Cambridge IGCSE™

CHEMISTRY 0620/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2024
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*5434554774*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.
 The Periodic Table is printed in the question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB24 11_0620_13/5RP
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1 Which conditions cause gas particles to move the fastest and the furthest apart?

temperature pressure

A high high
B low high
C high low
D low low

2 Which statement describes a liquid at room temperature?

A A sample of a liquid has a fixed volume and shape.

B A sample of a liquid does not have a fixed volume or shape.
C The particles are touching but can move by sliding over each other.
D The particles spread out and fill all available space.

3 A compound, X, has a melting point of 71 C and a boiling point of 375 C.

Which statement about X is correct?

A It is a liquid at 52 C and a gas at 175 C.

B It is a liquid at 69 C and a gas at 380 C.

C It is a liquid at 75 C and a gas at 350 C.

D It is a liquid at 80 C and a gas at 400 C.

4 What is the nucleon number of an atom?

A the number of neutrons

B the number of protons
C the total number of protons and neutrons
D the total number of protons and electrons

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5 An atom has three electron shells. There are three electrons in the outer shell.

How many protons and how many neutrons are in this atom?

protons neutrons

A 13 14
B 13 27
C 14 13
D 21 24

6 Which row gives the number of covalent bonds in one molecule of ammonia and in
one molecule of hydrogen chloride?

ammonia hydrogen chloride

A 3 1
B 3 2
C 4 1
D 4 2

7 Which statements about the structure and bonding in diamond are correct?

1 Each carbon atom in diamond is bonded to three other carbon atoms only.
2 Diamond contains many strong covalent bonds.
3 Diamond contains layers of carbon atoms, which can slide over each other.
4 Diamond has a giant structure.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 2 and 3 only C 2 and 4 D 4 only

8 Magnesium burns in oxygen to form magnesium oxide.

The equation for the reaction is shown.

2Mg + O2  2MgO

Which mass of magnesium oxide is formed when 48 g of magnesium is burned?

A 20 g B 40 g C 80 g D 160 g

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9 Propane, C3H8, is burned in a limited amount of oxygen.

Which equation represents this reaction?

A C3H8 + 5O2  3CO2 + 4H2O

B C3H8 + 4O2  3CO + 4H2O

C C3H8 + 4O2  3CO2 + 2H2O + 2H2

D 2C3H8 + 7O2  6CO + 8H2O

10 The isotope of which element is used to define the relative atomic mass of other elements?

A sulfur
B oxygen
C nitrogen
D carbon

11 What is the definition of electrolysis?

A the formation of a positive ion by the removal of electrons using an electric current
B the decomposition of an ionic compound, when molten or in aqueous solution, by the
passage of an electric current
C the substance containing ions through which an electric current can pass
D the coating of a metal with a different metal by passing an electric current through an
aqueous solution of an ionic salt

12 Which statement about electroplating a copper spoon with silver is correct?

A Both the anode and cathode are made of carbon.

B The copper spoon is the anode.

C Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is the electrolyte.

D Silver is formed at the negative electrode.

13 Which row describes the reaction pathway diagram and energy change in an exothermic
reaction?

reaction pathway diagram energy is

A reactants higher than products absorbed

B reactants higher than products released
C reactants lower than products absorbed
D reactants lower than products released

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14 The table shows the initial and final temperatures for four different reactions.

initial final
reaction
temperature / C temperature / C

1 19 28
2 18 16
3 20 20
4 18 19

Which reactions are endothermic?

A 1 and 4 B 2 and 3 C 2 only D 4 only

15 Which process is a chemical change?

A boiling water
B cooking an egg
C dissolving sugar
D melting ice cubes

16 A student reacts strips of zinc with dilute sulfuric acid and measures the time taken to produce
100 cm3 of hydrogen.

The experiment is repeated using different conditions.

The results are shown in the table.

time to produce 100 cm3

experiment
of hydrogen / s

1 250
2 100

Which changes in conditions produce the results shown in experiment 2?

1 Add a catalyst.
2 Dilute the acid.
3 Use zinc powder.
4 Heat the acid.

A 1, 3 and 4 B 1 and 4 only C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

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17 When blue copper(II) sulfate is heated, a white solid and water are formed.

The white solid turns blue and gives out heat when water is added to it.

Which terms describe the blue copper(II) sulfate and the reactions?

blue copper(II) sulfate is reactions

A a mixture can be reversed

B a mixture cannot be reversed
C hydrated can be reversed
D hydrated cannot be reversed

18 Which statements about a redox reaction are correct?

1 Oxidation is the gain of oxygen.

2 Both oxidation and reduction take place in a redox reaction.
3 Reduction is the gain of oxygen.

A 1 and 2 B 1 only C 2 and 3 D 3 only

19 Which row identifies a basic oxide and describes an alkali?

basic oxide description of an alkali

A sodium oxide insoluble base

B sodium oxide soluble base
C sulfur dioxide insoluble base
D sulfur dioxide soluble base

20 Which indicators turn blue when added to aqueous ammonia?

1 litmus
2 thymolphthalein
3 universal indicator

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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21 Ammonium chloride reacts with solution X to produce alkaline gas Y. The equation is shown.

ammonium chloride + solution X  alkaline gas Y

Which row identifies X and Y?

X Y

A hydrochloric acid ammonia

B hydrochloric acid chlorine
C sodium hydroxide ammonia
D sodium hydroxide chlorine

22 The solubility of some salts is shown.

chloride nitrate sulfate carbonate

barium soluble soluble insoluble insoluble

lead(II) insoluble soluble insoluble insoluble
potassium soluble soluble soluble soluble
zinc soluble soluble soluble insoluble

Which two aqueous solutions produce an insoluble salt when mixed together?

