Oracle Financial Consolidation and Close 2023 Implementation Professional

1. You want to use Audit Information feature to view tasks performed by users. By default, which
three user activities are logged by the system?
a. Rules
b. Security
c. Properties
d. Data
Ans: a,b,d
2. You want to use the Navigation Flow Designer to customize the FCC interface. Which
customization can you perform on the Navigation Flows page?
a. Select a color scheme.
b. Select a data form to display at start up based on the user group.
c. Set a default POV by user group.
d. Add or hide cards.
Ans: d
3. Which two are selections in the Workflow Option list on Journals tab when creating an
Enterprise Journal template?
a. Prepare -- > Approve
b. Prepare -- > Lock
c. Prepare
d. Prepare -- > Post
e. No Workflow
Ans: a, c, d – All three are correct.
4. You want to use the EPM Automate utility to automate frequently used day-by-day tasks from
the command line. Which statement about EPM Automate is FALSE?
a. You can run business rules using EPM Automate.
b. Files are exported to the server’s Outbox folder by default.
c. You use your EPM Cloud Identity Domain credentials to log in EPM Automate.
d. You must be a Service Administrator to execute tasks using EPM Automate.
Ans. D
5. In a data integration, you need to records with the label AccRec in the Account field of the
source file to the member name Short Term Rec in the target.

Which map type would you use on the Map Members tab?
a. Is.Like
b. In
c. Explicit
d. Between
Ans: c
6. After you define a location for a data integration, you want to set the location attributes. Which
three are location attributes that you can define under Location Attributes on the General tab?
a. Consolidation Value, which specifies the Consolidation member to which to load data
b. Functional Currency, which specifies the currency member to which to load data
 c. Logic Rules Entity Group, which contains rules defined in Data Management for data
Validation that you can apply to the integration
d. Parent Location, which allows you to inherit member mappings from that location
Ans: b,c,d
7. You routinely create a backup snapshot file application artifacts and data as part of system
maintenance. Which navigation path would you use to create a snapshot file to back up a form?
a. From the Home page, select Tools, and then Clone Snapshot.
b. Open the form, select Actions, and then Export.
c. From the home page, select Tools, and then Migration.
d. From the Navigator menu, select Forms.
Ans: c
8. The Intercompany Entities Aggregation option for your business process is set to Ignore.

What is the result of this?

a. Elimination data for intercompany entities is not written to the plug account.
b. Data for intercompany entities is not aggregated to the Intercompany Top member.
c. Data for intercompany entities is not eliminated during consolidation.
d. Data for intercompany entities is not aggregated to the Intercompany entities member.
Ans: b
9. When you create an application, the Movement dimension is created by default with seeded
members and system members are added based on the optional features that you enable.
Which two statements are true about Cash Flow in the Movement dimension?
a. When you add a level 0 member to FCCS_Mvmts_Subtotal, it is automatically added as a
shared member to the FCCS_CashFlow hierarchy.
b. The FCCS_Mvmts_AccountsPayable member is a child of
FCCS_CashFlow_AccountsPayable in the FCCS_CashFlow hierarchy.
c. You can add user-defined level 0 movement members to the FCCS_CashFlow hierarchy.
d. The seeded level 0 members under FCCS_Mvmts_subtotal are shared members in the
FCCS_CashFlow Hierarchy.
Ans: b and d
10. You want to use Financial Reporting Web Studio to design reports. Which two are insertable
report objects when designing a report in Financial Reporting Web Studio?
a. Footer
b. Grid
c. Header
d. Chart
Ans: b,d
11. Financial Consolidation and Close provides currency translation for a multi-currency application.
The default translation process applies the Periodic translation method to Flow accounts and
Year-to-Date method to Balance accounts. Which two rate account options are available when
configuring default translation method for Flow and balance accounts?
a. FX Rates – None
b. FX Rates – Historical
c. FX Rates – Opening
 d. FX Rates – Average
e. FX Rates – Ending
Ans: d and e
12. You can view the calculation status to determine whether data needs to be translated or
consolidated.

Which two calculation statuses would require a user to run consolidation?

a. Not Started
b. Approved
c. Impacted
d. System Change
e. OK
Ans: c,d
13. You are assigned to a role that allows you to run a consolidation. You also have Write access to
the parent entity to be consolidated. Which statement is FALSE about running consolidations?
a. Running consolidation using the Force Consolidate option consolidates entities with any
calculation status other than OK or NO DATA.
b. When you consolidate an entity for a period, prior periods with Impacted calculation
status are also consolidated.
c. When you run consolidation for a child with the Impacted calculation status, the parent
entity is also re-consolidated.
d. When you consolidate a parent, children with the Impacted status are also consolidated.
Ans: c
14. Which statement about Opening Balance Override rules is true?
a. You can select which entities to include in the rule scope.
b. They are available only if Intercompany Data with Tracking is Enabled for the Business
Process.
c. Opening Balance Override rules execute for the period in the year only.
d. You can select which accounts to include in the rule scope.
Ans C
15. When cloning a Financial Consolidation and Close environment, which two statements describe
what happens when there is a mismatch between Essbase versions in the source and target
environments?
a. If the source environment has a hybrid version of Essbase and the target environment
has a non-hybrid version, the target environment is updated to hybrid Essbase.
b. If the source environment has a hybrid version of Essbase and target environment has a
non-hybrid version, the clone process fails.
c. If the source environment has an Essbase version higher than target environment
version, the clone process fails.
d. If the source environment has an Essbase version higher than the target environment
version, the Essbase version on the target is upgraded to match the version on the
source.
Ans: a and d
16. As an administrator you can set up approval process to transfer the ownership of data, make
such that review control is in place, and ensure that data privacy is maintained. Approval units
are part of the approval process and represent blocks of data. Which four dimensions constitute
an approval unit?
a. Year
b. Data Source
c. Period
d. Entity
e. Account
f. Scenario
Ans: a,c,d,f
17. When configuring a new application, you can set currency options on the Details page. Which
two statements are about configuring currencies in the Setup Wizard when creating a new
application?
a. You can select translation methods for Flow and Balance accounts.
b. You can select the main currency.
c. If you enable the multi-currency option, then a currency dimension will be created.
d. You can change or enable currency options after you create an application.
Ans: b and c True
18. When configuring the Financial Consolidation and Close business process, you can select the
applicable ratio calculations that you want to include. Which four sample ratios can be added
during business process creation?
a. Earning per Share
b. Debt Ratio
c. Gross Margin
d. Contribution Margin
e. Inventory Ratios
f. Days Sales in Receivables
Ans: b, f, e, c
19. The close cycle covers seven days and consists of three days of pre-close preparation tasks, one
day to close the books, and then three days of reviewing, analyzing, and reporting.

