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BEVAE-181 Question and Answers

To achieve 90+ marks in IGNOU TEE exams, students should understand the syllabus, create a study plan, utilize provided study materials, practice previous year question papers, and focus on key topics. On exam day, arriving early, staying calm, and strategically answering questions can enhance performance. The document also includes a disclaimer about the guess paper's content and copyright information.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
297 views109 pages

BEVAE-181 Question and Answers

To achieve 90+ marks in IGNOU TEE exams, students should understand the syllabus, create a study plan, utilize provided study materials, practice previous year question papers, and focus on key topics. On exam day, arriving early, staying calm, and strategically answering questions can enhance performance. The document also includes a disclaimer about the guess paper's content and copyright information.

Uploaded by

emaneshal900
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
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How to get 90+ Marks IN IGNOU TEE Exams?

Getting 90+ marks in IGNOU TEE exams requires consistent effort and dedication
throughout your studies. Here are some tips that can help you achieve your goal:

1. Understand the syllabus: Make sure you thoroughly understand the syllabus and
the weightage assigned to each section. This will help you focus your studies on the
most important topics and allocate your time accordingly.
2. Plan your studies: Create a study plan that covers all the topics in the syllabus and
gives you enough time to revise before the exam. Stick to your plan and attempt to
cover a certain amount of material each day.
3. Use the study material provided by IGNOU: IGNOU provides exhaustive study
material for each course, so make sure you use it effectively. Read the material
carefully, take notes and highlight essential points.
4. Practice previous year question papers: Practicing previous year question papers
is a great method to understand the exam pattern and the type of questions that are
asked. Try to solve as many previous year question papers as feasible. Use our
Guess Paper as it contains most of the previous year essential questions.
5. Focus on vital topics: Focus on essential topics that are likely to be asked in the
exam. Make sure you comprehend the key concepts and theories related to these
topics.
6. Seek help if needed: If you have doubts or need assistance with certain topics,
don't hesitate to seek help from your professors, tutors or peers.
7. Stay motivated: Stay motivated and positive throughout your endeavours. Believe
in yourself and your abilities, and keep reminding yourself of your aim to score 90+
marks in IGNOU TEE exams.

By following these tips, you can increase your chances of obtaining 90+ marks in IGNOU
TEE exams. Good success !
How to Attempt IGNOU TEE Exams Like a Pro?

We assume that you have done a good preparation for the examinations if not atleast read
our Question Bank Properly. Now its time for you to Gear up for the exam day.

● Make Sure you Reach your examination center on time Preferably before 30
minutes. And then find your examination hall,room etc.
Things to be taken in the examination Hall
- Valid IGNOU Admit Card & IGNOU Identity Card.
-Valid Government ID Card With Photo (Adhar card,Voters etc)
● After reaching examination Hall Sit Back & Relax Breath In & Out Rather than
panicking unnecessarily.
● Once the invigilator Gives you the Answer sheet booklet follow this Steps
- Fill the OMR Coloumn Properly & Write all details Properly.
- Ensure you fill OMR Section Correctly.

● Now Read the Question Paper Properly Starting to Ending. You’ll get to know what
you know what you dont (It’s quite obvious that out of panic & Anxiety you would
feel like you dont know a single questions take a deep breath & Relax. You would
already know almost 6% of the paper easily as you have studied our Galaxy
Publications Guess Paper.

● Now Attempt that question which you know very well be it last question attempt
that first in a well manner ( Make sure you write proper Question Number)
- Write Questions With Black Pen & Answers with blue Pen.
- Draw Diagrams Charts Figures with a Pencil.

● Now start Attempting others also. In this manner your starting answers are that
questions which you know very well will give a good impression to the exam
checker that you are a studious person and you know all answers correctly

● At the end attempt those questions which you dont know attempt and write some
thing related to the questions DONT LEAVE ANYTHING BLANK.

Now after attempting all questions once cross check if you have left any questions or not. If
everything is perfect then you can handover your answer sheet to invigilator
Disclaimer:- The attached guess paper is prepared by independant subject matter experts
based on there interpretation of the subject matter. The content of this inference paper is
solely for informational and educational purposes and should not be considered as an
official or authoritative source. While we have made every effort to ensure the accuracy
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conjecture paper may result in legal action.
BEVAE -181 ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES
1. Who was the chairperson of the committee that submitted
the report titled “Our Common Future” ?

(1) Maurice Strong (2) M. S. Swaminathan


(3) Gro Harlem Brundtland (4) R. K. Pachauri

2. Which one of the following is not human-made environment ?

(1) Orchards (2) Crop fields


(3) Dams (4) Artificial lake

3. United Nations’ Conference on Environment and


Development (UNCED) in 1992 was organised at :

(1) Johannesburg (2) Rio de Janeiro


(3) Stockholm (4) Paris

4. Which one of the following statements related to ecosystem is


correct ?

(1) All ecosystems have well defined boundaries.


(2) Ecosystems are self-sustaining because they are well
insulated from outside influences.
(3) An ecosystem having autotrophs and
heterotrophs but no decomposers could be self
contained.
(4) Ecosystem represents enormous contrast in size and
complexity.

5. In food chain herbivores represent :

(1) Trophic level I (2) Trophic level II


(3) Trophic level III (4) Trophic level IV
6. The large reservoir of sulphur on the earth’s surface is :

(1) Soil and sediments (2) Ocean


(3) Atmosphere (4) Organisms

7. Which one of the following is known as the primary community ?


(1) Mosses (2) Lichen
(3) Grasses (4) Shrubs

8. The predominant predatory bird in desert ecosystem is :


(1) Calotes versicolor (2) Uromastyx hardwickii
(3) Rhacophorus malabaricus (4) Gyps bengalensis

9. The unattached organism in an aquatic ecosystem which


lives at the interface of air-water is known as :
(1) Neuston (2) Nekton
(3) Plankton (4) Benthos

10. In ocean ......... zone is shallow and rich in


species with high productivity.
(1) Littoral (2) Neritic
(3) Pelagic (4) Benthic

11. Which one of the following forests has the most diverse
communities ?
(1) Coniferous forest (2) Temperate evergreen forest
(3) Tropical rainforest (4) Sub-tropical rainforest

12. Loss of water in vapour form from the plant is known as :


(1) Condensation (2) Sublimation
(3) Evaporation (4) Transpiration
13. Which one of the following is an economic impact of drought ?
(1) Conflict between water users
(2) Loss of crop
(3) Erosion of soils
(4) Shortages of food
14. The type of soil found in the Deccan Malwa plateau of
Western and Central India is :
(1) Black soil (2) Red soil
(3) Laterite soil (4) Alluvial soil

15. Which one of the following is not a major cause of land


degradation ?
(1) Deforestation (2) Overgrazing
(3) Development of watershed (4) Agricultural
mismanagement

16. Which one of the following statements about the tropical


rainforest is
not correct ?
(1) It covers less than 7% of the earth’s land surface.
(2) It accounts for more than 50% of all known species.
(3) About 62% of all known plants are found in these rainforests.
(4) The rainforests are only found around Amazon and Nile
basin.

17. It has been estimated that India needs .......... percentage


area under forest to meet the ecological and economic needs.

(1) 30 (2) 50
(3) 33 (4) 25

18. NTFP stands for :

(1) New Timber-based Forest Product


(2) Non-Timber-based Forest Product
(3) Natural Timber-based Forest Product
(4) New Timber-based Forest Programme

19. Which one of the following diversity is known as the


“fundamental currency of diversity” ?

(1) Genetic diversity (2) Species diversity


(3) Ecosystem diversity (4) Both genetic and species
diversity
20. Which one of the following biogeographic zone covers the largest
area in India ?

(1) The Himalayas (2) The Deccan peninsula


(3) The Gangetic plain (4) The coasts

21. About two thirds of India’s endemic plants are confined to :

(1) The Indian desert (2) The Himalayas


(3) The Islands (4) The Western Ghats

22. Which one of the following is not true about India as a mega bio
(1) India has ten biogeographic regions.
(2) India is one of the 12 centres of origin of cultivated plants.
(3) India has 6 hotspots out of 34 global biodiversity hotspots.
(4) India has two major realms and three biomes.

23. In India the first wave and tidal energy project was set up at :
(1) Vizhinjam in Kerala
(2) Hansthal Creek in Gujarat
(3) Sunderbans in West Bengal
(4) Chennai in Tamil Nadu
24. Which one of the following sources contributes maximum
electricity in India ?
(1) Hydropower (2) Oil
(3) Coal (4) Natural gas

25. Which one of the following source of energy is used maximum


in rural India ?
(1) Coal (2) Biogas
(3) Solar (4) Biomass
26. Maximum population that can be supported by the
resources of the planet at a given level of technology is
known as :
(1) Technological carrying capacity
(2) Social carrying capacity
(3) Biophysical carrying capacity
(4) Sustainable carrying capacity

27. Which one of the following is an example of selective


destruction of species ?
(1) Passenger pigeon (2) Great Indian Rhinoceros
(3) Salmon (4) Sea gulls

28. Which one of the following is an invasive species in the semi-


arid areas of India ?
(1) Golden apple snail (2) Congress grass
(3) Mesquite (4) Water hyacinth

29. Which one of the following is not an ex-situ


conservation of biodiversity ?
(1) Seed Bank (2) National Parks and
Sanctuaries
(3) Botanical Gardens (4) Zoological Parks
30. Match the following :

Wetlands States

(a) Sunderbans (i) Punjab


(b) Harike (ii) Rajasthan
(c) Chilka (iii) West Bengal
(d) Bharatpur (iv) Odisha
Codes :
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii (4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
31. Which one of the following is a non-point source of pollution ?
(1) Sewage treatment plants
(2) Gases coming out of chimneys
(3) Pollutants discharge through tunnels
(4) Agricultural runoff

32. Which one of the following is not a natural pollutant ?


(1) Pollens and volatile organic compounds from plants
(2) Sulphur dioxides from volcanic eruption
(3) Smog
(4) Particles from wild fires

33. The full form of TDS


stands for :
(1) Total Dissolved
Substances
(2) Total Dissolved Solids
(3) Total Dissolved Solutions
(4) Total Dissolved Solvents

34. Decibel-A (db A) measures :


(1) Pitch of the sound
(2) Pressure of the sound
(3) Pitch and intensity of the sound
(4) Pitch and pressure of the sound
35. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of hazardous
waste ?

(1) Pungent odour (2) Ignitability

(3) Radioactivity (4) Toxicity

36. Which one of the following is a physical treatment of hazardous


waste ?

(1) Conditioning (2) Lagooning

(3) Digestion (4) Composting

33. Which one of the following methods is generally used when


many industries and urban areas do not have enough vacant
space for disposal of wastes ?
(1) Undergrouond disposal
(2) Dumping at sea
(3) Incineration
(4) Both underground disposal and dumping at sea

34. The Inter-Governmental Panel on Climate Change


(IPCC) was
established in :
(1) 1985 (2) 1986
(3) 1987 (4) 1988

35. Maximum concentration of ozone is found in :


(1) Troposphere (2) Stratosphere
(3) Mesosphere (4) Ionosphere

36. Which one of the following is not an effect of acid rain ?


(1) Increase in temperature of the earth’s surface
(2) Detrimental effects on crops and forest
(3) Heart and lung problems
(4) Affects aquatic plants and animals

37. Earth Summit, 2002 was organised at :


(1) Rio de Janeiro (2) Stockholm
(3) Johannesburg (4) Paris

38. In which of the following cities, one of the zonal branches of


National Green Tribunal is located ?
(1) Mumbai (2) New Delhi
(3) Hyderabad (4) Bhopal

37. Which one of the following Articles in the constitution of India


states that “The state shall endeavour to protect and improve
the environment and safeguard the forest and wildlife of the
country” ?
(1) Article 51 A (2) Article 48 A
(3) Article 52 A (4) Article 47 A

38. The major factors responsible for the increase in population


between 10,000 B. C. and about 1800 A. D. was largely due to
:

(1) Increasing birth rates coincided with the growth of


agriculture
(2) High birth rate and low death rate
(3) High birth rate coinciding with the industrial revolution
(4) Industrial revolution, urbanisation and better health
care service leading to low death rate.
39. Which one of the following diseases cannot be regarded
entirely as genetic ?
(1) Thalassemia (2) Haemophilia
(3) Schizophrenia (4) Sickle-cell anaemia

40. Match the following :

Types Hazards

(a) Atmospheric (i) Pest invasions

(b) Biological (ii) Landslides

(c) Geological (iii) Heat wave

(d) Hydrological (iv) Floods

Codes :
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv (4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

39. Silent valley is located along the river :

(1) Periyar (2) Vaigai

(3) Tungabhadra (4) Kunthi

40. Which one of the following is not a factor for the creation of
new set of environmental ethics ?

(1) New effects on nature

(2) Advancement in science and technology


ANSWERS :
1. Who was the chairperson of the committee that submitted the report titled “Our Common
Future”?
- (3) Gro Harlem Brundtland

2. Which one of the following is not human-made environment?


- (1) Orchards

3. United Nations’ Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) in 1992 was


organized at:
- (2) Rio de Janeiro

4. Which one of the following statements related to ecosystem is correct?


- (4) Ecosystem represents enormous contrast in size and complexity.

5. In a food chain, herbivores represent:


- (2) Trophic level II

6. The large reservoir of sulphur on the earth’s surface is:


- (1) Soil and sediments

7. Which one of the following is known as the primary community?


- (2) Lichen

8. The predominant predatory bird in desert ecosystem is:


- (4) Gyps bengalensis

9. The unattached organism in an aquatic ecosystem which lives at the interface of air-
water is known as:
- (1) Neuston

10. In ocean, the ____ zone is shallow and rich in species with high productivity.
- (1) Littoral
11. Which one of the following forests has the most diverse communities?
- (3) Tropical rainforest

12. Loss of water in vapor form from the plant is known as:
- (4) Transpiration

13. Which one of the following is an economic impact of drought?


- (2) Loss of crop

14. The type of soil found in the Deccan Malwa plateau of Western and Central India is:
- (1) Black soil

15. Which one of the following is not a major cause of land degradation?
- (3) Development of watershed

16. Which one of the following statements about the tropical rainforest is not correct?
- (4) The rainforests are only found around Amazon and Nile basin.

17. It has been estimated that India needs ____ percentage area under forest to meet the
ecological and economic needs.
- (3) 33

18. NTFP stands for:


- (2) Non-Timber-based Forest Product

19. Which one of the following diversity is known as the “fundamental currency of
diversity”?
- (4) Both genetic and species diversity

20. Which one of the following biogeographic zones covers the largest area in India?
- (2) The Deccan peninsula
21. About two-thirds of India’s endemic plants are confined to:
- (4) The Western Ghats

22. Which one of the following is not true about India as a mega biodiversity country?
- (4) India has two major realms and three biomes.

