IBPS PO Mains 2024 Memory Based Paper (1st Shift)

Directions (1): Each question consists of two conclusions followed by some statements. Consider the given
conclusions to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read the conclusions
and then decide which of the following statement is true for given conclusions.

Q1. Conclusions:
I. All number can never be digit
II. Some digit being letter is a possibility
(a) Statements: All series is number; Some series is digit; Only a few letter is number
(b) Statements: Only a few series is digit; All series is number; Some letter is number
(c) Statements: No digit is series; No series is number; All number is letter
(d) Statements: Only digit is letter; Some digit is number; Only a few series is number
(e) Statements: No digit is letter; Only a few letter is number; Only a few number is series

Directions (2-6): A word/number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers; it
arranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and its
arrangement:

Input: triangle 45 38 galaxy 93 puzzle 27 velocity rhythm 84

Step I: 88 triangle 45 38 puzzle 27 velocity rhythm 84 aaglxy
Step II: 87 88 triangle 45 38 27 velocity rhythm aaglxy eulpzz
Step III: 40 87 88 triangle 38 27 velocity aaglxy eulpzz hhmrty
Step IV: 41 40 87 88 27 velocity aaglxy eulpzz hhmrty aeiglnrt
Step V: 22 41 40 87 88 aaglxy eulpzz hhmrty aeiglnrt eiocltvy
Based on the above example, rearrange the below input:
Input: shadow 74 19 magnet 52 forest 68 bridge whistle 31

Q2. Which element is 5th to the right of second least number in step V?
(a) eibdgr
(b) 31
(c) eofrst
(d) aegmnt
(e) None of these

Q3. What is sum of all the odd numbers in step II?

(a) 110
(b) 147
(c) 128
(d) 117
(e) 198

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Q4. What is the position of ‘eibdgr’ with respect to ‘77’ in step IV?
(a) 3rd to the right
(b) 5th to the right
(c) 4th to the left
(d) 2nd to the right
(e) None of the above

Q5. Find the square of the 2nd highest number in step III?
(a) 3844
(b) 3025
(c) 2809
(d) 5041
(e) None of these

Q6. Which element is 6th from the right end in step II?
(a) whistle
(b) 19
(c) magnet
(d) 77
(e) 52

Directions (7-10): Read the given information carefully and answer the questions based on it:
A certain number of persons sit in a row facing north. The known persons like different colors. On counting from left,
the persons at even positions are managers and the persons at odd positions are associates.
Four persons are in between A and the one who likes red. G sits third to the left of A. The one who likes blue sits
exactly between G and the one who likes red. Four persons are in between C and the one who likes blue. The one
who likes pink sits immediate right of C. D sits three persons sit to the right of the one who likes pink. The number
of persons sit to the right of D is equal to the square root of the number of persons sit between D and the one who
likes red. T sits sixth to the left of H who sits adjacent to C. H likes pink and sits immediate right of the one who likes
yellow. No one sits to the left of B who sits adjacent to T. The one who likes black sits fourth from right end. The one
who likes grey sits second to the right of B and third to the left of the one who likes white.

Q7. How many associates sit to the right of the one who likes white?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Six
(e) More than six

Q8. What is the position of C with respect to the one who likes grey?
(a) 5th to the right
(b) 7th to the right
(c) 8th to the left
(d) Immediate right
(e) 4th to the right

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Q9. Which of the following statement is correct?
I. The one who sits 7th to the right of B is manager.
II. Four associates sit between B and the one who likes black.
III. H is manager and sits second to the right of A
(a) Only II
(b) Only III
(c) Only I and II
(d) Only I and III
(e) All I, II and III

Q10. Choose the incorrect combination.

(a) G – grey - associate
(b) D – black - associate
(c) A – white - manager
(d) T – blue - manager
(e) B – yellow - associate

Q11. The below question is based on the following information:

A$B means A is mother of B
A@B means A is daughter of B
A#B means A is father of B
A%B means A is brother of B
A&B means A is wife of B
A*B means A is sister of B

In which of the following expression, G is the niece of M?

I. M@E$C#G@H
II. E$M%C&H#G
III. M%C&H#G*E
IV. C@E@M#H*G
(a) Only II and III
(b) Only I and III
(c) Only I and IV
(d) Only I, II and III
(e) Only IV

Directions (12-14): Each of the questions below, consist of a question and three statements numbered I, II
and III. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Read the three statements and Give answer
(a) Both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question whereas statement III alone is not
sufficient to answer the question
(b) Only statement III alone is sufficient to answer the question whereas both statements I and II are not sufficient
to answer the question
(c) All the three statements together are not sufficient to answer the question

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(d) Any two of the given statements are necessary to answer the question
(e) Only statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question whereas both statements I and III are not sufficient
to answer the question

Q12. Six persons – P, Q, R, S, T and U attend the function on different days of a week starting from Monday to
Saturday but not necessarily in the same order. Who among the following attends the function on Thursday?
Statement I: P attends function three days after U who is not the first person to attend the function. One person
attends the function between T and R. T attends the function three days after Q.
Statement II: Two persons attend the function between S and R who attends immediately after P. Three persons
attend the function between P and Q. S attends the function before T.
Statement III: U attends the function two days before T who attends immediately after P. One person attends the
function between Q and S.

Q13. Five bags of different colours i.e., grey, brown, cyan, orange and golden are placed one above another
on different shelves but not necessarily in the same order. The bottommost shelf is numbered as 1, just above
it is numbered as 2 and so on till the topmost shelf is numbered as 5. Which among the following bag is placed
immediately below the grey colour bag?
Statement I: One bag is placed between brown colour bag and grey colour bag which is placed immediately below
orange colour bag. Two boxes are placed between golden colour bag and cyan colour bag.
Statement II: Brown colour bag is placed immediately below golden colour bag and neither of them is placed
adjacent to cyan colour bag. One bag is placed between cyan colour bag and grey colour bag.
Statement III: Two bags are placed between orange colour bag and brown colour bag. Grey colour bag is placed at
the prime numbered shelf and two bags below the cyan colour bag.

Q14. Six persons i.e. A, B, C, D, E and F sit around an equilateral triangle table such that three persons sit at
the corners and face inside while three persons sit in the middle of each of the side and face outside but not
necessarily in the same order. Who among the following sits immediate right of D?
Statement I: Two persons sit between B and A who sits immediate left of E. F and D sits immediate left of each other.
Statement II: One person sits between E and D. A does not sit at the corner.
Statement III: C sits immediate left of B and second to the left of A. D and E does not sit adjacent to each other.

Q15. In the given word “TERMINATION” if the vowels are changed with its just next letter and consonants
are changed with its just previous letter. Then the letters which comes after N in the alphabetical series are
changed with just next letter and the letters which comes before N are changed with its just previous letter.
Now, eliminate the repeating letters and arranged the remaining letters in alphabetical order from left to
right then which of the following letter is second to the left of the letter which is third from the right end in
the new arrangement?
(a) A
(b) K
(c) E
(d) Q
(e) R

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Q16. If we use the following alphabets from the words given in the options below:
* The second consonant from the left end in the first word,
* The last vowel from the right end in the second word,
* The consonant which is first from the right end in the third word,
* The vowel which is second from the left end in the fourth word,
Then, which of the following options give a meaningful word?
(a) Game, Mate, King, Fire
(b) Land, Rust, Well, Tube
(c) Wish, Fish, Cost, Lane
(d) Nice, Gain, Word, Meet
(e) None of these

Q17. If in the given word “ASSUMPTION” if vowels are replaced with their immediately succeeding letter and
consonants are replaced with just preceding letter and in the word “METICULOUS” the letters which comes
after N are changed to their immediately succeeding letter and the letter which comes before N are changed
to their immediately preceding letter then both the words are combined second word is arranged after first
word then repeated letters are removed after combining both the words then which letter is sixth from the
right end?
(a) O
(b) D
(c) S
(d) J
(e) M

Directions (18-21): Read the following information carefully and answer the following
Eight persons—A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H—are sitting in a circular arrangement, all facing the center. Each of them has
a unique card number ranging from 2 to 9. Each person holds a distinct card number ranging from 2 to 9.
Note: The difference between the card numbers of persons sitting adjacent to each other is more than 1.
C sits sixth to the right of the person whose card number is a prime number. Two persons sit between the person
who sits second to the right of C and G. The person whose card number is a multiple of 5 is an immediate neighbour
of G. F sits third to the right of the person whose card number is a multiple of 5. The person who sits opposite to the
person whose card number is 5 has card number which is two less than card number G. The person whose card
number is 8 sits second to the left of F. One person sits between the person who has 6 card number and H. A is an
immediate neighbour of the person who has card number 6 and has card number that is a multiple of 3. Card number
of B is not 2, 5 and 8. The person who sits second to the left of A has card number 4. The difference between card
number of C and A is equal to card number of B. D is an immediate neighbour of the person who has card number 3.
D is not an immediate neighbour of A and H. D doesn’t sit opposite to H and F. E is an immediate neighbour of G.

