BEVAE-181 Question and Answers
BEVAE-181 Question and Answers
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BEVAE -181 ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES
1. Who was the chairperson of the committee that submitted
the report titled “Our Common Future” ?
11. Which one of the following forests has the most diverse
communities ?
(1) Coniferous forest (2) Temperate evergreen forest
(3) Tropical rainforest (4) Sub-tropical rainforest
(1) 30 (2) 50
(3) 33 (4) 25
22. Which one of the following is not true about India as a mega bio
(1) India has ten biogeographic regions.
(2) India is one of the 12 centres of origin of cultivated plants.
(3) India has 6 hotspots out of 34 global biodiversity hotspots.
(4) India has two major realms and three biomes.
23. In India the first wave and tidal energy project was set up at :
(1) Vizhinjam in Kerala
(2) Hansthal Creek in Gujarat
(3) Sunderbans in West Bengal
(4) Chennai in Tamil Nadu
24. Which one of the following sources contributes maximum
electricity in India ?
(1) Hydropower (2) Oil
(3) Coal (4) Natural gas
Wetlands States
Types Hazards
Codes :
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv (4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
40. Which one of the following is not a factor for the creation of
new set of environmental ethics ?
9. The unattached organism in an aquatic ecosystem which lives at the interface of air-
water is known as:
- (1) Neuston
10. In ocean, the ____ zone is shallow and rich in species with high productivity.
- (1) Littoral
11. Which one of the following forests has the most diverse communities?
- (3) Tropical rainforest
12. Loss of water in vapor form from the plant is known as:
- (4) Transpiration
14. The type of soil found in the Deccan Malwa plateau of Western and Central India is:
- (1) Black soil
15. Which one of the following is not a major cause of land degradation?
- (3) Development of watershed
16. Which one of the following statements about the tropical rainforest is not correct?
- (4) The rainforests are only found around Amazon and Nile basin.
17. It has been estimated that India needs ____ percentage area under forest to meet the
ecological and economic needs.
- (3) 33
19. Which one of the following diversity is known as the “fundamental currency of
diversity”?
- (4) Both genetic and species diversity
20. Which one of the following biogeographic zones covers the largest area in India?
- (2) The Deccan peninsula
21. About two-thirds of India’s endemic plants are confined to:
- (4) The Western Ghats
22. Which one of the following is not true about India as a mega biodiversity country?
- (4) India has two major realms and three biomes.
23. In India, the first wave and tidal energy project was set up at:
- (1) Vizhinjam in Kerala
24. Which one of the following sources contributes maximum electricity in India?
- (3) Coal
25. Which one of the following sources of energy is used most in rural India?
- (4) Biomass
26. Maximum population that can be supported by the resources of the planet at a given
level of technology is known as:
- (4) Sustainable carrying capacity
28. Which one of the following is an invasive species in the semi-arid areas of India?
- (3) Mesquite
37. Which one of the following methods is generally used when many industries and urban
areas do not have enough vacant space for disposal of wastes?
- (3) Incineration
38. The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) was established in:
- (3) 1987
39. Maximum concentration of ozone is found in:
- (2) Stratosphere
40. Silent valley is located along the river:
- (1) Periyar
PART:2
Ql. The concept of Determinism was developed by: (a} Friedrich Ratzel
Q2. The concept of Sustainable Development was formally de- fined in the report titled
Q4. Any adulterated elements leak. into the ground, filtration, and are carried into a
groundwater reservoir is known as
Q6. Which of the following options is correct when we only ac- complish two out of three
pillars of sustainable development?
Q7. In which year did the word 'sustainable development' come into existence?
(a} 1992
Q8. In which year was the United Nations Commission on Sustainable Development
(CSD} started by the UN General Assembly?
(a} 1995
(b} 1994
(c} 1993
(cl} 1992
Q9. After mining, the huge holes left behind are used for
(cl} Restore
Ql3. Which of the following options is not incorporated as sus- tainable development
parameters?
Ql4. Environmental studies is defined as the branch that deals with the:
(d} Approach about the natural world and the impact of humans on its integrity.
Ans. (d) Approach about the natural world and the impact of humans on its integrity.
(b} It is the first crocodile conservation breeding center in Asia. (c} It was established in
1916 to do an organized survey of fauna in India.
(a} 5(:)%
(b} 15%
(c} 33%
(d} 44%
Ql8. Which two countries of the world constitute about 57% of the large dams7
(a} India and China (b} India and Brazil (c} China and Brazil (d} India and Japan
Ql9. The essential non-metallic minerals are: (a} Granite, marble, limestone
(c} Iron, aluminum, zinc, copper (d} Coal, clay, cement, silica Ans. (d) Coal, clay, cement,
silica
Q2<:l. Integrated Crop Management is defined as a process to: (a} Use the traditional
methods for growing crops.
(b} Using alternatives to inorganic fertilizers and pesticides. (c} Both (a} and (b}
(d} None of the above Ans. (c) Both (a) and (b)
Q2l. Which three edible plant species constitute about 6(:)% supply of the world's food
energy intak.e7
(a} Wheat, Barley, Oat (b} Wheat, Rice, Maize (c} Wheat, Barley, maize (d} None of
these
(a} Preventing leak.age from dams and canals (b} Reducing the rate of surface run-off
water. (c} Preventing loss in the municipal pipes.
(d} Building small reservoirs in place of a few mega projects. Ans. (b) Reducing the rate of
surface run-off water.
Q23. Which element is considered the largest source of world's commercial energy
consumption?
(a} Coal
(b} Oil
Q24. What are the two forms of alcohol are included in biofuels7
(a} Ethanol and methanol (b} Ethanol and propanol (c} Methanol and propanol (cl} None
of the above
(cl} Fibrous waste of the sugar industry Ans. (d) Fibrous waste of the sugar industry
Q26. The functional aspects of the ecosystem are: (a} Energy cycles
( c} Food chains
(a} The species whose elimination can seriously affect the ecosystem.
(b} The species whose elimination can benefit the ecosystem. (c} The species whose
elimination would not affect the ecosys- tem.
Ans. (a) The species whose elimination can seriously affect the ecosystem.
Q29. Which of the following activity is incorrect about the im- pact of human activities on
the ecosystem?
Extinction of species
Q3<:l. Which element is a building block. of both animals and plant tissues?
Sulfur
Carbon
Nitrogen
Q3l. Which human activity can decreases the oxygen levels present in the atmosphere?
Deforestation
Animal hunting
Mining
Nitrogen cycle
Carbon cycle
Food web
Q33. The type of forests grown in the Himalayan mountain re- gion is called:
Broad-leaved forests
Coniferous forests
Deciduous forests
Medicine
Q35. Which of the following is a forest service? (a} Reduces the surface run-off rain water.
Q36. Which of the following is not a reason for the forest loss7 (a} Increasing use of wood
(c} Extensive use of fuel woods (d} Mining and building dams Ans. (b) Extinction of
species
Q37. Which insects live andbreed in the forest area7 (a} Bees
(b} Moths
( c} Butterflies
Q38. Jowar and Bajra grow in the areas that have: (a} High moisture
Q39. Which of the following activity canlower the water table7 (a} Soil erosion
Ans. ( d) Deltas
(a} Excessive use of fertilizers (b} Increase of plant nutrients (c} Both (a} and (b}
(cl} None of the above Ans. (c) Both (a) and (b)
(a} Thar Desert of Rajasthan (b} The Brahmaputra Plains (c} South-east zone
Q43. Which day is celebrated as World Environment day7 (a} June 18th
( c} July 5th
Earth7
(a} No effect
(c} A little adverse impact (cl} Decrease in termites Ans. (b) Destroys life
Q45. Name the drug associated with the plant source tea or coffee7
Q46. Which sacred grove act as the gene banks for wild plants? (a} Deorais
(a} 18
(b} 28
(c} 32
( cl} 36
Ans. (d) 36
Q48. The major part of the extinction of species occurs in which of the following bio-rich
areas7
( c} Coral reefs
Q58. Which of the following element is responsible for ground- water pollution in various
states?
Q5l. Themost frequent and naturally occurring disaster is: (a} Drought
(b} Tsunami
( c} Flood
Q52. The worst natural hazards in the tropics are: (a} Tropical cyclones
(b} Tsunami
( c} Floods
(cl} None of the above Ans. (a) Tropical cyclones Q53. UNCEC stands for:
(b} Cement
( cl} Silver
Q56. The adaption of traditional medicine in industrialized coun- tries is termed as CAM,
which stands for:
(b} Complementary and Associative Medicine (c} Cooperative and Associative Medicine
(cl} Complementary and Alternative Medicine Ans. (d) Complementary and Alternative
Medicine
QS7. The single largest preventable cause of cancer is: (a} Tobacco smoking
QS8. Which of the following is the key measure to reduce the number of diarrhea cases7
(c} Safe drinking water (cl} All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above
QS9. Which element present in the drinking water can lead to various fatal diseases?