23. In India, the first wave and tidal energy project was set up at:
- (1) Vizhinjam in Kerala

24. Which one of the following sources contributes maximum electricity in India?
- (3) Coal

25. Which one of the following sources of energy is used most in rural India?
- (4) Biomass

26. Maximum population that can be supported by the resources of the planet at a given
level of technology is known as:
- (4) Sustainable carrying capacity

27. Which one of the following is an example of selective destruction of species?


- (1) Passenger pigeon

28. Which one of the following is an invasive species in the semi-arid areas of India?
- (3) Mesquite

29. Which one of the following is not an ex-situ conservation of biodiversity?


- (2) National Parks and Sanctuaries
30. Match the following:
- (2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
31. Which one of the following is a non-point source of pollution?
- (4) Agricultural runoff
32. Which one of the following is not a natural pollutant?
- (3) Smog
33. The full form of TDS stands for:
- (2) Total Dissolved Solids
34. Decibel-A (db A) measures:
- (3) Pitch and intensity of the sound
35. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of hazardous waste?
- (1) Pungent odor
36. Which one of the following is a physical treatment of hazardous waste?
- (1) Conditioning

37. Which one of the following methods is generally used when many industries and urban
areas do not have enough vacant space for disposal of wastes?
- (3) Incineration
38. The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) was established in:
- (3) 1987
39. Maximum concentration of ozone is found in:
- (2) Stratosphere
40. Silent valley is located along the river:
- (1) Periyar
PART:2
Ql. The concept of Determinism was developed by: (a} Friedrich Ratzel

(b} Lucien Febvre

(c} Ellsworth Huntington (d} Non of above

Ans. (a} Friedrich Ratzel

Q2. The concept of Sustainable Development was formally de- fined in the report titled

(a} OurEnvironment and World (b} Our Common Future

(c} Interaction with Future (d} Our Changing world

Ans. (b} Our Common Future

Q3. The Earth summit was organised by (a} UNESCO

(b} UNCED (c} WHO (d} UNICEF

Ans. (b} UNCED

Q4. Any adulterated elements leak. into the ground, filtration, and are carried into a
groundwater reservoir is known as

(a} Land contamination (b} Noise pollution

(c} Water pollution (d} Air pollution

Ans. (c} Water pollution

QS. South Africa is a leading exporter of which mineral: (a} Copper

(b} Diamond ( c} Silver (d} Platinum

Ans. (d} Platinum

Q6. Which of the following options is correct when we only ac- complish two out of three
pillars of sustainable development?

(a} Economic + Environmental sustainability = Viable

(b} Social + Environmental sustainability = Bearable (c} Social + Economic sustainability


= Equitable
(cl} All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above

Q7. In which year did the word 'sustainable development' come into existence?

(a} 1992

(b} 1978 (c} 198<:l (cl} 1987

Ans. (c) 1980

Q8. In which year was the United Nations Commission on Sustainable Development
(CSD} started by the UN General Assembly?

(a} 1995

(b} 1994

(c} 1993

(cl} 1992

Ans. (d) 1992

Q9. After mining, the huge holes left behind are used for

(a} Wastewater storage

(b} Waste and water storage (c} Waste disposal

(cl} Waste storage Ans. (c) Waste disposal

Ql<:l. Mercury and lead are toxic elements that cause

(a} Noise pollution (b} Air pollution (c} Water pollution

(cl} Land contamination Ans. (d) Land contamination

Qll. What is the other word for landscaping?

(a} Reduction (b} Restoration

(c} Removing topsoil

(cl} Restore

Ans. (b) Restoration


Ql2. What does a firm seek. for whenever the price of the min- eral remains high7

(a} New countries

(b} Remains the same (c} New miners

(d} New deposits Ans. (d) New deposits

Ql3. Which of the following options is not incorporated as sus- tainable development
parameters?

(a} Gender disparity and diversity

(b} Inter andintra-generational equity (c} Carrying capacity

(d} None of the above Ans. (d) None of the above

Ql4. Environmental studies is defined as the branch that deals with the:

(a} Design, study, and discovery of new materials.

(b} The study of humanities, social, biological, and physical sciences.

(c} Incorporate the information and physical sciences.

(d} Approach about the natural world and the impact of humans on its integrity.

Ans. (d) Approach about the natural world and the impact of humans on its integrity.

Ql5. Which of the following statement about the Zoological

Survey of India (ZSI} is true7

(a} It was established in 189<:l at the Royal Botanical Gardens, Calcutta.

(b} It is the first crocodile conservation breeding center in Asia. (c} It was established in
1916 to do an organized survey of fauna in India.

(d} It was established in 1982 for research in Wildlife Manage- ment.

Ans. (c) It was established in 1916 to do an organized survey of fauna in India.

Ql6. Which layer of the atmosphere contains the ozone respon-

sible for the absorption of UV (Ultra-Violet} light7 (a} Stratosphere

(b} Troposphere (c} Mesosphere (d} None of these

Ans. (a) Stratosphere


Ql7. The estimated percentage of the forest land that ideally India should have is:

(a} 5(:)%

(b} 15%

(c} 33%

(d} 44%

Ans. (c) 33%

Ql8. Which two countries of the world constitute about 57% of the large dams7

(a} India and China (b} India and Brazil (c} China and Brazil (d} India and Japan

Ans. (a) India and China

Ql9. The essential non-metallic minerals are: (a} Granite, marble, limestone

(b} Gold, silver, platinum

(c} Iron, aluminum, zinc, copper (d} Coal, clay, cement, silica Ans. (d) Coal, clay, cement,
silica

Q2<:l. Integrated Crop Management is defined as a process to: (a} Use the traditional
methods for growing crops.

(b} Using alternatives to inorganic fertilizers and pesticides. (c} Both (a} and (b}

(d} None of the above Ans. (c) Both (a) and (b)

Q2l. Which three edible plant species constitute about 6(:)% supply of the world's food
energy intak.e7

(a} Wheat, Barley, Oat (b} Wheat, Rice, Maize (c} Wheat, Barley, maize (d} None of
these

Ans. (b) Wheat, Rice, Maize

Q22. Which of the following is not a measure of sustainable water management?

(a} Preventing leak.age from dams and canals (b} Reducing the rate of surface run-off
water. (c} Preventing loss in the municipal pipes.

(d} Building small reservoirs in place of a few mega projects. Ans. (b) Reducing the rate of
surface run-off water.
Q23. Which element is considered the largest source of world's commercial energy
consumption?

(a} Coal

(b} Oil

( c} Natural gas ( cl} Nuclear Ans. (b) Nuclear

Q24. What are the two forms of alcohol are included in biofuels7

(a} Ethanol and methanol (b} Ethanol and propanol (c} Methanol and propanol (cl} None
of the above

Ans. (a) Ethanol and methanol

Q25. What is the world's largest potential source of biomass energy?

(a} Animal waste (b} Industrial waste

(c} Fibrous waste of the paper industry

(cl} Fibrous waste of the sugar industry Ans. (d) Fibrous waste of the sugar industry

Q26. The functional aspects of the ecosystem are: (a} Energy cycles

(b} Nutrient cycles

( c} Food chains

(cl} All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above

Q27. Which of the following is also called Cetrivores7 (a} Herbivores

(b} Decomposers (c} Carnivores

(cl} None of the above Ans. (b) Decomposers

Q28. What are 'keystone' species in an ecosystem?

(a} The species whose elimination can seriously affect the ecosystem.

(b} The species whose elimination can benefit the ecosystem. (c} The species whose
elimination would not affect the ecosys- tem.

(cl} None of the above

Ans. (a) The species whose elimination can seriously affect the ecosystem.
Q29. Which of the following activity is incorrect about the im- pact of human activities on
the ecosystem?

Depletion of ground water

Extinction of species

Decrease of forest area

None of the above Ans. (d) None of the above

Q3<:l. Which element is a building block. of both animals and plant tissues?

Sulfur

Carbon

Nitrogen

None of the above Ans. (b) Carbon

Q3l. Which human activity can decreases the oxygen levels present in the atmosphere?

Deforestation

Animal hunting

Mining

Both (a) and (c) Ans. (a) Deforestation

Q32. A large number of interlinked chains in an ecosystem to- gether forms a:

Nitrogen cycle

Carbon cycle

Food web

Food chain Ans. (c) Food chain

Q33. The type of forests grown in the Himalayan mountain re- gion is called:

Broad-leaved forests

Coniferous forests

Deciduous forests

None of the above Ans. (b) Coniferous forests


Q34. Which one of the following is not direct use of forest products?

Bamboo for baskets

Medicine

(c} Gums and resins (d} Grass for grazing

Ans. (c) Gums and resins

Q35. Which of the following is a forest service? (a} Reduces the surface run-off rain water.

(b} Prevents soil erosion.

(c} Regulate the local temperature. (d} All of the above.

Ans. (d) All of the above.

Q36. Which of the following is not a reason for the forest loss7 (a} Increasing use of wood

(b} Extinction of species

(c} Extensive use of fuel woods (d} Mining and building dams Ans. (b) Extinction of
species

Q37. Which insects live andbreed in the forest area7 (a} Bees

(b} Moths

( c} Butterflies

(d} All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above

Q38. Jowar and Bajra grow in the areas that have: (a} High moisture

(b} Little moisture (c} No moisture

(d} None of the above Ans. (b) Little moisture

Q39. Which of the following activity canlower the water table7 (a} Soil erosion

(b} Growth of human population

(c} Over extraction of groundwater (d} Over grazing

Ans. (c) Over extraction of groundwater

Q4<:l. Brackish water ecosystems are found in which of the following:

(a} Streams (b} Wetlands


(c} Coastal shallows (d} Deltas

Ans. ( d) Deltas

Q41. Which of the following factors leads to Eutrophication7

(a} Excessive use of fertilizers (b} Increase of plant nutrients (c} Both (a} and (b}

(cl} None of the above Ans. (c) Both (a) and (b)

Q42. Which ofthe following is not a Biogeographic zone of lndia7

(a} Thar Desert of Rajasthan (b} The Brahmaputra Plains (c} South-east zone

(cl} North-east zone Ans. (c) South-east zone

Q43. Which day is celebrated as World Environment day7 (a} June 18th

(b} June 5th

( c} July 5th

(cl} October 28th Ans. (b) June 5th

Q44. What will be the impact of the absence of ants on the

Earth7

(a} No effect

(b} Destroys life

(c} A little adverse impact (cl} Decrease in termites Ans. (b) Destroys life

Q45. Name the drug associated with the plant source tea or coffee7

(a} Opium Poppy (b} Thorn apple (c} Caffeine

(cl} Camphor Ans. (c) Caffeine

Q46. Which sacred grove act as the gene banks for wild plants? (a} Deorais

(b} Jahera (c} Mauhak.

(cl} None of these Ans. (a) Deorais

Q47. What are the numbers of biodiversity hotspots in the world7

(a} 18

(b} 28
(c} 32

( cl} 36

Ans. (d) 36

Q48. The major part of the extinction of species occurs in which of the following bio-rich
areas7

(a} Tropical forests (b} Wetlands

( c} Coral reefs

(cl} All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above

Q49. Which ofthe following species is used in indigenous medicine?

(a} Zizyphus (b} Tamarind (c} Babul

(cl} None of the above Ans. (d) None of the above

Q58. Which of the following element is responsible for ground- water pollution in various
states?

(a} Chlorine (b} Fluoride (c} Chemicals

(cl} None of the above Ans. (b) Fluoride

Q5l. Themost frequent and naturally occurring disaster is: (a} Drought

(b} Tsunami

( c} Flood

(cl} Earthquake Ans. (c) Flood

Q52. The worst natural hazards in the tropics are: (a} Tropical cyclones

(b} Tsunami

( c} Floods

(cl} None of the above Ans. (a) Tropical cyclones Q53. UNCEC stands for:

(a} United Nations Corporation on Environment and Develop- ment

(b} United Nations Conference on Environment and Develop- ment

(c} United Nations Corporation on Environment and Disasters


(cl} United Nations Conference on Environment and Disasters Ans. (b) United Nations
Conference on Environment and Develop- ment

Q54. Which of the following material is not used in urban hous-

ing is very energy intensive? (a} Steel

(b} Cement

(c} Burnt bricks

( cl} Silver

Ans. (d) Silver

QSS. The worst sufferers of environmental destruction are: (a} Rich

(b} Moderate class (c} Poor

(cl} All of the above Ans. ( c) Poor

Q56. The adaption of traditional medicine in industrialized coun- tries is termed as CAM,
which stands for:

(a} Cooperative and Alternative Medicine

(b} Complementary and Associative Medicine (c} Cooperative and Associative Medicine

(cl} Complementary and Alternative Medicine Ans. (d) Complementary and Alternative
Medicine

QS7. The single largest preventable cause of cancer is: (a} Tobacco smoking

(b} Alcohol consumption (c} Both (a} and (b}

(cl} None of the above Ans. (a) Tobacco smoking

QS8. Which of the following is the key measure to reduce the number of diarrhea cases7

(a} Improved sanitation (b} Food hygiene

(c} Safe drinking water (cl} All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above

QS9. Which element present in the drinking water can lead to various fatal diseases?

(a} Calcium (b} Arsenic

(c} Phosphorus

(d} None of the above Ans. (b) Arsenic


Q6<:l. Hepatitis A is a type of:

(a} Water-borne disease (b} Air-borne disease

(c} Food contamination (d} Both (a} and (c}

Ans. (d) Both (a) and (c)

Q6l. Forest Conservation act was amended in which of the fol- lowing year7

(a} 1952

(b} 1963

(c} 1988

(d} 1978

Ans. (c) 1988

Q62. Which of the following gases are not permitted to release by the Government
Prevention and Control of Pollution Act7 (a} Nitrogen Oxide

(b} Sulfur Dioxide (c} Carbon monoxide (d} All of the above

Ans. (d) All of the above

Q63. The 3R principle is in which of the following order: (a} Reduce, Reuse, Recycle

(b} Reuse, Reduce, Recycle (c} Recycle, Reuse, Reduce, (d} None of the above

Ans. (a) Reduce, Reuse, Recycle

Q64. In which of the following reports/books was 'Sustainable Development' formally


defined for the first time7

(a} Silent Spring

(b} The Limits to Growth (c} Our Common Future (d} Agenda 21

Ans. (c) Our Common Future

Q65. Which one of the following is not one of the seventeen Sustainable Development
Goals adopted by UN7

(a} No Poverty

(b} Zero Hunger

(c} Good Health and Well-being (d} Tourism and Travel


Ans. (d) Tourism and Travel

Q66. The natural residence of every organism is known as: (a} Biome

(b} Niche (c} Habit (d} Habitat

Ans. (d) Habitat

Q67. What is the name of the feature that allows organisms to survive in the conditions of
its habitat?

(a} Adjustment (b} Adaptation

(c} Acclimatisation (d} Adaptive variation

Ans. (b) Adaptation

Q68. Shelford's law of tolerance is named after: (a} James Shelford

(b} Jacob Shelford (c} Ernest Shelford (d} None of these

Ans. ( c) Ernest Shelford

Q69. Shelford's law of tolerance suggests that organisms with a wide tolerance limit for
environmental factors show:

(a} Narrow distribution with low population (b} Wide distribution with high population (c}
Wide distribution with high population (d} Narrow distribution with high population

Ans. (b) Wide distribution with high population Q7<:l. Wide variety of living organisms is
called: (a} Biodiversity

(b} Population (c} Habitat (d} Diversity

Ans. (a) Biodiversity

Q7l. Animal adopt a similar state like sleep to reduce their metabolic rate, it is called:

(a} Migration

(b} Transpiration (c} Hibernating

(d} None of these

Ans. (c) Hibernating

Q72. Hyenas and Vultures are . (a} Omnivorous

(b} Scavengers (c} Carnivorous (d} Herbivorous


Ans. (b) Scavengers

Q73. A mutual relationship between two organisms, where both of them are benefitting
from watch other is called:

(a} Mutualism (b} Symbiosis (c} Parasitism (d} Food chain

Ans. (a) Mutualism

Q74. Which is not a feature of heliophyte among the following? (a} Stem with long
internodes

(b} Numerous rootlets

( c} Long lateral roots

(d} Vigorous fruiting and flowering

Ans. (a) Stern with long internodes

Q75. Which of the following is not a feature of 'r' selected species?

(a} Reproduce quickly

(b} The low survival rate of progenies

(c} Reproduce a large number of progenies

( d} Paternal care

Ans. (d) Paternal care

Q76. The term ecosystem was proposed by

(a} Lindeman (b} Tansley (c} Grinnel (d} Turesson

Ans. (b) Tansley

Q77. What is the percentage of oxygen and carbon dioxide ex- ists in the ecosystem?

(a} 2<:l.95% and e.<:l<:l4% (b} 2<:l.95% and e.e4% ( c} 2<:l.(:)% and <:l.4(:)%

( d} 2<:l.<:l% and <:l.44%

Ans. (b) 20.95% and 0.04%

Q78. Which of the following is the smallest artificial ecosystem that has sustained for a
long perioc17
Folsom pond

Folsom bottle

Folsom stream

(cl) None of these

Ans. (b) Folsom bottle

Q79. group of species exploits the biotic and abiotic resources in the same way.