Which day range should you define to configure a task Manager task template to monitor all
seven days?
a. Day - 3 to Day 3
b. Day - 3 to Day 4
c. Day 1 to day 7
d. Day -2 to Day 4
Ans: a
20. You can set up a schedule to define a chronologically ordered set of tasks for a business process.
Which statement is FALSE about Task Manager schedules?
a. You can still add to a schedule that has been closed.
b. You can reopen a schedule that has been locked.
c. To start all the tasks in a schedule, you must change the status from to Open.
 d. Users can still complete tasks in a schedule that has been closed.
Ans: a
21. All Movement dimension base members are translated at the selected translation settings
except for the Opening Balance Adjustment member. Which exchange rate is used to translate
data for the Opening Balance Adjustment member for nonhistorical accounts?
a. Current period Ending rate
b. Prior period Ending rate
c. Current period Opening rate
d. current period Average rate

Ans: b

22. you can migrate an existing application to one with Period and Movement dimension s as the
dense dimensions. After you the migration utility, which is true for members in the Movement
dimension?
a. The data storage option for parent members must be set to Never Share.
b. The data storage option for parent members must be set to Dynamic Calc.
c. The data storage option for parent members must be set to Store.
d. The Consolidation Operator for Movement members must be set to Ignore.

Ans: b

23. When you create an approval unit hierarchy, the system includes a default FCCS_DefaultGroup.
Which two statements are true about the FCCS_DefaultGroup approval group?
a. It always the submission phase in the approval unit hierarchy.
b. It is always the last submission phase in the approval unit hierarchy.
c. It includes all accounts not included in any other approval group.
d. You can delete it if you are defining your own approval groups.
Ans: b, c
24. Security is enabled for the Account dimension, but you have not assigned member access rights
to any users or groups.

What will be user’s default access to members in the Account Dimension?

a. Comment
b. Read
c. Write
d. None
And: d
25. A change has occurred that may affect the data for specified dimensions. For example, a new
rules file or metadata file has been loaded, or the currency rate has changed. Which calculation
status will be displayed?
a. OK
b. Needs Translation
c. Impacted
d. System change
 Ans: d
26. You need to write a rule in Calculation manager using Essbase script that executes on translated
values, but runs before the system-defined CTA and foreign exchange calculations.

To which Calculation manager insertion rule should you add the Essbase script?
a. FCCS_40_Final Calculations_Translated
b. FCCS_20_After Openeing Balance Carry Forward_LocalCurrency
c. FCCS_25_Before FX_Calc_Translated
d. FCCS_30_After opening Balance Carry Forward _Translated
Ans: c
27. You need a report that displays all adjustments to account balances of child entities for a parent,
including journal adjustments, intercompany eliminations, and adjustments from consolidation
rules.

Which type of report can you run to accomplish this?

a. Financial
b. Consolidation
c. Journal
d. Intercompany
Ans b
28. You want to create a journal template to post adjustments that have common information, such
as entities or accounts. Which statement is about journals created from recurring templates?
a. The initial status of journals created from recurring templates is Posted.
b. The line items in journals created from recurring templates are read-only.
c. The initial status of journals created from recurring templates is Approved.
d. Journals for recurring templates are created automatically when you open a period for
journals.
Ans: c and d both are applicable
29. You want to enter rates from any source currency to any destination currency. To specify
exchange rates, you must set up multiple currencies when creating an application. Which two
rate accounts are available in the seeded exchange rate forms?
a. Opening Rate
b. Average Rate
c. Local Rate
d. Ending Rate
Ans: b and d
30. You need to define form where users should select an entity from a list comprising USA, Canada,
and South America, But no other entities.

Where on the form do you place the Entity dimension?

a. The Point of View
b. Columns
c. The Page Axis
 d. Rows
Ans: c
31. You can use Groovy script to add custom rules to your application, either to the consolidation
process or as on-demand rules. Which statement about Groovy rules is FALSE?
a. You can create Groovy rules in Calculation Manager.
b. You can include both Groovy rules and calc-script rules in the same ruleset.
c. You can schedule Groovy rules to run in the Job scheduler.
d. You cannot run EPM Automate commands from Groovy rules.
Ans: d
32. Before you create a data integration, you must perform prerequisite tasks, including mapping
periods. To which Financial Consolidation and Close Dimensions do you map Data management
periods?
a. Period
b. Period, Year, and View
c. Period and Year
d. View
Ans: c
33. Ownership Management consists of managing global consolidation settings and the application
of those consolidation settings to each entity hierarchy on a scenario-by-scenario, year-by-year
and period-by-period basis. Which three can be manually edited on the Manage Ownership page
in a Financial Consolidation and Close business process with Ownership Management enabled?
a. Minority Interest Percentage
b. Ownership Percentage
c. Control
d. Consolidation Method
e. Consolidation Percentage
Ans: b, c and d
34. You want to set up valid intersections to define rules, which act as filters when users enter data
or select runtime prompts. Which two statements are true regarding shared members and valid
intersection rules?
a. If shared member is selected for a valid intersection rule, then the base member is not
included in the rule.
b. Shared members are not supported in valid intersection rules.
c. If a base member is included in a valid intersection rule, then any shared member is
included in the rule.
d. Shared members are supported in valid intersection rules.
Ans: c and d
35. You want to display a single value in a financial dashboard from a single cell in a form.

Which type of chart would you select?

