19-01-2025

9610ZMD801500240004 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) Following figure shows the path of an electron that passes through two regions containing
uniform magnetic field of magnitudes B1 and B2. It's path in each region is a half circle, choose the

correct option :-

(1) B1 is into the page and it is stronger than B2

(2) B1 is into the page and it is weak than B2
(3) B1 is out of the page and it is weaker than B2
(4) B1 is out of the page and it is stronger than B2

2) The variation of susceptibility (฀) with absolute temperature (T) for a paramagnetic matarial is
represented.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A conducting bar is pulled with a constant speed v on a smooth conducting rail. The region has a
steady magnetic field of induction B as shown in the figure. If the speed of the bar is doubled then
the rate of heat dissipation will :-

(1) Remain constant

(2) Become quarter of the initial value
(3) Become four times
(4) Get doubled

4) A body of mass 5 g is executing SHM about a point O with amplitude 100 cm. If its maximum
velocity is 100 cm/sec. Its velocity will be 50 cm/sec at a distance (in cm) : -

(1) 5
(2)
(3)
(4)

5) The springs in figure A and B are identical but length in A is three times each of that in B. The

ratio of period TA/TB is

(1)

(2)

(3) 3

(4)

6) In resonance tube experiment end correction and 1st resonating length in sound 2.5 cm and 15
cm respectively if finally velocity of sound in air column is obtained 350 m/sec at laboratory
temperature, then frequency of tuning fork used in experiment will be : -

(1) 600 Hz
(2) 500 Hz
(3) 400 Hz
(4) 800 Hz

7) 5 beats/sec are produced on blowing together two closed organ pipes of the same diameter but of
different lengths. If shorter pipe is of 10 cm length and speed of sound in air is 300 m/s, length of
other pipe is :-

(1) 10.06 cm
(2) 11.22 cm
(3) 16 cm
(4) 14 cm

8) Coefficient of reflective power and absorptive power is and respectively. If total incident
energy is 1200 J. Find energy transmitted ?

(1) 100 J
(2) 500 J
(3) 300 J
(4) 800 J

9) 80 g water at 60°C is added on xgm ice at 0°C find the amount of ice that will melt?

(1) 30 gm
(2) 60 gm
(3) 120 gm
(4) 80 gm

10) The radius of a planet is R. A satellite revolves around it in a circle of radius r with angular
velocity ω0. The acceleration due to gravity on planet’s surface is.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Two satellites A and B of masses m1 and m2 (m1 = 2m2) are moving in circular orbits of radii r1

and r2 (r1 = 4r2) respectively, around the earth. If their periods are TA and TB then the ratio is : -

(1) 4
(2) 16
(3) 2
(4) 8

12) If an electric dipole is being rotated about its centre in a uniform electric field by 360° angle
then find the work required it [assume dipole moment is p and uniform electric field is E] : -
(1) pE(2π)
(2) pE(360°)
(3) 2pE
(4) 0

13)
A point charge Q is placed outside the spherical conductor of radius R as shown in figure find the
potential difference between point A and B : -

(1)

(2) 0

(3)

(4)

14) A uniform semi-circular wire of radius R is placed in the xy-plane with its center at the origin and
line joining its ends as x axis. Find the position of its center of mass.

(1)

(2) (0, R)
(3) (R, 0)

(4)

15) A rod of length 50cm is pivoted at one end. It is raised such that it makes an angle of 30° from
the horizontal as shown and released from rest. Its angular speed when it passes through the

horizontal (in rad s–1) will be (g =10ms–2)

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

16) The momentum of a photon is 2 × 10–16 gm-cm/sec. Its energy is : -

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

17) A beam of fast moving alpha particles were directed towards a thin film of gold. The partsandof
the transmitted and reflected beams corresponding to the incident parts A, B and C of the beam, are
shown in the adjoining diagram. The number of alpha particles in

(1) B' will be minimum and in C' maximum

(2) A' will be maximum and in B' minimum
(3) A' will be minimum and in B' maximum
(4) C' will be minimum and in B' maximum

18) A force of 10 N is applied to a plate of area 0.2 m2 separated by x. Fluid layer of 0.02 m thickness
from a fixed plate. The fluids velocity gradient is x if coefficient of viscosity is 8 poise. Find x : -

(1) 10/s
(2) 3.125/s
(3) 6.25/s
(4) 62.5/s

19) In given figure, find ratio of shear & longitudinal stress. (Area = 10m2)

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) None

20) Assertion : If object placed in front of plane mirror placed along y -axis moves along +x axis
then image also moves along +x-axis.
Reason : The distance moved by image perpendicular to mirror is same as distance moved by object
SI false SII true.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct

21) As we move away from a point source of light.

(1) Intensity continuously increases

(2) Intensity continuously decreases
(3) Intensity decreases first and then becomes constant after some time
(4) Intensity increases first and then starts decreasing

22) Two blocks of masses 2 kg and 1 kg respectively are tied to the ends of a string which passes
over a light frictionless pulley. The masses are held at rest at the same horizontal level and then

released. The distance traversed by centre of mass in 2 s is − (g = 10 m/s2) : -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) In a string block system suspended to ceiling of lift ,the work done by gravity on a block is 100 J,
while the work done by tension is -110J. choose correct

(1) The acceleration is in direction of gravitational force.

(2) The body is moving upward.
(3) There is increase in kinetic energy of 10J.
(4) The velocity and acceleration are opposite to each other.

24) A particle starts to move with uniform acceleration on circular path covers quarter circle in 10
sec. How much time will it take to cover the next three quarters.
(1) 30 sec
(2) 5 sec
(3) 10 sec
(4) 20 sec

25) Calculate the current through 50Ω resistor :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Name the logic gate equivalent to the diagram attached

(1) OR
(2) NAND
(3) NOR
(4) AND

27) In a vernier callipers one main scale division is x unit and y division of vernier scale coincide
with (y-2) division of the main scale. The least count of the callipers is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

28) A projectile is thrown with velocity u making angle θ with vertical. It just crosses the top of two
poles each of height h after 1 second and 3 second respectively. The maximum height of projectile is

:-

(1) 9.8 m
(2) 19.6 m
(3) 39.2 m
(4) 4.9 m

29) Three vectors OP, OQ and OR each of magnitude A are acting as shown in figure. The resultant
of the three vectors is . The value of x is ________.

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 9

30) If a 10V ideal EMF source is connected across terminal A and B, the charge on 6mF capacitor

will be :

(1) 3 µC
(2) 6 µC
(3) 9 µC
(4) 20 µC

31) If the galvanometer G does not show any deflection in the circuit shown, the power dissipated in
R is given by :

(1) 0.04 W
(2) 100 W
(3) 400 W
(4) 0.01 W

32) A copper wire of length 10 m and radius has electrical resistance of 100 W. The
current density in the wire for an electric field strength of 10 (V/m) is:

(1) 106 A/m2

(2) 10–5 A/m2
(3) 105 A/m2
(4) 104 A/m2

33) In an electromagnetic wave, the electric field oscillated sinusoidally with amplitude 48 V/m. The
RMS value of oscillating magnetic field will be :-

(1) 1.6 × 10–8 T

(2) 16 × 10–9 T
(3) 144 × 108 T
(4) 11.3 × 10–8 T

34) An ideal resistance R, ideal inductance L, ideal capacitance C and AC voltmeters V1, V2, V3 and V4

are connected to an AC source as shown. At resonance

(1) Reading in V3 = reading in V1

(2) Reading in V1 = reading in V2
(3) Reading in V3 = reading in V4
(4) Reading in V2 = reading in V3

35) If an iron rod is inserted in the solenoid(coil) then effect on the brightness of bulb
(1) brightness will increase permanently
(2) brightness will decrease permanently
(3) No Effect
(4) Bulb get fused

SECTION-B

1) Two coils have self-inductance L1 = 4 mH and L2 = 1 mH respectively. The currents in the two
coils are increased at the same rate. At a certain instant of time both coils are given the same power.