Community

Ecacls

Biomes

( cl) Guild

Ans. (d) Guild

Q8<:l. Which is/are the abiotic components of an ecosystem?

Soil

Protein

Carbon

(cl) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above

Q81. The set of ecosystems is called .

Atmosphere

Hydrosphere

Biosphere

(cl) None of the above Ans. (c) Biosphere

Q82. A single bacterium in the soil interacts with

The water

Air

Particles of soil around it

(cl) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above


Q83. The region of earth, where life exists is known as

Atmosphere

Biosphere

Lithosphere (cl) Hydrosphere Ans. (b) Biosphere

Q84. In the biosphere energy is received from

The Sun

(b} The interior of the earth (c} Both (A} and (B}

(cl} Work.

Ans. (c) Both (a) and (b)

Q85. The Biosphere consists of the following (a} Lakes

(b} Soils

(c} Solid sediments

(cl} All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above

Q86. In which of the following form(s}, the waster products are discharged into the
biosphere?

(a} Gaseous (b} Liquid

( c} Solid

(cl} All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above

Q87. Ecosystem is smallest unit of (a} Ionosphere

(b} Lithosphere (c} Biosphere (cl} Mesosphere

Ans. (c) Biosphere

Q88. Energy in an Ecosystem. (a} is released

(b} is absorbed (c} flows

(cl} None of the above Ans. ( c) flows

Q89. The set of ecosystems is called a (a} Biome

(b} Climate
(c} Subsystem (cl} Structure Ans. (a) Biome

Q9<:l. The following is an example of Terrestrial Biome (a} Tropical rain forest

(b} Rivers (c} Streams

(cl} All of the above

Ans. (a) Tropical rain forest

Q9l. Terrestrial biomes has a rapid exchange of (a} Carbon dioxide

(b} Oxygen (c} Water

(d} All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above

Q92. Which animal drinks water periodically and is physiologi- cally adapted to withstand
tissue dehydration for long period? (a} Lion

(b} Tiger (c} Camel

(d} Elephant Ans. (c) Camel

Q93. Which biome experiences intense heat and strong wind with a great desiccating action
during April to June7

(a} Tundra biome

(b} Desert biome (c} Forest biome

(d} Grassland biome Ans. (b) Desert biome

Q94. On which animal Calotes and Uromastyx are predatory in Thar desert

(a} desert locust (b} desert gerbil

( c} desert dragon flies (d} desert snakes Ans. (a) desert locust

Q95. Energy flow in ecosystem is . (a} Bidirectional

(b} Multidirectional (c} Unidirectional (d} All around

Ans. (c) Unidirectional

Q96. Which one of the following is one of the characteristics of a biological community?

(a} Sex-ratio

(b} Stratification
( c} Natality

( d} Mortality

Ans. (b) Stratification

Q97. Which of the following is an example of man-made ecosystem?

(a} Tissue culture (b} Aquarium

(c} Herbarium

( cl} Forest

Ans. (b) Aquarium

Q98. These belong to the category of primary consumers (a} Snakes and Frogs

(b} Insects and cattle (c} Eagle and snakes (cl} Water insects

Ans. (b) Insects and cattle

Q99. Which one of the following pairs in mismatched? (a} Tundra - permafrost

(b} Coniferous forest - evergreen trees (c} Savanna - acacia trees

(cl} Prairie - epiphytes Ans. (d) Prairie - epiphytes

Qlee. Which is the reason for highest biomass in aquatic ecosystem?

(a} Benthonic and brown algae (b} Sea grass, and slime molds

( c} Nanoplank ton, blue green algae, green algae (cl} Diatoms

Ans. (a) Benthonic and brown algae

Ql<:ll. The average trophic efficiency of transfer of energy from one trophic level to the
higher trophic level is called

(a} Linclerman's trophic efficiency rule (b} Exploitation efficiency

( c} Assimilation. Efficiency (cl} Gross primary production

Ans. (a) Linderman's trophic efficiency rule

Ql<:l2. Which one of the following is correct matching of a plant, its habit and the forest
type where it normally occurs?

(a} Prosopis, tree, scrub


(b} Saccharum, grass, forest

(c} Shorea robusta, herb, tropical rain forest (cl} Acacia catechu, tree, coniferous forest
Ans. (a) Prosopis, tree, scrub

Ql83. In a comparative study of grassland ecosystem and pond ecosystem, it may be


observed that

(a} primary and secondary consumers are similar (b} the abiotic components are almost
similar

(c} the biotic components are almost similar

(d} both biotic and abiotic components are different

Ans. (b} the abiotic components are almost similar Ql84. Thepyramid of energy is
always upright for any ecosys- tem. This situation indicates the fact that

(a} Herbivores have a better energy conversion efficiency than carnivores.

(b} Producers have the lowest energy conversion efficiency. (c} Carnivores have better
energy conversion efficiency than herbivores.

(d} Energy conversion efficiency is the same in all trophic levels.

Ans. (a) Herbivores have a better energy conversion ef- ficiency than carnivores.

Ql85. Study the following lists:

List - I List - II

Population I. Part of the earth consisting of all the ecosystems of the world

Community II. Assemblage of all the individu- als belonging to different


species occurring in an area

Ecosystem Ill. Group of similar individuals belonging to the same species found
in an area

Ecosphere IV. Interaction between the living

organisms and their physical environmental components

V. Classification of organisms based on the type of environment.

(a} A - I, B - IV, C - V, D - Ill

(b} A - V, B - II, C - Ill, D - I


(c} A - II, B - Ill, C - V, D - IV

(d} A - Ill, B - II, C - IV, D - I

Ans. (d) A - 111, B - 11, C - IV, D - I

Ql86. Assertion: Tropical rain forests are disappearing fast from developing countries such
as India.

Reason: No value is attached to these forests because these are poor in biodiversity.

The correct answer is:

(a} Both Assertion and Reason are true andReason is the cor- rect explanation of the
Assertion.

(b} Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanations of
Assertion.

(c} Assertion is true, but Reason is false. (cl} Both Assertion and Reason are false.

Ans. (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.

Ql<:l7. The tiny free-swimming animals on the surface of water constitute

(a} Phytoplankton (b} Symbionts

(c} Benthos

( cl} Zoo plank ton Ans. ( d) Zooplank ton

Ql<:l8. The biomass available for consumption by the herbivores and the decomposers is
called

(a} Gross primary productivity (b} Net primary productivity (c} Secondary productivity

(cl} Standing crop

Ans. (b) Net primary productivity

Ql<:l9. Transfer of energy in different trophic levels of an ecosystem is called

(a} Bioenergetics (b} Biosystem

(c} Geobiocoenosis
( cl} Holocoenotic

Ans. (a) Bioenergetics

Qll<:l. The species, though insignificant in number, determine the existence of many other
species in a given ecosystem.

Such species is known as (a} Keystone species

(b} Sacred species (c} Endemic species (cl} Extinct species

Ans. (a) Keystone species Qlll. Acacia arabica is (a} Hyclrophyte

(b} Mesophyte (c} Xerophyte

(cl} None of these Ans. (c) Xerophyte

Qll2. Theremains of the dead plants and animals is called (a} Detritus

(b} Cetritivores (c} Humus

( cl} Litter

Ans. (a) Detritus

Qll3. Thenature's cleaners are (a} Producers

(b} Consumers

(c} Decomposers and scavengers

(cl} Symbionts

Ans. (c) Decomposers and scavengers

Qll4. Themost recently discovered ecosystem is (a} Vents

(b} Crater (c} Tundra

( cl} Floating iceberg Ans. (a) Vents

QllS. Which of the following contribute to the carbon cycling? (a} Respiration

(b} Photosynthesis

(c} Fossil fuel combustion

(cl} All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above


Qll6. Which of the following contribute to the carbon cycling? (a} Respiration

(b} Photosynthesis

(c} Fossil fuel combustion

(cl} All of the above Ans. (a) Respiration Qll7. A producer is :

(a} at the start of a food chain

(b} at the bottom of the ecological pyramid (c} an autotroph

( cl} all of these

Ans. ( d) all of these

Qll8. A detritus food chain begins:

(a} always in the ocean (b} with a producer

(c} with decaying organic matter

(cl} with air pollution

Ans. (c) with decaying organic matter

Qll9. Natural disasters such as hurricanes and floods are link.eel to:

(a} old field succession (b} primary succession (c} secondary succession (cl} climax
succession

Ans. (b) primary succession

Ql2<:l. Top consumers for obtaining energy eat (a} herbivores

(b} carnivores (c} omnivores

(cl} all of the above Ans. (d) all of the above

Ql2l. In an ecosystem, the decomposition of organisms takes place by7

(a} Phagotrophs (b} Reducers

(c} Primary

(cl} Secondary Consumers Ans. (b) Reducers

PART :2
Ql. In which of the following do forests not play a significant role7
(a} Soil formation
(b} Water conservation
(c} Regeneration of carbon dioxide (d} Moderation of climate
Ans. (c} Regeneration of carbon dioxide
Q2. Which one of the following is an example of human modified environment?
(a} Artificial lakes (b} Orchards
( c} Crops fields (d} Cams
Ans. (d} Dams
Q3. Which one of the following regions covers more than 5<:l% plant species in the
world7
(a} Tropical Rain Forests
(b} Tropical Deciduous Forests (c} Temperate Evergreen Forests (d} Temperate
Deciduous Forests Ans. (a} Tropical Rain Forests
Q4. Crown fire mostly takes place in which of the following forests?
(a} Dense Forest (b} Thorn Forest (c} Savanna Forest (d} Alpine Forest
Ans. (a) Dense Forest
Q5. Which one of the following statements is not an argument in favour of multi-purpose
river projects?
(a} Multi-purpose projects bring water to those areas which suffer from water scarcity.
(b} Multi-purpose projects by regulating water flow help to con- trol floods.
(c} Multi-purpose projects lead to large-scale displacements and loss of livelihood.
(d} Multi-purpose projects generate electricity for our indus- tries and our homes.
Ans. (c) Multi-purpose projects lead to large-scale displace- ments and loss of livelihood.
Q6. Which is not a source cf fresh water7
Glaciers and ice sheets
Groundwater
Surface run off
(cl) Oceans Ans. (d) Oceans
Q7. Which cf the following is not cause cf water scarcity?
Growing population
Growing cf water intensive crop
Expansion cf irrigation facilities (cl) Water harvesting technique Ans. (d) Water harvesting
technique
Q8. Bhak.ra Nangal River Valley Project is made on the river:
Sutlej-Beas
Ravi-Chenab
Ganga
(cl) Son
Ans. (a) Sutlej-Beas
Q9. Hirak.ucl Dam is constructed on the river:
Ganga
Manjira
Manas
(cl) Mahanacli Ans. (b) Manjira
Ql<:l. The diversion channels seen in the Western Himalayas are called:
Guls or Kuls
Khaclins
Jchacls
(cl) Recharge pits Ans. (a) Guls or Kuls
Qll. Agricultural fields which are used as rainfecl storage structures are called:
Kuls
Khadins/ Jchacls
Recharge pits
(cl) None cf the above Ans. (b) Khadins/ Johads
Ql2. Underground tanks seen in Rajasthan to store rainwater for drinking is called:
(a} Tank.as (b} Khaclin ( c} Ponds (cl} Kuls
Ans. (a) Tankas
Ql3. In Western Rajasthan today plenty of water is available clue to:
(a} rooftop water harvesting (b} perennial Rajasthan Canal (c} construction of Tank.as (cl}
none of the above
Ans. (b) perennial Rajasthan Canal
Ql4. In the North-eastern Hills bamboo drip irrigation is prac- ticed to conserve water
(a} water (b} soil
(c} non of the above (cl} both (a} and (b} Ans. (a) water
Ql5. Which one of the following is not an adverse effect of irrigation?
(a} Irrigation changes cropping pattern
(b} Water intensive crops are grown in dry areas
( c} Salinisation of soil
( cl} Increases crop yield Ans. (d) Increases crop yield
Ql6. Which of the following social movements is/ are not a resistance to multi-purpose
projects?
(a} Narmada Bachao Anclolan (b} Tehri Cam Anclolan
(c} Navclanya
(cl} Chipk.o Movement Ans. (c) and (d)
Ql7. Howmuch percent of surface water in India can be usecl7
(a} 22%
(b} 25%
(c} 32%
(cl} 35%
Ans. (c) 32%
Ql8. Identify the sector that consumes the highest amount of water in India.
(a} Industry (b} Agriculture (c} Domestic
(cl} None of these Ans. (b} Agriculture
Ql9. Haryali program is related to development of: (a} Forest Cover
(b} Watershed Development (c} Soil Conservation
( cl} Food Grain Production
Ans. (c) Watershed Development
Q2<:l. The total useful water resources of India are: (a} 1122 cubic k.m
(b} 1222 cubic k.m (c} 1322 cubic k.m (cl} 1422 cubic k.m
Ans. (a) 1122 cubic km
Q2l. Environment Protection Act was implemented in: (a} 1974
(b} 1986
(c} 1988
(cl} 1997
Ans. (b) 1986
Q22. In ......... an underground tank. of l lak.h litre capacity has been
constructed to store water for low quality use. (a} Rashtrapati Bhavan
(b} Lal Quila
(c} Jama Masjicl
( cl} Sansacl
Ans. (a) Rashtrapati Bhavan
Q23. As reported in...... by the United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA}, within the next
25 years, one-third of the world's population will experience severe water scarcity.
(a} 2ee1 (b} 2<:ll<:l ( c} 2(:)(:)9
( cl} 2(:)12
Ans. (a) 2001
Q24. Recharging of groundwater is the most important aspect of:
(a} water management
(b} water supply
(c} non of the above
(cl} both (a} and (b}
Ans. (a) water management
Q25. In our country, a lot of water is wasted clue to leaking taps and bad plumbing.
(a} leaking taps and bad plumbing (b} factory work.
( c} agriculture
( cl} bathing
Ans. (a) leaking taps and bad plumbing
Q26. Which group of states is highly affected by concentration of fluoride in ground water
resources:
(a} Uttar Pradesh
(b} Bihar-West Bengal
( c} Rajasthan-Maharashtra (cl} Punjab-Haryana
Ans. (c) Rajasthan-Maharashtra
Q27. How much freshwater is there out of total resources?
(a} <:l.5%
(b} l.<:l%
(c} 2.5%
( cl} 3.(:)%
Ans. (d) 3.0%
Q28. Which one of the following rivers has the highest repten- ishable groundwater
resource in the country?
(a} The Indus
(b} The Brahmaputra (c} The Ganga
(cl} The Goclavari Ans. (c) The Ganga
Q29. How much percent of earth's area is occupied by lancl7
(a} 45 (b} 3<:l (c} 66
(cl} 7(:)
Ans. (b) 30
Q3<:l. Private land properties are owned by
(a} Cooperative societies (b} Individuals
(c} Communities (d} Schools
Ans. (b) Individuals
Q3l. An example of common property resource is (a} Private homes
(b} Land for common usage
(c} agriculture lands of individuals
( d} factories
Ans. (b) Land for common usage
Q32. Which ofthe following steps is a major threat to the environment?
(a} Planting trees (b} Desertification
(c} Promoting tourism
(d} Promoting renewable resources Ans. (b) Desertification
Q33. The type of soil is determined by (a} landforms
(b} soil erosion (c} water sources ( d} Globalisation
Ans. (a) landforms
Q34. As the exposed rock. break. off and start decaying due to temperature change, this
process is called
(a} Deforestation (b} Landslide
( c} Soil erosion (d} Weathering
Ans. (d) Weathering Q35. Soil is made up of (a} water
(b} metals
(c} organic materials & rocks (d} ice
Ans. (c) organic materials & rocks
Q36. Mass movement of rocks down the hills could be a sign of (a} Landslides
(b} Floods
(c} Deforestation
(d} Weathering Ans. (a) Landslides
Q37. Which ofthe following states of India is notorious for witnessing maximum
number of landslides
(a} Punjab
(b} Uttrak.hand (c} Tamilnadu
( d} Jhark.hand
Ans. (b) Uttrakhand
Q38. How much time is taken to form 1 cm of soil (a} l<:l+ years
(b} 5 years
( c} 1ees of year (d} few months
Ans. (c) 100s of year
Q39. Which part of soil is fit for vegetation? (a} Sub soil
(b} top soil
(c} weathered rock. material (d} clay soil
Ans. (b) top soil
Q4<:l. Overgrazing is responsible for causing (a} soil depletion
(b} Floods
(c} earthquake
( d} landslide
Ans. (a) soil depletion
Q41. Which of the following is used to conserve the soil7 (a} Mulching
(b} Clear the forest
( c} agriculture process
( d} cat tie grazing Ans. (a) Mulching
Q42. The process of piling up of rocks to prevent water flow is called
(a} Rock. Dam (b} Erosion (c} Mulching (d} Landslide
Ans. (a) Rock Dam
Q43. The moisture of soil can be retained by the process of
(a} Counter Barriers (b} Mulching
(c} Rock. Cams (d} Planting grass Ans. (b) Mulching
Q44. A dripping tap is capable of wasting approximately how much amount of water per
year7
(a} 2eee litres
(b} 12<:l<:l litres ( c} 15<:l<:l litres ( d} 25(:)(:) litres
Ans. (b) 1200 litres
Q45. The evaporation of water takes place due to (a} Nitrogen Cycle
(b} Water Cycle ( c} Cooling of Ice (d} Floods
Ans. (b) Water Cycle
Q46. The zone of earth's atmosphere where life exists is called (a} Biosphere
(b} Lithosphere (c} Hydrosphere (d} Troposphere Ans. (a) Biosphere
Q47. The life supporting system is known as (a} earth
(b} biosphere (c} ecosystem (d} Vegetation
Ans. (c) ecosystem
Q48. Which of the following animals are protected under CITES7
(a} Monkey (b} Dolphins (c} Snakes (d} Rats
Ans. (b) Dolphins
Q49. Low-lying areas are susceptible to (a} water logging
(b} landslides
(c} illegal mining
(d} Weathering
Ans. (a) water logging
Q5<:l. are normally sparsely populated. (a} thick. forests
(b} Gangatic plains (c} low-lying places (d} cultivable areas Ans. (a) thick forests
Q5l. Theaverage water consumption per person is cu k.m/ year
(a} 55<:l<:l (b} 6(:)(:)(:) ( c} 65<:l<:l ( d} 59(:)(:)
Ans. (b) 6000
Q52. River Yamuna is getting polluted due to (a} industrial affluents
(b} forests
(c} weathering (d} trees cutting
Ans. (a) industrial affluents
Q53. Rainwater harvesting is compulsory in the state of _ (a} Tamil Nadu
(b} Haryana (c} Rajasthan (d} Assam
Ans. (a) Tamil Nadu
Q54. Terrace farming method is common in regions (a} forest
(b} mountain ( c} coastal (d} plains
Ans. (b) mountain
Q55. is one of the ways to prevent soil erosion. (a} Trees cutting
(b} clearing of forest for agriculture (c} Counter ploughing
(d} building dams
Ans. (c) Counter ploughing
Q56. is a major threat to the environment. (a} rainfall
(b} sunlight
( c} Desertification
( cl} tree plantation Ans. ( c)
Desertification
Q57. Heavy rains cause year.
(a} earthquake (b} tsunami
in mountainous regions every
( c} landslide
( cl} accident
Ans. ( c) landslide
Q58. are some of the densely populated regions. (a} River plains
(b} mountains
( c} thick. forests
(cl} deserts
Ans. (a) River plains
Q59. Water is:
(a} non renewable source (b} renewable source
(c} non of the above
( cl} both
Ans. (b) renewable source
Q6<:l. India receives an average rainfall of (a} 4<:l<:l m ham
(b} seem ham
( c} 3(:)(:) m ham
( cl} see m ham
Ans. (a) 400 m ham
Q6l. Which one is not included in precipitation in which atmo- spheric moisture descends
to earth:
(i} rain (b} sleet ( c} soil
(cl} clew
Ans. (c) soil
Q62. Deposition is the process by which water changes directly from a vapour into a solid
(ice crystals} phase.
(a} Deposition (b} Condensation (c} water cycle
(d} Non of the above Ans. (a) Deposition
Q63. In fresh water the total salt content remains under 1.5 per cent
(a} 1.5 per cent (b} 2.5 per cent ( c} 3.5 per cent ( d} <:l.5 per cent
Ans. (a) 1.5 per cent
Q64. The content of dissolved salts in brackish water is higher than the fresh water and
ranges between <:l.5 and 3.5%.
(a} e.5 and 3.5% (b} land 2 %
(c} 2 and 3 %
(d} 1.5 and 4.5 %
Ans. (a) 0.5 and 3.5%
Q65. Treatment of water with appropriate doses of chlorine is known as
(a} chlorination (b} treated water
(c} water hyacinth (d} utilized water Ans. (a) chlorination
Q66................... is one of the most important substances for sustaining human life.
(a} Fresh water (d} Food
(c} House
( e} Soil
Ans. (a) Fresh water
Q67. Movement of water on the .................. is continuous. (a} Earth
(b} Floor (c} Road ( d} Hill
Ans. (a) Earth
Q68. Mechanical forces acting upon the rocks cause physical