(c} Phosphorus
Q6l. Forest Conservation act was amended in which of the fol- lowing year7
(a} 1952
(b} 1963
(c} 1988
(d} 1978
Q62. Which of the following gases are not permitted to release by the Government
Prevention and Control of Pollution Act7 (a} Nitrogen Oxide
(b} Sulfur Dioxide (c} Carbon monoxide (d} All of the above
Q63. The 3R principle is in which of the following order: (a} Reduce, Reuse, Recycle
(b} Reuse, Reduce, Recycle (c} Recycle, Reuse, Reduce, (d} None of the above
(b} The Limits to Growth (c} Our Common Future (d} Agenda 21
Q65. Which one of the following is not one of the seventeen Sustainable Development
Goals adopted by UN7
(a} No Poverty
Q66. The natural residence of every organism is known as: (a} Biome
Q67. What is the name of the feature that allows organisms to survive in the conditions of
its habitat?
Q69. Shelford's law of tolerance suggests that organisms with a wide tolerance limit for
environmental factors show:
(a} Narrow distribution with low population (b} Wide distribution with high population (c}
Wide distribution with high population (d} Narrow distribution with high population
Ans. (b) Wide distribution with high population Q7<:l. Wide variety of living organisms is
called: (a} Biodiversity
Q7l. Animal adopt a similar state like sleep to reduce their metabolic rate, it is called:
(a} Migration
Q73. A mutual relationship between two organisms, where both of them are benefitting
from watch other is called:
Q74. Which is not a feature of heliophyte among the following? (a} Stem with long
internodes
( d} Paternal care
Q77. What is the percentage of oxygen and carbon dioxide ex- ists in the ecosystem?
(a} 2<:l.95% and e.<:l<:l4% (b} 2<:l.95% and e.e4% ( c} 2<:l.(:)% and <:l.4(:)%
Q78. Which of the following is the smallest artificial ecosystem that has sustained for a
long perioc17
Folsom pond
Folsom bottle
Folsom stream
Q79. group of species exploits the biotic and abiotic resources in the same way.
Community
Ecacls
Biomes
( cl) Guild
Soil
Protein
Carbon
Atmosphere
Hydrosphere
Biosphere
The water
Air
Atmosphere
Biosphere
The Sun
(b} The interior of the earth (c} Both (A} and (B}
(cl} Work.
(b} Soils
Q86. In which of the following form(s}, the waster products are discharged into the
biosphere?
( c} Solid
(b} Climate
(c} Subsystem (cl} Structure Ans. (a) Biome
Q9<:l. The following is an example of Terrestrial Biome (a} Tropical rain forest
Q92. Which animal drinks water periodically and is physiologi- cally adapted to withstand
tissue dehydration for long period? (a} Lion
Q93. Which biome experiences intense heat and strong wind with a great desiccating action
during April to June7
Q94. On which animal Calotes and Uromastyx are predatory in Thar desert
( c} desert dragon flies (d} desert snakes Ans. (a) desert locust
Q96. Which one of the following is one of the characteristics of a biological community?
(a} Sex-ratio
(b} Stratification
( c} Natality
( d} Mortality
(c} Herbarium
( cl} Forest
Q98. These belong to the category of primary consumers (a} Snakes and Frogs
(b} Insects and cattle (c} Eagle and snakes (cl} Water insects
Q99. Which one of the following pairs in mismatched? (a} Tundra - permafrost
(a} Benthonic and brown algae (b} Sea grass, and slime molds
Ql<:ll. The average trophic efficiency of transfer of energy from one trophic level to the
higher trophic level is called
Ql<:l2. Which one of the following is correct matching of a plant, its habit and the forest
type where it normally occurs?
(c} Shorea robusta, herb, tropical rain forest (cl} Acacia catechu, tree, coniferous forest
Ans. (a) Prosopis, tree, scrub
(a} primary and secondary consumers are similar (b} the abiotic components are almost
similar
Ans. (b} the abiotic components are almost similar Ql84. Thepyramid of energy is
always upright for any ecosys- tem. This situation indicates the fact that
(b} Producers have the lowest energy conversion efficiency. (c} Carnivores have better
energy conversion efficiency than herbivores.
Ans. (a) Herbivores have a better energy conversion ef- ficiency than carnivores.
List - I List - II
Population I. Part of the earth consisting of all the ecosystems of the world
Ecosystem Ill. Group of similar individuals belonging to the same species found
in an area
Ql86. Assertion: Tropical rain forests are disappearing fast from developing countries such
as India.
Reason: No value is attached to these forests because these are poor in biodiversity.
(a} Both Assertion and Reason are true andReason is the cor- rect explanation of the
Assertion.
(b} Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanations of
Assertion.
(c} Assertion is true, but Reason is false. (cl} Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(c} Benthos
Ql<:l8. The biomass available for consumption by the herbivores and the decomposers is
called
(a} Gross primary productivity (b} Net primary productivity (c} Secondary productivity
(c} Geobiocoenosis
( cl} Holocoenotic
Qll<:l. The species, though insignificant in number, determine the existence of many other
species in a given ecosystem.
Qll2. Theremains of the dead plants and animals is called (a} Detritus
( cl} Litter
(b} Consumers
(cl} Symbionts
QllS. Which of the following contribute to the carbon cycling? (a} Respiration
(b} Photosynthesis
(b} Photosynthesis
Qll9. Natural disasters such as hurricanes and floods are link.eel to:
(a} old field succession (b} primary succession (c} secondary succession (cl} climax
succession
(c} Primary
PART :2
Ql. In which of the following do forests not play a significant role7
(a} Soil formation
(b} Water conservation
(c} Regeneration of carbon dioxide (d} Moderation of climate
Ans. (c} Regeneration of carbon dioxide
Q2. Which one of the following is an example of human modified environment?
(a} Artificial lakes (b} Orchards
( c} Crops fields (d} Cams
Ans. (d} Dams
Q3. Which one of the following regions covers more than 5<:l% plant species in the
world7
(a} Tropical Rain Forests
(b} Tropical Deciduous Forests (c} Temperate Evergreen Forests (d} Temperate
Deciduous Forests Ans. (a} Tropical Rain Forests
Q4. Crown fire mostly takes place in which of the following forests?
(a} Dense Forest (b} Thorn Forest (c} Savanna Forest (d} Alpine Forest
Ans. (a) Dense Forest
Q5. Which one of the following statements is not an argument in favour of multi-purpose
river projects?
(a} Multi-purpose projects bring water to those areas which suffer from water scarcity.
(b} Multi-purpose projects by regulating water flow help to con- trol floods.
(c} Multi-purpose projects lead to large-scale displacements and loss of livelihood.
(d} Multi-purpose projects generate electricity for our indus- tries and our homes.
Ans. (c) Multi-purpose projects lead to large-scale displace- ments and loss of livelihood.
Q6. Which is not a source cf fresh water7
Glaciers and ice sheets
Groundwater
Surface run off
(cl) Oceans Ans. (d) Oceans
Q7. Which cf the following is not cause cf water scarcity?
Growing population
Growing cf water intensive crop
Expansion cf irrigation facilities (cl) Water harvesting technique Ans. (d) Water harvesting
technique
Q8. Bhak.ra Nangal River Valley Project is made on the river:
Sutlej-Beas
Ravi-Chenab
Ganga
(cl) Son
Ans. (a) Sutlej-Beas
Q9. Hirak.ucl Dam is constructed on the river:
Ganga
Manjira
Manas
(cl) Mahanacli Ans. (b) Manjira
Ql<:l. The diversion channels seen in the Western Himalayas are called:
Guls or Kuls
Khaclins
Jchacls
(cl) Recharge pits Ans. (a) Guls or Kuls
Qll. Agricultural fields which are used as rainfecl storage structures are called:
Kuls
Khadins/ Jchacls
Recharge pits
(cl) None cf the above Ans. (b) Khadins/ Johads
Ql2. Underground tanks seen in Rajasthan to store rainwater for drinking is called:
(a} Tank.as (b} Khaclin ( c} Ponds (cl} Kuls
Ans. (a) Tankas
Ql3. In Western Rajasthan today plenty of water is available clue to:
(a} rooftop water harvesting (b} perennial Rajasthan Canal (c} construction of Tank.as (cl}
none of the above
Ans. (b) perennial Rajasthan Canal
Ql4. In the North-eastern Hills bamboo drip irrigation is prac- ticed to conserve water
(a} water (b} soil
(c} non of the above (cl} both (a} and (b} Ans. (a) water
Ql5. Which one of the following is not an adverse effect of irrigation?