Q18. Who among the following person sits fourth to the right of the person who has card number 4?
(a) H
(b) B
(c) The person who has card number 5
(d) D
(e) None of these

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Q19. What is the sum of the card numbers of C, G and H?
(a) 25
(b) 20
(c) 23
(d) 21
(e) None of these

Q20. How many persons sit between the person who has card number 9 and E when counting in the anti-
clockwise direction from E?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) One
(e) Two

Q21. Which of the following pairs are adjacent and have card numbers differing less than 4?
(a) A and B
(b) E and G
(c) C and D
(d) H and A
(e) None of these

Q22. Statement: In December 2024, the Indian government announced measures to achieve a GDP growth target of
6.5% to 7% for the current fiscal year. This decision followed slower-than-expected growth in the July-September
quarter, attributed to weaker manufacturing and consumption sectors. The government plans to boost
infrastructure spending and increase incentives for electric vehicle manufacturers to stimulate economic growth.
Conclusions:
I. The Indian government is proactively addressing the economic slowdown by implementing strategic measures.
II. Enhancing infrastructure spending is expected to positively impact India's GDP growth.
III. The slowdown in the July-September quarter was solely due to external global factors.
Which of the above conclusions logically follows with the statement?
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Only III
(d) Only I and II
(e) Only II and III

Q23. Statement: In October 2024, India and China reached an agreement

to de-escalate border tensions, allowing both nations to resume patrolling
in previously disputed areas along the Line of Actual Control (LAC). Despite
the agreement, there remains a lack of trust between the two countries, and
sporadic confrontations continue to occur in border regions.
Proposed Courses of Action:

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I. India should increase diplomatic engagements with China to build mutual trust and ensure the effective
implementation of the agreement.
II. India should enhance its military presence along the LAC to deter any potential aggression from China.
III. India should seek mediation from international organizations to monitor and enforce the border agreement.
Which of the above courses of action should India pursue to effectively address the ongoing challenges along
the LAC?
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Only III
(d) Both I and II
(e) Both I and III

Q24. Statement: In June 2024, controversies arose over the NEET-UG exam due to alleged question paper leaks and
irregularities in results. While the National Testing Agency (NTA) initially denied the claims, it later formed a
committee to investigate. The Supreme Court ordered a re-examination for some candidates, highlighting the need
for transparency.
Based on the above statement, which of the following can be inferred?
I. The integrity of the NEET-UG examination was questioned due to alleged irregularities.
II. The NTA acknowledged the possibility of errors in the examination process.
III. The Supreme Court mandated a complete cancellation of the NEET-UG examination.
(a) Only inference 1 is correct
(b) Only inference 2 is correct
(c) Both inferences 2 and 3 are correct
(d) Both inferences 1 and 2 are correct
(e) All inferences 1, 2, and 3 are correct

Q25. In the question below, two statements are provided. Examine these statements carefully and determine
whether there is a cause-and-effect relationship between them. Choose your answer from the options
provided.

Statements:
I. The Election Commission of India reported a record voter turnout of 64.2 crore people in the 2024 Lok Sabha
elections.
II. The Election Commission implemented extensive voter awareness campaigns across the country in the lead-up to
the 2024 general elections.
(a) Statement I is the cause, and Statement II is its effect.
(b) Statement II is the cause, and Statement I is its effect.
(c) Both statements are independent causes.
(d) Both statements are effects of a common cause.
(e) None of these

Directions (26-27): Read the following information carefully and answer the following questions.
Six persons—P, Q, R, T, U and V—were born among different dates in March- 20, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26 27 and 28 of
the same year, but not necessarily in the same order. No two persons share the same birth date.

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T was born on an even number date. Four dates are between the birth date of T and V. Three dates are between the
birth date of R and V. R was born either five persons before or five persons after U. One person was born between U
and P who is not the eldest and the youngest. Q was born on an odd number date but not on prime number date. U
was born before Q but U is not the eldest person. Q is not born on a date that is multiple of 3.

Q26. Which among the following combination is incorrect?

(a) V – 23 March
(b) R – 21 March
(c) U – 26 March
(d) Q – 25 March
(e) Both (b) and (c)

Q27. How many persons were born between P and R?

(a) Two
(b) Four
(c) One
(d) Three
(e) Five

Directions (28-29): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions below:
A%B → A is the father-in-law of B
A@B → A is the brother of B
A$B → A is the son of B
A*B → A is the wife of B
A#B → A is the mother of B
A&B → A is the sister-in-law of B

Relation: X@Y, W*Z, R*T, T@Z, Y#W, U&Z, U#K, R*T, O%J, I&J, Y*L, J*K

Q28. How is I related to Y?

(a) Daughter
(b) Sister-in-law
(c) Son
(d) Grandson
(e) Grand daughter

Q29. If D is married to I, then how many male members are there in the family?
(a) Six
(b) Five
(c) Seven
(d) Eight
(e) Can’t be determined

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Direction (30-34): Study the following information carefully to answer the questions.

Five persons - M, N, O, P and Q have five different ships - A, B, C, D and E docked at five different ports - R, S, T, U, and
V. All the information is not necessarily in the same order.
N doesn’t have Ship B and Ship E. Ship B is not docked at Port S and Port U. Q doesn’t dock the ship in Port S and Port
R. O doesn’t dock in the ship in Port S, Port U and Port V. M, O and P doesn’t have ship E. Ship D and ship E is not
docked at Port U. P doesn’t have ship C and ship B. P doesn’t dock the ship at Port U and Port V. The person whose
ship is docked at Port R doesn’t have Ship C and A. P doesn’t dock the ship at Port R and Port S. M doesn’t dock the
ship at Port S. The person whose ship is docked at Port S and Port U doesn’t have ship D. The person whose ship is
docked at Port S doesn’t have Ship A. The person whose ship is docked at Port T doesn’t have Ship D. Port R doesn’t
have Ship B docked.

Q30. Which among the following ship is docked at Port T?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Q31. Which among the following combination is correct?

(a) P – Ship A, Port U
(b) M – Ship B, Port S
(c) O – Ship D, Port V
(d) N, Ship C, Port S
(e) None of these

Q32. Which of the following statement is/are false?

I. O docked the ship at Port R.
II. N has Ship C.
III. Ship A is docked at Port S.
(a) Only II
(b) Only III
(c) Both II and III
(d) Both I and II
(e) Only I

Q33. Who among the following person docked the Ship at Port U?
(a) Q
(b) M
(c) N
(d) O
(e) P

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Q34. In which among the following port, Ship A is docked?
(a) S
(b) V
(c) R
(d) U
(e) T

Directions (35-36): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Series: 7 L # P 4 ® Y 9 * M 6 # N Z & T % 8 ^ G S @ R 5 © H 1 K ! F 3
STEP I: All numbers that are immediately followed by a symbol are decreased by 1.
STEP II: The letters which are immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a number are
changed to its opposite letter according to English Alphabet.
(Note: STEP II is applied after STEP I)

Q35. Which symbol is sixth to the right of the tenth element from the left end in Step II?
(a) ^
(b) @
(c) ®
(d) #
(e) ©

Q36. How many alphabets are either immediately followed or immediately preceded by a prime number in
Step I?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None

Directions (37-40): Read the given information carefully and answer the questions based on it:
Four machines (A, B, C, and D) are arranged in a production line to manufacture a specific product. Each machine
has distinct operational rules and performs a different function in the manufacturing process.
The factory works from 9:00 AM to 5:00 PM every day, and each product must pass through the machines in a specific
order to be completed. Each machine has a fixed processing time per product, but machines cannot process more
than one product at a time.

Here is the information about the machines:

Machine A: Takes 10 minutes to process a product. The products enter at 7-minute intervals starting at 9:00 AM.
Machine B: Takes 15 minutes to process a product.
It starts working only if Machine A has completed its task and sends the product forward.
Machine C: Takes 20 minutes to process a product.
It requires a 5-minute cooldown period before processing the next product.

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Machine D: Takes 12 minutes to process a product.
It can only start processing a product if it receives it before or exactly on the half-hour mark. Otherwise, the product
must wait until the next half-hour mark.
The factory stops accepting new products for processing at 4:00 PM.

Q37. Find the total number of products fully manufactured by 5:00 PM?
(a) 38
(b) 39
(c) 37
(d) 40
(e) None of these

Q38. What are the number of products entering machine A?