A barium chloride and zinc nitrate

B barium nitrate and lead(II) nitrate

C lead(II) nitrate and potassium carbonate

D potassium nitrate and zinc sulfate

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23 The table shows some properties of the halogens.

melting point colour at state at

halogen
/ C room temperature room temperature

chlorine –101 yellow-green gas

bromine –7 red-brown liquid
iodine 114 grey-black solid
astatine

Which statement describes astatine?

A It is a yellow gas at room temperature.

B It is a black liquid at room temperature.
C Its melting point is higher than the melting point of bromine but lower than that of chlorine.
D Its melting point is higher than the melting point of both iodine and bromine.

24 J, L and M are elements in the Periodic Table.

● J has the highest density.

● L has the highest reactivity with water.
● M has the highest atomic number.

Which row identifies the elements J, L and M?

J L M

A copper lithium bromine

B lithium copper bromine
C bromine lithium copper
D copper bromine lithium

25 Which statement about elements in Group I of the Periodic Table is correct?

A Rubidium has a greater density than caesium.

B Lithium has a higher melting point than potassium.
C Potassium is more reactive than rubidium.
D Rubidium atoms have more outer shell electrons than sodium atoms.

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26 Which diagram shows a mixture of noble gases?

A B C D

27 Which statements about the alloy brass are correct?

1 It is harder than pure copper.

2 It does not conduct electricity.
3 It is a mixture of copper and nickel.
4 It is stronger than pure copper.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

28 The bodies of aircraft are often made using aluminium.

Which two properties of aluminium make it suitable for this use?

property 1 property 2

A good conductor of electricity good conductor of heat

B good conductor of electricity strong
C good conductor of heat low density
D strong low density

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29 Four metals, P, Q, R and S, are added separately to water and to dilute hydrochloric acid.

The table shows the results.

observation observation with dilute

with water hydrochloric acid

P no reaction fizzes slowly

Q fizzes rapidly fizzes rapidly
R no reaction no reaction
S fizzes slowly fizzes rapidly

Which conclusion can be made from these observations?

A P is the least reactive of the four metals.

B Q is more reactive than S.
C Q is less reactive than P.
D R is the most reactive of the four metals.

30 Iron is extracted from its ore in the blast furnace.

Which statement about one of the reactions in the blast furnace is correct?

A Carbon monoxide is reduced to carbon dioxide.

B Iron(III) oxide is reduced by carbon dioxide.

C Slag is produced when calcium carbonate reacts with carbon dioxide.

D The reaction that heats the blast furnace produces carbon dioxide.

31 Which pollutants found in river water lead to deoxygenation?

1 nitrates
2 harmful microbes
3 metal compounds
4 phosphates

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

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32 Three effects of air pollutants are listed.

1 photochemical smog
2 respiratory problems
3 acid rain

Which effects are caused by oxides of nitrogen?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 1 only D 2 and 3 only

33 Fractional distillation is used to separate petroleum into its fractions.

Which statement about the fractional distillation of petroleum is correct?

A The kerosene fraction is used as a fuel for ships.

B The fractions with the highest boiling points are extracted from the top of the fractionating
column.
C The naphtha fraction contains larger hydrocarbon molecules than the lubricating oil fraction.
D The refinery gas fraction contains hydrocarbon molecules which consist of five atoms.

34 Fertilisers are mixtures of different compounds used to increase the growth of crops.

Which pair of substances contain the three essential elements for plant growth?

A ammonium nitrate and calcium phosphate

B ammonium nitrate and potassium chloride
C ammonium phosphate and potassium chloride
D potassium nitrate and calcium carbonate

35 Which row gives the relative molecular mass, Mr, of the first member of the named homologous
series?

homologous series Mr

A alkanes 12
B alkenes 14
C alcohols 32
D carboxylic acids 60

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36 A hydrocarbon decolourises bromine water.

Which statement about the hydrocarbon is correct?

A It is an alkane.
B Its molecular formula is C2H6.
C It is a saturated hydrocarbon.
D It has the general formula CnH2n.

37 Which statement describes how ethanol is manufactured from ethene?

A Steam is added to ethene using an acid catalyst at 30 C.

B Steam is added to ethene using an acid catalyst at 300 C.

C Ethene is fermented using yeast at 30 C.

D Ethene is fermented using yeast at 300 C.

38 Ethanoic acid reacts with aqueous sodium carbonate.

Which gas is given off in this reaction?

A hydrogen
B carbon dioxide
C carbon monoxide
D oxygen

39 A mixture containing an aqueous salt, sand and hot water is stirred.

The mixture is then poured into the apparatus shown.

What is X?

A a filtrate only
B a residue only
C a solute only
D a solvent only

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40 A scientist uses a titration to calculate the concentration of acid in a sample of lemon juice.

A measured volume of aqueous lemon juice and a few drops of an indicator are added to a flask.

The aqueous lemon juice is then titrated against 0.1 mol / dm3 aqueous sodium hydroxide.

Which piece of apparatus is used to add the aqueous sodium hydroxide to the flask?

A a burette
B a delivery tube
C a measuring cylinder
D a volumetric pipette

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publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2024 0620/13/O/N/24

 The Periodic Table of Elements
Group

© UCLES 2024
I II III IV V VI VII VIII
1 2
H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
16

85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86

0620/13/O/N/24
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Nh Fl Mc Lv Ts Og
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium nihonium flerovium moscovium livermorium tennessine oganesson
– – – – – – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).