(a} Irrigation changes cropping pattern
(b} Water intensive crops are grown in dry areas
( c} Salinisation of soil
( cl} Increases crop yield Ans. (d) Increases crop yield
Ql6. Which of the following social movements is/ are not a resistance to multi-purpose
projects?
(a} Narmada Bachao Anclolan (b} Tehri Cam Anclolan
(c} Navclanya
(cl} Chipk.o Movement Ans. (c) and (d)
Ql7. Howmuch percent of surface water in India can be usecl7
(a} 22%
(b} 25%
(c} 32%
(cl} 35%
Ans. (c) 32%
Ql8. Identify the sector that consumes the highest amount of water in India.
(a} Industry (b} Agriculture (c} Domestic
(cl} None of these Ans. (b} Agriculture
Ql9. Haryali program is related to development of: (a} Forest Cover
(b} Watershed Development (c} Soil Conservation
( cl} Food Grain Production
Ans. (c) Watershed Development
Q2<:l. The total useful water resources of India are: (a} 1122 cubic k.m
(b} 1222 cubic k.m (c} 1322 cubic k.m (cl} 1422 cubic k.m
Ans. (a) 1122 cubic km
Q2l. Environment Protection Act was implemented in: (a} 1974
(b} 1986
(c} 1988
(cl} 1997
Ans. (b) 1986
Q22. In ......... an underground tank. of l lak.h litre capacity has been
constructed to store water for low quality use. (a} Rashtrapati Bhavan
(b} Lal Quila
(c} Jama Masjicl
( cl} Sansacl
Ans. (a) Rashtrapati Bhavan
Q23. As reported in...... by the United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA}, within the next
25 years, one-third of the world's population will experience severe water scarcity.
(a} 2ee1 (b} 2<:ll<:l ( c} 2(:)(:)9
( cl} 2(:)12
Ans. (a) 2001
Q24. Recharging of groundwater is the most important aspect of:
(a} water management
(b} water supply
(c} non of the above
(cl} both (a} and (b}
Ans. (a) water management
Q25. In our country, a lot of water is wasted clue to leaking taps and bad plumbing.
(a} leaking taps and bad plumbing (b} factory work.
( c} agriculture
( cl} bathing
Ans. (a) leaking taps and bad plumbing
Q26. Which group of states is highly affected by concentration of fluoride in ground water
resources:
(a} Uttar Pradesh
(b} Bihar-West Bengal
( c} Rajasthan-Maharashtra (cl} Punjab-Haryana
Ans. (c) Rajasthan-Maharashtra
Q27. How much freshwater is there out of total resources?
(a} <:l.5%
(b} l.<:l%
(c} 2.5%
( cl} 3.(:)%
Ans. (d) 3.0%
Q28. Which one of the following rivers has the highest repten- ishable groundwater
resource in the country?
(a} The Indus
(b} The Brahmaputra (c} The Ganga
(cl} The Goclavari Ans. (c) The Ganga
Q29. How much percent of earth's area is occupied by lancl7
(a} 45 (b} 3<:l (c} 66
(cl} 7(:)
Ans. (b) 30
Q3<:l. Private land properties are owned by
(a} Cooperative societies (b} Individuals
(c} Communities (d} Schools
Ans. (b) Individuals
Q3l. An example of common property resource is (a} Private homes
(b} Land for common usage
(c} agriculture lands of individuals
( d} factories
Ans. (b) Land for common usage
Q32. Which ofthe following steps is a major threat to the environment?
(a} Planting trees (b} Desertification
(c} Promoting tourism
(d} Promoting renewable resources Ans. (b) Desertification
Q33. The type of soil is determined by (a} landforms
(b} soil erosion (c} water sources ( d} Globalisation
Ans. (a) landforms
Q34. As the exposed rock. break. off and start decaying due to temperature change, this
process is called
(a} Deforestation (b} Landslide
( c} Soil erosion (d} Weathering
Ans. (d) Weathering Q35. Soil is made up of (a} water
(b} metals
(c} organic materials & rocks (d} ice
Ans. (c) organic materials & rocks
Q36. Mass movement of rocks down the hills could be a sign of (a} Landslides
(b} Floods
(c} Deforestation
(d} Weathering Ans. (a) Landslides
Q37. Which ofthe following states of India is notorious for witnessing maximum
number of landslides
(a} Punjab
(b} Uttrak.hand (c} Tamilnadu
( d} Jhark.hand
Ans. (b) Uttrakhand
Q38. How much time is taken to form 1 cm of soil (a} l<:l+ years
(b} 5 years
( c} 1ees of year (d} few months
Ans. (c) 100s of year
Q39. Which part of soil is fit for vegetation? (a} Sub soil
(b} top soil
(c} weathered rock. material (d} clay soil
Ans. (b) top soil
Q4<:l. Overgrazing is responsible for causing (a} soil depletion
(b} Floods
(c} earthquake
( d} landslide
Ans. (a) soil depletion
Q41. Which of the following is used to conserve the soil7 (a} Mulching
(b} Clear the forest
( c} agriculture process
( d} cat tie grazing Ans. (a) Mulching
Q42. The process of piling up of rocks to prevent water flow is called
(a} Rock. Dam (b} Erosion (c} Mulching (d} Landslide
Ans. (a) Rock Dam
Q43. The moisture of soil can be retained by the process of
(a} Counter Barriers (b} Mulching
(c} Rock. Cams (d} Planting grass Ans. (b) Mulching
Q44. A dripping tap is capable of wasting approximately how much amount of water per
year7
(a} 2eee litres
(b} 12<:l<:l litres ( c} 15<:l<:l litres ( d} 25(:)(:) litres
Ans. (b) 1200 litres
Q45. The evaporation of water takes place due to (a} Nitrogen Cycle
(b} Water Cycle ( c} Cooling of Ice (d} Floods
Ans. (b) Water Cycle
Q46. The zone of earth's atmosphere where life exists is called (a} Biosphere
(b} Lithosphere (c} Hydrosphere (d} Troposphere Ans. (a) Biosphere
Q47. The life supporting system is known as (a} earth
(b} biosphere (c} ecosystem (d} Vegetation
Ans. (c) ecosystem
Q48. Which of the following animals are protected under CITES7
(a} Monkey (b} Dolphins (c} Snakes (d} Rats
Ans. (b) Dolphins
Q49. Low-lying areas are susceptible to (a} water logging
(b} landslides
(c} illegal mining
(d} Weathering
Ans. (a) water logging
Q5<:l. are normally sparsely populated. (a} thick. forests
(b} Gangatic plains (c} low-lying places (d} cultivable areas Ans. (a) thick forests
Q5l. Theaverage water consumption per person is cu k.m/ year
(a} 55<:l<:l (b} 6(:)(:)(:) ( c} 65<:l<:l ( d} 59(:)(:)
Ans. (b) 6000
Q52. River Yamuna is getting polluted due to (a} industrial affluents
(b} forests
(c} weathering (d} trees cutting
Ans. (a) industrial affluents
Q53. Rainwater harvesting is compulsory in the state of _ (a} Tamil Nadu
(b} Haryana (c} Rajasthan (d} Assam
Ans. (a) Tamil Nadu
Q54. Terrace farming method is common in regions (a} forest
(b} mountain ( c} coastal (d} plains
Ans. (b) mountain
Q55. is one of the ways to prevent soil erosion. (a} Trees cutting
(b} clearing of forest for agriculture (c} Counter ploughing
(d} building dams
Ans. (c) Counter ploughing
Q56. is a major threat to the environment. (a} rainfall
(b} sunlight
( c} Desertification
( cl} tree plantation Ans. ( c)
Desertification
Q57. Heavy rains cause year.