(a) 59
(b) 53
(c) 60
(d) 61
(e) None of these

Q39. Find the exact time the last product completes processing in Machine D.
(a) 4:55 PM
(b) 4:57 PM
(c) 4:48 PM
(d) 5:00 PM
(e) None of the above

Q40. At what time does the 6th product finish processing in Machine B?
(a) 9:45 AM
(b) 9:48 AM
(c) 9:50 AM
(d) 9:56 AM
(e) None of these

Directions (41-42): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Nine persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I – sit in two different cars: Car 1 and Car 2. The maximum number of persons
sitting in a car is 5, and the minimum number of persons sitting in a car is 3. All the information is not necessarily in
the same order.
Note: The letters that come immediately before a vowel in the English alphabet do not sit in the same car.
A doesn’t sit in the same car as E. G doesn’t sit in the same car as H. E sits in the same car as C. B doesn’t sit in the
same car as I. F doesn’t sit in the same car as I. I doesn’t sit in the same car as G. F doesn’t sit in Car 2. A doesn’t sit in
the same car as H who doesn’t sit in car 1.

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Q41. Who among the following person sit in Car 2?
(a) D
(b) G
(c) H
(d) F
(e) None of these

Q42. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Find the one which does not
belong to that group?
(a) A
(b) G
(c) F
(d) B
(e) C

Directions (43-45): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
In a certain coded language:
M@6N means M is 4m north of N.
M%9N means M is 6m south of N.
M#4N means M is 2m east of N.
M$5N means M is 2m west of N.

Conditions: A%8B, C$12B, Z#17D, E$19F, C%11E, Z@9F, G%4D, A$7R, R%14W

Q43. What is the direction of point W with respect to point F?

(a) South-west
(b) South-east
(c) North-east
(d) North-west
(e) None of these

Q44. If G#4S then what is the total distance between Point S and Point B?
(a) 47m
(b) 57m
(c) 48m
(d) 58m
(e) 60m

Q45. What is the shortest distance between Point W and Point C and Point W is in which direction with
respect to Point E?
(a) 2√59m, South-east
(b) 2√58m, South-east
(c) 3√59m, South-west
(d) 58m, South
(e) None of these

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Q46. In September 2024, India’s first Vande Bharat Sleeper trainset, which was flagged off by the Railway
Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw at Bangalore rail complex, was indigenously designed and manufactured by
which of the following leading Indian rail and metro manufacturers?
(a) Indian Railways
(b) Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL)
(c) Bharat Earth Movers Limited (BEML)
(d) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
(e) Tata Advanced Systems

Q47. According to the National Strategy for Financial Inclusion (NSFI) report released by the Reserve Bank
of India (RBI), what is the radius distance within which banking access should be provided to every village
in hilly areas with 500 households?
(a) 3 kilometers
(b) 4 kilometers
(c) 6 kilometers
(d) 5 kilometers
(e) 10 kilometers

Q48. As per the revised norms by the RBI, the ceiling on the quantum of public deposits held by deposit-
taking Housing Finance Companies (HFCs) has been reduced from 3 times of net owned funds to what revised
limit?
(a) 1.0 times
(b) 1.25 times
(c) 0.5 times
(d) 2.0 times
(e) 1.5 times

Q49. The National Centre for Financial Education (NCFE) is a Section 8 (Not-for-Profit) Company promoted
by all of the following financial sector regulators except:
(a) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
(b) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(c) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
(d) Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)
(e) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)

Q50. As of July 2024, the Indian Railways has made significant progress in implementing the Kavach system,
which involves various activities to enhance train safety. According to the latest update, on how many Route
kilometers has the Kavach system been successfully deployed?
(a) 1,220 Route km
(b) 1,465 Route km
(c) 1,750 Route km
(d) 1,305 Route km
(e) 1,511 Route km

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Q51. As of March 2024, what was the Gross Merchandise Value (GMV) achieved by the Government e-
Marketplace (GeM) during the financial year 2023-24 (FY24), reflecting a significant surge in public
procurement?
(a) ₹2.01 Lakh Crore
(b) ₹3.5 Lakh Crore
(c) ₹4 Lakh Crore
(d) ₹4.5 Lakh Crore
(e) ₹1.97 Lakh Crore

Q52. As per the Reserve Bank of India's (RBI) four-tiered regulatory framework for Urban Cooperative
Banks (UCBs), what are the minimum Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) requirements for Tier-1 UCBs and Tier
2–4 UCBs, respectively?
(a) 8% for Tier-1 and 10% for Tier 2–4
(b) 9% for Tier-1 and 12% for Tier 2–4
(c) 10% for Tier-1 and 11% for Tier 2–4
(d) 9% for Tier-1 and 10% for Tier 2–4
(e) 10% for Tier-1 and 13% for Tier 2–4

Q53. In July 2024, Meta announced the release of Llama 3.1, which is claimed to be the "world's largest and
most capable openly available foundation model." How many parameters does the most capable version of
Llama 3.1 have?
(a) 700 billion
(b) 100 billion
(c) 405 billion
(d) 200 billion
(e) 8 billion

Q54. As of October 2024, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) raised the position limit for
trading members in index futures and options contracts to what amount, or 15% of the total open interest,
whichever is higher?
(a) ₹5,700 crore
(b) ₹6,500 crore
(c) ₹7,100 crore
(d) ₹8,200 crore
(e) ₹7,500 crore

Q55. As per the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) regulations, what is the minimum Net Owned Fund (NOF)
requirement for a Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) in India to ensure financial stability and
customer protection?
(a) ₹5 crore
(b) ₹8 crore
(c) ₹12 crore
(d) ₹10 crore
(e) ₹15 crore

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Q56. The government recently extended the benefits under the Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported
Products (RoDTEP) scheme for exports made from domestic tariff area (DTA) units. Till which date has the
scheme been extended?
(a) September 30, 2025
(b) June 30, 2025
(c) March 31, 2025
(d) December 31, 2025
(e) January 31, 2026

Q57. The 80th anniversary of the D-Day landings was marked on June 6, 2024, with veterans and world
leaders gathering in Normandy, which is located in ___________?
(a) Belgium
(b) Germany
(c) United Kingdom
(d) France
(e) Italy

Q58. As of January 2024, which country has remained on the FATF's black list (high-risk jurisdictions) since
February 2020, with no material changes reported in its action plan?
(a) Iran
(b) Afghanistan
(c) North Korea
(d) Syria
(e) Myanmar

Q59. As of December 2023, which two states are among the top contributors to India's registered micro,
small, and medium enterprises (MSMEs), collectively contributing nearly 40 per cent along with Uttar
Pradesh?
(a) Karnataka and Gujarat
(b) Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu
(c) West Bengal and Rajasthan
(d) Andhra Pradesh and Telangana
(e) Punjab and Haryana

Q60. In November 2024, India signed a Memorandum of

Implementation (MoI) for the co-development of the UNICORN mast, a
stealth-enhancing conical structure for naval warships, with which of
the following countries?
(a) South Korea
(b) United States
(c) Japan
(d) Russia
(e) France

15
Q61. As per the Finance Ministry's statement, what was the net profit of Public Sector Banks (PSBs) during
the April-September period of the current fiscal year, showing a growth of 25.6% year-on-year?
(a) ₹65,000 crore
(b) ₹75,000 crore
(c) ₹95,000 crore
(d) ₹85,000 crore
(e) ₹1,05,000 crore

Q62. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), through its Payments Vision 2025 document, has laid out five key
anchor points to guide the development of India’s payment systems. Which among the following is not listed
as one of these anchor points?
(a) Integrity
(b) Innovation
(c) Institutionalisation
(d) Infrastructure
(e) Internationalisation

Q63. What is the primary objective of the "Guidelines for Prevention and Regulation of Greenwashing or
Misleading Environmental Claims, 2024," issued by the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA)?
(a) To promote the use of environmentally friendly products in industries.
(b) To prevent false or exaggerated environmental claims.
(c) To incentivize manufacturers for producing green products.
(d) To set mandatory emission reduction targets for businesses.
(e) To create a ranking system for green-certified companies.

Q64. What is the name of the Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) responsible for implementing the BharatNet
project, one of the largest rural telecom initiatives in the world?
(a) Bharat Telecom Limited
(b) Bharat Broadband Network Limited
(c) Digital India Network Limited
(d) Rural Connectivity Network Limited
(e) National Telecom Corporation

Q65. As per the 2024 Global Nature Conservation Index (NCI), India ranked 176th out of 180 countries.
Among the following, which country is not listed among the top 5 performing countries in the index?
(a) Luxembourg
(b) Estonia
(c) Finland
(d) United States
(e) Denmark

Q66. What are the revised transaction limits for UPI 123Pay and UPI Lite as per the latest guidelines issued
by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?

