SHREE KRISHNA RUDRA MEDICAL ACADEMY, KANURU

DATE: 02.05.2024
NEET CHEMISTRY THEORY BITS Max.Marks: 720
PART-1 : SECTION-A 4. The compound formed in the positive test for
Attempt All 35 Questions nitrogen with Lassigne solution of an organic
compound is :
1. The IUPAC name of the compound is :
(1) Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS]

CH2–CH2–CH–CH2 (2) Na3[Fe(CN)6]

OH
(3) Fe(CN)3
(1) 1, 4-diphenyl-2-hydroxy butane
(4) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
(2) 1, 4-diphenyl-3-hydroxy butane
(3) 1, 4-diphenyl-2-butanol 5. Sodium nitroprusside when added to a sodium
sulphide produces a colouration :
(4) 1, 4-dicyclo hexyl-3-hydroxy butane
2. The correct name of the compound is : (1) Red colour of Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS]

O CH3 (2) Violet colour of Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS]

CH3CH2 – C – O – CH
(3) Brown colour of Na2[Fe(CN)5]
CH3
(4) Black colour of Na2[Fe(CN)5NOS]
(1) (1-methylethyl) propanoate

(2) isopropyl propanoate 6. Paper chromatography is a type of :

(3) both (1) Thin layer chromatography

(4) none (2) Partition chromatography

3. Match the Column I with Column II and choose
the correct option : (3) Adsorption chromatography
Column I Column II
(4) Column chromatography

a. Homocyclic aromatic i. O O
compound 7. Compounds CH3–CH2 –C & CH3 – CH – C – H
NH2 NH2
b. Heterocyclic aromatic ii. are:
compound (1) Position isomers
c. Alicyclic compound iii. (2) Metamers
O (3) Functional isomers
d. Hetrocyclic nonaromatic iv. (4) Tautomers
N
compound I CH3
H
(1) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii 8. Br2
X (Major)
UV
(2) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii X is :

(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv CH 2Br CH 3

(1) (2) Br

CH3 CH3
(3) Br (4)
Br
9. Column-I (Effect) Column-II (Related feature) 13. Aromatic hydrocarbons are special type of cyclic
hydrocarbons which have :
p. Resonance i. Creation of permanent
polarity in C-chain (1) (4n+2) -electrons.
q. Hyperconjugation ii. Need based complee (2) delocalised -electrons in alternate single and
shift of e–. double bond system
r. Inductive effect iii. Delocalisation of e–. (3) Planar adjustment of C-atom (sp2 hybridised) in
the ring.
s. Electromeric effect iv. Use of e– of -bond of
-H atom. (4) All of the above

(1) p-ii, q-iv, r-i, s-iii (2) p-iii, q-iv, r-i, s-ii 14. In Kolbe’s electrolytic method, w hen
CH 3COONa(aq) is electrolysed, which of the
(3) p-iii, q-iv, r-ii, s-i (4) p-iv, q-iii, r-i, s-ii
fillowing is produced at cathode :
10. Given below are two statements: one is labelled
as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as Reason (1) CO2
(R). (2) H2
Assertion(A): (3) CH4
A conjugated system having alternate single and double (4) NaOH
bonds is non-polar.
15. Boiling point of n-pentane is highest among the
Reason(R):
three isomeric pentanes because of :
A conjugated system having alternate single and double
bonds, has delocalised -electrons. (1) linear structure
In the light of the above statements, choose the (2) large surface area
most appropriate answer from the options given
below: (3) weak intermolecular van der Waals’ forces
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct
(4) zig-zag chain
exaplanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct 16. What is produced when CH4 reacts with steam at
1273 K in the presence of Ni :
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(1) CO2 and H2 (2) CO and H2O2
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A) (3) HCHO and H2 (4) CO and H2
17. Which one of the following is most reactive
11. Which of –NO2, –CN, –COOH, –CH3, –C2H5, –COOR, towards electrophilic attack :
–OAr is/are electron withdrawing groups :
NO2
(1) –NO2 and –CN only (1)

(2) –NO2, –COOH, –COOR only Cl

(2)
(3) –COOR and –O–Ar only

(4) All except –CH3 and –C2H5 OH

(3)
12. Bond lengths of ethane (I), ethene (II), acetylene
(III) and benzene (IV) follows the order : CH2OH
(1) I > II > III > IV (4)
(2) I > II > IV > III
18. How many  and -bonds are present in :
(3) I > IV > II >III
(4) III > IV > II > I
(1) 14, 4 (2) 14, 2
(3) 10, 4 (4) 12, 4
19. Which of the follwing is correct for CH CH : 23. With which of the following is the reaction of
benzene called as Friedel-Crafts reaction :
(1) Colourless (1) RCl / AlCl3
(2) CH3–CH = CH2 / H2PO4
(2) Weakly polar
(3) RCOCl / AlCl3
(3) Characteristic smell (4) All of these
(4) All of these 24. Given below are two statements: one is labelled
as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
20. Which is not aromatic : Assertion(A):
Alkanes are used as fuels
(1) (2) Reason(R):
During combustion of alkanes, a large amount of heat
is released.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) (4) most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
21. Select the correct option for the missing chemical (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct
‘X’ in the reaction : exaplanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
Ni / 423 473K (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
' X'
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
Benzene Cyclohexane explanation of (A)
(1) H2 25. Which is activating group :
(2) 2H2 (1) –NH2
(3) 3H2 (2) –NHR
(4) 4H2
(3) –OCH3
UV/500 K
'X' (4) All of these
3Cl2
22. 26. CaC2 H2 O A C2H5MgBr B , Compound A and B
Anhyd. AlCl3
'Y' are respectively :
dark, cold
What are ‘X’ and ‘Y’ : (1) CH CH & C2H6

Cl Cl (2) CH CH & CH4

Cl Cl Cl Cl (3) CH3 C CH & C2H6
(1) X = , Y=
Cl Cl Cl Cl (4) CH4 & C2H6
Cl Cl 27. Which conformation of ethane has the least and
maximum torsional strain :
Cl Cl
Cl Cl (1) Staggered, eclipsed
Cl Cl
(2) X = , Y= (2) Eclipsed, staggered
Cl Cl Cl Cl (3) Eclipsed, gauche
Cl Cl
(4) Gauche, eclipsed
Cl Cl 28. Assertion : Boiling point of isobutane is less than
Cl Cl Cl Cl n-butane.
(3) X = , Y=
Cl Cl Cl Cl Reason : Strength of vander waal’s forces in
Cl Cl straight chain alkanes are lesser than that in
branched chain alkanes.
Cl Cl (1) Both assertion and reason are true
Cl Cl Cl Cl
(2) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) X = , Y=
Cl Cl Cl Cl (3) Both assertion and reason are false
Cl Cl (4) Assertion is false but reason is true
 CH3
29. n-hexane undergoes aromatization to give
Cl2 Aq. KOH
benzene in the presence of : 34. U.V
A B , Compound A and B

(1) Cr2O3 are respectively :

CH3 CH3
(2) V2O5 Cl OH
(1) &
(3) Mo2O3
CH3 CH3
(4) All of the above
(2) &
30. Which compound show geometrical isomerism :
Cl OH
(1) Lactic acid
CH2–Cl CH2–OH
(2) Formic acid
(3) &
(3) Fumeric acid
CH3 CH3
(4) Malonic acid
(4) &
31. The reaction conditions leading to the best yield Cl OH
of C2H5Cl are : 35. Which one of the following will have maximum
dipole moments :
UV light (1) CH3–I (2) CH3–Br
(1) C2H6 (excess)  Cl2  
(3) CH3–F (4) CH3–Cl
Dark PART-1 : SECTION-B
(2) C2H6  Cl2 
Room temperature

This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
UV light
(3) C2H6  Cl2 (excess)  can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of

these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
UV light
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
(4) C2H6  Cl2   questions will be considered for marking.
HCl Mg CH3 OH
32. Which chloro derivative of benzene among the 36. CH3 CH2 OH ZnCl2
A Ether
B C ,
following would undergo hydrolysis most readily
Compound 'C' is :
with aq NaOH to furnish the corresponding
hydroxy derivative : (1) CH3–CH3 (2) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH3
(3) CH4 (4) CH3–CH2–O–CH3
NO2
37. Identify the compound Y in the following reaction.
(1) O2N Cl (2) O2N Cl
NO2

(3) Me2N Cl (4) C6H5 – Cl

(1) (2)
33. When phenol is treated with CHCl3 and NaOH, the
product formed is :

