (e) No improvement required
(e) Resolved DIRECTIONS (Qs. 94-100): Read the following passage
85. (a) Myriad (b) Plausible and answer the given questions below it with the help of the
(c) Multiplier (d) Multiplicity information provided in it.
(e) Exclusive
Screaming is a unique noise. Research suggests when we scream
86. (a) Investment (b) Misadventure
in fear, the noise serves the dual purpose of sharpening our own
(c) Ubiquitous (d) Delinquent focus in the face of a threat as well as of warning others. In fact,
(e) Extraneous our brains process screams in a unique way. Most noises we hear
87. (a) Manoeuvre (b) Resolve are delivered from our ear to an area of the brain devoted to
(c) Hardship (d) Reticent analyzing a sound and breaking it into its component parts, such
(e) Strife as gender, age, and tone; high or low; a brass, stringed or electric
88. (a) Discord (b) Oblivious instrument — or several combined; a ribbit or a coo, and what
(c) Impropriety (d) Amity animal makes that sound. This indicates that we differentiate
(e) Pump all the noises we hear every day, even subconsciously.
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelims Solved Paper-2021 2021-35

A scream is different though, according to David Poepple, PhD, 96. Among the following statements, choose option(s) which
a professor of psychology and neural science at New York are FALSE in accordance with the information given in
University. Poepple is the lead author of a 2015 study that looked the passage.
into what happens in the body when people scream in fear. A (I) The part of the brain that understands the fear of the
scream goes straight from the ear to the amygdala, the part of the situation and sends us into a full blown fight/flight
brain that processes fear and kickstarts the body’s fight-or-flight response is called amygdala.
response. The sound jolts our brains into increased alertness and
(II) The number of muscles used in the process of speaking
analysis. This is especially true for screams when we’re scared.
are over 100.
These have a unique sound signature encompassed by the term
“roughness.” This roughness is what serves to alert others to (III) The purpose of a scream is to vent out your anger and
danger. Humans and other animals scream for many reasons release the emotions a person has been withholding
— in joy, in surprise, in fear. But we’ve evolved to be able to inside.
produce different shrieks and to be able to discern the difference (a) Both I and II (b) Only III
when we hear them. (Incidentally, roughness is also why we (c) Only II (d) Only I
find the sound of a baby crying and fingernails on chalkboards (e) Both II and III
disturbing; both sounds have high roughness.) If we focus on 97. Choose the option which states the reason for why some
the sounds that gain our attention, we will be able to tell which people go mute when they are scared.
one is rough and which is not.
(a) The brain finds it hard to concentrate between how to
But what about people who have the opposite reaction when
combat the dangerous situation and figuring out how
they’re scared? What about the people who don’t scream in fear,
to talk which leaves a person mute.
but become speechless in the face of a threat? This has been less
studied, but it’s likely a part of the third, overlooked response (b) Some people find that they don’t want to express their
to terror: paralysis. Contrary to pop medicine, fight and flight feelings of terror and fright which is why they choose
aren’t the only two reactions to something scary. Humans, like to remain quiet in those moments.
other animals, also evolved the option to freeze, or “play dead” (c) A certain part of the brain responsible for overlooking
in the face of a threat. This happens involuntarily, when the muscle activity takes over other responses of the brain
cerebellum, the part of the brain that regulates muscle activity, and forces every movement of the body to shut down,
overpowers other terrified brain responses and basically shuts including speech.
down all movement. Since screaming takes quitfiocue a few (d) Being quiet has been found to help do away with the
muscles (probably a little less than the 100 used for speaking), dangerous and harmful factors that a person might be
a person frozen in fear is rendered mute as well as immobile. facing at that exact moment.
94. Choose the statement(s) which is/are TRUE based on the
(e) None of the above
information given in the passage.
(I) Our systems are built in a way that only allows us to 98. Among all the three responses to fear, how does a scream
scream in dangerous or threatful situations. help us in possible dangerous situations?
(II) One of the ways humans tackle fear is by going into a (a) The brain processes the scream in a part which helps
freeze mode and acting dead which is a similar action activate our fight or flight mode which then helps us
to animals. become aware and scan the situation.
(III) The brain sorts the noises we hear regularly on the (b) Scream can notify the people in your surroundings like
basis of factors such as gender or high or low tone, your neighbours or anybody in close vicinity to you.
age, etc. (c) When you scream, your vocal cords stretch and
(a) Both II and III (b) Both II and I become flexible enough to scream louder and warn
(c) Only III (d) Both I and III others of the situation.
(e) Only I (d) None of the above
95. According to the article, what contributes to alerting (e) All of the above
someone of the danger a person is in? 99. Select the word which is similar in meaning to the
(a) The gestures and expressions we make when we are highlighted word INDICATES.
confronted with a seemingly dangerous situation. (a) announces (b) signals
(b) The scream one lets out when faced with danger holds
(c) bargains (d) divides
an element of roughness which is crucial for letting
others know of the possible danger. (e) flows
(c) Secretion of certain fluids and juices in our bodies by our 100. Choose the phrase which will replace the phrase ‘focus
organs play a part in accomplishing the above said thing. on’ as highlighted in the passage.
(d) The frequency of our screams, i.e., how often we (a) drain out (b) tear apart
shout in the given amount of time can alert others of (c) fire away (d) concentrate on
the presence of danger. (e) mix into
(e) None of the above
2021-36 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelims Solved Paper-2021

ANSWER KEY
1 (b) 11 (b) 21 (b) 31 (e) 41 (c) 51 (d) 61 (d) 71 (c) 81 (e) 91 (d)
2 (e) 12 (d) 22 (e) 32 (c) 42 (a) 52 (b) 62 (e) 72 (b) 82 (b) 92 (e)
3 (d) 13 (b) 23 (a) 33 (d) 43 (e) 53 (e) 63 (d) 73 (b) 83 (c) 93 (c)
4 (a) 14 (b) 24 (d) 34 (d) 44 (c) 54 (d) 64 (d) 74 (c) 84 (a) 94 (a)
5 (b) 15 (c) 25 (b) 35 (a) 45 (b) 55 (b) 65 (b) 75 (d) 85 (c) 95 (b)
6 (c) 16 (c) 26 (c) 36 (c) 46 (d) 56 (b) 66 (b) 76 (b) 86 (a) 96 (e)
7 (c) 17 (b) 27 (a) 37 (a) 47 (c) 57 (c) 67 (d) 77 (a) 87 (c) 97 (c)
8 (e) 18 (a) 28 (e) 38 (b) 48 (e) 58 (b) 68 (a) 78 (d) 88 (e) 98 (a)
9 (d) 19 (c) 29 (d) 39 (d) 49 (a) 59 (e) 69 (b) 79 (a) 89 (b) 99 (b)
10 (e) 20 (b) 30 (e) 40 (e) 50 (b) 60 (a) 70 (e) 80 (d) 90 (a) 100 (d)

ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS

Sol. (1-5) : Sol. (21-25) :
E X Y Z D F
Row 1 (s) Box
Case I : U
I P U S J T Y
Row 2 (n)
W
1. (b) 2. (e) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (b)
T
Sol. (6-9) :
Z
Case 1
S
X
T J I U V H K W V
6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (e) 9. (d)
21. (b) 22. (e) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (b)
Sol. (26-29) :
10. (e)
D I A G O N A L 26. (c) Adults
Students Educator Children
Sol. (11-15) :
11. (b) 2 $ P, 4 # F 12. (d) Z$5 13. (b) ‘2’
27. (a)
14. (b) ‘P’ 15. (c) ‘6’
Schools
Sol. (16-17) : Classes
16. (c) College
W 5m. V
3m. Universities
Y 6m.
X 28. (e)
Notebooks
Z Registers Book Copies
25 + 9 =34
17. (b) W 5m.
V 29. (d)
3m. Laptops Smartphones
Y 6m.
Phones Computers
X
Z 30. (e) After arranging, we get;
Sol. (18-20):
2 4 5 1 4 7 9 6 3 8
18. (a) I. A > X (True) II. Q > M (False)
1 2 4 4 5 3 6 7 8 9
19. (c) I. M > G (False) II. M = S (False)
20. (b) I. L < F (False) II. X > D (True)
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelims Solved Paper-2021 2021-37

Sol. (31-35) : 130 704 x 704

W
46. (d) x× = 390 × ; = 3×
144 384 144 384
U Z
3 × 704 × 144
= x = 792
384
Y T 1 1
47. (c) 400 × (8000) 3 ? × (4096) 4
=
V S 1

X ⇒ 20 × 20 = x × (84) 4 ⇒ 400 = x × 8
31. (e) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (d) 35. (a) ⇒ x = 50
Sol. (36-40): 1
36. (c) Pattern 23 + 2, 33 + 3, 43 + 4, 53 + 5, 63 + 6, 73 + 7 48. (e) 70% of 90 + 92 = (32) 5 + x
130, 222, 350
1
37. (a) Pattern of series 70 × 90 + 81
10 + 12 = 22 ; 12 + 22 = 34 = (25 ) 5 + x ⇒ 144 = 2 + x ⇒ x = 142
100
22 + 34 = 56 ; 4 + 56 = 90
38. (b) Pattern of series 418 19 × 22
49. (a) × 324 − 280 = x ⇒ × 324 − 280 = x
352 19 × 18
⇒ 396 – 280 ⇒ x = 116
50. (b) x × 2 – 202 = 142 – 18 × 22 ⇒ 2x = 400 – 200
⇒ 2x = 200 ⇒ x = 100
Sol. (51-55) :
Double difference 51. (d) Total no. of students registered for CGL
39. (d) Pattern of series = 25 + 35 + 40 + 55+ 45 = 200
1×1+1=2 ;2×2+2=6 Total no. of students registered for CHSL
6 × 3 + 3 = 21 ; 21 × 4 + 4 = 88 = 20 + 30 + 35 + 45 + 20 = 150
88 × 5 + 5 = 445 200 − 150 50 1
Required % = × 100
= × 100 = 33 %
40. (e) Pattern of series 150 150 3
Take difference :- 52. (b) Total students registered for all the three exams in
99 105 112 122 137 159 2015 and 2016 together
= 15 + 25 + 20 + 25 + 35 + 30 = 150
6 7 10 15 22 Total students registered for all the three exams in
2017 and 2018 together
1 3 5 7 = 35 + 40 + 35 + 45 + 55 + 45 = 255
Double difference 150 10
Required ratio = =
Sol. (41-45): 255 17
x × 270 27 x 24.3 53. (e) Average number of student registered for MTS
= 564.3 − 540 ; =
41. (c)
100 10 10 ⇒ x = 9 exam
15 + 25 + 35 + 45 + 40 160
= = = 32
4 3 + 4 + 6 + 12 5 5
42. (a) =
x 1200 Average number of students registered for CHSL exam
4 × 1200 20 + 30 + 35 + 45 + 20 150
4 25 = = = 30
= =⇒ x = 192 5 5
x 1200 25
Required difference = 32 – 30 = 2
729 729
43. x2
(e) = × 512 ⇒ × 512 = 64 54. (d) Total students registered for a all the three exams in
72 72 × 81 2019 = 40 + 45 + 20 = 105
81 80
Number of appeared students = × 105 = 84
5 + 7 + 13 33 25 100
44. (c) = x+ ⇒ = x + 3.3 84
2 10 2 Students appeared for MTS exam = × 3 = 36
7
⇒ 12.5 – 3.3 = x ⇒ 9.2 = x
36
45 (43 )2 Required % = × 100 =90%
45. (b) 4x–2 = 2 3 × 4 40
(4 ) 4 55. (b) Total number of students register for all exams
4x–2 = 45–4 = 41 ⇒ x – 2 = 1 ⇒ x = 3 = 25 + 35 + 30 = 90 Lakh
2021-38 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelims Solved Paper-2021

Required number of students 62. (e) Average students in group A of class P and Q
80 75 60 + 30
=90 × × = 54 Lakh = = 45
100 100 2 45
Principal × rate × time Required ratio =
56. (b) Simple Interest = 184
100 63. (d) Total girls in group B and C together = 34 – 12 = 22
12000 × r × 5 Total boys in group B and C together on class P
6000 = ⇒ r = 10% = (180 – 60) – 22 = 98
100
64. (d) Total students in group B of all the classes = 130
Compound Interest for 3yrs on same rate 65. (b) Required difference = 224 – 170 = 54
t 3
 r   10  8×8
A P 1 +
= =
 ; A 12000  1 +  66. (b) Required percentage = × 100 = 200%
 100   100  8× 4

 11 
3 67. (d) Let S.P. of each article be ` 100.
A = 12000   ⇒ A = 15972 Total S.P. = ` 200
 100  100
\ C.P of article K = × 100 = ` 80
C. I. = A – P = 15972 – 12000 = ` 3972 125
57. (c) Population of city in 2016
100 100 100 100
C.P. of article P = × 100 = ` 125
= 2332000 × × × = 2120000 80
110 80 125
125 Total C.P. = ` 205
58. (b) B = A Overall gain or loss percent
100
B:A 205 − 200 100
= × 100 = = 2.44% loss
Efficiency = 125 : 100 205 41
5:4 8
C2 14
A can do a work in 20 days 68. (a) Required probability = =
52 663
Total work = Efficiency × time = 4 × 20 = 80 C2
(A + B) work for 4 days = (4 + 5) × 4 = 36 69. (b) Efficiency :- Aman : Ankit
Remaining = 80 – 36 = 44 6 : 5
Complete remaining work in 11 days Efficiency :- Mohan : Aman
44 3 : 5
= = 11 (efficiency) Combined efficiency
4
80 80 Aman Ankit Mohan
(A + B + C) = = = 4 days.
(4 + 5 + 11) 20 30 25 18
59. (e) Ratio between profit share of Naveen to Naman Total work = 25 × 24 = 600
= 6000 × 12 : 8000 × 6 600
Aman + Mohan = = 12.5 days
Let profit of Naveen and Naman are ` 3x and 2x respectively 48
3x − 2 x 70. (e) Let speed of boat in still water = x kmph
Required percentage = × 100 = 33.33% less and speed of current = y kmph.
3x
60. (a) Ratio of their profit sharing 32 20
+ =9 . . . (i)
P : Q : R = 6 × 3 : 7 × 12 : 8 × 7 = 9 : 42 : 28 x+ y x− y
Annual profit = 244900
Difference b/w P and R share of profit 64 24
+ 14
= . . . (ii)
19 x+ y x− y
= × 244900 = ` 58900
79 Solving (i) & (ii),
Sol. (61-65) : x = 6 km/h, y = 2 km/h
Group Group Group Required ration = 3 : 1
Total 71. (c) The correct choice is option (c). In part (A), ‘despite
A B C
of’ is incorrect as ‘despite’ is never followed by
P 60 40 80 180 ‘of’. Hence, option (c) is the right answer choice.
72. (b) The error lies in part (B) of the sentence. Here
Q 30 50 80 160 ‘recently’ should be ‘recent’ as we need adjective
R 80 40 64 184 here while ‘recently’ is adverb. Hence, option (b) is
the right answer choice.
Total 170 130 224 524 73. (b) The error lies in part (C). Here ‘accept’ should be
‘except’. Accept is contextually incorrect in the given
30
61. (d) Required percentage = × 100% =
75% sentence. accept means to agree to take something
40 that somebody offers you except means not including
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelims Solved Paper-2021 2021-39

somebody/something; apart from the fact that hence, 83. (c) ‘Boost’ fits most suitably in the given blank making
option (b) is the right answer choice. sentence grammatically and contextually correct.
74. (c) The error lies in part (C). Here ‘safety’ should be Hence, option (c) is the right answer choice.
‘safe’ as we need an adjective here for the noun Dawdle: waste time; be slow.
‘place’. Hence, option (c) is the right answer choice. Pillage: rob a (place) using violence, especially in
75. (d) The error lies in part (A). Here ‘happen’ should be wartime.
replaced by ‘happens’ as to comply with the rule of Boost: help or encourage (something) to increase or
subject verb agreement, we need singular verb for improve.
the singular subject (Chile). Supervene: occur as an interruption or change to an
76. (b) The correct sequence of words is BAC. Therefore, existing situation.
the correct sentence will be Flout: openly disregard (a rule, law, or convention).
“The changes proposed (B) in the Central GST 84. (a) ‘Provided’ fits most suitably in the given blank
Act sections relating (A) to input tax credits aim to making sentence grammatically and contextually
restrict such credits unless suppliers have remitted correct. Hence, option (a) is the right answer choice.
(C) their share of taxes.” Provided: made available for use; supply.
Hence, option (b) is the right answer choice. Deployed: brought into effective action.
77. (a) The correct sequence is ACB. Therefore, the correct Waned: (of the moon) have a progressively smaller
sentence will be, “With coal stocks running (A) part of its visible surface illuminated, so that it
‘critically low’, the aluminium industry has sought appears to decrease in size.
(C) urgent government intervention to address the Fainted: lost consciousness for a short time because
precarious (B) situation.” of a temporarily insufficient supply of oxygen to the
Hence, option (a) is the right answer choice. brain.
78. (d) The correct sequence is CBA. Therefore, the Resolved: firmly determined to do something.
sentence will be, Ms. Sitharaman said to enable 85. (c) ‘Multiplier’ fits most suitably in the given blank
(C) affordable broadband and mobile service making sentence grammatically and contextually
proliferation (A) in rural and remote (B) areas. correct. Hence, option (c) is the right answer choice.
Hence, option (d) is the right answer choice. Myriad: Innumerable
79. (a) The correct sequence is ACB. Therefore, the Plausible: Credible
sentence will be, Multiplier: a person or thing that multiplies.
“The government seems to have prioritised (A) Multiplicity: Abundance, scores, mass
meeting its fiscal deficit targets rather than using this Exclusive: Complete
opportunity (C) to signal a path of employment- 86. (a) ‘Investment’ fits most suitably in the given blank
centred and inclusive (B) growth.” making sentence grammatically and contextually
Hence, option (a) is the right answer choice. correct. Hence, option (a) is the right answer choice.
80. (d) The correct sequence is BCA. Therefore, the correct Investment: the action or process of investing
sentence will be, “With the country yet again money for profit.
grappling (B) with another wave of the COVID-19 Misadventure: death caused by a person accidentally
pandemic, there are concerns about faltering (C) while performing a legal act without negligence or
growth and increasing unemployment (A).” intent to harm.
Hence, option (d) is the right answer choice. Ubiquitous: present, appearing, or found everywhere.
81. (e) ‘stimulate’ fits most suitably in the given blank Delinquent: (typically of a young person) tending to
making sentence grammatically and contextually commit crime, particularly minor crime.
correct. Hence, option (e) is the right answer choice. Extraneous: irrelevant or unrelated to the subject
Obliterate: destroy utterly; wipe out. being dealt with.
Quash: reject as invalid, especially by legal procedure. 87. (c) ‘Hardship’ fits most suitably in the given blank
Annihilate: Destroy utterly, obliterate making sentence grammatically and contextually
Apprehend: arrest someone for a crime correct. Hence, option (c) is the right answer choice.
Stimulate: raise levels of physiological or nervous Manoeuvre: a movement or series of moves
activity in (the body or any biological system). requiring skill and care.
82. (b) ‘Hiked’ fits most suitably in the given blank making Resolve: settle or find a solution to (a problem or
sentence grammatically and contextually correct. contentious matter).
Hence, option (b) is the right answer choice. Hardship: severe suffering or privation.
Accepted: generally believed or recognized to be Reticent: not revealing one’s thoughts or feelings
valid or correct. readily.
Hiked: increased (something, especially a price) sharply. Strife: angry or bitter disagreement over fundamental
Egressed: gone out of or leave (a place). issues; conflict.
Confronted: came face to face with (someone) with 88. (e) ‘Pump’ fits most suitably in the given blank making
hostile or argumentative intent. sentence grammatically and contextually correct.
Exacerbated: made (a problem, bad situation, or Hence, option (e) is the right answer choice.
negative feeling) worse. Discord: disagreement between people.
2021-40 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelims Solved Paper-2021

Oblivious: not aware of or concerned about what is 96. (e) The correct choice for the answer is option (e): Both
happening around one. II and III
Impropriety: failure to observe standards of honesty Statement II is false as the passage says: Since
or modesty; improper behaviour or character. screaming takes quite a few muscles (probably a
Amity: friendly relations. little less than the 100 used for speaking), a person
Pump: move vigorously up and down. frozen in fear is rendered mute as well as immobile.
89. (b) The given highlighted phrase is incorrect. The Statement III is also false because it can be found
sentence is in past continuous tense hence ‘operates’ in the article that: Research suggests when we
in statement is incorrect hence option (c) is also scream in fear, the noise serves the dual purpose of
incorrect. In option (a), ‘has’ is incorrect because sharpening our own focus in the face of a threat as
subject (establishments and factories) is plural here well as of warning others.
therefore option (d) is also incorrect. Hence correct The facts present in the passage help us figure out
choice is option (b). why the statements II and III are false.
90. (a) The highlighted phrase in the statement is incorrect Hence, option (e) is the correct choice for the answer.
as sentence is in Past indefinite. In option (b), ‘have’ 97. (c) The correct choice for the answer is option (c): A
is incorrect as subject (DCW) is singular. Option (c) certain part of the brain responsible for overlooking
is in Perfect continuous hence incorrect. In Option muscle activity takes over other responses of the
(d), ‘issue’ is incorrect as ‘has+v3’ is correct. brain and forces every movement of the body to
91. (d) In the highlighted phrase ‘spend’ is incorrect because shut down, including speech.
sentence is in past tense and third form of spend is The answer is found towards the end of the last
‘spent’ therefore option (b) is also incorrect. In option paragraph: This happens involuntarily, when the
(a), ‘year’ should be ‘years’. In option (b), ‘then’ cerebellum, the part of the brain that regulates
should be ‘than’ hence option (c) is also incorrect. muscle activity, overpowers other terrified brain
92. (e) The highlighted phrase in the sentence is correct responses and basically shuts down all movement.
hence no improvement required is correct choice. Since screaming takes quite a few muscles (probably
93. (c) The correct replacement of the highlighted phrase is a little less than the 100 used for speaking), a person
“has the skills” as the sentence follows the structure of frozen in fear is rendered mute as well as immobile.
present tense. Moreover, the subject of the sentence is All the other options are nowhere to be found in the
singular. Hence, option (c) is the correct choice. above passage.
94. (a) The correct choice for the answer is option (a): Both Hence, option (c) is the correct choice for the answer.
II and III. 98. (a) The correct choice for the answer is option (a): The
Statement II is true because it is stated in the last brain processes the scream in a part which helps
paragraph of the passage that “humans, like other activate our fight or flight mode which then helps us
animals, also evolved the option to freeze, or “play become aware and scan the situation. This answer
dead” in the face of a threat.” is present in the second paragraph: A scream goes
Statement III is true because in the first paragraph it straight from the ear to the amygdala, the part of the
says: Most noises we hear are delivered from our ear brain that processes fear and kickstarts the body’s
to an area of the brain devoted to analyzing a sound fight-or-flight response. The sound jolts our brains
and breaking it into its component parts, such as into increased alertness and analysis.
gender, age, and tone; high or low; a brass, stringed Hence, option (a) is the correct choice for the answer.
or electric instrument — or several combined; a 99. (b) The correct choice for the answer is option (b): signals.
ribbit or a coo, and what animal makes that sound. To signal means to convey information or
Statement I is incorrect because in the last paragraph instructions by means of a gesture, action, or sound.
it says “Humans and other animals scream for Indicate means to express an intention, opinion, or
many reasons — in joy, in surprise, in fear. “ This wish in an indirect way.
tells us that there can be many reasons for humans Hence, signals is the word most similar to indicates.
screaming besides fear. To announce means to make a formal public
Hence, option (a) is the correct choice for the answer. statement about a fact, occurrence, or intention.
95. (b) The correct choice for the answer is option (b): The To bargain means an agreement between two or more
scream one lets out when faced with danger holds people or groups as to what each will do for the other.
an element of roughness which is crucial for letting To divide means to separate or be separated into parts.
others know of the possible danger. Flows mean the action or fact of moving along in a
This answer is found in the second paragraph where steady, continuous stream.
it says: This is especially true for screams when 100. (d) The correct choice for the answer is option (d):
we’re scared. These have a unique sound signature concentrate on.
encompassed by the term “roughness.” This Focus on or concentrate on have similar meanings
roughness is what serves to alert others to danger. which can be explained as to give most of your
The rest of the options are not mentioned anywhere attention to someone or something.
in the passage given. Therefore they cannot be The rest of the phrases are not applicable because
considered for the answer. they all have different meanings. Hence, they cannot
Hence, option (b) is the correct choice for the answer. be used to replace the given phrase.
 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2020
(Based on Memory)

Time : 160 minutes Max. Marks : 200

Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude DIRECTIONS (6-10): In the following questions, the symbols
@, #, %, $ and * are used with the following meaning as
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): Study the following information illustrated below-
carefully and answer the questions given below: M@N – M is neither greater than nor equal to N
Thirteen friends I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T and U are M%N – M is neither smaller than nor equal to N
playing cards. They are sitting in such a way that some are sitting M#N – M is not greater than N
around a square and some are sitting around a circle and circle M$N – M is not smaller than N
is inscribed in a square. Some of them are seated at the corner M*N – M is neither smaller than nor greater than N
of the table while some of them have seated at the centre of the Now in each of the following questions assuming the given
table. The friends who are sitting at the corner of the table facing statement to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and
outside the centre and those who are sitting at the middle facing II given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer
the centre. Those who are sitting around the circle face inside accordingly.
the centre. They like different cloth brand viz. Puma, Reebok, 6. Statements: – A@Y, Y%X, X*W, W$V
Gucci, Prada, Arrow, Flying Machine, Chanel, Allen solly and Conclusions: – (I) Y%V (II) A%V
Zara but not necessarily in the same order. Only two persons like (a) Only conclusion I follows
the same cloth who is sitting around the square. N is third to the (b) Only conclusion II follows
right of the one who likes Puma. Q sits two seats to the left of
(c) Either conclusion I or II follows
S. The person who likes Puma is sitting immediate neighbour
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II follow
of the person sits in the front of the one who likes Puma, same
(e) Both conclusion I and II follows
for Prada, Gucci and Reebok. R who likes Flying Machine sits
second to the right of S. Q is sitting around the circle. Only two 7. Statements: – A%Y, Y*X, X#W, W*V
persons sit between the one who likes Puma and O. O does not Conclusions: – (I) A%X (II) V$Y
like Puma. M likes Gucci is sitting third to the right of P who is (a) Only conclusion I follows
an immediate neighbour of the person who likes Puma. P does (b) Only conclusion II follows
not sit at any of the corners and does not like Reebok. U is not (c) Either conclusion I or II follows
an immediate neighbour of Q. The one who likes Reebok sits (d) Neither conclusion I nor II follow\
immediate left of I, who does not sits any of the corners. The (e) Both conclusion I and II follows
one who likes Arrow and Chanel are sitting next to each other. 8. Statements: – A*Y, Y$X, X#W, W@V
3 likes Gucci and immediate left of N. K does not like Reebok. Conclusions: – (I) V*A (II) X%A
T neither likes Chanel nor Arrow. The one who likes Zara sits (a) Only conclusion I follows
second to the right of the one who likes Arrow. (b) Only conclusion II follows
1. P likes which of the following cloth brand? (c) Either conclusion I or II follows
(a) Puma (b) Reebok (d) Neither conclusion I nor II follow
(c) Gucci (d) Allen solly (e) Both conclusion I and II follows
(e) Prada 9. Statements: – A$Y, Y$X, X*W, W@V
2. Four of the following are alike in a certain way and hence Conclusions: – (I) A$V (II) V%X
form a group. Which of the following does not belong to
(a) Only conclusion I follows
that group?
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(a) O (b) N (c) M (d) K
(e) L (c) Either conclusion I or II follows
3. Who among the following likes Allen solly? (d) Neither conclusion I nor II follow
(a) S (b) U (c) T (d) O (e) Both conclusion I and II follows
(e) Q 10. Statements: – A%V, V@X, X%Y, Y*W
4. How many persons are sitting between N and L? Conclusions: – (I) X%W (II) Y@A
(a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (a) Only conclusion I follows
(e) Four (b) Only conclusion II follows
5. Who among the following likes the same cloth brand? (c) Either conclusion I or II follows
(a) K - P (b) L - M (c) K - M (d) P - N (d) Neither conclusion I nor II follow
(e) U - I (e) Both conclusion I and II follows
 GP_4458
2020-2 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2020