If I1 and I2 are the currents in the two coils at that instant of time respectively, then the value of is
:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1

2) Consider the inferences given below in respect of the following current loop of wire kept in a

magnetic field (1) The magnitude and direction of force on

the element AC of the wire is directed into the page

(2) The magnitude and direction of force on the element AB of the wire is directed into the
page
(3) The total force on the loop ABCA is zero
Which of the above is/are not true

(1) 1 and 2
(2) 2 only
(3) 1 and 3
(4) 2 and 3

3) v vs t curve is shown in diagram, then amplitude of SHM will be:

(1) 10 cm
(2) 25 cm
(3) 50 cm
(4) 100 cm

4) The efficiency of carnot engine working between 800 K and 200 K is (percentage) : -

(1) 25%
(2) 50%
(3) 75%
(4) 100%

5)
Find the net electric dipole moment of the given system : -

(1)
(2) 3qa
(3)
(4) 5qa

6) A uniformly thick wheel with moment of inertia I and radius R is free to rotate about its centre of
mass (see fig). A massless string is wrapped over its rim and two blocks of masses m1 and m2 (m1 >
m2) are attached to the ends of the string. The system is released from rest. The angular speed of the
wheel when m1 descents by a distance h is : -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) The de-Broglie wavelength and kinetic energy of a particle is 2000Å and 1 eV respectively. If its
kinetic energy becomes 1 MeV, then its de-Broglie wavelength becomes

(1) 1Å
(2) 2Å
(3) 5Å
(4) 10Å

8) A small rod of length 0.1 cm lies along the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm
at a distance of 30 cm from pole. Find length of image : -

(1) 0.25 mm
(2) 0.4 cm
(3) 0.05 cm
(4) 0.5 mm

9) Assertion : When light travels from rarer to denser medium, then decrease in speed also signifies
decrease in energy.
Reason : Energy of a wave depends on frequency of wave which depends on speed of wave.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect
(4) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
10) A 5 kg block has a rope of mass 2 kg attached to its underside and a 3 kg block is suspended
from the other end of the rope. The whole system is accelerated upward at 2 m/s2 by an external

force F . The tension at middle point of the rope will be : -

(1) 84 N
(2) 24 N
(3) 48 N
(4) 42 N

11) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Least count of a screw gauge is directly proportional to the number of divisions on
circular scale.
Statement II : A screw gauge having a smaller value of pitch has greater accuracy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.
(4) Both statements I and statements II are incorrect.

12) Drops of water falls from the roof of a building 18m. high at regular intervals of time. When the
first drop reaches the ground, at the same instant fourth drop starts to fall. What are the distances
of the second and third drops from the roof : -

(1) 6 m and 2 m
(2) 6 m and 3 m
(3) 8 m and 2 m
(4) 4 m and 2 m

13) Two identical capacitors have same capacitance C. One of them is charged to the potential V and
other to the potential 3V. The negative ends of both are connected together. When the positive ends
are also joined together, the decrease in energy of the combined system is :

(1)

(2) CV2

(3)

(4)

14) Resistance of a wire at 0 °C, 100 °C and temperature ‘t’ is found to be 10 Ω, 10.2 Ω and 10.95 Ω
respective. The value of t is __________.

(1) 748° C
(2) 748 K
(3) 475 K
(4) 475°F

15) In an EM wave propagating along X-direction magnetic field oscillates at a frequency of 3 × 1010
Hz along Y-direction and has an amplitude of 10–6 T. The expression for electric field will be :-

10
(1) Ez = 30 sin 2π(100x – 3×10 t) V/m
10
(2) Ez = 300 sin 2π(100x – 3×10 t) V/m
(3) Ey = 30 sin 2π(100x – 3×10 t) V/m
10

10
(4) Ey = 300 sin 2π(100x – 3×10 t) V/m

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Assertion : Pentane-2,3-diol can exist in meso form.

Reason : There may be plane of symmetry in one case.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true and but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

2) Correct match is

Column-I Column-II
(P) Compound of which mirror image is super imposable (a) Enantiomers
(Q) Stereo isomers which are non-super imposable mirror images (b) Meso
(R) Stereo isomers which are not mirror images (c) Diastereomers
(1) P → a ; Q → b ; R → c
(2) P → b ; Q → a ; R → c
(3) P → b ; Q → c ; R → a
(4) P → c ; Q → a ; R → b

3) Correct match is

Column-I Column-II

(P) (a) Meso compound

(Q) (b) Optically active

(R) (c) Optically inactive

(1) P → a ; Q → b ; R → c
(2) P → a ; Q → c ; R → b
(3) P → c ; Q → b ; R → a
(4) P → c ; Q → a ; R → b

4)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Which of the following reaction results into formation of 1° alkyl halide as major product?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

6) A coloured product is obtained in the following reaction of Aniline :-

structure of 'B' is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Equal masses of oxygen, hydrogen and methane are taken in identical conditions. What is the
ratio of the volumes of the gases under identical conditions?

(1) 16 : 1 : 8
(2) 1 : 16 : 2
(3) 1 : 16 : 8
(4) 2 : 16 : 1

8) What is the frequency of light with a wavelength of 480 nm?

(1) 1.60 × 10–6 s–1

(2) 6.25 × 105 s–1
(3) 6.25 × 1614 s–1
(4) 1.44 × 1020 s–1

9) For which reaction will Kp be larger than KC at 25° C?

(1) CO2(g) + C(s) → 2CO(g)

(2) 2NO2(g) → N2O4(g)
(3) H2(g) + F2(g) → 2HF(g)
(4) O3(g) + NO(g) → NO2(g) + O2(g)

10) The ratio of dissociation constant of two weak acids HA and HB is 4. At what molar
concentration ratio, the two acids will have same pH in separate solutions?

(1) 2
(2) 0.5
(3) 4
(4) 0.25

11) ΔH = 30 kJ mol–1, ΔS = 75 J/K/mol. Find boiling temperature at 1 atm :

(1) 400 K
(2) 300 K
(3) 150 K
(4) 425 K

12) The oxidation number of sulphur in S8, S2F2 and H2S respectively are:

(1) 0, +1 and –2
(2) +2, +1 and –2
(3) 0, +1 and +2
(4) –2, +1 and –2

13) The correct increasing order for bond angles among BF3, PF3 and ClF3 is :

(1) PF3 < BF3 < ClF3

(2) BF3 < PF3 < ClF3
(3) ClF3 < PF3 < BF3
(4) BF3=PF3 < ClF3

14) For OF2 molecule consider the following:

(A) Number of lone pairs on oxygen is 2.
(B) FOF angle is less than 104.5°.
(C) Oxidation state of O is –2.
(D) Molecule is bent ‘V’ shaped.
(E) Molecular geometry is linear.
Correct options are :

(1) C, D, E only
(2) B, E, A only
(3) A, C, D only
(4) A, B, D only

15) For elements B, C, N, Li, Be, O and F the correct order of first ionization enthalpy is

(1) Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F

(2) B > Li > Be > C > N > O > F
(3) Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F
(4) Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F

16) The correct order of metallic character is :

(1) Be > Ca > K

(2) Ca > K > Be
(3) K > Ca > Be
(4) K > Be > Ca

17) The correct option with respect to the Pauling electronegativity values of the element is :

(1) Te > Se
(2) Ga < Ge
(3) Si < Al
(4) P > S

18) What is the oxidation number of Fe in [Fe(H2O)5(NO)]2+ ion?