(1) Benzaldehyde

(2) Salicylaldehyde (3) (4)

(3) Salicylic acid

(4) Benzoic acid

38. Best method of conversion of an alcohol into an 43. Identify (X), (Y) and (Z) in the given reaction:
alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol with :
I NaOH Ag H SO / HgSO
(1) PCl5 CH3COCH3  
2
heat
 X 
heat
 Y  2
 
heat
4
Z
4

(2) SOCl2 in presence of pyridine (1) X = CHI3, Y = CH3CHO, Z = HCHO

(3) PCl3 (2) X = CHI3, Y = CH3OH, Z = CH3CHO
(4) dry HCl in presence of anhyd. ZnCl2
(3) X = CHI3, Y = CH CH, Z = CH3CHO
39. Benzoyl chloride on reduction with H2/Pd-BaSO4
produces (4) X = CH3COCl3 Y = CH2=CH2, Z = CH3CHO

(1) benzoic acid 44. An organic compound of molecular formula

C3H6O did not give a silver mirror with Tollens’
(2) benzyl alcohol reagent but give an oxime with hydroxylamine.
It may be :
(3) benzoyl sulphate
(1) CH2 = CH – CH2 – OH
(4) benzaldehyde
(2) CH3COCH3
40. Match the reagents in column I with products
formed by reactions with acetone in column II (3) CH3CH2CHO
and mark the appropriate choice :
(4) CH2 = CH – OCH3
Column I Column II 45. Which of the following compounds will give a
(a) Hydrazine (i) (CH3)2C=NNHCONH2 coloured crystalline compound with

(b) Semicarbazide (ii) (CH3)2C=NOH NHNH2

(c) Phenylhydrazine (iii) (CH3)2C=NNH2 NO2

(d) Hydroxylamine (iv) (CH3)2C=NNHC6H5 O2N

(1) (a)  (i), (b)  (ii), (c)  (iii), (d)  (iv) (1) CH3COCl
(2) (a)  (iv), (b)  (iii), (c)  (ii), (d)  (i) (2) CH3COOC2H5
(3) CH3COCH3
(3) (a)  (iii), (b)  (i), (c)  (iv), (d)  (ii)
(4) CH3CONH2
(4) (a)  (ii), (b)  (iv), (c)  (i), (d)  (iii)
46. Aldehydes that do not undergo aldol
41. What is the test to differentiate between pentan- condensation are :
2-one and pentan-3-one :
(a) propanal
(1) Iodoform test
(b) trichloroethanal
(2) Benedict’s test
(c) 2-phenylethanal
(3) Fehling’s test
(d) ethanal
(4) Aldol condensation
(e) Benzaldehyde
42. In the following sequence of reaction, the final
product (Z) is : (1) c and d only
2
Hg
CH  CH  CH3MgX
 X 
  Y 
[O]
Z (2) b and e only
H2SO4 H2O

(3) a, b and c only

(1) ethanal (2) propan-2-ol

(3) propanone (4) propan-1-ol (4) b, c and e only

 PART-2 : SECTION-A
47. Identify D in the given sequence of reaction :
Attempt All 35 Questions

NH2 51. The reaction,

CHCl3 HO
A 2
+ B +HCOOH CH3
KOH (alc) H
Heated
CH3 CH CH2 O CH2 CH3 HI
NaNO2/HCl H2O
B C +
D Which of the following compounds will be formed:
o
0-5 C H
CH 3

CHO (1) CH3 CH CH2 I CH3CH2 OH

(1) (2)
(2) CH3 CH CH3 CH3CH2OH
CH3
OH COOH
(3) (4) (3) CH3 CH CH2OH CH3CH3
CH3

48. In the Cannizzaro reaction given below : CH 3

OH (4) CH3 CH CH2 OH CH3 CH2 I

2Ph - CHO PhCH2OH + PhCOO

the slowest step is : 52. The alkyl halide which does not give white
precipitate with alcoholic AgNO3 solution is
(1) The attack of OH– at the carbonyl group
(2) The transfer of hydride ion to the carbonyl group (1) Ethyl chloride

(3) The abstraction of proton from carboxylic acid (2) Allyl chloride

(4) The deprotonation of PhCH2OH (3) Isopropyl chloride

49. The order of reactivity of phenyl magnesium (4) Vinyl chloride
bromide (PhMgBr) with the following compounds
is : 53. On oxidation with a mild oxidising agent like Br2/
H2O, the glucose is oxidised to :
CH3 CH3 Ph
C=O, C=O and C=O (1) saccharic acid
H CH3 Ph
I II III (2) glucaric acid

(3) gluconic acid

(1) III > II > I
(4) valeric acid
(2) II > I > III

(3) I > III > II 54. Which of the following reactions does not occur :

(4) I > II > III.

50. When CH3MgI is made to react with acetone and

(1) 
formed product is hydrolised we get :

(1) Primary alcohol

(2) Secondary alcohol

(2)
(3) tertiary alcohol 

(4) an aldehyde
 58. CH3CH2Cl X Y Z

Z in the above reaction is :

(3)

(1) CH3CH2CH2NHCOCH3

C(CH 3)3 COOH (2) CH3CH2CH2NH2

KMnO 4/KOH
(4) (3) CH3CH2CH2CONHCH3


(4) CH3CH2CH2CONHCOCH3
55. In a set of the given reactions, acetic acid yielded
a product C. 59. An alkene CH3CH = CH2 is treated with B2H6 in
C 2 H5 MgBr presence of H2O2. The final product formed is :
CH3COOH + PCl5  A B ether
C
(1) CH3CH2CHO
Product C would be :
(2) CH3CH (OH)CH3
(1) CH3CH(OH)C2H5
(3) CH3CH2CH2OH
(2) CH3COC6H5
(3) CH3CH(OH)C6H5 (4) (CH3CH2CH2)3B

60. A primary alcohol, C3H8O (A) on heating with

sulphuric acid undergo dehydration to give an
(4)
alkene, B. B when reacted with HCl gave C,
56. The order of Kb value of amines in gaseous state which on treatment with aqueous KOH gives
is: compound D(C3H8O). A and D are :

(1) 3o > 2o > 1o > NH3 (1) functional isomers

(2) 1o > 2o > 3o > NH3 (2) position isomers

(3) NH3 > 1o > 2o > 3o (3) chain isomers

(4) NH3 > 3o > 2o > 1o (4) stereo isomers

61. In 1887, Davy medal was awarded to ............. by
Royal Society, London.

(1) Dobereiner
57. A
(2) Newman

Product would be : (3) Newlands

(4) Mendeleev

62. What would be the IUPAC name and symbol for

(1) (2) the element with atomic number 120 :
(1) Undinilium – Udn
(2) Onebinilium – Obn
(3) Unbinilium – Ubn
(4) Unbizeronium – Ubz
63. Inner transition series of lanthanoids belongs to :
(3) (4)
(1) 4th period (2) 5th period
(3) 6th period (4) 7th period
64. Which of the following is correct for actinoids :
69. Assertion : Radius of an atom is always larger
(1) Actinoids are after At. No. 89 upto At. No. 103 than its cation.

(2) These belong to 7th period Reason : Radius of cation and anion of an atom
are same.
(3) 5f subshell is the main for receiving the last electron
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and
(4) All are correct Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion
(A).
65. Which of the following is correct w.r.t. eg H :
(1) Cl > F > Br > I (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and
Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
(2) S > Se > Te > O Assertion (A).
(3) Both 1 and 2
(3) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(4) None is correct
(4) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
66. Match the facts given in column I with those given
in colunn II and select the correct option : 70. Which of the following is the second most
Column I Column II electronegative element :

p. Alkali metals i. p-Block (1) Chlorine

q. Transition metals ii. f-Block (2) Oxygen
r. Metalloids iii. d-Block
(3) Sulphur
s. Lanthanoids iv. s-Block
(4) Fluorine
(1) p-i, q-iii, r-iv, s-ii
(2) p-ii, q-iii, r-iv, s-i 71. The electronegativity of the following elements
increases in the order :
(3) p-iv, q-iii, r-i, s-ii
(1) C, N, Si, P
(4) p-iv, q-i, r-iii, s-ii
67. Column I Column II (2) N, Si, C, P

p. XX’ i. T-shape (3) Si, P, C, N

q. XX’3 ii. Pentagonal- (4) P, Si, N, C
bipyramidal
r. XX’5 iii. Linear 72. Which of the following is not showing the
formation of sigma bond :
s. XX’7 iv. Square pyramidal
v. Tetrahedral
(1)
(1) p-iii, q-i, r-iv, s-ii
(2) p-v, q-iv, r-iii, s-ii
(2)
(3) p-iv, q-iii, r-ii, s-i
(4) p-iii, q-iv, r-i, s-ii (3)
68. Assertion : IE of B is higher than both Be and C.
Reason : B has p3 electronic configuration in
valence shell.
(4)
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and
Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion
(A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and 73. Which of the following is a case of sp 3
Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of hybridisation :
Assertion (A).
(1) C2H6 (2) C2H4
(3) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(3) C2H2 (4) BeCl2
(4) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are false.
74. Which of the following atom is not involved 80. Given below are two statements :
inhydrogen bonding :
Statement I:
(1) N Debye is unit of dipole moment.
(2) O Statement II :
(3) F NaCl has less lattice enthalpy than KCl.
(4) S In the light of the above statements, choose the
75. Which of the following has zero resultant dipole most appropriate answer from the options given
moment : below :