(a} Weathering (b} Overgrazing (c} Suitability


(d} Capability
Ans. (a) Weathering
Q69. Tree biomass holds carbon dioxide in a..........
(a} fixed state (b} stable state
(c} movement state (d} nonof the above Ans. (a} fixed state
Q7<:l. The water cycle is driven by:
(a} Global carbon cycle (b} Sun
(c} Atmosphere (d} Hydrogen Ans. (b) Sun
Q7l. An estuary is a transitional zonerepresenting:
(a} A vast area of saline water (b} A large number of organisms
(c} Great productivity built on a large base
(d} Unique ecological features and biotic communities Ans. (d) Unique ecological features
and biotic communities.
Q72. Which of the following is a major cause of deforestation? (a} Forest fires
(b} Construction of dams (c} Shifting cultivation (d} Mining
Ans. (c) Shifting cultivation
Q73. Which one of the following is not a major characteristic feature of biodiversity
hotspot?
(a} Large number of species
(b} Abundance of endemic species (c} Species under constant threat (d} Destruction of
habitat
Ans. (d) Destruction of habitat
Q74................ refers to the loss of water in vapour form from plant leaves.
(a} Transpiration (b} Evaporation (c} Sublimation (d} Run off
Ans. (a) Transpiration
Q75. How many biogeographic does India have7
(a} 5
(b} 6
(c} 8
(d} l<:l
Ans. ( d) 10
Q76. Lime is generally added to soil (a} Salty
(b} Cry
( c} Alkaline (d} Acidic
Ans. (d) Acidic
Q77. has the maximum genetic diversity in India (a} Potato
(b} Tea (c} Mango (d} Teak.
Ans. (c) Mango
Q78. is one of the most prevalent hotspots of bio- diversity in India
(a} Himalayas
(b} Western Ghats (c} Ganges
(d} None of the above
Ans. (b) Western Ghats
Q79. Galapagos finches are a good example of _ (a} Extinction
(b} Heterochromia (c} Island gigantism
(d} Adaptive radiation
Ans. (d) Adaptive radiation
Q79. is one of the least porous soils (a} Peat Soil
(b} Loam
(c} Clayey soil
(d} None of the above
Ans. (c) Clayey soil
Q8<:l. is an example of an ex-situ conservation. (a} Sacred groves
(b} Wildlife sanctuary
( c} Seed bank.
( d} National park.
Ans. (c) Seed bank
Q81. is not generally seen in biodiversity hotspots.
Endemism
Species richness
Loss of diversity
Lesser interspecific competition
Ans. (d) Lesser interspecific competition.
Q81. occurs when the death of the last individ- ual in a species occurs.
Adaptation
Phylogenic diversity
Speciation
Extinction
Ans. (d) Extinction
Q82. is defined as an ecological state of a species being unique to a specific geographic
location.
Exotic species
Endemic species
Ecosystem
None of the above
Ans. (b) Endemic species
Q83. is the forest cover to be maintained as per the National Forest Policy (1988)
67% for hills & 33% for plains
37% for hills & 11% for plains
17% for hills & 23% for plains
None of the above
Ans. (a) 67% for hills & 33% for plains
Q84. is defined as the number of species repre- sented in a specific region, landscape or
an ecological commu- nity.
Coevolution
Commensalism
Species richness
Population density
Ans. (c) Species richness
Q85. Global warming can significantly be controlled by