(1) +2
(2) +3
(3) +1
(4) 0

19) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ and [Fe(CN)6]4– are correctly related to respectively

(1) Paramagnetic, Diamagnetic

(2) Paramagnetic, Paramagnetic
(3) Diamagnetic, Paramagnetic
(4) None of these

20) AlCl3 on hydrolysis gives:

(1) Al2O3·H2O
(2) Al(OH)3
(3) Al2O3
(4) AlCl3·6H2O

21) The effect of lanthanoid contraction in the lanthanoid series of elements by the large means:

(1) Increase in both atomic and ionic radii

(2) Decrease in both atomic and ionic radii
(3) Decrease in atomic radii and increase in ionic radii
(4) Increase in atomic radii and decrease in ionic radii
22) K3[Fe(CN)6] gives green ppt. with:

(1) Ag+(aq)
(2) Cu2(aq)
(3) Fe3+(aq)
(4) Fe2+(aq)

23) Which of the following metal does not form MO type of oxide?

(1) Fe
(2) Cu
(3) Sc
(4) Cd

24) The compound with molecular formula, C6H14 has two tertiary carbons. Its IUPAC name is

(1) n-hexane
(2) 2-methylpentane
(3) 2, 3-dimethylbutane
(4) 2, 3-dimethylpentane

25) Assertion : is more stable that .

Reason : In structure (I), both the O atoms and the carbon atom have an octet of electrons but in
structure (II), oxygen atom has only a sextet of electrons.

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is wrong.
(4) A is wrong but R is correct.

26) Which of the following correctly represents the + Ι-effect of the substituents on a saturated
carbon chain?

– –
(1) –COO > – O > – CR3
– –
(2) –O > – COO > – CR3
– –
(3) –O < – COO < – CR3
– –
(4) –COO < – O < – CR3

27) One mole of alkene on ozonolysis gives 2 moles of 2–butanone. The alkene is

(1) 3, 4-dimethylhex-2-ene
(2) 2, 3-dimethylhex-3-ene
(3) 3, 4-dimethylhex-3-ene
(4) 2, 3-dimethylhex-2-ene

28) , The product B is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) A large increase in the rate Of a reaction for a rise in temperature is due to :

(1) Increase in the number of collisions

(2) The increase in the of activate molecules
(3) The shortening of mean free path
(4) The lowering of activation energy

30) Aluminium phosphate (AlPo4) is 100% ionised in 0.01 molal aqueous solution. Hence, ΔTb/Kb is :

(1) 0.01
(2) 0.015
(3) 0.0175
(4) 0.02

31) Which of the following statements regarding solubility of gas in water is correct?

(1) As temperature increases, solubility of gas also increases.

(2) A more polar gas will have lesser solubility as compared to non-polar gas.
(3) Gases will be more soluble when dissolved at higher pressures.
(4) The dissolution process is always endothermic

32) What is correct for working Galvanic cell?

(1) Anode is negative electrode

(2) Current flows from anode to cathode in outer circuit
(3) Electrons flow from cathode to anode
(4) Ecell = –ve

33) The standard electrode potential (reduction) of Pt / Fe2+, Fe3+ and Pt / Sn4+, Sn2+ are + 0.77 V and
0.15 V respectively at 25°C. The standard EMF of the reaction Sn4+ + 2Fe2+ → Sn2+ + 2Fe3+ is :

(1) –0.62 V
(2) –0.92 V
(3) +0.31 V
(4) +0.85 V

34) If for a reaction tx/y represents time required for x/y th fraction of reactant to react then identify
the correct option for a first order reaction:
Statement-I : t3/4 = t1/2 × 2
Statement-II : t15/16 = t1/2 × 4
Statement-III : t7/8 = t3/4 × 2
Statement-IV : t15/16 = t3/4 × 3

(1) AII statements are correct

(2) Only Statement-I is correct
(3) Statement-III and Statement-IV are incorrect
(4) Statement-Il and Statement-IV are correct

35) Benzene and toluene forms an ideal solution. Vapour pressure of pure benzene is 100 torr while

that of toluene is 50 torr. If mole fraction of benzene is liquid phase is , then calculate the mole
fraction of benzene is vapour phase :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

SECTION-B

1)
Select the correct statement :-

(1) A is 2° alcohol
(2) B is 3° alcohol
(3) C is 1° alcohol
(4) A and C are 3° alcohol

2) In the following reactions,

the major products (A) and (C) are respectively :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

3) Each 9.4 gm of a compound contains 7.2 gm carbon, 0.6 gm hydrogen and rest oxygen. The
empirical formula of the compound is:

(1) C3H3O
(2) C6H3O
(3) C6H6O
(4) C3H6O2

4) Find out Ka for 10–2 M HCN acid, having pOH is 10 :-

–4
(1) Ka = 10
–2
(2) Ka = 10
–5
(3) Ka = 10
(4) None of them

5) What will be the value of resonance energy of N2O if :

ΔHBDE N = N = 400 kJ/mol;
N2O = 100 kJ mol–1
ΔHBDE N = N = 950 kJ/mol;
ΔHBDE N = 0 = 600 kJ mol–1 .
ΔHBDEO = 0 = 500 kJ/mol

(1) 200 kJ / mol

(2) 150 kJ /mol
(3) 100 kJ / mol
(4) 50 kJ / mol

6) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II
(Hybridization) (Orientation in Space)

(A) sp3 (I) Trigonal bipyramidal

(B) dsp2 (II) Octahedral

(C) sp3d (III) Tetrahedral

(D) sp3d2 (IV) Square planar

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-(III), B-(I), C-(IV), D-(II)
(2) A-(II), B-(I), C-(IV), D-(III)
(3) A-(IV), B-(III), C-(I), D-(II)
(4) A-(III), B-(IV), C-(I), D-(II)

7) According to molecular orbital theory, the species among the following that does not exist is

(1)
(2) Be2
(3)
(4)

8) In which of the following arrangements, the sequence is not strictly according to the property
written against it ?

(1) CO2 < SiO2 < SnO2 < PbO2 : increasing oxidising power
(2) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 : increasing basic strength
(3) HF < HCl < HBr < HI : increasing acid strength
(4) B < C < O < N : increasing first ionisation enthalpy.

9) Select correct statement for Cr·6NH3·Cl3 and Cr·5NH3·Cl3

(1) In both complex compounds secondary valency is satisfied by on NH3

(2) In both complex compounds Cl¯ are satisfying only primary valency
(3) In both complex compounds primary valency is satisfied by only Cl¯
(4) In both complex compounds all Cl¯ are ionizable

10) Consider the following statements for diborane

(A) Boron is approximately sp3 hybridized
(B) B–H–B angle is 180°
(C) There are two terminal B–H bonds for each boron atom
(D) There are only 12 bonding electrons available of these statements:

(1) (A), (C) and (D) are correct

(2) (A), (B) and (C) are correct
(3) (B), (C) and (D) are correct
(4) (A), (B) and (D) are correct

11) Match column I with Column II.

Column-I Column-II

(i) Dumas method (a) AgNO3

(ii) Kjeldahl’s method (b) Silica gel

(iii) Carius method (c) Nitrogen gas

(iv) Chromatography (d) Ammonium sulphate

(1) (i)→(d) ; (ii)→(c) ; (iii)→(b) ; (iv)→(a)
(2) (i)→(c) ; (ii)→(d) ; (iii)→(b) ; (iv)→(a)
(3) (i)→(a) ; (ii)→(d) ; (iii)→(b) ; (iv)→(c)
(4) (i)→(c) ; (ii)→(d) ; (iii)→(a) ; (iv)→(b)

12) The correct stability order for the following species is

(1) (II) > (IV) > (I) > (III)

(2) (I) > (II) > (III) > (IV)
(3) (II) > (I) > (IV) > (III)
(4) (I) > (III) > (II) > (IV)

13) Identify the reagents in the following transformation :

(1) Alc. KOH and H2O, HgSO4, H2SO4

+
(2) Alc. KOH and KMnO4/H
(3) NaNH2 and H2O, HgSO4, H2SO4
+
(4) NaNH2 and KMnO4/H

14) Use the data to determine the orders of A and B in the reaction ; A + B → products

Experiment [A], mol L–1 [B], Mol L–1 Rate, mol L–1 s–1

1 0.10 0.10 0.0090

2 0.20 0.10 0.036

3 0.10 0.20 0.018

(1) Rate = k [A] [B]
(2) Rate = k [A]2 [B]
(3) Rate = k [A] [B]2
(4) Rate = k [A]2 [B]2

15) Zn | Zn2+ (C1) || Zn2+ (C2) | Zn. For this cell ΔG is negative if :

(1) C1 = C2
(2) C1 > C2
(3) C2 > C1
(4) none of these

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

1) Match the column I with column II and select the correct option from given below options.