16
(a) ₹10,000 for UPI 123Pay and ₹5,000 for UPI Lite
(b) ₹5,000 for UPI 123Pay and ₹10,000 for UPI Lite
(c) ₹10,000 for both UPI 123Pay and UPI Lite
(d) ₹5,000 for UPI 123Pay and ₹2,000 for UPI Lite
(e) ₹7,500 for UPI 123Pay and ₹3,000 for UPI Lite

Q67. Why did the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) impose business restrictions on four non-banking finance
companies (NBFCs), including Asirvad Micro Finance Ltd and Navi Finserv Ltd (in October 2024)?
(a) Non-compliance with loan recovery practices
(b) High levels of non-performing assets (NPAs)
(c) Excessive interest rates and pricing policy violations
(d) Failure to maintain adequate capital reserves
(e) Violation of anti-money laundering guidelines

Q68. What is the minimum regulatory Common Equity Tier 1 (CET1) capital ratio that banks in India must
maintain, as per RBI guidelines?
(a) 4.5%
(b) 5.0%
(c) 5.5%
(d) 6.0%
(e) 6.5%

Q69. Which company has secured orders from Kerala Gramin Bank and Karnataka Gramin Bank for its
banking SuperApp to accelerate digital transformation?
(a) FSS Technologies
(b) Network People Services Technologies Limited
(c) NPCI International Payments Limited
(d) Infibeam Avenues
(e) PayU India

Q70. What percentage of Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) are Small Finance Banks (SFBs) required to
allocate to Priority Sector Lending (PSL)?
(a) 50%
(b) 60%
(c) 65%
(d) 75%
(e) 80%

Q71. Which Indian private sector bank recently inaugurated its first branch in Singapore after receiving a
wholesale banking license from the Monetary Authority of Singapore (MAS)?
(a) ICICI Bank
(b) Axis Bank
(c) HDFC Bank
(d) Kotak Mahindra Bank
(e) Yes Bank

17
Q72. What is the name of the launch vehicle that will be used for India’s maiden mission to Venus, scheduled
for launch in March 2028?
(a) PSLV-C57
(b) GSLV Mk-II
(c) SSLV
(d) GSLV Mk-III
(e) LVM-3

Q73. Who is the director of the film Laapata Ladies, which has been chosen as India’s official entry for the
Oscars 2025?
(a) Zoya Akhtar
(b) Kiran Rao
(c) Meghna Gulzar
(d) Gauri Shinde
(e) Reema Kagti

Q74. Which of the following government schemes offers the highest interest rate among those mentioned?
(a) Public Provident Fund (PPF)
(b) Mahila Samman Savings Certificate (MSS)
(c) National Savings Certificate (NSC)
(d) Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP)
(e) Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY)

Q75. Which fintech firm recently completed its merger with North East Small Finance Bank, consolidating
their operations and brand identities into a single institution?
(a) KreditBee
(b) ZestMoney
(c) Slice
(d) MoneyTap
(e) FlexiLoans

Q76. What is the prize money awarded to the winner of the International Booker Prize?
(a) £25,000
(b) £40,000
(c) £50,000
(d) £75,000
(e) £100,000

Q77. By which year does India aim to achieve a production capacity of 5 million metric tons of green
hydrogen annually under its Green Hydrogen Mission?
(a) 2030
(b) 2027
(c) 2025
(d) 2032
(e) 2035

18
Q78. What was the paid-up capital of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) when it started operations in 1935?
(a) ₹2 crores
(b) ₹5 crores
(c) ₹10 crores
(d) ₹15 crores
(e) ₹20 crores

Q79. The Women's Asian Champions Trophy 2024 hockey tournament was hosted from November 11 to
November 20. In which state did this tournament take place?
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Odisha
(c) Chhattisgarh
(d) Uttar Pradesh
(e) Bihar

Q80. Which Australian university recently became the second to formally start its international campus at
GIFT City in India?
(a) University of Melbourne
(b) University of Queensland
(c) University of Sydney
(d) University of Wollongong
(e) Australian National University

Q81. The Lakhpati Didi scheme, aimed at empowering women through Self-Help Groups (SHGs), is an
initiative of which ministry?
(a) Ministry of Women and Child Development
(b) Ministry of Finance
(c) Ministry of Rural Development
(d) Ministry of Labour and Employment
(e) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

Q82. What are the minimum Capital to Risk (Weighted) Assets Ratio (CRAR) requirements for urban
cooperative banks (UCBs) as prescribed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
(a) Tier 1: 8%, Tier 2 to 4: 10%
(b) Tier 1: 9%, Tier 2 to 4: 12%
(c) Tier 1: 10%, Tier 2 to 4: 15%
(d) Tier 1: 8.5%, Tier 2 to 4: 11.5%
(e) Tier 1: 7%, Tier 2 to 4: 13%

Q83. As per the latest data available as of March 2024, which state in India has emerged as the leader in
terms of the highest number of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs), contributing over 17% to
the country’s total MSMEs?

19
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Rajasthan
(e) Gujarat

Q84. In the context of Lidar, what does the letter "R" stand for?
(a) Reflection
(b) Ranging
(c) Radiation
(d) Resolution
(e) Refraction

Q85. What is the name of the winged vehicle used by ISRO in the third Reusable Launch Vehicle (RLV)
Landing Experiment (LEX-03) conducted in June 2024?
(a) Vikram
(b) Pushpak
(c) Gaganyaan
(d) Shakti
(e) Tejas

Directions (86-88): In the following question, a sentence with two highlighted phrases are given which may
or may not be grammatically correct. From the given alternatives, choose the most suitable pair of phrases
that are grammatically and contextually correct to replace the incorrect phrases.

Q86. The ongoing effort to combat neglected tropical diseases, which disproportionately affect vulnerable
populations in low-income countries, have highlighted the critical need for global collaboration.
(i) efforts for fighting neglected/ had highlighted the critical need
(ii) recent effort to combat neglected/ has highlighted the critical need
(iii) ongoing efforts to combat neglected/ have highlighted the critical need

(a) Both (ii) and (iii)

(b) Only (iii)
(c) Both (i) and (iii)
(d) Only (ii)
(e) All (i), (ii) and (iii)

Q87. The unexpected delay on releasing the much-anticipated book had

left fans disappointed, yet eager to explore the story once it becomes
available.
(i) unexpected delay in releasing / left fans disappointed yet eager
(ii) unexpected delay in releasing / has left fans disappointed yet eager
(iii) unexpected delay releasing / had left fans disappointed yet eager

20
(a) Both (i) and (ii)
(b) Only (iii)
(c) Both (ii) and (iii)
(d) Only (ii)
(e) All (i), (ii), and (iii)

Q88. The detailed analysis of financial trends by the economists did provide valuable insights, allowing investors
to make informed decisions in a volatile market.
(i) detailed analysis about / has provided valuable insights
(ii) detailed analysis of / have provided valuable insights
(iii) detailed analysis of / has provided valuable insights

(a) Both (i) and (iii)

(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (ii) and (iii)
(d) Only (iii)
(e) All (i), (ii), and (iii)

Q89. The professors’ detailed lecture about historical narratives emphasized the importance of understanding
cultural contexts, a lesson still relevant today
(i) professor’s detailed lecture of / emphasized the importance of
(ii) professor’s detailed lecture on / has emphasized the importance of
(iii) professor’s detailed lecture on / emphasized the importance of

(a) Both (i) and (ii)

(b) Only (iii)
(c) Both (ii) and (iii)
(d) Only (i)
(e) All (i), (ii), and (iii)

Q90. The skilled weaver’s intricate designs for luxurious fabrics did captivated the attention of fashion
enthusiasts and collectors at the international exhibition.
(i) skilled weaver intricate designs on / has captivated the attention
(ii) skilled weaver’s intricate designs on / have captivated the attention
(iii) skilled weaver’s intricate designs of / have captivated the attention

(a) Both (i) and (iii)

(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (ii) and (iii)
(d) Only (i)
(e) All (i), (ii), and (iii)

Directions (91): In the question below, some information is provided, followed by several alternatives. Select
the most appropriate inference that can be drawn from the given information.