(1) BeCl2 (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(2) BCl3
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) CCl4
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) All of these
81. Correct sequence of increasing covalent
76. The correct order of dipole moments of BCl3, NH3 character is represented by :
and NF3 is :
(1) LiCl, NaCl, BeCl2
(1) BCl3 > NH3 > NF3
(2) BeCl2, NaCl, LiCl
(2) NH3 > NF3 > BCl3
(3) NaCl, LiCl, BeCl2
(3) NF3 > NH3 > BCl3
(4) BeCl2, LiCl, NaCl
(4) NF3 > BCl3 > NH3
82. Which of the following has trigonal planar
77. The types of hybrid orbitals of nitrogen in NO2+, geometry :
NO3– and NH4+ respectively are expected to be :
(1) IF3
(1) sp, sp3 and sp2
(2) PCl3
(2) sp, sp2 and sp3
(3) NH3
(3) sp2, sp and sp3
(4) BF3
(4) sp2, sp3 and sp
83. The number of sigma () and pi() bonds present
78. In which of the following substances will in benzene respectively are :
hydrogen bond be strongest :
(1) HCl (1) 12, 6

(2) H2O (2) 6, 6

(3) HI (3) 6, 12
(4) H2S (4) 12, 3
79. Given below are two statements : 84. The correct order of bond angles in the following
tri-atomic species is :
Statement I:
(1) NO2+ < NO2 < NO2–
Bond order of H2 is 1.
(2) NO2+ < NO2– < NO2
Statement II :
(3) NO2– < NO2+ < NO2
Bond order of He2 is zero.
(4) NO2– < NO2 < NO2+
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given 85. In which of the following pairs, both molecules
below : possess dipole moment :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (1) H2O, SO2
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) CO2, CS2
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) CO2, SO2
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (4) BCl3, PCl3
 PART-2 : SECTION-B
92. The aquesous solution of Zn2+ reacts with NaOH,
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate the white precipitate forms which dissolves the
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of excess of NaOH. In the solution Zn exists in
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts (1) Cationic part
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
(2) Anionic part
questions will be considered for marking.
(3) There is no zinc in solution
86. Which of the following is a polar molecule :
(4) It exists in both the parts
(1) SiF4
93. The magnetic moment of [Fe(CN) 6 ] 4– and
(2) SF4 [Fe(H2O)6]2+ respectely are :
(3) XeF4
(1) 24, Zero
(4) BF4–
(2) 24, 24
87. The correct bond order in the following species
is : (3) Zero, 24
2+ +
(1) O2 < O2 < O2
(4) Zero, Zero
(2) O2+ < O2– < O22+
94. Out of CrO42–, MnO4–, MnO4–2 isostructural are
– + 2+
(3) O2 < O2 < O2
(1) CrO42–
2+ + –
(4) O2 < O2 < O2
(2) MnO4–
88. Which fo the following does not have tetrahedral
geometry : (3) MnO4–2

(1) BF4– (4) All of these

(2) XeF4 95. Which of the following is most basic?

(3) CH4 (1) CrO3 (2) CrO

(4) NH4– (3) Cr2O3 (4) Mn2O7
89. The species having bond angles at 1200 is : 96. Which of the following ion is diamagnetic?
(1) ClF3 (1) Cu+2
(2) NCl3
(2) Hg2+2
(3) BCl3
(3) Fe3+
(4) PH3
(4) None of these
90. Which of the following pair of compounds is
isostructural and isoelectronic : 97. Which of the following can not exist together in
aqueous solution?
(1) Tel2, XeF2
(1) HgCl2 and SnCl2
(2) IF2–, XeF2
(3) IF3, XeF2 (2) HgCl2 and SnCl4

(4) BeCl2, XeF2 (3) SnCl4 and FeCl3

91. The mixture of concentrated HCl and HNO 3 (4) SnCl4 and PbCl4
made in 3 : 1 ratio contains ........... active 98. Two metal ion Cu+2 and V+4 of transition metal
species :
possess same colour because
(1) ClO2
(1) Both have same size
(2) NOCl
(2) Both belong with same 3d series
(3) NCl3
(3) Both ion have same no. of unpaired e–
(4) N2O4
(4) Both ion can vary its oxidation state
99. Which of the following is coloured?

(1) [Sc(H2O)6]3+ (2) [Ti(H2O)6]3+

(3) ScCl3 (4) TiCl4 PART-3 : SECTION-A

100. The purple colour of KMnO4 is due to Attempt All 35 Questions

(1) Incomplete d-subshell 101. A substance is found to have a magnetic moment

of 3.9 B.M. The ion may be
(2) Ionic nature of KMnO4
(1) Fe+3
(3) Charge transfer
(2) Mn+2
(4) Resonance in MnO4– ion
(3) Co+2
(4) Cu+2
102. In which case there is change in oxidation
number?
(1) Aq. solution of CrO42– is acidified
(2) SO2 gas is passed into Cr2O72–/H+
(3) Cr2O72– solution is made alkaline
(4) None of these

103. Which actinoid does not show common and

variable oxidation state :

(1) U

(2) Th

(3) Np

(4) Pu

104. Ferrates (VI) are formed in alkaline media but

readily decomposes to -

(1) Fe3O4 + O2

(2) Fe2O3 + FeO

(3) Fe2O3 + O2

(4) FeO + O2
105. The member of first transition series which does 111. Ag2S is soluble in NaCN due to formation of
not show common (II) and variable oxidation
state : (1) Na[Ag(CN)2]
(1) Zn (2) Ag(CN)2
(2) Cu (3) Na2Ag(CN)3
(3) Sc (4) Na2[Ag(CN)2]
(4) Both 1 and 3 112. In the complex [Pt(Py)4] [PtCl4], the oxidation
number of Pt atom in former and later part of
106. Cr2O 7 2  
pH  x 2
 CrO 4 pH  y 2
 Cr2O 7 . the compound are respectively
pH values x and y can be (1) 0 and 0 (2) +4 and +2
(1) 4 and 5 (3) +2 and +2 (4) 0 and +4
(2) 4 and 8
113. In which of following pairs of species the
(3) 8 and 4 number of unpaired electrons are same ?
(4) 8 and 9
(1) [CoF6]3–, [FeF6]3–
107. When excess of KCN is added to a solution of
CuSO4, the final product obtained is, (2) [Fe(CN)6]3–, [Fe(CN)6]4–
(1) K2[Cu(CN)4] (3) [Fe(CN)6]3–, [Ni(CN)4]2–
(2) K3[Cu(CN)4]
(4) [CoF6]3–, [Fe(H2O)6]2+
(3) CuCN
114. Which of the following hybrid state is associated
(4) K[Cu(CN)2] with low spin octahedral complex ?
108. Amongst Ni(CO)4, [Ni(CN)4]2– and [NiCl4]2–
(1) sp3
(1) Ni(CO) 4 and (NiCl 4 ) 2– are diamagnetic and
(2) sp3d2
[Ni(CN)4]2– is paramagnetic
(3) d2sp3
(2) [NiCl4]2– and [NI(CN) 4]2– are diamagnetic and
Ni(CO)4 is paramagnetic (4) sp3d

(3) Ni(CO)4 and [Ni(CN) 4]2– are diamagnetic and 115. Hydrazine act as :
[NiCl4]2– is paramagnetic (1) Monodentate