(a} earthquake (b} tsunami
in mountainous regions every
( c} landslide
( cl} accident
Ans. ( c) landslide
Q58. are some of the densely populated regions. (a} River plains
(b} mountains
( c} thick. forests
(cl} deserts
Ans. (a) River plains
Q59. Water is:
(a} non renewable source (b} renewable source
(c} non of the above
( cl} both
Ans. (b) renewable source
Q6<:l. India receives an average rainfall of (a} 4<:l<:l m ham
(b} seem ham
( c} 3(:)(:) m ham
( cl} see m ham
Ans. (a) 400 m ham
Q6l. Which one is not included in precipitation in which atmo- spheric moisture descends
to earth:
(i} rain (b} sleet ( c} soil
(cl} clew
Ans. (c) soil
Q62. Deposition is the process by which water changes directly from a vapour into a solid
(ice crystals} phase.
(a} Deposition (b} Condensation (c} water cycle
(d} Non of the above Ans. (a) Deposition
Q63. In fresh water the total salt content remains under 1.5 per cent
(a} 1.5 per cent (b} 2.5 per cent ( c} 3.5 per cent ( d} <:l.5 per cent
Ans. (a) 1.5 per cent
Q64. The content of dissolved salts in brackish water is higher than the fresh water and
ranges between <:l.5 and 3.5%.
(a} e.5 and 3.5% (b} land 2 %
(c} 2 and 3 %
(d} 1.5 and 4.5 %
Ans. (a) 0.5 and 3.5%
Q65. Treatment of water with appropriate doses of chlorine is known as
(a} chlorination (b} treated water
(c} water hyacinth (d} utilized water Ans. (a) chlorination
Q66................... is one of the most important substances for sustaining human life.
(a} Fresh water (d} Food
(c} House
( e} Soil
Ans. (a) Fresh water
Q67. Movement of water on the .................. is continuous. (a} Earth
(b} Floor (c} Road ( d} Hill
Ans. (a) Earth
Q68. Mechanical forces acting upon the rocks cause physical
1
(a} Buncling
(b} Kul
(c} Mulching
(cl} Soil moisture conservation Ans. (b) Kul
Q224. Identify the conventional source of energy from the following:
(a} Biomass
(b} Geothermal (c} Wind
(cl} Atomic energy Ans. (a) Biomass
Q225. A biomass gassifier converts (a} solid fuel to gaseous fuel
(b} gaseous fuel to solid fuel ( c} liq uicl fuel to gaseous fuel ( cl} gaseous fuel to liquicl fuel
Ans. (a) solid fuel to gaseous fuel
Q226. The most suitable fuel for a fuel cell is (a} Water
(b} Nitrogen (c} Hydrogen
( cl} Carbon dioxide Ans. (c) Hydrogen
Q227. The biophysical carrying capacity is population
that canbe supported by the resources of the planet at a given level of technology.
(a} the minimum (b} the maximum ( c} all of the
(cl} half of the
Ans. (a) the minimum
Q228. Which of the following is not a green house gas7 (a} Carbon dioxide
(b} Methane (c} Ozone
( cl} Chlorine Ans. (c) Ozone
Q229. Which of the following is not related to climate change7
(a} UNFCC (b} IPCC
( c} Kyoto Protocol
( cl} Montreal Protocol Ans. (d) Montreal Protocol
Q23<:l. The ozone layer is present in which of the following ranges of the atmosphere?
(a} <:l-1<:l k.m
(b} 15-5<:l k.m
(c} 6<:l-7<:l k.m
2
( cl} 65-9<:l k.m Ans. (b) 15-50 km
PART:3
Ql. Biodiversity is a measure of variation at the level. (a} genetic
(b} species
(c} ecosystem
(d} all of the above Ans. (d} all of the above
Q2. Terrestrial biodiversity is usually greater near the . (a} north pole
(b} south pole (c} equator
( d} tropic of cancer Ans. (c} equator
Q3. The tropical forest ecosystems cover less than l<:l percent of earth's surface, and contain
about ............ percent of the world ' s species.
(a} 3<:l
(b} se
(c} 7<:l
(d} 9<:l
Ans. (D} 90
Q4. The age of earth is about billion years.
(a} 3.<:l4
(b} 3.54
( c} 4.<:lS
(d} 4.54
Ans. (d} 4.54
QS. Following is usually measured atthe species diversity level.
(a} ecological diversity (b} taxonomic diversity
( c} morphological diversity (d} functional diversity Ans. (b} taxonomic diversity
Q6. Diversity of all living things depends on (a} geography
(b} presence of other species
( c} soils
(d} all of the above
Ans. (d) all of the above Q7. A biodiversity hotspot
3
is a region with a high level cf endemic species
that have experienced great habitat loss
both (A) and (B)
none cf the above Ans. (c) both (a) and (b)
Q8. Which cf the following is true
land has more species than the ocean
ocean has more species than the land
land and ocean has almost equal number cf species
not yet known
Ans. (a) land has more species than the ocean Q9. Provisioning services
involve the production cf renewable services
are those that lessen environmental change
represent human value and enjoyment
all cf the above
Ans. (a) involve the production of renewable services
Ql<:l. Provisioning services cf
plants increases fodder yield
plants increases overall crop yield
trees increases overall wood production
all cf the above Ans. (d) all of the above
Qll. Regulating services cf plants
decreases disease prevalence on plants
increases resistance to plant invasion
increases soil nutrient remineralizaticn
all cf the above Ans. (d) all of the above
Ql2. Biodiversity is directly involved in
water purification
recycling nutrients
providing fertile soil
all cf the above Ans. (d) all of the above
4
Ql3. Themost studied group is
birds
mammals
both (a) and (b)
( d} fishes
Ans. (c) both (a) and (b)
Ql4. The species which occupy new territory, often supplant- ing native species by occupying
their niches, are called
(a} invasive species (b} extinct species
(c} endangered species (d} exotic species
Ans. (a) invasive species
Ql5. Following step(s} can conserve the forest cover (a} prevent forest fire
(b} prevention of overgrazing by cattle (c} hunting and poaching should be banned (d} all of
the above
Ans. (d) all of the above
Ql6. Howis the diversity of plants and animals throughout the world7
(a} Uniform (b} Uneven (c} Equal (d} Even
Ans. (b) Uneven
Ql7. For many groups of animals or plants, which is the most well-known pattern in
diversity?
(a} Latitudinal gradient (b} Longitudinal gradient (c} Aquatic gradient
(d} Meridian gradient
Ans. (a) Latitudinal gradient
Ql8. What happens to species diversity as we move away from the equator towards the poles7
(a} Increase (b} Decreases (c} Unchanged (d} Same
Ans. (b) Decreases
Ql9. Howmany species of birds are located in Colombia that is located near the equator?
(a} 4
(b} 14 (c} 14<:l
( d} 1,4(:H:l
Ans. (d) 1,400
5
Q2<:l. Which of the following species of bird is found in New York.7
(a} Indian Vulture
(b} Indian Bustard
(c} American Woodcock.
( d} Bengal Florican
Ans. (c) American Woodcock
Q2l. Howmany species of birds are located in Greenland?
(a} 5
(b} 56
(c} 6
(d} e
Ans. (b) 56
Q22. Which place has the greatest biodiversity on Earth7 (a} Western Ghats
(b} Australian forest
( c} African forest
(d} Amazonian rain forest Ans. (d) Amazonian rain forest
Q23. Which environments are less seasonal, relatively more constant and predictable?
(a} Arctic environments
(b} Temperate environments (c} Tropical environments (d} Polar environments
Ans. (c) Tropical environments
Q24. What energy available in the tropics contributes to higher productivit y7
(a} Water
(b} Fossil fuel (c} Wind
( d} Solar
Ans. ( d) Solar
Q25. Which region had a long evolutionary time for species diversification?
(a} Temperate environments (b} Polar environments
(c} Tropical environments (d} Arctic environments
Ans. (c) Tropical environments
Q26. Who observed that within a region species richness in- creased with increasing the area
explored, but this increase is only up to a limit7
6
Charles Darwin
Alexander von Humboldt
Rudolf Virchow
Louis Pasteur
Ans. (b) Alexander von Humboldt
Q27. The Earth consists of how many ant species
1ee,eee
2e,eee
2ee,eee
<d) 2eee
Ans. (b) 20,000
Q28. How many species of beetles are present on the Earth7
3,ee,eee
3e,eee
3,eee
3<:l<:l
Ans. (a) 3,00,000
Q29. How many species of fishes are present on Earth7
2a,ee,eee
2a,eee
( c) 28<:l
28
Ans. (b) 28,000
Q3<:l. How many species of orchids are present on Earth7
2ee
2<:l
2
(d) 2e,eee
Ans. (d) 20,000
Q3l. Which of the following statements is true7
7
Diversity exists only at the species level
Diversity exists only at the macromolecular level
Diversity exists at all levels of biological organization
Diversity exists at the genetic level only
Ans. (c) Diversity exists at all levels of biological organization Q32. Who popularized the
term biodiversity?
