Test Booklet Code

T3
NEET (UG) 2024
Questions, Answer Key & Solutions
Date: 05 May, 2024 | TIME: (02:00 PM to 05:20 PM)
Duration: 200 minutes (03 Hrs. 20 Min.) | Max. Marks: 720
Important Instructions:
1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in
the particulars on ORIGINAL Copy carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four options with a single
correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are divided into two
Sections (A and B) as per details given below :
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Questions Nos – 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151
to 185). All questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos - 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to
200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start attempting the question paper.
In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be
evaluated.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark
will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
4. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses on Answer Sheet.
5. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet (ORIGINAL and OFFICE Copy) to the Invigilator
before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
7. The CODE for this Booklet is T3. Make sure that the CODE printed on the Original Copy of the Answer Sheet is the same
as that on this Test Booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for
replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
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your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
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(with time) the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases, where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time, will be
deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an Unfair Means case.
13. Use of Electronic/ Manual Calculator is prohibited.
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Room/Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per the Rules and Regulations of this examination.
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16. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.
17. Compensatory time of one hour five minutes will be provided for the examination of three hours and 20 minutes duration, whether
such candidate (having a physical limitation to write) uses the facility of scribe or not.

In case of any ambiguity in translation of any question, English version shall be treated as final.
iz'uksa ds vuqokn esa fdlh vLi"Vrk dh fLFkfr esa] vaxzsth laLdj.k dks gh vfUre ekuk tk;sxkA
Name of the Candidate (in Capital letters): ____________________________________________________________________________
Roll Number: in figures: ___________________________________in words: _______________________________________________
Name of Examination Centre (in Capital letters) : _______________________________________________________________________
Candidate's Signature: ______________________________ Invigilator's Signature: _________________________________________

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PART : CHEMISTRY
51. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
(Conversion) (Number of Faraday required)
A. 1 mol of H2O to O2 I. 3F
B. 1 mol of MnO4– to Mn2+ II. 2F
C. 1.5 mol of Ca from molten CaCl2 III. 1F
D. 1 mol of FeO to Fe2O3 IV. 5F
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Ans. (3)

52. Which reaction is NOT a redox reaction?

(1) H2 + Cl2 2HCl (2) BaCl2 + Na2SO4 BaSO4 + 2NaCl
(3) Zn + CuSO4 ZnSO4 + Cu (4) 2KClO3 + I2 2KIO3 + Cl2
Ans. (2)

53. Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is present in

NO2 NO2 NO2
(1) (2) HF (3) (4)
OH HO
HO
Ans. (3)

54. Fehling's solution 'A' is

(1) alkaline solution of sodium potassium tartrate (Rochelle's salt)
(2) aqueous sodium citrate
(3) aqueous copper sulphate
(4) alkaline copper sulphate
Ans. (3)

55. 1 gram of sodium hydroxide was treated with 25 mL of 0.75 M HCl solution, the mass of sodium hydroxide
left unreacted is equal to
(1) Zero mg (2) 200 mg (3) 750 mg (4) 250 mg
Ans. (4)

56. Match List I with List II.

List I List II
(Compound) (Shape/geometry)
A. NH3 I. Trigonal Pyramidal
B. BrF5 II. Square Planar
C. XeF4 III. Octahedral
D. SF6 IV. Square Pyramidal

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Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III (4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Ans. (3)

57. The Eº value for the Mn3+/Mn2+ couple is more positive than that of Cr3+/Cr2+ or Fe3+/Fe2+ due to change
of
(1) d4 to d5 configuration (2) d3 to d5 configuration
5 4
(3) d to d configuration (4) d5 to d2 configuration
Ans. (3)

58. Match List I with List II.

List I List II
(Process) (Conditions)
A. Isothermal process I. No heat exchange
B. Isochoric process II. Carried out at constant temperature
C. Isobaric process III. Carried out at constant volume
D. Adiabatic process IV. Constant pressure
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
Ans. (2)

59. Activation energy of any chemical reaction can be calculated if one knows the value of
(1) orientation of reactant molecules during collision.
(2) rate constant at two different temperature.
(3) rate constant at standard temperature.
(4) probability of collision.
Ans. (2)

60. A compound with a molecular formula of C6H14 has two tertiary carbons. Its IUPAC name is :
(1) 2,3-dimethylbutane (2) 2,2-dimethylbutane
(3) n-hexane (4) 2-methylpentane
Ans. (1)