(4) Ni(CO)4 is diamagnetic, [NICl4]2– and [Ni(CN)4]2– (2) Bidentate

are paramagnetic
(3) Polydentate
109. Both [Ni(CO)4] and [Ni(CN)4 ]2– are diamagnetic.
(4) Cheleting ligands
The hybridisations of nickel in these complexes,
respectively, are 116. Give the correct increasing order of electrical
(1) sp3, sp3 conductivity of aqueous solution of following
(2) sp3, dsp2 complex entities
(3) dsp2, sp3 (i) [Pt(NH3)6]Cl4 (ii) [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3
(4) dsp2, dsp2
(iii) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl (iv) K2[PtCl6]
110. Which of the following is organometallic
compound ? (1) (iii) < (iv) < (ii) < (i)

(1) Ti(C2H4)4 (2) (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i)
(2) Ti(OC2H5)4 (3) (ii) < (i) < (iv) < (iii)
(3) Ti(OCOCH3)4
(4) (i) < (ii) < (iv) < (iii)
(4) Ti(OC6H5)4
117. Match the following : 121. A gas is found to contain 2.34 g of Nitrogen and
(a) [Cr(H2O)6]+3 (i) t22g ego 5.34 g of oxygen. Simplest formula of the
compound is:
(b) [Fe(H2O)6]+3 (ii) t32g ego
(1) N2O
(c) [Ni(H2O)6] +2
(iii)t 3
2g
eg 2
(2) NO
(3) N2O3
(d) [V(H2O)6]+3 (iv)t62g eg2
(4) NO2
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
122. In the reaction N2 + 3H2  2NH3, ratio by volume
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) of N2, H2 and NH3 is 1 : 3 : 2. This illustrates law of:
(1) Definite proportion
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(2) Multiple proportion
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(3) Law of conservation of mass
118. Which of the following is correct? (4) Gaseous volumes

(1) [NiCl4]2– – diamagnetic 123. Two flasks A & B of equal capacity of volume
contain NH 3 and SO 2 gas respectively under
[Ni(CO)4] – diamagnetic similar conditions. Which flask has more number
of moles:
(2) [Ni(CO)4] – diamagnetic
(1) A
[NiCl4]2– – paramagnetic (2) B

(3) [NiCl4]2– – paramagnetic (3) Both have same moles

(4) None
[Ni(CO)4] – paramagnetic
124. Potential energy in second orbit of He+ is –27.2
(4) [NiCl4]2– – paramagnetic eV then calculate, double of total energy in first
excited state of Hydrogen atom:
[Ni(CO)4] – diamagnetic
(1) – 13.6 eV
119. Which of the following compound in 3d series
(2) – 54.4 eV
does not show +3 oxidation state?
(3) – 6.8 eV
(1) V (2) Cr
(4) – 27.2 eV
(3) Mn (4) Cu 125. The ionisation energy for the H atom is 13.6 eV,
then the required energy in eV to excite it from
120. Match the following and select the correct option. the ground state to next higher state will be: (in
eV)
List I List II
(1) 3.4
a. Mn2+ (i) 3d3 4s1
(2) 10.2
b. V + (ii) 3d5 4s0 (3) 12.1

c. Cr+ (iii)3d6 4s0 (4) 1.5

126. The ratio of potential energy and total energy of
d. Fe2+ (iv)3d4 4s1 an electron in a Bohr orbit of hydrogen like
species is:
(1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(1) 2
(2) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)
(2) –2
(3) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iii) (3) 1

(4) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(iv) (4) –1

 Kp
127. In H–atom, electron transits from 6th orbit to 2nd 133. log + log RT = 0 is true relationship for which
orbit in multi-step. Then total spectral lines Kc
(without Balmer series) will be: of the following reaction?
(1) 6 (1) PCl5(g) 

 PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)


(2) 10
(2) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 

 2SO3(g)


(3) 4
(3) N2(g) + 3H2(g)  
 2NH3(g)


(4) 0
(4) (2) and (3) both
128. In Phosphorus atom find out the no. of paired
electrons for l = 1 and m = 0: 134. For the reaction C(s) + CO2(g) 
 2CO(g) the


(1) 3 partial pressure of CO and CO2 are 2.0 and 4.0
atm. respectively at equilibrium. The KP for the
(2) 1 reaction is
(3) 2 (1) 0.5

(4) 0 (2) 4.0

129. In an atom, for how many electrons, the quantum (3) 8.0
1 (4) 1
numbers will be, n = 3, l = 2, m = + 2, s = + :
2 135. The equilibrium constant for the reaction
(1) 18 Br2  –10

 2Br at 500 K and 700 K are 1 × 10
(2) 6 and 1 × 10–5 respectively. The reaction is:
(1) Endothermic
(3) 24
(2) Exothermic
(4) 1
(3) Fast
130. Sum of the paired electrons present in the orbital (4) Slow
with l = 2 in all the species Fe2+, Co2+ and Ni+2are:
PART-3 : SECTION-B
(1) 9
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
(2) 12 can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
(3) 6 these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
(4) 15 questions will be considered for marking.

131. Which orbital has two angular nodal planes: 136. For a reaction N2 + 3H2 

 2NH3, the value of


KC does not depends upon:
(1) s

(2) p (a) Initial concentration of the reactants

(3) d (b) Pressure

(4) f (c) Temperature

132. In an atom having 2K, 8L, 8M and 2N electrons, (d) Catalyst

the number of electrons with m = 0; S = +1/2 are
(1) Only c
(1) 6
(2) a, b, c
(2) 2
(3) a, b, d
(3) 8
(4) a, b, c, d
(4) 16
137. PCl5 (g) 
 PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)

 143. If it is known that H2S is a weak acid and it is
ionised into 2H+ and S–2. Then in this solution HCl
In above reaction, at equilibrium condition mole
fraction of PCl5 is 0.4 and mole fraction of Cl2 is is added so, pH becomes less, then what will
0.3. Then find out mole fraction of PCl3 happen:
(1) Decrease in S–2 ion concentration
(1) 0.3
(2) Concentration of S–2 is not affected
(2) 0.7
(3) Increase in S–2 ion concentration
(3) 0.4
(4) It is not possible, to add HCl in solution
(4) 0.6 144. What will be the pH of 1.0 M ammonium formate
138. A reaction in equilibrium is represented by the solution, If Ka=1 × 10–4 acid Kb =1× 10–5:
following equation – 2A(s) + 3B(g) 
 3C(g) + (1) 6.5
D(g) + Q if the pressure on the system is reduced
to half of its original value: (2) 7.5

(1) The amounts of C and D decreases (3) 8.0

(2) The amounts of C and D increases (4) 9.0

(3) The amount of D decreases 145. The highest pH value is of:

(4) All the amounts remain constant (1) 0.1 M NaCl

139. In which of the following equilibrium reactions, (2) 0.1 M NH4Cl

the equilibrium would shift to right side, if total (3) 0.1 M CH3COONa
pressure is decreased:
(4) 0.1 M CH3COONH4
(1) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 
 2NH3(g)

 146. Solubility product of Mg(OH)2 is 1 × 10–11. At what
(2) H2(g) + I2(g)  pH, precipitation of Mg(OH)2 will begin from 0.1 M
 2HI(g)


Mg2+ solution:
(3) N2O4(g) 
 2NO2(g)

 (1) 9
(4) H2(g) + Cl2(g) 
 2HCl(g)

 (2) 5
140. Find out pH of solution having 2 × 10–3 moles of (3) 3
OH– ions in 2 litre solution:
(4) 7
(1) pH = 3
147. When a gas is compressed adiabatically and
(2) pH = 3 + log2
reversibly, the final temperature is-
(3) pH = 3 – log2
(1) Higher than the initial temperature
(4) pH = 11
(2) Lower than the initial temperature
141. The degree of dissociation of acetic acid is given
by the expression  = 0.1 × C –1 (where C = (3) The same as initial temperature
concentration of the acid) What is the pH of the
(4) Dependent upon the rate of compression
solution :-
(1) 1 (2) 2 148. The work done by a system is 8J when 40J heat is
supplied to it. The change in internal energy of
(3) 3 (4) 4
the system during the process :
142. The common ion effect is shown by which of the
following sets of solutions: (1) 32 J
(1) BaCl2 + Ba(NO3)2 (2) 40 J
(2) NaCl + HCl
(3) 48 J
(3) NH4OH + NH4Cl
(4) –32 J
(4) None
149. One mole of a gas occupying 3 dm3 expands 155. Among the following, that does not form an ideal
solution is:
against a constant external pressure of 1 atm to a
volume of 13 litre. Find work :– (1) C6H6 and C6H5CH3
(1) – 10 atm dm3 (2) C2H5Cl and C6H5OH
(2) – 20 atm dm3 (3) C6H5Cl and C6H5Br