Increasing solid waste


Reducing water wastage
(c} Burning human-generated waste (d} Reducing fossil fuel consumption
Ans. (d) Reducing fossil fuel consumption
Q86. is the basic unit of classification and a taxo- nomic rank.
(a} Species
(b} Genus (c} Class (d} Order
Ans. (a) Species
Q87. Which of the following animals is now extinct? (a} Tasmanian tiger
(b} Tasmanian devil (c} Pademelon
(d} Quell
Ans. (a) Tasmanian tiger Q88. Nandan-Kanan zoo is known for (a} Hippo
(b} Nilgiri Tahr (c} White Tiger (d} Whale
Ans. (a) White Tiger
Q89. The most important cause of loss of biodiversity today is: (a} habitat loss and
fragmentation
(b} over-exploitation
(c} alien species invasions (d} co-extinctions
Ans. (a) habitat loss and fragmentation
Q9<:l. The Earth Summit was held in Rio de Janeiro in: (a} 1987
(b} 199<:l (c} 1992 ( d} 2<:l(:)2
Ans. (c) 1992
Q9l. When a threatened plant needs urgent measures to save it from extinction, the
desirable approach is
(a} in-situ conservation (b} ex-situ conservation ( c} cryopreservation (d} biopreservation
Ans. (b) ex-situ conservation
Q92. The search for previously unknown compounds in organ- isms that have never been
used in traditional medicine is known as:
(a} Biopiracy
(b} Bioprospecting
(c} Molecular pharming ( cl} Bioremecliation Ans. (b) Bioprospecting
Q93. Loss of biodiversity may lead to all except: (a} decline in plant production
(b} increased resistance to environmental perturbance (c} increased variability in water use
(cl} increased variability in pest and disease cycle
Ans. (b) increased resistance to environmental perturbance Q94. Which of the following is
not a reason that accounts for greater biodiversity of tropics?
(a} availability of more solar energy (b} more niche specialization
(c} more time for species diversification
(cl} large seasonal variations in environmental factors Ans. (d) large seasonal variations in
environmental factors Q95. The greatest biodiversity on the earth is found in (a} African
grasslands
(b} Amazonian rain forest in South America (c} Western Ghats in India
( cl} Nile delta in Egypt
Ans. (b) Amazonian rain forest in South America
Q96. Biodiversity loss is now one of the world's most pressing crises. The primary reason
for this is:
(a} we cannot do anything about it
(b} we are not responsible for this loss (c} we still donot know its entire extent
( cl} it is affecting only the developing countries Ans. (c) we still donotknow its entire
extent
Q97. The main difference between "Sixth Extinction" and the previous five extinctions is
that the sixth extinction:
(a} is mainly occurring on islands (b} is mainly affecting plants
( c} is occurring at a faster rate
(cl} does not involve human activities Ans. (c) is occurring at a faster rate
Q98. What is the correct full form of IUCN7 (a} International Union for Conservation of
Nuts
(b} International Union for Conservation of Nature
(c} International Union for Conservation of Natural habitat (d} International Union for
Conservation of Numbers
Ans. (b) International Union for Conservation of Nature
Q99. What are the species called whose number of individuals is greatly reduced to a
critical level7
(a} Indeterminate (b} Rare
(c} Vulnerable (d} Endangered
Ans. (d) Endangered
Ql(:H:l. What are the species called whose number of individuals is greatly reduced
recently and is decreasing continuously?
(a} Endangered (b} Rare
(c} Vulnerable
(d} Indeterminate Ans. (c) Vulnerable
Ql<:ll. Which utilitarian states that humans derive countless direct economic benefits from
nature?
(a} Big utilitarian
(b} Broadly utilitarian
( c} Narrowly utilitarian
( d} Small utilitarian
Ans. (c) Narrowly utilitarian
Ql<:l2. What percent of the total oxygen in the Earth's atmos- phere is released by the
Amazon forest?
(a} 5<:l %
(b} 2<:l %
(c} 4<:l %
(d} 2%
Ans. (b) 20 %
Ql<:l3. Which one of the following is an example of conserva- tion?
(a} No use of natural resources
(b} The wise use of natural resources (c} Excess use of natural resources (d} Complete use
of natural resources
Ans. (d) Complete use of natural resources
Ql84.......... refers to the process of deterioration in the qual- ity of land.
(a} Land degradation (b} Natural disaster (c} Deforestation (cl} Non of the above
Ans. (a) Land degradation
Ql85............ is the process in which the top layers of soil are removed and carried away
from one place to another by wind or water.
(a} Soil Erosion
(b} Eroded soil
( c} Soil saline
( cl} Soil alkaline Ans. (a) Soil Erosion
Q186. In which year, the Indian Wildlife (Protection} Act was implemented?
(a} 1972
(b}l97l (c} 1973
(cl} 1974
Ans. (a) 1972
Ql87. Which of the following is an extinct species? (a} Blue sheep
(b} Asiatic cheetah (c} Black.buck.
( cl} Asiatic elephant Ans. (b) Asiatic cheetah
Ql88. Which of the following birds do not fall in the category of ' critical ' species?
(a} Pink.-heaclecl cluck.
(b} Peacock.
(c} Mountain quail
( cl} Forest-spot tecl owl Ans. (b) Peacock
Ql89. Which of the following plays a k.ey role in the ecological system?
(a} Rocks (b} Roads (c} Forests
(cl} None of the above
Ans. (c) Forests
Qll<:l. The Himalayan brown bear is an example of:
Vulnerable species
Rare species
Endemic species (cl) Extinct species Ans. (b) Rare species
Qlll. Biodiversity is very important for which of the following creatures?
Plants
Earthworms
Humans
( cl) Aliens
Ans. (c) Humans
Qll2. Teak. monoculture has damaged the natural forests in:
Ganga Plain
South India
Brahmaputra Plain (cl) None of the above Ans. (b) South India
Qll3. What percentage of India's wild flora and mammals are on the threatened list7
l<:l percent of recorded wild flora and 2<:l percent of mammals
2(:) percent of recorded wild flora and l(:) percent of mammals
l<:l percent of cultivated species of flora and 2<:l percent
animals
(cl) None of the above.
Ans. (a) 10 percent of recorded wild flora and 20 percent of mammals
Qll4. Howmany species of flora are found in lnclia7
81(:)(:)(:)
47<:l<:l<:l
( c) 15(:)(:)(:)
( cl) 41(:)(:)(:)
Ans. (b) 47000
Qll5. Forests and wastelands belonging to both private individ- uals and government are
known as:
Sacred groves
Reserved forest
(c} Protected forests
(cl} Unclassed forests Ans. (d) Unclassed forests
Qll6. Theblack.buck. belongs to which of the following cate- gories of fauna7
(a} Extinct species (b} Rare species
(c} Endemic species
(cl} Endangered species Ans. (d) Endangered species
Qll7. In which of the following states, a very high percentage of its forests is managed by
local communities?
(a} Jammu and Kashmir (b} Arunachal Pradesh (c} Andhra Pradesh
(cl} Himachal Pradesh
Ans. (b) Arunachal Pradesh
Qll8. Of the estimated 47,(:)(:)(:) plant species found in India,
about 15,(:)(:)(:) flowering species belong to which category? (a} Endangered species
(b} Extinct species (c} Endemic species
(cl} Vulnerable species Ans. (c) Endemic species
Qll9. In which of the following tiger reserves have the local communities fought for
conservation of the forests?
(a} Manas Tiger Reserve (b} Periyar Tiger Reserve (c} Simlipal Bio Reserve (cl} Sarisk.a
Tiger Reserve
Ans. (d) Sariska Tiger Reserve
Ql2<:l. The forest cover in our country has recently increased due to:
(a} Increase in natural forest growth (b} Increase in net sown area
(c} Plantation by different agencies
(cl} None of the above
Ans. (c) Plantation by different agencies
Ql2l. Which one among the following are not a part of the complex web of an ecological
system?
(a} Plants
(b} Animals (c} Computers (cl} Humans
Ans. (c) Computers
Ql22. Substantial parts of the tribal belts in north-,eastern India, have been deforested by:
(a} Shifting cultivation (b} Mining
( c} Infrastructure development (cl} None of the above
Ans. (a) Shifting cultivation
Ql23. Extensive planting of a single commercially valuable species is called:
(a} Jhumming
(b} Intensive subsistence farming (c} Mixed farming
(cl} Enrichment plantation Ans. (d) Enrichment plantation
Q124. Determination of the different categories of existing plant and animal species are
based on which of the following agencies?
(a} The State Forest Department
(b} International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN}.
( c} Forest Survey of India (cl} Earth Summit
Ans. (b) International Union for Conservation of Nature and Nat- ural Resources (IUCN).
Ql25. Chir Pine plantations in the Himalayas have replaced the: (a} Himalayan Oak. and
Rhocloclenclron
(b} Teak. and Sal
(c} Babul and Mexican k.ik.ar (cl} None of the above
Ans. (a) Himalayan Oak and Rhododendron
Ql26. Which one of the following is not responsible for the decline in India"s
biocliversit y7
(a} Mining activities
(b} Hunting and poaching
( c} Forest fire
( cl} Afforestation Ans. (d) Afforestation
Ql27. Which one of the following is not a direct outcome of environmental destruction?
(a} Biological loss
(b} Loss of cultural diversity
( c} Severe droughts
(d} River Valley Projects Ans. (c) Severe droughts Ql28. Sacred Groves are:
(a} parts of large forests that have been left untouched by the local people.
(b} places for grazing animals.
(c} forests earmark.ea for commercial felling of trees.
(d} forests used for planting trees with medicinal properties. Ans. (a) parts of large forests
that have been left untouched by the local people.
Ql29. Which of the following is a species of grass categorized
as a 'critical' species among the threatened list of flora and fauna7
(a} Madhuca insignis (b} Tamarindus indica
(c} Hubbardia heptaneuron (d} Mangifera indica
Ans. (c) Hubbardia heptaneuron
Ql3<:l. Forests and wastelands belonging to both private individ- uals and government are
known as:
(a} Sacred groves (b} Reserved forest
( c} Protected forests (d} Unclassed forests
Ans. (d) Unclassed forests
Ql3l. TheGangetic dolphin belongs to which of the following categories of fauna7
(a} Endangered species (b} Vulnerable species (c} Rare species
(d} Extinct species
Ans. (b) Vulnerable species
Ql32. Which of these statements is not a valid reason for the depletion of flora and fauna7
(a} Agricultural expansion
(b} Large-scale development projects
(c} Grazing and fuelwoocl collection
( cl} Rapid industrialisation and urbanization Ans. (d) Rapid industrialisation and
urbanisation
Ql33. In which of the following years was the Indian Wildlife (Protection} Act
implemented?
(a} 1962
(b} 1972
(c} 1992
(cl} 1999
Ans. (b) 1972
Ql34. Which of the following conservation strategies do not directly involve community
participation?
(a} Joint forest management (b} Beej Bachao Anclolan
(c} Chipk.o Movement
(cl} Demarcation of Wildlife Sanctuaries Ans. (d) Demarcation of Wildlife Sanctuaries
Ql35. Which of the following species was declared extinct in India long back. in 19527
(a} Leopard
(b} Gangetic dolphin (c} Black.buck.
(cl} Asiatic cheetah Ans. (d) Asiatic cheetah
Ql36. India has nearly ............... percent of the total number of species in the world
(a} 5
(b} l<:l
(c} 8
(cl} 2
Ans. (c) 8
Ql37. When was Asiatic Cheetah declared extinct in lnclia7 (a} in 1958
(b} in 1989
(c} in 1922
(cl} in 1952 Ans. (d) in 1952
Ql38. Whoamong the following is in charge of the management of forests and wildlife
resources of lnclia7
(a} World Wildlife Foundation (b} Geological Survey of India
(c} Forest Department
( d} Non-government organizations Ans. (c) Forest Department
Ql39. The Buxa Tiger Reserve is situated in which cf the fol- lowing states?
(a} Madhya Pradesh (b} West Bengal
(c} Gujarat (d} Orissa
Ans. (b) West Bengal
Ql4<:l. Which one cf the following movements is not associ-
ated with the protection cf trees7 (a} Chipk.0 Movement
(b} Navdanya Andclan (c} Project Tiger
(d} Beej Bachac Andclan Ans. (c) Project Tiger
Ql4l. What is the Himalayan Yew7
(a} A type cf deer (b} A medicinal plant (c} A species cf bird
(d} A food crop is grown in the Himalayas Ans. (b) A medicinal plant
Ql42. In which cf the following states, a very high percentage cf its forests is managed by
local communities?
(a} Jammu and Kashmir (b} Arunachal Pradesh (c} Andhra Pradesh
(d} Himachal Pradesh
Ans. (b) Arunachal Pradesh
Ql43. What was the aim cf Chipk.0 Movement? (a} Human rights
(b} Political rights
(c} Agriculture expansion (d} Forest conservation Ans. (d) Forest conservation
Ql44. Which cf the following is not one cf the reasons for the depletion cf forests?
(a} Mining
(b} Multi-purpose river valley projects (c} Grazing
(d} Creation of shelterbelts Ans. ( d) Creation of shelterbel ts
Ql45. In which of the following states is Bandhavgarh National Park. located?
(a} Gujarat
(b} Assam
(c} Madhya Pradesh
(d} Kerala
Ans. (c) Madhya Pradesh
Ql46. Which of the following two factors are majorly responsi- ble for the depletion of
forest resources?
(a} Mining of fuel-wood collection
(b} Mining and grazing
(c} Flood and Grazing
(d} Grazing and fuel-wood collection Ans. (d) Grazing and fuel-wood collection
Ql47. Between 1951 and 198<:l, according to the Forest Survey of India, over ...................
sq. k.m of forest the area was con- verted into agricultural land all over India.
(a} 25,2<:l<:l
(b} 26,2<:l<:l ( c} 27,2(:)(:) (d} 28,2<:l<:l
Ans. (b) 26,200
Ql48. FAO (2<:l<:ll} found that ...... per cent of forests in indus- trialized countries were
under some form of management but only about six per cent were in developing countries.
(a} 8<:l
(b} 89
(c} 79
(d} 98
Ans. (b) 89
Ql49.......... is the diversity of and in living nature.
(a} Biodiversity (b} Ecology
(c} Biogeographic
(d} Non of the above Ans. (a) Biodiversity
Ql5<:l. Conservation preserves the ecological diversity and which of our life
support systems:
(a} Water, air, and food
(b} Water, air, and clothes
( c} Water, air, and temperature
( cl} Water, air, and soil Ans. (d) Water, air, and soil
Ql5l. Project Tiger ' was launched in:
(a} 1971
(b} 1972
(c} 1973
(cl} 1974
Ans. (c) 1973
Ql52. Energy is released from fossil fuels when they are

(a} Pumped (b} Cooled ( c} Burned


( cl} Pressurized Ans. (c) Burned
Ql53. The most nuclear fuel used in the world is
_
(a} Thorium - 232 (b} Uranium - 238 (c} Uranium - 235 (cl} Plutonium - 239
Ans. (c) Uranium - 235
Ql54. The blades in wind turbines are connected to
(a} Nacelle (b} Tower
( c} Foundations (cl} String
Ans. (a) Nacelle
Ql55. In the production of wave energy which form of energy is usecl7
(a} Potential energy (b} Kinetic energy (c} Solar energy
( cl} Wind energy
Ans. (b) Kinetic energy
Ql56. A tidal barrageis a barrier built over
a _
(a} River bed
(b} River estuary
( c} River encl
( cl} River starting Ans. (b) River estuary
Ql57. In hydroelectricity power _
(a} Kinetic energy is transferred to potential (b} Potential energy is transferred to kinetic
(c} Solar energy is transferred to wind energy (cl} Wind energy is transferred to solar
energy
Ans. (b) Potential energy is transferred to kinetic
Ql58. In order to produce solar energy during sunlight, where the energy is stored in the
batteries?
(a} Nick.el Sulfur (b} Zinc Cadmium (c} Nick.el Cadmium (cl} Nick.el Zinc
Ans. (c) Nickel Cadmium
Ql59. How many forms of fossil fuels are there
(a} One
(b} Two (c} Three ( cl} Four
Ans. (c) Three
Ql68. According to WHO, how many premature deaths annually link.eel to air pollution
causing by the burning of fossil fuels7 (a} One million
(b} Three million (c} Five million (cl} Seven million
Ans. (d) Seven million
Ql6l. Energy in the form of heat and light is obtained by

(a} Biomass (b} Fossil fuels (c} Sun


( cl} Wind Ans. (c) Sun
Ql62. SI unit for energy is _
(a} Watt
(b} Kilogram
(c} Newton
( d} Joule Ans. ( d) Joule
Ql63. Trapped heat inside the earth is known as
(a} Heat energy (b} Kinetic energy
(c} Geothermal energy (d} Thermal energy
Ans. (c) Geothermal energy
Ql64. Which of the following is a nonrenewable energy re- source?
(a} solar
(b} methane
(c} hydroelectric
( d} coal Ans. ( d) coal
Ql65. The amount of oil that may become available for use is called oil
(a} reserves (b} reservoirs ( c} resources (d} traps
Ans. ( c) resources
Ql66. A coal deposit that is not economical to mine today would be considered part of our
.
(a} coal reserves (b} coal resources ( c} coal reservoirs (d} none of these
Ans. (b) coal resources
Ql67. What is the leading source of energy used in the United States today7
(a} coal
(b} oil resources
( c} natural gas (d} nuclear power
Ans. (b) oil resources
Ql68. In India, forests cover ...... percent of the total geo- graphical area.
(a} 24.39
(b} 24.5
( c} 23.5
( cl} 35. 39
Ans. (a) 24.39
Ql69. ..................... is one of the major causes of deforesta- tion.
(a} Increasing human population
(b} Increasing animal population
( c} Increasing factories
(cl} Non of the above
Ans. (a) Increasing human population
Q17<:l................... fire takes place in densely populated forests. (a} Crown
(b} Crowd (c} Density (cl} Volume
Ans. (a) Crown
Q171. .................. is the " fundamental currency of diversity " that is responsible for
variation.
(a} Genetic diversity (b} Species diversity (c} Ecosystem diversity (cl} Non of the above
Ans. (a) Genetic diversity
Ql72. Ecosystem diversity means the variation between differ- ent types of
(a} ecosystems (b} humans
(c} mammals
( cl} species
Ans. (a) ecosystems
Ql73. The Wildlife of the Trans-Himalayas Zone represents an extremely fragile
ecosystem, because of its ..........and the in- hospitable terrain.
(a} population
(b} harsh climatic conditions ( c} good climate conditions (cl} non of the above
Ans. (b) harsh climatic conditions
Ql74. The .............zone is one of the richest areas of India in terms of habitat and species
diversity.
(a} West
(b} Himalayan
( c} Indian desert
(d} Trans-Himalayas Ans. (b) Himalayan
Ql75. The temperate areas of Himalayas lie below (a} 2,4<:l<:l m
(b} 3,5<:l<:l m
(c} 3,65<:l m
(d} 3,3(:)(:) m
Ans. (b) 3,500 m
Ql76. The ...... represent one of the major tropical evergreen forest regions in India.
(a} Semi-arid Zone (b} Western Ghats
(c} North-eastern Ghats
(d} lower sub-tropical foot-hills Ans. (b) Western Ghats
Ql77. The Deccan Peninsula zone covers the largest area in India that amounts to about
......... of the total land mass, and about l,421,eee sq. k.m area.
(a} 43%
(b} 45%
(c} 44%
(d} 46%
Ans. (a) 43%
Ql78. India has a vast coastal stretch of about (a} 5579 k.m
(b} 4566 k.m ( c} 65<:l<:l k.m (d} 5689 k.m
Ans. (d) 5689 km
Ql79. Tropical moist forests are believed to be the terres-
trial ecosystems on earth. (a} richest
(b} lowest (c} crowded
(d} Non of the above Ans. (a) richest
Ql8<:l. In India ........................... Forest Management Programme furnishes a good
example of involving local communities in the management.
(a} joint (b} single (c} double ( d} mix
Ans. (a} joint
Ql82. Black.buck., crocodile are some examples of .................. species.
(a} dangerous
(b} beautiful
( c} endangered
(d} non of the above Ans. (c} endangered
Ql83. The two greatest degrading factors behind the depletion of forest resources are:
(a} Mining and grazing
(b} Floods and grazing
(c} Mining and fuel-wood collection
(d} Grazing and fuel-wood collection Ans. (d} Grazing and fuel-wood collection
Ql84. TheHimalayan Yew is a medicinal plant found in various parts of:
(a} Punjab and Haryana
(b} Jammu and Kashmir
(c} Punjab and Himachal Pradesh
(d} Himachal Pradesh and Arunachal Pradesh Ans. (d} Himachal Pradesh and Arunachal
Pradesh
Ql85. Oneof the k.ey wildlife species in the faunal web is: (a} Elephant
(b} Lion (c} Tiger (d} Fox
Ans. (c} Tiger
Ql86. Project Tiger' waslaunched in:
(a} 1971
(b} 1972
(c} 1973
(d} 1974
Ans. (c} 1973
Ql87. Species whose populations have declined to levels from where it is likely to move
into the endangered category in the near future if the negative factors continue to operate
are called:
(a} Endangered species (b} Normal species
(c} Vulnerable species
( cl} Rare species
Ans. (c) Vulnerable species
Ql88. Species that are only found in some particular areas usually isolated by natural or
geographical
barriers are called:
(a} Rare species
(b} Vulnerable species (c} Endemic species (cl} Normal species
Ans. (c) Endemic species
Ql89. Species that are not found after searches of known or likely areas where they may
occur are called:
(a} Rare species (b} Normal species
(c} Endemic species
(cl} Extinct species Ans. (d) Extinct species
Ql98. Cattle, sal, rodents, etc. are examples of: (a} Extinct species
(b} Endangered species (c} Rare species
(cl} Normal species
Ans. (d) Normal species
Ql9l. Biomass is an important source of energy. (a} food
(b} energy (c} both (cl} non
Ans. (b) energy
Ql92. Solar radiation gets converted into ...... directly in Solar Photovoltaic (SPV} panels
installed on buildings or in open spaces.
(a} medicine (b} electricity
(c} power (d} source
Ans. (b) electricity
Ql93....... areelectrochemical devices that convert the chem- ical energy of a fuel directly.
(a} Fuel cells (b} Power cells ( c} Energy cells
(d} Electricity cells Ans. (a) Fuel cells
Ql94. In India, the first wave energy project with a capacity of
158 MW, has been set up at:
(a} Vizhinjam (b} Celhi
(c} Panipat (d} Mumbai
Ans. (a) Vizhinjam
Ql95. About ............ of India's energy needs are met by nat- ural gas especially in power
generation, fertilizers, and petro- chemicals production.
(a} 7%
(b} 8%
(c} 9%
(d} 6%
Ans. (a) 7%
Ql96. The amount of ................ consumed per person per year is a useful measure of
standard of living.
(a} energy (b} heat (c} power (d} non
Ans. (a) energy
Ql97. North America's per capita energy use is than twice that of Europeans.
(a} less (b} higher (c} more (d} non
Ans. (c) more
Ql98. The carrying capacity of an ecosystem is defined as the
........ population size of a species that an area can support.
(a} maximum (b} minimum (c} lower
(d} higher
Ans. (a) maximum
Ql99. Solar energy is a
(a} renewable non-conventional energy (b} non-renewable conventional energy (c} non-
renewable energy
(d} non
Ans. (a) renewable non-conventional energy
Q2ee. Plant manufacture their food by using (a} Fossil fuel energy
(b} solar energy
(c} organic nutrient energy (d} Electricity energy
Ans. (b) solar energy
Q2<:ll. Use of non-conventional source of energy is (a} Cheap
(b} Pollution free
(c} Both cheap and pollution free (d} Non
Ans. (c) Both cheap and pollution free Q2<:l2. Reactor generates
(a} Biogas
(b} Geothermal energy (c} Atomic energy
( d} Electricity
Ans. (c) Atomic energy
Q2<:l3. Energy we get from fossil fuels like coal is in reality (a} Geothermal energy
(b} Sun's energy
(c} non-conventional energy
( d} Electricity
Ans. (b) Sun's energy
Q2<:l4. In an ecosystem, the decomposition of organisms takes place by
(a} phagotrophs (b} reducers
(c} primary consumers
(d} secondary consumers Ans. (b) reducers
Q2<:l5. Chemcsynthetic bacteria are (a} Phagctrcphs
(b} Saprctrcphs (c} Autctrcphs (d} Heterctrcphs
Ans. (c) Autotrophs
Q2<:l6. The water cycle is driven by (a} Global carbon cycle
(b} Sun
(c} Atmosphere (d} Hydrogen Ans. (b) Sun
Q2<:l7. Which cf the following views considers nature as a mother and that
shecannot be tamed7
(a} European view (b} Indian view
(c} Sineatic view
(d} North American view Ans. (b) Indian view
Q2<:l8. Match the types cf environmental influences with their respective category
Environmental Influence Category
(l} Poison (i} Physical
(2} Noise (ii} scciclcgical
(3} Overcrowding (iii} Biological
( 4} Allergens (iv} Chemical (a} 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, d-i
(b} 1-iv, 2-1, 3-ii, 4-iii
(c} 1-1, 2-ii, 3-iii, d-iv
( d} 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i
Ans. (b) 1-iv, 2-1, 3-ii, 4-iii
Q2<:l9. In a coniferous forest, the soil is (a} rich in mineral nutrients
(b} acidic and mineral deficient (c} basic and mineral deficient
(d} moderately basic and rich in mineral nutrients Ans. (b) acidic and mineral deficient
Q21<:l. The organisms which are attached to stems and leaves the rooted plants are
known as
(a} neuston (b} plank.ton (c} periphyton (d} nek.ton
Ans. (c) periphyton
Q2ll. In anocean, the zone showing the maximum variability in terms of temperature, light,
salinity and moisture is
(a} littoral zone (b} pelagic zone (c} benthic zone (d} neritic zone
Ans. (a) littoral zone
Q212. An estuary is a transitional zone representing
(a} a vast area of saline water (b} a large number of organisms
(c} great productivity built on a large base
(d} unique ecological features and biotic communities Ans. (d) unique ecological features
and biotic communities
Q213. Which of the following is a major cause of deforestation? (a} Forest fires
(b} Construction of dams (c} Shifting cultivation (d} Mining
Ans. (a) Forest fires
Q214. Passenger pigeon is the perfect example of loss of species due to
(a} habitat destruction
(b} poisoning by pesticides (c} impact of climate change
(d} selective destruction for food Ans. (d) selective destruction for food
Q215. The weed which causes enormous damage in fish and rice crop is
(a} Water hyacinth (b} Congress weed (c} Golden apple snail (d} Mesquite
Ans. (a) Water hyacinth
Q216. Artificial insemination has been useful for conservation of
(a} snakes
(b} lizards
( c} elephants
( cl} clucks
Ans. ( c) elephants
Q2l 7. Which one of the following is not a major characteristics feature of biodiversity
hotspot?
(a} Large number of species
(b} Abundance of endemic species (c} Species under constant threat (cl} Large number of
exotic species Ans. (a) Large number of species
Q218. Which one of the following areas in India is a hotspot of biodiversity?
(a} Sunclarbans
(b} Western Ghats (c} Eastern Ghats ( cl} Gangetic Plains
Ans. (b) Western Ghats
Q219. Which one of the following has the maximum genetic diversity in lnclia7
(a} Tea (b} Teak. (c} Mango (cl} Wheat
Ans. (c) Mango
Q22<:l. Which of the following has maximum percentage of avail-
ability of water7 (a} Rivers
(b} Lakes
(c} Atmospheric water (cl} Ground water
Ans. (d) Ground water
Q22l. Among the ecosystems mentioned below, where can one find maximum biodiversity?
(a} Mangroves (b} Deserts
( c} Coral reefs
(cl} Alpine meadows Ans. ( c) Coral reefs
Q222. The soil which is low in organic matter and has low fer- tility in India is
(a} Reel soil
(b} Soil with loamy texture anddry composition
( c} Soil of desert region
(cl} Soil of Himalayan region Ans. (c) Soil of desert region
Q223. Which of the following is not a practice used to prevent soil erosion?