61. 'Spin only' magnetic moment is same for which of the following ions?
A. Ti3+ B. Cr2+
C. Mn 2+ D. Fe2+
E. Sc3+
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) B and C only (2) A and D only (3) B and D only (4) A and E only
Ans. (3)

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62. Arrange the following elements in increasing order of electronegativity :

N, O, F, C, Si
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) O < F < N < C < Si (2) F < O < N < C < Si (3) Si < C < N < O < F (4) Si < C < O < N < F
Ans. (3)

63. Which one of the following alcohols reacts instantaneously with Lucas reagent ?
CH3
(1) CH3—CH—CH2OH (2) CH3—C—OH
CH3 CH3
(3) CH3—CH2—CH3—CH2OH (4) CH3—CH2—CH2OH
CH3
Ans. (2)

64. Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Both Co(NH3 )6  and CoF6 
3 3–
complexes are octahedral but differ in their magnetic
behaviour.
Statement II : Co(NH3 )6  is diamagnetic whereas CoF6 
3 3–
is paramagnetic.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3) Both statement I and Statement II are true. (4) Both statement I and Statement II are false.
Ans. (3)

65. Given below are two statements:

Statement I : The boiling point of hydrides of Group 16 elements follow the order
H2O > H2Te > H2Se > H2S.
Statement II : On the basis of molecular mass, H2O is expected to have lower boiling point than the other
members of the group but due to the presence of extensive H-bonding in H2O, it has higher boiling point.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3) Both statement I and Statement II are true. (4) Both statement I and Statement II are false.
Ans. (3)

66. Match List I with List II

List I List II
Quantum Number Information provided
(A) ml (I) shape of orbital
(B) ms (II) size of orbital
(C) l (III) orientation of orbital
(D) n (IV) orientation of spin of electron
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I (2) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III
(3) A – I, B – III, C – II, D – IV (4) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
Ans. (4)

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67. Match List I with List II

List I List II
(Reaction) (Reagents/Condition)
O

(A) 2 O (I) Cl/

Anhyd.AlCl3
O

(B) (II) CrO3

OH O
(C) (III) KMnO4/KOH, 

CH2CH3 COOK
(i) O3
(D) (IV)
(ii) Zn–H2O

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III (2) A – I, B – IV, C – II, D – III
(3) A – IV, B – I, C – III, D – II (4) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV
Ans. (1)

68. Identify the correct reagents that would bring about the following transformation.

CH2–CH=CH2 CH2–CH2–CHO

(1) (i) BH3, (ii) H2O2/OH, (iii) alk. KMnO4, (iv) H3O
(2) (i) H2O/H+, (ii) PCC,
(3) (i) H2O/H+, (ii) CrO3
(4) (i) BH3, (ii) H2O2/OH, (iii) PCC
Ans. (4)

69. The reagents with which glucose does not react to give the corresponding tests/products are
A. Tollen's reagent
B. Schiff's reagent
C. HCN
D. NH2OH
E. NaHSO3
Choose the correct options from the given below:
(1) B and E (2) E and D (3) B and C (4) A and D
Ans. (1)

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70. Match List I with List II

List I List II
(Molecule) (Number and types of bonds between two carbons atoms)
(A) ethane (I) one -bond and two -bonds
(B) ethene (II) two -bonds
(C) carbon molecule, C2 (III) one -bond
(D) ethyne (IV) two -bond and one -bond
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A – III ; B – IV ; C – II ; D – I (2) A – III ; B – IV ; C – I ; D – II
(3) A – I ; B – IV ; C – II ; D – III (4) A – IV ; B – III ; C – II ; D – I
Ans. (1)

71. Among Group 16 elements, which one does NOT show –2 oxidation state?
(1) Te (2) PO (3) O (4) Se
Ans. (2)

72. For the reaction 2A B + C, KC = 4 × 10–3. At a given time, the composition of reaction mixture is :
–3
[A] = [B] = [C] = 2 × 10 M.
Then, which of the following is correct?
(1) Reaction has a tendency to go in backward direction.
(2) Reaction has gone to completion forward direction.
(3) Reaction is at equilibrium.
(4) Reaction has a tendency to go in forward direction.
Ans. (1)

1
73. Which plot of ln k vs is consistent with Arrhenius equiton?
T
ln k 

ln k 

ln k 

ln k 

(1) (2) (3) (4)

1/T  1/T  1/T  1/T 
Ans. (2)
74. In which of the following equilibria, KP and KC are NOT equal?
(1) CO(g) + H2O(g) CO2(g) + H2(g) (2) 2BrCl(g) Br2(g) + Cl2(g)
(3) PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) (4) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HIg)
Ans. (3)

75. Given below are two statements:

Statement I : The boiling point of three isomeric pentanes follows the order
n-pentane > isopentane > neopentane
Statement II : When branching increases, the molecule attains a shape of sphere. this results in smaller
surface area for contact, due to which the intermolecular forces between the spherical molecules are
weak, thereby lowering the boiling point.