(3) – 39 atm dm3 (4) C2H5Br and C2H5I

(4) – 48 atm dm3 156. The vapour pressure of a dilute aqueous solution
of Glucose is 750 mm Hg at 373 K. The mole
150. In which of the following process work is fraction of solute is:
independent of path :
1 76
(1) Isothermal (1) (2)
75 75
(2) Isochoric
75 1
(3) Adiabatic (3) (4)
76 76
(4) Isobaric
157. The vapour pressure of pure A is 10 torr. At the
PART-4 : SECTION-A same temperature, when 1 g of B is dissolved in
Attempt All 35 Questions 20 gm of A, its vapour pressure is reduced to 9.0
torr. If the molecular mass of A is 200 amu, then
151. If 900 J/g of heat is exchanged at boiling point of the molecular mass of B is:
water, then what is increase in entropy?
(1) 100 amu
(1) 43.4 JK–1mole–1
(2) 90 amu
(2) 87.2 JK–1mole–1 (3) 75 amu
(3) 900 JK–1mole–1 (4) 120 amu
(4) Zero 158. An aqueous solution containing 1g of urea boils
at 100.25 °C. The aqueous solution containing 3g
152. 5 mole of an ideal gas expand reversibly from a
of glucose in the same volume will boil at -
volume of 8 dm3 to 80dm3 at a temperature of
27°C. The change in entropy is :– (1) 100.75 °C

(1) 41.57 JK–1 (2) 100.5 °C

(3) 100 °C
(2) – 95.73 JK–1
(4) 100.25 °C
(3) 95.73 JK–1
159. The osmotic pressure of a solution increases if:
(4) – 41.57 JK–1
(1) Temperature is lowered
153. Which of the following values of heat of formation
indicates that the product is least stable (2) Volume is increased
(1) – 94 kCal (3) Number of solute molecules is increased
(2) – 231.6 kCal
(4) None
(3) + 21.4 kCal
160. Equal volume of 0.1 M urea and 0.1 M glucose are
(4) + 64.8 kCal
mixed. The mixture will have:
154. The enthalpies of combustion of carbon and
carbon monoxide are –393.5 kJ and –283 kJ, (1) Lower osmotic pressure
respectively the enthalpy of formation of carbon (2) Same osmotic pressure
monoxide is :
(3) Higher osmotic pressure
(1) –676.5 kJ (2) –110.5 kJ
(4) None of these
(3) 110.5 kJ (4) 676.5 kJ
161. Osmotic pressure of 0.585% w/v NaCl solution at 167. A standard hydrogen electrode has zero electrode
27°C is: potential because :
(1) 2.49 atm (1) Hydrogen is easiest to oxidize.
(2) 4.92 atm (2) This electrode potential is assumed to be zero.
(3) 1.2 atm (3) Hydrogen atom has only one electron.
(4) 3.8 atm (4) Hydrogen is the lightest element.
162. A 5.8% (wt./vol.) NaCl solution will exert an 168. Which of the following statements is correct :–
osmotic pressure closest to which one of the
(1) Oxidation occurs at anode in both galvanic and
following:
electrolytic cell.
(1) 5.8% (wt./vol) sucrose solution
(2) Reduction occurs at anode in both galvanic and
(2) 5.8% (wt./vol) glucose solution electrolytic cell
(3) 2 M sucrose solution (3) Reduction occurs at anode in electrolytic cell where
as oxidation occurs at cathode in galvanic cell
(4) 1 M glucose solution
(4) Oxidation occurs at anode in electrolytic cell where
163. Which solution will have least vapour pressure:
as reduction occurs at anode in a galvanic cell
(1) 0.1 M BaCl2
169. The electrode potential of a hydrogen electrode
(2) 0.1 M urea dipped in solution of pH = 1 is
(3) 0.1 M Na2SO4 (1) 0.059 V
(4) 0.1 M Na3PO4 (2) 0.00 V
164. Which of the following solutions of KCl has the
(3) –0.059 V
lowest value of equivalent conductance ?
(4) 0.59 V
(1) 1 M
170. Electrolysis of aq. CuSO4 causes :–
(2) 0.1 M
(1) An increase in pH
(3) 0.01 M
(2) A decrease in pH
(4) 0.001 M
(3) Either decrease or increase in pH
165. In the galvanic cell
(4) None
Cu(s) |Cu2+ (1 M) || Ag+ (1 M) | Ag(s) the electrons
will travel in the external circuit : 171. For gaseous reaction, rate = k [A] [B]. If volume of
container is reduced to 1/4 of initial, then the rate
(1) from Ag to Cu. of the reaction will be....... times of initial
(2) from Cu to Ag. (1) 1/8
(3) electrons do not travel in the external circuit. (2) 8

(4) in any direction. (3) 1/16

166. The direction of current in the Daniell cell when (4) 16

Zn and Cu electrodes are connected is : 172. For the reaction A + B  products, it is found that
the order of A is 1 and the order of B is1/2.
(1) from Cu to Zn in the cell.
When the concentration of both A and B are
(2) from Cu to Zn out side the cell. increased four times, the rate will increase by a
factor of :
(3) from Zn to Cu outside the cell.
(1) 16 (2) 8
(4) in any direction in the cell.
(3) 6 (4) 4
173. In a first order reaction the concentration of the 179. The number of mole of oxalate ions oxidised by
reactant is decreased from 1.0 M to 0.25 M in 20 one mole of MnO4– is :
min. The rate constant of the reaction would be– (1) 1/5
(1) 10 min–1 (2) 2/5

(2) 6.931 min–1 (3) 5/2

(3) 0.6931 min–1 (4) 5

(4) 0.06931 min–1 180. The number of electrons required to balance the
following equation are:
174. 99 % of a first order reaction was completed in 32
NO3– + 4H+  2H2O + NO
min. when will 99.9 % of the reaction complete?
(1) 2 on right side
(1) 50 min.
(2) 3 on left side
(2) 46 min.
(3) 3 on right side
(3) 49 min.
(4) 5 on left side
(4) 48 min.
181. Nessler’s reagent is :
175. Doubling the initial concentration of a reactant (1) K2HgI4
doubles t½ of the reaction, then order of the
reaction is– (2) K2HgI4 + KOH

(1) 3 (3) K2HgI2 + KOH

(2) 2 (4) K2HgI4 + KI

(3) 1 182. When H2S gas passed through ammonical salt

solution X, a slightly white precipitate is formed.
(4) 0 The X can be :
176. Which is incorrect: (1) Cobalt salt (2) Lead salt
(1) Half-life of a first order reaction is independent of (3) Zinc salt (4) Silver salt
initial concentration 183. Which give precipitate with Pb(NO3)2 but not with
(2) Rate of reaction is constant for first order reaction Ba(NO3)2 :
(1) Sodium chloride
(3) Unit of K for second order reaction is mol–1 L s–1
(2) Sodium acetate
(4) Half-life of zero order is proportional to initial
concentration (3) Sodium nitrate

177. An endothermic reaction A  B have an (4) Disodium hydrogen phosphate

activation energy 15 kCal/mol and the heat of the 184. Given below are two statements :
reaction is 5 k cal/mol. The activation energy of Statement I:
the reaction B  A is –
Addition of NH4OH to an aqueous solution of BaCl2
(1) 20 kCal/mol
in presence of NH4Cl (excess) precipitates Ba(OH)2
(2) 15 kCal/mol
Statement II :
(3) 10 kCal/mol
Ba(OH)2 is water soluble
(4) Zero
In the light of the above statements, choose the
178. An exothermic reaction X  Y has an activation
most appropriate answer from the options given
energy 30 kJ mol–1. If energy change (H) during
the reaction is – 20 kJ, then the activation energy below :
for the reverse reaction is: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(1) 10 kJ
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(2) 20 kJ
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) 50 kJ
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) – 30 kJ
185. Which of following combins with Fe(II) ions to form
191. During halogen test, sodium fusion extract is
brown complex :
boiled with concentrate HNO3 to :
(1) N2O (2) NO (1) Remove unreacted sodium

(3) N2O3 (4) N2O4 (2) Decompose cyanide or sulphide of sodium

PART-4 : SECTION-B (3) Extract halogen from organic compound

This section will have 15 questions. Candidate (4) Maintain pH of extract.

can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of 192. (NH4)2Cr2O7 on heating gives a gas, which is also
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts given by :
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
questions will be considered for marking. (1) Heating NH4NO2

186. When NH4Cl is added to a solution of NH4OH : (2) Heating NH4NO3

(1) Dissociation of NH4OH increases (3) Mg3N2+H2O

(2) Concentration of OH– increases (4) Na(Comp) + H2O2

(3) Concentration of both OH– and NH4+ increases 193. Given below are two statements :

(4) Concentration of OH– ion decreases Statement I:

187. Which of following ion does not give borax bead Sulphate is estimated as BaSO4, not as MgSO4.
test : Statement II :

(1) Cr3+ Ionic radius of Mg2+ is smallar than that of Ba+2.