Column I Column II

i Nutritive layer a Middle layer

ii Aeroallergens b Above egg apparatus

iii Integument absent c Parthenium

iv Ploidy of nucellus d Chalaza

v Polar nuclei e Micropyle

f Below egg apparatus

g Tapetum

h Same as placental cell

(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-e, iv-f, v-d
(2) i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-h, v-g
(3) i-g ii-c, iii-e, iv-h, v-f
(4) i-g, ii-c, iii-e, iv-h, v-b

2) Assertion : Plant grow in water always show hydrophily.

Reason : Pollination in angiosperm is heavily depends on water.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

3) Assertion (A) : Morgan in his experiments observed that proportion of parental gene
combinations were much higher than non parental type.
Reason (R) : Physical association of two genes present on same chromosome is linkage and genes
were tightly linked in this experiment.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explaination of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not correct explaination of (A)
(3) (A) is correct (A) is not correct.
(4) (A) is not correct (R) is correct.

4) Statement-1 : In male grasshoppers, 50% sperm have no sex chromosome.

Statement-2 : Human males have one of their sex chromosome much shorter than the other.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

5) Given figure depicts.

(1) Syndrome due to aneuploidy of autosome

(2) Trisomy of 21st chromosome
(3) Individual have 47 chromosomes
(4) All of these

6) Statement-I: The probability of DNA polymorphism would be higher in non-coding DNA

sequence.
Statement-II: Mutation in non-coding sequences may not have any immediate effect in an
individual's reproductive ability.

(1) Statement I & II both are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct.
(4) Statement I & II both are incorrect.

7) Select the incorrect statement :

(1) Guanine is bonded with cytosine with three H-bonds

(2) Two chains of DNA are coiled in a right handed fashion
(3) The plane of one base pair stacks over the other in double helix.
(4) Always a pyrimidine comes opposite to pyrimidine in DNA

8) Assertion : DNase, is the DNA digesting enzyme.

Reason : Transforming substance was not a protein or RNA.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
9)

Match the following & choose the correct option :-

(A) Family (i) Monocotyledonae

(B) Kingdom (ii) Poales

(C) Order (iii) Triticum

(D) Class (iv) Plantae

(E) Genus (v) Poaceae

(1) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv), (E)-(v)
(2) (A)-(v), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i), (E)-(iii)
(3) (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv), (E)-(v)
(4) (A)-(iii), (B)-(v), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii), (E)-(iv)

10) Select the incorrect statement from the following :-

(1) Chrysophytes are found in fresh water as well as in marine environment.

(2) Gonyaulax are red diatoms that make the sea appear red (red tides)
(3) Majority of euglenoids are fresh water organism.
(4) Slime moulds are saprophytic protist.

11)

Choose the correct set which includes the members of same class of fungi.

(1) Ustilago, Trichoderma

(2) Aspergillus, Claviceps, Agaricus
(3) Rhizopus, Mucor
(4) Albugo, Mucor, Penicillium

12) In brown algae asexual spores are :-

(1) Pear-shaped and have two unequal flagella

(2) Pear-shaped and have two unequal cilia
(3) Oval-shaped and have two unequal flagella
(4) Comma-shaped and biflagellate

13) Assertion : Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia are heterosporous.

Reason : Some of the Pteridophytes produce two kinds of spores, macro (large) and micro (small)
spores, are known as heterophyllous.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect
14) One of the following is not the feature of centriole.

(1) Form the basal body of Cilia & flagella.

(2) It consist of hub and spokes made of protein.
(3) Covered by plasma membrane.
(4) It has an organisation like the cart wheel.

15) Match the following :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Elaioplasts (i) Store carbohydrates

(B) Chloroplasts (ii) Store proteins

(C) Amyloplasts (iii) Store chlorophyll

(D) Aleuroplasts (iv) Store oils and fats

(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(3) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii

16) Assertion : Lysosomes are capable of digesting carbohydrate, proteins, lipids and nucleic acid.
Reason : Lysosomes vesicles is very rich in almost all types of hydrolytic enzymes.

(1) Assertion & Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion & Reason are not correct.
(3) Assertion is correct and the Reason is not correct.
(4) Assertion & Reason are correct and Reason is the explanation of Assertion.

17) Statement-I : If the cell has diploid or '2n' number of chromosomes at G1 then after 'S' phase
the number of chromosomes will be double (4n).
Statement-II : During prophase, protein are synthesized in preparation for mitosis.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:-

(1) Both Statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II are correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and statement-II are correct.

18) If a new habitat is just being colonised,..... may contribute more significantly to population
growth than ........... ?

(1) Birth rates, death rate

(2) Immigration, Emigration
(3) Immigration, birth rates
(4) Emigration, death rates

19)

(1) a = Logistic plot, b = Exponential plot c = Carrying capacity

(2) a = Exponential plot, b = Logistic plot, c = Carrying capacity
(3) a = Carrying capacity, b = Exponential plot, c = Logistic plot
(4) a = Carrying capacity, b = Logistic plot, c = Exponential plot

20) Assertion : Under a particular set of selection pressure, organism evolve toward the most
efficient reproductive strategy.
Reason : Some organism breed only once in their life while other breed many times during their
lifetime.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

21) Which of the following is not a favourable factor for increasing the rate of decomposition ?

(1) Oxygen richness of soil.

(2) Detritus rich in lignin
(3) Warm environment
(4) High soil moisture

22) Given pyramid is observed in :-

(1) Pyramid of number without exception

(2) Pyramid of energy without exception
(3) Pyramid of biomass without exception
(4) Both (1) and (3)

23) Assertion : Removal of keystone species from any ecosystem leads to the destruction of entire
ecosystem.
Reason : Keystone species drive major ecosystem functions.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

24) Assertion: Rhizobium fixes atmospheric nitrogen in leguminous plants.

Reason: Rhizobium lives symbiotically in root nodules of legumes.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

25) Match List I with List-II :

List I List II

A Lipase I Peptide bond

B Nuclease II Ester bond

C Protease III Glycosidic bond

D Amylase IV Phosphodiester bond

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

26) Select the type of enzyme involved in the following reaction. S-G + S' → S+ S'-G

(1) Dehydrogenase
(2) Transferase
(3) Hydrolase
(4) Lyase

27) In same grasses leaves are curl inwards during very dry weather. Select the most appropriate
reason from the following:

(1) Closure of stomata

(2) Flaccidity of bulliform cells
(3) Shrinkage of air spaces in spongy mesophyll
(4) Tyloses in vessels

28) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Endarch and exarch are the terms often used for describing the position of secondary
xylem in the plant body.
Statement II: Exarch condition is the most common feature of the root system.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both statement I and statement II are false

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
(4) Both statement I and statement II are true

29)

Members of plants which provide pulses belong to family

(1) Asteraceae
(2) Fabaceae
(3) Poacea
(4) Solanaceae

30)

Region Region Region

of elongation of Meristematic growth of maturation

(1) A D B

(2) B C A

(3) C A D

(4) D B C
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31) Carbon dioxide is essential for photosynthesis, this fact can be proved by using :-

(1) KOH, a bell jar and a candle.

(2) A test tube or a jar, KOH and a leafy plant.
(3) KOH and purple sulphur bacteria.
(4) A bell jar, candle and a mouse.

32) Products of light reaction are :-

(1) ATP, NADPH2

(2) ATP, FADH2
(3) NADH2, FADH2
(4) Glucose, Starch

33) The ability of plants to follow different pathways and produce different structures in response to
environment and phases of life is termed as :-

(1) Elasticity
(2) Growth efficiency
(3) Plasticity
(4) Heterophylly

34)

How many compounds in the list given below have 4 carbon atoms ?