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-15): Study the following information Conditions:

carefully to answer the given questions: (i) If the middle letter is a vowel, the codes for the first and
fourth letters are to be interchanged.
Seven photographer Mani, Neha, Om, Prakhar, Qasim, Rohan,
(ii) If the first two letters are consonants, the first letter is to be
and Shilpi live on seven different floors of a building, first floor
is numbered as 1 and topmost floor is numbered as 7. They have coded as the code given for last letter.
different shapes of camera Boxes i.e. Heart, Cuboid, Conical, (iii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant
Cylindrical, Spherical, Oval, and Pyramid (not necessarily in same both are to be coded as the code for the Consonant.
order). They also like different colours i.e. brown, pink, peach, 16. DRAP
yellow, green, black, and red (not necessarily in same order). (a) 2!82 (b) 8!22 (c) 28!2 (d) 282!
Neha, who likes black colour, does not live on odd floor. Shilpi (e) None of these
does not live on the first floor and doesn’t like red and pink 17. AUSEMR
colour. The one who likes yellow colour lives on even numbered
floor. The one who lives on 1st floor has conical shaped box (a) 198?@ (b) 8@?918
and the one who has Spherical shaped box lives on an odd (c) 8198@? (d) 8@?198
numbered floor. The one who lives just above Neha’s floor likes (e) None of these
green colour. Two photographer live between Qasim’s floor and
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 18-22): Study the following information
Mani’s floor. Rohan, who has Oval shaped box lives on the floor
which is immediately above Mani, who does not live on an odd- carefully to answer the given questions.
numbered floor. Rohan doesn’t like pink colour. Prakhar lives A word and number arrangement machine when given an
neither on the first floor nor on the fourth floor. The one who input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a
lives just below Rohan’s floor has Heart shaped box and the one
who has Cuboid shaped box lives below Prakhar’s floor. Three particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of
photographers live between Shilpi, who has Pyramid shaped input and rearrangement.
box and Rohan. The one who has heart shaped box likes peach Input: dust 31 service cleaner 22 47 wound 11 62 basic 35
colour. Step I: 11 dust 31 service cleaner 22 47 wound 62 35 basic
11. Who lives on the floor which is just above the one who has Step II: 11 31 dust service cleaner 22 47 62 35 wound basic
Oval shaped box? Step III: 11 31 47 dust cleaner 22 62 35 service wound basic
(a) Rohan Step IV: 11 31 47 22 dust 62 35 cleaner service wound basic
(b) The one who has Cuboid shaped box
Step V: 11 31 47 22 35 62 dust cleaner service wound basic
(c) Shilpi
(d) The one who has Spherical shaped box And step V is the last step of the above input. As per the rules
(e) None of these followed in the above step, find out the appropriate step for the
12. How many photographers live between Rohan’s floor and given output.
the one who likes brown colour? Input: Set 17 48 bad pack 23 situation 61 25 puzzle 16
(a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three 18. Which element is exactly between the third element from
(e) None of these left end and fifth element from right end in step IV?
13. Mani has which of the following shaped box? (a) 48 (b) pack (c) Set (d) bad
(a) Spherical (b) Oval
(e) 16
(c) Heart (d) Cylindrical
(e) None of these 19. In step II, ‘17’ is related to ‘pack’ and ‘Set’ is related to
14. Who among the following lives on the topmost floor? ‘61’. In the same way ‘situation’ is related to?
(a) Neha (b) Shilpi (a) 25 (b) bad (c) 23 (d) puzzle
(c) Qasim (d) Rohan (e) 48
(e) None of these 20. In which of the following step the elements “48 25
15. Which of the following combinations is true? situation” found in the same order?
(a) Conical-Prakhar-yellow (a) Step I (b) Step IV
(b) Cuboid-Mani-Red
(c) Oval-Rohan-Red (c) Step III (d) Step II
(d) Cylindrical-Prakhar-Green (e) no such step
(e) None of these 21. In step II, what is the sum of fourth element from left end
and third element from right end?
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16-17): In each question below is given a
group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols (a) 79 (b) 88 (c) 37 (d) 80
numbered (a), (b), (c) and (d). You have to find out which of the (e) 64
combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on 22. Which of the following element would be at the third to
the coding system and mark the number of that combination as the left of the element which is sixth from the right end in
your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the step III?
group of letters, mark (E), i.e “None of these” as your answer. (a) 61 (b) Set (c) pack (d) 16
Letter: W R A P G B M U S E F T N D (e) 48
Digit/Symbol Code: $ 8 ! 2 7 # 9 @ ? 5 1 3 4 * 6
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2020 2020-3

27. Who among the following Student attend the seminar

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 23-25): In the following questions, the
immediately after Mathematics?
symbols #, &, @ and $ are used with the following meanings as
(a) Chemistry (b) Biology
illustrated below. Study the following information and answer
(c) Physics (d) Mathematics
the given questions: (e) None of these
Note: The directions which are given indicates exact directions. 28. Who among the following attends seminar from 9:30 am
PPP#QQQ – PPP is in the south direction of QQQ. -11:00 am?
PPP@QQQ – PPP is in the north direction of QQQ. (a) Biology (b) Physics
(c) English (d) Computer
PPP&QQQ – PPP is in the east direction of QQQ.
(e) None of these
PPP$QQQ – PPP is in the west direction of QQQ. 29. Who among the following attends seminar just after the
Point AAA is @10m of point BBB. Point EEE is & 6m of point Biology?
DDD. Point GGG is $10m of point FFF. Point CCC is &20m of (a) Physics (b) Computer
point BBB. Point EEE is #5m of point FFF. Point DDD is @5m (c) English (d) Chemistry
of point CCC. (e) None of these
23. What is the direction of point FFF with respect to BBB? 30. What is the duration (in hours) of the Mathematics’
(a) #@ (b) @& (c) $# (d) @$ seminar with the seminars?
(e) &# (a) 2.5 hour (b) 3 hours
24. If point PPP is & 8m of point BBB. What is the shortest (c) 3.5 hour (d) 1.5 hour
distance between PPP and DDD? (e) 2 hours
(a) 16m (b) 25m (c) 12m (d) 13m DIRECTIONS (Qs. 31-35): Study the information and answer
(e) 18m the given questions:
25. What is the direction of point EEE with respect to AAA?
(a) $@ (b) $& (c) #& (d) @$ Ten persons are going for trip on 20th and 25th of different
(e) #@ months- January, February, June, September, December
but not necessarily in the same order. All of them likes
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 26-30): Study the following information different cities- Agra, Bareilly, Lucknow, Banglore,
carefully and answer the questions given below. Faridabad, Goa, Pune, Gaya, Srinagar and Meerut.
The one who goes on 20th September like Gaya. V goes on
There are six student of different types subject viz., Biology, 25th of a month which having less than 31 days but not in
Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics, Computer and English in the February. Three persons are going in between V and W who like
Sharda university but not necessarily in same order. They attend Faridabad. X are not going in September. Y and S are going in
their seminar at different timing in a single day. The duration of the same month. Y like Swimming. U goes immediate after V.
their seminar with the seminar is different. There is no gap between Three persons are going in between U and T who neither like
the seminar time of all student. The duration of seminar either full Agra nor Bareilly. One of them who goes in June like Pune. W
hour or half an hour but not in one third or one fourth of the hour. are not going for trip on last day. The one who like Lucknow and
The Physics attend the seminar after the seminar time of the one who like Agra are not going for trip on same date. Two
persons are going in between R and P who like Goa. R goes for
Biology. The time duration of attending their seminar of the
trip before P and does not like Bareilly. Three persons are going
Biology and the English is same. The duration of seminar with in between the one who like Pune and the one who like Meerut.
seminar of Physics is one hour less than the duration of seminar Two persons are going in between X and Q and none of them are
with seminar of English. The Biology attends his seminar going for trip in January and February. Y are not going for trip
immediately after or immediately before Chemistry attends his on an odd date. The one who like Lucknow are not going for trip
seminar. The timing of English seminar is after 7:00 am. The on 20th of any month. T does not like Pune.
seminar duration of Mathematics is half an hour more than the 31. Who among the following like Meerut?
Physics. The Computer attends his seminar immediately before (a) V (b) T (c) P (d) S
the Physics attend the seminar. The Mathematics attends the (e) None of these
seminar before Biology but not immediately before. The total 32. The one who goes on 25th February like which of the
duration of the seminar with the seminar by all students is of following city?
(a) Pune (b) Goa
9:30 hours. The English seminar time is before Chemistry. The
(c) Lucknow (d) Bareilly
seminar time of Computer is 2:30 pm to 4:00 pm. The time (e) None of these
duration of seminar of Chemistry and Mathematics is same. 33. Which of the following is true about U?
The seminar time of English is two hours. The seminar time of (a) 25th -Lucknow (b) December-Swimming
Mathematics is after 9:00 am in the morning. (c) September- Gaya (d) 20th -Agra
26. Who among the following Student attend the seminar (e) June- Pune
between seminar hours 11:00 am to 12:30 pm? 34. X goes which of the following month?
(a) Biology (b) Physics (a) January (b) February
(c) Chemistry (d) Mathematics (c) June (d) September
(e) None of these (e) December
 GP_4458
2020-4 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2020

35. How many persons are going in between T and Q? (a) Prakhar The one who likes white colour
(a) Two (b) Four (c) Six (d) Three (b) Quan, Shyam
(e) More than Six (c) Tanu, The one who likes blue colour
36. If ‘A × B’ mean ‘B is the sister of A’, ‘A + B’ means ‘B is (d) Ram, The one who likes white colour
the daughter of A’ , ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’, and (e) None of these
‘A-B’ means ‘A is brother of B’ then how will ‘Q is mother DIRECTIONS (Qs. 43-45): Each of the questions below
of P’ be denoted? consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II
(a) J – Q ÷ P + L (b) Q + P + M × J given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in
(c) J – Q ÷ L + P (d) Q – J ÷ L + P the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
(e) None of these
37. In which of the following expression will the expression (a) If statements I alone is sufficient to answer the
‘C3000>A1000’ holds true? question, but statement II alone is not sufficient to
(a) C3000 ≤ E5000 = F6000 > A1000 ≤ D4000 answer the question.
(b) F6000 > E5000 = D4000 < A1000 ≥ B2000 = C3000 (b) If statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
(c) A1000 < B2000 = D4000 ≥ E5000 = C3000 question, but statement I alone is not sufficient to
(d) E5000 < C3000 ≥ D4000 > B2000 ≥ A1000 = F6000 answer the question.
(e) C3000 ≤ D4000 < E5000 ≤ A1000 < B2000. (c) If statement either I or II is sufficient to answer the
question.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 38-42): Study the following information (d) If both the statements I and II taken together are not
carefully and answer the questions given below: sufficient to answer the questions.
(e) If both the statements I and II taken together are
Seven employees Prakhar, Quan Ram ,Shyam, Tanu, Uday sufficient to answer the questions.
and Vijay had their offices situated along a straight row facing 43. Six girls DD, UU, KK, LL, MM and NN are sitting in
the north. They like different colours among Red, Blue, While, linear row and facing north. Who among sits second to the
Black, Yellow, Pink and Green but not necessarily In the same left of KK?
order. The distance between the neighbouring offices was a I. Two girls sit between LL and MM. One person sits
successive integral multiple of 5km. The distance increased between KK and LL. DD is not immediate neighbor of
from left to right. LL.
Prakhar’s office was third to the left of the official who likes pink II. DD sits third to the left of KK. UU is immediate neighbor of
colour. Quan’s office was 135km lo the right of the official who DD. KK does not sit extreme end of the row.
likes black colour. Ram’s office was exactly between Vijay’s 44. How many children are there between Priya and Gargi in a
office and official who likes green colour. The official who likes row of children?
yellow colour was to the immediate left of the official who likes I. Priya is tenth from the right end in the row of 40 children.
white colour. The official who likes white colour was 115km to II. Gargi sits twelfth from left end of the row.
the left of Shyam’s office. The official who likes pink colour was 45. How is Fiza related to Ankit?
the neighbour of Shyam’s office. The official who likes black I. Ankit is son in law of Deep. Bikki is daughter of Fiza.
colour was 85km away from Tanu’s office. The official who II. H is brother in law of Bikki.
likes red colour had office at one of the extreme ends. Vijay did 46. If in the number 57672154, 2 is multiplied to each of the
not like blue colour. The distance between any two offices was digit which is less than 4 and 3 is subtracted from each
less than 80 km. of the digit which is more than 4 and equal to 4 then how
38. Which colour does Uday likes? many digits are repeating in the number thus formed?
(a) Red (b) Blue (c) Yellow (d) Green (a) None (b) Four (c) One (d) Three
(e) Pink (e) Two
39. What is the distance between Ram and the employee who 47. Statement: A slump in home sales has pushed builders’
likes white colour? inventory to “unsustainable levels” in the National Capital
(a) 95km (b) 85km (c) 170km (d) 135km Region of Delhi, creating conditions for a real price
(e) 150km correction that developers have so far avoided.
40. How many offices are there between Prakhar and the Which of the following statements is definitely true on the
official who likes blue colour? basis of the given statement?
(a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (a) Demand for houses is quite low in most of the big
(e) Four cities.
41. Who among the following sits to the immediate left of (b) The high inventory level will hamper the ability of
Tanu? launching new projects by the builders.
(a) Prakhar (c) Builders in the market who have shown a good track
(b) The one who likes white colour record of delivering on time and on their promises have
(c) Vijay been able to garner sales even in this slow market.
(d) Unless this unsold stock gets absorbed, it will be
(d) The one who likes blue colour
difficult for consumer confidence to come back in this
(e) Quan
market.
42. Who among the Following has distance of 165km between
(e) High prices have pushed most of the on-sale
them?
apartments beyond the reach of average home buyers.
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2020 2020-5

48. Statement: According to the manpower Employment 51. If the expenditure of Scientist on Health and Food is 10%
Outlook Survey, globally, Indian employers are the more than the expenditure on Health and Food by Doctor.
most upbeat on hiring plans in the fourth quarter ending Then, find amount of expenditure on Food and health by
December 2015. Scientist.
Which of the following can be an assumption in the (a) ` 12000 (b) ` 11000
given information? (An assumption is something that is (c) ` 15000 (d) ` 25000
supposed or taken for granted) (e) ` 13000
(A) Decline in the profit margins of the company 52. If saving of Doctor is (2/5) of the income left after spend
(B) Establishment of more branches by the MNCs in on Health and Food. Then, find the value of x.
India (a) ` 10,000 (b) ` 12,000
(c) ` 16,000 (d) ` 25,000
(C) Maintenance of positive growth rate by the MNCs in
(e) ` 20,000
India. 53. If the saving of Scientist is 45% of his monthly income,
(D) Increase in the growth of service sector in June 2015. then, find the monthly income of Scientist.
(a) Only A and C (b) Only B and D (a) ` 22,000 (b) ` 15,000
(c) Only A and B (d) Only C and D (c) ` 50,000 (d) ` 40,000
(e) Only B and C (e) ` 20,000
49. Statement: Persistent weakness in global demand and 54. If the saving of Scientist is 45% of his monthly income,
the lower value of oil products led India’s merchandise find the sum of the monthly income of Doctor, Engineer
exports to fall for the sixth straight month in May, while a and Scientist
decline in gold imports helped the trade deficit narrow to a (a) ` 1,42,000 (b) ` 1,62,000
three-month low. (c) ` 1,20,000 (d) ` 2,00,000
Which of the following inference drawn is probably false (e) ` 1,25,000
55. After spending the monthly income on Health and Food,
according to the above statement?
remaining income of Engineer is his saving. Then, saving
(a) There will be softening of oil products in the global of Engineer is what percent of saving of Scientist.
market. (a) 704% (b) 625% (c) 500% (d) 729%
(b) Rupee will appreciate against the dollar. (e) 539%
(c) There will be an increase in the collection of indirect
taxes in the month of April and May. DIRECTIONS (Qs. 56-60): Read the given graphs carefully
(d) There will be an increase in the domestic demand of and answer the questions that follow:
gold and jewellery. During the winter season, people from Mumbai are travelling
(e) Only (b) and (d) to different holiday locations by booking tickets from
50. Statement: The water situation is grim as the total storage travel the world.com. The total revenue generated by the website
in 91 main reservoirs across the country has gone below is ` 60,000.
the last 10-year average, says the report of the Central
Water Commission (CWC). Manali
Which of the following may be the most probable reason 18% Dehradun
for the fall in the level in reservoirs? 21% Dehradun, 21%

(a) Less rainfall across the country Shimla, 22%

(b) More use of water by the irrigation department Haridwar, 15%
(c) Depletion of ground level in the country Rishikesh Rishikesh, 24%
Shimla
(d) Less plantation of tree in the country 24%
22% Manali, 18%
(e) Wastage of water by the people of the country

Quantitative Aptitude
Haridwar
15%

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 51-55) : Read the table carefully and City Tickets Cancelled
answer the questions given below :
Dehradun 3
Table represents the expenditure, saving and monthly Shimla 12
income of Doctor, Engineer and Scientist.
Haridwar 10
Persons/ Items Doctor Engineer Scientist
Rishikesh 13
Expenditure on 20% of 12% of
Health and Food monthly monthly Manali 15
income income 56. If the cost of each ticket on travelling to Haridwar is ` 600,
Saving `x – ` 9000 then what will be the number of people who travelled?
(Cancel tickets are not refundable)
Monthly income ` 50,000 ` 72,000 (a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 15 (d) 7
(e) 8
 GP_4458
2020-6 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2020

57. The total number of people that travelled to Shimla was 30 DIRECTIONS (Qs. 66-70): The bar graph shown below
and to Rishikesh was 26 then calculate the average price indicate the number of books owned and the number of books
per ticket issued by the 5 different libraries P, Q, R, S and T. Based on the
(a) ` 340.50 (b) ` 520.75 given bar graph answer the questions given below:
(c) ` 500 (d) ` 620.75
(e) ` 700 Book owned Book issued
58. The cost of each ticket on travelling to Manali is ` 720 and 1200
no ticket was cancelled, then what will be the number of 1040
960
1080

people who travelled? 1000 880 880

840 840
(a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 12 800 720
760
(e) 15 640
59. What average no. of tickets booked per city if total tickets 600

booked were 3000? 400

(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 4 (d) 10
(e) 3 200

60. What is the average number of tickets cancelled per city? 0

(a) 10.6 (b) 10 (c) 12.7 (d) 11 Library P Library Q Library R Library S Library T
(e) 17 Total books owned = Book available + Book issued
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 61-65): Read the following Caselet DI 66. Find the average number of books available in all 5 library
carefully and answer the following questions: (a) 182 (b) 192 (c) 190 (d) 170
(e) 162
3 cubes A, B and C are cut from the cubes P, Q and R respectively. 67. Find the ratio between the books available in Library P,
(i) The length of the side of cube A is given by the equation R and S together to books available in Library Q and T
m2 – 12m + 36 = 0 and the length of the side of cube P is 1 together?
cm more than cube A. (a) 4 : 7 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 2
(ii) The length of the side of cube B is given by the equation n2 (e) 3 : 4
+ 21n – 46 = 0 and the length of the side of cube Q is 2 cm 68. Books available in library P and S together is how much
more than cube B. percent more or less than the books available in library Q
(iii) The length of the side of cube C is given by the equation and T together?
r2 – 10r + 25 = 0 and the length of the side of cube R is 3 (a) 15% less (b) 10% more
cm more than cube C. (c) 10% less (d) 25% less
Here m, n and r are in meter. (e) 25% more
61. How many cubes of type P can be made by a cuboid of 69. Books available in library S is how much percent of books
dimensions 49 m × 52 m × 56 m? owned by library Q and R together?
(a) 512 (b) 416 (c) 343 (d) 400 (a) 8% (b) 12% (c) 15% (d) 10%
(e) 376 (e) 20%
62. The average length of side of cube A, Q and R is how much 70. What is the ratio of total books owned by all the libraries
percent more or less than the average length of side of cube together to total books issued by all the libraries together
P, B and C? (a) 5 : 4 (b) 4 : 5 (c) 3 : 5 (d) 5 : 3
2 4 (e) 1 : 2
(a) 14 % ↑ (b) 28 % ↓
7 7
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 71-75): Given below are two quantities
4 2
(c) 28 % ↑ (d) 14 % ↓ numbered I and II.
7 7
(e) 15% ↑ Based on the given information, you have to determine the
63. What is ratio of volume of cube P and A together to the relation between the two quantities. You should use the given
volume of cube Q and B together? data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose among the
(a) 72 : 559 (b) 3 : 5 possible answers.
(c) 3 : 7 (d) 5 : 3 Choose Options :
(e) 559 : 72 (a) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
64. What is the ratio of total surface area of cube A to total (b) Quantity I > Quantity II
surface area of cube R? (c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(a) 7 : 22 (b) 9 : 16 (c) 1 : 3 (d) 3 : 5 (d) Quantity I < Quantity II
(e) 16 : 9 (e) Quantity I = Quantity II
65. From the given cubes, which two cubes have equal side 71. Quantity I : The average of four number is 28. If one
length? number is removed from its set then the average is reduced
(a) A and Q (b) B and P by 2, find the number.
(c) A and R (d) B and C Quantity II : 30
(e) None
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2020 2020-7

72. Quantity I : Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is 79. What is the value of the two-digit number?
the possibility of getting odd number on both the dice? Statement I : The sum of the digits at unit's place and
1 tenth's place is 12.
Quantity II : Statement II : When the digits are interchanged then the
5
number obtained is 36 larger than the original number.
73. Quantity I : P 2 − 39 P + 378 = 0
2 80. What is the sum of m and n?
Quantity II : Q − 24Q + 108 = 0 Statement I : m2 – 10m + 25 = 0
2
74. Quantity I : P − 11P + 14 = 0 Statement II : n2 – 14n + 49 = 0
2 81. What is the area of a right-angled triangle PQR?
Quantity II : Q − 20Q + 96 = 0
75. Quantity I : A downstream speed is 20 Km/h and upstream Statement I : The lengths of sides PQ and QR of the
speed is 10 Km/h. Distance travelled by a boat is 30 Km. triangle is 16 cm and 12 cm respectively.
Find the time taken by a boat to cover the distance. Statement II : The inradius of triangle PQR is 4 cm and
Quantity II : 4 hours. the circumradius is 10 cm.
82. A box contains 21 mugs numbered 1 to 21. A mug is drawn
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 76-81): Each question below is followed by
and then another mug is drawn without replacement. What
two statements I and II. You have to determine whether the data
is the probability that both mugs are odd numbered?
given in the statements are sufficient for answering the question.
You should use the data and your knowledge of Mathematics to 2 8 3 5
choose the best possible answer. (a) (b) 21 (c) (d)
7 14 21
(a) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer (e) None of these
the question, while the data in statement II alone is 83. The average temperature from Monday to Wednesday is
not sufficient to answer the question. 36°C. When data for Thursday is included, the average
(b) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer increases by 1°C. What was the temperature on Thursday?
the question, while the data in statement I alone is not (a) 37°C (b) 38°C (c) 39°C (d) 40°C
sufficient to answer the question. (e) None of these
(c) Statement I or Statement II alone is sufficient to 84. By how much is 3/4th of 52 is less than 2/3rd of 99?
answer the question. (a) 27 (b) 33 (c) 39 (d) 29
(d) The data in both the statements I and II are not (e) 55
sufficient to answer the question. 85. The monthly incomes of Mohit and Sohit are in the ratio
(e) The data in both the statements I and II together are of 4 : 3. Their expenses are in the ratio of 3 : 2. If each
necessary to answer the question. saves 6,000 at the end of the month, their monthly incomes
76. Auto A is moving behind Auto B in the same direction and respectively are (in `)
the distance between them initially is 40 km and the speed (a) 24,000 and 18,000 (b) 28,000 and 21,000
of Auto B is 50 km/h, then how long would Auto A take to (c) 32,000 and 24,000 (d) 34,000 and 26,000
cross Auto B. (e) 30,000 and 28,000
Statement I : The time taken by Auto B to cover a distance 86. Neelam's mathematics test had 70 problems carrying equal
of 200 km is 4 hours. marks i.e., 10 Arithmatic, 30 Algebra and 30 Geometry.
Statement II : If the Auto were moving in the opposite Although she answered 70% of the Arithmatic, 40% of the
directions, towards each other, the relative speed of Auto Algebra and 60% of the Geometry problems correctly. She
A with respect to Auto B would have been 120 km/hr. did not pass the test because she got less than 60% marks.
77. A shopkeeper sold two items of same marked price of ` The number of more questions she would have to answer
3000 at a profit of 25% and 20% respectively. Find the correctly to earn a 60% passing marks is :
selling price of both the items together. (a) 1 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 9
Statement I : The selling price of item A and selling price (e) None of these
of item B are in the ratio of 17 : 23 respectively. 87. If the cost of a Banana is equal to the cost of a Mango.
Statement II : The discount offered by the shopkeeper for If the cost of a Banana increases by 4% and the cost of
item A is 25% and the ratio of the cost price of item A to
a Mango is increases by 5% then what percent more one
the cost price of item B is 11 : 10 respectively.
should have to pay to purchase 5 Mangoes and 4 Bananas?
78. Find the value of "a".
(a) 4% (b) 4.55% (c) 5.55% (d) 5%
Statement I : Rahul and Shivam started a business with
(e) 6.25%
the investment of money in the ratio 5 : a respectively.
88. 8 members are to be selected from a group of 9 Boys and
After 2 months, Garvit joined them in such a way that the
7 Girls. In how many ways will the members with at most
ratio of the initial investment of Shivam and Garvit is 7 : 8
respectively. After 2 years, they received a total profit of 3 Girls and atleast 4 Boys be selected?
` 16800. (a) 6435 ways (b) 6225 ways
Statement II : The profit share of Garvit after 2 years in ` (c) 6472 ways (d) 7320 ways
6000 out of total profit of ` 16800. (e) None of these
 GP_4458
2020-8 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2020

