Practice Test 2

The Exam

AP® Biology Exam

SECTION I: Multiple-Choice Questions

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

Instructions

At a Glance Section I of this examination contains 69 multiple-choice questions. These are broken down
into Part A (63 multiple-choice questions) and Part B (6 grid-in questions).
Total Time Indicate all of your answers to the multiple-choice questions on the answer sheet. No credit
1 hour and 30 minutes will be given for anything written in this exam booklet, but you may use the booklet for notes
Number of Questions or scratch work. After you have decided which of the suggested answers is best, completely
69 fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. Give only one answer to each question. If
Percent of Total Score you change an answer, be sure that the previous mark is erased completely. Here is a sample
50% question and answer.
Writing Instrument Sample Question Sample Answer
Pencil required
Chicago is a A B C D

(A) state
(B) city
(C) country
(D) continent

Use your time effectively, working as quickly as you can without losing accuracy. Do not
spend too much time on any one question. Go on to other questions and come back to the
ones you have not answered if you have time. It is not expected that everyone will know the
answers to all the multiple-choice questions.

About Guessing
Many candidates wonder whether or not to guess the answers to questions about which
they are not certain. Multiple-choice scores are based on the number of questions answered
correctly. Points are not deducted for incorrect answers, and no points are awarded for
unanswered questions. Because points are not deducted for incorrect answers, you are
encouraged to answer all multiple-choice questions. On any questions you do not know the
answer to, you should eliminate as many choices as you can, and then select the best answer
among the remaining choices.

Practice Test 2 | 349

 Section I

BIOLOGY
SECTION I
69 Questions
Time—90 minutes

Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by four suggested answers or completions. Select the
one that is best in each case and then fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

1. In general, animal cells differ from plant cells in that only Questions 5–6 refer to the following passage.
animal cells
(A) perform cellular respiration.
(B) contain transcription factors. Consider the following pathway of reactions catalyzed by
enzymes (shown in numbers):
(C) do not contain vacuoles.
(D) lyse when placed in a hypotonic solution. 1 2 3 4 5
A B C D E F
6
7
2. A cell from the leaf of the aquatic plant Elodea was
X Y
soaked in a 15 percent sugar solution, and its contents
soon separated from the cell wall and formed a mass in
the center of the cell. All of the following statements are 5. Which of the following situations represents feedback
true about this event EXCEPT inhibition?

(A) the vacuole lost water and became smaller (A) Protein D activating enzyme 4
(B) the space between the cell wall and the cell (B) Protein B stimulating enzyme 1
membrane expanded (C) Protein 7 inhibiting enzyme C
(C) the large vacuole contained a solution with much (D) Protein X inhibiting enzyme 2
lower water potential than that of the sugar
solution 6. An increase in substance F leads to the inhibition of en-
(D) the concentration of solutes in the extracellular zyme 3. All of the following are direct or indirect results
environment is hypertonic with respect to the of the process EXCEPT
cell’s interior
(A) an increase in substance X
(B) increased activity of enzyme 6
3. A chemical agent is found to denature (C) decreased activity of enzyme 4
acetylcholinesterase in the synaptic cleft. What effect (D) increased activity of enzyme 5
will this agent have on the neurotransmitter,
acetylcholine?
7. If a competitive inhibitor is bound to enzyme 1, which of
(A) Acetylcholine will not be released from the the following would be decreased?
presynaptic membrane.
I. Protein A
(B) Acetylcholine will not bind to receptor proteins on
the postsynaptic membrane. II. Protein C
(C) Acetylcholine will not diffuse across the cleft to the III. Protein X
postsynaptic membrane.
(A) I only
(D) Acetylcholine will not be degraded in the synaptic
(B) II only
cleft.
(C) II and III
(D) I, II, and III
4. The base composition of DNA varies from one species to
another. Which of the following ratios would you expect
to remain constant in the DNA?
(A) Cytosine : Adenine
(B) Pyrimidine : Purine
(C) Adenine : Guanine
(D) Guanine : Deoxyribose
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 Section I

Questions 8–11 refer to the following passage. 11. How much pO2 would it take in an extremely CO2-rich
environment to saturate hemoglobin 90 percent?
The affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen is reduced by
many factors, including low pH and high CO2. The graph (A) 15
below shows the different dissociation curves that maternal (B) 30
(normal) hemoglobin and fetal hemoglobin have. (C) 45
(D) 60