(2) Cu2+ In the light of the above statements, choose the

most appropriate answer from the options given
(3) Mn2+ below :

(4) Zn2+ (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

188. Which is correct : (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(1) AgCl(5) + Na3AsO3 Colourless solution (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(2) FeCl3(aq) + K4[Fe(CN)6  Brown ppt (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(3) FeCl3(aq) + K4[Fe(CN)6  Blue Colouration 194. Hinsberg reagent is:

(4) CuSO4 (aq) + KCN (Excess)  Blue colouration (1) SOCl2 (2) C6H5COCl
189. When HNO3 is added to sodium ferrocyanide, (3) C6H5SO2Cl (4) (COCl)2
which of the following observation is observed :
+ –
(1) NaFe[Fe(CN)6] formed N2Cl NH2
195. + (A)
(2) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 formed Dye
(3) Na3[Fe(CN)6]2 formed
Colour of compound (A) is :
+
(4) Na2[Fe(CN)5(NO) ] formed
(1) Red
190. The pair(s) of ions where both the ions are
precipitates upon passing H2S gas in presence of (2) Orange
dil HCl is : (3) Yellow
2+ 2+ 3+ 3+
(1) Ba , Zn (2) Bi , Fe (4) None
+2 2+
(3) Cu , Pb (4) None
196. When acetaldehyde is treated with fehling 191. (2) [Practical Chemistry]
solution it gives ppt of :
Decompose cyanide or sulphide of sodium
(1) Cu (2) CuO

(3) Cu2O (4) CuO

197. Which of the following compound give all the

three tests given below :

Test Inference
193. (4) [Practical Chemistry]
(A) Dil HCl Insoluble
Statement I:
(B) NaOH(aq) Soluble Sulphate is estimated as BaSO4, not as MgSO4.
(C) Br2/H2O Decolourisation Statement II :
Ionic radius of Mg2+ is smallar than that of Ba+2.
OH
NH2 194. (3) [Practical Chemistry]
(1) (2)
Hinsberg reagent isC6H5SO2Cl.
195. (3) [Practical Chemistry]
NH2 OH
+ –
(3) (4) N2Cl NH2
+ –N=N– –NH2

p-Amino azobenzene
198. Which one of following phenol does not give yellow
colour when condensed with phthalic anhyride
in presence of Conc. H2SO4 : 196. (3) [Practical Chemistry]
When acetaldehyde is treated with fehling solution
OH it gives ppt of Cu2O.
197. (2) [Practical Chemistry]
OH
(1) (2) OH
CH3

198. (2) [Practical Chemistry]

OH OH
OH OH
(3) (4)
OH

199. Lassaigne test is used to detect CH3

(1) N (2) S 199. (4) [Practical Chemistry]

Lassaigne test is used to detect N, S, X2.
(3) X2 (4) All
200. (2) [Practical Chemistry]
200. Na2S + (CH3COO)2 Pb  (A) + (B) Na2S + (CH3COO)2 Pb  PbS + Soluble salt

(ppt) Soluble salt (Black ppt)

For the above detection reaction, which is correct

for (A), and it colour :

(1) PbSO4, (black) (2) PbS, (black)

(3) CH3COONa, (Black) (4) PbO2, (blue)

 14. (2) [NCERT-XI-II-301]
H2
PART-1 : SECTION-A 15. (2) [NCERT-XI-II-302]

1. (3) [NCERT-XI-269] large surface area

2. (3) [NCERT-XI-267] 16. (4) [NCERT-XI-II-304]
O CH3 CO and H2
1’
CH3CH2 – C – O – CH 17. (3) [NCERT-XI-II-323]
3 2 1
CH3
OH
(1-methylethyl) propanoate
isopropyl propanoate
3. (1) [NCERT-XI-261]
18. (1) [NCERT-XI-II-257]
4. (4) [NCERT-XI-285]
The compound formed in the positive test for nitro- 14, 4
gen with Lassigne solution of an organic compound 19. (4) [NCERT-XI-II-316]
is Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3.
• Colourless
5. (2) [NCERT-XI-285]
Violet colour of Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS] • Weakly polar
6. (2) [NCERT-XI-268] • Characteristic smell
Paper chromatography is a type of Partition
chromatography 20. (4) [NCERT-XI-II-321]
7. (3) [NCERT-XI-II-270]
O O
CH3–CH2 –C & CH3 – CH – C – H are
NH2 NH2 21. (3) [NCERT-XI-II-324]
functional isomers because functional group is 3H2
change.
8. (3) [NCERT-XI-II-302] 22. (1) [NCERT-XI-II-324]

CH3 CH3 Cl Cl
Br2 Br Cl Cl Cl Cl
UV X= , Y=
(Major) Cl Cl Cl Cl
30 hydrogen substituted firstly. Cl Cl
9. (2) [Mod. NCERT]
23. (4) [NCERT-XI-II-322]
p-iii, q-iv, r-i, s-ii
10. (3) [Mod. NCERT] (1) RCl / AlCl3
(A) is not correct but (R) is correct (2) CH3–CH = CH2 / H2PO4
11. (4) [NCERT-XI-274]
All except –CH3 and –C2H5 (3) RCOCl / AlCl3
12. (3) [Mod. NCERT] 24. (4) [NCERT-XI-II-295]
I > IV > II > III
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
The bond order in ethane (I) is 1, in ethene (II) it is
explanation of (A)
2, in acetylene (III) it is 3 while due to the resonance
the bond order in benzene (IV) is 1.5. Since the 25. (4) [NCERT-XI-II-325]
bond length decreases as the bond order increases, (1) –NH2
therefore, the actual order is I > IV > II > III. (2) –NHR
13. (4) [NCERT-XI-II-321] (3) –OCH3
• (4n+2) -electrons.
• delocalised -electrons in alternate single and 26. (1) [NCERT-XI-II-315]
double bond system
• Planar adjustment of C-atom (sp2 hybridised) in
the ring.
27. (1) [NCERT-XI-II-306] 35. (4) [NCERT 323]
Factual =q×l
28. (2) [NCERT-XI-II-302] PART-1 : SECTION-B
Straight chain alkanes have larger surface area 36. (1) [NCERT 300]
and molecular size so strength of vander waal’s
forces of attraction are more than that in branched A is CH3–CH2–Cl
chain alkanes. B is CH3–CH2–MgCl
29. (4) [NCERT-XI-II-304] C is CH3–CH3

Factual 37. (1) [Exemplar]

30. (3) [Mod. NCERT-XI]

Y=
Fumeric acid and maleic acid are geometrical
isomers.
31. (1) [Mod. CBSE] 38. (2) [NCERT 300]
The reaction conditions leading to the best yield of Dargen process is best as side product are
gaseous and escapes.
C2H5Cl are C2H6 (excess)  Cl2 
UV light

39. (4) [NCERT-XII-362]
32. (1) [mod.CBSE-1976]
Cl
O2N NO2 40. (3) [NCERT-XII-368]

NO2
has three-NO2 (nitro groups) which activate the
compound, for nucleophilic sub Rn thus it undergoes
hydrolysis easily to form corresponding hydroxy
derivative.
33. (2) [CBSE-2003]

OH OH
H CHCl2
+ 2NaOH
+ CHCl3 –HCl – 2NaCl

OH
OH
CH 43. (3) [MOD. NEET]
OH
X = CHI3

OH Y = CH  CH
CHO –H2O Z = CH3CHO

44. (2) [NCERT-XII-369,368]

34. (3) [NCERT 314] 45. (3) [NCERT-XII-370]
CH3 CH–Cl CH–OH 46. (2) [NCERT-XII-371,372]
2 2

Cl2 Aq. KOH

The carbonyl commpound must contain an  -
U.V.
Hydrogen atom for it to undergo aldol condensation.
47 (3)
56. (1) [Mod. NEET]
NC NH2
57. (3) [NCERT-XII-402]

