Class X Maths Minimum Study Material 2024 25
Class X Maths Minimum Study Material 2024 25
Class – X
Mathematics
Minimum Level Study Material
1. Consider the numbers 4𝑛 , 6𝑛 , 12𝑛 , where n is a natural number. Check whether there is any
value of n for which 4𝑛 , 6𝑛 , 12𝑛 ends with the digit zero.
2. Explain why 7 × 11 × 13 + 13 and 7 × 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 + 5 are composite nos.
13. If 𝛼 and 𝛽are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 2 – 2𝑥– 8, then find the value of
1 1
(i) 𝛼 − 𝛽 (ii) 𝛼 2 + 𝛽 2 (iii) − (iv) 𝛼𝛽 2 + 𝛼 2 𝛽
𝛼 𝛽
1 1 1 1
(v) + (vi) + – 𝛼𝛽
𝛼 𝛽 𝛼 𝛽
14. If 𝛼 and 𝛽 are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 2 – 2𝑥 + 3, then find a quadratic
polynomial whose zeroes are 𝛼 + 2 and 𝛽 + 2.
15. If the 3rd and the 9th terms of an AP are 4 and – 8 respectively, which term of this AP is zero?
16. Which term of the AP: 3, 15, 27, 39, . . . will be 132 more than its 54th term?
17. How many multiples of 4 lie between 10 and 250?
18. For what value of n, are the nth terms of two APs: 63, 65, 67, . . . and 3, 10, 17, ... equal?
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19. Determine the AP whose third term is 16 and the 7th term exceeds the 5th term by 12.
20. Find the sum of first 24 terms of the list of numbers whose nth term is given by 𝑎𝑛 = 3 + 2𝑛.
21. Find the sums given below: (–5) + (–8) + (–11) + . . . + (–230)
22. In an A.P. given a = 2, d = 8, 𝑆𝑛 = 90, find n and 𝑎𝑛 .
23. If the sum of first 7 terms of an AP is 49 and that of 17 terms is 289, find the sum of first n terms.
24. Find the sum of all three-digit natural numbers which are multiples of 7.
25. Find the sum of all-natural number between 100 and 500 which are divisible by 7.
26. The sum of n terms of an AP is (5𝑛2 – 3n). Find the AP and hence find its nth term.
5𝑛2 3𝑛
27. The sum of n terms of an AP is + Find its 20th term
2 2
28. A sum of Rs 700 is to be used to give seven cash prizes to students of a school for their overall
academic performance. If each prize is Rs 20 less than its preceding prize, find the value of each
of the prizes.
29. 200 logs are stacked in the following manner: 20 logs in the bottom row, 19 in the next row, 18
in the row next to it and so on. In how many rows are the 200 logs placed and how many logs
are in the top row?
30. Which term of the AP: 121, 117, 113. . . is its first negative term?
31. The sum of four consecutive numbers in an AP is 32 and the ratio of the product of the first and
the last terms to the product of the two middle terms is 7 : 15. Find the numbers.
32. Solve the equations:
(i) 152x – 378y = – 74 (ii) x – 3y – 7 = 0
–378x + 152y = – 604 3x – 3y – 15 = 0
33. For what values of k will the following pair of linear equations have infinitely many solutions?
𝑘𝑥 + 3𝑦 – (𝑘 – 3) = 0 ; 12𝑥 + 𝑘𝑦 – 𝑘 = 0
34. Find the value of k, so that the following system of equations has a unique solution:
a) 𝑥 − 2𝑦 = 3; 3𝑥 + 𝑘𝑦 = 1.
b) 𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 5; 3𝑥 + 𝑘𝑦 + 15=0.
35. Draw the graphs of the equations x – y + 1 = 0 and 3x + 2y – 12 = 0. Determine the coordinates
of the vertices of the triangle formed by these lines and the x-axis, and shade the triangular
region.