89. In a family of 4 persons, P and Q are husband and wife. R DIRECTIONS (Qs. 96-100): Study the following information
and S are daughter and son of P and Q respectively. The carefully and answer the questions given below:
ratio of the present ages of mother and daughter is 9 : 1. S's
age 7 years ago was 3 years. The sum of the present ages In online products industry, the growth of the industry is driven
of P, Q and R is 100 years. At the time of the birth of R, the by the increase in the number of people buying online and the
age of P was equal to the present age of Q. Find the present increase in the number of people selling online.
age of P. In 2019, it was expected that total 200 million people would
(a) 35 years (b) 40 years buy products online in India that would be 25% of the total
population of India and 4% of the total population of India would
(c) 50 years (d) 45 years
sell products online. If in 2020, the population of India was
(e) None of these
increased by 10% over the previous year together with the total
90. The average weight of a office's 60 employees are 60 Kg. number of people who bought products online was increased by
If two of the employee with weight 40% and 50% of 'a' 25% over the previous year and the number of sellers remained
leave the office and two new employees with weight a and constant then in the year 2020 the industry revenue was $100
a-34 join the office, then the average weight of the office's billion.
employees are increased by 2 Kg. Find the value of a. 96. In 2019, what was the total number of people from India
(a) 90 Kg (b) 140 Kg who sold the products online?
(c) 100 Kg (d) 170 Kg (a) 1 million (b) 100 million
(e) 78 Kg (c) 50 million (d) 32 million
91. A vessel contains mixture of Juice and Water in the ratio (e) None of these
of 5 : 2 respectively. If 35 liters mixture taken out from 97. If the revenue per seller was same in 2019 as compared to
the vessel and now the difference between Juice and Water 2020 then what was the revenue per seller (in $) in 2019?
in the remaining mixture is 141 liters, then find initial (one billion is equal to 1000 millions)
mixture in vessel? (a) 40 million (b) 200 million
(a) 364 liters (b) 200 liters (c) 5 million (d) 2 billion
(c) 150 liters (d) 120 liters (e) None of these
(e) None of these 98. If in 2021, the number of people who will buy products
92. Rahul sold his article at 25% profit. If he sold article for ` online will increased by 40% over the previous year then
60 more, he would have gained 35%; if he wants a profit in 2021, total how many people in million will buy product
of 70% then what should be the marked price of the article online?
(in `) (a) 244 (b) 175 (c) 132 (d) 250
(e) None of these
(a) 1750 (b) 1020 (c) 1680 (d) 2000
99. In 2021, the population of India was 1000 million then
(e) 1875
what was the percentage growth of India over the period
93. A shopkeeper prepared a list of 30 article's amount and 2019 to 2021?
average of their amount was 136. But amount of one (a) 20% (b) 40% (c) 25% (d) 20%
article was written as 70 instead of 106. Find the correct (e) None of these
average amount? 100. It is assumed that in 2021, because of internet, 50% of the
(a) 128.4 (b) 140.4 (c) 131.2 (d) 130.02 total population of India will buy products online. If in
(e) 137.2 2021, the population of India was increased by 10% over
94. The length of sides PQ, PR and QR of the triangle is 20, previous year then in 2021, total how many people will
25 and 15 cm respectively, then inradius of the triangle is buy product in India?
what percent less than the circumradius of the triangle? (a) 528 million (b) 543 million
(a) 60% (b) 40% (c) 37½% (d) 70% (c) 539 million (d) 433 million
(e) 65% (e) None of these
95. Two cars C1 and C2 are going towards x to y and y to x
respectively. After sometime they meet anywhere between English Language
x and y and after meeting car C1 reaches y in 1 hrs and C2
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 101-107): Read the following passage and
at 4 hrs. If the speed of car C2 is 60 Km/h then find the answer the following questions.
speed of car C1 in m/sec.
150 Remote work is shaping up to be a major trend that will likely
(a) 100 m/sec. (b) m/sec. keep growing even after the pandemic ends. Remote working has
7
several benefits, including flexibility, better diversity, location
50 independence, no commute time, and more. But what about
(c) 20 m/sec. (d) m/sec.
3 the drawbacks? Earlier, employees could disconnect from their
work when they stepped out of the office. Now, the boundaries
100 between personal and professional lives have blurred. Juggling
(e) m/sec.
3 between professional and personal tasks with no leisure time
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2020 2020-9

can stress employees out and affect their mental health. If (I) Establish a connection with the employees
left unchecked, this stress can, in some cases, also increase (II) Hear and understand employees perspective
an employee’s risk for heart diseases. As the stress levels of (III) Varied employee centric policies like wellness leaves
individual employees increase, it becomes a ______________ keeping in mind their preferences
(A) effect that can lead to an obstructive work environment and (a) Only II (b) Only I
weak professional relationships. (c) Both I and II (d) Both I and III
Work-life balance is crucial for employee satisfaction and overall (e) All of the above
business success as well. Organizations that neglect this aspect 104. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the given
will have a hard time attracting and retaining talent. Individuals, passage?
especially Millennials and Gen Z, expect companies to respect (I) Neglecting employees stress management will have
their time and mental health. They want to be able to balance no adverse effect on the businesses
their family time, health, social life, hobbies, and more. It’s even (II) Significant measures can improve work-life balance
been shown that they prefer work-life balance over any financial of the employees
(III) Companies haven’t acquired needed initiatives for the
incentives when choosing a company to work for.
remote employees
To stay ahead of expectations, many organizations have begun
(a) Only II (b) Both I and III
initiatives to provide remote employees a smooth working
(c) Only III (d) Both II and III
experience. According to a recent research conducted by the (e) None of these
University of Birmingham and the University of Kent, 73% 105. Which of the following words is most similar in meaning
of the employees surveyed either agreed or strongly agreed with the given word as highlighted in the passage?
that their managers cared about the impact of work demands Significant
on their personal life during the pandemic. We will continue to (a) Auditory (b) Unnecessary
see more organizations taking significant measures to improve (c) Amazing (d) Outer
their employees’ work-life balance and enhance employee (e) Momentous
management. 106. Which of the following can fill in the blank (A) to make
It starts with creating a more empathetic work environment. the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.
Every workforce is unique, and it’s up to the management to (a) Practice (b) Intend
connect with their employees and hear their perspective before (c) Ripple (d) Concern
implementing necessary measures. Hybrid work, flexible holiday (e) Approached
policies, floating holidays, wellness leaves, mental health days— 107. Which of the following words is most opposite in meaning
these are all excellent places to start, but the degree to which with EMPHATIC as highlighted in the passage?
an organization adopts them will depend on their employees’ (a) Unconditional (b) Hesitant
preferences. Empathetic leadership practices like these will also (c) Outright (d) Definite
help employees adapt to the new normal working conditions and (e) Conclusive
deliver their best. DIRECTIONS (Qs. 108-115): Read the following passage and
101. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? answer the following questions.
(I) Employees are getting bored from the remote working
so it will not be continued post-pandemic A gig economy consists of people carving a career path through
(II) Remote working has made it difficult to differentiate freelance and contractual work – wherein the individual is paid
between professional and personal life per job, or ‘gig’, as opposed to receiving a regular salary or
(III) People hardly get time to relax thus they begin getting wage from an employer. While the term ‘gig economy’ came
stressed out into being very recently, there has always been a freelance
(a) Only II (b) Both I and III industry shrouded by mammoths of the business world. As a
(c) Only III (d) Both II and III matter of fact, before the industrial revolution and the rise of the
employee-employer contract, this arrangement was prototypical.
(e) None of these
Today, most people look at it as the much desired antidote to a
102. Why author is of the opinion that work-life balance is
monotonous nine-to-five existence, allowing them to work with
crucial?
freedom and flexibility. There also exists a certain section who
(a) The work-life balance is necessary for satisfied
despises the uncertain nature of gig work and its potential for
employees as well as business success exploitation. That being said, currently the world is steadily
(b) Neglecting the balance will result in hard-time to moving towards the gig economy and while it seems like the
attract and retain talents in the organizations ideal contingency plan to tackle anything remotely similar to
(c) People can balance their professional and personal the ominous pandemic that brought the world to a standstill,
life we can’t help but wonder, what does the future hold for a gig
(d) Both (a) and (b) workforce.
(e) People deny work-life balance and go for financial The rise of the gig economy has made it easier for people to take
incentives charge of their work lives, giving them the freedom to work the
103. How to create an emphatic work environment according to way they want to. This very characteristic of the gig economy
the author of the given passage? can be greatly tempting for creative or skilled professionals such
 GP_4458
2020-10 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2020

as content writers, web developers, etc. who can maximize their 110. Why the author is of the opinion that full-time employment
skills through an unrestrained, unrestricted work set up. Further, is not for everyone?
if we try to understand basic human nature, it becomes evident (a) The employer establishes its authority over
that the lack of autonomy, ownership and flexibility can lead to employees’ skills
people feeling disgruntled and detached from their work. This (b) The employer thinks that he gets the right to mend
is a clear indicator of the fact that full-time employment isn’t and use the employees’ skills as per his needs and
for everyone. For most people, the deal-breaker in a full-time desires
employment set up would be that the employer principally owns (c) Both (a) and (b)
the employee’s skills; employers believe they have the right (d) The monthly fees which we receive as a salary gives
the employer the mandate to buy our skills
to use them as they desire and as in line with the employment
(e) All of the above
contract and job designation. In essence, the employer buys the
111. How the writer sees future of the Gig work?
rights to an individual’s skills for a monthly fee which is the (a) The gig work is more meaningful and rewarding
salary. However, on the flipside, the gig economy allows an irrespective of the financial earning
individual to take absolute charge of their skills and knowledge. (b) One will build his own recognition rather than
The future of Gig work holds great potential because it tends someone else’s
to be more meaningful and rewarding in more than just the (c) It is more focused on outcomes than rigorous
monetary aspect. The simple fact that you are building your processes
own brand instead of someone else’s makes this type of work (d) All of the above
intrinsically motivating in the long run. Unlike traditional (e) None of these
employment, gig work focuses on results instead of embroiling 112. In what manner, gig work will open up an opportunity rich
processes. Gig workers or freelancers are evaluated and paid world for freelance workers?
based on their ability to deliver results. How they achieve their (a) It integrates better with technology and digital
targets is completely up to them. This allows freelancers to tap innovations
into their natural reserves of perception, imaginative thinking (b) The digital marketplaces are expanding their
and self-reliance. functioning on contractual basis
Also, the biggest advantage of gig work lies in its integration (c) Digitized work platforms will be advantageous for
with technology because needless to say, the future of India’s corporate giants
(d) The service providers can directly contact with
start-ups and its gig economy lies in digital innovations and a
consumers via mobile apps
robust digitized ecosystem. A major part of the gig economy,
(e) all (a), (b), and (d)
digital marketplaces are now signing up demand-driven service
providers skilled in niche areas such as beauty, fitness, plumbing, DIRECTIONS (Qs. 113-114): Which of the following is most
electrical repairs, etc. and offer these services to consumers on similar in meaning with the given word as highlighted in the
a contractual basis as per requirements. This business model given passage?
allows for the service providers to communicate with the end 113. Contingency
users directly through the app according to their terms and (a) Instance (b) Possibility
conditions. This opens up a world of opportunities for the (c) Projection (d) Constant
freelance workforce. (e) Affected
108. Which of the following can be inferred about ‘gig 114. Disgruntled
economy’ as discussed in the given passage? (a) Straighten (b) Conceptualized
(I) People do freelancing and work on contractual basis (c) Courteous (d) Aggrieved
(II) The salary is not regular in a gig economy (e) Passages
(III) It helps people to escape from monotonous 9 to 5 115. Which of the following is the most opposite in meaning
work routine with INTRINSICALLY as highlighted in the given
(a) Only II (b) Both I and III passage?
(c) Only III (d) Both II and III (a) Established (b) Conducted
(e) All of the above (c) Acquired (d) Engaged
109. Which of the following correctly states the benefits of gig (e) Scarcity
economy? DIRECTIONS (Qs. 116-120): In the following passage, some
(I) People can manage their work life freely of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by
(II) The work set up is unrestricted a letter. Find the suitable word from the options given against
(III) Freedom to work is favorable for skilled and creative each letter and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make
professionals the paragraph meaningful.
(IV) The individuals entirely own their knowledge and Reversing two days of heavy losses, the Sensex posted its biggest
skills jump in almost four months on Tuesday as investors returned to
(a) I, III and II (b) I, III and IV buying mode amid expectations of fresh _________________
(c) I, II, and IV (d) all of the above (116) in the U.S. and other economies. A recovering rupee and
(e) Only I and IV persistent foreign capital inflows further _________________
(117) sentiment, traders said. The 30-share S&P BSE Sensex
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2020 2020-11

soared 834.02 points, or 1.72%, to close at 49,398.29. Only 123. (a) Prohibits (b) Persists
three Sensex components closed in the red — Tech Mahindra, (c) Pleads (d) Weighs
ITC and M&M, shedding up to 0.54%. Global equities were (e) Inclines
on a/an _________________ (118) after U.S. President-elect 124. (a) Attributed (b) Exerted
Joe Biden’s nominee for Treasury Secretary, former Federal (c) Oppressed (d) Barred
Reserve chair Janet Yellen _________________ (119) for (e) Contended
more measures to fight the recession and avoid an even worse 125. (a) Toil (b) Rail
downturn. In testimony prepared for her confirmation hearing (c) Hurt (d) Boast
on Tuesday before the Senate Finance Committee, Ms. Yellen (e) Lofty
said more aid is needed to get COVID-19 vaccines distributed
and help families struggling with job losses stay fed and DIRECTIONS (Qs. 126-130): In each of the following
_________________ (120). questions, choose the sentence/s that has/have the correct usage
116. (a) Render (b) Generate of the highlighted and underlined idiom.
(c) Stimulus (d) Range
(e) Labor 126. (I) The mugger showed a clean pair of heels, skittering
117. (a) Conferred (b) Granted down a side alley and escaping out of sight.
(c) Dwelled (d) Entertained (II) As makers of quality software, they’ve shown a
(e) Buoyed clean pair of heels to the rest of the industry
118. (a) Yield (b) Earnest (III) They ran after her, but she showed them a clean pair
(c) Upswing (d) Wandering of heels.
(e) Insisting (a) Only I (b) Both I and III
119. (a) Batted (b) Convinced (c) Both II and III (d) Only II
(c) Knighted (d) Inspired (e) All of these
(e) Conventional 127. (I) Can you please bury the hatchet and make up with
120. (a) Skilled (b) Harrying your sister already? I can’t take the constant fighting.
(c) Reflected (d) Housed (II) She thought she buried the hatchet when she saw
(e) Furnished John slinking away from the scene of the crime.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 121-125): In the following passage, some (III) He gave a very diplomatic explanation, but if you
of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by bury the hatchet, it seems like he was fired for
a letter. Find the suitable word from the options given against political reasons.
each letter and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make (a) Only I (b) Both I and II
the paragraph meaningful. (c) Both I and III (d) Only III
India is considering revising its foreign investment rules for (e) All of these
e-commerce, three sources and a government spokesman 128. (I) I had a chewing the cud this morning when a tractor
told Reuters, a move that could ____________ (121) players, trailer unexpectedly swerved into my lane.
including Amazon.com Inc., to restructure ties with some major (II) I’ve been chewing my cud for days, but I still haven’t
sellers. The government discussions ____________ (122) with decided whether I’m taking the job or not.
a growing number of complaints from India’s bricks-and-mortar (III Sometimes you just need to stop chewing the cud
retailers, which have for years accused Amazon and Walmart and make a decision.
Inc.-controlled Flipkart of creating complex structures to bypass (a) Only III (b) Only I
federal rules, allegations the U.S. companies deny. India only (c) Both II and I (d) Both II and III
allows foreign e-commerce players to operate as a marketplace (e) All of these
to connect buyers and sellers. It ____________ (123) them 129. (I) I tried to do well in this class, but I’ve been at sea
from holding inventories of goods and directly selling them on since we started.
their platforms. Amazon and Walmart’s Flipkart were last hit in (II) Bill was at sea over the calculus problem.
December 2018 by investment rule changes that ____________ (III) Mom sounded like she is at sea, so you better clean
(124) foreign e-commerce players from offering products from your room.
sellers in which they have an equity stake. Now, the government (a) Only III (b) Only II
is considering adjusting some provisions to prevent those
(c) Both II and III (d) Both I and II
arrangements, even if the e-commerce firm holds an indirect
(e) All of these
stake in a seller through its parent, the sources said. The changes
could ____________ (125) Amazon as it holds indirect equity 130. (I) Peter only comes out for a drink once in blue moon
stakes in two of its biggest online sellers in India. now that he has kids.
121. (a) Temper (b) Intimate (II) Sue’s daughter only visits her once in a blue moon.
(c) Compel (d) Undertake (III) Only once in a blue moon do properties of this
(e) Assert quality become available.
122. (a) Despair (b) Justify (a) Only III (b) Both I and III
(c) Manifest (d) Scale (c) Both II and III (d) Both I and II
(e) Coincide (e) All of these
 GP_4458
2020-12 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2020

139. The vessel will have a pair of solid rocket (A)/boosters

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 131-135): Each of the following question
whose design has already been (B)/ tested but there’s less
has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been
that (C)/ can go wrong with solid boosters. (D)
omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits in (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
the context of the sentence. (e) No Error
131. Despite the __________ negative support, the expenditure 140. Avionics and subsystems are (A)/being debugged in the
of the Central and State governments on agriculture has (B)/surrogate aircraft before being (C)/loaded into the
increased __________ since 2000. actual bomber. (D)/ No Error (E)
(a) Multitude, Eventually (b) Evident, Usually (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
(c) Overall, Substantially (d) Wander, Exceptionally (e) No Error
(e) Asserted, Formally
132. Privacy is better addressed by stronger __________ General/Financial Awareness
conditions on data sharing and better security tools being 141. Which bank has launched a new entry-level credit card
adopted by the __________ that secure user data. named ACE Credit Card, with a focus on increasing
(a) Perpetual, Devices participation of users in the digital economy partnership
(b) Contractual, Applications with Google Pay?
(c) Factual, Solutions (a) ICICI Bank (b) Canara Bank
(d) Mutually, Slewed (c) IndusInd Bank (d) Axis Bank
(e) Habitually, Vagaries (e) None of these
133. While the debate on __________ of the death penalty 142. Which Payments bank has partnered NSDC to train rural
goes on, the delay in the execution of death row convicts youth?
coupled with long years of __________ confinement leads (a) Airtel Payments Bank
to psychological trauma for them. (b) Paytm Payments Bank
(a) Automation, Enervate (b) Wheedle, Apostate (c) India Post Payments Bank
(c) Emolument, Ungainly (d) Abolition, Solitary (d) Jio Payments Bank
(e) Impiety, Decadence (e) None of these
134. India’s vaccination drive is backed by its __________ 143. Who has been appointed as the Chairman of the Telecom
advantage of having the largest vaccine manufacturing Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI)?
capacity in the world and a rich experience of mass (a) Shashi S. Vempati (b) Sanjay Kumar Mishra
__________ drives against polio and measles. (c) PD Vaghela (d) Ajay Kumar Bhalla
(a) Comparative, Inoculation(b) Avocation, Circumvent (e) None of these
(c) Collation, Haggling (d) Cohort, Savant 144. The Serum Institute of India (SII) has signed an agreement
(e) Adjure, Unction with UNICEF & GAVI to supply Pneumococcal Conjugate
135. The __________ yardsticks to look at for investing include Vaccine (PCV) to low-income countries. Where is SII
the current valuations and future earnings __________ of located?
underlying companies. (a) Mumbai (b) New Delhi
(c) Pune (d) Kolkata
(a) Clarion, Acrimony (b) Turbid, Cupidity
(e) None of these
(c) Disaffected, Expatiating (d) Didactic, Sinuous
145. Rajat Bhatia, who announced his retirement, is associated
(e) Relevant, Trajectory
with which sports?
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 136-140): Read the sentence to find out (a) Football (b) Billiards
whether there is an error in it. The error, if any, will be in one (c) Cricket (d) Squash
part of the sentence. The number corresponding to that part will (e) None of these
be your answer. If the given sentence is correct as it is, mark the 146. Which day is observed across the globe on the Death
answer as ‘No error’. Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any. Anniversary of Mother Teresa?
(a) International Day of Charity
136. I myself am very proud (A)/and excited because (B)/our (b) World Peace Day
Kamala Harris is (C)/ becoming the first Vice-President of (c) International Day of Humanity
US.(D)/ No Error (E) (d) International Day of Compassion
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) None of these
(e) No Error 147. Who has authored the book titled ‘10 Rules of Successful
137. The Port Authority Bus Terminal in Midtown (A)/has a Nations?
reputation of being the (B)/most squalid and overcrowd (a) Amit Shah (b) Ranjan Gogoi
(C)/transportation hub in New York.(D) (c) Ruchir Sharma (d) Roopa Pai
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) None of these
(e) No Error 148. Which public sector bank has launched ‘Insta Click
138. The Budget for the next (A)/financial year is likely to laid Savings Account’, a 100 per cent paperless digital self-
(B)/down a roadmap to normalise fiscal (C)/deficit in the assisted online savings account?
next two to three years. (D)/ No Error (E) (a) IDBI (b) SIDBI
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (c) Bank of Baroda (d) ICICI
(e) No Error (e) None of these
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2020 2020-13

149. Which insurance company has launched first-of-its-kind (a) Farmers (b) Swachhta Karmcharis
insurance product called ‘Shagun – Gift an Insurance”, (c) Rural Entrepreneurship (d) Civil services reforms
which is a unique gift of Personal Accident policy? (e) None of these
(a) SBI General Insurance 161. Where is the HQ of Federal bank?
(b) LIC (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Bihar
(c) ICICI Lombard (c) Kerala (d) Madhya Pradesh
(d) General Insurance Company Ltd (e) None of these
(e) None of these 162. World Autism Awareness Day is celebrated on -----
150. Which of the following banks has launched ‘Home Utsav’, (a) 7 April (b) 8 April
a virtual property exhibition that digitally showcases real (c) 9 Apri (d) 2 April
estate projects by renowned developers from key cities (e) None of these
across the country? 163. The International Day of Charity is an international day
(a) IDBI (b) SIDBI (c) HDFC (d) ICICI observed annually on---
(e) None of these (a) 1 September (b) 5 September
151. Which of the following banks has launched ‘Shaurya KGC (c) 2 September (d) 3 September
(Kisan Gold Credit) Card’ for the armed forces? (e) None of these
(a) IDBI (b) SIDBI (c) HDFC (d) ICICI 164. What is the Share of Central Government in RRB?
(e) None of these (a) 60% (b) 50% (c) 70% (d) 80%
152. Harley-Davidson to shut down its manufacturing plant in (e) None of these
India______. 165. Book – ‘10 rules of successful nation’ is written by---
(a) Gurugram (b) NOIDA (a) Ruchir Sharma (b) Prachir Sharma
(c) Pune (d) Hyderabad (c) Ranveer (d) Chetan Sharma
(e) None of these (e) None of these
153. What is the stake of State Bank of India in the Jio Payments 166. Titan Pay is launched by which bank?
Bank? (a) SBI (b) PNB
(a) 10 per cent (b) 25 per cent (c) ICICI Bank (d) HDFC
(c) 30 per cent (d) 49 per cent (e) None of these
(e) None of these 167. Who is the new Chairman of TRAI?
154. On 8th October Indian Air Force celebrated its _____ (a) PD Vaghela (b) AD Vaghela
anniversary? (c) BD Vaghela (d) ND Vaghela
(a) 88th (b) 70th (c) 77th (d) 73rd (e) None of these
(e) None of these 168. Minimum Paid up capital………. for Retail Banking
155. How many deputy governors are there in RBI? under New Umbrella Entity (NUE).
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (a) ` 800 crore (b) ` 700 crore
(e) None of these (c) ` 600 crore (d) ` 500 crore
156. The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) has (e) None of these
partnered with which social media platform to launch a 169. Where is the HQ of UNDP?
free and comprehensive training program for teachers and (a) New York (b) Maxico
students of its affiliated schools in the first phase? (c) New Delhi (d) London
(a) Google (b) Facebook (e) None of these
(c) Microsoft (d) Twitter 170. Company which manages Assets is called ..
(e) None of these (a) AMC (b) DMC (c) CMC (d) VMC
157. As per the “Framework for authorisation of pan-India (e) None of these
Umbrella Entity for Retail Payments” released by RBI 171. Atal Pension Yojana is regulated by ---
what should be the minimum paid-up capital of the (a) PFRDA (b) SBI (c) RBI (d) LIC
umbrella entity? (e) None of these
(a) Rs. 100 crore (b) Rs. 300 crore 172. Mudra is the subsidiary of which organization?
(c) Rs. 500 crore (d) Rs. 1000 crore (a) RBI (b) SBI (c) SIDBI (d) LIC
(e) None of these (e) None of these
158. The PM KUSUM scheme has been extended to allow how
173. Who is the Current head of Tesla?
much farmers to set up standalone solar pumps?
(a) Elon Reeve Musk (b) Daniel Zhang
(a) 10 lakh (b) 20 lakh
(c) Jeff Bezos (d) Lisa Su
(c) 30 lakh (d) 40 lakh
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
174. Retail inflation was ----- percent in rural India
159. India has been ranked at________position on the Global
(a) 5.4 (b) 6.7 (c) 7.2 (d) 8.1
Economic Freedom Index 2020.
(e) None of these
(a) 105th (b) 100th
175. Oriental Bank of Commerce and United Bank of India
(c) 95th (d) 110th
merged with---
(e) None of these
(a) RBI (b) SBI (c) PNB (d) LIC
160. The ‘Mission Karmayogi’ which was recently in news is
related to (e) None of these
 GP_4458
2020-14 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2020

176. Which Ministry represented India in the 2+2 dialogue 184. Rani Lakshmi Bai Central Agricultural University is
Between USA & India? central agricultural university located in----
(a) Ministry Of Home Affairs (a) Lucknow (b) Kanpur
(b) Defence Ministry (c) Jhansi (d) Varanasi
(c) EAM (e) None of these
(d) EAM & Defence Ministry 185. Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation
(e) None of these (AMRUT) was launched in –
177. What is the Currency of South Korea? (a) January 2015 (b) July 2015
(a) Yen (b) Rial (c) Dinar (d) won (c) August 2015 (d) June 2015
(e) None of these (e) None of these
178. The Prime Minister launched India Post Payments Bank 186. The Ranapratap Sagar Dam is a gravity masonry dam of
(IPPB) on….. 53.8 metres height built on -------
(a) September 1, 2018 (b) September 3, 2018 (a) Yamuna river (b) Chambal River
(c) September 4, 2018 (d) September 5, 2018 (c) Ganga River (d) Gomati River
(e) None of these (e) None of these
179. The third Richest Person in India is ---- 187. When is the World Tribal Day observed?
(a) Hinduja brothers (b) Cyrus Poonawalla (a) August 10 (b) August 4
(c) Shiv Nadar (d) Gautam Adani
(c) August 9 (d) August 5
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
180. First White Label ATM was launched by----?
(a) Indian Oil Corporation Lt(d) 188. Total expenditure in budget 2020-21 is expected to
(b) Tata Communications Payment Solutions Limited be-----
(c) Reliance Industries Ltd (a) Rs. 50,42,230 crore (b) Rs. 30,42,000 crore
(d) State Bank of India (c) Rs. 40,42,230 crore (d) Rs. 30,42,230 crore
(e) None of these (e) None of these
181. What is the Stake of RIL in Jio Payment bank? 189. Dandiya Raas is the socio-religious folk dance originating
(a) 70% (b) 60% (c) 50% (d) 80% from-----
(e) None of these (a) Gujarat (b) Uttar Pradesh
182. Karmyogi scheme is launched for--- (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Karnataka
(a) Doctors (b) Civil Servants (e) None of these
(c) Engineers (d) Skilled labourers 190. STARS Programme is related with—
(e) None of these (a) Education (b) Game
183. The Dudhwa Tiger Reserve is a protected area in---- (c) Film (d) Tourism
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh (e) None of these
(c) Bihar (d) Jharkhand
(e) None of these

ANSWER KEY
1 (e) 21 (e) 41 (a) 61 (b) 81 (b) 101 (d) 121 (c) 141 (d) 161 (c) 181 (a)
2 (a) 22 (a) 42 (c) 62 (c) 82 (e) 102 (d) 122 (e) 142 (a) 162 (d) 182 (b)
3 (c) 23 (b) 43 (e) 63 (e) 83 (d) 103 (e) 123 (a) 143 (c) 163 (b) 183 (a)
4 (d) 24 (d) 44 (e) 64 (b) 84 (a) 104 (b) 124 (d) 144 (c) 164 (b) 184 (c)
5 (d) 25 (c) 45 (d) 65 (e) 85 (a) 105 (e) 125 (c) 145 (c) 165 (a) 185 (d)
6 (a) 26 (c) 46 (e) 66 (b) 86 (b) 106 (c) 126 (e) 146 (a) 166 (a) 186 (d)
7 (e) 27 (a) 47 (e) 67 (c) 87 (b) 107 (b) 127 (a) 147 (c) 167 (a) 187 (c)
8 (d) 28 (e) 48 (e) 68 (d) 88 (a) 108 (e) 128 (d) 148 (c) 168 (d) 188 (d)
9 (b) 29 (b) 49 (d) 69 (d) 89 (c) 109 (d) 129 (d) 149 (a) 169 (a) 189 (a)
10 (a) 30 (d) 50 (a) 70 (a) 90 (b) 110 (c) 130 (e) 150 (d) 170 (a) 190 (a)
11 (b) 31 (d) 51 (b) 71 (d) 91 (a) 111 (d) 131 (c) 151 (c) 171 (a)
12 (d) 32 (b) 52 (c) 72 (b) 92 (b) 112 (e) 132 (b) 152 (a) 172 (c)
13 (c) 33 (c) 53 (e) 73 (c) 93 (e) 113 (b) 133 (d) 153 (c) 173 (a)
14 (b) 34 (c) 54 (a) 74 (a) 94 (a) 114 (d) 134 (a) 154 (a) 174 (c)
15 (c) 35 (b) 55 (a) 75 (d) 95 (e) 115 (c) 135 (e) 155 (a) 175 (c)
16 (c) 36 (c) 56 (c) 76 (a) 96 (d) 116 (c) 136 (a) 156 (b) 176 (d)
17 (d) 37 (d) 57 (b) 77 (b) 97 (d) 117 (e) 137 (c) 157 (c) 177 (d)
18 (c) 38 (e) 58 (e) 78 (e) 98 (b) 118 (c) 138 (b) 158 (b) 178 (a)
19 (d) 39 (d) 59 (c) 79 (e) 99 (c) 119 (a) 139 (b) 159 (a) 179 (c)
20 (b) 40 (d) 60 (a) 80 (e) 100 (a) 120 (d) 140 (e) 160 (a) 180 (b)
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2020 2020-15

ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS

Sol. (1-5) Sol (11-15):
N(Prada) O(Reebok) M(Gucci)
Floor Person Boxes Shape Colour
7 Shilpi Pyramid Brown
S(Chanel) 6 Prakhar Cylindrical Yellow
5 Qasim Spherical Green
4 Neha Cuboid Black
U(Arrow) T(Allen
3 Rohan Oval Red
Solly)
J(Gucci) I(Puma) 2 Mani Heart Peach
1 Om Conical Pink
11. (b) The one who has Cuboid shaped box is just above the
R(Flying Q(Zara) one who has Oval shaped box.
Machine) 12. (d) Three photographers live between Rohan’s floor and
the one who likes brown colour.
13. (c) Mani has heart shaped box.
K(Puma) P(Prada) L(Reebok) 14. (b) Shilpi lives on the topmost floor.
15. (c) Oval-Rohan-Red is the correct combination.
1. (e) P likes Prada. Sol. (16-17):
2. (a) O does not belong to that group as O is in middle on 16. (c) By Condition (ii) the code for DRAP is 28!2
the square table while other are sitting at coner. 17. (d) By Condition (iii) the code for AUSEMR is 8@?198
3. (c) T likes Allen solly
4. (d) Three persons are sitting between N and L. Sol. (18-22):
5. (d) P and N likes the same cloth brand In this input output question two numbers are arranged in each
step following a certain pattern. Let us understand the logic
Sol. (6-10) : behind it-
CODE DECODE For Words: Words are arranged according to the place value of
@ < the last letter in the alphabetical series from right to left in the
right end. The word which has the last letter, which comes 1st
% > in alphabetical series, is arranged dust and so on. For example,
# ≤ “music and guide” in which we can see that “c” and “e” are
$ ≥ last letters of both words but c comes 1st, so “music” will be
arranged 1st.
* =
For Numbers: They are arranged in increasing order. The prime
6. (a) After decoding we get, A<Y>X=W≥$V so, numbers are arranged first followed by composite numbers from
Conclusions: – (I) Y>V (true) (II) A>V (false) left to right in left end.
Hence, conclusion I follows Input: Set 17 48 bad pack 23 situation 61 25 puzzle 16
7. (e) After decoding we get, A>Y=X≤W=V Step I: 17 Set 48 pack23 situation 61 25 puzzle 16 bad
Conclusions: – (I) A>X (true) (II) V≥Y(true) Step II: 17 23 Set 48 pack situation 61 25 16 puzzle bad
Hence, conclusion I and II follows. Step III: 17 23 61 Set 48 situation 25 16 pack puzzle bad
8. (d) After decoding we get, A=Y≥X ≤W <V Step IV: 17 23 61 16 Set 48 25 situation pack puzzle bad
Conclusions: – (I) V=A (false) (II) X>A(false) Step V: 17 23 61 16 25 48 Set situation pack puzzle bad
Hence, neither conclusion I nor II follows. 18. (c) Step IV: 17 23 61 16 Set 48 25 situation pack puzzle
9. (b) After decoding we get, A≥Y ≥X =W <V bad
Conclusions: – (I) A≥V (false) (II) V>X (true) ‘Set’ is exactly between the third element from left
Hence, conclusion II follows. end and fifth element from right end in step IV.
10. (a) After decoding we get ,A=V<X >Y =W 19. (d) Step II: 17 23 Set 48 pack situation 61 25 16 puzzle
Conclusions: – (I) X>W (true) (II) Y<A(false) bad
Hence, conclusion I follows. In step II, ‘17’ is related to ‘pack’ and ‘Set’ is related
to ‘61’. In the same way ‘situation’ is related to
puzzle.
 GP_4458
2020-16 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2020

20. (b) In step IV the elements “48 25 situation” found in the 27. (a) Chemistry Student attend the seminar immediately
same order. after Mathematics.
21. (e) Step II: 17 23 Set 48 pack situation 61 25 16 puzzle 28. (e) Mathematics student attends seminar from 9:30 am
bad
-11:00 am.
In step II, the sum of fourth element from left end and
third element from right end is 48 +16 = 64 29. (b) Computer student attends seminar just after the
22. (a) Step III: 17 23 61 Set 48 situation 25 16 pack puzzle bad Biology.
Element would be at the third from the left of the 30. (d) The duration (in hours) of the Mathematics’ seminar
element which is sixth from the right end in step III is is 1.5 hour
ninth from the right end i.e., ‘61’
Sol. (31-35) :
Sol. (23-25):
10 m Date
AAA GGG FFF 20th 25th
Month
Person City Person City
5m January R Agra W Faridabad
February T Banglore P Goa
10 m June X Bareilly V Pune
6m EEE September U Gaya Q Lucknow
DDD
December Y Srinagar S Meerut
5m 31. (d) S likes Meerut.
20 m 32. (b) One who goes on 25th February Like Goa.
BBB CCC 33. (c) U goes Gaya in September.
23. (b) Point FFF is in north east direction with respect to 34. (c) X goes in June month.
BBB. And north east is coded as @&. 35. (b) Four persons are going in between T and Q.
24. (d) If point PPP is & 8m of point BBB then the shortest 36. (c)
distance between PPP and DDD J(+) Q(–) L(+)
10 m
AAA GGG FFF

5m P(–)
10 m DDD 6m By option (c) we can denote ‘Q is mother of P’
37. (d) By option (d) E5000 < C3000 ≥ D4000 > B2000
5m ≥ A1000 = F6000
8m 12 m ‘C3000 > A1000’ holds true.
BBB PPP
Sol. (38-42):
52 + 122 = 13m
Vijay Ram Prakhar Tanu Quan Uday Shyam
25. (c) The direction of point EEE with respect to AAA is
south east which is coded as #&
35km 40km 45km 50km 55km 60km
Sol. (26-30):
Student Timing of Meeting Red Black Green Yellow White Pink Blue
English 7:30 am to 9:30 am
38. (e) Uday likes Pink colour.
Mathematics 9:30 am to 11:00 am
39. (d) Distance between Ram and the official who likes
Chemistry 11:30 am to 12:30 pm white colour is 135km.
Biology 12:30 pm to 2:30 pm 40. (d) Three offices are there between Prakhar and the
Computer 2:30 pm to 4:00 pm official who likes blue colour.
Physics 4:00 pm to 5:00 pm 41. (a) Prakhar sits to the immediate left of Tanu.
26. (c) Chemistry student attend the seminar between 42. (c) Tanu and the one who likes blue colour have distance
seminar hours 11:00 am to 12:30 pm. of 165km between them.
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2020 2020-17

Sol. (43-45): 55. (a) Saving of Engineer

43. (e) After combining statement I and II, = Monthly income – Expenditure on Health & Food
= ` 72,000 – 12% of 72,000
= ` 63,360.
Saving of Scientist = ` 9,000.
DD UU MM KK NN LL  63360  
\ Required percentage
=   =× 100 704%.
44. (e) Using both statements, there are 18 children between  9000  
Priya and Gargi 56. (c) Total revenue generate = 60,000
45. (d) Using both statements we cannot find out the relation On Haridwar trip revenue generated
between Ankit and Fiza. 15
46. (e) Original number- 57672154 = 60, 000 × = ` 9,000.
After applying operation- 2434221 100
There are 2 digits are repeating in the number thus Cost of each ticket on travelling to Haridwar = ` 600
formed. 9000
47. (e) Then no. of people who travelled = = 15.
600
(a) does not follow because the NCR phenomenon can’t 57. (b) Revenue generated by people travelling to Shimla
be extrapolated to “most of the big cities”. b) and d) and Rishikesh
are probable consequences. c) shows us the other  22 24 
side. e) follows from the mention of “slump in home =  × 60, 000 + × 60, 000 
sales” and scope for “price correction”.  100 100 
48. (e) Decline in profit will lead to closure of the company, = 13200 + 14400 = 27600.
so option a) is not valid. Establishment of new Let the average price of each ticket be 'P'.
branches by the MNCs will lead to upsurge in the Then, (15 + 13)P + (12+13)P = 27600
hiring activities. At the same time, maintenance of ⇒ 53P = 27600
positive growth rate by the Indian MNC companies 27600
will help them expand their business. So only B) and ⇒= P = 520.75.
53
C) follow.
49. (d) Note that there has been a decline in gold imports. \ Average price of each ticket is ` 520.75.
50. (a) The main reason for the depletion in the reservoirs is 58. (e) Total revenue by Manali trip
less rainfall in the country. So only option a) follows. 18
= 60000 × = ` 10,800
51. (b) Percentage of expenditure on Food and Health by 100
Scientist = 20%. Cost of each ticket = ` 720.
Expenditure on Food and Health by Scientist 10800
\ The number of people who travelled= = 15.
20 110 720
= 50000 × × 60000
100 100 =
59. (c) Total tickets booked = 20.
3000
52. (c) Expenditure on Food and Health The average number of tickets booked per city
= 20% of ` 50,000 = ` 10,000. 20
Remaining income = ` 50,000 – ` 10,000 = ` 40,000. = = 4.
2 5
Saving= × 40, 000 60. (a) Total number of tickets cancelled
5 = 3 + 12 + 10 + 13 + 15 = 53
\ x = ` 16,000 Average number of tickets cancelled per city
So, saving of Doctor is ` 16,000. 53
53. (e) Let the monthly income of Scientist is ` P. = = 10.6.
45% of P = 9,000 5
100 61. (b) Let N number of cubes of type P can be formed by the
= P 9, 000 × given cuboid
45
m2 – 12m + 36 = 0
P = ` 20,000. 2
\ Monthly income of scientist is ` 20,000. ⇒ m − 6m − 6m + 36 = 0
⇒ m(m − 6) − 6(m − 6) =
54. (a) Monthly income of Doctor = ` 50,000 0
Monthly income of Engineer = ` 72,000 2
Let the monthly income of Scientist is ` P. ⇒ (m − 6) =0 ⇒ m =6.
45% of P = 9000 The length of the side of cube A = 6 m.
100 So, the length of the side of cube P = 6 + 1 = 7 m.
= P 9, 000 × = ` 20,000. \ The number of cubes of type P from the cuboid
45
Sum of monthly income of Doctor, Engineer and 49 × 52 × 56
= = 52 × 8 = 416.
Scientist = `(50,000 + 72,000 + 20,000) = ` 1,42,000. 7 × 7 × 7
 GP_4458
2020-18 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2020

(c) m2 – 12m + 36 = 0
62. r2 – 10r + 25 = 0
2 r = 5 meter
⇒ (m − 6) =0 ⇒ m =6 m The length of the side of cube C = 5 m.
The length of the side of cube A = 6 m. \ The length of the side of cube R = 5 + 3 = 8 m.
\ The length of the side of cube P = 6 + 1 = 7 m. The required ratio
n2 + 21n – 46 =0 = (6 × 62) : (6 × 82) {Total surface area of cube
2
⇒ n + 23n − 2n − 46 = 0 = 36 : 64 = 6 × (side)2}
⇒ n ( n + 23) − 2( n + 23) = 0 = 9 : 16
65. (e) The length of the side of cube A = 6 m
⇒ (n − 2)(n + 23) = 0 \ The length of the side of cube P = 6 + 1 = 7 m.
⇒ n = 2 m, n = −23 (Not possible) The length of the side of cube B = 2 m.
The length of the side of cube B = 2 m. \ The length of the side of cube Q = 2 + 2 = 4 m.
\ The length of the side of cube Q = 2 + 2 = 4 m. The length of the side of cube C = 5 m
2 \ The length of the side of cube R = 5 + 3 = 8 m.
r − 10r + 25 = 0
\ No cube has equal side length.
2
⇒ r − 5r − 5r + 25 = 0 66. (b) Books available in library P = (880 – 720) = 160.
Books available in library Q = (1040 – 880) = 160
⇒ r (r − 5) − 5(r − 5) =0
Books available in library R = (960 – 840) = 120
2
⇒ (r − 5) =0 Books available in library S = (840 – 640) = 200
Books available in library T = (1080 – 760) = 320.
⇒ r = 5 m
Total books in all the 5 libraries
The length of the side of cube C = 5 m. = (160 + 160 + 120 + 200 + 320) = 960
\ The length of the side of cube R = 5 + 3 = 8 m. 960
Average side length of cube A, Q and R Required average = = 192.
5
(6 + 4 + 8) 18 67. (c) Books available in library P, R and S together
= = = 6
3 3 = (160 + 120 + 200) = 480.
Average side length of cube P, B and C Books available in library Q and T together
(7 + 2 + 5) 14 = (160 + 320) = 480.
= = \ Required ratio = 480 : 480 = 1 : 1.
3 3
68. (d) Books available in library P and S together
Required percentage = (160 + 200) = 360
 14  4 Books available in library Q and T together
 6 −  200 4 = (160 + 320) = 480
3
= × 100 = 3 × 100 = = 28 % more. Required percentage
14 14 7 7
 480 − 360 
3 3 =  = × 100 25% less.
 480 
63. (e) m 2 − 12m + 36 = 0
2 69. (d) Books available in library S = 200
⇒ (m − 6) ⇒ m = 6 m.
Books owned by library Q and R together
The length of the side of cube A = 6 meter = (1040 + 960) = 2000
So the length of the side of cube P = 6 + 1 = 7 meter 200
Volume of cube P and A together Required percentage = × 100= 10%.
2000
= 63 + 73 = 216 + 343 = 559 m3
2 70. (a) Total books owned by all the libraries together
n + 21n − 46 = 0
= (880 + 1040 + 960 + 840 + 1080) = 4800
2
⇒ n + 23n − 2n − 46 = 0 Total books issued by all the libraries together
⇒ n ( n + 23) − 2( n + 23) = 0 = (720 + 880 + 840 + 640 + 760) = 3840

Required Ratio = 4800 : 3840 = 5 : 4.
⇒ (n + 23)(n − 2) = 0
71. (d) Quantity I :
⇒ n = 2 m, n = −23 (Not possible) Average of four numbers = 28
The length of the side of B = 2 meter. \ Sum of four numbers = 28 × 4 = 112.
So, the length of the side of cube Q = 2 + 2 = 4 meter Let the number removed is a.
Volume of cube B and Q together Then new average = (28 – 2) = 26
3 3 3 \ Sum of three numbers = 26 × 3 = 78
=2 + 4 =8 + 64 =72 m 112 – a = 78
\ Required ratio = 559 : 72. \ a = 112 – 78 = 34.
64. (b) m2 – 12m + 36 = 0 Quantity II : 36
m = 6 meter. So, Quantity I < Quantity II.
The length of the side of cube A = 6 m.
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2020 2020-19

72. (b) Let E is the event of the probability. Quantity II : 4 hrs.

Total number of outcomes. \ Quantity I < Quantity II.
Number of favourable outcomes = [(1, 1), (1, 3), 76. (a) Statement I :
(1, 5), (3, 1), (3, 3), (3, 5), (5, 1), (5, 3), (5, 5)] Speed of Auto B = 50 Km/hr.
So, number of favourable outcomes = 9 Distance between Auto A and Auto B = 40 Km.
Total number of outcomes = 36 Then relative speed = 120 Km/hr.
9 1 Speed of Auto A = 120 – 50 = 70 Km/hr.
P( E=) =
36 4 Required time taken by Auto A to cross Auto B
1 40
Quantity II : = = 2 hrs.
5 70 − 50
\ Quantity I > Quantity II. Therefore statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
73. (c) Quantity I : question.
P2 – 39P + 378 = 0 Statement II : Speed of Auto B is already given and we
2 can calculate only speed of Auto B from statement II.
⇒ P − 18 P − 21P + 378 = 0
⇒ P ( P − 18) − 21( P − 18) =0 So, Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the
question.
⇒ ( P − 18)( P − 21) =
0 77. (b) Marked price of item A = Market price of item B
\ P = 18, 21 Statement II :
Quantity II : Discount offered at item A = 25%
Q2 – 24Q + 108 = 0 Selling price of item A = 0.75 × 3000 = ` 2250.
2 2250
⇒ Q − 18Q − 6Q + 108 = 0 Cost price of item A = = ` 1800
1.25
⇒ Q(Q − 18) − 6(Q − 18) =
0
11
⇒ (Q − 18)(Q − 6) =0 Cost price of item= B 1800 × = ` 1980
10
\ Q = 6, 18 Selling price of item B = 1980 × 1.2 = ` 2376
Value of P Value of Q Relation So, statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
18 18 P=Q question.
18 6 P>Q Statement I : From statement I we cannot find the
21 18 P>Q cost price and selling price of any item. So, statement
21 6 P>Q I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
78. (e) Statement I :
\ Quantity I ≥ Quantity II.
74. (a) Quantity I : Ratio of investment
= Rahul : Shivam : Garvit
P2 – 11P + 24 = 0
2 = 5 × 7 : a × 7 : 8 × a = 35 : 7a : 8a
⇒ P − 8 P − 3P + 24 = 0 Ratio of Profit share
⇒ P( P − 8) − 3( P − 8) = 0 = Rahul : Shivam : Garvit
= 35 × 24 : 7a × 24 : 8a × 10 = 420 : 84a : 80a.
⇒ ( P − 8)( P − 3) =
0
Total profit = ` 33600
\ P = 8, 3. (420 + 84a + 80a) = ` 33600.
Quantity II :
Statement II :
Q2 – 20Q + 96 = 0
2 Garvit's share = ` 12,000
⇒ Q − 12Q − 8Q + 96 =0 By Statement I & II together we get
⇒ Q(Q − 12) − 8(Q − 12) =
0 80a 12000
=
⇒ (Q − 12)(Q − 8) =0 420 + 84a + 80a 33600
\ Q = 12, 8. 80a 5
⇒ =
Value of P Value of Q Relation 420 + 164a 14
8 8 P=Q 40a 5
⇒ =
8 12 P<Q 210 + 82 a 14
3 12 P<Q
⇒ 560a =1050 + 410a
3 8 P<Q
⇒ 150a = 1050
\ Quantity I ≤ Quantity II. 1050
75. (d) Quantity I : ⇒= a = 7.
(20 + 10) 150
Speed of boat : = 15 Km/h. Hence both the statements are required to answer the
2
30 question.
Time taken to cover the distance = = 2 hrs.
15
 GP_4458
2020-20 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2020

79. (e) Let the two digit number = ab = 10a + b 83. (d) The average temperature from Monday to Wednesday
Statement I : = 36°C.
a + b = 12 ...(1) Total temperature from Monday to Wednesday
Statement II : = 36 × 3 = 108°C.
10b + a = 10a + b + 36 Average temperature from Monday to Thursday
9 (a – b) = 36 = 36 + 1 = 37°C
a – b = 4 ...(2) Total temperature from Monday to Thursday
From eqn. (1) and (2), = 37 × 4 = 148°C
a + b = 12 So, temperature of Thursday = 148 – 108 = 40°C.
a–b=4 3 3
\ a = 8, b = 4. 84. (a) of 52 = 52 × = 39.
So, the value of two digit number is 84. 4 4
Hence both the statements are required to answer the 2 2
questions. of 99 = 99 × = 66.
3 3
80. (e) Statement I :
∴ 66 − 39 = 27.
2
m − 10m + 25 = 0 85. (a) Let the income of Mohit and Sohit is 4x and 3x
2 respectively and their expenditures are 3y and 2y
⇒ m − 5m − 5m + 25 = 0
⇒ ( m − 5)( m − 5) = 0 respectively.
\ 4x – 3y = 6000
2
and 3x – 2y = 6000
⇒ (m − 5) =0 ⇒ m =5.
Statement II : After solving it, x = 6000
2 Their income are 4 × 6000 = 24,000
n − 14n + 49 = 0 and 3 × 6000 = 18,000 respectively.
2 86. (b) Let each question carry 1 mark, so total mark = 70
⇒ n − 7 n − 7 n + 49 =
0
2 And passing marks = 60% of 70 = 42 marks.
⇒ (n − 7) = 0⇒n= 7 Number of questions answer correctly
So, both the statements are required to answer the = 70% of 10 + 40% of 30 + 60% of 30
question. = 7 + 12 + 18 = 37 marks.
81. (b) Statement I : So, he has to answer 42 – 37 = 5 more questions
PQ = 16 cm, QR = 12 cm. correctly to get pass.
We can not conclude that which of the angle of triangle 87. (b) Let, cost of Banana and Mango = x / Banana or
is right angle by alone statement I. Mango
Statement II : Cost of Banana later = x × 1.04 / Banana
Let the sides of triangle are a, b and c. Cost of Mango later = x × 1.05 / Mango
a+b−c Initial value of 5 Mango and 4 Banana = 9x
= = 4 cm.
Inradius of triangle
2 Final value of 5 Mango and 4 Banana
Hypotenuse C = 5 (1.05x) + 4 (1.04x)
Circumradius of triangle= = = 10
C = 20 cm. 2 2 = 5.25x + 4.16x = 9.41x.
a + b = 28. So, percentage increase
We can calculate the value of a and b by pythagorean (9.41x − 9 x) 41
theorem, then we can calculate the area of right-angled = × 100 = = 4.55%.
9x 9
triangle.
88. (a) Case I :
So, statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
5 Boys and 3 Girls can be selected.
question but only statement I alone is not sufficient to
answer the question. Number of ways of selection
9 7
82. (e) There are 11 odd numbers in the group 1 - 21. = C5 × C3 = 126 × 35 = 4410.
The probability that the first mug is odd numbered Case II :
11 7 Boys and 1 Girl can be selected.
= .
21 Number of ways of selection
Since the mug is not replaced there are now 20 mug 9 7
left, of which 10 are even numbered. = C7 × C1 = 36 × 7 = 252.
The probability that the second mug is odd numbered Case III :
10 1 6 Boys and 2 Girls can be selected.
= ⇒ . Number of ways of selection
20 2 9 7
11 1 11 = C6 × C2 = 84 × 21 = 1764.
Required probability = × = .
21 2 42
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2020 2020-21

Case IV : 93. (e) Average of 30 articles = 136

8 Boys can be selected. Total amount of 30 articles = 30 × 136 = ` 4080
Number of ways of selection = 9C8 = 9. Difference in amount = 106 – 70 = 36
\ Total number of ways of selecting the members Correct total amount = 4080 + 36 = 4116
= (4410 + 252 + 1764 + 9) = 6435 ways. 4116
89. (c) The present age of mother Q = 9x = = 137.2
\ Correct average
30
The present age of daughter, R = x 94. (a) Inradius the triangle
Sum of ages of P + Q + R = 100 years P + B − H 20 + 15 − 25 10
S's age 7 years ago = 3 years = = = = 5 cm
2 2 2
So, present age of S = 7 + 3 = 10 years
At the time of the birth R, H 25
Circumradius of the triangle = = = 12.5 cm.
P's age = Q's present age 2 2
⇒ P − x = 9 x ⇒ P = 10 x (12.5 − 5)
Required percentage = 100 60%.
×=
12.5
⇒ P + Q + R = 100
95. (e) Speed of car C2 = 60 Km/h.
⇒ 10 x + 9 x + x = 100
Let speed of car C1 = x Km/h.
⇒ 20 x = 100 ⇒ x= 5
Then,
P's age = 10 × 5
S1 t
\ P's present age = 50 years. = 2
90. (b) The sum of the weight of the office's of 60 employees S t1
2
initially = 60 × 60 = 3600 Kg.
x 4 x 2
New average of office's employees = 60 + 2 = 62. ⇒ = ⇒ = ⇒ x =120 Km/h.
(3600 − 0.4a − 0.5a + a + a − 34) 60 1 60 1
62 = 5 100
60 ⇒ 120 × = m/sec.
= (3566 − 0.9a + 2a ) 18 3
⇒ 62 × 60
100
⇒ 3720 = 3566 + 1.1a Therefore speed of car C1 is m/sec.
3
⇒ 1.1a= 154 ⇒ a= 140.
\ Required value of a = 140 Kg. 96. (d) Let the total population of India in 2019 = a million,
then 25% of a million = 200 million
91. (a) Let total initial mixture in vessel = 7x
a = 200 × 4 = 800 million
So, juice in vessel = 5x
4% of the total population of India sold products
And water in vessel = 2x
online = 4% of 800 million = 32 million.
ATQ,
Hence, option (d) is correct.
 5x   2x 
 5 x − 35 ×  −  2 x − 35 ×  =141 97. (d) Let the total population of India in 2019 = a million,
7x 7x then 25% of a million = 200 million
a = 200 × 4 = 800 million
⇒ (5 x − 25) − (2 x − 10) = 141
4% of the total population of India sold products
⇒ 3 x − 15= 141 ⇒ 3 x= 156 ⇒ x= 52. online = 4% of 800 million = 32 million.
So, initial mixture in vessel = 7x = 7 × 52 = 364 litres In 2020, the number of sellers remained constant then
92. (b) Let the cost price of article is 100x. in 2020, the revenue per sellers
At 25% profit selling price of the article 64 billion 64 × 1000
100 x × 25 = = = 2000 million
= 100 x + = 125 x 32 million 32
100 = 2 billion = revenue per seller in 2019.
At 35% profit selling price of article Hence, option (d) is correct.
100 x × 35 98. (b) In 2019, 200 million people bought products online.
= 100 x + = 135 x In 2020, 125% of 200 = 250 million brought products
100
online.
ATQ,
In 2021, 140% of 125 = 175 million people will buy
135x – 125x = ` 60
products online.
10x = ` 60
Hence, option (b) is correct.
100x = ` 600
99. (c) Let the total population of India in 2019 = a million,
\ Cost price of the article is ` 600.
then, 25% of a million = 200 million
If he wants a profit of 70% the marked price of the a = 200 × 4 = 800 million
article The required %
70 (1000 − 800) 200 × 100
= 600 + 600 × = 600 + 420 = ` 1020. = 100
×= = 25%
100 800 800

Hence, option (c) is correct.
 GP_4458
2020-22 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2020

100. (a) Let the total population of India in 2019 = a million, Statement (III): To stay ahead of expectations,
then, 25% of a million = 200 million many organizations have begun initiatives to provide
a = 200 × 4 = 800 million remote employees a smooth working experience….
The population of India in 2020 Here, it is clear from the above quoted lines that
= 120% of 800 = 960 million statement I and III cannot be inferred from the given
The population of India in 2021 passage while statement II can be inferred. Hence,
= 110% of 960 million = 1056 million option (b) is the right answer choice.
In 2021 because of Interest 50% of the total population 105. (e) Significant: important or large enough to be noticed
of India will buy products online -having a particular meaning
= 50% of 1056 Momentous: Important, serious
50 × 1056 Hence, option (e) is the right answer choice.
= = 528 million. 106. (c) A ripple effect is the effect or influence of a situation,
100 action, event, etc. that does not stop but is experienced
Hence, option (a) is correct. on a series of things one after the other
101. (d) Refer to the first paragraph, the hint can be drawn Hence, option (c) is the right answer choice.
from the lines, 107. (b) Emphatic: expressing something forcibly and clearly.
Remote work is shaping up to be a major trend that will Hesitant: slow to speak or act because you are
likely keep growing even after the pandemic ends. uncertain
Now, the boundaries between personal and Hence, option (b) is the right answer choice.
professional lives have blurred. Juggling between 108. (e) Refer to the first paragraph, the hint can be drawn
professional and personal tasks with no leisure time from the lines,
can stress employees out and affect their mental A gig economy consists of people carving a career
health. If left unchecked, this stress can, in some path through freelance and contractual work –
cases, also increase an employee’s risk for heart wherein the individual is paid per job, or ‘gig’, as
diseases. opposed to receiving a regular salary or wage from
Here, Both (II) and (III) statement can be inferred an employer.
from the above quoted lines. Hence, option (d) is the Today, most people look at it as the much desired
right answer choice. antidote to a monotonous nine-to-five existence,
allowing them to work with freedom and flexibility.
102. (d) Refer to the second paragraph, the hint can be drawn
With the above quoted lines, all the given statements
from the lines.
can be inferred from the above lines. Hence, option
Work-life balance is crucial for employee satisfaction
(e) is the right answer choice.
and overall business success as well. Organizations 109. (d) Refer to the second paragraph, the hint can be drawn
that neglect this aspect, will have a hard time from the lines,
attracting and retaining talent. The rise of the gig economy has made it easier for
Hence, option (d) is the right answer choice. people to take charge of their work lives, giving
103. (e) Refer to the last paragraph of the given passage, the them the freedom to work the way they want to.
hint can be drawn from the lines, This very characteristic of the gig economy can be
It starts with creating a more empathetic work greatly tempting for creative or skilled professionals
environment. Every workforce is unique, and it’s up such as content writers, web developers, etc. who
to the management to connect with their employees can maximize their skills through an unrestrained,
and hear their perspective before implementing unrestricted work set up.
necessary measures. Hybrid work, flexible holiday The gig economy allows an individual to take
policies, floating holidays, wellness leaves, mental absolute charge of their skills and knowledge.
health days—these are all excellent places to start, Here, with the above quoted lines, all the statements
but the degree to which an organization adopts them i, ii, iii, and iv justify the above quoted lines. Hence,
will depend on their employees’ preferences. option (d) is the right answer choice.
Here, all the statement I, II, and III justify the above 110. (c) Refer to the second paragraph, the hint can be drawn
quoted lines. Hence, option (e) is the right answer from the lines,
choice. This is a clear indicator of the fact that full-time
104. (b) Refer to the below lines given in the passage, the hint employment isn’t for everyone. For most people,
can be drawn from: the deal-breaker in a full-time employment set up
Statement (II): We will continue to see more would be that the employer principally owns the
organizations taking significant measures to improve employee’s skills; employers believe they have the
their employees’ work-life balance and enhance right to use them as they desire and as in line with the
employee management. employment contract and job designation. In essence,
Statement (I): As the stress levels of individual the employer buys the rights to an individual’s skills
for a monthly fee which is the salary.
employees increase, it becomes a ripple effect that
From the above quoted lines, only (a) and (b) are
can lead to an obstructive work environment and
justified. Hence, option (c) is the right answer choice.
weak professional relationships.
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2020 2020-23