a. Tile
b. Gauge
c. Line
d. Bar
 Ans: b
36. After you define approval group, you assign it to an approval unit hierarchy. You can create as
many approval groups as you want for an application. How many approval groups can assign to
an approval unit hierarchy?
a. 20
b. 5
c. No limit
d. 50
Ans: a
37. As an administrator, you set up an approval process and organize and data into approval units for
review. To which three dimensions do you assign approval unit hierarchy?
a. Entity
b. Period
c. Scenario
d. Year
e. Account
Ans: b, c and d
38. You are settings up a supplemental Data collection interval to customize your data collections by
tailoring the POV to your specific collection needs. Which two CANNOT be selected as Workflow
dimensions for a collection interval in Supplemental Data Manager?
a. Entity
b. Account
c. Year
d. Period
e. Scenario
Ans: c and d
39. Data is secured by giving user access to dimension members, which prevents unauthorized users
from changing data. As an administrator, you define which dimension have security. Which
statement is FALSE about establishing data security for Financial Consolidation and Close?
a. The Identity Domain Administrator inherits full access privileges.
b. Security is mandatory for one Dimension.
c. All members have access to dimensions, with no security applied.
d. Security can be disabled for any dimension.
e. Security can be assigned at the parent level.
Ans: a
40. You want to use Equity Pickup as a method of re-evaluating the investments owned by a holding
company, allowing the parent to realize changes in equity. Which statement is FALSE about the
Pickup feature?
a. Equity Pickup rules run as part of consolidation process.
b. Seeded rule sets are provided for Equity Pickup.
c. Equity Pickup requires Ownership Management with the Equity Pickup feature to be
enabled.
 d. Equity pickup rules are run on demand from the Rules card by users with launch
permission.
Ans: d
41. Which components are prebuilt into Financial Consolidation and Close to provide a configurable
and scalable consolidation solution?
a. Calculations, dashboards, and reports to provide analysis for cash flow modeling
b. Calculations, dashboards, and reports as well as detailed data source tracking and an
automated cash flow
c. Calculations, dashboards, and reports built on planning frameworks to provide cash flow
planning
d. Pre-built integrations to combine narrative and data to produce both internal and
external reporting packages
Ans: b
42. When you create a currency for an application, you can enable it for reporting purposes. Which
statement is true about reporting currencies?
a. When you run the Consolidate business rule, you can select one or more reporting
currencies to translate to.
b. During consolidation, rates for translating to reporting currencies are calculated- by
triangulation through the rate for translating to the parent currency.
c. All input currencies that you add are automatically added as reporting currencies as well.
d. All reporting currency members have the suffix _Reporting.
Ans: d
43. You want to approve your data using approval groups. Which statement best describes an
approval group?
a. A phased approval process with approval units that submit a portion of an entity’s data
for review
b. The entities included in an approve data for an entity
c. A group of users authorized to approve data for an entity
d. The users authorized to approve a task in Task manager
Ans: a
44. You are creating a data integration between Financial Consolidation and Close and another data
source. Which three tasks must you perform before you begin creating a data integration?
a. Map data management scenarios to Financial Consolidation and Close properties.
b. Register your Financial Consolidation and Close application and configure consolidation
options.
c. Map data management period to years and periods in Financial Consolidation and Close.
d. Register EPM Cloud applications or business processes to make them available as a
source or target data integrations.
Ans: a, c and d
45. In the Account dimension, the structure of the Balance Sheet is created with Dynamic Calc
parent members. Which two formats are available?
a. Traditional (Assets = Liabilities + Owner’s Equity)
b. Net Equity (Assets + Liabilities = Owner’s Assets)
c. Net Assets (Assets - Liabilities = Owner’s Equity)
 d. Liabilities (Assets = Traditional + Owner’s Equity)
Ans: a & c
46. If your FCC business process is Multi-currency, the Currency dimension must include currency for
each currency assigned to an entity in the Entity dimension. Which member of the Currency
dimension is used to enter data in the local currency of the entity?
a. Base Currency
b. Default Currency
c. Parent Currency
d. Entity Currency
Ans: d
47. The accounts Sales and Cost of Sales aggregate to the parent account Total Revenue.

How can you configure the accounts so that Sales increases Total Revenue and Cost of Sales
decreases Total Revenue?

a. Set Consolidation Operator for Sales to Addition and Cost of Sales to Subtraction.
b. Load negative values to the Cost of Sales account.
c. Set the Account Type property for Sales to Revenue and Cost of Sales to Expense.
d. Add a member formula to Cost of Sales to reverse the sign.
Ans: c
48. When configuring your Financial Consolidation and Close business process, you enable
Intercompany Data. Statement is FALSE about enabling Intercompany Data?
a. The Entity dimension displays a property for members that specifies if the member
should- be included in the Intercompany dimension.
b. If intercompany Data is enabled, the system create an Intercompany dimension
containing system members.
c. Tracking intercompany eliminations is optional.
d. The Ownership Management option is available for selection only if you have enabled
Intercompany Data without Tracking.
Ans: d
49. When you create your FCC business process, the system creates the Account dimension with
hierarchy of system and seeded members, some based on the features that you enable for the
business process. By default, which two are seeded members of the Account dimension?
a. Income Statement
b. Data Storage
c. Time Balance
d. Balance Sheet
Ans: a and d
50. After you run a data integration, you can view the results in Workbench. Which task can you
perform using Workbench?
a. Edit the data load file format.
b. Define a dimension mapping.
c. Review the mapping of source to target members.
d. Configure data load options.
Ans c
51. After you import dimensions, you can populate data by importing data files. Before you begin
loading, you must create an import file each artifact that you want to import. Which column
header is included in the data import file format?
a. The domain and application name
b. The application name
c. The data load cube name
d. The ID of the user performing the extract
Ans: c
52. You want to export Financial Consolidation and Close metadata to a file. What is the file type/
file extension of data exports from Financial Consolidation and Close?
a. The data export format/file extension is always a DAT file.
b. The data export format/file extension is always a ZIP file.
c. The data export format/file extension is always a XLS file.
d. The data export format/file extension is always a CSV file.
Ans: d
53. You have configured your application to track intercompany eliminations. Which statement is
correct regarding intercompany eliminations?
a. Intercompany partner entities must have the same parent in order to eliminate.
b. Identifying a plug account is optional for eliminations.
c. Intercompany eliminations are optional in Financial Consolidation and Close and use one
of the custom dimensions when enabled.
d. Intercompany elimination takes place at the first common ancestor of the intercompany
entities.
Ans: d
54. When you run a consolidation, the process gather data from descendant entities and aggregates
the data to parent entities. Which statement is correctly describe what happens to parent
entities during consolidation?
a. The changes in the relational database are synced to the underlying Essbase cube.
b. For each child entity, the period Opening Balance is subtracted from the period Closing
Balance to determine the current period change value, and the values are aggregated to
the FCCS_Entity Consolidation member of the Parent.
c. Because parent entities are tagged as Dynamic Calc, the consolidation has no effect on
the Entity dimension.
d. Data from the FCCS_Contribution Consolidation dimension member of the child entities
is aggregated and stored in the FCCS_Entity Consolidation member of the parent entites.
Ans: d
55. The company PQR has an ownership structure as shown below.