Isocitrate, Succinyl-CoA, PEP, Pyruvic acid, Acetyl-CoA, Succinate, Fumarate, Malate, α-

Ketoglutarate
(1) Six
(2) Five
(3) Four
(4) Three

35) In prokaryotes, how many ATP are produced for utilization in metabolism of cell. If one molecule
of glucose used in anaerobic respiration :-

(1) 02
(2) 08
(3) 36
(4) 38

SECTION-B

1) Among them how many statements are correct.

I. If incompatible pollen land on stigma then pollen tube growth is prevented in style.
II. Emasculation is essential in dioecious plant for desired pollination.
III. Emasculation is essential in monoecious plant for desired pollination.
IV. Parthenocarpic fruit are true fruit and seed less.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

2) In following DNA duplex, how many H-bonds are present ?

5' AGGCTACGT-3'
3' TCCGATGCA-5

(1) 21
(2) 22
(3) 23
(4) 24

3) How many of the following statements are correct ?

(A) Protists reproduce asexually and sexually and may have flagella or cilia.
(B) Slime moulds are saprophytic protists.
(C) The cell wall of dinoflagellates has stiff cellulose plates on outer surface.
(D) Chrysophytes float passively with water currents
(E) The pigments of euglenoids are identical to those present in lower plants.

(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Two

4) Some statements are given below :-

(a) In gymnosperm the male and the female gametophytes do not have an independent free-living
existence
(b) In Cycas foliage leaves are pinnately compound
(c) The stems are branched in Pinus and Cedrus
(d) In Pinus, male cones and female cones are borne on different trees.
Out of them, which statements are correct ?

(1) a, b only
(2) a, b, c only
(3) c, d only
(4) a, b, c, d
5)

(1) A - Cell membrane, B - Nucleus, C - Plastid, D - Centrosome

(2) A - Plasma membrane, B - Lysosome, C - Plastid, D - Centrosome
(3) A - Cell membrane, B - Nucleus, C - Nucleus, D - Lysosome
(4) A - Plasma membrane, B - Non-cytosolic, C - Plastid, D - Microbodies

6) Which of the following statements is not incorrect ?

Mitosis usually results in the production of diploid daughter cells with variable genetic
(1)
complement.
(2) Mitosis or the equational division is usually restricted to the diploid cells only
(3) In some social insects haploid cells also divide by meiosis
(4) Plants can show meiotic divisions in both haploid and diploid cells

7) Global bio-diversity is shown in terms of species in plant groups A and B are expected to be :-

(1) Moss and fungi

(2) Algae and fungi
(3) Angiosperm and fern
(4) Fungi and angiosperm

8) Assertion (A) :- The Amazon forest plays a crucial role in maintaining oxygen levels in the
Earth's atmosphere.
Reason (R) :- Through photosynthesis, the Amazon forest is estimated to produce 20% of total
oxygen.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

9) Assertion: Saccharomyces cerevisiae is commonly known as brewer’s yeast.

Reason: Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used to produce ethanol in alcoholic beverages.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

10) Enzymes that catalyse the removal of groups form substrates by mechanisms other than
hydrolysis leaving double bonds, are known as :

(1) Transferases
(2) Oxidoreductases
(3) Dehydrogenases
(4) Lyases

11) The given diagram represents stomatal apparatus in dicots and monocots. Identify A, B and C.

(1) A - Epidermal cells, B - Subsidiary cells, C - Guard cells

(2) A - Guard cells, B - Subsidiary cells, C - Epidermal cells
(3) A - Guard cells, B - Epidermal cells, C - Subsidiary cells
(4) A - Subsidiary cells, B - Epidermal cells, C - Guard cells

12) Choose the correct matching pair :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

13) Photosynthesis is a:-

(a) Endergonic process
(b) Anabolic process
(c) Physico chemical process

(1) Only a, b
(2) Only c
(3) All a, b, c
(4) Only b

14)
Choose the correct option for A, B, C and D in given diagram :-

(1) A - mature cell, B- differentiation, C-maturation, D-meristematic cell

(2) A - meristematic cell, B-maturation, C-differentiation, D-mature cell
(3) A-meristematic cell, B-differentiation, C-maturation, D-mature cell
(4) A-meristematic cell, B-differentiation, C-maturation, D-meristematic cell

15) Find out the values of x, y and z in the given equation 2(C51H98O6) + xO2 → y CO2 + z H2O +
Energy

(1) x-102, y-145, z-98

(2) x-145, y-102, z-98
(3) x-98, y-102, z-145
(4) x-145, y-98, z-102
 BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A

1) PPLO is other name of :-

(1) BGA
(2) Bacteria
(3) Mycoplasma
(4) Actinomycetes

2) Given below are two statements

Statements-I : Ribosomes are composed of RNA and proteins and are not surrounded within any
membrane.
Statements-II : Svedberg's unit is a indirect measure of density and shape.
This was for reference about changes made in statements. In final question, this should be removed.

(1) Both statements I and II are correct

(2) Both Statements I and II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

3) The given figures represent stage of meiosis – I. identify the stages with key features and select
the correct option :-

(i) Crossing over

(ii) The bivalent chromosome align on the equatorial plate
(iii) The homologous chromosomes separate.

(1) A – i, B – iii, C – ii
(2) A – iii, B – ii, C – i
(3) A – ii, B – i, C – iii
(4) A – i, B – ii, C – iii

4) Choose the wrong statement about counter current mechanism.

Presence of medullary interstitial gradient helps in an easy passage of water from the collecting
(1)
tubule.
(2) Medullary interstitial gradient is mainly caused by NaCl and urea.
(3) Human kidney can produce urine nearly four times concentrated than the initial filtrate formed.
Counter current mechanism helps in maintaining an increasing osmolarity towards the outer
(4)
medullary interstitium.
5) Which of the following belong to phylum arthropoda?

(1) Bombyx and Apis

(2) Laccifer and Anopheles
(3) Locusta and Limulus
(4) All of the above

6) Match the characteristic feature/terms given in column I with the phylum to which they belongs
given in column II and choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-II
(Characteristic feature/term) (Phylum)

A Choanocytes I Platyhelminthes

B Cnidoblasts II Annelida

C Flame cells III Porifera

D Nephridia IV Coelenterata
(1) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(2) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I
(3) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II
(4) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II

7) Which of the following is not a chordate character?

(1) Presence of paired pharyngeal gill slits

(2) Ventral heart
(3) Solid and ventral nerve cord
(4) Presence of post-anal tail

8) Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding simple cuboidal epithelium ?

(1) It is an epithelial tissue.

(2) It is composed of a single layer of cube-like cells.
(3) They are found in the walls of blood vessels and air sacs of lungs.
(4) Secretion and absorption are the main functions of these tissue.

9) Statement I – Copulatory pads are absent in female frogs.

Statement II – In frogs, during aestivation and hibernation gaseous exchange takes place through
the lungs.

(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement II is correct but statement I is incorrect.
(3) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
(4) Both statement I and II are correct.

10) Which statement regarding anal cerci and anal style in cockroach is correct?
(1) Anal cerci are absent but anal styles are present in male.
(2) Both anal cerci and anal styles are present in females.
(3) Both anal cerci and anal styles are absent in females.
(4) Anal styles are absent and anal cerci are present in female.

11) Which protein is required for coagulation?

(1) Fibrinogen
(2) Globulin
(3) Albumin
(4) All of these

12) Which of the following statements is/are correct for blood group?
(i) Blood group O is universal donor.
(ii) Blood group AB is universal acceptor.
(iii) Blood group A contains antigen B and anti-A antibodies.
(iv) Blood group B contains antigen B and anti-A antibodies.