111. (d) Refer to the third paragraph, the hint can be drawn 120. (d) “Housed” will fill up the blank with appropriate
from the lines, words to make the paragraph meaningful. Hence,
The future of Gig work holds great potential because option (d) is the right answer choice.
it tends to be more meaningful and rewarding in more Housed: to provide with living quarters or shelter
than just the monetary aspect. The simple fact that 121. (c) “Compel” will fill up the blank with appropriate
you are building your own brand instead of someone words to make the paragraph meaningful. Hence,
else’s makes this type of work intrinsically motivating option (c) is the right answer choice.
in the long run. Unlike traditional employment, 122. (e) “coincide” will fill up the blank with appropriate
gig work focuses on results instead of embroiling
words to make the paragraph meaningful. Hence,
processes. Gig workers or freelancers are evaluated
and paid based on their ability to deliver results. option (e) is the right answer choice.
With the above quoted lines, (a), (b), and (c) are 123. (a) “Prohibits” will fill up the blank with appropriate
justified. Hence, option (d) is the right answer choice. words to make the paragraph meaningful. Hence,
112. (e) Refer to the last paragraph, the hint can be drawn option (a) is the right answer choice.
from the lines, 124. (d) “Barred” will fill up the blank with appropriate
Also, the biggest advantage of gig work lies in its words to make the paragraph meaningful. Hence,
integration with technology because needless to say, option (d) is the right answer choice.
the future of India’s start-ups and its gig economy 125. (c) “Hurt” will fill up the blank with appropriate words
lies in digital innovations and a robust digitized to make the paragraph meaningful. Hence, option (c)
ecosystem. A major part of the gig economy, digital is the right answer choice.
marketplaces are now signing up demand-driven 126. (e) Show a clean pair of heels: To run or move away
service providers skilled in niche areas such as beauty, from someone at great speed.
fitness, plumbing, electrical repairs, etc. and offer
1. run away
these services to consumers on a contractual basis as
per requirements. This business model allows for the 2. get ahead of somebody in a competition
service providers to communicate with the end users Hence, option (e) is the right answer choice.
directly through the app according to their terms and 127. (a) Bury the hatchet: End the quarrel and make peace
conditions. This opens up a world of opportunities for In II, “smelled a rat” will be suitable which means
the freelance workforce. Suspect something foul
From the above quoted lines, only (a), (b), and (d) are In III, “read between the lines” will be suitable
justified. Hence, option (e) is the right answer choice. which means Understand the hidden meaning.
113. (b) Contingency: a future event or circumstance which is Hence, option (a) is the right answer choice.
possible but cannot be predicted with certainty. 128. (d) Chew the cud: To contemplate something. (“Cud”
Possibility: the fact that something might exist or is partially digested food that is regurgitated to be
happen, but is not likely to chewed again, a common behavior of cows.)
Hence, option (b) is the right answer choice. In I, “A close shave” will be suitable which means A
114. (d) Disgruntled: Disappointed and appointed narrow escape from or avoidance of a situation, often
Aggrieved: upset or angry at being treated unfairly
an unfavorable or dangerous one.
Hence, option (d) is the right answer choice.
115. (c) Intrinsic: belonging naturally; essential. Hence, option (d) is the right answer choice.
Acquired: to obtain or buy something 129. (d) At sea: Puzzled, perplexed, or completely confused
Hence, option (c) is the right answer choice. (about a subject or some task at hand).
116. (c) “stimulus” will fill up the blank with appropriate In III, “meaning business” will be suitable. Mean
words to make the paragraph meaningful. Hence, business- To be grave and resolute; to be serious
option (c) is the right answer choice. about what one is promising or proposing to do.
Stimulus: something that causes activity, development Hence, option (d) is the right answer choice.
or interest 130. (e) Once in a blue moon: very rarely.
117. (e) “Buoyed” will fill up the blank with appropriate Hence, option (e) is the right answer choice.
words to make the paragraph meaningful. Hence, 131. (c) “Overall, Substantially” is the set of words for each
option (e) is the right answer choice. blank that best fits in the context of the sentence.
Buoyed: kept (something) at a high level Hence, option (c) is the right answer choice.
118. (c) “Upswing” will fill up the blank with appropriate
132. (b) “Contractual, Applications” is the set of words for
words to make the paragraph meaningful. Hence,
each blank that best fits in the context of the sentence.
option (c) is the right answer choice.
Upswing: an increase in strength or quantity; an Hence, option (b) is the right answer choice.
upward trend. 133. (d) “Abolition, Solitary” is the set of words for each
119. (a) “Batted” will fill up the blank with appropriate words blank that best fits in the context of the sentence.
to make the paragraph meaningful. Hence, option (a) Hence, option (d) is the right answer choice.
is the right answer choice. 134. (a) “Comparative, Inoculation” is the set of words for
Batted: to deliver a blow to (someone or something) each blank that best fits in the context of the sentence.
usually in a strong vigorous manner Hence, option (a) is the right answer choice.
 GP_4458
2020-24 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2020

135. (e) “Relevant, Trajectory” is the set of words for each 146. (a) The International Day of Charity was established
blank that best fits in the context of the sentence. with the objective of sensitizing and mobilizing
Hence, option (e) is the right answer choice. people, NGOs, and stakeholders all around the world
136. (a) In the given sentence, the error is in part (A). While to to help others through volunteer and philanthropic
introducing oneself, possessive pronoun “myself” activities.
should not be mixed up with subject pronoun “I”. The date of 5 September was chosen in order to
Hence, option (a) is the right answer choice. commemorate the anniversary of the passing away of
137. (c) In the given sentence, the error is in part (C). Use Mother Teresa of Calcutta, who received the Nobel
‘overcrowded ‘ in place of ‘overcrowd’ as we need an Peace Prize in 1979 “for work undertaken in the
adjective to qualify the noun ‘transportation’. Hence, struggle to overcome poverty and distress, which also
option (c) is the right answer choice. constitute a threat to peace”.
138. (b) In the given sentence, the error is in part (B). Use ‘lay 147. (c) A wake-up call to economists who failed to foresee
down’ in place of ‘laid down’ as V1 will be used here every recent crisis, including the cataclysm of 2008,
to make the sentence grammatically correct. Hence, 10 Rules is full of insights on signs of political,
option (b) is the right answer choice. economic, and social change Sharma explains, for
139. (b) In the given sentence, the error is in part (B). ‘whose example, why autocrats are bad for the economy;
design’ is incorrect, it must be changed to ‘the design robots are a blessing, not a curse; and consumer prices
of which’ as whose is never used for non-living don’t tell you all you need to know about inflation.
things. Hence, option (b) is the right answer choice. He shows how currency crises begin with the flight of
140. (e) The given sentence is correct and there is no error in knowledgeable locals, not evil foreigners; how debt
any of its parts. Hence, option (e) is the right answer crises start in private companies, not government;
choice. and why the best news for any country is none at all.
141. (d) Axis Bank in association with Google Pay launched Rethinking economics as a practical art, 10 Rules
ACE Credit Card today. Axis Bank ACE Credit Card is a must-read for business, political and academic
is an entry level card which provides accelerated leaders who want to understand the most important
rewards on bill pay and recharge at Google Pay. This forces that shape a nation’s future.
card provides the reward in the form of cashback 148. (c) Bank of Baroda (BoB), India’s third-largest public
sector bank, has launched ‘Insta Click Savings
making it simple and hassle free.
Account’ for all its customers.
142. (a) Airtel Payments Bank Ltd has collaborated with
149. (a) SBI General Insurance, one of the leading general
National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) to
insurance companies in India, announced the
train and skill young people in rural areas on financial
launch of first-of-its-kind offering, ‘Shagun – Gift
services, enabling them to find jobs and become
an Insurance”, a unique gift of Personal Accident
entrepreneurs in the sector, the payments bank said
policy. This product was filed by SBI General under
in a statement. Currently only six payments banks
Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority’s
are operational in India, including Paytm Payments (IRDAI) Sandbox regulations. The key differentiating
Bank, Airtel Payments Bank, India Post Payments feature of the policy is that it can be gifted to anyone
Bank, Fino Payments Bank, Jio Payments Bank and you want, which means it is not necessary for the
NSDL Payments Bank. policy buyer to be related to the insured1
143. (c) PD Vaghela was appointed as Chairman of TRAI 150. (d) ICICI Bank announced the launch of ‘Home Utsav’,
(Telecom Regulatory Authority of India). He has a virtual property exhibition that digitally showcases
replaced R S Sharma real estate projects by renowned developers from key
144. (c) Serum Institute of India Pvt. Lt (d) is now the cities across the country. The exhibition is available
world’s largest vaccine manufacturer by number for everyone, including ICICI Bank’s customers and
of doses produced and sold globally (more than those who are not customers of the Bank.
1.5 billion doses) which includes Polio vaccine as 151. (c) India’s largest private sector lender HDFC Bank
well as Diphtheria, Tetanus, Pertussis, Hib, BCG, recently launched “Shaurya KGC Card” aimed at
r-Hepatitis B, Measles, Mumps and Rubella vaccines. serving the armed forces. Unveiling the new product
It is estimated that about 65% of the children in the through the virtual platform, HDFC Bank managing
world receive at least one vaccine manufactured director (MD) and chief executive officer (CEO)
by Serum Institute Vaccines manufactured by the Aditya Puri said it is a first-of-its-kind product which
Serum Institute are accredited by the World Health is designed specifically for the armed forces.
Organization, Geneva and are being used in around 152. (a) American cult bike manufacturer Harley-Davidson
170 countries across the globe in their national recently said it is discontinuing its current business
immunization programs, saving millions of lives model in India. As part of the process, the company is
throughout the world. planning to close its manufacturing facility in Bawal
145. (c) Rajat Bhatia, a veteran in Indian domestic cricket, (Haryana) and significantly reduce the size of its
has called it quits from all forms of the game to bring sales office in Gurgaon, the bike manufacturer said in
down the curtains on a career spanning 20 years. a statement.
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2020 2020-25

153. (c) Jio Payments Bank Limited is a joint venture between 2012. The prime purpose of the International Day of
the Reliance Industries and the State Bank of India Charity is to raise awareness and provide a common
with the stake of 70:30. platform for charity related activities all over the
154. (a) Indian Air Force Day is celebrated every year by the world.
Indian Air Force on 8th of October. This year Indian 164. (b) In RRBs, 50% share shall be held by the central
Air Force celebrated its 88th anniversary. Indian Air government, 15% by the concerned state government
Force was officially established on 8 October 1932 and 35% by the sponsor bank. The RRB amendment
by the British Empire as the Royal Indian Air Force. act 2014 has allowed the RRBs to raise their
The name was changed to Indian Air Force in 1950. capital from sources other than the central and state
155. (a) The RBI, headed by Governor Shaktikanta Das, can governments, and sponsor banks.
have a maximum of four deputy governors. 165. (a) Ruchir Sharma is an Indian investor and fund
156. (b) The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) manager who has written widely on global economics
and Facebook have partnered to launch curriculum and politics. A longtime columnist for newspapers
on "digital safety and online well-being" and
and magazines around the world, he is the author of
"Augmented Reality" for students and educators.
--The 10 Rules of Successful Nations.
157. (c) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) came up with
166. (a) Titan Pay is powered by YONO SBI. Therefore, with
a framework for pan-India Umbrella Entity for
this launch, SBI account holders can tap their Titan
Retail Payments, wherein the central bank has said
that an entity must have a minimum paid-up capital Pay watch on contactless payment POS machine
of Rs 500 crore for setting up an umbrella entity without the need of swiping or inserting their SBI
for retail payment. bank card. Payments up to Rs. 2000 can be made
158. (b) Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on February 1, without entering a PIN.
2019, while presenting the budget has announced the 167. (a) The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet has
expansion of Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha approved the appointment of PD Vaghela as the
Utthan Mahabhiyan (PM KUSUM) Scheme under new Chairman of Telecom Regulatory Authority of
which 20 lakh farmers will now be provided with India (TRAI). He will succeed Rs Sharma, who will
funds to set up standalone solar pumps. complete his tenure as the head of the telecom.
159. (a) India has been ranked 105th position “Global 168. (d) New Umbrella Entity (NUE) shall have a minimum
Economic Freedom Index 2020 Annual Report” by paid-up capital of ` 500 crore (to support/address
Canada›s Fraser Institute, which has been released the need of capital for managing risks, invest in
in India in conjunction with Center for Civil Society, technological infrastructure, for business operations,
New Delhi-based think tank. This is the 24th edition etc). No single promoter/promoter group shall have
of Economic Freedom of the World. more than 40% investment in the capital of the
160. (a) Dubbed as the biggest bureaucratic reform initiative, NUE.
the Union Cabinet approved ‘Mission Karmayogi’, 169. (a) UNDP has its headquarters in New York City,
a new capacity-building scheme for civil servants but works primarily through its offices in about
aimed at upgrading the post-recruitment training 170 countries and territories, helping to eradicate
mechanism of the officers and employees at all levels. poverty, reduce inequalities and exclusion, and build
Prime Minister Narendra Modi said this exercise resilience so that countries can sustain progress. As
will “radically” improve the government’s human the UN’s development agency, UNDP plays a critical
resource management practices and asserted it will role in helping countries achieve the Sustainable
use state-of-the-art infrastructure to augment the Development Goals.
capacity of civil servants. 170. (a) An asset management company (AMC) is a firm that
161. (c) Federal Bank Limited is a Private sector scheduled
invests pooled funds from clients, putting the capital
commercial Bank. It was founded in 23 April 1931
to work through different investments including
by Mr. K.P Hormis. Federal Bank main office as
stocks, bonds, real estate, master limited partnerships,
Registered and Head office is in Aluva, Kochi,
and more a long with high-net-worth individual
Kerala, India.
Federal Bank Provides Retail Banking, Wholesale portfolios.
Banking, Finance and Insurance, Mortgage loans. 171. (a) Atal Pension Yojana is regulated by the Pension Fund
162. (d) World Autism Awareness Day is celebrated on 2 April Regulatory & Development Authority Act (PFRDA).
every year, encouraging Member States of the United The Pension Fund Regulatory & Development
Nations to take measures to raise awareness about Authority Act was passed on 19th September, 2013
people with autistic spectrum disorders including and the same was notified on 1st February, 2014.
autism and Asperger syndrome throughout the world. PFRDA is subscribed by employees of Govt. of
163. (b) The International Day of Charity is an international India, State Governments and by employees of
day observed annually on 5 September. It was private institutions/organizations & unorganized
declared by the United Nations General Assembly in sectors.
 GP_4458
2020-26 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2020

172. (c) The Micro Units Development & Refinance Agency Building (NPCSCB), in a bid to transform status-
Ltd (MUDRA) was set up by the Government of India quoist and rule-obsessed civil servants working in
(GoI). MUDRA has been initially formed as a wholly silos into “experts”.
owned subsidiary of Small Industries Development The scheme attempts to challenge an oft-repeated
bank of India (SIDBI) with 100% capital being criticism against civil servants of clearing an exam in
contributed by it. their 20s, and then doing little to build on their skills.
173. (a) Elon Reeve Musk is a business magnate, industrial 183. (a) The Dudhwa Tiger Reserve is a protected area
designer and engineer. He is the founder, CEO, CTO in Uttar Pradesh. It covers the Lakhimpur Kheri
and chief designer of Space X; early investor, CEO and Bahraich districts and comprises the Dudhwa
and product architect of Tesla. National Park, Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary and
174. (c) The NSO data revealed that retail inflation was 7.2 Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary.
percent in rural India and 6.73 per cent in urban areas, 184. (c) Rani Lakshmi Bai Central Agricultural University
taking the combined CPI-based inflation to 6.93 is central agricultural university located in Jhansi
percent. district of Uttar Pradesh. The university was
175. (c) The merger of Oriental Bank of Commerce and established by the government of India through the
United Bank of India with Punjab National Bank Rani Lakshmi Bai Central Agricultural University
became effective from April 1, 2020. Act - 2014, passed by parliament in 2014.
176. (d) US secretary of state and defence secretary took part 185. (d) Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban
in the two-plus-two dialogue with External Affairs Transformation (AMRUT) was launched by Prime
Minister S. Jaishankar and Defence Minister Rajnath Minister Narendra Modi in June 2015 with the focus
Singh. to establish infrastructure that could ensure adequate
A host of crucial bilateral, regional and global issues robust sewage networks and water supply for urban
were included -- China’s efforts to expand influence transformation by implementing urban revival
in the Indo-Pacific region as well as its aggressive projects.
behaviour in eastern Ladakh was to figure in the talks. 186. (d) The Ranapratap Sagar Dam is a gravity masonry
177. (d) The Korean won (KRW) is the national currency of dam of 53.8 metres height built on the Chambal
South Korea Its users denote the won by using the River at Rawatbhata in Rajasthan. It is part of
symbol “₩”. Since 1950, it has been administered by integrated scheme of a cascade development of the
the nation’s central bank, the Bank of Korea. river involving four projects starting with the Gandhi
178. (a) The Prime Minister launched India Post Payments Sagar Dam in the upstream reach in Madhya Pradesh
Bank (IPPB) on September 1, 2018. and the Jawahar Sagar Dam with a terminal structure
It is an initiative of the government aimed at making of the Kota Barrage in Rajasthan for irrigation.
banking services available at people’s doorstep. 187. (c) World Tribal Day is observed on August 9 every year
IPPB is a wholly-owned subsidiary of Deparment of from 1994.
Post, with 100 percent Government of India equity. The day is aimed at promoting and protecting the
179. (c) Indian IT pioneer Shiv Nadar cofounded HCL rights of the world’s indigenous population.
in a garage in 1976 to make calculators and The date recognizes the first meeting of the United
microprocessors. He chairs HCL Technologies, a Nations Working Group on Indigenous Populations
$9.9 billion (revenue) company. He is third richest in Geneva in 1982.
person in India . 188. (d) Total expenditure in 2020-21 is expected to be
180. (b) Automated Teller Machines (ATMs) set up, owned `30,42,230 crore, which is 12.7% higher than the
and operated by non-bank entities are called “White revised estimate of 2019-20.
Label ATMs” (WLAs). 189. (a) Dandiya Raas is the socio-religious folk dance
Tata Communications Payment Solutions Limited originating from Indian state of Gujarat and popularly
(TCPSL) was the first company authorized by the performed in the festival of Navaratri. The dance is
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to open White Label performed in the Marwar region of Rajasthan too.
ATMs in the country. It got launched under the brand 190. (a) The World Bank has approved the Strengthening
name ‘Indicash’. Teaching-Learning and Results for States (STARS)
181. (a) Jio Payments Bank Limited is a joint venture between Programme. It will improve the quality and
the Reliance Industries and the State Bank of India governance of school education in six Indian states
with the stake of 70:30. of Himachal Pradesh, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh,
182. (b) The Narendra Modi government launched the Maharashtra, Odisha and Rajasthan through the
‘Karmayogi Yojana’ for Civil Services Capacity Samagra Shiksha.
 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2020
(Based on Memory)

Time : 60 minutes Max. Marks : 100

Reasoning Ability 7. If Himani is 16m west of Ajay then, what is the shortest
distance between Himani and Edinit?
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): Study the following information care- (a) 11m (b) 12m
fully and answer the questions given below. (c) 13m (d) 14m
(e) None of these
Eight persons in XYZ company have different designations i.e,
8. Four of the following five are alike in certain way and hence
Chairman (CHM), General Manager (GM), Assistant General
form a group, find the one which does not belong to that
Manager (AGM), Deputy General Manager (DGM), Manager,
group?
Assistant Manager, Probationary Officer, Clerk in a company.
(a) Ajay-Faryad (b) Balaji-Edinit
The order of seniority is the same as given above i.e, CHM is the
(c) Dimple-Ajay (d) Chandra-Balaji
senior-most designation and Clerk is the junior-most designation.
(e) Dimple-Faryad
Only two persons are junior than Joy. Only one designation is
there between Joy and Omkar. Only two designation is there DIRECTIONS (Qs. 9-13): Study the following information care-
between Omkar and Mohan . Mohan is senior than Omkar. fully and answer the questions given below:
Number of persons who are senior than Omkar is same as the Eight cousins were born in four different months i.e. January,
number of persons who are junior than Prem. Nisha is senior March, June and September and on two different dates i.e., 8th
than Prem but junior than Lakshya. Kishore is not in the junior- and 15th of the same year.
most post. Qazi is not the PO. Shivam was born on 8th in one of the months having 30 days.
1. How many persons are junior than Omkar? Only three cousins were born between Shivam and Payal. Raj
(a) Three (b) One and Tarun were born in the same month. Raj was born after Payal.
(c) Two (d) None Uchit was born immediately before Payal. Number of cousin were
(e) Four born before Raj is same as number of cousin were born after
2. How many designations are there between Nisha and Prem? Vinit. Qasim was born before Wasim.
(a) One (b) Two 9. Who among the following was born on 8th of January?
(c) Three (d) Four (a) Qasim (b) Raj
(e) Five (c) Payal (d) Tarun
3. Number of persons who are junior than Joy is the same as (e) None of these
the number of persons who are senior than ______ ? 10. How many cousins were born before Vinit?
(a) Mohan (b) Lakshya (a) One (b) Two
(c) Kishore (d) Nisha (c) Three (d) Four
(e) Omkar
4. Which of the following designations is exactly between (e) More than four
the designations of Qazi and Omkar? 11. Who among the following was born in the same month as
(a) Assistant Manager (b) Manager Uchit?
(c) PO (d) CHM (a) Wasim (b) Qasim
(e) AGM (c) Payal (d) Vinit
5. Who among the following is the Manager of the company? (e) None of these
(a) Omkar (b) Prem 12. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and
(c) Joy (d) Lashya hence form a group which of the following does not belong
(e) Nisha to the group?
(a) Tarun-Vinit (b) Payal-Tarun
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-8): Study the following information care-
(c) Wasim-Tarun (d) Shivam-Raj
fully and answer the questions given below:
(e) Vinit-Uchit
Ajay is 14m west of Balaji. Chandra is 17m south of Ajay. Dimple 13. Who among the following was born between Tarun and
is 16m west of Chandra. Edinit is 30m north of Dimple. Gagan is Vinit?
23m south of Balaji. Faryad is 30m east of Edinit. (a) Raj (b) Qasim
6. What is the shortest distance between Faryad and Gagan? (c) Payal (d) Shivam
(a) 25m (b) 27m (e) None of these
(c) 36m (d) 28m
(e) None of these
 GP_4458
2020-28 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2020

14. If in the word “RESISTER” all vowels are changed by next 21. Statements:
letter and all consonants are changed by previous letter of A > B < C ³ M > E, E > G = I > N
English alphabetical series. Then. How many letters are
Conclusions:
repeated?
(a) None (b) One I. M > I
(c) Two (d) Three II.B ³ N
(e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 22-24): Study the following series carefully
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 15-19): Study the following information care- and answer the questions given below.
fully and answer the questions given below:
657 824 523 487 348
Eight candidates are sitting around a circular table facing towards 22. The product of the first and third digit of which of the
the center of the table in front of the GD constructor in a bank for following number is the second highest?
the post of Deputy Manager. Priyam sits second to the left of (a) 487 (b) 657
Kajal. Only two candidate sit between Priyam and Usha. Tanvi
(c) 523 (d) 824
faces Usha. Rachit sits third to the right of Tanvi. Suraj sit third (e) 348
to the left of Wazir. Vandana is an immediate neighbor of Wazir. 23. The sum of all the digits of how many numbers is divisible
15. Who among the following candidate sits third to the left of by 3?
Suraj? (a) Two (b) One
(a) Rachit (b) Tanvi (c) Three (d) Four
(c) Priyam (d) Kajal
(e) Five
(e) Usha
24. If we arrange all the digits in decreasing order from left to
16. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and
right within the number, then which of the following is
hence form a group find the one which does not belong to
third lowest number thus formed?
that group?
(a) Usha-Tanvi (b) Priyam-Rachit (a) 657 (b) 824
(c) Vandana-Suraj (d) Wazir-Kajal (c) 523 (d) 487
(e) Wazir-Suraj (e) 348
17. Which of the following statement is true regarding Wazir? DIRECTIONS (Qs. 25-29): In each of the questions below. Some
(a) Wazir faces Kajal statements are given followed by conclusions/group of
(b) Wazir sits immediate left of Vandana conclusions. You have to assume all the statements to be true
(c) Vandana and Usha are immediate neighbours of Wazir even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known
(d) Wazir sits second to right of Rachit facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
(e) All are true follow from the information given in the statements:
18. How many candidate sits between Priyam and Usha when
counted clockwise direction from Priyam? (a) If only conclusion I follows
(a) One (b) Two (b) If only conclusion II follows
(c) Three (d) None (c) If either I or II follows
(e) More than three (d) If neither I nor II follows
19. Who among the following candidate sits second to the (e) If both I and II follows
right of the one who faces Rachit? 25. Statement:
(a) Kajal (b) Tarun Only a few store is glass.
(c) Priyam (d) Suraj No glass is paint.
(e) Usha Only a few paint is carpet.
Conclusions:
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 20-21): In each of the following questions
I. Some carpet is not glass.
assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two
II. All store can be paint.
conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true and
26. Statement:
give your answer accordingly.
Only a few press is pencil.
(a) If only conclusion I is true Some pencil is pen.
(b) If only conclusion II is true Only a few easy is pen.
(c) If either conclusion I or II is true Conclusions:
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II is true I. Some easy is not pen.
(e) If both conclusions I and II are true II. All pen can be pencil.
20. Statements:
27. Statement:
J ³ P > R = T, T < U ³ X Only a few angel is girl.
Conclusions: All girl is gang.
I. X > P Some gang is fruit.
II. J > T
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2020 2020-29