21
Paragraph 1: Customer service plays a pivotal role in shaping a company's reputation and ensuring customer
satisfaction. According to recent studies, 86% of customers are willing to pay more for a better customer experience,
highlighting the critical need for businesses to prioritize service quality. Speed, efficiency, and personalization are
the top three factors customers value when interacting with service teams. Moreover, 60% of customers report
abandoning a business after a poor service experience, illustrating the tangible impact of substandard support. With
advancements in technology, tools like chatbots, customer relationship management (CRM) systems, and
omnichannel platforms have become essential for delivering seamless interactions.
Paragraph 2: In addition to technological advancements, human touch remains indispensable in fostering trust and
loyalty. Nearly 70% of customers prefer speaking to a live agent for complex issues, emphasizing the importance of
empathy and problem-solving skills in customer service roles. Companies that invest in employee training to enhance
these skills report a 23% higher satisfaction rate among customers. Furthermore, businesses that resolve complaints
quickly (within 24 hours) are 15% more likely to retain customers compared to those with delayed resolutions.
Effective customer service, therefore, is not only a differentiator but also a driver of long-term business growth and
sustainability.
(I) Companies that leverage technology in customer service while maintaining a personal touch are more likely to
build long-term customer loyalty.
(II) The data indicates that customers prefer human interaction for complex issues, so prioritizing one over the other
is not necessarily a failure but requires balance.
(III) Customer satisfaction is heavily influenced by the speed, efficiency, and empathy of customer service teams.

(a) Only (I)

(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Only (III)
(e) All (I) (II) and (III)

Directions (92-94): In the questions below, three sentences are provided. Select the most appropriate
connectors to link (A)-(B) and (B)-(C) respectively to form a cohesive sentence without altering the given
context.

Q92. (A) The students worked tirelessly on their group project, researching extensively and compiling their findings
into a detailed report,
(B) they faced numerous challenges, such as conflicting schedules and limited resources,
(C) they managed to submit their work on time, impressing their professor with their dedication and collaborative
effort
(i) although
(ii) while
(iii) and yet
(iv) which

(a) ii, iv
(b) i, iii
(c) i, ii
(d) iii, iv
(e) ii, iii

22
Q93. (A) The company introduced a new product line aimed at younger consumers,
(B) the initial feedback from the market was mixed, highlighting both strengths and areas for improvement,
(C) the sales team decided to focus on promotional campaigns to address consumer concerns.
(i) because
(ii) despite
(iii) and therefore
(iv) however

(a) i, iii
(b) ii, iii
(c) ii, iv
(d) i, iv
(e) iii, iv

Q94. (A) The team worked late into the night to finalize the presentation,
(B) they discovered a critical error in their analysis,
(C) they resolved the issue and delivered the presentation successfully.
(i) although
(ii) because
(iii) and
(iv) however

(a) ii, iii

(b) ii, iv
(c) i, iv
(d) iii, ii
(e) i, iii

Directions (95): Read the given information and answer the question asked on it.

The office was bustling with activity when suddenly everything broke down (i) – the main server had conked out
(ii). Emails stopped syncing, access to shared files was cut off, and essential software froze mid-operation, leaving
employees staring at their screens in confusion. The IT team jumped in (iii) to identify the root cause of the issue
while the rest of the office tried to figure out (iv) how to salvage ongoing tasks. Managers handed out (v) offline
work to keep productivity from plummeting, but critical projects relying on real-time collaboration fell behind.
Frustration built up (vi) as phone lines buzzed with client concerns, while the IT head worked tirelessly to restore
the system from backups. Hours of downtime felt like an eternity, serving as a harsh reminder of the office’s
dependency on technology and the importance of having a reliable disaster recovery plan.

Choose the correct pair of phrasal verbs that has the same meaning.
(a) i-ii
(b) iii-v
(c) v-vi
(d) ii-v
(e) iv-vi

23
Directions (96-97): Read the following conversation between X and Y, and answer the given question.
X: Have you noticed the product's performance? It has significantly alienating (A) lately.
Y: Absolutely. It’s plagued with glitches now—seems like some underlying malfunctions (B).
X: I tried to troubleshoot, but their support only offered deficiencies (C) like rebooting.
Y: Typical. They really need to focus (D) on addressing these issues instead of avoiding accountability.
X: True. If they don’t resolve this, they’ll end up deteriorated (E) loyal customers like us.
Y: I’ll draft a formal complaint. It’s time they addressed these recurring stopgap measures (F).
X: Good idea. Let me know—otherwise, a switch to a competitor seems inevitable.

Q96. Which of the following is correct sequence of the words after the rearrangement?
(a) E-A and F-C
(b) A-C and B-D
(c) F-C and A-D
(d) E-A and B-D
(e) A-B and C-F

Q97. Which of the following is the synonym of the word “FOCUS”?

(a) converge
(b) concentrate
(c) centralize
(d) define
(e) present

Directions (98-102): Read the following passage and answer the given questions.
Online marketing has dramatically reshaped the way products and services are presented, especially for younger
audiences who dominate the digital space. Platforms like social media, streaming services, and personalized ads are
central to this transformation, relying on advanced algorithms to tailor promotional content. For youth, this means a
daily influx of messages that are often indistinguishable from entertainment.
This digital strategy significantly shapes the purchasing habits of young people. Continuous exposure to targeted ads
tends to drive impulsive shopping, fueled further by the endorsements of influencers. These influencers, who often
appear relatable, lend authenticity to promotions, making them far more persuasive than traditional advertisements.
As a result, young consumers are not just passive buyers but active trendsetters, analyzing market demands in a
predictive manner.
However, there is a downside to this influence. Online marketing frequently glamorizes products, portraying
lifestyles that many young people aspire to but may not realistically achieve. Such aspirational content can result in
financial strain as they attempt to keep up with these idealized images. Additionally, this constant exposure to rapid,
attention-grabbing content is thought to contribute to shorter attention spans among the younger generation.
Despite these concerns, there are notable benefits to online marketing for youth. It offers them access to a wide
range of products and the ability to make more informed decisions through reviews and comparisons. For young
entrepreneurs, digital platforms serve as a springboard for showcasing their products and reaching a global
audience. Yet, ethical questions loom large, particularly around privacy and the use of personal data, as companies
strive to maximize profits without always considering consumer well-being.
In essence, online marketing is a double-edged sword. It has brought convenience and innovation, but its implications
for youth demand ongoing attention to ensure that its influence remains positive and balanced.

24
Q98. What dual nature of online marketing's influence on youth is emphasized in the passage?
(a) It promotes both financial independence among youth by offering comparative purchasing tools and impulsive
buying through emotional advertisements driven by influencers.
(b) It simultaneously provides access to a diverse range of products and services through online platforms and
creates unrealistic lifestyle aspirations through glamorized marketing strategies.
(c) It fosters shorter attention spans among youth due to constant exposure to high-speed, engaging content, while
also promoting financial discipline through structured promotional campaigns.
(d) It enables market dominance by social media influencers who shape consumer trends, while diminishing the
relatability of conventional celebrity endorsements.
(e) It glamorizes consumerism and aspirational lifestyles, reducing the focus on product quality and customer
satisfaction in the marketing narrative.

Q99. How does the role of influencers in online marketing contrast with traditional advertisements, as
described in the passage?
(a) Influencers help curb impulsive purchasing tendencies by fostering trust through personalized endorsements,
unlike traditional advertisements which rely on broad and impersonal messaging strategies.
(b) Influencers focus on driving trends through their social media presence and interactive content, which contrasts
with traditional advertisements that primarily aim to reinforce brand identity through repetitive visual and auditory
cues.
(c) Influencers depend on advanced algorithmic analysis of youth behavior to deliver targeted content, unlike
traditional advertisements which are created based on extensive focus group studies and demographic assumptions.
(d) Influencers contribute to a sense of relatability and authenticity by endorsing products in a personal context,
whereas traditional advertisements often lack this individual connection and rely on generalized promotional
content.
(e) Influencers entirely replace the need for personalized marketing by integrating into the audience's lifestyle,
unlike traditional ads which are largely ineffective in delivering tailored messages.

Q100. Choose the most appropriate phrase to replace “serve as a springboard” without altering the context.
(a) Act as a launching pad
(b) Function as a stepping stone
(c) Provide a direct solution
(d) Serve as a barrier to entry
(e) Offer a restrictive pathway

Q101. Choose the most appropriate phrase to replace the highlighted

phrase “analyzing market demands in a predictive manner”.
(a) Forecasting consumer trends based on available insights
(b) Shaping consumer expectations with limited foresight
(c) Driving impulsive purchases in response to evolving ads
(d) Steering market demands in unprecedented ways
(e) Reacting passively to marketing trends and patterns

Q102. Choose the most suitable synonym of “OFFERS” as used in the

passage.

25
(a) Eliminates
(b) Predicts
(c) Provides
(d) Proposes
(e) Foresees

Directions (103-108): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been denoted by letters.
For each blank each, three words are suggested. Following the words, five options are given. Choose the most
appropriate set of words from the options that fits the blank appropriately.