A= B= 58. (1) [Mod. NEET]

X = CH3CH2CN

Y = CH3CH2CH2NH2
N=NCl OH
Z = CH3CH2CH2NHCOCH3
C= D=

48. (2) [NCERT 359]

–
In Cannizzaro's reaction, there is H shift in the rate
determining step.
49. (4) [NCERT 358]
Greater the number of alkyl group attached to the
carbonyl group and hence lower will be its reactivity,
i.e., I > II > III.
50. (3) [NCERT 323]

R
R H2O
C  O  RCl  MgI R C  OMgX 
dry ether
 tertiary alcohol
R
R

PART-2 : SECTION-A
51. (4) [CBSE 2007].
when conc. HI or HBr react with ether, the
corresponding alcohol and iodide are formed. When
there is a case of method ethers, the halogen atom
attaches to the smaller alkyl group, due to steric
effect.
CH3
CH3 CH CH2 O CH2 CH3 HI
CH3
CH3 CH CH2 OH CH3CH2I 61. (3) [NCERT-XI-I-75]
In 1887, Davy medal was awarded to Newlands
52. (4) [NCERT 286]
by Royal Society, London.
Due to resonance partial double bond b/w C & Cl.
53. (3) [NCERT-XII-413] 62. (3) [NCERT-XI-I-81]

CH2OH(CHOH)4CHO 
Br2 /H2O
 The IUPAC name and symbol for the element with
[O]
atomic number 120 Unbinilium – Ubn
CH2 OH(CHOH)4 .COOH 63. (3) [NCERT-XI-I-84]
Gluconicacid

54. (4) [NCERT-XII-376] Inner transition series of lanthanoids belongs to

6th period
55. (4) [Mod. NEET]
A = CH3COCl 64. (4) [NCERT-XI-I-84]
B = C6H5COCH3 For actinoids –
CH3 • Actinoids are after At. No. 89 upto At. No. 103
|
C6H5 C C2H5 • These belong to 7th period
C= | • 5f subshell is the main for receiving the last electron
OH
 75. (4) [NCERT-XI-I-111]
65. (3) [NCERT-XI-I-90]
Zero resultant dipole moment –
Correct w.r.t. eg H –
(1) BeCl2
(1) Cl > F > Br > I
(2) BCl3
(2) S > Se > Te > O
(3) CCl4
66. (3) [NCERT-XI-I-82, 84]
76. (2) [NCERT-XI-I-111]
p-iv, q-iii, r-i, s-ii
Alkali metals – s-Block The correct order of dipole moments of BCl3, NH3
and NF3 is NH3 > NF3 > BCl3
Transitio metals – d-Block
77. (2) [NCERT-XI-I]
Metalloids – p-Block
The types of hybrid orbitals of nitrogen in NO2+,
Lanthanoids – f-Block NO3– and NH4+ respectively are expected to be
sp, sp2 and sp3.
67. (1) [NCERT-XI-I-115]
78. (2) [NCERT-XI-I-131]
p-iii, q-i, r-iv, s-ii
Hydrogen bond be strongest –
XX’ – Linear
• H2O
XX’3 – T-shape
79. (4) [NCERT-XI-I-0]
XX’5 – Square pyramidal
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
XX’7 – Pentagonal-bipyramidal
80. (2) [NCERT-XI-I-111, 107]
68. (4) [NCERT-XI-I-89]
81. (3) [NCERT-XI-I-0]
Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Increasing covalent character is represented by –
69. (3) [NCERT-XI-I-87]
NaCl, Licl, BeCl2
Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
82. (4) [NCERT-XI-I-0]
70. (2) [NCERT-XI-I-91]
BF3 has trigonal planar geometry.
Oxygen is the second most electronegative
element. 83. (4) [NCERT-XI-I-0]

71. (3) [NCERT-XI-I-91] The number of sigma () and pi() bonds present
in benzene respectively are 12, 3
Increases order
84. (4) [NCERT-XI-I-0]
Si, P, C, N
The correct order of bond angles in the following
72. (4) [NCERT-XI-I-123] tri-atomic species is
NO2– < NO2 < NO2+
85. (1) [NCERT-XI-I-112]
Both molecules H2O, SO2 possess dipole moment.
PART-2 : SECTION-B

73. (1) [NCERT-XI-I-123] 86. (2) [NCERT-XI-I-112]

C2H6 is a case of sp3 hybridisation. SF4 is a polar molecule.

87. (3) [NCERT-XI-I-130]
74. (4) [NCERT-XI-I-131]
The correct bond order in the species is –
S is not involved inhydrogen bonding.
O2– < O2+ < O22+
88. (2) [NCERT-XI-I-115] 99. (2) [NCERT-XII-I-133]
XeF4 does not have tetrahedral geometry Ti3+ has one electron in the d-orbital (3d 1) which
can absorb energy corresponding to yellow
89. (3) [NCERT-XI-I-114] wavelength and jump from t2g to eg set of d-
orbitals.
The species having bond angles at 1200 is BCl3
100. (3) [NCERT-XII-I-107]
90. (2) [NCERT-XI-I-0]
Mn in MnO 4 is in +7 state with d °
–
Pair of compounds IBr2 , XeF2 are isostructural and configuration. The deep purple colour of KMnO4
isoelectronic. is not due to d-d transition but due to charge
91. (2) [Mod. NCERT] transfer (from O to Mn) reducing the oxidation
state of Mn from +7 to +6 momentarily.
The 3 : 1 mixture of concentrate HCl and
concentrate HNO3 is called aqua regia. PART-3 : SECTION-A
92. (2) [Mod. NCERT] 101. (3) [NCERT-XII-I-102]
ZnO22–
Using the formula, µ  n(n  2) B.M.
93. (3) [NCERT-XII-I-130]
n3
= n(n  2)BM 102. (2) [Mod. NCERT]
94. (4) [Mod. NCERT] When SO2 gas is passed into acidified Cr2O72 ,
All have hybridisation sp3 and so tetrahedral.
SO 2 is oxidised to SO2 2
4 , while Cr2O7 is
3+
reduced to Cr .
95. (2) [NCERT-XII-I-105] 103. (2) [NCERT-XII-I-112]
Lowest oxide of Cr is CrO which is basic. The Th shows only +4 oxidation state.
highest oxide is CrO 3 which is acidic. In
104. (3) [NCERT-XII-I-100]
between, Cr 2 O 3 is amphoteric. Higher the
oxidation state of the metal, more easily it can
accept electrons and hence, greater is the acidic
105. (3) [NCERT-XII-I-96]
character.
Sc show only +3 oxidation state.
96. (2) [NCERT-XII-I-102]
106. (3) [NCERT-XII-I-106]
The electronic configuration of Hg(I), i.e., Hg+ is
[Xe] 4f 145d106s1 and thus has one electron in
Cr2O 27  
pH7
CrO24 
pH7
Cr2O 72
the valence 6s-orbital. If this were so, all basic acidic
medium medium
Hg(I) compounds should be paramagnetic but
actually they are diamagnetic. This behaviour can 107. (2) [PYQ]
be explained if we assume that the singly filled
6s-orbitals of the two Hg+ ions overlap to form a 2Cu 2   2CN  2Cu   (CN)2
Hg-Hg covalent bond. Thus, Hg+ ions exist as Cyanogen

dimeric species, i.e., Hg22 . Cu   CN  CuCN 

97. (1) [Mod. NCERT-XII] CuCN  3KCN  K 3 [Cu(CN) 4 ]
Pot. tetracyanocuprate (I)
SnCl2 is a strong reducing agent and hence, (So lub le complex ).
reduces HgCl2 first to Hg2Cl2 (white) and then to
108. (3) [NCERT-XII-I-130]
Hg (black).
Ni (CO)4  sp3 unpaired electrons = 0
SnCl2  2HgCl2  SnCl4  Hg2Cl2 [Ni(CN)4]–2 dsp2 unpaired electrons = 0
SnCl2  Hg2Cl2  SnCl4  2Hg [NiCl4]–2 sp3 unpaired electrons = 2.
98. (3) [NCERT-XII-I-103]
Both Cu+2 and V+4 have one unpaired e– so
possess same colour.
109. (2) (IIT-JEE-2008)[NCERT-XII-I-128] 122. (4) [NCERT-XI-I-15]
3
[Ni(CO)4] --------- sp hybridization 123. (3) [NCERT-XI-I-15]
–2 2
[Ni(CN)4] --------- dsp hybridization 124. (3) [NCERT-XI-I-47]
110. (1) [NCERT-XII-I-135] PE = 2E
In organo metallic compound there is direct bond
between carbon and metal. z2
27.2  2  E1 
n2
111. (1) [Mod. NCERT]
–13.6 = E1
Ag2 S  NaCN  Na[ Ag(CN)2 ]  Na 2S
112. (3) [NCERT-XII-I-122] 22
13.6  E1 
z2
Py is a neutral ligand and Cl– an anionic ligand
carries one unit negative charge. E1  13.6 eV
113. (4) [NCERT-XII-I-130]
First excited state (n = 2)
[CoF 6 ] 3– ,
[Fe(H 2 O) 6 ] 2+ has four unpaired
electrons. z2
E2  13.6  e.v
114. (3) [NCERT-XII-I-132] n2