Conclusions: (a) Second (b) Third

I. Some girl is fruit. (c) Fourth (d) Can’t be determined
II. All fruits can be angel.
(e) First
28. Statement:
All desk is table.
All table is chair.
Numerical Ability
Some chair is wood. DIRECTION (Qs. 36-45): Find the value of ‘a’ in the following
Conclusions: questions.
I. Some wood is desk.
II. No wood is desk . 36. a% of 700 + 249 = 760
29. Statements: (a) 81 (b) 76
Some Risk are Mute. (c) 83 (d) 73
All Mute are Case. (e) 78
All Case are toy. 37. 112 – 92 + 37 = a + 33
Conclusions: (a) 87 (b) 39
I: No Risk is Toy. (c) 73 (d) 47
II: Some Toy are Risk. (e) 50
30. In the word ‘COMPETITIVE’, how many pairs of the letters 1 a
have the same number of letters between them in the word 38. of 512 – 40% of 100 = of 24
8 3
as in English alphabet?
(a) None (a) 24 (b) 3
(b) Three (c) 1 (d) 12
(c) Four (e) 9
(d) Five 39. 7896 + 6744 + 6320 – a = 7960
(e) More than Five (a) 13000 (b) 13700
(c) 12000 (d) 15000
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 31-35): Study the following alphabetic se- (e) 15606
ries carefully and answer the questions given below: 40. 46 × 60% of 60 – 324 ÷ 18 × 3 = a
PV B N H G X K J N X JAE S Q W E R PM I U T R L (a) 1604 (b) 1608
OE (c) 1602 (d) 1610
31. How many letters are there in the series which is (e) 1620
immediately preceded by vowel and immediately succeeded 41. 21 + 343 – 112 + a2 = 477
by consonant? (a) 12 (b) 15
(a) None (b) One (c) 16 (d) 24
(c) Two (d) Three (e) 18
(e) More than three
32. Which of the following letter is 9th from left of ‘U’? 42. 72 + 92 - 9 = a × 121 ÷ 11
(a) A (b) E (a) 8 (b) 74
(c) S (d) Q (c) 14 (d) 4
(e) None of these (e) 1
33. If all vowels are eliminated from the series then, which of 43. 60% of a – 40% of 500 = 400
the following letter is 11th from right end? (a) 760 (b) 980
(a) N (b) Z (c) 800 (d) 1000
(c) X (d) S (e) 500
(e) None of these 44. (a2 + 2)2 = 4a2 + 85
34. How many letters are there in the series which is immediately (a) 3 (b) 9
preceded by vowel and immediately succeeded by the letter (c) 1 (d) 16
which comes before ‘I’ in English alphabetical series? (e) 4
(a) None (b) One
(c) Two (d) Three 1 3 16 a 28
45. 2 -4 + = +
(e) More than three 7 7 2 7 2
35. Seven Painters are sitting in a line facing North. A sits one (a) 7 (b) 4
of the extreme end. One Painter sits between D and B who
5 1
sits next to A. Two Painter sit between D and C who sits (c) (d)
right of F. E and F are immediate neighbors of D. What is 7 5
the position of E from left end? (e) 6
 GP_4458
2020-30 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2020

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 46-50): Read the given information carefully becomes one-fifth then each students gets 25 candies. Find
and answer the following questions. the total number of candies distributed in the class?
The following bar graph shows the cost price (in Rs.) of four (a) 177 (b) 175
different products in 2018. (c) 196 (d) 174
(e) 198
53. Two trains running at 72 km/h and 36 km/h respectively in
opposite direction cross each other in 9 seconds then find
170 the time taken to cross each other when running in same
directions?
160
2
150 (a) 27 sec (b) 4 sec
25
140 4
(c) 18 sec (d) 4 sec
130 25
120 (e) 12 sec
P Q R S 54. P and Q entered into a partnership by investing Rs. 21600
Cost Price and Rs. 37800 respectively. After 6 months, R joined them
with an amount of Rs. 32400 and at the end of the year
46. Find the difference between sum of cost price of products profit share of R is Rs. 42000 then find the total profit?
P and Q together and that of R and S together? (a) Rs. 112000 (b) Rs. 168000
(a) Rs 20 (b) Rs 15 (c) Rs. 105000 (d) Rs. 182000
(c) Rs 10 (d) Rs 20 (e) Rs. 196000
(e) Rs 25 55. Five years ago, age of A’s father is 2.5 times of the age of A
47. Find the ratio of sum of cost price of P and S together to at that time and 5 years hence ratio of age of A’s father to
the cost price of P? that of A is 2:1. Find the sum of present age of A and his
(a) 56: 27 (b) 27: 56 father?
(c) 29: 56 (d) 29: 27 (a) 65 years (b) 50 years
(e) 56: 29 (c) 80 years (d) 70 years
48. If the cost price of product Q is increased by 40% in 2019 (e) 40 years
with respect to that of in 2018 then find the increment in the DIRECTIONS (Qs. 56-60): Each of the following question is
cost price of Q? followed by two equations I & II which you have to solve and
(a) Rs 90 (b) Rs 80 mark answer accordingly.
(c) Rs 60 (d) Rs 56
(a) if P £ Q
(e) Rs 50
(b) if P > Q
49. Sum of cost price of products Q and S together is approxi-
(c) if P = Q or no relation can be established
mately what percent more than the cost price of product Q?
(d) if P < Q
(a) 96% (b) 135%
(c) 125% (d) 90% (e) if P ³ Q
(e) 80% 56. I. 4x2 + 8x + 3 = 0
50. Average of the cost price of products Q and R is how much II. 2y2 + 3y + 1 = 0
more or less than the average of the cost price of products 57. I. 16x2 + 16x + 3 = 0
P and S? II. 9y2 + 27y + 20 = 0
(a) Rs 20 (b) Rs 10.5 58. I. 9x2 – 9x + 2 = 0
(c) Rs 15 (d) Rs 13 II. 9y2 – 18y + 8 = 0
(e) Rs 12.5 59. I. 49x2 + 14x – 3 = 0
51. Area of a square is equal to the area of a rectangle and II. 49y2 + 56y + 15 = 0
length of the rectangle is 4m more than the side of the 60. I. x3 = 512
square. Find the perimeter of the rectangle if the breadth of II. 2Q2 = 128
the rectangle is 3 m less than the side of the square? 61. Amount received on a certain sum when compounded an-
(a) 55 m (b) 50 m nually for 2 years at R% per annum is Rs 3240 and that of in
(c) 60 m (d) 40 m three years at the same rate of interest is Rs 3888. Find the
(e) 45 m sum?
52. There are some students in the class and number of candies (a) Rs. 2000 (b) Rs. 2250
received by each student is one-seventh of the total (c) Rs. 2400 (d) Rs. 2500
students in the class. If the number of students in the class (e) None of these
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2020 2020-31

62. A alone can do a work in 30 days and ratio of efficiency of B 71. Trump has falsely asserted that (A)/he won the 2020 presi-
to that of A is 5: 3. If A started and worked for 10 days and left dential (B)/ election and repeatedly seek to (C)/ overturn
then in how many days will B do the remaining work? the results of the election. (D)
(a) 13 days (b) 24 days (a) A (b) D
(c) 12 days (d) 25 days (c) B (d) C
(e) 15 days (e) E
63. In an election of two candidates, 20% of votes cast were 72. UMI Blockchain is convenient if the (A)/ transfer needs to
declared invalid. The winner got 70% of the valid votes be (B)/sent urgent, and the (C)/ Internet is temporarily not
and defeats the loser by 3200 votes. How many votes were accessible. (D)
cast in total? (a) D (b) A
(a) 10000 votes (b) 13000 votes (c) E (d) C
(c) 12000 votes (d) 11000 votes (e) B
(e) None of these 73. They visited the site to gather (A)/first hand information
64. In an alloy ‘A’, tin & steel is in the ratio of 1 : 2. In the about the (B)/ incident and was informed that the (C)/fire
second alloy ‘B’, the same element are in the ratio 2 : 3. If was not related to Dzukou fire. (D)
these two alloys mixed to form a new alloy in which tin and (a) B (b) E
steel is in the ratio 3 : 5, find the ratio in which alloy ‘A’ and (c) C (d) A
alloy ‘B’ are mixed? (e) D
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 3 : 2 74. Having to repeal a law is not so (A)/easy especially for a
(c) 3 : 5 (d) 4 : 1 government (B)/which is extremely proud of (C)/its numeri-
(e) 3 : 1 cal majority in the Lok Sabha. (D)
65. A sells his phone at 25% profit to B while B sales it to C at (a) C (b) B
a loss of 20%. If C pays Rs. 3000. Find at what price A sold (c) E (d) A
phone to B? (e) D
(a) ` 2900 (b) ` 3200 75. A meeting of board of directors of the company (A)/ is
(c) ` 3600 (d) ` 3750 scheduled to be held in Tuesday, (B)/to consider and
(e) ` 3700 approve unaudited (C)/financial results of the company. (D)
(a) D (b) A
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 66-70): What should come in place of ques- (c) E (d) B
tion mark (?) in the following series questions? (e) C
66. 9, 18, 32, 56, 95, ? 76. Once he wins, he has to figure out what (A)/he stands in,
(a) 153 (b) 148 gain the respect of his (B)/biggest critic, while trying to get
(c) 162 (d) 154 anything (C)/right for America's second weirdest city. (D)
(e) 143 (a) E (b) D
(c) B (d) C
67. 3, 10, 31, 94, 283, ?
(e) A
(a) 850 (b) 840
77. The agency also seems to be aware off the (A)/impact dam-
(c) 739 (d) 735
aged consumer trust can (B)/ have on personal health apps,
(e) 832 and said in the notice (C)/that its eye is on the rest of the
68. 4, 3, 4, 7, ? 38.5 industry as well. (D)
(a) 17 (b) 15 (a) D (b) C
(c) 13.75 (d) 22.25 (c) B (d) E
(e) 15.75 (e) A
69. 3, 11, 27, 59, ?, 251
(a) 159 (b) 118 DIRECTIONS (Qs. 78-82): In each of the following questions, a
(c) 115 (d) 175 statement with a single blank is given followed by five options.
(e) 123 Choose the most suitable word from the given options to com-
70. 12, 13, 40, 165, 508, ? plete the sentence meaningfully.
(a) 1328 (b) 1545 78. The primary purpose of a/an ___________ trust is that it
(c) 1237 (d) 1337 moves assets out of your estate, reducing your possibility
(e) 1431 of bumping up against the estate tax.
(a) Inoperable (b) Irrevocable
English Language (c) Reasonable (d) Usable
(e) Available
DIRECTION (Qs. 71-77): Read each sentence to find out whether 79. Health officials in the capital have warned that high levels
there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in of pollution will _________ the effects of the pandemic.
one part of the sentence. Choose the option with that part as (a) Exert (b) Oppress
your answer. If there is no error, mark (E). (c) Contend (d) Exacerbate
(e) Toil
 GP_4458
2020-32 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2020

80. The Ghaziabad Traffic Police has launched operation 87. Which among the following will be the third sentence of the
"Nakel" in the district for disciplining errant motorists and paragraph after the rearrangement?
restore a ______________ of normalcy on district road. (a) F (b) D
(a) Disposition (c) E (d) B
(b) Notwithstanding (e) C
(c) Semblance DIRECTIONS (Qs. 88-92): In each question below, four words
(d) Esteem
printed in bold type are given. One of these words printed in
(e) Ascertain
bold might either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the con-
81. In recent years, _________________ has been the path-
text of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or
way used to enact or pursue highly partisan legislation
wrongly spelt, if any. The number of the word is your answer. If
(a) Reconciliation (b) Directions
the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in
(c) Inclination (d) Conditioned
the context of the sentence then mark (e), i.e. 'All Correct', as
(e) Reaction
your answer.
82. A flood in my social housing block lays bare the
___________ of placing profit over people. 88. It has token no less than the highest court of the land to
(a) Early (b) Effectively reiterate the fact that the value of a woman's work at home
(c) Indefinitely (d) Folly is no less than that of her office-going husband.
(e) Legally (a) Token (b) Reiterate
(c) Woman's (d) Than
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 83-87): The question consists of six statements
(e) All are correct
labelled A, B, C, D, E and F which when logically ordered form
89. There are significant challenges faced by senior citizens in
a coherent passage. Choose the option that represents the most
the form of chronic illnesses and mental conditions in addi-
logical order.
tion to frequent ill-treatment by family members or
(A) It has professionally managed residences, golf courses, ten- caregivers.
nis courts and 10 miles of beach along the island. (a) Significant (b) Chronic
(B) That reputation only grew in the first nine months of the (c) Conditions (d) Members
virus. (e) All are correct
(C) The retreat has long been regarded a safe destination. 90. Learning may be priceless, but education for all cannot be
(D) In recent years, Kiawah Island has built a reputation as a achieved by skimping on funds and if miserliness also
mecca for well-heeled families nationally. wishes to appear benevolent, the combination can be
(E) The distinctive features of Kiawah Island itself have also seriously damaging.
contributed to boosting its already-strong appeal during (a) Priceless (b) Cannot
the novel coronavirus period. (c) Skimming (d) Benevolent
(F) Collectively, it contributed to making social distancing readily (e) All are correct
manageable even before the term "social distancing" was 91. Public objection to the Jaitley statue was intermittent as a
invented. challenge to the ruling dispensation's higher standards of
83. Which among the following will be the fourth sentence of stadium nomenclature.
the paragraph after the rearrangement? (a) Objection (b) Intermittent
(a) D (b) C (c) Higher (d) Nomenclature
(e) All are correct
(c) E (d) A
92. The drama at the Capitol in Washington obscured the
(e) B resumption of the intra-Afghan dialogue with the second
84. Which among the following will be the second sentence of round between the Taliban to the government of
the paragraph after the rearrangement? Afghanistan beginning last week.
(a) B (b) C (a) Obscured (b) Dialogue
(c) E (d) F (c) To (d) Beginning
(e) A (e) All are correct
85. Which among the following will be the fifth sentence of the
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 93-100): Read the following passage and
paragraph after the rearrangement?
answer the following questions based on the passage. Some
(a) A (b) C
words are highlighted to help you locate while answering the
(c) F (d) B
(e) E questions.
86. Which among the following will be the FIRST sentence of Almost all sections of people including farmers agree that the
the paragraph after the rearrangement? Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC)-mandi policies
(a) B (b) D for agricultural marketing, initiated in the 1960s for a few crops,
(c) C (d) F have outlived their utility and the system needs a new policy in
(e) A the face of the agricultural sector's growth slowdown, the crop-
composition not widening, and investments in land not
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2020 2020-33

happening. Recently, the government of the day has opened up rice belts in northern India are not protesting. Evidently so, since
the output market with the aim to let market forces improve the country is diverse with some 15 agroclimatic zones and has
efficiency and create more value for farmers and the economy. over 50 crops grown.
These laws state that farmers are now free to sell all their products 93. Why there is a need of new policy according to the given
anywhere and to anyone beyond the physical premises of APMC passage?
markets. Additionally, the laws promote contract farming through (i) Slowdown in the growth of agriculture sector
establishing partnerships between farmers and food-processing (ii) The composition of crop is not widening
companies, and also permit unlimited hoarding of food except in (iii) The APMC policies are no longer effective
special circumstances. (iv) There is a lack of investment on agricultural lands
Three main suggestions were put forth by farmers when we (a) i, ii, iv
recently made enquiries with them: one, their produce prices (b) ii, iii, iv
should be the cost of production plus a reasonable mark-up; two, (c) i, iii, iv
fluctuations in prices should be minimal; and three, there should (d) i, ii, iii
be little or no interface with legal or administrative officials - they (e) All of the above
are not comfortable dealing with the "sahibs and the police". All 94. What are the aspects the vegetable market should
address if government encourages farmers to move from
these farmer concerns have been ignored in the way the current
wheat to vegetable markets?
laws are drafted. Additionally, as the old laws are being repealed, (i) The production prices should include production cost
they said that there is a need for a wider view of the sector to with reasonable gain
include more crops. Thus, if the government encourages farmers (ii) Minimized fluctuations in prices
to move from wheat to vegetables, markets for the latter should (iii) Minimum or no dealing with legal or administrative
address all the above three aspects. officials
The first law of the Minimum Support Price-mandi is a known (iv) The farmers do not want to talk with the government
devil, but the new markets will be an unknown ghost with no (a) i, ii, iv
control over them by anyone. Thus, while "malpractices" in mandis (b) ii, iii, iv
are known and local leaders (Members of Parliament, Members of (c) i, iii, iv
the Legislative Assembly, panchayats) are often brought in to (d) i, ii, iii
____________ (I) farmers' anger or arbitrate in difficult situations, (e) None of these
malpractices in the new systems are neither forecast-able nor is 95. Why the author termed new markets 'an unknown ghost' as
there any authority to report to. Next, while the government says mentioned in the given passage?
that the mandi-MSP system will continue, the question is, for (a) The malpractices of mandis are known but there will
how long? If the alternative traders offer better prices, farmers be no one to control the new market
will go there and not to the mandis. What happens after two to (b) One cannot forecast malpractices of the new markets
three years when the regulated mandis become weaker or begin (c) Both (a) and (b)
to shut down due to lack of business? (d) The government claims that MSP will be revised
There are many issues here. Traders could reduce the prices on without anymore suffering of farmers
more than one pretext, such as finding faults with the product; (e) The alternative traders will not offer better prices for
declining to buy on the pretext of glut (a wait and watch strat- the produce
egy); defaulting on payments, and so on. Since traders are few (at 96. Which issues the author discusses if the regulated mandis
least locally) they can form cartels, while farmers many: this is shut down or get weaker?
imminently possible. The farmers are further handicapped by the (a) Traders can diminish the pricing on different aspects
fact that they come from long distances with loads of several like poor quality produce
quintals/tonnes of produce on hired tractors; going back owing (b) Payment defaulting can occur
to the transport cost incurred is not an option for them. Their (c) Few traders are likely to form associations and farmers
situation worsens when their cash needs are immediate, which is can't because they are large in number
the case for the small farmers who constitute 90-plus% of those (d) The farmers can't afford the cost spent in bringing the
who sell at the mandis at MSP. loads of several tones produce
The second law has somewhat similar issues. The corporate- (e) All of the above
buyers might just not buy the full quantity of the product on one 97. What are the issues in the second law?
or another pretext or delay payments; and if farmers complain, the (a) The corporate buyers are free to not buy the entire
corporates have access to a battery of lawyers, the fine print in quantity of the produce
contracts, the advantage of language, and, above all, the capacity (b) They have the privilege of finely printed contracts,
to wait it out. In both the above cases, the problem is of contracts language and huge pockets
between unequals: whether it is traders or corporates, they are far (c) The outcomes are uneven because the contract is be-
fewer and with deeper pockets, and they will deal with (poor/ tween unequal i.e poor farmers and affluent buyers
little-educated) small farmers (about 85% have two or less hectares (d) All of the above
of land), resulting in unequal outcomes. The other issue is in (e) None of these
regard to different regions and crops. Many proponents of the
agri-marketing laws maintain that farmers from outside the wheat-
 GP_4458
2020-34 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2020

98. Which of the following words can fit in the blank (I) to make it 100. Which of the following is most similar in meaning with IM-
a grammatically correct and contextually meaningful sentence? MINENTLY as highlighted in the given passage?
(a) Fare (b) Vain (a) Clearly (b) Computing
(c) Vent (d) Tyro (c) Approaching (d) Anxiously
(e) Foist (e) Impending
99. Which of the following is must opposite in meaning with
ALTERNATIVE as highlighted in the given passage?
(a) Substitute (b) Unusual
(c) Reserve (d) Compulsion
(e) Replacement

ANSW ER KEY
1 (e) 11 (b ) 21 (a) 31 (e) 41 (b ) 51 (b) 61 (b) 71 (d) 81 (a) 91 (b)
2 (a) 12 (b ) 22 (d ) 32 (b ) 42 (e) 52 (b) 62 (c) 72 (d) 82 (d) 92 (c)
3 (d ) 13 (a) 23 (a) 33 (c) 43 (d ) 53 (a) 63 (a) 73 (c) 83 (b) 93 (e)
4 (a) 14 (d ) 24 (b ) 34 (a) 44 (a) 54 (e) 64 (c) 74 (c) 84 (a) 94 (d)
5 (b ) 15 (c) 25 (a) 35 (d ) 45 (b ) 55 (c) 65 (d) 75 (d) 85 (a) 95 (c)
6 (c) 16 (e) 26 (b ) 36 (d ) 46 (b ) 56 (c) 66 (d) 76 (c) 86 (b) 96 (e)
7 (c) 17 (e) 27 (b ) 37 (e) 47 (e) 57 (b) 67 (a) 77 (e) 87 (c) 97 (d)
8 (b ) 18 (b ) 28 (c) 38 (b ) 48 (d ) 58 (a) 68 (b) 78 (b) 88 (a) 98 (c)
9 (a) 19 (a) 29 (b ) 39 (a) 49 (a) 59 (e) 69 (e) 79 (d) 89 (e) 99 (d)
10 (c) 20 (b) 30 (e) 40 (c) 50 (e) 60 (e) 70 (c) 80 (c) 90 (c) 10 0 (e)

ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS

Sol. (1-5): Sol. (6-8):
Designations Persons
CHM Mohan Edinit 30m
Faryad
GM Laksya
13m
AGM Nisha
14m
DGM Omkar Himani Balaji
Ajay
Manager Prem
Assistant Manager Joy 17m
23m
PO Kishore 16m
Clerk Qazi Chandra
Dimple
1. (e) Four persons are junior than Omkar.
2. (a) Only one designations are there between Nisha and Gagan
Prem.
3 (d) Number of persons who are junior than Joy is the 6. (c) The shortest distance between Faryad and Gagan
same as the number of persons who are senior than (23m + 13m = 36m)
Nisha.
7. (c) If Himani is 16m west of Ajay then, the shortest
4. (a) Joy’s designations is exactly between the
distance between Himani and Edinit is 13m.
designations of Qazi and Omkar.
8. (b) Balaji-Edinit does not belong to that group because
5. (b) Prem is the Manager of the company. Edinit is north-west of Balaji while in other first is
south west of second.
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2020 2020-35

Sol. (9-13): 24. (b) Given -657 824 523 487 348
Months Dates Persons After applying operation- 765 842 532 874 843
Hence, 824 is third lowest number thus formed.
January 8 Qasim
15 Uchit 25. (a) Store Glass paint carpet
March 8 Payal
15 Vinit Conclusions:
I. Some carpet is not glass. (True)
June 8 Raj II. All store can be paint. (False)
15 Tarun Hence, only conclusion I follows
September 8 Shivam
15 Wasim 26. (b) Press Pencil Pen Easy
9. (a) Qasim was born on 8th of January.
10. (c) Three cousins were born before Vinit. Conclusions:
11. (b) Qasim was born in the same month as Uchit. I. Some easy is not pen. (False)
12. (b) Except Payal-Tarun there is only one cousin is born II. All pen can be pencil.(True)
between the them. While there is two cousins born
between the Payal-Tarun. Hence, only conclusion II follows
13. (a) Raj was born between Tarun and Vinit. 27. (b) Gang
14. (d) Given Word- RESISTER
Fruit
After applying operation- QFRJRSFQ Angel
Q, F and R are repeated letters. Girl
Sols. (15-19):

Wazir Conclusions:
I. Some girl is fruit. (False)
Vandana
Usha II. All fruits can be angel. (True)
Hence, only conclusion II follows

28. (c) chair

Priyam Rachit
table

desk Wood
Tanvi Suraj
Kajal

Conclusions:
15. (c) Priyam sits third to the left of Suraj. I. Some wood is desk. (False)
16. (e) Except Wazir –Suraj all are sitting opposite to each other. II. No wood is desk. (False)
17. (e) All statement are true here regarding Wazir. But both are complimentary pair so, our answer is either I
18. (b) Two candidate sits between Priyam and Usha when or II follows .
counted clockwise direction from Priyam.
19. (a) Kajal sits second to the right of the one who faces 29. (b)
Rachit.
20. (b) I. X > P as, P > R = T < U ³ X so, (false) Risk Mute Case Toy
II. J > T as, J ³ P >R = T so, (true)
21. (a) I. M > I as, M > E > G = I > N so, (true)
II. B ³ N as, B < C ³ M > E > G = I > N so, (false)
22. (d) Given -657 824 523 487 348
In 824, 8 × 4 = 32 is the second highest. Conclusions:
23. (a) Given -657 824 523 487 348 I: No Risk is Toy. (False)
Sum is-18 14 10 19 15 II: Some Toy are Risk. (True)
Hence, 2 numbers are divisible by 3. Hence, only conclusion II follows.
 GP_4458
2020-36 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2020

30. (e) 15 31 a
45. (b) + + 8 = + 14
C O M P E T I T I V E 7 7 7
46 a
= +6
There are eight pairs CI, PT, PV, EI, TV, EI, IM, EM. 7 7
31. (e) There are five letters in the series i.e, ESQ, ERP, UTR,
AES , IUT 4 a
= , a =4
32. (b) E is 9th from left of ‘U’ letter. 7 7
33. (c) If all vowels are eliminated from the series then, 46. (b) Required difference = (165 + 135) – (145 + 140)
letter ‘X’ is 11th from right end. = 300 – 285 = 15
34. (a) None letters are there in the series like this.
145 + 135 280
47. (e) = = 56 : 29
35. (d) 145 145
A B E/F D F/E C
140
Hence, E is either third or fifth position left end so; our 48. (d) Required increment in cost price of Q = 40 ´
100
answer is can’t be determined. = Rs. 56 Þ 56 – 40 = Rs. 16
a (140 + 135) - 140
36. (d) ´ 700 + 249 = 760 49. (a) Required % = ´ 100 » 96%
100 140
7a = 760 – 249
(165 + 140) (145 + 135)
7a = 511 50. (e) Required difference = -
a = 73 2 2
37. (e) 121 – 81 + 37 = a + 27 = 152.5 –140 = Rs. 12.5
40 + 37 = a + 27 51. (b) Let the side of the square be x m
a = 50 Then the length of the rectangle = (x + 4) m
Breadth of the rectangle = (x – 3) m
512 40 a ATQ
38. (b) - ´ 100 = ´ 24
8 100 3 x2 = (x + 4) ´ (x – 3)
64 – 40 = a ´ 8 x = 12 m
24 = a ´ 8 Length of the rectangle = 16 m
a=3 and breadth of the rectangle = 9 m
39. (a) a = 20,960 – 7960 perimeter of the rectangle = 2 (1 + b) = 2(16 + 9) = 50 m
= 13000 52. (b) Let the number of students in the class be x
60 324 x x
40. (c) 46 ´ ´ 60 - ´3 = a ATQ, x ´ = ´ 25
100 18 7 5
x2
46 ´ 36 – 18 ´ 3 = a = 5x
7
a = 1602
41. (b) a2 = 477 – 252 x = 35
= 225 35
a = ±15 Required number of candies = ´ 25 = 175
5
42. (e) 121 = a ´ 11 53. (a) Sum of the length of both the trains
11 = a ´ 11 5
= (72 + 36) ´ ´ 9
a=1 18
60 40 5
43. (d) ´a - ´ 500 = 400 = 108 ´ ´ 9 = 270 m
100 100 18
6 270
´ a = 400 + 200 Required time = = 27 sec
10 5
(72 - 36) ´
18
600 ´10 54. (e) Profit share ratio
a=
6 P Q R
a = 1000 21600 ´ 12 : 37800 ´ 12 : 32400 ´ 6
44. (a) a4 + 4 + 4a2 = 4a2 + 85 4 : 7 : 3
a4 = 81
a = ±3
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2020 2020-37

Required total profit 59. (e) I. 49P2 + 21P – 7P – 3 = 0

(7P – 1) (7P + 3) = 0
42000 42000
= ´ (4 + 7 + 3) = ´14 = Rs.196000
3 3 1 3
P= ,-
7 7
55. (c) Let age of A, 5 years ago be x years
II. 49Q2 + 35Q + 21Q + 15 = 0
Then age of his Father 5 years ago = 2.5x years
(7Q + 3) (7Q + 5) = 0
ATQ
3 5
Q= - ,-
x + 10 1 7 7
=
2.5x + 10 2 Clearly, P ³ Q
60. (e) I. P = 8
x = 20 years
II. Q2 = 64
\ Present age of A = 20 + 5 = 25 years. Q = ±8
Present age of A’s Father = 2.5 ´ 20 + 5 = 55 years. Clearly, P ³ Q
61. (b) ATQ
Required sum = 25 + 55
R
= 80 years 3240 ´ = (3888 - 3240)
100
56. (c) I. 4P2 + 6P + 2P + 3 = 0 R
3240 ´ = 648
(2P + 3) (2P + 1) = 0 100
R = 20%
Equivalent rate of interest when compounded annually for
3 1 two years at 20% per annum = 44%
P= - , -
2 2 100
Required sum = 3240 ´ = Rs. 2250
II. 2Q2 + 2Q + Q + 1 = 0 144
62. (c) Ratio of efficiency of B to that of A = 5 : 3
(2Q + 1) (Q + 1) = 0 \ Time taken by B to that of A = 3 : 5
1 ì 1 ü
Q = - , -1 íefficiency µ ý
2 î Time þ
Clearly, no relation can be established. A alone can do the work = 30 days
57. (b) 16P2 + 12P + 4P + 3 = 0 30
Time taken by B to do the same work = ´ 3 = 18 days
(4P + 1) (4P + 3) = 0 5
1
A’s one day work =
1 3 30
P= - , - 1
4 4 B’s one day work =
18
II. 9Q2 + 15Q + 2Q + 20 = 0 10 1
A’s 10 days work = Þ
(3Q + 4) (3Q + 5) = 0 30 3
1 2
4 5 Remaining work = 1 - =
Q= - ,- 3 3 2
3 3 2
B will do the remaining work = 3 Þ ´18
Clearly, P > Q 1 / 18 3
58. (a) I. 9P2 – 6P – 3P + 2 = 0 Þ 12 days
(3P – 1) (3P – 2) = 0 63. (a) Let total votes cast be 100x
1 2 Valid votes = 100x – 20x = 80x
P= , Winner votes = 70% of 80x = 56x
3 3
II. 9Q2 – 12Q – 6Q + 8 = 0 Loser votes = 80x – 56x = 24x
ATQ
(3Q – 2) (3Q – 4) = 0
56x – 24x ® 3200
2 4 32x ® 3200
Q= ,
3 3 3200
100x ® ´ 100 = 10, 000
Clearly, P £ Q 32
 GP_4458
2020-38 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2020