(1) Only (i) and (ii)

(2) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
(4) Only (i), (iii) and (iv)

13) A. Neurotransmitters are involved in the transmission of impulse across electrical synapse.
B. Pre and post synaptic neurons are in very close proximity in the electrical synapse.
C. Chemical synapse are very rare in our system.
How many of the above statements are false?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) All are correct

14) Which of the following event does not take place during the resting state of the neural
membrane ?
A. Current flow on the outer surface from B to A.
B. Active transport of ions by sodium potassium pump.
C. Axonal membrane is more permeable to sodium ions.
D. High concentration of Na+ outside the axoplasm as compared to the inside.

(1) Only B
(2) C and D only
(3) A, C and D
(4) A and C only

15) Receptors for protein hormones are found -

(1) Inside nucleus
(2) Inside cytoplasm
(3) On surface of ER
(4) On cell surface

16) In hormone action, if receptor molecules are removed from target organ, the target organ will.

(1) Continue to respond to hormone.

(2) Not respond to hormone.
(3) Continue to respond but requires higher concentration.
(4) Continue to respond but in the opposite way.

17) Which of the following are responsible for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin?

+
(1) High CO2, high H , high temp
+
(2) High O2, high H , low temp
+
(3) Low CO2, low H , high temp
+
(4) High O2, low H , low temp

18) _____________ protects the spinal cord, supports the head and serves as a point of attachment for
the ribs and musculature of the back.

(1) Sternum
(2) Vertebral column
(3) Pectoral girdle
(4) Pelvic girdle

19) Which of the following is not correct with respect to synovial joints.

(1) Presence of fluid filled cavity between the articulating surfaces.

(2) The joint between adjacent vertebrae in the vertebral column is of this pattern.
(3) They allow considerable movement.
(4) Saddle joint is an example of synovial joint.

20)

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason
R:
Assertion A : Breast-feeding during initial period of infant growth is recommended by doctors for
bringing a healthy baby.
Reason R : Colostrum contains several antibodies absolutely essential to develop resistance for the
new born baby.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is not correct.
(4) A is not correct but R is correct.

21) Arrange the following parts in human Mammary gland, traversing the route of milk ejection.
A. Mammary duct B. Lactiferous duct
C. Mammary alveolus D. Ampulla
E. Mammary tubule
Choose the correct answer form the options given below :

(1) D → C → E → A → B
(2) C → E → B → A → D
(3) C → E → A → D → B
(4) A → C → E → D → B

22) Match List-I with List-II relating to human female external genitalia :

List-I List-II
(Structures) (Features)

A fleshy fold of tissue surrounding the

A Mons pubis I
vaginal opening.

Fatty cushion of cells covered by skin and

B Clitoris II
hair.

Tiny finger – like structure above

C Hymen III
labia minora.

A thin membrane-like structure covering

D Labia majora IV
vaginal opening.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D -I
(3) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

23) Identify the correct option (A), (B), (C), (D) with respect to spermatogenesis.
(1) FSH, Leydig cells, Sertoli cells, spermiogenesis.
(2) ICSH, Interstitial cells, Leydig cells, spermiogenesis.
(3) FSH, Sertoli cells, Leydig cells, spermatogenesis.
(4) ICSH, Leydig cells, Sertoli cells, spermatogenesis.

24) Match List-I with List-II relating to examples of various kind of IUDs and barrier :

List-I List-II

A Copper releasing IUD I Vaults

B None-medicated IUD II Multiload 375

C Contraceptive barrier III LNG-20

D Hormone releasing IUD IV Lippes loop

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D -II
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

25) Match List I with List II :

List I List II

A Cocaine I Effective sedative in surgery

B Heroin II Cannabis sativa

C Morphine III Erythroxylum

D Marijuana IV Papaver somniferum

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

26) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

A Malignant tumors I Destroy tumors

B MALT II AIDS

C NACO III Metastasis

D α-Interferons IV Lymphoid tissue

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

27) Many diseases can be diagnosed by observing the symptoms in the patient. Which group of
symptoms are indicative of pneumonia?

(1) Difficulty in respiration, fever, chills, cough, headache.

(2) Constipation, abdominal pain, cramps, blood clots.
(3) Nasal congestion and discharge, cough, sore throat, headache.
(4) High fever, weakness, stomach pain, loss of appetite and constipation.

28) Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS causative agent HIV?

(1) HIV is enveloped virus endorsing the RNA genome RNA and reverse transcriptase.
(2) HIV is unenveloped retrovirus.
(3) HIV does not escape but attacks the acquired immune response.
HIV is enveloped virus containing one molecule of single-stranded DNA and reverse
(4)
transcriptase.

29) Given below are some stages of human evolution. Arrange them in correct sequence (Past to
Recent)
A. Homo habilis B. Homo sapiens
C. Homo neanderthalensis D. Homo erectus
Choose the correct sequence of human evolution from the options given below :

(1) D-A-C-B
(2) B-A-D-C
(3) C-B-D-A
(4) A-D-C-B

30) According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution is -

(1) Multistep mutations

(2) Phenotypic variations
(3) Saltation
(4) Minor Mutations

31) What is the fate of a piece of DNA carrying only gene of interest which is transferred into an
alien organism?
A. The piece of DNA would be able to multiply itself independently in the progeny cells of the
organism.
B. It may get integrated into the genome of the recipient.
C. It may multiply and be inherited along with the host DNA.
D. The alien piece of DNA is not an integral part of chromosome.
E. It shows ability to replicate.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A and B only

(2) D and E only
(3) B and C only
(4) A and E only

32) Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Bt toxins are insect group specific and coded by a gene cry IAc.
Statement II : Bt toxin exists as inactive protoxin in B. thuringiensis. However, after ingestion by
the insect the inactive protoxin gets converted into active form due to acidic pH of the insect gut.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

33) Select the restriction endonuclease enzymes whose restriction sites are present for the
tetracycline resistance (tetR) gene in the pBR322 cloning vector.

(1) Bam HI and Sal I

(2) Sal I and Pst I
(3) Pst I and Pvu I
(4) Pvu I and Bam HI

34) Match List I with List II :

List I List II

A α-1 antitrypsin I Cotton bollworm

B Cry IAb II ADA deficiency

C Cry IAc III Emphysema

D Enzyme replacement therapy IV Corn borer

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

35) Following are the steps involved in action of toxin in Bt. Cotton.
A. The inactive toxin converted into active form due to alkaline pH of gut of insect.
B. Bacillus thuringiensis produce crystals with toxic insecticidal proteins.
C. The alkaline pH solubilises the crystals.
D. The activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut cells, creates pores and causes death of the
insect.
E. The toxin proteins exist as inactive protoxins in bacteria.

(1) E → C → B → A → D
(2) B → C → A → E → D
(3) A → E → B → D → C
(4) B → E → C → A → D

SECTION-B

1)

Read the following statements and identify the correct option given :-
(i) The shape of the cells may vary with the function they perform
(ii) Human RBC is about 7.0 μm in diameter
(iii) Cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities

(iv) Various chemical reactions occur in cytoplasm to keep the cell in the living state
(1) All are correct
(2) Only (i) and (ii) are correct
(3) Only (iv) is correct
(4) All are wrong

2) (A) (B)

(C) (D)
Identify A, B, C and D stages of cell divisions shown in above given diagrams :

A B C D

Transition to
(1) Metaphase Metaphase-I Telophase
Metaphase

(2) Anaphase Metaphase Anaphase-I Telophase

Transition to
(3) Metaphase Anaphase-I Telophase
Metaphase

Transition to
(4) Metaphase-I Anaphase-I Telophase
Metaphase
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) Which of the following structures make up the Malpighian body?

(a) PCT
(b) Glomerulus
(c) Henle’s loop
(d) Bowman’s capsule

(1) a, c
(2) a, b
(3) b, d
(4) c, d

4) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for class amphibia ?

(i) Body is divisible into head and trunk.
(ii) Respiration is through gills only.
(iii) The heart is two chambered i.e. one auricle and one ventricle.
(iv) Fertilization is internal.