PQR
|_Hickory
| |_H_1
| |_H_2
|_Paducah
 |_P_1
|_P_2

H_1 has an intercompany transaction with P_2. For which entity or entities does consolidation
need to be run in order for transaction to be eliminated?
a. Hickory and Paducah
b. H_1 and P_2
c. No elimination is performed, because H_1 and P_1 do not have the same parent.
d. PQR
Ans: d
56. During application creation you select the Intercompany Data option because your business
process include intercompany- data. When you select this option, the system creates an
Intercompany dimension containing system members. Which statement about the Intercompany
dimension is correct?
a. All members in the Entity dimension for which ICP_Entity_Yes is selected are
automatically included in the Intercompany dimension.
b. All level-zero members of the Entity dimension are automatically included in the
Intercompany dimension.
c. You can add base members that do not exist as members in the Entity dimension.
d. Deleting a member from the Entity dimension that is tagged as Intercompany does not
remove the member from the ICP dimension.
Ans: a
57. During application creation, you do not select the Intercompany Data option because your
business process does not include intercompany data. Which statement is true if the
Intercompany Data feature is not enabled when the Financial Consolidation and Close business
process is created?
a. The FCCS_No Intercompany member of the ICP dimension is used for all data.
b. The ICP dimension is Omitted.
c. Data can be stored by intercompany partner, but no eliminations occur.
d. An extra custom dimension is available.
Ans: b
58. Why should years be consolidated sequentially; i.e., first 2018, then 2019, then 2020?
a. Parent account calculations depend on the sequencing.
b. There is no reason to consolidate years sequentially.
c. Each period in the year must consolidate separately.
d. Years should be consolidated sequentially to ensure that rollforward calculations are
correct.
Ans: d
59. P, Q, and R are children of a mid-level parent entity, AceCo. In February each entity has cash in
the amounts of 10, 20, and 30, respectively, and AceCo has been consolidated and has cash of
60. An adjustment to January by Q adjusts cash with a debit of 5.

Which two statements regarding this consolidation is correct?

a. Calculation Status for Q for January and February changes to Impacted.
 b. January and February should be consolidated for Q, and the changes will aggregate
automatically to AceCo.
c. January and February should be consolidated for AceCo.
d. Calculation Status for Q and AceCo for January and February changes to Impacted.
Ans: c and d
60. The hierarchy in the movements dimension plays an important part in the consolidation process
and capture movements details of an account. By default, the system allows members to capture
the Opening Balance, Closing Balance, changes, and FX calculation. Which two statements are
true about the roll forward calculation in the Movement dimension?
a. Translated values for Closing Balance are adjusted to the ending rate for the period.
b. Values for Opening Balance are retrieved from the prior period’s Closing Balance.
c. Values for base-level Movement members are calculated as the difference between
Closing Balance and Opening Balance.
d. Data for Opening Balances must be loaded to the Opening Balance member prior to
consolidation.
Ans a and b
Oracle Financial Consolidation and Close – 2022

1. Once metadata is updated and the database refresh has completed successfully, how will the status
for all entities be listed via the default data status grid? (Single option)

a. Need translate

b. OK

c. System Changed (SC)

d. Impacted

2. For which four dimensions does Financial Consolidation and Close maintain Calculation Status?
(Multiple options)

a. Data Source
b. Period
c. Entity
d. Scenario
e. Consolidation

3. Which two statements are true about the FCCS_Default Group approval group? (Multiple options)

a. It is always the first submission phase in the Approval Unit Hierarchy

b. It includes all accounts not included in any other approval group

c. It is always the last submission phase in the Approval Unit Hierarchy

d. You can delete it if you are defining your own approval groups

4. Which two are NOT selectable as Workflow dimensions for a Collection Interval in Supplemental Data
Manager? (Multiple options)

a. Scenario

b. Year

c. Entity

d. Account
 e. Period

5. Which statement is true regarding Opening Balance Override rules? (Single Option)

a. Opening Balance Override rules execute for the first period in the year only

b. They are available only if Intercompany Data with Tracking is enabled for the business process

c. You can select which entities to include in the rule scope

d. You can select which accounts to include in the rule scope

6. Which exchange rate is used to translate data for the Opening Balance Adjustment member for non-
historical accounts?

a. Prior period Ending rate

b. Current Period Average rate

c. Current period Opening rate

d. Current period Ending rate

7. Which two conditions are required for foreign currency translation to take place during the default
consolidation process?

a. The default currency of the child is different than the default currency of the parent

b. The child entity is NOT a shared entity

c. The Data Type for the account is Currency

d. Reporting currencies have been defined in the Currency dimension

8. Which three can be manually edited on the Manage Ownership page in a Financial Consolidation and
Close business process with Ownership Management enabled?

a. Consolidation Percentage

b. Consolidation Method

c. Control

d. Minority Interest Percentage

e. Ownership Percentage
9. Which three seeded data forms are created during business process creation?

a. Opening Balance Input

b. Exchange Rate Multi-period

c. Closing Balance Input

d. Data Status

e. Overrides Rates

10. Which four sample ratios can be selected during business process creation?

a. Inventory Ratios

b. Gross Margin

c. Debt Ratio

d. Earnings per Share

e. Contribution Margin

f. Days Sales in Receivables

11. Which statement explains why, in the Consolidation dimension, the data for an entity in the
FCCS_Entity Input member might be different than the data in the FCCS_Proportion member?

a. An ownership percentage for the entity other than 100 was entered.

b. An intercompany elimination was performed.

c. The parent entity has a different currency than the child

d. A rate was entered into the FCCS_Rate Override account

12. Which statement correctly describes the Consolidation dimension?

a. The dimension allows users to view data in the parent currency

b. The dimension allows users to see input versus journal adjustment data

c. The dimension contains members to store non-controlling interest and joint venture data

d. The dimension uses a separate member for data from an entity’s level zero descendants
13. Which statement correctly describes what happens to parent entities during consolidation?

a. For each child entity , the period Opening Balance is subtracted from the period Closing
Balance to determine the current period change value, and the values are aggregated to the
FCCS_Entity Consolidation member of the parent.

b. Since parent entities are tagged as dynamic calc, the consolidation has no effect on the entity
dimension

c. The changes in the relational database are synced to the underlying Essbase cube

d. Data from the FCCS_Contribution dimension members of the child entities is aggregate and
stored on the FCCS_Entity consolidation member of the parent entities.

14. When do you enable submission phases for your approval process?

a. When you start the approval process for an approval unit on the Manage Approvals page

b. When you assign the approval unit hierarchy to a scenario, period and year

c. When you setup the approval unit hierarchy

d. When you set the member properties for the entity

15. Which statement is FALSE about the Equity Pickup feature?

a. Equity Pickup rules are run on-demand from the Rules card by users with launch permission

b. Equity Pickup requires that the Ownership Management with Equity Pickup feature is enabled.

c. Equity Pickup rules run as part of the consolidation process.

d. Seeded rule sets are provided for Entity Pickup

16. When you set the Intercompany Account attribute for an account to Yes, which additional attribute
must also be set in order for the account to be included in the elimination process?

a. Intercompany Account

b. Plug Account

c. Is Plug Account

d. Intercompany Entity
17. Which of the following is allowed for accounts with the data storage type of “Dynamic Calc”?

a. Load data to this account

b. Enter data through a data form

c. Load data to this account and create member formulas.

d. Create member formulas

18. For which task categories is Audit enabled by default?

a. Journals

b. No task categories

c. All task categories

d. Data only

19. When cloning a Financial Consolidation and Close environment, which two statements describe what
happens when there is a mismatch between Essbase versions in the source and target environments?

a. If the source environment has an Essbase version higher than the target environment version,
the Essbase version on the target is upgraded to match the version on the source.

b. If the source environment has a hybrid version of Essbase and the target environment has
non- hybrid version, the target environment is updated to hybrid Essbase.

c. If the source environment has a hybrid version of Essbase and the target environment has
non- hybrid version, the clone process fails.

d. If the source environment has an Essbase version higher than the target environment version,
the clone process fails.