The recruitment landscape in Europe has evolved significantly, driven by globalization and the proliferation of
sophisticated technologies. Employers increasingly prioritize processes that are ______________(A) (A: (I) equitable,
(II) antiquated, (III) rational) to attract a wider talent pool. Moreover, the introduction of artificial intelligence (AI)
has transformed candidate screening, making it more ______________(B) (B: (I) incisive, (II) haphazard, (III)
perfunctory). However, despite these advancements, recruiters face challenges in ensuring their hiring practices
remain ______________(C) (C: (I) capricious, (II) myopic, (III) scrupulous).
Diversity and inclusion have also emerged as crucial factors, compelling organizations to adopt ______________(D) (D:
incongruous (I), (II) synergistic, (III) symbiotic) strategies to foster a collaborative workplace culture.
Furthermore, navigating Europe's stringent labor laws requires companies to remain ______________(E) (E: (I),
recalcitrant (II) compliant, (III) apathetic) in their operations. Even so, the ever-growing competition for skilled
professionals has made the recruitment process increasingly ______________(F) (F: (I) onerous, (II) relinquishing,
(III) demanding).

Q103. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (A)?
(a) Both (II) and (III)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Only (I)
(e) Both (I) and (II)

Q104. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (B)?
(a) Both (II) and (III)
(b) Only (III)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Only (I)
(e) Both (I) and (II)

Q105. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (C)?
(a) Both (II) and (III)
(b) Only (III)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Only (I)
(e) Both (I) and (II)

26
Q106. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (D)?
(a) Both (II) and (III)
(b) Only (III)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Only (I)
(e) Both (I) and (II)

Q107. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (E)?
(a) Both (II) and (III)
(b) Only (III)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Only (I)
(e) Only (II)

Q108. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (F)?
(a) Both (II) and (III)
(b) Only (III)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Only (I)
(e) Both (I) and (II)

Directions (109-110): Read the following passage and answer the given questions.

Chinese horoscope platforms embody a profound synthesis of antiquated astrological tenets and modern
interpretative mechanisms. Unlike the heliocentric predilections of Western astrology, the Chinese zodiac operates
on a dodecennial framework, wherein each annum is governed by a specific zoological archetype—such as the Rat,
Dragon, or Ox—paired with one of the five metaphysical elements: Wood, Fire, Earth, Metal, or Water. These elements,
perpetually oscillating in an intricate cyclical sequence, infuse each zodiac year with distinctive energetic attributes.
The prognostications are further nuanced by the application of "BaZi," or the Four Pillars of Destiny, which
meticulously delineates the celestial influences of an individual’s natal year, month, day, and hour. This methodology
integrates "heavenly stems" and "earthly branches" to construct a symbiotic matrix of cosmic energies. Practitioners
extrapolate these esoteric alignments to proffer bespoke insights into realms such as professional trajectories,
interpersonal dynamics, and corporeal well-being, emphasizing consonance with universal rhythms.
This ancient paradigm underscores an intricate amalgamation of philosophical profundity and contemporary
digitized execution.
Q109. What distinguishes the Chinese zodiac’s framework from Western astrology, as explained in the
passage?
(a) Chinese zodiac forecasts are anchored exclusively in metaphysical constructs, contrasting with Western
astrology's foundation on heliocentric principles.
(b) Western astrology adheres to a twelve-year cyclical framework, whereas the Chinese zodiac emphasizes
planetary configurations.
(c) The Chinese zodiac integrates animal archetypes with a quintet of recurring elements, diverging from the annual
orientation of Western astrology.

27
(d) The Chinese zodiac employs the BaZi methodology exclusively, in contrast to Western astrology's reliance on fixed
celestial reference points.
(e) Western astrology integrates terrestrial branches, whereas the Chinese zodiac derives its framework solely from
constellational patterns.

Q110. What can be inferred about the relationship between "heavenly stems" and "earthly branches" in BaZi
analysis?
(a) They function in isolation to delineate universal cadences for zodiacal interpretations.
(b) They center exclusively on physical vitality, exerting negligible influence on relational or occupational analyses.
(c) They are archaic constructs omitted from the purview of contemporary Chinese astrological methodologies.
(d) They hinge solely on the natal year to derive both vocational and personal astrological prognostications.
(e) They constitute an interdependent framework employed to elucidate cosmic influences shaping an individual’s
essence.

Directions (111-112): Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the proper sequence
to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the question given below.

Q111.
(A) Early identification of mental health issues can lead to better outcomes.
(B) Stigma around mental health often prevents people from seeking help.
(C) Mental health plays a crucial role in overall well-being.
(D) Support systems, like therapy and counseling, can aid recovery effectively.
(E) Promoting awareness and open conversations is vital for breaking the stigma.

(a) BCADE
(b) CBEAD
(c) DCBAE
(d) CBEAD
(e) DACBE

Q112.
(A) Establishing a dedicated Indian cybersecurity force is crucial to counter threats.
(B) The rise in cybercrime threatens critical sectors like banking and defense.
(C) Strengthening cybersecurity infrastructure can protect sensitive data and national interests.
(D) India’s rapid digital transformation has made it a target for cyberattacks.
(E) Coordinated efforts between the government and private sectors are essential for success.

(a) BCADE
(b) ADCBE
(c) DBCAE
(d) BDCAE
(e) DACBE

Directions (113-120): Read the following passage and answer the given questions.

28
Japan is grappling with a demographic crisis as it faces the reality of being one of the oldest nations in the world.
Recent data shows that more than 10% of Japan’s population is aged 80 or older, while 29% are over the age of 65.
This aging population, coupled with a declining birth rate, is putting unprecedented pressure on Japan’s government
and economy. Projections estimate that the population could shrink from its current 125 million to around 96 million
by 2060. By that time, nearly 40% of the population will be over 65, a demographic scenario unparalleled in modern
history.
Recognizing the urgency, the Japanese administration has initiated a quick and lighten movement towards solutions.
Policymakers are implementing reforms at an accelerated pace to address the challenges posed by this demographic
shift. Key strategies include providing (A) older citizens to participate (B) in the workforce and encouraging (C)
incentives for women to remain (D) more actively in the job market. In tandem, efforts to modernize industries are
being supported by technological advancements such as robotics and artificial intelligence, which are increasingly
used to fill labor gaps in eldercare and manufacturing.
Despite these measures, the situation remains complex. Healthcare and pension costs account for approximately
30% of public expenditure, and sustaining the pension system is becoming increasingly difficult. By 2050, there will
be nearly one retiree for every working-age person, a stark contrast to the 1970s when the ratio was 1:4. The
administration’s lighten movement also focuses on incentivizing higher birth rates by investing in childcare
subsidies, parental leave policies, and family support programs. However, societal preferences for smaller families
persist, complicating these efforts.
Culturally, Japan’s historically restrictive stance on immigration continues to slow progress in diversifying the
workforce. While immigration reform has been explored, achieving substantial change requires overcoming deep-
rooted societal resistance.
Japan’s quick and lighten movement reflects a determined approach to tackling this demographic crisis, but the road
ahead demands multifaceted solutions and cultural shifts. The country’s experience serves as a global case study,
offering lessons for nations facing similar demographic transitions.

Q113. According to the passage, what does the phrase “quick and lighten movement” primarily emphasize in
Japan’s approach to its aging population crisis?
(a) A hastily implemented series of policies aimed at completely eliminating the aging population issue by 2050,
focusing on youth-oriented solutions.
(b) A strategic and accelerated implementation of multifaceted measures to address the challenges of a declining
workforce and rising dependency ratios.
(c) A symbolic gesture by the Japanese government to highlight technological advancements in eldercare without
addressing broader societal concerns.
(d) A temporary shift in policy to test immigration-based solutions, primarily designed to delay the effects of an aging
population.
(e) A movement to decentralize administrative authority, empowering local governments to manage aging-related
issues independently.

Q114. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage regarding the global relevance of Japan’s
demographic crisis?
(a) Japan’s aging population serves as an isolated case study with minimal implications for nations with diverse
demographics and robust birth rates.

29
(b) The challenges faced by Japan highlight the importance of cultural adaptability in implementing effective
immigration reforms.
(c) Other nations with aging populations must adopt Japan’s robotics and AI strategies to completely resolve their
demographic challenges.
(d) Japan’s experience underscores the need for immediate global attention to pension sustainability and workforce
management as universal concerns.
(e) Comprehensive government intervention alone is sufficient to address the issues of aging populations worldwide.

Q115. If the trend of Japan’s population shrinking to 96 million by 2060 continues, what might be inferred
about its global economic ranking?
(a) Japan will likely maintain its economic position due to advances in automation and exports.
(b) Japan’s economy may contract due to a reduced labor force and declining domestic demand.
(c) The shrinking population will attract foreign investment to fill labor and productivity gaps.
(d) Japan will experience sustained economic growth through technological leadership.
(e) The demographic trends will have minimal impact on Japan's global economic role.