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In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Ans. (3)

76. The compound that will undergo SN1 reaction with the fastest rate is
CH3
Br Br
(1) (2) (3) Br (4) Br

Ans. (2)

77. The energy of an electron in the ground state (n = 1) for He+ ion is –x J, then that for an electron in n = 2
state for Be3+ ion in J is :
4 x
(1) – 4x (2) – x (3) – x (4) –
9 9
Ans. (3)

78. In which of the following processes entropy increases ?

A. A liquid evaporates to vapour.
B. Temperature of a crystalline solid lowered from 130 K to 0 K.
C. 2 NaHCO3 (s)  Na2CO3 (s) + CO2 (g) + H2O (g)
D. Cl2(g)  2 Cl(g)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A, C and D (2) C and D (3) A and C (4) A, B and D
Ans. (1)

79. On heating, some solid substances change from solid to vapour state without passing through liquid state.
The technique used for the purification of such solid substances based on the above principle is known
as
(1) Distillation (2) Chromatography
(3) Crystallization (4) Sublimation
Ans. (4)

80. Match List I with List II.

List I (Complex) List II (Type of isomerism)
A. CoNH3 5 NO2 Cl2 I. Solvate isomerism
B. CoNH3 5 SO4 Br II. Linkage isomerism
C. CoNH3 6  CrCN6  III. Ionization isomerism
D. CoH2O6 Cl3 IV. Coordination isomerism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II (2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

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Ans. (3)

81. Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction.
Statement II : Aniline cannot be prepared through Gabriel synthesis.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement Ii is false.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement Ii is true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
Ans. (3)

82. Arrange the following elements in increasing order of first ionization enthalpy:
Li, Be, B, C, N
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Li < Be < C < B < N (2) Li < Be < N < B < C
(3) Li < Be < B < C < N (4) Li < B < Be < C < N
Ans. (4)

83. The highest number of helium atoms is in

(1) 4 g of helium (2) 2.271098 L of helium at STP
(3) 4 mol of helium (4) 4 u of helium
Ans. (3)

84. The most stable carbocation among the following is

CH3

 
(1) CH2 (2)

CH3
CH3 
C CH
(3) H3C CH CH3 (4) H3C H CH2
 CH3
Ans. (2)

85. The Henry's law constant (KH) values of three gases (A, B, C) in water are 145, 2 × 10 –5 and 35 kbar
respectively. The solubility of these gases in water follow the order:
(1) A > C > B (2) A > B > C (3) B > A > C (4) B > C > A
Ans. (4)

86. A compound X contains 32% of A, 20% of B and remaining percentage of C. Then, the empirical formula
of X is: (Given atomic masses of A = 64; B = 40; C = 32 u)
(1) AB2C2 (2) ABC4 (3) A2BC2 (4) ABC3
Ans. (4)

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87. The products A and B obtained in the following reactions, respectively, are
3ROH + PCl3  3RCl + A
ROH + PCl5  RCl + HCl + B
(1) H3PO4 and POCl3 (2) H3PO3 and POCl3
(3) POCl3 and H3PO3 (4) POCl3 and H3PO4
Ans. (3)

88. The plot of osmotic pressure () vs concentration (mol L–1) for a solution gives a straight line with slope
25.73 L bar mol–1. The temperature at which the osmotic pressure measurement is done is:
(Use R = 0.083 L bar mol–1 K–1)
(1) 25.73°C (2) 12.05°C (3) 37°C (4) 310°C
Ans. (3)

89. For the given reaction:

+
C CH KMnO4/H 'P'
(major
H product)

OH OH OH OH

(1) CH CH (2) C C

(3) CHO (4) COOH

Ans. (4)

90. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: CoNH3 6  is a homoleptic complex whereas CoNH3 4 Cl2  is a heteroleptic complex.
3 

Statement II: Complex CoNH3 6  has only one kind of ligands but CoNH3 4 Cl2  has more than one
3 

kind of ligands.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is true but Statement I is false. (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3)Both Statement I and Statement II are true. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
Ans. (3)

91. During the preparation of Mohr's salt solution (Ferrous ammonium sulphate), which of the following acid
is added to prevent hydrolysis of Fe2+ ion?
(1) dilute nitric acid (2) dilute sulphuric acid
(3) dilute hydrochloric acid (4) concentrated sulphuric acid
Ans. (2)

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92. Identify the correct answer.