20. For business processes that use the Make Period and Movement Dense feature, which is true for
members in the Movement dimension?

a. The Consolidation Operator for Movement members must be set to Ignore.

b. The Data Storage option parent members must be set to Dynamic Calc.

c. The Data Storage option parent members must be set to Store.

d. The Data Storage option parent members must be set to Never Share.
21. You have added Configurable Calculation rules to Final Calculations on the Local Currency tab of the
Consolidation Process Page.

a. When are the Configurable Calculation rules that you added executed?

b. After Balance the Balance Sheet

c. After Equity Pickup

d. After Opening Balance Carry Forward

e. After Calculate Movements

22. For which scenario would an On-Demand rule be an appropriate solution?

a. To add a column with a calculation to a report

b. To allocate data to base entities prior to consolidation

c. To perform a custom currency translation for a subset of accounts

d. To import data into a form or Smart View worksheet

23. In Data Integration, for what purpose do you use Workbench?

a. Review mapping of source to target members

b. Define dimension mapping

c. Configure data loads options

d. Edit the data load file format

24. Which three tasks are supported in Data Integration?

a. Writing back data to source systems

b. Loading data from a fixed width or delimited text file

c. Drilling through to source data from a web form or Smart View

d. Loading a metadata import file

e. Loading journals data

25. Which statement is true of reporting currencies?

 a. All reporting currency members have the suffix_Reporting

b. When you run the Consolidate business rule, you can select one or more reporting currencies
to which to translate.

c. All input currencies that you add are automatically added as reporting currencies as well

d. During consolidation, rates for translating to reporting currencies are calculated by

triangulation through the rate for translating to the parent currency.

26. You have added a new task to a close schedule with a task due date past the defined end date of the
schedule. What is the result of the change?

a. The schedule end date changes to match the end date of the task

b. The task will not run

c. The new task will run outside of the schedule end date

d. An error, you cannot add a new task past the due date

27. You want to display a single value in a financial statement dashboard from a single cell in a form.
Which type of chart should you select?

a. Tile

b. Bar

c. Line

d. Gauge

28. For your business process, owners of approval units should be able to lock and unlock data without
going through an approval process.

Which action should you perform?

a. Select the Consolidation template when setting up the Approval Unit hierarchy
b. Select as owners only users with the Service Administrator security role.
c. Delete the default Approval Unt hierarchy.
d. Select the Consolidation Bottom-Up template when setting up the Approval Unt hierarchy.

29. You want to create an integration in Data Integration to import data into the Forecast scenario in
Financial Consolidation and Close.
Which is a required action to accomplish this?

a. In the Map Members tab in the integration, use an Is like map type to map al source records to the
Forecast member in the Target.
b. In Application Options, enter Forecast as the default member for the Scenario dimension.
c. In Category Mapping, map a source category to the forecast member in the target.
d. In the Map Dimensions tab in the integration, map the column for Scenario in the source to the
Scenario dimension in the target.

30. Which statement describes an Approval Group?

a. defines the entities included in an Approval Unit

b. defines a group of users authorized to approve data for an entity

c. defines the users authorized to approve a task in Task Manager

d. defines groups of data for approval in phases

31. Which are two insertable report objects when designing a report in Financial Reporting Studio?

a. Chart

b. Gid

c. Header

d. Footer

32. Which statement is FALSE about running consolidations?

a. When you consolidate a parent, children with Impacted calculation status are also consol
dated.

b. When you run consolidation for a child with Impacted calculation status, the parent entity is
also re-consolidated.

c. When you consolidate an entity for a period, prior periods with Impacted calculation status
are also consolidated.

d. Running consolidation using the Force Consolidate option consolidates entitles with any
calculation status other than OK or NO DATA.

33. What information is included in the data extract export file delimited format?
 a. The ID of the user performing the extract
b. The application name
c. The data load cube name
d. The domain and application name

34. Which selection displays the intercompany account and matching account balances in the
Intercompany Matching Report?

a. In Partner, select Level O Descendants of Intercompany Top.

b. In Data Source, select FCCS Partner Elimination.
c. In Plug Accounts, select a plug account.
d. In Partner, select Intercompany Top.

35. You need a report that displays all adjustments to account balances of chld entities for a parent,
including journal adjustments, intercompany eliminations, and adjustments from consolidation rues.
Which type of report can you run to accomplish this?

a. Consolidation Report
b. Intercompany Report
c. Financial Report
d. Journal Report

36. Which two rate accounts are available in the seeded exchange rate forms?

a. Local Rate
b. opening Rate
c. Average Rate
d. Ending Rate
37. A company based in the United Kingdom has their currency set to GBP. The company collects data
from a United States based subsidiary. The subsidiary's functional currency is USD.
Which two items facilitate the reposting of the subsidiary’s Common Stock balance at a historical note at
a GBP reporting currency?
a. The subsidiary must have a parent entity with a GBP currency.
b. Common Stock must have a Data Storage property set to Never Share.
c. Common Stock must have an Exchange Rate Type set to Historical Rate Override
d. Rate data for Common Stock must be loaded or entered in the Override Rates form.
USD must be created as a reporting currency.

38. Which two rate account options are available when configuring default translation methods for Flow
and Balance accounts?
a. FX Rates - None
b. FX Rates - Historical
c. FX Rates - Average
d. FX Rates - Opening
e. FX Rates - Ending

39. Which two statements are true regarding shared members and valid intersection rules?
a. If a shared member is selected for a valid intersection rule, then the base member is not
included in the rule.
b. Shared members are not supported in valid intersection rules.
c. Shared members are supported in valid intersection rules.
d. If a base member is included in a valid intersection rule, then any shared member is included
in the rule.