Fetal 12. All of the following are differences between prokaryotes

100
and eukaryotes EXCEPT
90 (A) eukaryotes have linear chromosomes, while
80 Maternal prokaryotes have circular chromosomes
Percent Saturation of Hemoglobin

(B) eukaryotes possess double-stranded DNA, while

70 prokaryotes possess single-stranded DNA
(C) eukaryotes process their mRNA, while in
60
prokaryotes, transcription and translation occur
50 simultaneously
(D) eukaryotes contain membrane-bound organelles,
40 while prokaryotes do not
30

20 13. In minks, the gene for brown fur (B) is dominant over the
gene for silver fur (b). Which set of genotypes represents
10 a cross that could produce offspring with silver fur from
parents that both have brown fur?
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 (A) BB × BB
pO2(mm Hg) (B) BB × Bb
(C) Bb × Bb
(D) Bb × bb
8. Based on the graph, it can be concluded that
(A) fetal hemoglobin surrenders O2 more readily than 14. All viruses contain at least these two principal
maternal hemoglobin components:
(B) the dissociation curve of fetal hemoglobin is to the (A) DNA and proteins
right of maternal hemoglobin (B) nucleic acids and a capsid
(C) fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for O2 than (C) DNA and a cell membrane
does maternal hemoglobin (D) RNA and a cell wall
(D) fetal and maternal hemoglobin differ in structure

15. All of the following are examples of hydrolysis EXCEPT

9. Which of the following processes would likely shift the
normal dissociation curve to the right? (A) conversion of fats to fatty acids and glycerol
(B) conversion of proteins to amino acids
(A) Photosynthesis (C) conversion of starch to simple sugars
(B) Respiration (D) conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl-CoA
(C) Fermentation
(D) Mitosis
16. In cells, which of the following can catalyze reactions
involving hydrogen peroxide, provide cellular energy, and
10. Hemoglobin’s affinity for O2 make proteins, in that order?
(A) decreases as blood pH decreases (A) Peroxisomes, mitochondria, and ribosomes
(B) increases as H+ concentration increases (B) Peroxisomes, mitochondria, and lysosomes
(C) increases as blood pH decreases (C) Peroxisomes, mitochondria, and Golgi apparatus
(D) decreases as OH− concentration increases (D) Lysosomes, chloroplasts, and ribosomes

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Practice Test 2 | 351

 Section I

Questions 17 and 18 refer to the following passage. 19. If an inhibitor of anti-diuretic hormone, such as caffeine,
The Loop of Henle is a structure within each of the was ingested, what would be the result?
million nephrons within a kidney. As shown in the figure, (A) Aquaporins would appear in the collecting duct.
the two sides have different permeabilities, and there is (B) Aquaporins would increase in number in the
differential movement across each membrane. The Loop collecting duct.
acts as a counter-current multiplier that makes the medulla (C) It would block aquaporins like a competitive
of the kidney very osmotic. The longer the loop, the higher inhibitor.
and more powerful the osmolarity gradient that is created. (D) Aquaporins would not appear in the collecting duct.
The gradient is required for the reclamation of water from
the urine collecting duct. On the right side of the figure is
20. The ability to reclaim water from the collecting duct is
the urine collecting duct. If the body needs to retain water,
directly related to the osmotic pull of the medulla. Kan-
anti-diuretic hormone makes this region permeable to
garoo rats are know to produce extremely concentrated
water via the introduction of aquaporins, and the osmotic
urine. Compared to a human, the nephrons in kangaroo
pull of the medulla reclaims the water, out of the collecting
rats must have
duct, which makes the urine more concentrated.
(A) thick walls that are impermeable to water
Filtrate (B) shorter Loops of Henle
Va od v
Bl

entering (C) longer Loops of Henle

sa ess
o

kidney
(D) shorter collecting ducts
rec els

Ions actively
ta

pumped
Normally
Ascending limb
Descending limb

impermeable
to water Questions 21 and 22 refer to the following graph.
Collecting Duct

The graph below shows two growth curves for bacterial

Water flow
cultures, A and B.