(1) Dipole moment of NF3 is greater than that of NH3.
(2) Three canocical forms can be drawn for CO32 ion.
(3) Three resonance structures can be drawn for ozone.
(4) BF3 has non-zero dipole moment.
Ans. (2)

93. Given below are certain cations. Using inorganic qualitative analysis, arrange them in increasing group
number from 0 to VI.
A. Al3+ B. Cu2+
C. Ba 2+ D. Co2+
E. Mg2+
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) E, C, D, B, A (2) E, A, B, C, D (3) B, A, D, C, E (4) B, C, A, D, E
Ans. (3)

94. Identify the major product C formed in the following reaction sequence:
CH3  CH2  CH2  I   A
NaCN

OH– NaOH
B C
Partial hydrolysis Br2 (major)
(1) butanamide (2) –bromobutanoic acid
(3) propylamine (4) butylamine
Ans. (3)

95. The rate of a reaction quadruples when temperature changes from 27°C to 57°C.
Calculate the energy of activation.
Given R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1, log 4 = 0.6021
(1) 3.80 kJ/mol (2) 3804 kJ/mol (3) 38.04 kJ/mol (4) 380.4 kJ/mol
Ans. (3)

96. Consider the following reaction is a sealed vessel at equilibrium with concentrations of
N2 = 3.0 × 10–3 M, O2 = 4.2 × 10–3 M and
NO = 2.8 × 10–3 M.
2NO(g) N2(g) + O2(g)
If 0.1 mol L–1 of NO(g) is taken in a closed vessel, what will be degree of dissociation () of NO(g) at
equilibrium?
(1) 0.8889 (2) 0.717 (3) 0.00889 (4) 0.0889
Ans. (2)

97. The work done during reversible isothermal expansion of one mole of hydrogen gas at 25°C from
pressure of 20 atmosphere to 10 atmosphere to 10 atmosphere is :
(Given R = 2.0 cal K–1 mol–1)
(1) 413.14 calories (2) 100 calories
(3) 0 calories (4) –413.14 calories
Ans. (4)

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 NEET (UG) 2024 | DATE : 05-05-2024 | CHEMISTRY

98. Mass in grams of copper deposited by passing 9.6487 A current through a voltmeter containing copper
sulphate solution for 100 seconds is :
(Given : Molar mass of Cu : 63 g mol–1, 1 F = 96487 C)
(1) 31.5 g (2) 0.0315 g (3) 3.15 g (4) 0.315 g
Ans. (4)

99. Major products A and B formed in the following reaction sequence, are
OH
H3C
PBr3 Alc. KOH
A B
(major) 
(major)

OH OH OH O
H3C Br H3C H3C Br H3C
(1) A = ;B= (2) A = ;B=

Br Br
H3C H3C H3C H3C
(3) A = ;B= (4) A = ;B=

Ans. (3)

100. The pair of lanthanoid ions which are diamagnetic is

(1) Gd3+ and Eu3+ (2) Pm3+ and Sm3+ (3) Ce4+ and Yb2+ (4) Ce3+ and Eu2+
Ans. (3)

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Reg. Office & Corp. Office : CG Tower, A-46 & 52, IPIA, Near City Mall, Jhalawar Road, Kota (Raj.) - 324005
Ph. No.: +91-744-2777777, 2777700 | FAX No. : +91-022-39167222
To Know more : sms RESO at 56677 | Website : www.resonance.ac.in | E-mail : [email protected] | CIN : U80302RJ2007PLC024029
7340010333

This solution was download from Resonance NEET (UG) 2024 Solution portal PAGE # 10
 Resonance Eduventures Ltd.
Reg. Office & Corp. Office : CG Tower, A-46 & 52, IPIA, Near City Mall, Jhalawar Road, Kota (Raj.) - 324005
Ph. No.: +91-744-2777777, 2777700 | FAX No. : +91-022-39167222
To Know more : sms RESO at 56677 | Website : www.resonance.ac.in | E-mail : [email protected] | CIN : U80302RJ2007PLC024029

This solution was download from Resonance NEET (UG) 2024 Solution portal