40. Which two are prerequisites that must be met before a preparer can enter data in an Enterprise
Journal?
a. The start date for the journal must have been reached.
b. The preparer must be assigned the Service Administrator or Power User security role.
c. In the POV, a journal input member must be selected in the Data Source dimension.
d. The journal template must have been deployed to an open period.
41. Which statement is FALSE regarding EPM Automate?
a. You must be a Service Administrator to execute tasks using EPM Automate
b. You use your EPM Cloud Identity Domain credentials to log in to EPM Automate.
c. You can run business rules using EPM Automate.
d. Files are exported to the server's Outbox folder by default.

42. In Data Integration integrations, which two attributes are linked to the location selected for the
integration?
a. member mappings
b. target application
c. scenario
d. data file name

43. In a data integration, you need to map records with the label "AcctRec" in the Account field in the
source file to the member name "Short Term Rec" in the target.
Which Map Type should you use on the Map Members tab?
a. Explicit
b. Between
c. Is Like
d. In

44. Which components are pre-built into Financial Consolidation and Close to provide a configurable and
scalable consolidation solution?
a. calculations, dashboards, and reports as well as detailed data source tracking and an automated
cash flow
b. calculations, dashboards, and reports built on planning frameworks to provide cash flow
planning
c. calculations, dashboards, and reports to provide analysis for cash flow modeling
d. pre-built integrations to combine narrative and data to produce both internal and external
reporting packages

45. Which four items are included in the Currency dimension?

a. Default Currency
b. Input Currencies
c. Parent Currency
d. Entity Currency
e. Reporting Currencies
 f. Journal Input Currencies

46. Which statement is true of journals created from Recurring templates?

a. The line items in journals created from Recurring templates are read only.
b. Journals for recurring templates are created automatically when you open a period for journal
c. The initial status of journals created from Recurring templates is Approved.
d. The initial status of journals created from Recurring templates is Posted

47. You have created a navigation flow named Analysts that should be the default navigation for users in
the Analysts user group.
How can the Analysts navigation flow be made the default for the Analysts user group?

a. In the Analysts navigation flow, select the Analysts user group in the Assign To field.
b. In their User Preferences settings, members of the Analysts user group should select Analysts in
the Navigation Flow list.
c. Because the navigation flow was given exactly the same name as the user group, it is assigned
automatically to the group.
d. In Application Settings, assign Analysts to the Analysts user group in the System Settings section.

48. On what days during the month does Oracle apply patch updates to fix bugs, apply code
optimizations, and add new features?
a. the second and fourth Friday of each month; second Friday for TEST and fourth Friday for
PROD
b. the first and third Friday of each month; first Friday for TEST and third Friday for PROD
c. the first and third Monday of each month; first Monday for TEST and third Monday for PROD
d. the third Friday of each month to apply to both TEST and PROD simultaneously

49. Which two statements are true about the Multi-GAAP feature?
a. Enabling Multi-GAAP reduces the number of custom dimensions you can have.
b. You can select from North America, Europe, and United Kingdom GA4P standards.
c. You can select manual adjustments or calculated adjustments.
d. You must specify a prefix for entities that use the alternate gap standard.

50. Which are two options for configuring currencies in the Setup Wizard?
a. Select Yes for the Multicurrency option,
b. Select rate account types for Flow and Balance accounts.
 c. Select the main currency.
d. Select translation methods for Flow and Balance accounts.

51. To which four can security be applied?

a. Smart Lists
b. Task Lists
c. Member Lists
d. Reports
e. Forms
f. Journal

52. Where can you set the default member for the Currency dimension in a Data Integration integration.
a. Location Attributes in Create Integration dialog box
b. Run Integration dialog box
c. Map Members tab in Create Integration dialog box
d. Options tab of Application Details dialog box

53. Which two statements are true about assigning security access to dimension members?
a. The default access to members in a dimension for which security is enabled is Write.
b. If a user has Read access to the Account member and Write access to the Scenario member
for a cell in a data form, the user receives Read access to the cell.
c. If a user has Read access to Account member and Write access to the Scenario member of a
cell in a data form, the user receives Write access to the cell.
d. When you assign access to a parent member, you can specify that the access will include its
descendants.

54. Security is enabled for the Account dimension, but you have not assigned member access rights to
any users or groups.
What will be users default access to members in the Account dimension?
a. Comment
b. Write
c. None
d. Read

55. An approval unit has the status Under Review. Which users can modify data for the approval unit?
a. Current Owner or Service Administrator
b. current owner
 c. current owner, Service Administrator, or Power User
d. any user with Write access to the dimension members in the approval unit

56. Which statement is FALSE regarding establishing security for Financial Consolidation and Close?
a. Security is mandatory for one dimension.
b. The Identity Domain Administrator inherits full access privileges.
c. Security can be assigned at a parent level.
d. Security can be disabled for any dimension.
e. All members are accessible for dimensions with no security applied.

57. For which three dimensions is security enabled by default?

a. Movement
b. Consolidation
c. Data Source
d. Account
e. Entity

58. You want to prevent users from saving data in a form if the value entered for Headcount is greater
than 1000.
What is the most efficient means to accomplish this?
a. Create a Groovy rule.
b. Create a Task Manager rule.
c. Create a valid intersection rule.
d. Create a Configurable Consolidation rule.

59. You are required to create a form that allows users to input data. Which three actions are consistent
with this?
a. Set the consolidation member on the form to FCCS Entity Input.
b. In the member selection for Entity, do not include shared entities, include only primary
instances of entities.
c. Select level O dimension members for the POV, rows, and columns.
e. Set the currency on the form to Parent Currency.
 f. Grant the data input users WRITE access to the dimension members used on the form.

60. You need to define a form that requires users to select the entity for which to view data from a list
that includes USA, Canada, and South America, but no other entities.
Where on the form do you place the Entity dimension?
a. rows
b. the Page Axis
c. the Point of View
d. columns
 Oracle Financial Consolidation and Close 2023 Implementation Professional (1Z0-1081-23)

1. For your business process, owners of approval units should be able to lock and unlock data
without going through an approval process.
Which action should you perform?
A. Select the Consolidation Bottom Up template when setting up the Approval Unit hierarchy.
B. Select the Consolidation template when setting up the Approval Unit hierarchy.
C. Delete the default Approval Unit hierarchy.
D. Select as owners only users with the Service Administrator or Power User security role.

2. What is the function of Source Mapping in Data Management?

A. Map local dimension members to the application dimension members.
B. Manage source periods in relation to global periods.
C. Defined the input currency for each data source supplying data to the application.
D. Define the close calendar periods.

3. If the Intercompany Data feature is not enabled when the Financial Consolidation and Close
(FCC) business process is created, which statement is true?
A. The FCCS_No Intercompany member of the ICP dimension is used for all data.
B. The ICP dimension is omitted.
C. An extra custom dimension is available.
D. Data can be stored by intercompany partner but no eliminations will occur.