1,000,000
Osmotic Osmotic Osmotic
medulla medulla medulla
100,000
Number of Bacteria

10,000

1,000 A B

17. Which of the following statements correctly describes the 100

state of things near the top of the descending limb?
10
(A) The fluid within the descending limb is hypotonic to
Time
fluid in the space surrounding the tubule.
(B) The blood within the vasa recta is hypotonic to the
filtrate within the descending limb.
21. Which of the following represents the carrying capacity
(C) The fluid in the area surrounding the tubule is
for culture B?
hypertonic to the blood in the vasa recta.
(D) The water in the area surrounding the tubule has (A) 10
a higher water potential than the water in the (B) 50
descending tubule. (C) 100,000
(D) 1,000,000

18. What type of transport is occurring when water flows out

of the descending tubule? 22. What could explain the differnce between culture A and
culture B?
(A) Simple diffusion
(B) Facilitated diffusion (A) Culture B started with more bacteria than culture A.
(C) Active transport (B) Culture A was grown with a competitive inhibitor.
(D) Secondary active transport (C) Culture B was not measured as often.
(D) Culture A has not yet exhausted its space and
resources.

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 Section I

23. In plants, the process of phototropism would be best Questions 30–32 refer to the following passage.
exemplified by The following are important pieces of replication and
(A) a sunflower photographed pointing one direction in transcription machinery:
the morning and another direction at night.
(B) a vine climbing and twisting around a trellis. Double helix DNA polymerase
(C) a flowering tree that blooms only in the springtime.
(D) a flower that changes color to attract more pollinators. RNA polymerase
Unwound double helix
Enhancer
24. Females with Turner’s syndrome have a high incidence of Single strand of DNA
hemophilia, a recessive, X-linked trait. Based on this infor- Single strand of RNA Repressor
mation, it can be inferred that females with this condition
(A) have an extra X chromosome
(B) have an extra Y chromosome 30. Which of the following figures would be present without
(C) have one less X chromosome than normal helicase?
(D) have one less Y chromosome than normal (A)

(B)
25. When a retrovirus inserted its DNA into the middle of a
bacterial gene, it altered the normal reading frame by one
base pair. This type of mutation is called (C)
(A) duplication
(B) translocation (D)
(C) inversion
(D) frameshift mutation
31. What situation might have occurred to produce the fol-
lowing situation?
26. The principal inorganic compound found in living things
is
(A) carbon
(B) oxygen
(C) water
(D) glucose (A) Stalled DNA replication
(B) Initiation of transcription
(C) Repression of transcription
27. Metafemale syndrome, a disorder in which a female has (D) Crossing-over in meiosis
an extra X chromosome, is the result of nondisjunction.
This failure in oogenesis would first be apparent when
32. Put these four situations in the correct order:
(A) the homologous chromosomes are lined up in the
middle I.
(B) the sister chromatids are lined up in the middle
(C) the nuclear envelope breaks down before meiosis II.
(D) the homologous chromosomes are pulling apart

III.
28. All of the following are modes of asexual reproduction
EXCEPT
(A) sporulation IV.
(B) fission
(C) budding
(D) meiosis (A) I, III, IV, II
(B) I, IV ,II, III
(C) IV, I, III, II
29. Invertebrate immune systems possess which of the (D) I, III, II, IV
following?
(A) Killer T-cells
(B) Phagocytes GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
(C) B-cells
(D) Helper T-cells
Practice Test 2 | 353
 Section I

33. Photosynthesis requires 39. Lampreys attach to the skin of lake trout and absorb
(A) glucose, light, CO2 nutrients from its body. This relationship is an example of
(B) light, CO2, water (A) commensalism
(C) water, soil, O2 (B) parasitism
(D) O2, water, light (C) mutualism
(D) gravitropism
34. Which of following conclusions was made by Avery,
MacLeod, and McCarty? 40. The nucleotide sequence of a template DNA molecule is
(A) The double helix is the structure of a DNA molecule. 5'-C-A-T-3'. A mRNA molecule with a complementary
(B) DNA is the hereditary material. codon is transcribed from the DNA. What would the
(C) DNA replication is semi-conservative. sequence of the anticodon that binds to this mRNA be?
(D) DNA polymerase adds bases to only the 3' side of (A) 5'-G-T-A-3'
DNA. (B) 5'-G-U-A-3'
(C) 5'-C-A-U-3'
(D) 5'-U-A-C-3'
35. Which of the following processes occur in the cytoplasm
of an eukaryotic cell?
I. DNA replication 41. Viruses are considered an exception to the cell theory
because they
II. Transcription
(A) are not independent organisms
III. Translation (B) have only a few genes
(A) I only (C) move about via their tails
(B) III only (D) have evolved from ancestral protists
(C) II and III only
(D) I, II, and III