36. The larger of two supplementary angles exceeds the smaller by 18 degrees. Find them.
37. The ratio of incomes of two persons is 9 : 7 and the ratio of their expenditures is 4 : 3. If each of
them manages to save Rs 2000 per month, find their monthly incomes.
38. The sum of a two-digit number and the number obtained by reversing the digits is 66. If the
digits of the number differ by 2, find the number. How many such numbers are there?
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39. A two-digit number is such that the product of its digits is 12. When 36 is added to the number,
the digits are reversed. Find the number.
40. The area of a rectangle gets reduced by 9 square units, if its length is reduced by 5 units and
breadth is increased by 3 units. If we increase the length by 3 units and the breadth by 2 units,
the area increases by 67 square units. Find the dimensions of the rectangle.
41. A train covered a certain distance at a uniform speed. If the train would have been 10 km/h
faster, it would have taken 2 hours less than the scheduled time. And, if the train were slower
by 10 km/h; it would have taken 3 hours more than the scheduled time. Find the distance
covered by the train.
42. Find the coordinates of the points which divide the line segment joining A(– 2, 2) and B(2, 8)
into four equal parts.
43. Find a point on the y-axis which is equidistant from the points A(6, 5) and B(– 4, 3).
44. Check whether (5, – 2), (6, 4) and (7, – 2) are the vertices of an isosceles triangle.
45. Find the values of y for which the distance between the points P(2, – 3) and Q(10, y) is 10 units.
46. If (1, 2), (4, y), (x, 6) and (3, 5) are the vertices of a parallelogram taken in order, find x and y
47. Find the coordinates of the point R on the line segment joining the points P (–1, 3) and Q (2, 5)
3
such that 𝑃𝑅 = 5 𝑃𝑄.
48. The tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact,
Prove it.
49. A tangent PQ at a point P of a circle of radius 5 cm meets a line through the center O at a point
Q so that OQ = 12 cm. Find the length PQ.
50. Prove that the lengths of tangents drawn from an external point toa circle are equal.
51. Two tangents TP and TQ are drawn to a circle with center O from an external point T. Prove
that ∠ PTQ = 2 ∠ OPQ
52. PQ is a chord of length 8 cm of a circle of radius 5 cm. The tangents at P and Q intersect at a
point T. Find the length TP.
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53. Prove that the perpendicular at the point of contact to the tangent to a circle passes through the
centre. A quadrilateral ABCD is drawn to circumscribe a circle. Prove that AB + CD = AD + BC.
54. In Fig, XY and X’Y’are two parallel tangents to a circle with centre O and another tangent AB
with point of contact C intersecting XY at A and X’Y’at B. Prove that ∠AOB = 90°.
56. A chord of a circle of radius 10 cm subtends a right angle at the centre. Find the area of the
corresponding : (i) minor segment (ii) major sector. (Use = 3.14)
57. In a circle of radius 21 cm, an arc subtends an angle of 60° at the centre. Find: (i) the length of
the arc (ii) area of the sector formed by the arc (iii) area of the segment formed by the
corresponding chord.
58. A round table cover has six equal designs as shown in Fig. If the
radius of the cover is 28 cm, find the cost of making the designs
59. PQRS is a diameter of a circle of radius 6 cm. The lengths PQ, QR and RS are equal. Semicircles
are drawn on PQ and QS as diameters as shown in above right sided figure. Find the perimeter
and area of the shaded region.
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60. In the figure, ABCD is a trapezium with AB || DC, AB = 18 cm, DC = 32 cm and distance
between AB and DC = 14 cm. If arcs of equal radii 7 cm with centres A, B, C and D have been
drawn, then find the area of the shaded region.
61. The perimeter of a certain sector of a circle of radius 6.5 cm is 31 cm. Find the area of the sector.
62. Find the area of a quadrant of a circle whose circumference is 22 cm.
63. Write the empirical relationship between mean, median and mode.
64. Find the mean of the distribution:
Class 1-3 3-5 5-7 7-9
Frequency 9 22 27 17
65. Find the mean number of pages written per day. Weekly income of 600 families is as under:
Income 0-1000 1000-2000 2000-3000 3000-4000 4000-5000 5000-6000
Families 250 190 100 40 15 5
Compute the median income.