4. For which three dimensions is security enabled by default?

A. Data Source
B. Entity
C. Consolidation
D. Scenario
E. Account

5. A company has two subsidiaries with 1000 EURO each in the Cash account.
If the consolidation percentage is 100%, which four Consolidation members will reflect 2000
EURO at the company's balance?
A. FCCS_Contribution
B. FCCS_Entity Total
C. FCCS_Proportion
D. FCCS_Elimination
E. FCCS_Entity Consolidation
F. FCCS_Entity Input
6. Which statement is FALSE when Intercompany Data is enabled?
A. The Intercompany Entity attribute for an Entity must be set to Yes to store intercompany
data.
B. Tracking intercompany eliminations is optional.
C. In order for intercompany data to be eliminated, intercompany entities must be children of
the same parent.
D. Intercompany accounts are assigned plug accounts.
7. Which statement about the Equity Pickup feature is FALSE?
A. Seeded rule-sets are provided for Equity Pickup.
B. Equity Pickup rules run as part of the consolidation process.
C. Equity Pickup requires that the Ownership Management with Equity Pickup feature is
enabled.
D. Equity Pickup rules are run on-demand from the Rules card by users with launch permissions.

8. You have added a new task to a close schedule with a task due date past the defined end date of
the schedule. What is the result of the change?
A. An error, you cannot add a new task past the due date.
B. The task will not run.
C. The new task will run outside of the schedule end date.
D. The schedule end date changes to match the end date of the task.

9. Which four sample ratios can be selected during business process creation?
A. Inventory Ratios
B. Gross Margin
C. Contribution Margin
D. Earnings per Share
E. Debt Ratio
F. Days Sales in Receivables

10. Which three combinations of dimensions could be valid for a Financial Consolidation and Close
business process?
A. Multi-GAAP, Data Type, Intra-company
B. Data Source, Consolidation, View
C. Period, Year, Entity
D. Currency, Movement, Scenario
E. Value, Entity, Account

11. What will Financial Consolidation and Close do when aggregating data for a member that is set
as an expense type account to a parent that is set as an income type account?
A. This setting does not affect aggregation to the parent.
B. You cannot load data to this account.
C. Add amounts aggregated to the parent.
D. Subtract amounts aggregated to the parent.

12. Which two statements are true of the roll forward calculation in the Movement dimension?
A. Values for base-level Movement members are calculated as the difference between Closing
Balance and Opening Balance.
B. Translated values for Closing Balance are adjusted to the ending rate for the period.
C. Values for Opening Balance are retrieved from the prior period Closing Balance.
D. Data for opening balances must be loaded to the Opening Balance member prior to
consolidation.

13. In the Movement dimension, for which two can you modify the default translation calculation?
 A. Base-level members under FCCS_Mvmts Subtotal
B. Opening Balance
C. Closing Balance
D. Opening Balance Input

14. You need a report that displays all adjustments to account balances of child entities for a parent,
including journal adjustments, intercompany eliminations, and adjustments from consolidation
rules.
Which type of report can you run to accomplish this?
A. Consolidation Report
B. Journal Report
C. Intercompany Report
D. Financial Report

15. Once metadata is updated and the database refresh has completed successfully, how will the
status for all entities be listed via the default Data Status grid?
A. Impacted
B. Need Translate
C. OK
D. System Changed (SC)

16. The close cycle covers seven days and consists of three days of pre-close preparation tasks, one
day to close the books, and then three days of reviewing, analyzing and reporting.
To define a Task Manager task template to monitor all seven days, which day range should you
define?
A. Day 3 "€‫ ג‬to Day 3
B. Day 2 "€‫ ג‬to Day 4
C. Day 1 to Day 7
D. Day 3 "€‫ ג‬to Day 4

17. For which scenario would an On-Demand rule be an appropriate solution?

A. to perform a custom currency translation for a subset of accounts
B. to add a column with a calculation to a report
C. to copy data from one scenario to a different scenario
D. to allocate data to base entities prior to consolidation

18. Which two are required fields when registering a source system in Data Management?
A. Source System Type
B. Cloud Type
C. Drill Through URL
D. Name
19. Which selection should you make to show the Intercompany account and matching account
balances on the Intercompany Matching Report?
A. Intercompany Partners
B. Intercompany Accounts
C. Elimination Consolidation Dimension member
D. Intercompany Plug Accounts

20. You are required to create a form that allows users to input data. Which three actions are
consistent with this?
A. In the member selection for Entity, do not include shared entities, include only primary
instances of entities.
B. Select level 0 dimension members for the POV, rows, and columns.
C. Set the currency on the form to Parent Currency.
D. Grant the data input users WRITE access to the dimension members used on the form.
E. Set the consolidation member on the form to FCCS_Entity Input.

21. A company based in the United Kingdom has their currency set to GBP. The company collects
data from a United States based subsidiary. The subsidiary's functional currency is USD.
Which two items facilitate the reporting of the subsidiary's Common Stock balance at a
historical rate in the GBP reporting currency?
A. Rate data for Common Stock must be loaded or entered in the Override Rates form.
B. Common Stock must have an Exchange Rate Type set to Historical Rate Override.
C. Common Stock must have a Data Storage property set to Never Share.
D. USD must be created as a reporting currency.
E. The subsidiary must have a parent entity with a GBP currency.

22. How do you enable multiple currencies within a Financial Consolidation and Close business
process?
A. In the metadata editor, in the properties tab for the Currency dimension, select Enabled.
B. During application creation, select the Multicurrency option of Yes.
C. Enable a dimension for Currency after application creation via a metadata load.
D. In the metadata editor, enter a currency in the Entity Currency field for each entity.

23. Which three tasks are supported by Data Management?

A. loading data from a fixed width or delimited text file
B. writing back data to source systems
C. loading data that is period-to-date or year-to-date
D. loading a Metadata Import File
E. drilling through from a web form or Smart View

24. Which four items are included in the Currency dimension?

A. Journal Input Currencies
B. Input Currencies
C. Entity Currency
D. Reporting Currencies
E. Parent Currency
F. Translated Currencies
25. Company 123 is a public company that reports in US Dollars. Company 123 owns Company XYZ,
a European company that consolidates in Euro. One of
Company XYZ's subsidiaries is Company IOU, headquartered in Switzerland with a functional
currency of the Swiss Franc.
Which process produces USD balances for Company IOU?
A. translation of Company XYZ to Parent Currency
B. A consolidation of Company 123
C. A consolidation of Company XYZ
D. A translation to the USD_Reporting currency member for Company IOU

26. What is the file type/file extension of data exports from Financial Consolidation and Close?
A. The data export format/file extension is always a XLS file.
B. The data export format/file extension is always a ZIP file.
C. The data export format/file extension is always a DAT file.
D. The data export format/file extension is always a CSV file.