1
(a} Buncling
(b} Kul
(c} Mulching
(cl} Soil moisture conservation Ans. (b) Kul
Q224. Identify the conventional source of energy from the following:
(a} Biomass
(b} Geothermal (c} Wind
(cl} Atomic energy Ans. (a) Biomass
Q225. A biomass gassifier converts (a} solid fuel to gaseous fuel
(b} gaseous fuel to solid fuel ( c} liq uicl fuel to gaseous fuel ( cl} gaseous fuel to liquicl fuel
Ans. (a) solid fuel to gaseous fuel
Q226. The most suitable fuel for a fuel cell is (a} Water
(b} Nitrogen (c} Hydrogen
( cl} Carbon dioxide Ans. (c) Hydrogen
Q227. The biophysical carrying capacity is population
that canbe supported by the resources of the planet at a given level of technology.
(a} the minimum (b} the maximum ( c} all of the
(cl} half of the
Ans. (a) the minimum
Q228. Which of the following is not a green house gas7 (a} Carbon dioxide
(b} Methane (c} Ozone
( cl} Chlorine Ans. (c) Ozone
Q229. Which of the following is not related to climate change7
(a} UNFCC (b} IPCC
( c} Kyoto Protocol
( cl} Montreal Protocol Ans. (d) Montreal Protocol
Q23<:l. The ozone layer is present in which of the following ranges of the atmosphere?
(a} <:l-1<:l k.m
(b} 15-5<:l k.m
(c} 6<:l-7<:l k.m

2
( cl} 65-9<:l k.m Ans. (b) 15-50 km

PART:3
Ql. Biodiversity is a measure of variation at the level. (a} genetic
(b} species
(c} ecosystem
(d} all of the above Ans. (d} all of the above
Q2. Terrestrial biodiversity is usually greater near the . (a} north pole
(b} south pole (c} equator
( d} tropic of cancer Ans. (c} equator
Q3. The tropical forest ecosystems cover less than l<:l percent of earth's surface, and contain
about ............ percent of the world ' s species.
(a} 3<:l
(b} se
(c} 7<:l
(d} 9<:l
Ans. (D} 90
Q4. The age of earth is about billion years.
(a} 3.<:l4
(b} 3.54
( c} 4.<:lS
(d} 4.54
Ans. (d} 4.54
QS. Following is usually measured atthe species diversity level.
(a} ecological diversity (b} taxonomic diversity
( c} morphological diversity (d} functional diversity Ans. (b} taxonomic diversity
Q6. Diversity of all living things depends on (a} geography
(b} presence of other species
( c} soils
(d} all of the above
Ans. (d) all of the above Q7. A biodiversity hotspot

3
is a region with a high level cf endemic species
that have experienced great habitat loss
both (A) and (B)
none cf the above Ans. (c) both (a) and (b)
Q8. Which cf the following is true
land has more species than the ocean
ocean has more species than the land
land and ocean has almost equal number cf species
not yet known
Ans. (a) land has more species than the ocean Q9. Provisioning services
involve the production cf renewable services
are those that lessen environmental change
represent human value and enjoyment
all cf the above
Ans. (a) involve the production of renewable services
Ql<:l. Provisioning services cf
plants increases fodder yield
plants increases overall crop yield
trees increases overall wood production
all cf the above Ans. (d) all of the above
Qll. Regulating services cf plants
decreases disease prevalence on plants
increases resistance to plant invasion
increases soil nutrient remineralizaticn
all cf the above Ans. (d) all of the above
Ql2. Biodiversity is directly involved in
water purification
recycling nutrients
providing fertile soil
all cf the above Ans. (d) all of the above

4
Ql3. Themost studied group is
birds
mammals
both (a) and (b)
( d} fishes
Ans. (c) both (a) and (b)
Ql4. The species which occupy new territory, often supplant- ing native species by occupying
their niches, are called
(a} invasive species (b} extinct species
(c} endangered species (d} exotic species
Ans. (a) invasive species
Ql5. Following step(s} can conserve the forest cover (a} prevent forest fire
(b} prevention of overgrazing by cattle (c} hunting and poaching should be banned (d} all of
the above
Ans. (d) all of the above
Ql6. Howis the diversity of plants and animals throughout the world7
(a} Uniform (b} Uneven (c} Equal (d} Even
Ans. (b) Uneven
Ql7. For many groups of animals or plants, which is the most well-known pattern in
diversity?
(a} Latitudinal gradient (b} Longitudinal gradient (c} Aquatic gradient
(d} Meridian gradient
Ans. (a) Latitudinal gradient
Ql8. What happens to species diversity as we move away from the equator towards the poles7
(a} Increase (b} Decreases (c} Unchanged (d} Same
Ans. (b) Decreases
Ql9. Howmany species of birds are located in Colombia that is located near the equator?
(a} 4
(b} 14 (c} 14<:l
( d} 1,4(:H:l
Ans. (d) 1,400

5
Q2<:l. Which of the following species of bird is found in New York.7
(a} Indian Vulture
(b} Indian Bustard
(c} American Woodcock.
( d} Bengal Florican
Ans. (c) American Woodcock
Q2l. Howmany species of birds are located in Greenland?
(a} 5
(b} 56
(c} 6
(d} e
Ans. (b) 56
Q22. Which place has the greatest biodiversity on Earth7 (a} Western Ghats
(b} Australian forest
( c} African forest
(d} Amazonian rain forest Ans. (d) Amazonian rain forest
Q23. Which environments are less seasonal, relatively more constant and predictable?
(a} Arctic environments
(b} Temperate environments (c} Tropical environments (d} Polar environments
Ans. (c) Tropical environments
Q24. What energy available in the tropics contributes to higher productivit y7
(a} Water
(b} Fossil fuel (c} Wind
( d} Solar
Ans. ( d) Solar
Q25. Which region had a long evolutionary time for species diversification?
(a} Temperate environments (b} Polar environments
(c} Tropical environments (d} Arctic environments
Ans. (c) Tropical environments
Q26. Who observed that within a region species richness in- creased with increasing the area
explored, but this increase is only up to a limit7

6
Charles Darwin
Alexander von Humboldt
Rudolf Virchow
Louis Pasteur
Ans. (b) Alexander von Humboldt
Q27. The Earth consists of how many ant species
1ee,eee
2e,eee
2ee,eee
<d) 2eee
Ans. (b) 20,000
Q28. How many species of beetles are present on the Earth7
3,ee,eee
3e,eee
3,eee
3<:l<:l
Ans. (a) 3,00,000
Q29. How many species of fishes are present on Earth7
2a,ee,eee
2a,eee
( c) 28<:l
28
Ans. (b) 28,000
Q3<:l. How many species of orchids are present on Earth7
2ee
2<:l
2
(d) 2e,eee
Ans. (d) 20,000
Q3l. Which of the following statements is true7

7
Diversity exists only at the species level
Diversity exists only at the macromolecular level
Diversity exists at all levels of biological organization
Diversity exists at the genetic level only
Ans. (c) Diversity exists at all levels of biological organization Q32. Who popularized the
term biodiversity?
Rudolf Virchow
(b} Edward Wilson (c} Gregor Mendel (cl} Robert Koch
Ans. (b) Edward Wilson
Q33. What can a single species show7 (a} No variation at the genetic level (b} No diversity
at the genetic level (c} Low diversity at the genetic level (cl} High diversity at the genetic
level
Ans. (d) High diversity at the genetic level Q34. What is the feature of the biosphere? (a} No
diversity
(b} Homogeneity (c} Heterogeneity
( cl} Negligible diversity Ans. (c) Heterogeneity
Q35. How many strains of rice does India have7
(a} 50
(b} 500
(c} 5,000
(cl} 50,000
Ans. (d) 50,000
Q36. How many varieties of mango does India have7
(a} 2
(b} 10
(c} 1,000
( cl} 20
Ans. ( c) 1,000
Q37. What is the feature of the biosphere? (a} No diversity
(b} Species diversity (c} Low diversity
( cl} Negligible diversity Ans. (b) Species diversity

8
Q38. Which organism"s species have greater diversity in the Western Ghats than the Eastern
Ghats7
(a} Reptiles (b} Fishes
(c} Amphibians
(cl} Mammals
Ans. (c) Amphibians
Q39. What is the feature of the biosphere? (a} Low diversity
(b} Ecological diversity (c} Negligible diversity ( d} No diversity
Ans. (b) Ecological diversity
Q4<:l. How many years did evolution required? (a} Tens
(b} Hundreds (c} Trillions
( d} Millions
Ans. (d) Millions
Q41. What is an important reason for the conservation of nat- ural resources?
(a} Disturb the ecological balance (b} Preserve the biological diversity
(c} Disruption of quality of the environment (d} Hampering the biological species
Ans. (b) Preserve the biological diversity
Q42. For what reason is the conservation of natural resources important?
(a} Maintaining the ecological processes (b} Disturbing the ecological balance
(c} Extinction of biological species
(d} Disruption of quality of the environment Ans. (a) Maintaining the ecological processes
Q43. What is the correct full form of IUCN7
(a} International Union for Conservation of Nuts
(b} International Union for Conservation of Nature
(c} International Union for Conservation of Natural habitat (d} International Union for
Conservation of Numbers
Ans. (b) International Union for Conservation of Nature
Q44. What are the species called whose number of individuals is greatly reduced to a critical
level7
(a} Indeterminate (b} Rare
(c} Vulnerable (d} Endangered
Ans. (d) Endangered

9
Q45. What are the species called whose number of individuals is greatly reduced recently and
is decreasing continuously?
(a} Endangered (b} Rare
(c} Vulnerable
( cl} Indeterminate Ans. (c) Vulnerable
Q46. What are the species called whose members are few and live in a small geographical
area callecl7
(a} Endangered (b} Rare
( c} Indeterminate (cl} Vulnerable Ans. (b) Rare
Q47. What are the species called whose members are in clanger of extinction but the reason
is unknown callecl7
(a} Endangered (b} Vulnerable (c} Rare
( cl} Indeterminate Ans. (d) Indeterminate
Q48. Which utilitarian states that humans derive countless di- rect economic benefits from
nature?
(a} Big utilitarian
(b} Broadly utilitarian
( c} Narrowly utilitarian
( cl} Small utilitarian
Ans. (c) Narrowly utilitarian
Q49. How many species of plants contribute to the traditional medicines used by native
peoples around the worlcl7
(a} 2,5<:l<:l
(b} 2,eee
(c} 5,eee
ca> 25,eee
Ans. (d) 25,000
Q5<:l. How many species of plants are used for the production of the drugs currently sold in
the mark.et worlclwicle7
(a} 2 %
(b} 35 %
(c} 25 %