Q116. Which of the following accurately reflects Japan’s strategies to cope with its aging population?
(I) Encouraging older citizens to continue working while adopting robotics to fill labor gaps.
(II) Providing substantial childcare subsidies to boost the birth rate and offset the shrinking workforce.
(III) Rapidly expanding immigration policies to increase the workforce and reduce dependency ratios.

(a) Only (I)

(b) Both (I) and (II)
(c) Only (III)
(d) Both (II) and (III)
(e) All (I), (II), and (III)

Q117. Choose the correct interchange of words to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.
(a) A-C
(b) A-B
(c) B-D
(d) A-C and B-D
(e) A-D and B-C

Q118. Choose the most suitable word which has the similar meaning
as “stark” used in the passage.
(a) Sharp
(b) Bright
(c) Subtle
(d) Indistinct
(e) Modest

Q119. Which of the following issues are identified as key challenges for Japan’s pension system in the
passage?
30
(I) A rising dependency ratio that reduces the number of working-age individuals relative to retirees.
(II) Insufficient technological integration to streamline the management of pension funds.
(III) Increasing healthcare costs due to the growing elderly population.

(a) Only (I)

(b) Both (I) and (II)
(c) Only (II)
(d) Both (I) and (III)
(e) All (I), (II), and (III)

Q120. What does the passage imply about the role of historical factors in shaping Japan’s current
demographic situation?
(a) Historical immigration policies have contributed significantly to the rising percentage of elderly citizens.
(b) Past declines in birth rates have compounded the current population decline and aging demographic.
(c) Japan’s historical focus on industrial growth has stabilized population trends over time.
(d) The aging population trend in Japan is unrelated to historical factors and is solely a recent development.
(e) Historical increases in fertility rates have delayed the aging population crisis until now.

Directions (121-126): Read the following table carefully and answer the questions given below. The table
shows the total number of cars manufactured, the total number of cars sold, and the total number of cars
unsold by four companies.
Total cars
Companies Total cars sold Total cars unsold
manufactured
A P Z ----
4
B P+150 8 𝑋 ----
7

C 900 648 3X
𝑃
D ---- 2Z+132 + 150
3
Note: (i) Total cars unsold by D is 1/3rd of the total cars sold by the company.
(ii) Total cars sold by all the companies are 3552.

Q121. Total number of cars manufactured by E is P/25 % more than that of C. If the total number of cars
unsold by E is 5Z/9, then find the total number of cars sold by E.
(a) P - 6²
(b) Z + 214
(c) X + 8³
(d) (P+X)/5
(e) (P-Z+X)÷3

31
Q122. The total number of non-defective cars sold by B is X/4+39 and the remaining are defective cars sold.
If the total number of defective cars sold by D are double that of B, then find which of the following
statement/s is/are true.
I. The difference between the total number of non-defective cars sold by B and D is 120.
II. The total number of defective cars sold by D is more than the total number of cars unsold by A.
III. The total number of defective cars sold by B is less than total number of cars manufactured by C.
(a) Only I
(b) Only III
(c) Both I & III
(d) Both I & II
(e) All I, II & III

𝒁 𝑿
Q123. (𝟒 + 𝟔 ) of the total number of cars manufactured by A are SUV and rest are hatchback. The total
number of SUV sold cars by A is P/15. Find which of the following statement/s is/are false.
I. Total number of SUV cars unsold by A < Total number of hatchback cars sold by A
II. Total number of hatchback cars manufactured by A > Total number of cars manufactured by C.
III. Total number of SUV cars unsold by A = Total number of cars sold by D
(a) Both II & III
(b) Both I & III
(c) Both I & II
(d) None
(e) Only II

Q124. The total number of cars sold by F is (7X+Z+12)/2 and the total number of cars unsold by F is 2P. Find
which of the following option is correct about the difference between the total cars manufactured by F and
A & C together.
(a) 5P/3
(b) 2(P-X)
(c) (X+Z)/3
(d) X+146
(e) P -258

Q125. If the average of the number of unsold cars by A, C and B is Y and the average of the number of cars
manufactured by C and D is 5Q, then find which of the following statement/s is/are true.
I. P-Z < Q
II. Y+X > P
III. Y-Q = X-8
(a) only III
(b) Only II
(c) Both I & II
(d) Both I & III
(e) All I, II & III

32
Q126. Total number of cars unsold by A and B together is what percentage more or less than the total number
of cars sold by D.
(a) (2X-P/25)%
(b) (P-1.5Z)%
(c) ((P+X)/50)%
(d) (X/2+1.6)%
(e) None of these

Direction (127-130): Solve the given series and answer the following questions.
Series: a + 15, a+ 16.2, a+18.6, _____, _______, M
Note: (i) x and y are prime number less than 10. (y>x)
(ii) xy = a
(iii) 2a = 10y.

Q127. Find which of the series follows the same pattern as above series.
I. 25.8, 27, 29.4, 33, 37.8, 43.8
II. 112, 113.2, 115.6, 119.2, 124, 130
III. 325, 326.2, 328.6, 332.2, 337, 343
(a) Both I & II
(b) Both I & III
(c) All I, II & IIII
(d) None of the above
(e) Only I

Q128. Find the seventh term of the given series.

(a) 75.2
(b) 68
(c) 83.6
(d) 77.2
(e) 92.8

Q129. Find the value of M.

(a) 9y + x
(b) 12x + 8
(c) 2a - 2
(d) All (a), (b) & (c)
(e) None of the above

Q130. If 7 is added to the value of 2a, then the resultant is?

(a) Divisible by 7
(b) Multiple of 11
(c) Prime number
(d) (a) & (b)
(e) None of the these

33
Q131. A bus can cover x km distance with speed of p km/hr in four hours. The speed of stream is q km/hr
and a boat covers x km distance in downstream & upstream with speed of p km/hr in total 9 hours. If boat
takes 1 hour more to cover 30 km upstream that 20 km downstream, find the value of ‘x’?
(a) 3p + 2q
(b) 60 + 2q + 30
(c) 5q + p
(d) (1.5p + 4q) + 35
(e) 4q + 2p

Q132. Which of the statement is/are not required to find the age of Raj after 6 years.
(i) Simran is eight years younger to Raj.
(ii) Mohit is four years elder to Mahi.
(iii) Mahi is 10 years younger to Raj.
(iv) The ratio of present age of Simran and Mahi is 5:4.

(a) Both (i) and (ii)

(b) Only (ii)
(c) Only (iii)
(d) Both (iv) & (ii)
(e) Only (i)

Q133. Find the difference between average temperature on Saturday and Tuesday together and average
temperature on Wednesday and Saturday together.
(i) The average temperature on Saturday, Tuesday and Wednesday is 45 degrees.
(ii) The sum of temperature on Tuesday and Wednesday is 115 degrees.
(iii) Sum of temperature on Tuesday and Saturday is degrees 80.

(a) 2.5
(b) 5.5
(c) 6.5
(d) 11.5
(e) 12.5

Directions (134-139): Read the following bar graph and line chart
carefully and answer the questions given below. The bar graph shows
total number of balls (Red, Green and Blue) in four different bags. The
line graph shows the probability of picking a red ball from bag A and C
and the probability of picking green ball from bag B and D each.

34
 50

45

40

35

30

25

20

15

10

0
A B C D

Total number of balls (Red, Green and Blue)

0.7

0.6

0.5

0.4

0.3

0.2

0.1

0
Probability of picking red Probability of picking Probability of picking red Probability of picking
ball from bag A green ball from bag B ball from bag C green ball from bag D

Q134. If the number of red balls increased by 30% in bag A and the number of green balls in bag A is 1/7th of
the bag B, then the number of blue balls in bags A and C are equal. Find which of the following statement/s
is/are true.
I. The difference between the probability of picking a red ball from bag A and the probability of picking a blue ball
from bag B is 0.1.
II. The difference between the number of green balls in bags B and D is 13.
III. The average number of red balls in bags A and C is 9.