Rudolf Virchow
(b} Edward Wilson (c} Gregor Mendel (cl} Robert Koch
Ans. (b) Edward Wilson
Q33. What can a single species show7 (a} No variation at the genetic level (b} No diversity
at the genetic level (c} Low diversity at the genetic level (cl} High diversity at the genetic
level
Ans. (d) High diversity at the genetic level Q34. What is the feature of the biosphere? (a} No
diversity
(b} Homogeneity (c} Heterogeneity
( cl} Negligible diversity Ans. (c) Heterogeneity
Q35. How many strains of rice does India have7
(a} 50
(b} 500
(c} 5,000
(cl} 50,000
Ans. (d) 50,000
Q36. How many varieties of mango does India have7
(a} 2
(b} 10
(c} 1,000
( cl} 20
Ans. ( c) 1,000
Q37. What is the feature of the biosphere? (a} No diversity
(b} Species diversity (c} Low diversity
( cl} Negligible diversity Ans. (b) Species diversity
8
Q38. Which organism"s species have greater diversity in the Western Ghats than the Eastern
Ghats7
(a} Reptiles (b} Fishes
(c} Amphibians
(cl} Mammals
Ans. (c) Amphibians
Q39. What is the feature of the biosphere? (a} Low diversity
(b} Ecological diversity (c} Negligible diversity ( d} No diversity
Ans. (b) Ecological diversity
Q4<:l. How many years did evolution required? (a} Tens
(b} Hundreds (c} Trillions
( d} Millions
Ans. (d) Millions
Q41. What is an important reason for the conservation of nat- ural resources?
(a} Disturb the ecological balance (b} Preserve the biological diversity
(c} Disruption of quality of the environment (d} Hampering the biological species
Ans. (b) Preserve the biological diversity
Q42. For what reason is the conservation of natural resources important?
(a} Maintaining the ecological processes (b} Disturbing the ecological balance
(c} Extinction of biological species
(d} Disruption of quality of the environment Ans. (a) Maintaining the ecological processes
Q43. What is the correct full form of IUCN7
(a} International Union for Conservation of Nuts
(b} International Union for Conservation of Nature
(c} International Union for Conservation of Natural habitat (d} International Union for
Conservation of Numbers
Ans. (b) International Union for Conservation of Nature
Q44. What are the species called whose number of individuals is greatly reduced to a critical
level7
(a} Indeterminate (b} Rare
(c} Vulnerable (d} Endangered
Ans. (d) Endangered
9
Q45. What are the species called whose number of individuals is greatly reduced recently and
is decreasing continuously?
(a} Endangered (b} Rare
(c} Vulnerable
( cl} Indeterminate Ans. (c) Vulnerable
Q46. What are the species called whose members are few and live in a small geographical
area callecl7
(a} Endangered (b} Rare
( c} Indeterminate (cl} Vulnerable Ans. (b) Rare
Q47. What are the species called whose members are in clanger of extinction but the reason
is unknown callecl7
(a} Endangered (b} Vulnerable (c} Rare
( cl} Indeterminate Ans. (d) Indeterminate
Q48. Which utilitarian states that humans derive countless di- rect economic benefits from
nature?
(a} Big utilitarian
(b} Broadly utilitarian
( c} Narrowly utilitarian
( cl} Small utilitarian
Ans. (c) Narrowly utilitarian
Q49. How many species of plants contribute to the traditional medicines used by native
peoples around the worlcl7
(a} 2,5<:l<:l
(b} 2,eee
(c} 5,eee
ca> 25,eee
Ans. (d) 25,000
Q5<:l. How many species of plants are used for the production of the drugs currently sold in
the mark.et worlclwicle7
(a} 2 %
(b} 35 %
(c} 25 %
10
(cl} 5 %
Ans. (d) 5 %
Q5l. Which utilitarian states that biodiversity is important for many ecosystem services that
nature provides?
(a} Narrowly utilitarian (b} Broadly utilitarian
( c} Big utilitarian
( d} Small utilitarian
Ans. (b) Broadly utilitarian
Q52. What is exploring molecular, genetic, and species-level diversity for products of
economic importance called?
(a} Biopiracy (b} Biofuel
(c} Bioprospecting (d} Biodiversity
Ans. (c) Bioprospecting
Q53. What percent of the total oxygen in the Earth's atmos- phere is released by the Amazon
forest?
(a} 5<:l %
(b} 2<:l %
(c} 4<:l %
(d} 2%
Ans. (b) 20 %
Q54. Which one of the following is an example of conservation? (a} No use of natural
resources
(b} The wise use of natural resources (c} Excess use of natural resources (d} Complete use of
natural resources
Ans. (d) Complete use of natural resources
Q55. Why is the biological wealth of our planet declining rapidly?
(a} Animal activities (b} Human activities ( c} Plant activities
( d} Ecological activities Ans. (b) Human activities
Q56. How many species of birds are extinct due to the colo- nization of the tropical Pacific
Islands by humans?
(a} 2,eee
(b} 8,eee
11
(c} le,eee
(d} 2(:),(:)(:)(:)
Ans. (a) 2,000
Q57. Who gives the Reel List7
(a} NSS (b} IUCN (c} WHO (cl} NCC
Ans. (b) IUCN
Q58. According to the IUCN Reel List (2<:l<:l4} documents, how many species have extinct
in the last 5<:l<:l years7
(a} 25<:l<:l
(b} l<:l<:l<:l
(c} 89<:l (cl} 784
Ans. (d) 784
Q59. According to the IUCN Reel List (2<:l<:l4} documents, how many vertebrate species
have extinct in the last 5<:l<:l years7
(a} 1eee
(b} 5<:l<:l
(c} 338
(cl} 784
Ans. (c) 338
Q6<:l. According to the IUCN Reel List (2<:l<:l4} documents, how many invertebrate
species have extinct in the last 5<:l<:l years7 (a} 784
(b} 359
(c} 5<:l<:l
( cl} 2<:l<:l<:l Ans. (b) 359
Q61. According to the IUCN Reel List (2<:l<:l4} documents, how many plant species have
extinct in the last 5<:l<:l years7
(a} 7
(b} 8 (c} 87<:l
(cl} 87
Ans. (d) 87
Q62. Which one of the following is an example of recent extinction?
(a} Dinosaurs
12
(b} Archaeopteryx
(c} Code
(cl} Mammoth
Ans. (c) Dodo
Q63. Which one of the following is an example of recent extinction?
Mammoth
Archaeopteryx
Dinosaurs (cl) Quagga Ans. (d) Quagga
Q64. Which one of the following is an example of recent extinction?
Coastal moa
Balearic cave goat
Thylacine
(cl) Dinosaurs Ans. (c) Thylacine
Q65. Which one of the following is an example of recent extinction?
Balearic cave goat
Steller's Sea Cow
Hunter Island penguin
( cl) Aurochs
Ans. (b) Steller's Sea Cow
Q66. How many species have extinct in the last twenty years7
2
2<:l
27
(cl) 7
Ans. (c) 27
Q67. How many species worldwide are facing the threat of extinction?
15<:l
15,5<:l<:l
( c) 15<:l<:l
( cl) 15
13
Ans. (b) 15,500
Q68. How many mass extinctions have occurred since the ori- gin and diversification of life
onEarth7
2
8
3
( cl) 5
Ans. (d) 5
Q69. The Government of India started a Crocodile Breeding and Management Project in
......... to save the three endangered crocodilian species, the fresh water crocodile, salt water
croc- odile and the gharial.
1976
1975
1977
1978
Ans. (a) 1976
Q7<:l. Total number of Biosphere Reserves in India are
12
14
16
18
Ans. (d) 18
Q7l. Which of the following provides genetic insurance
tissue culture
somatic cell cloning
introduction
seed bank. Ans. (d) seed bank
Q72. Artificial insemination can be beneficial in
Cogs
Cats
Elephants
14
Snakes
Ans. ( c) Elephants
Q73. Which one of the following is NOT a greenhouse gas found naturally in the
atmosphere?
Nitrogen oxide
Carbon dioxide
Methane
Ozone
Ans. (a) Nitrogen oxide
Q74. Which is an example of Aerosol?