10
(cl} 5 %
Ans. (d) 5 %
Q5l. Which utilitarian states that biodiversity is important for many ecosystem services that
nature provides?
(a} Narrowly utilitarian (b} Broadly utilitarian
( c} Big utilitarian
( d} Small utilitarian
Ans. (b) Broadly utilitarian
Q52. What is exploring molecular, genetic, and species-level diversity for products of
economic importance called?
(a} Biopiracy (b} Biofuel
(c} Bioprospecting (d} Biodiversity
Ans. (c) Bioprospecting
Q53. What percent of the total oxygen in the Earth's atmos- phere is released by the Amazon
forest?
(a} 5<:l %
(b} 2<:l %
(c} 4<:l %
(d} 2%
Ans. (b) 20 %
Q54. Which one of the following is an example of conservation? (a} No use of natural
resources
(b} The wise use of natural resources (c} Excess use of natural resources (d} Complete use of
natural resources
Ans. (d) Complete use of natural resources
Q55. Why is the biological wealth of our planet declining rapidly?
(a} Animal activities (b} Human activities ( c} Plant activities
( d} Ecological activities Ans. (b) Human activities
Q56. How many species of birds are extinct due to the colo- nization of the tropical Pacific
Islands by humans?
(a} 2,eee
(b} 8,eee

11
(c} le,eee
(d} 2(:),(:)(:)(:)
Ans. (a) 2,000
Q57. Who gives the Reel List7
(a} NSS (b} IUCN (c} WHO (cl} NCC
Ans. (b) IUCN
Q58. According to the IUCN Reel List (2<:l<:l4} documents, how many species have extinct
in the last 5<:l<:l years7
(a} 25<:l<:l
(b} l<:l<:l<:l
(c} 89<:l (cl} 784
Ans. (d) 784
Q59. According to the IUCN Reel List (2<:l<:l4} documents, how many vertebrate species
have extinct in the last 5<:l<:l years7
(a} 1eee
(b} 5<:l<:l
(c} 338
(cl} 784
Ans. (c) 338
Q6<:l. According to the IUCN Reel List (2<:l<:l4} documents, how many invertebrate
species have extinct in the last 5<:l<:l years7 (a} 784
(b} 359
(c} 5<:l<:l
( cl} 2<:l<:l<:l Ans. (b) 359
Q61. According to the IUCN Reel List (2<:l<:l4} documents, how many plant species have
extinct in the last 5<:l<:l years7
(a} 7
(b} 8 (c} 87<:l
(cl} 87
Ans. (d) 87
Q62. Which one of the following is an example of recent extinction?
(a} Dinosaurs

12
(b} Archaeopteryx
(c} Code
(cl} Mammoth
Ans. (c) Dodo
Q63. Which one of the following is an example of recent extinction?
Mammoth
Archaeopteryx
Dinosaurs (cl) Quagga Ans. (d) Quagga
Q64. Which one of the following is an example of recent extinction?
Coastal moa
Balearic cave goat
Thylacine
(cl) Dinosaurs Ans. (c) Thylacine
Q65. Which one of the following is an example of recent extinction?
Balearic cave goat
Steller's Sea Cow
Hunter Island penguin
( cl) Aurochs
Ans. (b) Steller's Sea Cow
Q66. How many species have extinct in the last twenty years7
2
2<:l
27
(cl) 7
Ans. (c) 27
Q67. How many species worldwide are facing the threat of extinction?
15<:l
15,5<:l<:l
( c) 15<:l<:l
( cl) 15

13
Ans. (b) 15,500
Q68. How many mass extinctions have occurred since the ori- gin and diversification of life
onEarth7
2
8
3
( cl) 5
Ans. (d) 5
Q69. The Government of India started a Crocodile Breeding and Management Project in
......... to save the three endangered crocodilian species, the fresh water crocodile, salt water
croc- odile and the gharial.
1976
1975
1977
1978
Ans. (a) 1976
Q7<:l. Total number of Biosphere Reserves in India are
12
14
16
18
Ans. (d) 18
Q7l. Which of the following provides genetic insurance
tissue culture
somatic cell cloning
introduction
seed bank. Ans. (d) seed bank
Q72. Artificial insemination can be beneficial in
Cogs
Cats
Elephants

14
Snakes
Ans. ( c) Elephants
Q73. Which one of the following is NOT a greenhouse gas found naturally in the
atmosphere?
Nitrogen oxide
Carbon dioxide
Methane
Ozone
Ans. (a) Nitrogen oxide
Q74. Which is an example of Aerosol?
Jelly
Fog
Butter
Sponge Ans. (b) Fog
Q75. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant? (a} Carbon monoxide
(b} Smog
( c} Carbon dioxide (cl} Fly Ash
Ans. (b) Smog
Q76. The phenomenon of marble cancer is clue to: (a} Soot particles
(b} Acid rain (c} CFCs
( cl} Fog
Ans. (b) Acid rain
Q77. Which of the following is not an environmental problem? (a} Genetic modification of
food
(b} Afforestation (c} Acid Rain
( cl} Loss of Biocliversit y
Ans. (b) Afforestation
Q78. Acid rain is mainly a mixture of (a} sulphuric acid and nitric acid
(b} hexane and methane (c} acetic acid and bromine
( cl} ascorbic acid and citric acid
Ans. (a) sulphuric acid and nitric acid

15
Q79. The water pollution in the rivers is measured by

(a} amount of dissolved chlorine (b} amount of dissolved ozone (c} amount of dissolved
nitrogen ( cl} amount of clissolvecl oxygen
Ans. (d) amount of dissolved oxygen
Q8<:l. Which of the following is not a cause of air pollution? (a} Mining operations
(b} Acid Rain
(c} Agricultural activities ( cl} Burning of fossil fuels Ans. (b) Acid Rain
Q81. Which one of the following is not the reason/factor for exposure to benzene pollution?
(a} Automobile exhaust (b} Tobacco smoke
(c} Wood burning
(d} Using varnished wooden furniture Ans. (d) Using varnished wooden furniture
Q82. The set of pipes which take away sewage from our
homes or public building to the water treatment plants are called
(a} pipe system (b} transportation (c} sewers
(d} sewerage
Ans. (d) sewerage
Q83. Which of the following is bio-degradable7 (a} Glass
(b} Crude oil (c} Nylon
(d} Farmyard manure
Ans. (d) Farmyard manure
Q84. Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among
(a} N0 , 0 andperoxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
2 3
(b} CO, 0
andperoxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
(c} CO, CO and N0 at low temperature
2
(d} high concentration of N0 , 0 and CO in the evening
2 3
Ans. (a) N02, 03 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
Q85. Gas released during Bhopal tragedy was (a} Methyl Isocyanate

16
(b} Oxygen Isocyanate (c} Carbon Dioxide
(d} Carbon Monoxide
Ans. (a) Methyl Isocyanate
Q86. Which of the following is used as biological indicator of sulphur-dioxide pollution?
(a} Bryophytes (b} Algae
(c} Pseudomonas (d} Lichen
Ans. (d) Lichen
Q87. 'fly-ash', a well-known pollutant is produced by (a} Oil refinery
(b} Fertilizer plant (c} Cement plant
(d} Thermal Power Plant
Ans. (d) Thermal Power Plant
Q88. Forest fires and volcanic eruptions add one of the major pollutants into the air. This
pollutant is:
(a} Chlorofluorocarbon (b} Hydrogen sulphide (c} Particulate matter (d} Hydrocarbons
Ans. (c) Particulate matter
Q89. The substance that causes the maximum air pollution is7 (a} Smoke
(b} Carbon monoxide (c} Sulphur dioxide (d} Nitrogen dioxide
Ans. (c) Sulphur dioxide
Q9<:l. Correct group of diseases caused by water contamination are:
(a} Cholera, Dysentery, Polio, Typhoid (b} Cholera, Jaundice, Typhoid, Anaemia
(c} Anaemia, Scurvy, Emphysema, Typhoid (d} Cholera, Jaundice, Typhoid, Scurvy Ans. (a)
Cholera, Dysentery, Polio, Typhoid
Q9l. Which of the following fuels would produce minimum envi- ronmental pollution?
(a} Hydrogen (b} Diesel
(c} Kerosene (d} Coal
Ans. (a) Hydrogen
Q92. Which of the following is an air pollutant? (a} Nitrogen
(b} Carbon dioxide
(c} Carbon monooxide (d} Oxygen
Ans. (c) Carbon monooxide
Q93. Which of the following is a secondary air pollutant? (a} Ozone

17
(b} Carbon dioxide
(c} Carbon monooxide (d} Sulphur dioxide Ans. (b) Carbon dioxide
Q94. The environmental lapse rate is found to be: (a} - 6.5 ° C/k.m
(b} 8.6 ° C/k.m
(c} 6.5 ° C/k.m
(d} 5.6 ° C/k.m
Ans. (a) - 6.5 ° C/km Q95. During Inversion:
(a} Temperature increases with altitude
(b} Temperature decreases with altitude (c} Temperature remains constant
(d} None of the above
Ans. (a) Temperature increases with altitude
Q96. Among the following, the only secondary pollutant is: (a} nitrogen oxides
(b} Sulphur dioxide (c} Sulphur trioxide (d} Sulphur
Ans. (c) Sulphur trioxide
Q97. Which of the following groups of plants can be used as indicators of SO pollution of
air7
(a} Epiphytic lichens (b} Ferns
(c} Liver worts (d} Horn worts
Ans. (a) Epiphytic lichens
Q98. Which of the following on inhalation dissolved in the blood hemoglobin more rapidly
than oxygen?
(a} Sulphur dioxide
(b} Carbon mono-oxide (c} Ozone
(d} Nitrous oxide
Ans. (b) Carbon mono-oxide Q99. Smog is:
(a} A natural phenomenon
(b} A combination of smoke and fog
( c} Is colourless
(d} All of the above
Ans. (b) A combination of smoke and fog Ql<:l<:l. The major photochemical oxidant is:
(a} Ozone

18
(b} Hydrogen peroxide
(c} Nitrogen oxides
(cl} Peroxyl Acetyl Nitrate (PAN} Ans. (c) Nitrogen oxides
Ql<:ll. Which of the following are likely to be present in photo- chemical smog7
(a} Sulphur dioxide
(b} Photochemical oxidants
( c} Chlorofluorocarbon
(cl} Smog
Ans. (c) Chlorofluorocarbon
Ql<:l2. Which of the following devices is suitable for the removal of gaseous pollutants?
(a} Cyclone separator
(b} Electrostatic precipitator (c} Fabric filter
(cl} Wet scrubber Ans. (d) Wet scrubber
Ql<:l3. Which of the following air pollution control devices is suitable for the removing the
finest dust from the air7
(a} Cyclone separator
(b} Electrostatic precipitator (c} Fabric filter
(cl} Wet scrubber
Ans. (b) Electrostatic precipitator
Ql<:l4. Air pollution from automobiles can be controlled by fit ting:
(a} Cyclone separate
(b} Electrostatic precipitator (c} Catalytic converter
(cl} Wet scrubber
Ans. (c) Catalytic converter
Ql<:l5. Taj Mahal at Agra may be damaged by: (a} Sulphur dioxide
(b} Chlorine (c} Hydrogen (cl} Oxygen
Ans. (a) Sulphur dioxide
Ql<:l6. Gas leak.eel in Bhopal tragedy: (a} Methyl isocyanate
(b} Potassium isothoiocynate (c} Ethyl isocyanate
(d} Sodium isothiocyanate Ans. (a) Methyl isocyanate
Ql<:l7. BOD is:

19
(a} A measure of the organic matter presents in water
(b} Usually less than COD
(c} Biochemical oxygen demand (d} All of the above
Ans. (d) All of the above
Ql<:l8. BOD/COD ratio will always be:
(a} Equal to l (b} Less than l (c} More than l
(d} None of them Ans. (b) Less than l
Ql<:l9. Biochemical Oxygen Demand measures: (a} Industrial pollution
(b} Air pollution
(c} Pollution capacity of effects
(d} Dissolved 02 needed by microbes to decompose organic waste.
Ans. (d) Dissolved 02 needed by microbes to decompose organic waste.
Qll<:l. Excess fluoride in drinking water is likely to cause: (a} Blue baby syndrome
(b} Fluorosis
(c} Change in taste andodour
( d} Intestinal irritation Ans. (b) Fluorosis
Qlll. Fluoride pollution mainly affects:
(a} Kidney (b} Brain (c} Heart (d} Teeth
Ans. (d) Teeth
Qll2. Which of the following is a non-point source of water pollution?
(a} Factories
(b} Sewage treatment plants (c} Urban and suburban lands (d} All of the above
Ans. (c) Urban and suburban lands
Qll3. Septic tank. is:
(a} An aerobic attached growth treatment system
(b} An aerobic suspended growth biological treatment system (c} An anaerobic attached
growth biological treatment system (cl} An anaerobic suspended growth treatment system
Ans. (d) An anaerobic suspended growth treatment system Qll4. Disease caused by eating
fish inhabiting mercury contam- inated water is:
(a} Bright's disease (b} Hiroshima episode (c} Mina-mata disease ( cl} Osteosclerosis
Ans. (c) Mina-mata disease

20
Qll5. Which of the following is not a marine pollutant?
(a} Oil
(b} Plastics
(c} Dissolved oxygen (cl} All of the above
Ans. (c) Dissolved oxygen
Qll6. Noise is:
(a} Loud sound
(b} Sound of high frequency (c} Unwanted sound
( cl} Constant sound
Ans. (c) Unwanted sound
Q117. Sound becomes hazardous noise pollution at decibels: (a} Above 8<:l
(b} Above 3<:l (c} Above 1ee
(cl} Above 12<:l Ans. (a) Above 80
Qll8. Which of the following is a major source of thermal pol- lution in water boclies7
(a} Sewage treatment plant (b} Solid waste disposal sites (c} Thermal power plant
(cl} All of the above
Ans. (c) Thermal power plant
Qll9. Thehighest heating valve is of: (a} Garbage
(b} Rubbish
(c} Hospital waste (d} Industrial waste Ans. (b) Rubbish
Ql2<:l. The highest moisture content is in:
(a} Garbage (b} Rubbish
(c} Hospital waste
(d} Agricultural waste Ans. (d) Agricultural waste
Ql2l. Which of the following is a likely characteristic of haz- ardous waste7
(a} lgnitability (b} Corrosivity (c} Reactivity
(d} Any of the above Ans. (d) Any of the above
Ql22. High level radioactive waste can be managed in which of the following ways7
(a} Open dumping (b} Composting
( c} Incineration

21
(d} Dumping in sealed containers Ans. (d) Dumping in sealed containers
Ql23. Biomedical waste may be disposed of by7 (a} Incineration
(b} Autoclaving
( c} Land filling
(d} Both (b} and (c}
Ans. ( d) Both (b) and ( c)
Ql24. Which of the following is a biodegradable organic chemi- cal/substance?
(a} Plastics
(b} Oils
(c} Pesticides (d} Garbage
Ans. (d) Garbage
Ql25. Global climate is threatened by increase in concentration of
(a} Oxygen (b} Nitrogen
(c} Water vapours
(d} Green house gases Ans. (d) Green house gases
Ql26. Ozone layer above earth's atmosphere: (a} Prevent infra-red radiation from sun
(b} Infra-red rays reflected from earth from escaping earth's atmosphere
(c} Prevent ultraviolet rays from sun (d} Reflect back. radio waves
Ans. (c) Prevent ultraviolet rays from sun
Ql27. Which of the following would be a natural pollution (a} Forest fires
(b} Eutrophication
(c} Occurrence of smog
(d} Occurrence of NO2 in atmosphere Ans. (a) Forest fires
Ql28. Which of the following statement is incorrect
(a} Carbon monoxide is the major environment pollutant (b} All pollutants are not waste
(c} Nitrogen and Mg can pollute water
(d} Lichens are affected by sulphur dioxide Ans. (b) All pollutants are not waste
Ql29. The soil pollutants that affect the food chain and food web by killing micro organisms
and plants are
(a} Pathogens
(b} Chemical fertilizers (c} Agricultural wastes (d} Pesticides