69. (e) Missing number = 123

64. (c) Alloy A Alloy B 3 11 27 59 123 251
Tin Tin
1 2
8 16 32 64 128
3 5

3 ´2 ´2 ´2 ´2
8 70. (c) Missing number = 1237
12 + 13 = 13
13 + 33 = 40
2 3 3 1
- - 40 + 53 = 165
5 8 8 3 165 + 73 = 508
508 + 93 = 1237
1 1 71. (d) The error lies in part C. The sentence is in past tense.
Þ : Þ 3:5
40 24 The main verb should be in past participle or third
form. Instead of "seek", "sought" should be used. The
65. (d) Let C.P. of phone for A be Rs. 100 correct sentence will be,
Trump has falsely asserted that he won the 2020
æ 125 ö
ç Amount paid by B = 100 ´ = Rs.125 ÷ presidential election and repeatedly sought to
è 100 ø overturn the results of the election.
Amount paid by C Hence, option (d) is the right answer choice.
72. (d) The error is in part C. Here, the sentence talks about
80 transfer to be sent on an urgent basis and Internet is
= 125 ´
100 not accessible temporarily. In order to modify a verb, an
= Rs. 100 adverb is used (urgently) and not an adjective (urgent).
"urgently" should be used instead of "urgent". The
ATQ, correct sentence will be,
UMI Blockchain is convenient if the transfer needs to be
3000 sent urgently and Internet is temporarily not accessible.
CP of phone for A = ´ 100 = Rs.3000
100 Hence, option (d) is the right answer choice.
Required price at which A sold to B 73. (c) The error is in part (C). The subject verb agreement of
this sentence is not correct. With plural noun 'they',
125 plural verb "were" should be used instead of "was".
= 3000 ´ = Rs. 3750
100 The correct sentence will be,
66. (d) Missing number = 154 They visited the site to gather first hand information
about the incident and they were informed that the
9 18 32 56 95 154 fire was not related to Dzukou fire.
Hence, option (c) is the right answer choice.
9 14 24 39 59 74. (c) There is no error in any part of the given sentence.
Hence, option (c) is the right answer choice.
5 10 15 20 75. (d) The error is in part B of the sentence. To specify a day
of the week, preposition "on" should be used instead
67. (a) Missing number = 850 of "in" in the given sentence. The correct sentence
3 ´ 3 + 1 = 10 will be,
10 ´ 3 + 1 = 31 A meeting of board of directors of the company is
31 ´ 3 + 1 = 94 scheduled to be held on Tuesday to consider and
approve unaudited financial results of the company.
94 ´ 3 + 1 = 283 Hence, option (d) is the right answer choice.
283 ´ 3 + 1 = 850 76. (c) The error is in part B of the given sentence. stand in
68. (b) Missing number = 15 means somebody is replacing someone on a tempo-
4 ´ 0.5 + 1 = 3 rary basis and this is not what the sentence intends to
3´1 +1=4 mean. Here, the sentence implies that he has to figure
out what he stands "for". The correct phrasal verb will
4 ´ 1.5 + 1 = 7 be "stand for".
7 ´ 2 + 1 = 15
15 ´ 2.5 + 1 = 38.5
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2020 2020-39

The correct sentence will be, Interpreted: explain the meaning of (information or actions).
Once he wins, he has to figure out what he stands for, Hence, option (b) is the right answer choice.
gain the respect of his biggest critic, while trying to 92. (c) "and" should be used instead of "to". It is clear from
get anything right for America's second weirdest city. the word "between" which indicates that there should
Hence, option (c) is the right answer choice. be two parties or people for the "second round dia-
77. (e) The error is in part A of the sentence. "Aware off" is logue" and "to" is not giving any sense here.
the incorrect phrase, and it should be "aware of". The Hence, option (c) is the right answer choice.
correct sentence will be, 93. (e) Refer to the first paragraph, the hint can be drawn from
The agency also seems to be aware of the impact the lines,
damaged consumer trust can have on personal health Almost all sections of people including farmers agree
apps, and said in the notice that its eye is on the rest that the Agricultural Produce Market Committee
of the industry as well. Hence, option (e) is the right (APMC)-mandi policies for agricultural marketing,
answer choice. initiated in the 1960s for a few crops, have outlived
78. (b) Irrevocable: Not able to be changed, reversed, or re- their utility and the system needs a new policy in the
covered; final. face of the agricultural sector's growth slowdown,
Irreversible, Irremediable, Irreparable the crop-composition not widening, and investments
79. (d) Exacerbate: Make (a problem, bad situation, or nega- in land not happening.
tive feeling) worse. With the above quoted lines, read carefully, all the
Aggravate, Worsen, Inflame, Compound, Intensify statements are justified with the above lines. Hence,
80. (c) Semblance: The outward appearance or apparent form option (e) is the right answer choice.
of something, especially when the reality is different. 94. (d) Refer to the second paragraph, the hint can be drawn
Appearance, Approximation, Show from the lines, Three main suggestions were put forth
81. (a) Reconciliation: The restoration of friendly relations. by farmers when we recently made enquiries with
Reuniting, Reunion, Conciliation them: one, their produce prices should be the cost of
82. (d) Folly: Lack of good sense; foolishness. production plus a reasonable mark-up; two,
Evil, Wickedness fluctuations in prices should be minimal; and three,
83. (b) The correct sequence of the given sentences is there should be little or no interface with legal or
DBECAF. administrative officials - they are not comfortable
Hence, option (b) is the right answer choice. dealing with the "sahibs and the police".
84. (a) The correct sequence of the given sentences is Thus, if the government encourages farmers to move
DBECAF. from wheat to vegetables, markets for the latter should
Hence, option (a) is the right answer choice. address all the above three aspects.
85. (a) The correct sequence of the given sentences is All the three statements, i, ii, and iii are justified with
DBECAF. the above quoted lines. Hence, option (d) is the right
Hence, option (a) is the right answer choice. answer choice.
86. (b) The correct sequence of the given sentences is 95. (c) Refer to the third paragraph, the hint can be drawn
DBECAF. from the lines,
Hence, option (b) is the right answer choice. The first law of the Minimum Support Price-mandi is
87. (c) The correct sequence of the given sentences is a known devil, but the new markets will be an
DBECAF. unknown ghost with no control over them by anyone.
Hence, option (c) is the right answer choice. Thus, while "malpractices" in mandis are known and
88. (a) "Token" is wrong here. It should be "taken" instead. local leaders (Members of Parliament, Members of
Hence, option (a) is the right answer choice. the Legislative Assembly, panchayats) are often
89. (e) All the highlighted words are correct. Hence, option brought in to vent farmers' anger or arbitrate in
(e) is the right answer choice. difficult situations, malpractices in the new systems
90. (c) "Skimming" is wrong here. It's a reading technique are neither forecast-able nor is there any authority
meant to look for main or general ideas in a text, to report to.
without going into detailed and exhaustive reading. Both options (a) and (b) are justified with the above
The correct word will be "Skimping" which means quoted lines. Hence, option (c) is the right answer choice.
expending or using less time, money, or material on 96. (e) Refer to the fourth paragraph, the hint can be drawn
something than is necessary in an attempt to econo- from the lines, There are many issues here. Traders
mize. could reduce the prices on more than one pretext,
Hence, option (c) is the right answer choice. such as finding faults with the product; declining to
91. (b) "Intermittent" is wrong here in the context of the buy on the pretext of glut (a wait and watch strategy);
given sentence. instead, it should be "interpreted". defaulting on payments, and so on. Since traders are
Intermittent: occurring at irregular intervals; not con- few (at least locally) they can form cartels, while
tinuous or steady. farmers many: this is imminently possible. The farmers
 GP_4458
2020-40 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelim Solved Paper-2020

are further handicapped by the fact that they come above quoted lines. Hence, option (d) is the right an-
from long distances with loads of several quintals/ swer choice.
tonnes of produce on hired tractors; going back 98. (c) "Vent" will fit in the blank (I) to make it a grammatically
owing to the transport cost incurred is not an option correct and contextually meaningful sentence. Hence,
for them. option (c) is the right answer choice.
Here, all the options (a), (b), (c), and (d) justify the Vent:
above quoted lines. Hence, option (e) is the right an- (a) give free expression to (a strong emotion).
swer choice. (b) the release or expression of a strong emotion, en-
97. (d) Refer to the fifth paragraph, the hint can be drawn ergy, etc.
from the lines, (c) an opening that allows air, gas, or liquid to pass
The corporate-buyers might just not buy the full out of or into a confined space.
quantity of the product on one or another pretext or Meaning given in (a) makes the word correct to fit in
delay payments; and if farmers complain, the suitably in blank (I)
corporates have access to a battery of lawyers, the Tyro : someone new to a field or activity
fine print in contracts, the advantage of language, Foist: Force into another
and, above all, the capacity to wait it out. In both the Hence, option (c) is the right answer choice.
above cases, the problem is of contracts between 99. (d) Alternative: (of one or more things) available as
unequals: whether it is traders or corporates, they another possibility or choice.
are far fewer and with deeper pockets, and they will Compulsion: the action or state of forcing or being
deal with (poor/little-educated) small farmers (about forced to do something; constraint.
85% have two or less hectares of land), resulting in Hence, option (b) is the right answer choice.
unequal outcomes. 100. (e) Imminently: Very soon
All the options (a), (b), and (c) are justified with the Impending: (of an event regarded as threatening or
significant) about to happen; forthcoming.
Hence, option (e) is the right answer choice.
 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2019
(Based on Memory)

Time : 160 minutes Max. Marks : 200

Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10): Study the following information
carefully and answer the given questions.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): Study the following information and A word and number arrangement machine when given an input
of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule.
answer the questions given below:
The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
There are three rows i.e. row (a), row (b) and row (c) such that Input: 44 74 TBEF WRAK 97 NLDG 31 67 KEOR SXCP
row (b) is in the north of row (c) and row (a) is in the north of row Step I: 92 44 74 TBEF NLDG 31 67 KEOR SXCP AKRW
(b). There are 4 writers sitting in row (a) and 8 writers are sitting Step II: 79 92 44 NLDG 31 67 KEOR SXCP AKRW BEFT
in the row (b) and 4 writers are sitting in the row (c). Step III: 62 79 92 44 NLDG 31 KEOR AKRW BEFT CPSX
Step IV: 49 62 79 92 31 KEOR AKRW BEFT CPSX DGLN
Writers sitting in the row (c) faces north. Writers sitting in the Step V: 26 49 62 79 92 AKRW BEFT CPSX DGLN EKOR
row (a) faces south. First 4 writers sitting from west to east in row (b) Step V is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules
faces north and last four writer sitting from west to east in row followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following
(b) faces south. questions the appropriate steps for the given input.
Note: All the writers sitting in the row (a) and row (c) are facing Input: IKGE 42 71 RTBC 86 PKCT 25 KDSM 59 VATW
the writers sitting in the row (b). 6. How many steps would be needed to complete the
E faces the one who sits second to the right of P. No one sits on arrangement?
(a) V (b) VII
the left of E. Only one writer sits between P and R. Only two
(c) VI (d) IV
writer sits between R and the one who faces F. D sits immediate (e) None of these
right of F. D does not sits at the end of the row. Q sits second to 7. Which step number would be the following output?
the right of the one who faces D. A face the one who sits on the 47 54 66 91 IKGE 25 ATVW BCRT CKPT DKMS
immediate left of Q. G faces S but does not sits at the end of the (a) II (b) III
row. P is not the immediate neighbour of G. Only one writer sits (c) V (d) IV
between K and S. K faces the one who sits third to the right of N. (e) None of these
J and M are immediate neighbours. J does not face D. Only two 8. Which of the following would be Step III?
(a) 54 66 91 IKGE 42 25 KDSM ATVW CKPT BCRT
writers sits between M and L. More than two writer sits between (b) 54 66 91 IKGE 42 25 KDSM ATVW BCRT CKPT
B and C, who does not face L. C does not face south. (c) 66 54 91 IKGE 42 25 KDSM ATVW BCRT CKPT
1. How many writers sit between A and G? (d) 54 91 66 IKGE 42 25 KDSM ATVW BCRT CKPT
(a) One (b) None (e) None of these
(c) Three ` (d) Two 9. Which of the following element would be the 4th to the left
(e) None of these of the one which is 8th from the left in the step IV?
2. Who among the following sits second to the right of C? (a) 91
(b) IKGE
(a) F (b) D (c) 66
(c) G (d) L (d) CKPT
(e) None of these (e) None of these
3. Four of the following five belongs to a group following a 10. In step V, which of the following element would be on eighth
certain pattern find the one that does not belong to that position from the right end?
group. (a) ATVW (b) BCRT
(a) ML (b) CB (c) 66 (d) 54
(c) RF (d) ED (e) None of these
11. In the word ‘RELATIONSHIP’ all consonants are written
(e) KS as their preceding letter and all vowels are written as their
4. Which among the following pairs sits at the ends of the following letters. Now all letters are arranged in alphabetical
rows? order from left to right and all the repeated letters are
(a) BS (b) EQ eliminated. Then, how many such pairs of letters are there,
(c) KG (d) RM each of which have as many letters between them in the
(e) None of these word (in both forward and backward direction) as they have
5. How many writers sit on the right of L? between them in the English alphabetical series?
(a) Seven (b) Six
(a) Three (b) One (c) Four (d) Three
(c) No one (d) Four (e) More than eight
(e) None of these
 GP_4458
2019- 2 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2019

12. If we form the word by 1 st , 3 rd and 5 th letter of DIRECTIONS (Qs. 21-25): Study the following information
‘CELEBRATE’ and 1st and 4th letter of ‘ALIKE’ then, what carefully and answer the questions given below:
will be the 3rd letter from right?
(a) B (b) A Six students are sitting in a row. Some of them are facing North
(c) L (d) E and some are facing South. They are of different ages. Student
(e) None of these whose age is even numbered doesn’t sit immediate right of the
student whose age is even numbered.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 13-15): Study the following information Two students sit between A and E and one of them sits at extreme
carefully and answer the questions given below. end. Three students are sitting between the students whose age is
P%Q (32)- A (42 m) is in north of Q 16 and 44. Student whose age is 17 sits 2nd to the left of E. There
P$Q (17)- A (27 m) is in south of Q are as many students sit between E and student whose age is 17 as
P#Q (18)- A (28 m) is in east of Q between the students whose ages are 17 and 30. B sits immediate
P&Q (19)- A (29 m) is in west of Q right of the student whose age is 17. One student sits between D and
R#S (20), U%R (21), B&U (23), P$B (41), Q#P (48), J%Q (16) F and neither of them sit at extreme end. B is older than C. E whose
13 U is in which direction with respect to Q? age is even numbered is older than F who faces North. Student whose
(a) North (b) West age is 22 sits 3rd to the left of the student whose age is 21.
(c) North-west (d) East 21. How many students are sitting between C and the student
(e) South-east whose age is 22?
14. If Z is the midpoint of the line formed between R and J, (a) One (b) Three
then what is the distance between S and Z? (c) Two (d) Four
(a) 35.5m (b) 34m (e) None
(c) 42.5m (d) 37.5m 22. Who among the following sits immediate right of F?
(e) None of these (a) D
15. What is the distance between S and J? (b) Student whose age is 21
(a) 50m (b) 51m (c) E
(c) 46m (d) 48m (d) Student whose age is 44
(e) None of these
(e) 55m
23. What is the position of B with respect to the 2nd youngest
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16-20): In the following questions, the student?
symbols %, ®, #, × and @ are used with the following meaning (a) 2nd to the right (b) Immediate left
as illustrated below- (c) Immediate right (d) 2nd to the left
‘A#B’ means ‘A is not greater than B’ (e) None of these
‘A×B’ means ‘A is neither equal to nor smaller than B’ 24. What is the age of the student who sits immediate left of D?
‘A%B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B’ (a) 16 (b) 17
‘A@B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor greater than B’ (c) 29 (d) 22
‘A®B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor equal to B’ (e) None of these
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given 25. How many students are facing North?
statement to be true, find which of the conclusions given below (a) Two (b) Three
them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly. (c) One (d) None
(a) If only conclusion I follows. (e) More than three
(b) If only conclusion II follows. DIRECTIONS (Qs. 26-30): Study the following information and
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows. answer the given questions:
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. In alphabetical series each consonant is assigned a different
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow. number from 1-6 (for ex- B is coded as 1, C-2……….H-6) and
16. Statements: U × V % W % X ® Y @ Z again those numbers get repeated (for ex- J-1, K-2…….so on).
Conclusions: I. U % X And for the codes of vowels is starts from the numeric code of Z
II. X ® Z i.e. if the code of Z is 2 then the code of vowel A is 2 and code of
17. Statements: A # B × C × D ® E E is 3 and so on till U which is coded as 6.
Conclusions: I. A × D Note: The code of vowels lies in the range of 1 to 7.
II. D ® B Besides the above information, following operations are to be
18. Statements: M % N × O % P; O × R % S applied for coding the words given in the questions below.
Conclusions:I. Q ® M If the two immediate digits are same (in the code) then the digit
II. S × N of the letter having higher place value in the English alphabet
19. Statements: B # D ® F # G × H % C will be changed to ‘®’ i.e. If the code of a word is ‘225’ hence the
Conclusions:I. B ® G code will be changed to ‘®25’ and if the two immediate digits (in
II. G @ B the code) are in the form such that the preceding digit is one more
20. Statements: J % K ® L # M; K × O @ P than its succeeding digit then the higher digit will be changed to
Conclusions:I. P ® M ‘©’ i.e. If the code of a word is ‘657’ hence the code will be
II. J × K changed to ‘©57’.
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2019 2019- 3

26. If the code for the word ‘FO_ _ED’ is coded as ‘462®©3’ 33. To provide proper knowledge to the student-in the education
then what letters will come in the fill in the blanks to make sector, we need to enhance our education system. To get
it a meaningful word? better education system, we need good teachers. To provide
(a) RM (b) AL good teachers, we again need good education.
(c) EM (d) AD In India there are some good institutes too but most of the
(e) Either (b) or (d) students go for a 9:00 to 5:00 job rather than trying the
27. Which of the following word will be coded as ‘426©2©3’? career in teaching field which requires post-graduation as
I. FLECKED II. TROAKED minimum eligibility criteria because they do not get a
III. FROSKED satisfied salary there.
(a) Only I (b) Only II Course of Action-
(c) Either II or III (d) Either I or III (I) The salary of the teachers should be raised to boost up
(e) All of the three them for opting teaching as career.
28. Which of the following combination of the words and codes (II) The minimum eligibility criterion to be a teacher should
is/are true? be graduate rather than post-graduation and PhD to
(a) BANKING - 13525®5 become a teacher as students can get a job even after
(b) ACHIEVE- ©2©54©4 graduation.
(c) BURNING- 172®5®5 (a) Only II follows (b) Only I follows
(d) DISPUTE- 35367®4 (c) Either I or II follows (d) Neither I nor II follows
(e) All are true (e) Both I and II follows
29. If the code for the words ‘HOPE YOU _____’ is coded as
‘6®®42676©3®462’ in the given coded pattern, then what DIRECTIONS (Qs. 34-38): Study the following information
will be the missing word? carefully and answer the questions given below:
(a) GOOD (b) HEALTHY Six persons are working in a Bank. Their designations are Client
(c) HAPPY (d) FINE Service Manager (CSM), Customer Loan Processor (CLP),
(e) Either (b) and (d) Mortgage Consultant (MC), General Manager (GM), Chief
30. What is the code for ‘PERFECTION’? Finance Officer (CFO), Finance Officer (FO). Sequence of the
(a) 5®425424©5 (b) 642®4245©5 posts are as above i.e. the post of Client Service Manager (CSM)
(c) 4264®2245© (d) 54©622®54® is higher than Customer Loan Processor (CLP), the post of
(e) None of these Customer Loan Processor (CLP) is higher than Mortgage
DIRECTION (Q. 31): Study the following information care- Consultant (MC) and so on the post of Chief Finance Officer
fully and answer the questions given below: (CFO) is higher than Finance Officer (FO). They have different
years of experiences. They get different annual salaries.
Eight girls are sitting in a row and all are facing North. Only two
Only two person’s designation is lower than the designation of
girls sit to the right of Aaliya. Two girls sit between Aaliya and
the person whose annual salary is 11 lakhs. There are as many
Bindu. Three girls sit between Cherry and Gauri. Erwin and Gauri
posts above the post of the person whose annual salary is 18 lakhs
are immediate neighbors of Bindu. Deepa sits immediate left of
as below the post of the person who have 5-year experience.
Erwin. Fida sits 2nd to the right of Hema.
31. How many girls are sitting right of Gauri? Annual salary of CSM is 10 lakhs. There are three posts in between
(a) Two (b) Three the post of the persons whose experience are 2 years and 3 years.
(c) Four (d) Five Person whose annual salary is 18 lakhs have just higher post than
(e) None of these the post of the person who have 4 years’ experience and just lower
32. Rooftop solar power growth has demonstrated an overall post than the post of the person who have 6 years’ experience.
positive trend, But this will need to be scaled up massively Two posts are between the posts of the person who have 1 years
to achieve the national target. and 6 years’ experience. Person whose annual salary is 9 lakhs
Assumption: have higher post than the person whose annual salary is 13 lakhs
(I) With ongoing improvements to solar cell efficiency and lower post than the person whose annual salary is 8 lakhs.
and battery technology, rooftops will only get more Person whose salary is 13 lakhs doesn’t have 2 years’ experience.
attractive in the future. 34. Who among the following has lowest salary?
(II) Major solar projects that connect to the grid often face (a) Person who is CLP
the challenge of land acquisition and transmission con- (b) Person who have 4 years’ experience
nectivity. (c) Person who is GM
(III) A survey helps determine usable rooftops, separating (d) Person who have lowest experience
them from green spaces, and analyses the quality of (e) None of these
the solar resource. 35. Person who is GM have how many years’ experience?
(a) Only II follows (b) Both II and III follows (a) 1 years (b) 2 years
(c) Both I and III follows (d) Only I follows (c) 3 years (d) 6 years
(e) Both I and II follows (e) None of these
 GP_4458
2019- 4 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2019

36. How many persons are senior than the person whose annual Toffees and container P. container X is kept at the odd number
salary is 18 lakhs? position but immediately below container U. There is only one
(a) None (b) One container is kept between container T and container having 25
(c) Two (d) Three Toffee. container S is kept immediately above the container
(e) More than three containing 63 Toffees. container T does not contain 63 Toffees.
37. Which of the following is the annual salary of the person The number of Toffees in container V is equal to the difference
who is CFO? between the number of Toffees in container S and container X.
(a) 8 lakhs (b) 9 lakhs container Q is kept above the container having 8 Toffees. container
(c) 11 lakhs (d) 13 lakhs V contains 21 less Toffees than container P contains. Only three
(e) None of these containers are kept between container S and the container
38. Which of the following pair of combination is/are true? containing 12 Toffees. Only two containers are kept between
(a) CLP - 8 lakhs (b) GM – 5 years container W and the container having 12 Toffees. More than three
(c) MC – 6 lakhs (d) CFO – 9 lakhs containers are kept between Box-container R and container W.
(e) None is true The container having Toffees which is a perfect square of 3 is
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 39-40): There are some criteria which will kept immediately above container R. The number of pens in
be considered during appraisal of employee-Statement by container S is equal to the sum of the number of Toffees in
manager of a company. container W and the container which is placed at 2nd position.
41. Which among the following box-container 42 Toffees?
• Punctuality and sincerity are one of the key points which (a) Container S (b) Container W
will be surely reviewed. (c) Container Q (d) Container T
• Hard work and dedication towards work will be applauded. (e) Container X
• Just to quantity an amount in the salary package of employee 42. How many containers are kept above container U?
with no reason will not be entertained. (a) Three (b) Two
39. Which of the following can be inferred from the give (c) Four (d) Five
statement? (e) None of these
I. Punching machine of office will be evaluated by HR. 43. Number of container between X and the container having
II. There will be minimum 10% increment for deserving 63 Toffees is same between the container Q and the
employee based on their performance. container?
III. Some of employees of company have done a tremen- (a) containers V
dous job with complete determination and enthusiasm. (b) 42 Toffees
(a) Only I (b) Both II and III
(c) 81 Toffees
(c) Both I and III (d) Only III
(d) containers R
(e) None of these
(e) Both (a) and (c)
40. Which of the following undermines the statement given by
44. Container U contains how many Toffees?
Manager?
(a) 25 (b) 42
I. Increment of 15% has been done for all the employees
whose 1 year is completed. (c) 63 (d) 81
II. Performance chart has been prepared by leaders of (e) None of these
different department based on their proficiency. 45. Total number of Toffees in the container P, V and X is?
III. Relaxation time for late coming of 240 minutes in a (a) 153 (b) 149
year i.e. of 10 minutes twice in a month is given to all (c) 155 (d) 151
employees. (e) None of these
(a) Only II (b) Both II and III 46. Begusarai, a district in Bihar which has seen the phase of
(c) Both I and III (d) Only I kidnapping, extortion, murder to “The Industrial city of
(e) None of these Bihar”. Nowadays there are 4 major industries in Begusarai.
Growth rate of Begusarai is top amongst all districts of Bihar
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 41-45): Study the following information and and 5 th among all districts of India in year 2017.
answer the questions given below: Which of the following can be inferred from the above
There are nine container which are kept one above the other such statement?
that the container which is placed at the bottom most position is I. Opportunities of the employment has been increased
numbered 1 and so on till the container which is placed at the top in Begusarai.
position is numbered 9. All the Containers contain different II. There is no case of murder, kidnapping and extortion
number of Toffees in it. in 2017.
Note: The number of Toffees in a container is equal to the multiple III. People of Begusarai are hardworking and keen to go
of the place number of the container which is kept forward.
immediately above it i.e. The number of Toffees in the IV. Top industrialists of India are desirous to have their
container which is kept at the bottom is equal to the multiple of is industry in Begusarai.
2, 4, 6… and so on and the number of Toffees in the container (a) Only II (b) Only I and III
which is placed at the top (9th position) is 10, 20, 30 and so on. (c) Only I (d) Only III and IV
Only two containers are kept between the container having 42 (e) None of these
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2019 2019- 5