27. Which statement is true of the default FCCS_ members within an application?
A. You can change the default FCCS_ member prefix at application creation.
B. You can change the Alias.
C. You can change the Data Storage property.
D. You can change the Name.

28. How can the Intercompany dimension be enabled within your application?
A. In the metadata editor, select Enabled for the Intercompany property for the Entity
dimension.
B. In the metadata editor, select IC_Acc_Yes for the Intercompany property for any account.
C. During application creation, select the Intercompany Data option.
D. In the metadata editor, select IC_Entity_Yes for the Intercompany Entity property for any
entity.

29. Which two are NOT selectable as Workflow dimensions for a Collection Interval in Supplemental
Data Manager? (Multiple options)
A. Scenario
B. Year
C. Entity
D. Account
E. Period

30. Which two conditions are required for foreign currency translation to take place during the
default consolidation process?
A. The default currency of the child is different than the default currency of the parent
B. The child entity is NOT a shared entity
C. The Data Type for the account is Currency
D. Reporting currencies have been defined in the Currency dimension
31. Which statement explains why, in the Consolidation dimension, the data for an entity in the
FCCS_Entity Input member might be different than the data in the FCCS_Proportion member?
A. An ownership percentage for the entity other than 100 was entered.
B. An intercompany elimination was performed.
C. The parent entity has a different currency than the child
D. A rate was entered into the FCCS_Rate Override account

32. Which statement correctly describes the Consolidation dimension?

A. The dimension allows users to view data in the parent currency
B. The dimension allows users to see input versus journal adjustment data
C. The dimension contains members to store non-controlling interest and joint venture data
D. The dimension uses a separate member for data from an entity’s level zero descendants

33. Which statement correctly describes what happens to parent entities during consolidation?
A. For each child entity , the period Opening Balance is subtracted from the period Closing
Balance to determine the current period change value, and the values are aggregated to the
FCCS_Entity Consolidation member of the parent.
B. Since parent entities are tagged as dynamic calc, the consolidation has no effect on the
entity dimension
C. The changes in the relational database are synced to the underlying Essbase cube
D. Data from the FCCS_Contribution dimension members of the child entities is aggregate and
stored on the FCCS_Entity consolidation member of the parent entities.

34. When do you enable submission phases for your approval process?
A. When you start the approval process for an approval unit on the Manage Approvals page
B. When you assign the approval unit hierarchy to a scenario, period and year
C. When you setup the approval unit hierarchy
D. When you set the member properties for the entity

35. Which statement is FALSE about the Equity Pickup feature?

A. Equity Pickup rules are run on-demand from the Rules card by users with launch permission
B. Equity Pickup requires that the Ownership Management with Equity Pickup feature is
enabled.
C. Equity Pickup rules run as part of the consolidation process.
D. Seeded rule sets are provided for Entity Pickup

36. 16. When you set the Intercompany Account attribute for an account to Yes, which additional
attribute must also be set in order for the account to be included in the elimination process?
A. Intercompany Account
B. Plug Account
C. Is Plug Account
D. Intercompany Entity

37. 17. Which of the following is allowed for accounts with the data storage type of “Dynamic
Calc”?
A. Load data to this account
B. Enter data through a data form
C. Load data to this account and create member formulas.
 D. Create member formulas

38. When cloning a Financial Consolidation and Close environment, which two statements describe
what happens when there is a mismatch between Essbase versions in the source and target
environments?
A. If the source environment has an Essbase version higher than the target environment
version, the Essbase version on the target is upgraded to match the version on the source.
B. If the source environment has a hybrid version of Essbase and the target environment has
non- hybrid version, the target environment is updated to hybrid Essbase.
C. If the source environment has a hybrid version of Essbase and the target environment has
non- hybrid version, the clone process fails.
D. If the source environment has an Essbase version higher than the target environment
version, the clone process fails.

39. You want to display a single value in a financial statement dashboard from a single cell in a form.
Which type of chart should you select?
A. Tile
B. Bar
C. Line
D. Gauge

40. You want to create an integration in Data Integration to import data into the Forecast scenario
in Financial Consolidation and Close.
Which is a required action to accomplish this?
A. In the Map Members tab in the integration, use an Is like map type to map al source records
to the Forecast member in the Target.
B. In Application Options, enter Forecast as the default member for the Scenario dimension.
C. In Category Mapping, map a source category to the forecast member in the target.
D. In the Map Dimensions tab in the integration, map the column for Scenario in the source to
the Scenario dimension in the target.

41. Which are two insertable report objects when designing a report in Financial Reporting Studio?
A. Chart
B. Gid
C. Header
D. Footer

42. Which statement is FALSE about running consolidations?

A. When you consolidate a parent, children with Impacted calculation status are also consol
dated.
B. When you run consolidation for a child with Impacted calculation status, the parent entity is
also re-consolidated.
C. When you consolidate an entity for a period, prior periods with Impacted calculation status
are also consolidated.
D. Running consolidation using the Force Consolidate option consolidates entitles with any
calculation status other than OK or NO DATA.
43. Which two rate account options are available when configuring default translation methods for
Flow and Balance accounts?
A. FX Rates - None
B. FX Rates - Historical
C. FX Rates - Average
D. FX Rates - Opening
E. FX Rates - Ending

44. Which statement is true of journals created from Recurring templates?

A. The line items in journals created from Recurring templates are read only.
B. Journals for recurring templates are created automatically when you open a period for
journal
C. The initial status of journals created from Recurring templates is Approved.
D. The initial status of journals created from Recurring templates is Posted

45. Which are two options for configuring currencies in the Setup Wizard?
A. Select Yes for the Multicurrency option,
B. Select rate account types for Flow and Balance accounts.
C. Select the main currency.
D. Select translation methods for Flow and Balance accounts.

46. An approval unit has the status Under Review. Which users can modify data for the approval
unit?
A. Current Owner or Service Administrator
B. current owner
C. current owner, Service Administrator, or Power User
D. any user with Write access to the dimension members in the approval unit

47. For which three dimensions is security enabled by default?

A. Movement
B. Consolidation
C. Data Source
D. Account
E. Entity

48. You need to define a form that requires users to select the entity for which to view data from a
list that includes USA, Canada, and South America, but no other entities.
Where on the form do you place the Entity dimension?
A. rows
B. the Page Axis
C. the Point of View
D. columns
1. fccs_global assumption ---- entity answer
2. copy data feature --- fixed dimension members
3. when do we refresh DB
4. which fcc task can not be performed on epmautomate
5. where can we find aggregation option for aggregating intercompany top member ---
while creating application