22
Ans. (d) Pesticides
Ql3<:l. The reason of pollution is (a} Population explosion
(b} Urbanisation
( c} Industrialisation (d} All the above Ans. (d) All the above
Ql3l. Major pollution causing agent is (a} Man
(b} Animals
(c} Hydrocarbon gases (d} None of the above Ans. (a) Man
Ql32. Which of the following strategy is not useful for global warming
(a} Use of fossil fuel in limit
(b} Increase in forest
( c} Increasing use of nitrogen fertilizers
(d} Use of other options in the place of CFC. Ans. (b) Increase in forest
Ql33. The presence of ozone (03} in the atmosphere of earth (a} Hinders higher rate of
photosynthesis
(b} Helps in checking the penetration of ultraviolet rays to earth
(c} Has been responsible for increasing the average global tem-
perature in recent years
(d} Is advantageous since it supplies 02 for people travelling in jets
Ans. (b) Helps in checking the penetration of ultraviolet rays to earth
Ql34. Formation of ozone hole is maximum over
(a} China
(b} Antarctica (c} USA
( d} India
Ans. (b) Antarctica
Ql35. Pollution can be controlled by (a} Sewage treatment
(b} Manufacturing electrically operated vehicles (c} By checking atomic blasts
(d} All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above
Ql36. The result of ozone hole is (a} Acid rain
(b} UV radiations (c} Global warming
(d} Green house effect Ans. (b) UV radiations
Ql37. Effect of pollution first marked on (a} Micro-organisms

23
(b} Green vegetation of an area (c} Food crop
(d} None of these
Ans. (b) Green vegetation of an area
Ql38. A pollutant is any substance chemical or other factor that changes
(a} Natural geochemical cycles
(b} Natural balance of our environment
( c} Natural flora of a place
(d} The natural wild life of a region
Ans. (b) Natural balance of our environment
Ql39. The term "Bio-magnification" refers to the (a} Growth of organism due to food
consumption (b} Increase in population size
(c} Blowing up of environmental issues by man
(d} Increase in the concentration of non-degradable pollutants as they pass through food
chain
Ans. (d) Increase in the concentration of non-degradable pollu- tants as they pass through
food chain
Ql4<:l. Problem associated with nuclear power plants is (a} Thermal pollution
(b} Emission of hazardous radio - nuclides (c} Disposal of radioactive waste
(d} All the above
Ans. (b) Emission of hazardous radio - nuclides
Ql4l. Which of the following causes outbreak. of jaundice (a} Air pollution
(b} Water pollution (c} Thermal pollution ( d} Soil pollution
Ans. (b) Water pollution
Ql42. Which of the following organism is likely to have more concentration of D.D.T in its
body
(a} Herbivores (b} Carnivores
(c} Top carnivores
(d} Primary producers Ans. (c) Top carnivores
Ql43. Positive pollution of soil is due to (a} Excessive use of fertilizers
(b} Addition of wastes on soil (c} Reduction in soil productivity ( d} All of these
Ans. ( d) All of these

24
Ql44. As we all know, emission of certain gases is responsible for the level of. Which of the
following gases makes maximum contribution to Global Warming?
(a} Ammonia (b} Oxygen
(c} Carbon Dioxide
( cl} Nitrogen Ans. (b) Oxygen
Ql45. What is Freon7
(a} Difluoro Dichloro Ethane (b} Difluoro Dichloro Methane
(c} Difluoroamines Dichloro Methane
(cl} Difluoro Methylornithine
Ans. (b) Difluoro Dichloro Methane
Ql46. Highest percentage of air consists of (a} Oxygen
(b} Carbon dioxide (c} Nitrogen
(cl} Argon
Ans. (c) Nitrogen
Ql47. The Taj Mahal is being affected by (a} Noise pollution
(b} Air pollution (c} Water pollution ( cl} None of these
Ans. (b) Air pollution
Ql48. Most polluted river in the world is (a} Yamuna
(b} Cavery (c} Chenab (cl} Ganga
Ans. (d)Ganga
Ql49. Air pollution causes (a} Global warming
(b} Respiratory problems
( c} Soil erosion
( cl} None of these
Ans. (b) Respiratory problems
Ql5<:l. Green House gas is (a} Nitrogen
(b} Oxygen
(c} Methane
(d} Carbon dioxide Ans. (d) Carbon dioxide
Ql5l. Thepercentage of nitrogen is
(a} 21%

25
(b} 78%
(c} 12%
(d} 87%
Ans. (b) 78%
Ql5l. What causes pollution (a} Human activities
(b} Trees
(c} Both of these (d} None of these
Ans. (a) Human activities
Ql52. CNG is a (a} Polluted fuel (b} Clean fuel
( c} Harmful fuel (d} None
Ans. (b) Clean fuel
Ql53. Pollution of water is responsible for (a} Oil refineries
(b} Paper factories (c} Sugar mills
( d} All
Ans. ( d) All
Ql54. Chlorofluorocarbon is used in (a} Refrigerators
(b} Air conditioners (c} Perfumes
( d} All Ans. ( d) All
Ql55. The aerobic method of mechanical composting practised in India is called:
(a} Indore method (b} Nagpur method
(c} Bangalore method (d} Bhopal method Ans. (a) Indore method
Ql56. The best method of disposal of refuse to ensure com- plete destruction of pathogenic
bacteria is by
(a} Land disposal (b} Incineration
( c} Pulverisation
(d} Mechanical composting Ans. (b) Incineration
Ql57. As per CPCB, how much solid waste is generated per capita per day in large cities?
(a} e.1 kg
(b} <:l.5 kg
(c} <:l.3 kg to <:l.4 kg
(d} 2.8 kg

26
Ans. (b) 0.5 kg
Ql58. The maximum C/N ratio in a Municipal Solid Waste Com- post is
(a} l<:l:l
(b} 2<:l:l
( c} 3<:l:l
( d} 4<:l:l
Ans. (b) 20:l
Ql59. Which one of the following statement is correct?
(a} Pyrolysis is an exothermic process, which takes place in the absence of oxygen.
(b} Pyrolysis is an endothermic process, which takes place in the absence of oxygen.
(c} Pyrolysis is an endothermic process, which takes place in the abundance of oxygen.
(d} Combustion is an exothermic process, which takes place in the absence of oxygen.
Ans. (b) Pyrolysis is an endothermic process, which takes place in the absence of oxygen.
Q16<:l. Sludge bulking can be controlled by
(a} Chlorination (b} Coagulation (c} Aeration
( d} Cenitrification Ans. (a) Chlorination
Ql6l. Bangalore and Indore process of composting are which of the following?
(a} Both anaerobic processes
(b} Both aerobic processes
(c} Anaerobic process and aerobic process respectively
(cl} Aerobic process and anaerobic process respectively Ans. (c) Anaerobic process and
aerobic process respectively Ql62. The disposal of the screen is done by:
(a} Sedimentation (b} Flocculation (c} Filtration
(cl} Incineration
Ans. (d) Incineration
Ql63. Solid waste treatment by pyrolysis refers to (a} Treating with chemicals before heating
(b} No heating
(c} Heating in presence of air
(cl} Heating in absence of air Ans. (d) Heating in absence of air
Ql64. The major constituent gases produced from a land fill site are:
(a} Carbon dioxide and methane (b} Ammonia and Hydrogen

27
(c} Carbon monoxide and nitrogen (cl} Hydrogen sulphide and oxygen Ans. (a) Carbon
dioxide and methane
Ql65. In assessing the heating value of municipal solid waste, the preferred range of carbon
to nitrogen (C/N} ratio, in the waste is:
(a} 1-1<:l
(b} l<:l-2<:l
( c} 2<:l-35
( cl} 36-5(:)
Ans. ( d) 36-5 0
Ql66. In solid waste management, waste utilization is achieved by
(a} Recover, reclamation of reproduce (b} Reuse, Reclamation and Recycling (c} Recover,
Recycling and Reproduce (cl} Reuse, Reproduce and Recycling
Ans. (b) Reuse, Reclamation and Recycling
Ql67. The threshold of sound pressure that a normal healthy person can respond to is
(a} e.eee2 Pa
(b} (:),(:)(:)(:)(:)2 Pa
(c} e.ee2 Pa
( cl} (:),(:)2 Pa
Ans. (b) 0.00002 Pa
Ql68. An engineered facility for the disposal of municipal solid waste is called:
(a} Septic tank.
(b} Sanitary landfills (c} Dug wells
(cl} Tandem landfills
Ans. (b) Sanitary landfills
Ql69. refuse include dry animal & vegetable refuse. (a} Mineral
(b} Non-combustible
( c} Inorganic
( cl} Organic
Ans. (d) Organic

28
Ql7<:l. The two main gases liberated from an anaerobic sludge digestion tank. would include:
(a} NH3 and CO2 (b} CO2 and CH4 (c} CH4 and H2S (cl} NH3 and CH4
Ans. (b) CO2 and CH4
Q171. Which of the following statements is correct regarding
leachate?
(a} It can be discharged in water bodies without any treatment (b} It can be used for the
irrigation in parks
(c} It is used for the treatment of wastewater
( cl} It is generated in a landfill Ans. ( d) It is generated in a landfill
Q172. Which of the following material is used as land fill
sealants for the control of gas and leachate movement? (a} Lime
(b} Sand (c} Fly ash
( cl} Bentonite Ans. (d) Bentonite
Ql73. Which of the following facts is incorrect?
(a} Global warming is the rise in the average temperature of the earth's climate system

(b} Eutrophication is observed in water bodies


(c} The greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon (cl} Ozone is harmless to breathe
Ans. (d) Ozone is harmless to breathe
Ql74. Areas that are under the influence of DDT may observe a decline in the population of
birds. This is clue to the fact that (a} Birds stopped laying eggs altogether
(b} The eggs did not hatch
(c} Predation of the eggs increased (cl} None of the above.
Ans. (b) The eggs did not hatch
Ql75. Measuring BOD (biological oxygen demand} is primarily used for
(a} Estimating the types of microbes
(b} Determine the level of dissolved oxygen
(c} Estimating the quantity of organic matter in sewage water (cl} None of the above
Ans. (c) Estimating the quantity of organic matter in sewage water
Ql76. Cosmic rays, such as gamma rays are a source of
(a} Soil Pollution (b} Noise Pollution

29
(c} Thermal Pollution
( cl} Radiation pollution
Ans. (d) Radiation pollution
Ql77. The primary agenda of the Kyoto protocol is (a} Regulation of hazardous wastes
(b} Regulate the production of nuclear energy
(c} Control anthropogenic sources of greenhouse gases (cl} None of the above
Ans. (c) Control anthropogenic sources of greenhouse gases Ql78. The presence of in
a water body is an indica- tor of water pollution.
(a} Zygosporangium (b} E.Coli
( c} Deinococcus raclioclurans (cl} None of the above
Ans. (b) E.Coli
Ql79. Eggshells of birds become unusually thin when exposed to the pesticides in their
environment. The protein that gets affected is
(a} Calmodulin (b} Cysteine (c} Serine
(cl} None of the above Ans. (a) Calmodulin
Q18<:l. Lichens are good bioinclicators for (a} Environmental radiation
(b} Soil pollution
(c} Water and air pollution (cl} None of the above
Ans. (c) Water and air pollution
Ql8l. A moth having a speck.led wing, able to blend into its back.ground clue to its dark.
colouration is called
(a} Industrial melanism (b} Adaptation
( c} Predation (cl} Evolution
Ans. (a) Industrial melanism
Ql82. Carbon dioxide is primarily called a greenhouse gas because
(a} Traps heat (b} Traps light
(c} Traps warm currents (cl} None of the above Ans. (a) Traps heat
Ql83. Trichoclerma harzianum is a that is preclomi- nantly used as a fungicide
(a} Virus (b} Fungus
( c} Bacteria
( cl} Protozoa Ans. (b) Fungus

30
Ql84. Greenhouse gases are those that absorb and emit in- frared radiation. Examples include
_
(a} Nitrogen (b} Ozone (c} Argon
(cl} None of the above Ans.(b) Ozone
Ql85. Depletion of the ozone layer is damaging to human health. Negative effects
include
(a} Skin cancers (b} Osteoporosis (c} Dyspepsia
(d} None of the above Ans. (a) Skin cancers
Ql86. is an organism used to gauge the quality of an ecosystem.
(a} Decomposers (b} Predator
(c} Bio-remediator (d} Bioindicator Ans. (d) Bioindicator
Ql87. is a waste disposal method where solid organic wastes are converted to the residue
and gaseous prod- ucts through combustion.
(a} Incarnation (b} Incineration
( c} Incarceration (d} Incubation
Ans. (b) Incineration
Ql88. The perfect example of selective destruction is (a} Great Indian Rhinoceros
(b} Alligators
(c} Passenger pigeon
( d} Sea gulls
Ans. (c) Passenger pigeon
Ql89. Themain reasons for animal species extinction at the current high rates are
(a} Habitat destruction (b} Hunting
(c} Over harvesting from the wild
(d} Domestication of selective species of animals Ans. (d) Domestication of selective species
of animals Ql9<:l. Habitat modification may occur due to
(a} Fragmentation of original habitat (b} Pollution
(c} Changes in species composition due to humans (d} All of the above
Ans. (d) All of the above
Ql9l. Theagent that contaminates the ............ component is called pollution.
(a} Environmental (b} Biological
(c} Non-degradable (cl} Non of the above Ans. (a) Environmental

31
Ql92. Plastics are ............ type of pollutants. (a} Secondary
(b} Non-degradable (c} Primary
(cl} Non of the above Ans. (b) Non-degradable
Ql93. Sulphur dioxide can be absorbed in small (a} Particulates
(b} Species
(c} Environment
( cl} Soil
Ans. (a) Particulates
Ql94. Which is not a waste minimization method? (a} Process modification
(b} Waste concentration (c} Waste segregation
( cl} Landfill
Ans. ( d) Landfill
Ql95. Of all animal species, ............ have inevitable spirits and capacity of adjusting to and
manipulating the environment.
(a} Human (b} Mammal (c} Water (cl} Oxygen
Ans. (a) Human
Ql96. Our ............ consumption strategies and living styles have compelled to live in
polluted environment.
(a} Resource (b} Eating (c} Living
(cl} Non of the above Ans. (a) Resource
Ql97...............are a poor method of waste disposal because they cause environmental
problems.
(a} Open dumps (b} Ground dumps

( c} Incineration (d} All above


Ans. (a) Open dumps
Ql98. The pH of rainfall was measured to be as per the following at four places A, B, C and
D. Which place had the acid deposition?
(a} A-5.5
(b} B-6.2
( c} C-6.5
(d} D-6.9

32
Ans. (a) A-5.5

Ql99. Which of the following chemicals is responsible for ozone depletion?


(a} Sulphur oxides (b} Carbon monoxide
( c} Chlorofluorocarbons (d} Nitrogen oxide
Ans. (c) Chlorofluorocarbons
Q2<:l<:l. Which of the following is an example of non-point source of pollution?
(a} Run-offs from agricultural fields (b} Emissions from a power plant
(c} Discharge of effluent waste water from a factory (d} Municipal waste water discharged in
a river
Ans. (a) Run-offs from agricultural fields
Q2<:ll. The increase in the concentration of CO2 and other greenhouse gases leads to
an enhanced:
(a} infrared radiation (b} greenhouse effect ( c} solar radiation
(d} non of the above
Ans. (b) greenhouse effect
Q2<:l2. Which is the best method for disposal of hospital and toxic wastes?
(a} Incineration
(b} Dumping at sea
( c} Landfill (d} Recycling
Ans. (a) Incineration

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