36. Crossing-over during meiosis permits scientists to

determine
(A) the chance for variation in zygotes
(B) the rate of mutations
(C) the distance between genes on a chromosome
(D) which traits are dominant or recessive

37. An animal cell that is permeable to water but not salts

has an internal NaCl concentration of 10%. If placed in
freshwater the cell will
(A) plasmolyze
(B) swell and eventually lyse
(C) endocytose water into a large central vacuole
(D) shrivel

38. Three distinct bird species, flicker, woodpecker, and elf

owl, all inhabit a large cactus, Cereus giganteus, in the
desert of Arizona. Since competition among these birds
rarely occurs, the most likely explanation for this phe-
nomenon is that these birds
(A) have a short supply of resources
(B) have different ecological niches
(C) do not live together long
(D) are unable to breed

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 Section I

Questions 42–44 refer to the following passage. 45. The sequence of amino acids in hemoglobin molecules of
It is difficult to determine exactly how life began. humans is more similar to that of chimpanzees than it is
Answer the following questions as if the following data to the hemoglobin of dogs. This similarity suggests that
had been collected billions of years ago. (A) humans and dogs are more closely related than
humans and chimpanzees
4 3.5 3.25 3 (B) humans and chimpanzees are more closely related
billion billion billion billion than humans and dogs
years years years years (C) humans are related to chimpanzees but not to dogs
ago ago ago ago (D) humans and chimpanzees are closely analogous
Atmospheric Present Present Present Present
carbon dioxide
46. Two individuals, one with type B blood and one with type
Atmospheric Absent Absent Absent Present AB blood, have a child. The probability that the child has
oxygen type O blood is
RNA Absent Present Present Present (A) 0%
Protein Absent Absent Present Present (B) 25%
DNA Absent Absent Present Present (C) 50%
(D) 100%
Life Absent Present Present Present

Questions 47 and 48 refer to the following bar graph, which

shows the relative biomass of four different populations of a
42. Which best describes the origin of life according to the
particular food pyramid.
data?
(A) Life required an environment with atmospheric
oxygen and any type of nucleic acids.
(B) Life required an environment with atmospheric Relative Biomass
carbon dioxide, but not atmospheric oxygen. Population A
(C) Life required an environment with self-replicating Population B
nucleic acids that can take on many shapes. Population C
(D) Life required an environment with nucleic acids and
proteins, but not atmospheric oxygen.
Population D

43. When is the earliest that functional ribosomes could have

been found? 47. The largest amount of energy is available to
(A) Between 4 billion and 3.5 billion years ago (A) population A
(B) Between 3.5 billion and 3.25 billion years ago (B) population B
(C) Between 3.25 billion and 3 billion years ago (C) population C
(D) Between 3 billion years ago and the present (D) population D

44. Photosynthesis likely began_______ billion years ago 48. Which of the following would be the most likely result
when the first ____________ appeared. if there was an increase in the number of organisms in
population C?
(A) 4.5; autotrophs
(B) 3.2; autotrophs (A) The biomass of population D will remain the same.
(C) 3.5; heterotrophs (B) The biomass of population B will decrease.
(D) 3.2; heterotroph (C) The biomass of population A will steadily decrease.
(D) The food source available to population C would
increase.