In low spin complexes n-1 d orbitals are used. 1

 13.6  e.v
115. (3) [NCERT-XII-I-121] 4
Hydrazine act as monodentate. E2 = –3.4 eV
116. (1) [NCERT-XII-I-119] Double of E2 = 2E2
Correct increasing order of conductivity. = 2 × –3.4 eV
[Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl < K2[PtCl6] < [Cr(NH 3)6]Cl3 < = –6.8 eV
[Pt(NH3)6]Cl4
125. (2) [NCERT-XI-I-47]
117. (1) [NCERT-XII-I-132]
126. (1) [NCERT-XI-I-47]
[Cr(H2O)6]+3 – t32g ego 127. (1) [NCERT-XI-I-46]
+3 3 2
[Fe(H2O)6] – t 2g
eg 128. (3) [NCERT-XI-I-55]
+2 6 2
[Ni(H2O)6] – t 2g
eg 129. (4) [NCERT-XI-I-55]
[V(H2O)6]+3 – t22g ego 130. (2) [NCERT-XI-I-63]
118. (2) [NCERT-XII-I-130] 131. (3) [NCERT-XI-I-59]

119. (4) [NCERT-XII-I-96] 132. (1) [NCERT-XI-I-62]

Cu shows only +1 and +2 oxidation state. 133. (2) [NCERT-XI-I-178]
120. (3) [NCERT-XII-I-99] 134. (4) [NCERT-XI-I-178]
Mn2+ : 3d5 4s0 135. (1) [NCERT-XI-I-181]
+ 3 1
V : 3d 4s PART-3 : SECTION-B
+ 5 0
Cr : 3d 4s
136. (3) [NCERT-XI-I-184]
Fe2+ : 3d6 4s0
137. (1) [NCERT-XI-I-178]
121. (4) [NCERT-XI-I-19]
PCl5 (g) 

 PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)


2.34 0.167
Moles of N   0.167  1 1 0 0
14 0.167
1–  
5.34 0.333 Total moles = 1 –  +  + 
Moles of O   0.333  2
16 0.167 =1+
XPCl = 0.4
5

XCl = 0.3
2
 PART-4 : SECTION-A

 0.3
1  151. (1) [NCERT-XI-I-160]
152. (3) [NCERT-XI-I-160]

So, XPCl3   0.3 153. (4) [NCERT-XI-I-149]
1 
154. (2) [NCERT-XI-I-149]
138. (2) [NCERT-XI-I-187] 155. (2) [NCERT-XII-I-13]
139. (3) [NCERT-XI-I-186] 156. (4) [NCERT-XII-I-10]
Onm adding inert gas at constant value there is Po  Ps
 XB
no change at equilibrium condition. P0
140. (4) [NCERT-XI-I-197] 760  750
 XB
760
141. (1) [NCERT-XI-I-197]
10 1
0.1 XB  
 760 76
C 157. (2) [NCERT-XII-I-16]
 0.1  158. (4) [NCERT-XII-I-17]
[H ]  C  C    0.1
 C  159. (3) [NCERT-XII-I-20]
160. (2) [NCERT-XII-I-20]
pH = –log (0.1) = 1
urea  0.1 RT
142. (3) [NCERT-XI-I-200]
glucos e  0.1 RT
143. (1) [NCERT-XI-I-197]
144. (1) [NCERT-XI-I-199] urea  glucos e
mixture 
2
1
pH  7  (Pka  Pkb )
2 0.1 RT  0.1 RT
  0.1 RT
2
1
pH  7  (4  5) 161. (2) [NCERT-XII-I-21]
2
  iCR T
1
pH  7   6.5 0.585
2   2  0.0821 300
58.5  0.1
145. (3) [NCERT-XI-I-202]
  4.92atm
146. (1) [NCERT-XI-I-204]
162. (3) [NCERT-XII-I-21]
147. (1) [NCERT-XI-I-142]
163. (4) [NCERT-XII-I-15]
148. (1) [NCERT-XI-I-142]
164. (1) [NCERT-XII-I-47]
du = q + w (expansion)
du = q – w 165. (2) [NCERT-XII-I-33]
= 40J – 8J 166. (1) [NCERT-XII-I-34]
= 32 J 167. (2) [NCERT-XII-I-34]
149. (1) [NCERT-XI-I-142] 168. (1) [NCERT-XII-I-33]
W  Pext ( v) 169. (3) [NCERT-XII-I-35]
 1(13  3) Ecell  0.059 pH
 1 10  0.059 1
= –10 atm dm3
 0.059 volt
150. (3) [NCERT-XI-I-138]
170. (2) [NCERT-XII-I-51]
H 171. (4) [NCERT-XII-I-68]
S 
T
r  k [A][B]
H  900 J / g
Volume is reduced to 1/4 of initial
H  900 18 J / mol So, conc.er will be four times
Boiling point of water = 373 K
r   k [4A][4B]
900  18
S   43.4 J / K  mol r   16k [A][B]
373
r   16r
172. (2) [NCERT-XII-I-68] 185. (2) [Practical Chemistry]
2NO3–+4H2SO4 + 6Fe2+ 
173. (4) [NCERT-XII-I-72]
6Fe3+ + 2NO + 4SO42– + 4H2O
2.303 [A] Fe2+ + NO + 5H2O  [Fe(H2O)5 NO]2+
K log 0 Brown ring
t [A]t
PART-4 : SECTION-B
2.303 1 186. (4) [Practical Chemistry]
K log
20 0.25 –
OH decreases due to common ion.
2.303 NH4OH  NH4+ + OH– (Weak base)
K log 4
20 NH4Cl  NH4++Cl– (Strong Electrolyte)
187. (4) [Practical Chemistry]
K  0.06931 min 1
Zn2+ does not give borax bead test
174. (4) [NCERT-XII-I-72]
188. (3) [Practical Chemistry]
175. (4) [NCERT-XII-I-71]
3Ag3AsO3+ 3NaCl.
1 Yellow
t1/ 2 
an1 4FeCl3(aq) + K4[Fe(CN)6]  Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 + 12 KCl
n1 Deep blue
(t1/ 2 )1  a2 
  189. (4) [Practical Chemistry]
(t1/ 2 )2  a1 
Reaction is :
1 Na4[Fe(CN)5] + NO  Na2[Fe(NO)(CN)5] + NaCN
 (2)n1
2 190. (3) [Practical Chemistry]
2 1  2n1 Cu + H2S  CuS +2H+
2+

(black)
n  1  1
n=0 Pb + H2S  PbS+2H+
2+

176. (2) [NCERT-XII-I-72] (white)

177. (3) [NCERT-XII-I-79]
H  S K cal / mol

H  (Ea)f  (Ea)b

(Ea)b  15  5  10 Kcal / mol

178. (3) [NCERT-XII-I-79]
OH  (Ea)f  (Ea)b

20  30  (Ea)b

(Ea)b  30  20  50 kJ
179. (3) [NCERT-XII-I-106]
180. (2) [NCERT-XII-I-246]
181. (2) [Practical Chemistry]
Nessler’s reagent is
K2HgI4 + KOH
182. (3) [Practical Chemistry]
Zn + H2S  ZnS + 2H+
2+

183. (1) [Practical Chemistry]

Pb + 2Cl PbCl2
2+ –

But Ba2+ + 2Cl–  BaCl2 (Soluble)

184. (3) [Practical Chemistry]

Statement I:
Addition of NH4OH to an aqueous solution of BaCl2
in presence of NH 4Cl (excess) precipitates
Ba(OH)2
Statement II :
Ba(OH)2 is water soluble