(1) Only (i)

(2) Only (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) All of these

5) Which of the following statements are incorrect with respect to Frog ?

(1) Sensory papillae are sensitive to touch.

(2) The midbrain is characterised by two pair of optic lobes.
(3) The cloaca is used to pass faecal matter, urine and sperms to the exterior.
(4) Males have copulatory pads on the first digit of the forelimbs.

6) Match the following column and select the most appropriate option:-

Column I Column II

a Erythrocyte i Most abundant white blood cell

b Eosinophils ii Releases histamine granules

c Lymphocyte iii Associated with allergic reactions

d Neutrophil iv Blood cell that contains haemoglobin

e Basophil v Antibody producing cells

(1) a – iv; b – iii; c – v; d – i; e – ii
(2) a – i; b – ii, c – iii; d – iv; e – v
(3) a – ii; b – iii; c – i; d – v; e – iv
(4) a – iv; b – i; c – ii; d – iii; e – v

7) Match the following column and select the correct option:-

Name of cells Substance produced Function

A Insulin C

B Glucagon D
(1) A - Alpha cells, B - Hyperglycemia, C - Beta cells, D - Hypoglycemia
(2) A - Beta cells, B - Alpha cells, C – Hypoglycemia, D - Hyperglycemia
(3) A - Alpha cells, B - Hypoglycemia , C - Beta cells, D - Hyperglycemia
(4) A - Beta cells, B - Alpha cells, C - Hyperglycemia,D – Hypoglycemia

8) Which of the following is incorrect among the following:

(1) During swallowing glottis can be covered by a thin cartilaginous flap called epiglottis.
(2) Trachea divide at the level of mid- thoracic cavity into right and left primary bronchi.
Primary, secondary, tertiary bronchi and initial bronchioles are supported by incomplete
(3)
cartilaginous rings.
Each terminal bronchi give rise to number of very thin irregular walled and vascularized bag
(4)
like structures.

9) Which of the following is incorrectly matched.

Column I Column II

(1) Muscular Dystrophy Genetic disorder

(2) Tetany Due to high Ca2+ levels in body fluid

(3) Isotropic bands Actin filament

(4) Sarcoplasmic reticulum Storehouse of Ca2+ ions

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A: FSH acts upon ovarian follicles in female and Leydig cells in male.
Reason R: Growing ovarian follicles secrete estrogen in female while interstitial cells secrete
androgen in male human being.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

11) Following is the list of STDs. Select the diseases which are not completely curable.
A. Genital warts B. Genital herpes
C. Syphilis D. Hepatitis-B
E. Trichomoniasis
Choose the correct answer form the options given below :

(1) A and D only

(2) B and D only
(3) A and C only
(4) D and E only

12) What is the particular type of drug that is obtained from the plant whose one flowering branch is
shown below?

(1) Hallucinogen
(2) Depressant
(3) Stimulant
(4) Pain-killer

13) Which evolutionary phenomenon is depicted by the sketch given figure ?

(1) Artificial selection

(2) Genetic drift
(3) Convergent evolution
(4) Adaptive radiation

14) Identify the incorrect statement related to gel electrophoresis.

(1) Separated DNA fragments can be directly seen under UV radiation.
(2) Separated DNA can be extracted from gel piece.
(3) Fragment of DNA moves toward anode.
(4) Sieving effect of agarose gel helps in separation of DNA fragments.

15) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : The Indian Government, has set up GEAC, which will make decisions regarding the
validity of GM research.
Statement II : Biopiracy is the term used to refer to the use of bio-resources by native people.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 3 3 3 2 1 1 2 4 4 4 2 1 1 3 2 4 1 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 2 3 4 3 1 3 3 2 2 4 1 4 4 4 2

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 2 2 3 3 3 2 2 1 3 3 3 3 2 2 2

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 4 2 3 2 4 2 2 3 1 4 1 1 3 4 3 3 2 3 1 2
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 3 3 1 2 3 1 2 4 3 1 1 3 2

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 3 2 3 4 3 4 2 2 3 1 4 4 3 2 3

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 3 4 1 4 4 1 4 2 2 2 3 1 3 3 4 4 1 3 2 2
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 2 4 1 3 2 2 3 2 2 2 1 3 3 1

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 3 2 2 1 2 4 4 1 4 1 1 3 3 2

BIOLOGY-II
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 3 4 4 4 4 3 3 1 4 1 3 2 4 4 2 4 2 2 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 3 1 1 4 4 1 1 1 4 4 3 3 1 3 4

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 1 1 3 1 2 1 2 4 2 4 2 1 4 1 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2) by magnetic property

฀∝

3) E = Bℓν

4) vmax = Aω ⇒ 100 = 100 × ω ⇒ ω = 1

v2 = ω2 (A2 – x2)
(50)2 = ω2A2 – ω2x2 ⇒ (50)2 = (100)2 – 1 × x2
x2 = 104 – 25 × 102 = 102 × 75 ⇒ x = cm

5)

kA = , kB = 3k ⇒

6) ⇒f= = 500 Hz

7)

8) ; ; t =?
r+a+t=1

; Qt = 100 J

9) 80 × 1 × 60 = x × 80
x = 60 gm.

10)

11) m1 = 2m2 ⇒

r1 = 4r2 ⇒
and

12)

13)

conductors surface has

E.P.S. [Equipotential surface]

14) For a uniform semi-circular wire, the center of mass lies at:

15)
Work done by gravity from initial to final position is,

According to work energy theorem

rad/sec
∴ correct answer is (1).

16)

17) Because atom is hollow and whole mass of atom is concentrated in a small centre called
nucleus.

18)
10 = 0.8 × 0.2 × x

19) Shear Stress =

Longitudinal stress =

Ratio =

20) Conceptual

21)

22) Step 1 : Analyze the system

Acceleration due to gravity
g = 10 m/s2
Masses : m1 = 2 kg, m2 = 1 kg
Net force on the system :
F = (m1 – m2)g = (2 – 1) ⋅ 10 = 10N
Step 2 : Calculate acceleration of the system
The total mass of the system :
mtotal = m1 + m2 = 2 + 1 = 3 kg
Acceleration a :

Step 3 : Centre of mass acceleration

The centre of mass acceleration aCM is given by :

m/s2 (upwards)

m/s2 (downwards)

m/s2
Using the kinetic equation:

,
where t = 2s :

Thus, the distance traversed by the centre of mass is :

23)
= 100 – 110 = -10J (Decrease in K.E.)
Block is decelerated.

velocity is downward and a is upward.

24) u = 0 aT = c

In 10 sec,

For
We can apply galileo's odd. number law
S2 = 3S1
∴ t1 = t2 = 10 sec

25) D1 and D3 are F.B. adn D2, D4 are R.B.

I=

26)

Theory based

27)

For vernier callipers

1MSD = x unit
y VSD = (y – 2) MSD

Least count = 1MSD

28)

We know that in a absence of air friction, time taken in upward journey is same as time taken
in downward journey.

Time taken to attain maximum height, t = = 2 second

(Time of flight) T = 2t = 2 × 2s
T = 4s

H = 19.6 m.

29)
30) CAB =

Q = Ceq E = 20 µC.

31) For no deflection in galvanometer, potential across it becomes zero.

Therefore, P = 4/100 = 0.04 W.

32) Radius of wire

Cross sectional area A = πr2 = 10–4 m2

= 104 A/m2.

33)

0
B =

Br.m.s. =
≈ 11.3 × 10–8 T

34) At resonance,
Voltage across L = Voltage across C
∴ Reading in V2 = Reading in V3.

35)

Because effective resistance xL (inductive reactance) will increase, that’s why current will
decrease permanently so brightness will decrease permanently

36)

As P and (dI/dt) are same for both the coils,

37) Force on the element AC of the wire is

It is directed into the page.

∴ Statement 1 is true.
Force on the element AB of the wire is

It is directed out of the page.