47. Statement: Start to think of travelling by train for a holi- Total fare = Base fare + Taxes/Surcharge + Convenience fee
day. A train journey can give one a better view of places on Taxes/Surcharge = 25% of Base fare
the way which an air journey cannot give. You can walk Convenience fee for one – way = 10% of Base fare + 20%
around whenever you want, meet other travelers and lo- of Taxes/Surcharge
cals, relax and watch the landscape go peacefully by. Train Base fare for round trip = One – way base fare + `908
travel is both a beautiful and affordable way to see the coun- Convenience fee for round trip = 15% of Base fare + 30%
try, and no trip is more scenic than the trip by trains. of Taxes/Surcharge
Conclusions: Base fare for each airways is different and based on the distance
I. While going for a holiday, people want to enjoy the between origin and destination. Table given below shows the
view of the places on the way. base fare calculator of those different airways:
II. People should not travel by air when they are going
for a holiday. Base fare (If distance between origin
Airways
Which of the following can be concluded from the given and destination is D)
statement? AA 2D + 500
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows BB 3D – 1000
(c) Both I and II follow (d) None follows
CC 36% of (2D + 3500)
(e) Either I or II follows
DD 30% of [3.5D + (2D/3)]
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 48-50): Study the following information 2
carefully and answer the questions which follow– EE 80% of (0.01D – 0.75D)
‘E @ F’ means ‘E is parent of F (either mother or father)’ 51. If Akshay goes from Delhi to Patna by airways AA and
‘E # F’ means ‘E is sister of F’ comes back by airways BB and distance between Delhi and
‘E $ F’ means ‘F is grandchild of E’ Patna is 1200 km, then what is difference between his total
‘E % F’ means ‘E is brother of F’ fare from Delhi to Patna and that from Patna to Delhi?
‘E & F’ means ‘E is the son-in-law of F’ (a) `420 (b) `380
‘E * F’ means ‘E is the wife of F’ (c) `640 (d) `560
‘E © F’ means ‘F is the mother of E’ (e) None of these
There are some members in a family having three generation. 52. Two persons Manu and Sindhu goes from Bhopal to Pune
The relation between the different members of the family are for some office meeting and travel expense is given by the
defined as follows. company. Manu goes by BB and Sindhu goes by CC, then
Q@U#T what is the total reimbursement made by the company to
X&S both the persons if the distance between Bhopal to Pune
V%W*X is 750 km?
R@W (a) `3580 (b) `4270
U*V%W©S (c) `4830 (d) `3670
T©P$M (e) None of these
R$Y 53. What is the difference between total fare amount for Sapna
48. If M is the only child of V, then how is M related to Q? and that for Rajat when both travels round trip between
(a) Son (b) Grandson Chennai and Bangalore. Sapna goes by AA and comes
(c) Daughter (d) Grand daughter back by BB while Rajat goes by CC and comes back by
(e) Can’t be determined the same airways? Assume distance between Chennai and
49. If P has only one son, then how is T related to V? Bangalore is 600 km.
(a) Son (b) Brother-in-law (a) `225 (b) `445
(c) Brother (d) Father (c) `335 (d) `285
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
54. Salman goes from Shrinagar to Ajmer for vacation by
50. If M has no sibling and R has no granddaughter, then how
airways CC and comes to Shrinagar by airways DD. If
is Y related to X?
distance between Shrinagar to Ajmer is 2000 km, then fare
(a) Daughter (b) Wife
from Shrinagar to Delhi is what per cent more than that
(c) Nephew (d) Son
from Ajmer to Shrinagar?
(e) Cannot be determined
(a) 12% (b) 8%
Quantitative Aptitude (c) 16%
(e) None of these
(d) 18%

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 51 - 55): Study the following data carefully 55. Uday goes from Kolkata to Hyderabad by airways EE and
and answer the questions: total fare amount for Uday is `3528, then what is the
distance between Hyderabad and Kolkata?
There are total five airways AA, BB, CC, DD and EE by which
(a) 700 km (b) 550 km
a person can book his flight ticket. The fare of a airways
(c) 625 km (d) 600 km
depends on base fare, taxes/surcharge and convenience fee as
(e) None of these
given below:
 GP_4458
2019- 6 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2019

56. Arka Pratap divides a certain number by 5, 7 and 8 Total marks in the exam = Normalized marks in Math + Normalized
successively, the remainders are 2, 3 and 4 respectively. marks in Science + Normalized marks in English
What would be the remainder if the order of the division Total questions in the test are 100 out of which 35 are from Math
is reversed? section, 35 from Science section and remaining 30 are from
(a) 6, 5 and 2 (b) 5, 5 and 2 English section.
(c) 4, 5 and 2 (d) 2, 5 and 4 Table given below shows the ratio of number of Right answers to
(e) None of These the number of Wrong answers marked by five different students
57. Vijay, Ajay and Sanjay enter into a partnership. Vijay Abha, Banty, Charak, Debu and Enna in all the three sections:
1 Ratio (Rig ht Ratio (Right Ratio (Right
contributes of the capital for half of the time. Ajay
4 S tudents : W rong) in : W rong ) in : W rong) in
1 1 Math S cience Eng lis h
advances of the capital for of the time. Sanjay
5 4 A bh a 6:1 5:3 3:1
contribute the remaining capital for the whole time. Find Ban ty 15:1 5:1 7:3
the share of Ajay and Sanjay together in the profit of Ch arak 5:2 3:2 4:3
` 17,400?
(a) ` 14,400 (b) `16,500 Debu 1:1 4:1 17:7
(c) ` 6,000 (d) ` 14,700 Enn a 2:1 5:3 3:1
(e) None of These 61. If Abha attempts 80 questions and ratio of attempted
58. The ratio between the present ages of Sanjeet and Manjeet questions in Math, Science and English is
is 5:3 respectively. The ratio between Sanjeet’s age 4 years 7 : 8 : 5 respectively, then what is the total mark obtained
ago and Manjeet’s age 4 years hence is 1:1. What is the
by her in the test?
ratio between Sanjeet’s age 4 years hence and Manjeet’s
age 4 years ago? (a) 252.8 (b) 272.9
(a) 1:3 (b) 2:1 (c) 264.7 (d) 246.4
(c) 3:1 (d) 4:1 (e) None of these
(e) None of These 62. If Banty left 19 questions in Math, 23 questions in Science
59. What is the probability that when 2 dice and 4 coins are and 20 questions in English un-attempted, then what will
thrown simultaneously, there is a sum of 7 on the dice and be the ratio of sections marks of him in Math, Science and
at least 2 heads on the coins? English respectively?
13 11 (a) 127: 69: 38 (b) 87: 39: 28
(a) (b) (c) 27: 9: 13 (d) 135: 89: 58
96 96
(e) None of these
12 11
(c) (d) 63. If Charak attempted, 60% of total Math questions in Math,
169 125
3
(e) None of These 71 % of total questions in Science and 70% of total
60. Two passanger trains of length 500 m and 750 m have the 7
questions in English, then total right answers are what
speeds of 33 km/hr and 60 km/hr respectively. In what time
will the trains be able to completely pass each other, given percent more than total wrong answers marked by him?
that the trains are moving in the same direction with the faster (a) 56% (b) 73%
train approaching the slower? (c) 64% (d) 68%
(a) 200 sec. (b) 3 min. 2 sec. (e) None of these
(c) 180 sec. (d) 166.67 sec. 64. Students Debu marked 15 questions in Math, 20 questions
(e) None of These in Science and 17 questions in English correctly, then what
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 61 - 65): Study the following data carefully will be the ratio of normalized marks obtained by him in
and answer the questions: Math, Science and English respectively?
An exam in conducted that consists of three sections: Math, (a) 3: 2: 4 (b) 1: 3: 2
Science and English. Sectional marked can be calculated as (c) 3: 1: 2 (d) 1: 2: 3
mentioned below: (e) None of these
Sectional marks = 5 *Right answers – 2* Wrong answers – 0.5 * 65. If the ratio of number of attempted questions by Enna in
Un-attempted questions Math, Science and English is 6: 4: 5 respectively and total
Normalized marks in any section (If Right answers are ³ 80%) marks obtained by him in the test is 147, then how many
= 1.2 * Sectional marks did he left unattempted in the test?
Normalized marks in any section (If Right answers are ³ 60% (a) 50 (b) 40
and < 80%) = 1 * Sectional marks (c) 45 (d) 75
Normalized marks in any section (If Right answers are < 60%)
(e) None of these
= 0.8 * Sectional marks
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2019 2019- 7

66. Kalraju can complete a piece of work in 30 days. 70. There are total ________ employees in a office. Some
Efficiency of J. Murthy is _______ times the efficiency of employes work only in Hindi, some work only in English
Kalraju. Kalraju and Mithun together can complete the and some work on both 80% of the employees work in
work in 20 days. If efficiency of Riyas is 1.5 times the Hindi, 45% of the employees work in English. Number of
efficiency of Mithun, number of days taken by J. Murthy employees who work in both the subjects is _________.
and Riyas to complete the work is __________. Which of the following option/options satisfy the given
Which of the following option/options satisfy the given condition?
condition? (a) 800, 200 (b) 1200, 400
I. 1.5, 40/3 (c) 1000, 200 (d) All of the above
II. 2, 15 (e) None of the above
III. 3, 8
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 71- 75): Study the following information
(a) Only I and II
(b) Only I and III carefully and answer the questions given below.
(c) Only II and III Market share of various companies in different product categories
(d) All I, II and III (sales value) in 2018
(e) None of these Washing Machine Audio System Other Products
67. Arjun and Banita together can complete the work in 24 Akai 30% HTC 19 % Sony 20%
days. Arjun and Chahak together can complete a piece of BPL 26% BPL 38% BPL 31%
work in 32 days and with the help of Dablu they can IFB 44% Xiomi 3% Samsung 15%
complete the work on 24 days. Efficiency of Banita is two —— —— Godrej 40% IFB 34%
times the efficiency of Dablu.
LG sales in product categories 2018
From the above statement which of the following can be
determined. Category Sales (Rupees in crores)
(I) Arjun alone complete the work Washing Machine 337
(II) Chahak alone complete the work Audio System 190
(III) Chahak and Dablu together can complete the work Others 388
(IV) Banita alone complete the work 71. By what percentage was the sales turnover of Akai greater
(a) All I, II, III and IV than Godrej in 2018? Assume the companies do business
(b) Only I and III only in the product categories shown in the chart.
(c) Only II (a) 60%
(d) Only I, III and IV (b) 72%
(e) Cannot be determine (c) 80%
68. Two trains Taj mail and JP mail in the length of 350 m (d) 95%
and 250 m respectively and crosses the pole in 21 seconds (e) None of These
and 10 seconds respectively. 72. If in 2017 the market share of the various brands in all the
From the above statement which of the following can be product categories was exactly similar to the market share
determined. in 2018, then what was the turnover of IFB in 2017?
(I) Time taken by train Taj mail crosses the train JP mail (Rupees in crores)
running in opposite direction (a) ` 1300 (b) `1925
(II) Length of the bridge, If Train Taj mail crosses the (c) `1309 (d) `1280
bridge in 36 seconds (e) Cannot be determined
(III) Time taken by Train JP mail crosses a man running in 73. The sale of BPL Audio systems increased by 20% every
same direction at the speed of 30 kmph. year since 2015, but its market share declined by 1% point
(IV) Ratio of speed of train Taj mail to train JP mail every year since 2015. What was the total Audio system
(a) All I, II, III and IV (b) Only II and IV market worth in 2015?
(c) All I, II and IV (d) Only II (a) 260 crore (b) 274 crore
(e) Cannot be determine (c) 268 crore (d) 245 crore
69. If the volume of the cuboid is 2016 cm3 and the radius and (e) None of These
height of the cone is equal to the breadth and length of the 74. If the sales of the BPL Washing machine market grow by
cuboid. The ratio of the length, breadth and height of the 10% every year since 2015, what were the sales of BPL
cuboid is 24:7:12. from Wahing machine market in 1995 (in rupees in
From the above statement which of the following can be millions)?
determined. (a) `2500 million (b) `2000 million
(I) Slanting height of the cone (c) `243 million (d) `253 million
(II) Diagonal of the cuboid (e) None of These
(III) Volume of the cone 75. Find the market share of MI Wahing machine in the
(IV) Surface area of the cuboid Wahing machine category in the year 2018?
(a) All I, II, III and IV (b) Only I (a) 500 crore (b) 400 crore
(c) Only I and IV (d) Only IV (c) 700 crore (d) Data Inadequate
(e) Cannot be determine (e) None of These
 GP_4458
2019- 8 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2019

DIRECTIONS (Qs.76-80): Following questions contain two 83. (i) 14, 17, 15, 18, 16, 19, (a)
statements as statement I and statement II. You have to (ii) 32, 33, 68, 207, (b)
(iii) 5, 11, 25, 51, (c) , 155
determine which statement/s is/are necessary to answer the
(a) c £ a ³ b (b) c > a > b
question and give answer as, (c) a < b > c (d) c > a £ b
(a) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the (e) None of these
question, while the data in statement II alone is not DIRECTIONS (Qs. 84 - 85): A number is bolded in the series I,
sufficient to answer the question II and III. Find the wrong series which does not satisfies the
(b) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the given number and choose the options accordingly.
question, while the data in statement I alone is not
sufficient to answer the question 84. (i) 9, 19, 59, 239, 1199, 7200
(ii) 32, 16, 24, 60, 212, 945
(c) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone
(iii) 72, 77, 87, 102, 122, 145
is sufficient to answer the question (a) None (b) Only (i)
(d) The data given in both statements I and II together are not (c) Only (iii) (d) Only (ii)
sufficient to answer the question and (e) All the three
(e) The data given in both statements I and II together are 85. (i) 78, 156, 468, 2340, 16380
necessary to answer the question. (ii) 128, 65, 68, 141, 571, 4576
76. What is the common ratio of the geometric progression? (iii) 64, 33, 34, 52, 105, 264
Statement I: Sum of the infinite terms of the progression (a) Both (ii) and (iii) (b) Only (i)
is 2. (c) Only (iii) (d) Both (i) and (iii)
Statement II: Sum of the first m terms of the progression (e) All the three
is 2m – 1/2m. DIRECTIONS (Qs. 86-88) : There are three quantities provided
77. What is the area of the triangle ABC? in the questions. You have to find out the values of quantities and
Statement I: ABC is an isosceles righ-tangled triangle. compare them according to the given questions.
Statement II: The length of the largest side of the triangle
ABC is 15cm. Give answer :
(a) Quantity – I > Quantity – II > Quantity – III
78. How many people watch English movies assuming that all
(b) Quantity – I = Quantity – II > Quantity – III
people watch atleast one movie. (c) Quantity – I < Quantity – II > Quantity – III
Statement I: Number of people watching Hindi movies (d) Quantity – I < Quantity – II < Quantity – III
only, is 100. (e) Relationship can’t be established
Statement II: Number of people watching English or 86. The weight of P, Q, R and S are in the ratio of 9 : 7 : 4 : 5.
Hindi or both movies is 300. Quantity – I : Find the weight of P if total weight of P, Q
79. The traffic management system at the junction of four and R is 225 kg.
roads is to be finalized. What is the maximum time a car Quantity – II. : Find the weight of Q if total weight of Q, R
would be waiting at the junction? and S is 180 kg.
Statement I: There are 30 cars per minute in east-west and Quantity – III. Find the weight of S if total weight of Q, R
west-east directions. and S is 180 kg.
Statement II: There is no right or left turns allowed on
any of the roads.
A D
80. Anil, Brajesh and Champa invested `52000 in a business
in ratio 6:3:4 respectively. What is the profit % earned by Circular Region P
them after a year? 87.
B C
Statement I: Champa got `8000 as his share of profit.
Statement II: The difference in profits earned by Anil and
Brajesh is `6000. The area of the square inscribed in the circular region P is
98 sq. cm
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 81 - 83): There are 3 series, you have to find Quantity – I : The area of the circular region P.
value of a, b and c & then establish the relation among a, b and c. Quantity – II : The area of the circular region P outside the square.
81. (i) 36, 39, 51, (a), 126, 201 Quantity – III : Perimeter of the circular region P.
(ii) 7, 13, 24, 40, 61, (b) 88. Three friends Dipak, Sanjeet and Panas started a partnership
(iii) 5, 20, 53, 112, 205, (c) business investing total money ` 22000 for 3 years. Dipak
(a) a>b<c (b) a<b<c has invested `10000. Sanjeet’s investment is the double of
(c) a=b=c (d) a>c=b the Panas, investment. The average amount of profit earned
(e) None of these per year is `2750.
82. (i) 1, 16, 81, 256, 625, 1296, (a) Quantity – I : Amount received by the Panas as the share in
(ii) 1335, 444, 147, (b), 15, 4 the total profit at the end of 3 years.
(iii) 11, 13, 55, 195, (c), 6017 Quantity – II : Amount received by the Sanjeet as the share
(a) a>b<c (b) a<bd£c in the total profit at the end of 18 months.
(c) a<b=c (d) a<b<c Quantity – III : Amount received by the Dipak as the share
(e) a>b>c in the total profit at the end of one year.
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2019 2019- 9

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 89 - 90): Following questions have two 94. A container contains 120 litres mixture of Alcohol and
quantities as Quantity I and Quantity II. You have to determine water which contains Alcohol and water in the ratio 7:3.
the relationship between them and give answer as, __________ litres of the mixture is used in a party and
8 litre of Alcohol and 2 litres of water are added to the
89. Quantity I: Tomy and Jacky can do a job in 8 days and remaining mixture. Concentration of Alcohol in the final
12 days respectively. If they work on alternate days with
Tomy beginning, in how many days will the work be mixture is ___________%.
finished? Which of the following option/options satisfy the given
Quantity II: A sum of money is sufficient to pay Uday’s condition?
wages for 21 days and Muday’s wages for 20 days. It is I. 40, 78
then sufficient to pay the wages of both for II. 60, 84
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II III. 30, 71
(b) Quantity I ³ Quantity II (a) Only I and II
(c) Quantity I = Quantity II (b) Only II and III
(d) Quantity I < Quantity II (c) Only I and III
(e) Quantity I £ Quantity II (d) Only III
90. Quantity I: Gopal sold two Air Purifier for ` 12900 each, (e) None of these
neither losing nor gaining in the deal. If he sells one 95. Pramod Das a shopkeeper marked the price of a
commodity at a gain of 29%, the other commodity is sold shirt___________% above the cost price. He sold the shirt
at a loss of at a discount of 5% on the marked price. If selling price
Quantity II: If the sales turnover of a company increases of the shirt is `912, percent profit earned by the
from ` 100 crore to ` 300 crore in 3 years, what is the
shopkeeper is ___________.
compounded annual growth rate of sales (approximately)
for the company? Which of the following option/options satisfy the given
(a) Quantity I < Quantity II condition?
(b) Quantity I ³ Quantity II (a) 20, 14
(c) Quantity I = Quantity II (b) 25, 18.75
(d) Quantity I > Quantity II (c) 50, 42.5
(e) Quantity I £ Quantity II (d) All of the above
91. A boat running upstream takes 5 hours 36 min to cover a (e) None of the above
certain distance, while it takes 3 hours to cover the same DIRECTIONS (Qs. 96 - 100): Study the following information
distance running downstream. What is the ratio between carefully and answer the given questions.
the speed of the boat and speed of the water current
respectively? Arka Pratap travels (A) km distance at the speed of x km/hr and
(a) 32:15 (b) 15:32 reaches his office in 2 hours. If he increases his speed by 25%, he
(c) 33:10 (d) 28:15 reached (B) hours less than the previous. Rudra Pratap travels
(e) None of These twice the distance travelled by Arka Pratap and reached his
92. Doon Express can cross a man running in the direction of office in 6 hours at the speed of 40 km/hr. Arka carries a bag
the train with the speed of 4 Km/h in 32.4 seconds. It can which contains (x) green ball, 5 black ball and 10 pink balls. He
also cross a platform of length 740 m in 90 seconds. Time takes one ball randomly and the probability of getting a pink ball
taken by the train to cross Moon Express of length
________ m coming from the opposite direction with the 1
is . Rudra also carries a bag which contains (x + 1) red caps,
speed of 36 Km/h is ___________ seconds. 2
Which of the following option/options satisfy the given (x – 1) orange caps and 5 brown caps. He also takes one cap and
condition? the probability of getting a brown cap is (C).
I. 540, 40.5 Arka’s mother bought a Bike with a discount of 20% on labeled
II. 420, 36.3 price and he again marks up 25%. She offers at 15% discount
III. 440, 36 and sold it to Arka’s friend and gained (D) %, if the labeled price
(a) Only I and II (b) Only III of the Bike is ` 40000.
(c) Only I and III (d) All I, II and III 96. Find the value of (A)
(e) None of these (a) 240 (b) 180
93. A, B and C entered into a partnership with investment of (c) 120 (d) 160
`2P, `1.5P and `___________ respectively. After one (e) 150
year, A made his investment 1.5 times. After one more year, 97. Find the value of (B)
B doubled his investment. At the end of three years, they
(a) 24 mins (b) 20 mins
earned a total profit of `11,5000. 10% of the profit goes
(c) 12 mins (d) 36 mins
to a charity. Share of C in the profit is `____________.
Which of the following option/options satisfy the given (e) 40 mins
condition? 98. Find the value of (x)
(a) 3P, 45000 (b) 2P, 34500 (a) 3 (b) 4
(c) P, 21000 (d) Only (a) and (b) (c) 2 (d) 5
(e) All of the above (e) 6
 GP_4458
2019-10 SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2019

99. Find the value of (C) a great change is being monitored in the society. We can also
1 1 understand ATM in this regard.
(a) (b) 101. What is the main business of the banking industry?
2 3
(a) To give the interest on deposits & distribute the amount,
1 1 so received, as loan and earn interest.
(c) (d)
5 4 (b) Banks have to make themselves competitive to remain
1 in the Industry and forget better profitability.
(e) (c) Banks are providing information technology.
6
100. Find the value of (D) (d) Banks are now computerizing their branches in rural
(a) 8.75% (b) 13.5% area also.
(c) 5% (d) 12.5% (e) None of these
(e) 6.25% 102. What is retail banking?
English Language
(a) In which all type of categories of population get ser-
vices/benefits from banking industry.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 101-105): Read the passage carefully and (b) Retail banking is a customer oriented service which
answer the questions given below it. increases clientele.
(c) In this type of banking, possibilities of losses are very
The main business of the banking industry is to give the interest less and comparatively banks can get better produc-
on deposits & distribute the amount, so received, as loan and tivity and profitability.
earn interest. After Nationalization of banks in 1969, personalise (d) ATM is one of their retail banking product.
banking is converted into social banking, in which banks used (e) All the above
their limited resources for economical and social development of 103. Which of the following is the similar to the word
the country. This chapter successfully ran for about two decades. ‘stagnant’?
After that, process of economic liberalisation started and a new (a) flowing (b) Customise
era started in the Indian banking industry and economic progress (c) Particular (d) Static
became stagnant. In the present scenario, banks have to make (e) None of these
themselves competitive to remain in the Industry and forget 104. Which of the following is the similar of the word
better profitability. Every bank wants to become leader in the ‘oriented’?
Industry. Banks are now bound to computerize their branches in (a) Steered (b) intended
rural area also. Efforts are being made to provide better services (c) Regressed (d) Decayed
by using computers. Retail Banking is also a part of this developing (e) Both (a) and (b)
chain in the banking Industry. 105. Which of the following word is suitable to replace the
Retail Banking means a type of banking, in which all type of blank ‘A’?
categories of population get services/benefits from banking (a) period (b) Scenario
industry. Retail banking is a customer oriented service which (c) Scene (d) Years
increases clientele. In this type of banking, possibilities of losses (e) All of these
are very less and comparatively banks can get better productivity DIRECTIONS (Qs. 106-110): Read the passage carefully and
and profitability. If we compare, we found that in the answer the questions given below it.
present....A......., banks are behaving like multinational No distinction was drawn between economic growth and
companies, who are presenting their products with full facilities development in the beginning of the evolution of economics of
and comparative rates. Banks are, therefore, forced to be development. However, since the seventies it has been thought
practical about their marketing policies. ATM is one of their necessary to distinguish between economic growth and economic
retail banking product. development. There are two views even about the concept of
Before knowing about ATM, it is very essential that we should economic development. The traditional view has been to interpret
know well about information technology. Information and it in terms of planned changes in the structure of
society are now related with each other up to good extent. One national product and the occupational pattern of labour force and
cannot think about development of society, without information also the institutional and technological changes that bring about
technology. Even one can say that information is the origin point such changes or accompany such changes.
of the society. Information technology has made possible to join It may be noted that Kuznets in his study of Modern Eco-nomic
different types of people in the society that is why present society Growth interpreted the process of modern economic growth which
is also called Information society. If we think about the starting involves these structural changes. In this view during the process
of computers, we find that initially computer was used only for of economic growth share of agriculture in both national product
mathematical calculations, but today it is a machine of unlimited and employment of labour force declines and that of industries
capacity. Today with the help of computers human control over and services increases. Vari-ous strategies of development which
aeroplane, missiles etc. have become very easy. Computer has were suggested until seventies generally focused on rapid
made possible the invention of technique like Internet. Today with industrialization so that structural transformation could be
the help of Internet, doors of development are opened. Facilities achieved.
like e-business, e-banking, e-education are the facilities by which
SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Mains Solved Paper-2019 2019-11

For this purpose appropriate institutional and technological 109. Which of the following is the opposite of the word
changes were recommended to bring about such structural ‘interpret’?
changes. Thus C.P. Kindle Berger writes, Economic growth means (a) misunderstand (b) fathom
more output and economic development ......A......both more (c) discern (d) grasp
output and changes in the technical and institutional arrangements (e) all the above
by which it is produced. 110. Which of the following word can replace the blank ‘a’?
Thus, according to traditional view, economic development (a) understand (b) find
implies growth plus structural change. Structural change refers (c) implies (d) regulates
to changes in technological and institutional factors which cause (e) All of these
shift of labour from agriculture to modern manufacturing and DIRECTIONS (Qs. 111-115): Read the passage carefully and
services sectors and also generate self-sustaining growth of output. answer the questions given below it.
An aspect of structural change which is of special mention is that
Financial management refers to the efficient and effective
during the process of economic development there occurs a shift
management of money (funds). Financial Management is about
of working population from low productivity employment in
preparing, directing and managing the financial activities of a
agriculture to the modern industrial and services sectors having
company such as buying, selling and using money to its best results
higher levels of productivity of labour.
to maximize wealth or produce best value for money. It is basically
That is, during the process of economic development percentage
applying general management concepts to the cash of the company.
share of working population in agriculture sharply falls whereas
Financial Management can also be defined as – The management
percentage shares of working population employed in modern
of the finances of a business / organization in order to achieve
industrial and services sectors substantially increase. Along with
financial objectives.
this change in sectoral distribution of labour force there occurs a
According to Dr. S. N. Maheshwari “Financial management is
change in sectoral composition of national in-come in which
concerned with raising financial resources and their effective
percentage contribution of agriculture to national income and
utilization towards achieving the organizational goals.”
declines and percentage contributions to national income of
According to Richard A. Brealey “Financial management is the
industrial and services sectors increase. This occurs due to the
process of putting the available funds to the best advantage from
change in pattern of consumption of the people as economy grows
the long term point of view of business objectives”
and people’s income increases as well as due to the changes in
It is crucial for both public and private sector organizations.
levels of productivity in the different sectors of the economy.
Financial management is one of the important aspects in finance.
106. Study the following statements
Nobody can ever think to start a business or a company without
(1) Since the seventies it has been thought necessary to
financial knowledge and management strategies.
distinguish between economic growth and economic The scope of financial management has increased greatly now. It
development. is important to carry out the financial analysis for a company and
(2) In this view during the process of economic growth this analysis helps in decision making process. Investment
share of agriculture in both national product and decision of the company comes under the scope of financial
employment of labour force declines and that of management.
industries and services increases. The investment decision involves the evaluation of risk,
(a) 1 is true, 2 is false (b) 1 is false, 2 is true measurement of cost of capital and estimation of expected benefits
from a project. Capital budgeting and liquidity are the two major
(c) Both are true (d) Both are false
components of investment decision. Capital budgeting is
(e) All of these
concerned with the allocation of capital and commitment of funds
107. What happened during the process of economic growth in permanent assets which would yield earnings in future.
share of employment of labour force of industries and Capital budgeting also involves decisions with respect to
services and agriculture? replacement and renovation of old assets. The finance manager
(a) share of agriculture in both national product and em- must maintain an appropriate balance between fixed and current
ployment of labour force declines assets in order to maximize profitability and to maintain desired
(b) The share of employment of labour to industries and liquidity in the firm.
services increases. Capital budgeting is a very important decision as it affects the
(c) The share of employment of labour to industries and long-term success. At the same time it is a very difficult decision
services decreases. because it involves the estimation of costs and benefits which are
(d) Both (a) and (b) are true uncertain and unknown.
(e) Both (a) and (b) are false While the investment decision involves decision with respect to
108. Which of the following is/are the similar to the word composition or mix of assets, financing decision is concerned
‘Substantially’? with the financing mix or financial structure of the firm and it
(a) Considerably (b) significantly also comes under the range of financial management. The raising
of funds requires decisions regarding the methods and sources of
(c) slighly (d) both (a) and (b)
finance, relative proportion and choice between alternative
(e) All of these
sources, time of floatation of securities, etc.