35
(a) Both (I) & (III)
(b) Both (II) & (III)
(c) Both (I) & (III)
(d) Only (I)
(e) Only (II)

Q135. If the number of blue balls in bag C is more than 8 and the number of blue balls in bag C is more than
the number of green balls in that bag. The number of green balls in bag C is a prime number. Which of the
following statement/s is/are correct.
I. The total number of red and blue balls in bag D can be equal to the number of blue balls in bag C.
II. The probability of picking a blue ball form bag C is less than 0.75.
III. The sum of probability of picking a green ball from bag B and the probability of picking a blue ball from bag C is
always greater than one.
(a) Both (II) & (III)
(b) Only (I)
(c) All (I), (II) & (III)
(d) Only (II)
(e) Both (I) & (II)

Q136. The total number of balls in bag E is 25 and the probability of picking a blue ball in bag E is 0.2. The
number of red balls in bag D is three times of the number of blue balls in bag E. Find which of the statement/s
is/are correct.
I. The difference between the blue balls in bag E and red balls in bag D is 9.
II. The probability of picking blue ball in bag D in less than 1/15.
III. The probability of picking two red balls from bag D is 7/66.
(a) Only I
(b) Both I & II
(c) Both II & III
(d) Only III
(e) None of these

Q137. The number of green balls in C is one-third that in D. If the two balls picked from bag C, then find the
probability of blue ball.
(a) 11/60
(b) 13/60
(c) 7/60
(d) 19/60
(e) 23/60

Q138. If average number of red balls in bag D and C is 8, then find which of the statement/s is/are correct.
I. The number of blue balls in bag D is more than red ball in bag A.
II. The number of red balls in bag D is less than that in bag A.
III. The number of green balls in bag B is twice the red balls in bag D.

36
(a) Only I
(b) Both I & II
(c) None
(d) Only III
(e) None of these

Q139. The number of blue balls in bag A is 5 less than the difference between the number of green balls in
bags B and D. If the average number of green balls in all four bags is 12, then the difference between the
number of blue balls in bag C and the number of green balls in bag A is ‘P’. Which of the following option is
correct about ‘P’.
(a) P is multiple of 11
(b) P is a prime number
(c) Both (b) & (d)
(d) 65 is completely divisible by P
(e) Both (a) & (b)

Q140. X liters of mixture contain milk and water. Water is 20% in the mixture. Follow the steps one after
another in the given order.
I. b liters of water is added, and the percentage of water in the mixture becomes 25%.
II. b liters of mixture is removed.
III. 1.5b liters of milk are added.
Find the final quantity of the mixture after completing these three steps.
(a) 16.5b
(b) 18.5b
(c) 17.5b
(d) 12.5b
(e) 15.5b

Directions (141-143): Solve the given equations and answer the question given below.
I. 𝐴𝑥 2 + 5𝑥 + 6 = 0 III. 𝑢2 + 7𝑢 + 12 = 0

II. 𝐵𝑦 2 − 13𝑦 + 20 = 0 IV. 𝑣 2 − 9𝑣 + 20 = 0

Note: (i) Sum of co-efficient of x2, x, y2 and y is -5.
(ii) Roots of all the equations are non-imaginary.
(iii) Both A & B are positive integers.

Q141. Find the difference between the larger root of equation IV and smallest root of equation II.
(a) 2.5
(b) 4
(c) 1.5
(d) 2
(e) 3.5

37
Q142. Find the product of the larger root of equation I and smaller root of equation IV.
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) -4
(d) -8
(e) 10

Q143. If 6 is subtract from smaller root of equation III and add the resultant to the value of B, then find the
square of the resultant number.
(a) 225
(b) 64
(c) 81
(d) 144
(e) 121

Directions (144-148): Read the following bar graphs carefully and answer the questions given below. The
bar graphs shows discount percentage given on marked price of four different items in 2022 and 2024.
Note: (i) The marked price of an item can be same or different in both years.
(ii) The cost price of an item can be same or different in both the years.
20 30

18
25
16
14 20
12
10 15
8
10
6
4 5
2
0 0
P Q R S P Q R S

Percnetage of discount in 2022 Percnetage of discount in 2024

Q144. The marked price of item S in 2022 is Rs 836 more than the profit earned by selling this item in 2022,
whereas the profit percentage in selling item S in 2022 is 25%. Then find the marked price of item D in 2022.
(a) Rs 1000
(b) Rs 800
(c) Rs 450
(d) Rs 550
(e) Rs 1200

38
Q145. If the marked price of Q is twice the marked price of P in 2022, then find the ratio of the selling prices
of P and Q in 2022.
(a) 43:90
(b) 41:90
(c) 44:89
(d) 42:89
(e) 41:91

Q146. The ratio of the selling price of items R and S in 2024 is 2:5 and the profit on selling items R and S in
2024 is 20% and 25% respectively. Find the cost price of item R is what percentage of the cost price of item
S in 2024.
(a) 43.33%
(b) 49.25%
(c) 42.83%
(d) 44.5%
(e) 41.67%

Q147. The ratio of the marked price of Q and R in 2024 is 3:4, and item R is sold at a profit of 60%, and the
difference between the cost price and the selling price of R in 2024 is Rs 960. If the marked price of Q in 2022
and 2024 is same, then find the selling price of Q in 2022.
(a) Rs 2160
(b) Rs 2240
(c) Rs 2040
(d) Rs 2350
(e) Rs 2550

Q148. If the cost price of P in 2022 and 2024 is equal, then find the ratio of selling price of A in 2022 to 2024.
(a) Rs 160
(b) Can’t be determined
(c) Rs 240
(d) Rs 350
(e) None of these

Directions (149-152): Read the following pie chart and table carefully
and answer the questions given below. The pie chart shows the
percentage and degree distribution of the total number of students in
four different institutions that provide skill development courses. The
table shows the given institutions provide training for students to
another institution.

39
Q149. If the total number of students in E is (Y+5)% more than that of B and out of total students in E 4X% is
number of girls, then find which of the statement/s is/are correct.
I. The number of students in E > D provides training to students.
II. The number of boys in E < A provides training to students.
III. The number of girls in E = C provides training to students
(a) Only III
(b) Only I
(c) Both II & III
(d) Both I & III
(e) Both I & II

Q150. If the difference between the C provides training to students and total number of students in D is Z,
then find which of the following option is correct about Z.
(a) X²
(b) Y²
(c) (Y-X)²
(d) Y/X
(e) Both (a) & (c)

Q151. If A provides training to only C’s students and B provide training to only D’s students, then, the average
number of students provides training by A and B is P, then find which of the statement/s is/are incorrect.
I. P is completely divisible by 5² II. P > X×Y III. P/ X = 2.5Y
(a) Only III
(b) Only I
(c) Only II
(d) Both I & II
(e) Both II & III

Q152. If the total number of students in F is Y/5 times of the number of students provide training by C and
the A provides training to F’s students, then find the ratio of the total number of students provides training
by A and B.
40
(a) 5:11
(b) 11:5
(c) 6:11
(d) 4:11
(e) 11:9

Q153. A man has two articles A and B, to find the selling price of article B which statement or statements
is/are required to answer the question.
A. Total amount received by man after selling six article A and four article B is Rs.240, Form this total amount either
man could buy nine article A & four article B or three article A and eight article B.
B. The ratio of profit percent on selling article A and article B is same.
C. Total profit earned on selling one article B is Rs. 6 and profit percentage on selling one article A is 25%. The selling
price and the cost price of article B are Rs.10 and Rs.8 more
than that of article A respectively.
(a) Either A and B together or B and C together are sufficient to answer the question
(b) Either A and B together or C alone is sufficient to answer the question
(c) Either A and C together or B and C together are sufficient to answer the question
(d) A, B and C together are sufficient to answer the question
(e) Either only B or A and C together are sufficient to answer the question

Q154. The question is followed by three statements I, II and III. You have to determine which statement or
statements (s) is/are sufficient/necessary to answer the question and mark answer accordingly.
The slant height of a cone is x cm. If side of a square is (x+5) cm, then find the area of the square.
I. The ratio of diameter of cone to its height is 3 : 2.
II. The base and height of a cylinder is same as base and height of the cone respectively. Volume of the cylinder is
4500𝜋 cm3.
III. Total surface area of the cone is 600𝜋 cm2 and curved surface area of the cone is 375𝜋 cm2.
(a) Statement II and III together sufficient to answer the question
(b) Statement III alone is sufficient to answer the question
(c) All the three statements taken together are necessary to answer the question
(d) Statement I and II together sufficient but III alone not sufficient
(e) Either statement I and II together or statement III alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Q155. Two containers A and B contains mixture of milk and water. Container A contains milk & water in the
ratio of 3:5 and milk in container B is 75%. The total quantity of mixture in container A to B is 500x liters &
400y liters. If mixture A is mixed with mixture B, then which statement (s) is/are sufficient/necessary to find
the total quantity of container A (in liters).
I. The sum of quantity of milk in container A and B is 195 liters.
II. The quantity of water in container A is 85 liters more than that of B.
(a) Either (I) alone or (II) alone
(b) Only (I)
(c) Only (II)
(d) Both (I) and (II)
(e) None of them

41