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Practice Test 2 | 355

 Section I

Questions 49–52 refer to the following illustration and 50. In mammalian cells, the first sign of mitosis beginning is the
information. (A) appearance of chromosomes
(B) separation of chromatids
The cell cycle is a series of events in the life of a dividing (C) disappearance of the cell membrane
eukaryotic cell. It consists of four stages: G1, S, G2, and (D) replication of chromosomes
M. The duration of the cell cycle varies from one species
to another and from one cell type to another. The G1 phase
51. If the cell cycle fails to progress, which of the following
varies the most. For example, embryonic cells can pass
is NOT a possible explanation?
through the G1 phase so quickly that it hardly exists, whereas
neurons are arrested in the cell cycle and do not divide. (A) There are inadequate phosphate groups available for
the cyclin dependent kinase.
G1 (B) A tumor suppressor gene has signaled for apoptosis.
(C) A cyclin is unable to release from its cyclin
M
(mitosis) 10 dependent kinase.
h o (D) An inhibitor of a cyclin gene has been highly
ur

expressed.
s
4 hours

52. Since neurons are destined never to divide again, what

conclusion can be made?
(A) These cells will go through cell division.
(B) These cells will be permanently arrested in the G1
phase.
(C) These cells will be permanently arrested in the M
9 hours phase.
G2
(D) These cells will quickly enter the S phase.
S

49. During which phase do chromosomes replicate?

(A) G1
(B) S
(C) G2
(D) M

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 Section I

Questions 53–56 refer to the following graphs, which show the permeability of (P) ions during an action potential in a ventricular
contractile cardiac fiber. The left graph shows the membrane potential changes, and the right shows the corresponding ion
permeabilities over the time frame of the action potential.

+20 100
Membrane Potential (mV)

Relative Permeability
PNa+
–20 10
PCa2+
–40

–60 1
PK+

–80

–100 0.1
0.0 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.0 0.1 0.2 0.3
Time (sec) Time (sec)

53. Based on the graph, the resting membrane potential of the 55. In cardiac fibers, the duration of an action potential is
muscle fibers is closest to approximately
(A) –90 mV (A) 0.10 secs
(B) –70 mV (B) 0.20 secs
(C) 0 mV (C) 0.25 secs
(D) +70 mV (D) 0.30 secs

54. Which of the following statements is true concerning the 56. The action potential of skeletal muscle cells is much
initial phase of depolarization? shorter than that of cardiac cells. Which of the following
(A) Voltage-gated K+ channels open in the plasma facts about cardiac muscle best explains this?
membrane. (A) The membrane is permeable to Na+, not K+.
(B) The concentration of Ca2+ ions within the plasma (B) Voltage-gated K+ channels open during
membrane becomes more negative. depolarization, not repolarization.
(C) The membrane potential stays close to –40 mV. (C) Depolarization is prolonged compared to that in
(D) The permeability to Na+ ions increases. skeletal muscle fibers.
(D) The refractory period is shorter than that of skeletal
muscle fibers.

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Practice Test 2 | 357

 Section I

Questions 57 and 58 refer to the data below concerning the general animal body plan of four organisms.

Characteristic Sea anemone Hagfish Eel Salamander

Vertebral column + + +

Jaws + +

Walking legs +

Note: + indicates a feature present in an organism.

57. The two most closely related organisms are 59. Pre- and post-zygotic barriers exist that prevent two dif-
(A) sea anemone and hagfish ferent species from producing viable offspring. All of the
(B) eel and salamander following are pre-zygotic barriers EXCEPT
(C) hagfish and eel (A) anatomical differences preventing copulation
(D) sea anemone and salamander (B) different temporality of mating
(C) sterility of offspring
(D) incompatible mating songs
58. The correct order of evolution for the traits
above is
(A) jaws – vertebral column – walking legs 60. Birds and insects have both adapted wings to travel by
(B) walking legs – jaws – vertebral column flight. The wings of birds and insects are an example of
(C) jaws – walking legs – vertebral column (A) divergent evolution
(D) vertebral column – jaws – walking legs (B) convergent evolution
(C) speciation
(D) genetic drift

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 Section I

Questions 61–63 refer to the following synthetic pathway of 61. Which of the following is true when the level of CTP is
nRNA pyrimidine, cytidine 5′ triphosphate, CTP. This pathway low in a cell?
begins with the condensation of two small molecules by the (A) CTP is converted to ATCase.
enzyme aspartate transcarbamylase (ATCase). (B) The metabolic traffic down the pathway increases.
(C) ATCase is inhibited, which slows down CTP
OH synthesis.
NH2 C O P OH (D) The final product of the pathway is reduced.