Jelly
Fog
Butter
Sponge Ans. (b) Fog
Q75. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant? (a} Carbon monoxide
(b} Smog
( c} Carbon dioxide (cl} Fly Ash
Ans. (b) Smog
Q76. The phenomenon of marble cancer is clue to: (a} Soot particles
(b} Acid rain (c} CFCs
( cl} Fog
Ans. (b) Acid rain
Q77. Which of the following is not an environmental problem? (a} Genetic modification of
food
(b} Afforestation (c} Acid Rain
( cl} Loss of Biocliversit y
Ans. (b) Afforestation
Q78. Acid rain is mainly a mixture of (a} sulphuric acid and nitric acid
(b} hexane and methane (c} acetic acid and bromine
( cl} ascorbic acid and citric acid
Ans. (a) sulphuric acid and nitric acid
15
Q79. The water pollution in the rivers is measured by
(a} amount of dissolved chlorine (b} amount of dissolved ozone (c} amount of dissolved
nitrogen ( cl} amount of clissolvecl oxygen
Ans. (d) amount of dissolved oxygen
Q8<:l. Which of the following is not a cause of air pollution? (a} Mining operations
(b} Acid Rain
(c} Agricultural activities ( cl} Burning of fossil fuels Ans. (b) Acid Rain
Q81. Which one of the following is not the reason/factor for exposure to benzene pollution?
(a} Automobile exhaust (b} Tobacco smoke
(c} Wood burning
(d} Using varnished wooden furniture Ans. (d) Using varnished wooden furniture
Q82. The set of pipes which take away sewage from our
homes or public building to the water treatment plants are called
(a} pipe system (b} transportation (c} sewers
(d} sewerage
Ans. (d) sewerage
Q83. Which of the following is bio-degradable7 (a} Glass
(b} Crude oil (c} Nylon
(d} Farmyard manure
Ans. (d) Farmyard manure
Q84. Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among
(a} N0 , 0 andperoxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
2 3
(b} CO, 0
andperoxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
(c} CO, CO and N0 at low temperature
2
(d} high concentration of N0 , 0 and CO in the evening
2 3
Ans. (a) N02, 03 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
Q85. Gas released during Bhopal tragedy was (a} Methyl Isocyanate
16
(b} Oxygen Isocyanate (c} Carbon Dioxide
(d} Carbon Monoxide
Ans. (a) Methyl Isocyanate
Q86. Which of the following is used as biological indicator of sulphur-dioxide pollution?
(a} Bryophytes (b} Algae
(c} Pseudomonas (d} Lichen
Ans. (d) Lichen
Q87. 'fly-ash', a well-known pollutant is produced by (a} Oil refinery
(b} Fertilizer plant (c} Cement plant
(d} Thermal Power Plant
Ans. (d) Thermal Power Plant
Q88. Forest fires and volcanic eruptions add one of the major pollutants into the air. This
pollutant is:
(a} Chlorofluorocarbon (b} Hydrogen sulphide (c} Particulate matter (d} Hydrocarbons
Ans. (c) Particulate matter
Q89. The substance that causes the maximum air pollution is7 (a} Smoke
(b} Carbon monoxide (c} Sulphur dioxide (d} Nitrogen dioxide
Ans. (c) Sulphur dioxide
Q9<:l. Correct group of diseases caused by water contamination are:
(a} Cholera, Dysentery, Polio, Typhoid (b} Cholera, Jaundice, Typhoid, Anaemia
(c} Anaemia, Scurvy, Emphysema, Typhoid (d} Cholera, Jaundice, Typhoid, Scurvy Ans. (a)
Cholera, Dysentery, Polio, Typhoid
Q9l. Which of the following fuels would produce minimum envi- ronmental pollution?
(a} Hydrogen (b} Diesel
(c} Kerosene (d} Coal
Ans. (a) Hydrogen
Q92. Which of the following is an air pollutant? (a} Nitrogen
(b} Carbon dioxide
(c} Carbon monooxide (d} Oxygen
Ans. (c) Carbon monooxide
Q93. Which of the following is a secondary air pollutant? (a} Ozone
17
(b} Carbon dioxide
(c} Carbon monooxide (d} Sulphur dioxide Ans. (b) Carbon dioxide
Q94. The environmental lapse rate is found to be: (a} - 6.5 ° C/k.m
(b} 8.6 ° C/k.m
(c} 6.5 ° C/k.m
(d} 5.6 ° C/k.m
Ans. (a) - 6.5 ° C/km Q95. During Inversion:
(a} Temperature increases with altitude
(b} Temperature decreases with altitude (c} Temperature remains constant
(d} None of the above
Ans. (a) Temperature increases with altitude
Q96. Among the following, the only secondary pollutant is: (a} nitrogen oxides
(b} Sulphur dioxide (c} Sulphur trioxide (d} Sulphur
Ans. (c) Sulphur trioxide
Q97. Which of the following groups of plants can be used as indicators of SO pollution of
air7
(a} Epiphytic lichens (b} Ferns
(c} Liver worts (d} Horn worts
Ans. (a) Epiphytic lichens
Q98. Which of the following on inhalation dissolved in the blood hemoglobin more rapidly
than oxygen?
(a} Sulphur dioxide
(b} Carbon mono-oxide (c} Ozone
(d} Nitrous oxide
Ans. (b) Carbon mono-oxide Q99. Smog is:
(a} A natural phenomenon
(b} A combination of smoke and fog
( c} Is colourless
(d} All of the above
Ans. (b) A combination of smoke and fog Ql<:l<:l. The major photochemical oxidant is:
(a} Ozone
18
(b} Hydrogen peroxide
(c} Nitrogen oxides
(cl} Peroxyl Acetyl Nitrate (PAN} Ans. (c) Nitrogen oxides
Ql<:ll. Which of the following are likely to be present in photo- chemical smog7
(a} Sulphur dioxide
(b} Photochemical oxidants
( c} Chlorofluorocarbon
(cl} Smog
Ans. (c) Chlorofluorocarbon
Ql<:l2. Which of the following devices is suitable for the removal of gaseous pollutants?
(a} Cyclone separator
(b} Electrostatic precipitator (c} Fabric filter
(cl} Wet scrubber Ans. (d) Wet scrubber
Ql<:l3. Which of the following air pollution control devices is suitable for the removing the
finest dust from the air7
(a} Cyclone separator
(b} Electrostatic precipitator (c} Fabric filter
(cl} Wet scrubber
Ans. (b) Electrostatic precipitator
Ql<:l4. Air pollution from automobiles can be controlled by fit ting:
(a} Cyclone separate
(b} Electrostatic precipitator (c} Catalytic converter
(cl} Wet scrubber
Ans. (c) Catalytic converter
Ql<:l5. Taj Mahal at Agra may be damaged by: (a} Sulphur dioxide
(b} Chlorine (c} Hydrogen (cl} Oxygen
Ans. (a) Sulphur dioxide
Ql<:l6. Gas leak.eel in Bhopal tragedy: (a} Methyl isocyanate
(b} Potassium isothoiocynate (c} Ethyl isocyanate
(d} Sodium isothiocyanate Ans. (a) Methyl isocyanate
Ql<:l7. BOD is:
19
(a} A measure of the organic matter presents in water
(b} Usually less than COD
(c} Biochemical oxygen demand (d} All of the above
Ans. (d) All of the above
Ql<:l8. BOD/COD ratio will always be:
(a} Equal to l (b} Less than l (c} More than l
(d} None of them Ans. (b) Less than l
Ql<:l9. Biochemical Oxygen Demand measures: (a} Industrial pollution
(b} Air pollution
(c} Pollution capacity of effects
(d} Dissolved 02 needed by microbes to decompose organic waste.
Ans. (d) Dissolved 02 needed by microbes to decompose organic waste.
Qll<:l. Excess fluoride in drinking water is likely to cause: (a} Blue baby syndrome
(b} Fluorosis
(c} Change in taste andodour
( d} Intestinal irritation Ans. (b) Fluorosis
Qlll. Fluoride pollution mainly affects:
(a} Kidney (b} Brain (c} Heart (d} Teeth
Ans. (d) Teeth
Qll2. Which of the following is a non-point source of water pollution?
(a} Factories
(b} Sewage treatment plants (c} Urban and suburban lands (d} All of the above
Ans. (c) Urban and suburban lands
Qll3. Septic tank. is:
(a} An aerobic attached growth treatment system
(b} An aerobic suspended growth biological treatment system (c} An anaerobic attached
growth biological treatment system (cl} An anaerobic suspended growth treatment system
Ans. (d) An anaerobic suspended growth treatment system Qll4. Disease caused by eating
fish inhabiting mercury contam- inated water is:
(a} Bright's disease (b} Hiroshima episode (c} Mina-mata disease ( cl} Osteosclerosis
Ans. (c) Mina-mata disease
20
Qll5. Which of the following is not a marine pollutant?