∴ Statement 2 is not true.
Total force on the current carrying loop in a uniform magnetic field is zero.
∴ Total force on the loop ABCA is zero.
Statement 3 is true.

38) According to graph,

T = 1 sec
ω = 2π/T = 2π rad/sec
and In SHM, vmax = ωA

39)

40)
41)
By using work energy theorem
Wg = ΔKE

(m1 – m2)gh = (m1 + m2)V2 + Iω2

(m1 – m2)gh = (m1 + m2)(ωR)2 + Iω2

(m1 – m2)gh = [(m1 + m2)R2 + I]

42) De Broglie wavelength of a particle,

Where p is the momentum of the particle and h is the planck’s constant.

Kinetic energy of the particle,

Where m is the mass of the particle

Since mass of the particle remains constant

43)

44) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect

45) Tension at the midpoint

Let the rope be uniform, so the tension at its midpoint equals the tension due to half its mass
plus the 3 kg block.
Half the rops's mass :
mrope, half = = 1 kg.
Total mass below the midpoint :
mbelow = 1 + 3 = 4 kg.

48 N.

46) Least count =

∴ Statement I is false.
Statement II is true because smaller pitch means, smaller least count.
∴ Greater accuracy.

47)
From Galileo's law of odd numbers
x + 3x + 5x = 18m
x = 2m
Distance of second drop from roof = 4x = 4 × 2m = 8 m
Distance of third drop from roof = x = 2 m.

48) =
Decrease in energy ΔE = E2 – E1

49) We know that

Resistance R = R0(1 + αΔT)

Taking temperature 0°C and 100°C at a time

 …(i)

Taking temperature 0°C and t°C we get

[using (i)]

∴ = = 475°C
.

50)

f = 3 × 1010 Hz B0 = 10–6T
E0 = cB0 = 3 × 108 × 10–6 = 300 V/m

E2 = E0sin (kx – ωt)

CHEMISTRY

51)

52) P → b ; Q → a ; R → c

53) (P) → Optically inactive.

(Q) → No POS, No COS, so optically active.
(R) → Mirror images are super imposable, so meso compound.
54)

55)

56)

57)

58)

59) KP = KC (RT)Δn ; KP > KC ⇒ Δng > 1

g

60)

⇒
61) T = = 400 K

62)

63)

Order of bond angle is

ClF3 < PF3 < BF3

64)
Molecule is bent ‘V’ shaped and oxidation state of oxygen is (+2)

65)

First I.E.
F > N > O > C > Be > B > Li
Generally, along a period ionisation energy increasing. In case of N and Be ionisation energy
increases due to stable electronic configuration.

66)

On moving from top to bottom metallic character increases while on moving from left to right
metallic decreases. Hence, correct order is:
K > Ca > Be

67)

Correct order of electronegativity values of the elements is

Si > Al ; S > P ; Se > Te ; Ge > Ga

68) [Fe+1(H2O)5(NO)]2+ ion.

69) Fe2+ with H2O forms high spin complex hence 4 unpaired electron. so, paramagnetic. Fe2+
with CN¯ forms low spin complex hence, no unpaired electron hence, diamagnetic.

70) AlCl3 + 3H2O → Al(OH)3 + 3HCl

71) Lanthanoid contraction leads decrease in to both atomic and ionic radii.

72)

73) Sc exhibits only + 3 oxidation state, hence its oxide is Sc2O3.

74) 2, 3-Dimethylbutane as shown two 3° carbon atoms.

76) has three lone pairs on oxygen atom, therefore it has the maximum ability to push
electrons into the single bond attached to it.
Due to resonance – vely charged oxygen atom has less ability to push electrons into the single
bond attached to it.

Due to the weak +Ι-effect of the three R groups, this has the least ability to push electrons into
the single bond attached to it.

Thus, option (2) is correct.

77)

78) NO2 group is m-directing.

80) i = 2,

81)

Gases will be more soluble when dissolved at higher pressures.

82)

Anode is negative electrode

83) = +0.15 – 0.77 = –0.62 V

84)

Statement-III and Statement-IV are incorrect

85)

86)
Option-(3) → C is 1° alcohol (True)
 87)

88)

89)

pOH = 10
pH = 14 – pOH = 4
[H+] = 10–4M =
[H+] =

10–4 =
Ka = 10–6

90)

DHf (theo) = 950 + × 500 – 400 – 600 = 200

R.E. 200 – 100 = 100 kJ/mol

91)

According to VSEPR theory.

92)

Species Bond order

0.5
Be2 0
0.5
 1

Be2 does not exist due to zero bond order.

93) Correct order of basic strength for group is hydride should be NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3,
it is because as the size of central atom increases electron density on the central atom
decreases.

94) Cr·6NH3·Cl3 → [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3

Secondary valency '6' satisfied by only NH3, all Cl¯ satisfy only primary valency.
Cr·5NH3·Cl3 → [Cr(NH3)5Cl] Cl2
Secondary valency '6' satisfied by five NH3 and one Cl¯ while all three Cl¯ satisfy primary
valency.

95)

97) Carbocation (I) is stabilized by +R-effect of O as well as +Ι-effect of two CH3 groups ;
carbocation (II) is stabilized by +Ι-effect of CH3 and CH2CH(CH3)2 groups ; carbocation (III) is
stabilized by +R-effect of O and +Ι-effect of one CH3 group while carbocation (IV) is stabilized
by +Ι-effect of CH2CHCH(CH3)2 group. Thus, decreasing order of stability of these carbocations
is : I > III > II > IV.

98)
Although alc. KOH can also bring about first reaction but NaNH2 gives better yields.

99)

Rate = k [A]2 [B]

100) Ecell = when C1 < C2.

BIOLOGY-I

101) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 4

102) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 13

103) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 83

104) NCERT Pg. # 86

105)

XIIth New NCERT, Pg 76

106) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 106

107) NCERT, Pg # 81(E), 91(H)

108) NCERT Pg. # 101

112) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 33

114) NCERT XI Pg. # 99, 100

115)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 135

116)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 134

117)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 121

124) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 158

126)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 117

127) Ncert page 76.

130) NCERT Pg. No. 67

 131)

NCERT-XI Eng Pg. # 207 (1st para)

132)

NCERT XI Pg. # 211

133)

NCERT XI Page # 173

137) NCERT XI Pg. # 151,152

138)

NCERT XI Pg. # 20,21, Para-2.2, 2.2.1,2.3.4

Four (A, B, D, E)

140)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 93-99

141) New NCERT pg no. 125

Section 10.3

144) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 152

146) Ncert page 72.

148)

NCERT Pg. No. 133

149) NCERT XI Page # 173 Fig. 13.8

BIOLOGY-II

151) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 89-90

152) NCERT Pg. No. # 98

Key word – by – within & size → shape
153)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 126-127

154)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 210-211

155) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 44

156) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 40, 41, 42, 43

157) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 46

158) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 102

159) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 116, 117

160) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 102

161) NCERT-XI Pg. # 194

162) NCERT-XI Pg. # 195

163)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 234

164) NCERT-XI Pg. # 232, 233

165) NCERT-XI Pg. # 247

166) NCERT-XI Pg. # 247

167) NCERT-XI Pg. # 189

168) NCERT-XI Pg. # 225

169) NCERT-XI Pg. # 227

171)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 30

172)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 30

173)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 131

174)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 44

175)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 141-143

176)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 138, 140, 141, 142

177)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 131

178)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 138-140

179)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 124-125

180)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 119

181)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 164

182)
NCERT-XII, Pg. # 179

183)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 169

184)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 179, 182, 184

185)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 179

186)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 89-90

187) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 123-124

188) NCERT, Pg # 207

189) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 48

190) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 119

191) NCERT-XI Pg. # 194

192) NCERT-XI Pg. # 243

193) NCERT-XI Pg. # 184

194) NCERT-XI Pg. # 219, 227

195)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 31, 34, 35

196)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 47
197)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 143

198)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 117

199)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 168

200)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 184-185