O O
Carbamyl 62. This enzymatic phenomenon is an example of
phosphate
+ NH (A) transcription
2
(B) feedback inhibition
HOOC CH2 CH COOH (C) dehydration synthesis
Aspartic (D) photosynthesis
acid
Aspartate
High CTP
transcarbamylase 63. The biosynthesis of cytidine 5′-triphosphate requires
(ATCase)
(A) a ribose sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen
O base
HO
C (B) a deoxyribose sugar, a phosphate group, and a
H2N CH2 nitrogen base
O C HC COOH (C) a ribose sugar, phosphate groups, and a nitrogen
base
N
(D) a deoxyribose sugar, phosphate groups, and a
H
nitrogen base
N–Carbamyl
aspartic acid

L–Dihydroorotic acid

Orotic acid

Orotidine 5'–phosphate
O

O N
OH
HO P O CH2
O
O

OH OH
Uridine 5'–phosphate (UMP)

Uridine 5'–triphosphate (UTP)

Cytidine 5'–triphosphate (CTP)

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Practice Test 2 | 359

 Section I

Directions: Part B consists of questions requiring numeric answers. Calculate the correct answer for each question.

64. In a diploid organism with the genotype 65. Under favorable conditions, bacteria divide every 20
AaBbCCDDEE, how many genetically distinct minutes. If a single bacterium replicated according to this
kinds of gametes would be produced? condition, how many bacterial cells would one expect to
find at the end of three hours?

/ / /
− . . . . . / / /
− . . . . .
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 0

2 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 1

3 3 3 3 3 2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5 4 4 4 4 4

6 6 6 6 6 5 5 5 5 5

7 7 7 7 7 6 6 6 6 6

8 8 8 8 8 7 7 7 7 7

9 9 9 9 9 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9

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 Section I

66. In snapdragon plants that display intermediate dominance, 67. Translation is an energy-intensive process. Each tRNA
the allele CR produces red flowers and CW produces that brings an amino acid costs 2 ATP to make. Every co-
white flowers. If a homozygous, red-flowered snapdragon don that binds in the ribosome costs 1 ATP. There is also a
is crossed with a homozygous, white-flowered snapdrag- cost of 1 ATP every time the mRNA must shift to the next
on, what will the percentage of pink offspring be? codon. Approximately how many ATPs are required to
synthesize a protein containing 115 amino acids?

/ / /
− . . . . . / / /
− . . . . .
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 0

2 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 1

3 3 3 3 3 2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5 4 4 4 4 4

6 6 6 6 6 5 5 5 5 5

7 7 7 7 7 6 6 6 6 6

8 8 8 8 8 7 7 7 7 7

9 9 9 9 9 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9

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Practice Test 2 | 361

 Section I

Question 68 refers to the following experiment. 68. What is the total number of offspring born in the 0.5-liter
jar on the twentieth day?
A group of Daphnia, small crustaceans known as water
fleas, was placed in one of three culture jars of different
sizes to determine their reproductive rate. There were 100
/ / /
females in the jar. The graph below shows the average
. . . . .
number of offspring produced per female each day in each −
jar of pond water. 0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4 4
Average Number of Offspring

5 5 5 5 5
per Female per Day

A 6 6 6 6 6
3
7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8
2 9 9 9 9 9

1 B

C
0
0 10 20 30 40 50

Time (days)

Key: A Water fleas in a 1-liter jar of pond water

B Water fleas in a 0.5-liter jar of pond water
C Water fleas in a 0.25-liter jar of pond water

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362 | Cracking the AP Biology Exam

 Section I

69. On average, there is a 90 percent reduction of energy

available for each trophic level. Based on this informa-
tion, 10,000 pounds of grass should be able to support
how many pounds of crickets?

/ / /
− . . . . .
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9

STOP

END OF SECTION I

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS
SECTION. DO NOT GO ON TO SECTION II UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

Practice Test 2 | 363

 Section
Section II
I

BIOLOGY
SECTION II
8 Questions
Planning Time—10 minutes
Writing Time—80 minutes

Directions: Questions 1 and 2 are long free-response questions that should require about 22 minutes each to answer and are worth
10 points each. Questions 3 through 8 are short free-response questions that should require about 6 minutes each to answer.
Questions 3 through 5 are worth 4 points each, and questions 6 through 8 are worth 3 points each.

Read each question carefully and completely. Write your response in the space provided following each question. Only material
written in the space provided will be scored. Answers must be written out in paragraph form. Outlines, bulleted lists, or diagrams
alone are not acceptable.