(a} Oil
(b} Plastics
(c} Dissolved oxygen (cl} All of the above
Ans. (c) Dissolved oxygen
Qll6. Noise is:
(a} Loud sound
(b} Sound of high frequency (c} Unwanted sound
( cl} Constant sound
Ans. (c) Unwanted sound
Q117. Sound becomes hazardous noise pollution at decibels: (a} Above 8<:l
(b} Above 3<:l (c} Above 1ee
(cl} Above 12<:l Ans. (a) Above 80
Qll8. Which of the following is a major source of thermal pol- lution in water boclies7
(a} Sewage treatment plant (b} Solid waste disposal sites (c} Thermal power plant
(cl} All of the above
Ans. (c) Thermal power plant
Qll9. Thehighest heating valve is of: (a} Garbage
(b} Rubbish
(c} Hospital waste (d} Industrial waste Ans. (b) Rubbish
Ql2<:l. The highest moisture content is in:
(a} Garbage (b} Rubbish
(c} Hospital waste
(d} Agricultural waste Ans. (d) Agricultural waste
Ql2l. Which of the following is a likely characteristic of haz- ardous waste7
(a} lgnitability (b} Corrosivity (c} Reactivity
(d} Any of the above Ans. (d) Any of the above
Ql22. High level radioactive waste can be managed in which of the following ways7
(a} Open dumping (b} Composting
( c} Incineration
21
(d} Dumping in sealed containers Ans. (d) Dumping in sealed containers
Ql23. Biomedical waste may be disposed of by7 (a} Incineration
(b} Autoclaving
( c} Land filling
(d} Both (b} and (c}
Ans. ( d) Both (b) and ( c)
Ql24. Which of the following is a biodegradable organic chemi- cal/substance?
(a} Plastics
(b} Oils
(c} Pesticides (d} Garbage
Ans. (d) Garbage
Ql25. Global climate is threatened by increase in concentration of
(a} Oxygen (b} Nitrogen
(c} Water vapours
(d} Green house gases Ans. (d) Green house gases
Ql26. Ozone layer above earth's atmosphere: (a} Prevent infra-red radiation from sun
(b} Infra-red rays reflected from earth from escaping earth's atmosphere
(c} Prevent ultraviolet rays from sun (d} Reflect back. radio waves
Ans. (c) Prevent ultraviolet rays from sun
Ql27. Which of the following would be a natural pollution (a} Forest fires
(b} Eutrophication
(c} Occurrence of smog
(d} Occurrence of NO2 in atmosphere Ans. (a) Forest fires
Ql28. Which of the following statement is incorrect
(a} Carbon monoxide is the major environment pollutant (b} All pollutants are not waste
(c} Nitrogen and Mg can pollute water
(d} Lichens are affected by sulphur dioxide Ans. (b) All pollutants are not waste
Ql29. The soil pollutants that affect the food chain and food web by killing micro organisms
and plants are
(a} Pathogens
(b} Chemical fertilizers (c} Agricultural wastes (d} Pesticides
22
Ans. (d) Pesticides
Ql3<:l. The reason of pollution is (a} Population explosion
(b} Urbanisation
( c} Industrialisation (d} All the above Ans. (d) All the above
Ql3l. Major pollution causing agent is (a} Man
(b} Animals
(c} Hydrocarbon gases (d} None of the above Ans. (a) Man
Ql32. Which of the following strategy is not useful for global warming
(a} Use of fossil fuel in limit
(b} Increase in forest
( c} Increasing use of nitrogen fertilizers
(d} Use of other options in the place of CFC. Ans. (b) Increase in forest
Ql33. The presence of ozone (03} in the atmosphere of earth (a} Hinders higher rate of
photosynthesis
(b} Helps in checking the penetration of ultraviolet rays to earth
(c} Has been responsible for increasing the average global tem-
perature in recent years
(d} Is advantageous since it supplies 02 for people travelling in jets
Ans. (b) Helps in checking the penetration of ultraviolet rays to earth
Ql34. Formation of ozone hole is maximum over
(a} China
(b} Antarctica (c} USA
( d} India
Ans. (b) Antarctica
Ql35. Pollution can be controlled by (a} Sewage treatment
(b} Manufacturing electrically operated vehicles (c} By checking atomic blasts
(d} All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above
Ql36. The result of ozone hole is (a} Acid rain
(b} UV radiations (c} Global warming
(d} Green house effect Ans. (b) UV radiations
Ql37. Effect of pollution first marked on (a} Micro-organisms
23
(b} Green vegetation of an area (c} Food crop
(d} None of these
Ans. (b) Green vegetation of an area
Ql38. A pollutant is any substance chemical or other factor that changes
(a} Natural geochemical cycles
(b} Natural balance of our environment
( c} Natural flora of a place
(d} The natural wild life of a region
Ans. (b) Natural balance of our environment
Ql39. The term "Bio-magnification" refers to the (a} Growth of organism due to food
consumption (b} Increase in population size
(c} Blowing up of environmental issues by man
(d} Increase in the concentration of non-degradable pollutants as they pass through food
chain
Ans. (d) Increase in the concentration of non-degradable pollu- tants as they pass through
food chain
Ql4<:l. Problem associated with nuclear power plants is (a} Thermal pollution
(b} Emission of hazardous radio - nuclides (c} Disposal of radioactive waste
(d} All the above
Ans. (b) Emission of hazardous radio - nuclides
Ql4l. Which of the following causes outbreak. of jaundice (a} Air pollution
(b} Water pollution (c} Thermal pollution ( d} Soil pollution
Ans. (b) Water pollution
Ql42. Which of the following organism is likely to have more concentration of D.D.T in its
body
(a} Herbivores (b} Carnivores
(c} Top carnivores
(d} Primary producers Ans. (c) Top carnivores
Ql43. Positive pollution of soil is due to (a} Excessive use of fertilizers
(b} Addition of wastes on soil (c} Reduction in soil productivity ( d} All of these
Ans. ( d) All of these
24
Ql44. As we all know, emission of certain gases is responsible for the level of. Which of the
following gases makes maximum contribution to Global Warming?
(a} Ammonia (b} Oxygen
(c} Carbon Dioxide
( cl} Nitrogen Ans. (b) Oxygen
Ql45. What is Freon7
(a} Difluoro Dichloro Ethane (b} Difluoro Dichloro Methane
(c} Difluoroamines Dichloro Methane
(cl} Difluoro Methylornithine
Ans. (b) Difluoro Dichloro Methane
Ql46. Highest percentage of air consists of (a} Oxygen
(b} Carbon dioxide (c} Nitrogen
(cl} Argon
Ans. (c) Nitrogen
Ql47. The Taj Mahal is being affected by (a} Noise pollution
(b} Air pollution (c} Water pollution ( cl} None of these
Ans. (b) Air pollution
Ql48. Most polluted river in the world is (a} Yamuna
(b} Cavery (c} Chenab (cl} Ganga
Ans. (d)Ganga
Ql49. Air pollution causes (a} Global warming
(b} Respiratory problems
( c} Soil erosion
( cl} None of these
Ans. (b) Respiratory problems
Ql5<:l. Green House gas is (a} Nitrogen
(b} Oxygen
(c} Methane
(d} Carbon dioxide Ans. (d) Carbon dioxide
Ql5l. Thepercentage of nitrogen is
(a} 21%
25
(b} 78%
(c} 12%
(d} 87%
Ans. (b) 78%
Ql5l. What causes pollution (a} Human activities
(b} Trees
(c} Both of these (d} None of these
Ans. (a) Human activities
Ql52. CNG is a (a} Polluted fuel (b} Clean fuel
( c} Harmful fuel (d} None
Ans. (b) Clean fuel
Ql53. Pollution of water is responsible for (a} Oil refineries
(b} Paper factories (c} Sugar mills
( d} All
Ans. ( d) All
Ql54. Chlorofluorocarbon is used in (a} Refrigerators
(b} Air conditioners (c} Perfumes
( d} All Ans. ( d) All
Ql55. The aerobic method of mechanical composting practised in India is called:
(a} Indore method (b} Nagpur method
(c} Bangalore method (d} Bhopal method Ans. (a) Indore method
Ql56. The best method of disposal of refuse to ensure com- plete destruction of pathogenic
bacteria is by
(a} Land disposal (b} Incineration
( c} Pulverisation
(d} Mechanical composting Ans. (b) Incineration
Ql57. As per CPCB, how much solid waste is generated per capita per day in large cities?