66. Find the Median, Modal marks from the following data:
Marks Below 10 Below 20 Below 30 Below 40 Below 50
No. of Students 15 45 90 102 120
67. Find the median marks for the following distribution:
Marks 11-15 16-20 21-25 26-30 31-35 36-40 41-45 46-50
No. of Students 2 3 6 7 14 12 4 2
68. The mean of the following distribution is 18. The frequency 𝑓 in the class interval 19-21 is
missing. Determine 𝑓.
Class 11-13 13-15 15-17 17-19 19-21 21-23 23-25
Frequency 3 6 9 13 𝑓 5 4
69. The mean of the following frequency distribution is 57.6 and the sum of the observations is 50.
Find 𝑓1 and 𝑓2 .
Class 0-20 20-40 40-60 60-80 80-100 100-120
Frequency 7 𝑓1 12 𝑓2 8 5
70. If the median of the distribution given below is 28.5, find the values of 𝑥 and 𝑦.
C.I 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 Total
F 5 𝑥 20 15 𝑦 5 60
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71. If 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝜃 = √10 , find the value of all T– ratios of 𝜃.
72. In ∆ PQR, right-angled at Q, PR + QR = 25 cm and PQ = 5 cm. Determine the values of sin P,
cos P and tan P.
1
73. If tan (A + B) = √3 and tan (A – B) = ; 0° < A + B ≤ 90°; A > B, find A and B.
√3
74. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability that the sum of the numbers
appearing on the dice is (i) 7 ? (ii) a prime number ? (iii) 1 ?
75. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. Find the probability of getting
(a). an even number on first dice (b). an odd number on first dice
(c). an even number as the sum (d). a multiple of 5 as the sum
(e). a multiple of 7 as the sum (f). a multiple of 3 as the sum
(g). a sum more than 7 (h). a sum greater than 9
(i). neither the sum 9 nor sum 11 as the sum (j). a sum less than 6
76. All spades are removed from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards and then one card is drawn
randomly from the remaining cards. Find the probability of getting
(a) neither a heart nor a king (b) neither an ace nor a king
(c) neither a red card nor a queen card (d) a black card or an ace.
(e) either a heart or a spade card (f) a red card
(g) a black card (h) a spade card
77. Two coins are tossed simultaneously. Find the probability of getting
i). at least one head ii). at most one head
iii). exactly two head iv). exactly one head
v). no head vi). no tail
vii). at least one tail viii). at most one tail
78. Cards are marked with numbers 4, 5, 6, …….50 are placed in the box and mixed thoroughly.
One card is drawn at random from the box. What is the probability of getting
(a). a two-digit number (b). a perfect square number
(c). a number divisible by 5. (d). a number divisible by 2 or 3.
(e). a number divisible by 2 and 3. (f). a number divisible by 7.
(g). a number multiple of 8. (h). a two digit no divisible by 5.
79. Find the probability of getting 53 Fridays in a leap year.
80. Find the probability of getting 53 Fridays or 53 Saturdays in a leap year.
81. A letter is chosen at random from the letters of the word ‘INDEPENDENCE’. Find the
probability that the letter chosen is a (i) vowel (ii) consonant (iii) E (iv) N
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82. Computer-based learning (CBL) refers to any teaching methodology that makes use of
computers for information transmission. At an elementary school level, computer applications
can be used to display multimedia lesson plans. A survey was done on 1000 elementary and
secondary schools of Assam and they were classified by the number of computers they had.
Number of Computers 1-10 11-20 21-50 51-100 101 and more
85. In the below figure A, B and C are points on OP, OQ and OR respectively such that AB || PQ
and AC || PR. Show that BC || QR.
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