1. Chlorophyll is one of a class of pigments that absorb light energy in photosynthesis.

(a) Describe the function of chlorophyll and what is meant by its absorption spectrum.
(b) Design an experiment to investigate the absorption spectrum of a pigment given to you in a solution and make a mock
graph. Using the mock results of your experiment, what color should the pigment appear as?

2. Natural selection is said to act on individuals, but evolution occurs in populations. Explain each process and show that the state-
ment is true using an example with individuals in a population. Identify variation within the population. Identify a selective
pressure. Create a graph illustrating the changes to the population makeup over time.

3. Describe the structural nature of genes. Name two types of gene mutations that could occur during replication.

4. In large multicellular organisms, signaling is necessary to maintain homeostasis. Compare and contrast the endocrine system
and the nervous system with a focus on how they send signals.

5. Describe why fermentation is a less efficient way to produce energy than aerobic respiration.

6. Define analogous structures and describe how similar selective pressures can occur in two unrelated species.

7. Describe symbiosis and give an example involving humans.

8. Genes can be transferred from parent to offspring, but there are many other ways that they can be transferred, either naturally
or using biotechnology. Describe two ways that genes can be transferred and explain why these types of transfers are helpful.

STOP

END OF EXAM

364 | Cracking the AP Biology Exam

 Completely darken bubbles with a No. 2 pencil. If you make a mistake, be sure to erase mark completely. Erase all stray marks.

1. YOUR NAME: ____________________________________________________________________________________ 5. YOUR NAME

(Print) Last First M.I. First 4 letters of last name FIRST MID
INIT INIT
SIGNATURE: _____________________________________________________________ DATE: __________________

HOME ADDRESS: __________________________________________________________________________________ A A A A A A

(Print) Number and Street B B B B B B

____________________________________________________________________________________________________ C C C C C C
City State Zip Code D D D D D D
PHONE NO. : _______________________________________________________________________________________ E E E E E E
(Print)
F F F F F F
G G G G G G
IMPORTANT: Please fill in these boxes exactly as shown on the back cover of your test book. H H H H H H
I I I I I I
2. TEST FORM 3. TEST CODE 4. REGISTRATION NUMBER
J J J J J J
K K K K K K
0 A 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 L L L L L L
6. DATE OF BIRTH
1 B 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 M M M M M M
Month Day Year 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
2 C N N N N N N
JAN 3 D 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 O O O O O O
FEB 4 E 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 P P P P P P
MAR 0 0 0 0 5 F 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 Q Q Q Q Q Q
APR 1 1 1 1 6 G 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 R R R R R R
MAY 2 2 2 2 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 S S S S S S
JUN 3 3 3 3 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 T T T T T T
JUL 4 4 4 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 U U U U U U
AUG 5 5 5 V V V V V V
SEP 6 6 6 7. SEX W W W W W W
OCT 7 7 7 MALE X X X X X X
NOV 8 8 8 FEMALE Y Y Y Y Y Y
DEC 9 9 9 Z Z Z Z Z Z

1 A B C D 17 A B C D 33 A B C D 49 A B C D
2 A B C D 18 A B C D 34 A B C D 50 A B C D
3 A B C D 19 A B C D 35 A B C D 51 A B C D
4 A B C D 20 A B C D 36 A B C D 52 A B C D
5 A B C D 21 A B C D 37 A B C D 53 A B C D
6 A B C D 22 A B C D 38 A B C D 54 A B C D
7 A B C D 23 A B C D 39 A B C D 55 A B C D
8 A B C D 24 A B C D 40 A B C D 56 A B C D
9 A B C D 25 A B C D 41 A B C D 57 A B C D
10 A B C D 26 A B C D 42 A B C D 58 A B C D
11 A B C D 27 A B C D 43 A B C D 59 A B C D
12 A B C D 28 A B C D 44 A B C D 60 A B C D
13 A B C D 29 A B C D 45 A B C D 61 A B C D
14 A B C D 30 A B C D 46 A B C D 62 A B C D
15 A B C D 31 A B C D 47 A B C D 63 A B C D
16 A B C D 32 A B C D 48 A B C D

64 65 66 67 68 69

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− . . . . . − . . . . . − . . . . . − . . . . . − . . . . . − . . . . .
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1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
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6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9