(a} e.1 kg
(b} <:l.5 kg
(c} <:l.3 kg to <:l.4 kg
(d} 2.8 kg
26
Ans. (b) 0.5 kg
Ql58. The maximum C/N ratio in a Municipal Solid Waste Com- post is
(a} l<:l:l
(b} 2<:l:l
( c} 3<:l:l
( d} 4<:l:l
Ans. (b) 20:l
Ql59. Which one of the following statement is correct?
(a} Pyrolysis is an exothermic process, which takes place in the absence of oxygen.
(b} Pyrolysis is an endothermic process, which takes place in the absence of oxygen.
(c} Pyrolysis is an endothermic process, which takes place in the abundance of oxygen.
(d} Combustion is an exothermic process, which takes place in the absence of oxygen.
Ans. (b) Pyrolysis is an endothermic process, which takes place in the absence of oxygen.
Q16<:l. Sludge bulking can be controlled by
(a} Chlorination (b} Coagulation (c} Aeration
( d} Cenitrification Ans. (a) Chlorination
Ql6l. Bangalore and Indore process of composting are which of the following?
(a} Both anaerobic processes
(b} Both aerobic processes
(c} Anaerobic process and aerobic process respectively
(cl} Aerobic process and anaerobic process respectively Ans. (c) Anaerobic process and
aerobic process respectively Ql62. The disposal of the screen is done by:
(a} Sedimentation (b} Flocculation (c} Filtration
(cl} Incineration
Ans. (d) Incineration
Ql63. Solid waste treatment by pyrolysis refers to (a} Treating with chemicals before heating
(b} No heating
(c} Heating in presence of air
(cl} Heating in absence of air Ans. (d) Heating in absence of air
Ql64. The major constituent gases produced from a land fill site are:
(a} Carbon dioxide and methane (b} Ammonia and Hydrogen
27
(c} Carbon monoxide and nitrogen (cl} Hydrogen sulphide and oxygen Ans. (a) Carbon
dioxide and methane
Ql65. In assessing the heating value of municipal solid waste, the preferred range of carbon
to nitrogen (C/N} ratio, in the waste is:
(a} 1-1<:l
(b} l<:l-2<:l
( c} 2<:l-35
( cl} 36-5(:)
Ans. ( d) 36-5 0
Ql66. In solid waste management, waste utilization is achieved by
(a} Recover, reclamation of reproduce (b} Reuse, Reclamation and Recycling (c} Recover,
Recycling and Reproduce (cl} Reuse, Reproduce and Recycling
Ans. (b) Reuse, Reclamation and Recycling
Ql67. The threshold of sound pressure that a normal healthy person can respond to is
(a} e.eee2 Pa
(b} (:),(:)(:)(:)(:)2 Pa
(c} e.ee2 Pa
( cl} (:),(:)2 Pa
Ans. (b) 0.00002 Pa
Ql68. An engineered facility for the disposal of municipal solid waste is called:
(a} Septic tank.
(b} Sanitary landfills (c} Dug wells
(cl} Tandem landfills
Ans. (b) Sanitary landfills
Ql69. refuse include dry animal & vegetable refuse. (a} Mineral
(b} Non-combustible
( c} Inorganic
( cl} Organic
Ans. (d) Organic
28
Ql7<:l. The two main gases liberated from an anaerobic sludge digestion tank. would include:
(a} NH3 and CO2 (b} CO2 and CH4 (c} CH4 and H2S (cl} NH3 and CH4
Ans. (b) CO2 and CH4
Q171. Which of the following statements is correct regarding
leachate?
(a} It can be discharged in water bodies without any treatment (b} It can be used for the
irrigation in parks
(c} It is used for the treatment of wastewater
( cl} It is generated in a landfill Ans. ( d) It is generated in a landfill
Q172. Which of the following material is used as land fill
sealants for the control of gas and leachate movement? (a} Lime
(b} Sand (c} Fly ash
( cl} Bentonite Ans. (d) Bentonite
Ql73. Which of the following facts is incorrect?
(a} Global warming is the rise in the average temperature of the earth's climate system
29
(c} Thermal Pollution
( cl} Radiation pollution
Ans. (d) Radiation pollution
Ql77. The primary agenda of the Kyoto protocol is (a} Regulation of hazardous wastes
(b} Regulate the production of nuclear energy
(c} Control anthropogenic sources of greenhouse gases (cl} None of the above
Ans. (c) Control anthropogenic sources of greenhouse gases Ql78. The presence of in
a water body is an indica- tor of water pollution.
(a} Zygosporangium (b} E.Coli
( c} Deinococcus raclioclurans (cl} None of the above
Ans. (b) E.Coli
Ql79. Eggshells of birds become unusually thin when exposed to the pesticides in their
environment. The protein that gets affected is
(a} Calmodulin (b} Cysteine (c} Serine
(cl} None of the above Ans. (a) Calmodulin
Q18<:l. Lichens are good bioinclicators for (a} Environmental radiation
(b} Soil pollution
(c} Water and air pollution (cl} None of the above
Ans. (c) Water and air pollution
Ql8l. A moth having a speck.led wing, able to blend into its back.ground clue to its dark.
colouration is called
(a} Industrial melanism (b} Adaptation
( c} Predation (cl} Evolution
Ans. (a) Industrial melanism
Ql82. Carbon dioxide is primarily called a greenhouse gas because
(a} Traps heat (b} Traps light
(c} Traps warm currents (cl} None of the above Ans. (a) Traps heat
Ql83. Trichoclerma harzianum is a that is preclomi- nantly used as a fungicide
(a} Virus (b} Fungus
( c} Bacteria
( cl} Protozoa Ans. (b) Fungus
30
Ql84. Greenhouse gases are those that absorb and emit in- frared radiation. Examples include
_
(a} Nitrogen (b} Ozone (c} Argon
(cl} None of the above Ans.(b) Ozone
Ql85. Depletion of the ozone layer is damaging to human health. Negative effects
include
(a} Skin cancers (b} Osteoporosis (c} Dyspepsia
(d} None of the above Ans. (a) Skin cancers
Ql86. is an organism used to gauge the quality of an ecosystem.
(a} Decomposers (b} Predator
(c} Bio-remediator (d} Bioindicator Ans. (d) Bioindicator
Ql87. is a waste disposal method where solid organic wastes are converted to the residue
and gaseous prod- ucts through combustion.
(a} Incarnation (b} Incineration
( c} Incarceration (d} Incubation
Ans. (b) Incineration
Ql88. The perfect example of selective destruction is (a} Great Indian Rhinoceros
(b} Alligators
(c} Passenger pigeon
( d} Sea gulls
Ans. (c) Passenger pigeon
Ql89. Themain reasons for animal species extinction at the current high rates are
(a} Habitat destruction (b} Hunting
(c} Over harvesting from the wild
(d} Domestication of selective species of animals Ans. (d) Domestication of selective species
of animals Ql9<:l. Habitat modification may occur due to
(a} Fragmentation of original habitat (b} Pollution
(c} Changes in species composition due to humans (d} All of the above
Ans. (d) All of the above
Ql9l. Theagent that contaminates the ............ component is called pollution.
(a} Environmental (b} Biological
(c} Non-degradable (cl} Non of the above Ans. (a) Environmental
31
Ql92. Plastics are ............ type of pollutants. (a} Secondary
(b} Non-degradable (c} Primary
(cl} Non of the above Ans. (b) Non-degradable
Ql93. Sulphur dioxide can be absorbed in small (a} Particulates
(b} Species
(c} Environment
( cl} Soil
Ans. (a) Particulates
Ql94. Which is not a waste minimization method? (a} Process modification
(b} Waste concentration (c} Waste segregation
( cl} Landfill
Ans. ( d) Landfill
Ql95. Of all animal species, ............ have inevitable spirits and capacity of adjusting to and
manipulating the environment.
(a} Human (b} Mammal (c} Water (cl} Oxygen
Ans. (a) Human
Ql96. Our ............ consumption strategies and living styles have compelled to live in
polluted environment.
(a} Resource (b} Eating (c} Living
(cl} Non of the above Ans. (a) Resource
Ql97...............are a poor method of waste disposal because they cause environmental
problems.
(a} Open dumps (b} Ground dumps
32
Ans. (a) A-5.5
33
34